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    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agriculture
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Nutrition Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Arctic</EAR>
            <HD>Arctic Research Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Requests for Nominations, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88231</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25860</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Disease</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88281-88282</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25906</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicare Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Calendar Year 2025 Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update; Quality Reporting Program Requirements; Value-Based Purchasing Expanded Model Requirements; etc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88354-88485</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25441</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicare and Medicaid Programs:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Quarterly Listing of Program Issuances—July through September 2024, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88282-88294</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25874</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Security Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Corpus Christi Ship Channel, Corpus Christi, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88137-88139</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25891</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Economic Development Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institute of Standards and Technology</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commodity Futures</EAR>
            <HD>Commodity Futures Trading Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Provisions Common to Registered Entities, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88594-88629</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-24388</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Corporation</EAR>
            <HD>Corporation for National and Community Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Protection of Human Subjects; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88147</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25881</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Economic Development</EAR>
            <HD>Economic Development Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Requirements for Approved Construction Investments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88231-88232</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25901</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Technical Assistance on State Data Collection:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Individuals with Disabilities Education Act Data Management Center, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88185-88192</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25862</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88237-88254</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25896</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25897</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88254-88258</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25898</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25899</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New Hampshire; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan for the Second Implementation Period, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88139-88147</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25679</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Threshold Setting Data Needs for the Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88277-88278</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25880</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Toxic Substances Control Act Test Orders for Standardized Testing of Per-and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88278-88279</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25879</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Export Import</EAR>
            <HD>Export-Import Bank</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Applications for Long-Term Loans or Financial Guarantees in Excess of $100 million, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88280</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25884</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88279</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25870</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Safran Aerosystems (Formerly AVOX Systems Inc.; Scott Aviation) Oxygen Cylinder and Valve Assemblies, and Oxygen Valve Assemblies, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88115-88118</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25784</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airspace Designations and Reporting Points:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alaska, AK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88182-88183</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25855</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Edenton, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88181-88182</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25797</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kinston, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88177-88178</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25775</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Southwest United States, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88178-88180</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25706</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Windsor, NC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88184-88185</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25863</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus SAS Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88174-88177</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25783</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Piper Aircraft, Inc. Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88173-88174</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25883</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Publication of Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88340</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25707</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Waiver of Launch Collective Risk Limit for a Near-Orbital Trajectory, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88338-88340</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25851</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88280-88281</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25895</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Election</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Election Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88281</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25999</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Emergency</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Emergency Management Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Flood Hazard Determinations, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88297-88301</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25877</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25878</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Federal Energy
                <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88269-88274</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25847</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Colorado Interstate Gas Co., LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88258-88260</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25846</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Northbrook Hydro Carolina II, LLC; Revised Schedule, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88277</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25848</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88260-88269, 88274-88276</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25842</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25843</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25844</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25888</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25889</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Electronic Tariff Filings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Final Codes for Deployment, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88264</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25850</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Erie Boulevard Hydropower, LP, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88258</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25849</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fiske Hydro, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88276-88277</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25908</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Extension of Time:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Iroquois Gas Transmission System, LP, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88266-88267</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25845</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Filing:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Wisconsin Electric Power Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88276</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25909</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FFP Project 101, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88264</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25907</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Highway</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Highway Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Interstate System Access, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88118-88128</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25757</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Renewal Package from the State of Texas to the Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program and Proposed Second Renewed Memorandum of Understanding Assigning Environmental Responsibilities to the State, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88340-88342</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25890</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Fish</EAR>
            <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>National Wildlife Refuge System:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>2024-2025 Station-Specific Hunting and Sport Fishing Regulations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88147-88170</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25905</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Polar Bears during Specified Activities; North Slope, AK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88216-88229</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25762</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Klamath Basin Juvenile Salmon Monitoring Data System, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88301-88302</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25882</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Nutrition</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Hunger Clearinghouse Database Form, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88230-88231</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25833</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Approval of Subzone Status:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Senior Operations LLC; New Braunfels, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88232</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25900</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Proposed Production Activity:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Boss Laser LLC, Foreign-Trade Zone 250, Sanford, FL; Withdrawal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88232</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25868</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Geological</EAR>
            <HD>Geological Survey</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Generic Clearance for Water Availability Data Collections, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88302-88303</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25840</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88296-88297</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25856</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Standardized Tests and Minimum Passing Scores for Foreign Health Care Workers to Demonstrate English Language Proficiency, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88294-88296</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25854</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Transportation Security Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Geological Survey</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from Malaysia, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88232-88234</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25872</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Large Diameter Welded Pipe from the Republic of Korea, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88234-88236</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25873</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Investigations; Determinations, Modifications, and Rulings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Stilbenic Optical Brightening Agents from China and Taiwan, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88303-88304</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25904</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Proposed Consent Decree:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>CERCLA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88304-88305</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25858</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Legal</EAR>
            <HD>Legal Services Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Application Process for Subgranting Special Grant Funds, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88307-88308</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25852</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Pro Bono Innovation Fund Process for Submitting Pre-Applications for 2025 Grants, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88308-88309</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25853</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Management</EAR>
            <HD>Management and Budget Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Draft Report to Congress on the Benefits and Costs of Federal Regulations and Agency Compliance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88309-88310</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25859</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Highway</EAR>
            <HD>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crash Avoidance Warning System Human-Machine Interface Research, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88342-88346</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25821</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                National Institute
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>National Institute of Standards and Technology</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advisory Committee on Earthquake Hazards Reduction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88236-88237</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25490</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Pacific Island Fisheries:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Amendment to the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for the American Samoa Archipelago; Discontinue Rebuilding Plan for American Samoa Bottomfish and Implement Annual Catch Limits and Accountability Measures for Fishing Years 2024-2026, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88170-88172</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25829</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marine Recreational Fishing Expenditure Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88237</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25865</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Occupational Safety Health Adm</EAR>
            <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratories:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>QPS Evaluation Services, Inc.; Application for Expansion of Recognition, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88306-88307</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25827</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Requests for Nominations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88305-88306</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25828</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Investment Security</EAR>
            <HD>Office of Investment Security</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Definition of Military Installation and the List of Military Installations in the Regulations Pertaining to Certain Transactions by Foreign Persons Involving Real Estate in the United States, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88128-88136</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25773</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Pipeline</EAR>
            <HD>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hazardous Materials, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88346-88349</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25875</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Complaint, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88310</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25831</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88310-88314</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25841</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25861</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88332-88335</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25836</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq ISE, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88315-88317</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25835</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq MRX, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88329-88332</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25834</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq PHLX LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88326-88329</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25838</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88317-88326</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25837</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for Authentications Service, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88335</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25871</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Wall Power! Modern French Tapestry from the Mobilier national, Paris, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88335</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25839</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Surface Transportation</EAR>
            <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rail Carrier Financial Reports, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88335-88338</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25867</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Tennessee</EAR>
            <HD>Tennessee Valley Authority</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88338</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25932</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Highway Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Security</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Enhancing Surface Cyber Risk Management, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88488-88592</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-24704</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Office of Investment Security</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Legal Services, General Counsel, and Miscellaneous Claims, </DOC>
                    <PGS>88192-88215</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-23840</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Request for Information:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Dental Hygienist Standard of Practice, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>88349-88351</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-25894</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Health and Human Services Department, Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, </DOC>
                <PGS>88354-88485</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-25441</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Homeland Security Department, Transportation Security Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>88488-88592</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-24704</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Commodity Futures Trading Commission, </DOC>
                <PGS>88594-88629</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-24388</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88115"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-0759; Project Identifier AD-2023-01040-T; Amendment 39-22857; AD 2024-19-15]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Safran Aerosystems (Formerly AVOX Systems Inc.; Scott Aviation) Oxygen Cylinder and Valve Assemblies, and Oxygen Valve Assemblies</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FAA is correcting an airworthiness directive (AD) that was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . That AD applies to certain Safran Aerosystems oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, and oxygen valve assemblies, installed on but not limited to various transport airplanes. As published, the AD number of the AD being removed in the amendatory language of AD 2024-19-15 is incorrect, and the manufacturer name in the applicability and material required to be followed for identification of affected serial numbers in one location contains a typographical error. This document corrects those errors. In all other respects, the original document remains the same.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This correction is effective November 26, 2024. The effective date of AD 2024-19-15 remains November 26, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of November 26, 2024 (89 FR 84267, October 22, 2024).</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain other publications listed in this AD as of September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50011, August 1, 2023).</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA-2024-0759; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule; correction, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For AVOX and Safran Aerosystems material identified in this AD, contact AVOX Systems Inc., 225 Erie Street, Lancaster, NY 14086; telephone 716-683-5100; website 
                        <E T="03">safranaerosystems.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-0759.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Gabriel Kim, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7300; email 
                        <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>AD 2024-19-15, Amendment 39-22857 (89 FR 84267, October 22, 2024) (AD 2024-19-15), requires inspecting the oxygen valve assemblies, and oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, to determine the serial number of the valve, cylinder, and entire assembly; inspecting certain assemblies and parts for correct spacing of the gap between the bottom of the packing retainer and top of the valve body on the assemblies, and replacing assemblies having unacceptable gaps; limits the installation of affected parts; and requires reporting inspection results and returning certain assemblies to the manufacturer. This AD applies to certain Safran Aerosystems oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, and oxygen valve assemblies, installed on but not limited to various transport airplanes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Need for Correction</HD>
                <P>As published, the AD number of the AD being removed in the amendatory language of AD 2024-19-15 is incorrect. Paragraph 2.a. of the amendatory language refers to “AD 2013-13-11.” The correct AD reference is “AD 2023-13-11.”</P>
                <P>Also as published, the manufacturer name in the introductory text of paragraph (c) in the regulatory text of AD 2024-19-15 contains a typographical error. The correct manufacturer name is “Safran Aerosystems.”</P>
                <P>Also as published, the manufacturer name in the material identified in the text of paragraph (l)(1) in the regulatory text of AD 2024-19-15 contains a typographical error. The correct manufacturer name is “Safran Aerosystems.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed the following material. This material specifies procedures for an inspection to determine the serial numbers of the oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, and the oxygen valve assemblies, a detailed inspection for correct spacing of the gap between the bottom of the packing retainer and top of the valve body on the assemblies, parts marking, inspection report, and return of parts to the manufacturer. These documents are distinct since they apply to different assembly part numbers.</P>
                <P>• Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 04, dated November 9, 2023.</P>
                <P>• Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 06, dated August 30, 2023.</P>
                <P>• Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 05, dated September 29, 2023.</P>
                <P>This AD also requires the following material, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50011, August 1, 2023).</P>
                <P>• AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 03, dated June 7, 2021.</P>
                <P>• AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 03, dated March 11, 2022.</P>
                <P>
                    • AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 03, dated June 18, 2021.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88116"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction of Publication</HD>
                <P>
                    This document corrects three errors and correctly adds the AD as an amendment to 14 CFR 39.13. Although no other part of the preamble or regulatory information has been corrected, the FAA is publishing the entire rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>The effective date of this AD remains November 26, 2024.</P>
                <P>Since this action only corrects an incorrect AD number and two typographical errors, it has no adverse economic impact and imposes no additional burden on any person. Therefore, the FAA has determined that notice and public comment procedures are unnecessary.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-13-11, Amendment 39-22496 (88 FR 50011, August 1, 2023); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-19-15 Safran Aerosystems (formerly AVOX Systems Inc.; Scott Aviation):</E>
                             Amendment 39-22857; Docket No. FAA-2024-0759; Project Identifier AD-2023-01040-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective November 26, 2024.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>This AD replaces AD 2023-13-11, Amendment 39-22496 (88 FR 50011, August 1, 2023) (AD 2023-13-11).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to Safran Aerosystems (formerly AVOX Systems Inc.; Scott Aviation) oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies having part number (P/N) 89794050, 89794077, 89794015, 891511-14, 806835-01, 807982-01, 808433-01, or 891311-14; and oxygen valve assemblies (body and gage assemblies) having P/N 807206-01. These assemblies might be installed on, but not limited to, the aircraft identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (12) of this AD, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <P>(1) Airbus SAS Model A300 B2-1A, B2-1C, B2K-3C, B2-203, B4-2C, B4-103, and B4-203 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(2) Airbus SAS Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, B4-622, B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R Variant F airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(3) Airbus SAS Model A310-203, -204, -221, -222, -304, -322, -324, and -325 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(4) Airbus SAS Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(5) Airbus SAS Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, -133, and -151N airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(6) Airbus SAS Model A320-211, -212, -214, -216, -231, -232, -233, -251N, -252N, -253N, -271N, -272N, and -273N airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(7) Airbus SAS Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, -232, -251N, -252N, -253N, -271N, -272N, -251NX, -252NX, -253NX, -271NX, and -272NX airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(8) Airbus SAS Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, -243, -301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, -343, and -941 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(9) Airbus Model A340-211, -212, -213, -311, -312, -313, -541, and -642 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(10) ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR42-200, -300, -320, and -500 airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(11) ATR-GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR72-101, -102, -201, -202, -211, -212, and -212A airplanes.</P>
                        <P>(12) The Boeing Company Model 747-8 series airplanes.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 35, Oxygen.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by reports of cylinder and valve assemblies having oxygen leakage from the valve assembly vent hole, caused by the absence of a guide that maintains appropriate spacing between certain parts, and by the manufacturer identifying additional assemblies and parts affected by the unsafe condition. The FAA is issuing this AD to address oxygen leakage from cylinder and valve assemblies. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in decreased or insufficient oxygen supply during a depressurization event; and heating or flow friction, which could cause an ignition event in the valve assembly.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Retained Definition of Detailed Inspection, With No Changes</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2023-13-11, with no changes. For the purposes of this AD, a detailed inspection is an intensive examination of a specific item, installation, or assembly to detect damage, failure, or irregularity. Available lighting is normally supplemented with a direct source of good lighting at an intensity deemed appropriate. Inspection aids such as mirror, magnifying lenses, etc., may be necessary. Surface cleaning and elaborate procedures may be required.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Retained Identification of Affected Cylinder and Valve Assemblies, With Updated Language</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2023-13-11, with updated language. Within 60 days after September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11), inspect the oxygen valve assemblies, and oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, to determine if the serial numbers of the valve, cylinder, and entire assembly, are listed in Appendix 1 or Appendix 2, “Affected Shipments,” of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the serial numbers can be conclusively determined from that review.</P>
                        <P>(1) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 03, dated June 7, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(2) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 03, dated March 11, 2022.</P>
                        <P>(3) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 03, dated June 18, 2021.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Retained Inspection of the Gap, Parts Marking Actions, and Replacement, With Updated Language</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2023-13-11, with updated language. If, during any inspection or records review required by paragraph (h) of this AD, any oxygen valve assembly, valve or cylinder of an oxygen cylinder and valve assembly, or oxygen cylinder and valve assembly having an affected serial number is found: Before further flight, do a detailed inspection for correct spacing of the gap between the bottom of the packing retainer and top of the valve body, in accordance with paragraph 3.C. of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(1) If the gap is found to be acceptable, as defined in the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD, before further flight, do the parts marking actions in accordance with paragraph 3.D.(1) of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) If the gap is found to be unacceptable, as defined in the material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD, before further flight, remove the affected assembly, in accordance with paragraphs 3.D.(2) or 3.D.(3), as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD; and replace with a serviceable assembly.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88117"/>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Retained Return of Parts, With Updated Language</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph restates the requirement to return parts, as specified in paragraph (j)(2) of AD 2023-13-11, with updated language. If, during the inspection required by paragraph (i) of this AD, any gap is found to be unacceptable, within the applicable time specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (2) of this AD, return the assembly to the manufacturer in accordance with paragraph 3.D.(2) or 3.D.(3), as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD, except you are not required to contact AVOX Systems Inc. for shipping instructions.</P>
                        <P>(1) If the inspection was done on or after September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11): Return the assembly within 30 days after the inspection.</P>
                        <P>(2) If the inspection was done before September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11): Return the assembly within 30 days after September 5, 2023.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Retained Parts Installation Limitation, With Updated Language</HD>
                        <P>This paragraph restates the provisions of paragraph (k) of AD 2023-13-11, with updated language. As of September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11), no AVOX Systems Inc. oxygen valve assembly, or valve or cylinder that is part of an oxygen cylinder and valve assembly, or oxygen cylinder and valve assembly having an affected serial number identified in Appendix 1, “Affected Shipments,” or Appendix 2, “Affected Shipments,” of any AVOX Systems Inc. material identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this AD may be installed on any airplane unless the requirements of paragraph (i) of this AD have been accomplished on that affected assembly.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) New Identification of Additional Affected Cylinder and Valve Assemblies</HD>
                        <P>Within 60 days after the effective date of this AD, inspect the oxygen valve assemblies, and oxygen cylinder and valve assemblies, to determine if the serial numbers of the valve, cylinder, and entire assembly, are listed in Appendix 3, “Affected Shipments,” of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the serial numbers can be conclusively determined from that review.</P>
                        <P>(1) Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 04, dated November 9, 2023, except as specified in paragraphs (l)(1)(i) and (ii).</P>
                        <P>(i) In rows 2 through 492 of table tab “89794077” in Appendix 3 of Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 04, dated November 9, 2023, the list of numbers in the “Valve Serial #” and “Cylinder Serial #” columns have been transposed with each other and the list of numbers in the “Valve Part #” and “Cylinder Part #” columns have also been transposed with each other.</P>
                        <P>(ii) In rows 2 through 65 of table tab 891511-14 in Appendix 3 of Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 04, dated November 9, 2023, the list of numbers in the “Valve Serial #” and “Cylinder Serial #” columns have been transposed with each other, and the list of numbers in the “Valve Part #” and “Cylinder Part #” columns have been transposed with each other.</P>
                        <P>(2) Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 06, dated August 30, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(3) Safran Aerosystems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 05, dated September 29, 2023.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) New Inspection of the Gap, Parts Marking Actions, and Replacement for Additional Parts</HD>
                        <P>If, during any inspection or records review required by paragraph (l) of this AD, any oxygen valve assembly, valve or cylinder of an oxygen cylinder and valve assembly, or oxygen cylinder and valve assembly having an affected serial number is found: Before further flight, do a detailed inspection for correct spacing of the gap between the bottom of the packing retainer and top of the valve body, in accordance with paragraph 3.C. of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(1) If the gap is found to be acceptable, as defined in the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD, before further flight, do the parts marking actions in accordance with paragraph 3.D.(1) of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) If the gap is found to be unacceptable, as defined in the material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD, before further flight, remove the affected assembly, in accordance with paragraphs 3.D.(2) or 3.D.(3), as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD; and replace with a serviceable assembly.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(n) New Return of Additional Parts</HD>
                        <P>If, during the inspection required by paragraph (m) of this AD, any gap is found to be unacceptable, within the applicable time specified in paragraph (n)(1) or (2) of this AD, return the assembly to the manufacturer in accordance with paragraph 3.D.(2) or 3.D.(3), as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD, except you are not required to contact Safran Aerosystems for shipping instructions.</P>
                        <P>(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Return the assembly within 30 days after the inspection.</P>
                        <P>(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Return the assembly within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(o) New Parts Installation Limitation</HD>
                        <P>As of the effective date of this AD, no AVOX Systems Inc. or Safran Aerosystems oxygen valve assembly, or valve or cylinder that is part of an oxygen cylinder and valve assembly, or oxygen cylinder and valve assembly having an affected serial number identified in Appendix 3, “Affected Shipments,” of any Safran Aerosystems Inc. material identified in paragraphs (l)(1) through (3) of this AD may be installed on any airplane unless the requirements of paragraph (m) of this AD have been accomplished on that affected assembly.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(p) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                        <P>(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraphs (h) or (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11), using the material specified in paragraphs (p)(1)(i) through (iii) of this AD. This material is not incorporated by reference in this AD.</P>
                        <P>(i) AVOX Systems Inc. Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, dated March 6, 2019; and AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 01, dated July 9, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(ii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 1, dated September 4, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(iii) AVOX Systems Inc. Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, dated April 11, 2019; and AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 01, dated May 21, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraphs (h) or (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-11), using the material specified in paragraphs (p)(2)(i) through (iii) of this AD, which was incorporated by reference in AD 2022-04-09.</P>
                        <P>(i) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 02, dated October 16, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(ii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 2, dated October 31, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(iii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 02, dated October 15, 2019.</P>
                        <P>(3) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraphs (h), (i), (l), or (m) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD, using the material specified in paragraphs (p)(3)(i) through (ii) of this AD. This material is not incorporated by reference in this AD.</P>
                        <P>(i) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 04, dated June 30, 2023; or Revision 05, dated August 14, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(ii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 04, dated June 12, 2023.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(q) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the East Certification Branch, send it to ATTN: Program Manager, Continuing Operational Safety, at the address identified in paragraph (r) of this AD or email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88118"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.</P>
                        <P>(3) AMOCs approved for AD 2023-13-11 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(r) Related Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) For more information about this AD, contact Gabriel Kim, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7300; email 
                            <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (s)(5) of this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(s) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(3) The following material was approved for IBR on November 26, 2024 (89 FR 84267, October 22, 2024).</P>
                        <P>(i) Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 04, dated November 9, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 06, dated August 30, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Safran Aerosystems Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 05, dated September 29, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(4) The following material was approved for IBR on September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50011, August 1, 2023).</P>
                        <P>(i) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-01, Revision 03, dated June 7, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(ii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-02, Revision 03, dated March 11, 2022.</P>
                        <P>(iii) AVOX Systems Inc. Alert Service Bulletin 10015804-35-03, Revision 03, dated June 18, 2021.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) For material identified in this AD, contact AVOX Systems Inc., 225 Erie Street, Lancaster, NY 14086; telephone 716-683-5100; website 
                            <E T="03">safranaerosystems.com.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(6) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (7) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locationsoremailfr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on October 30, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Victor Wicklund,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25784 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Highway Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>23 CFR Part 624</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FHWA-2020-0006]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2125-AF89</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Interstate System Access</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule amends FHWA regulations governing changes in access to the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways (Interstate System). As a condition of funding for Federal-aid highway projects, Federal law prohibits State departments of transportation (State DOT) from adding any point of access to or from the Interstate System without the approval of the Secretary of Transportation. This final rule codifies and clarifies existing policies and practices regarding State DOT requests for, and FHWA approval of, changes in access to the Interstate System.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective December 9, 2024. Use of this new regulation is required for all State DOT requests for, and FHWA approval of, changes in access to the Interstate System documented in an Interstate Access Justification Report dated after December 9, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Clayton Wellman, Office of Preconstruction, Construction and Pavements (HICP-10), (202) 366-4658, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Clayton.Wellman@dot.gov,</E>
                         or Mr. Lev Gabrilovich, Office of the Chief Counsel (HCC-30), (202) 366-3813, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Lev.Gabrilovich@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are from 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., e.t., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Access and Filing</HD>
                <P>
                    This document, as well as the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) and all comments received, may be viewed online through the Federal eRulemaking portal at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     using the docket number listed above. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are also available at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from the Office of the Federal Register's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.FederalRegister.gov</E>
                     and the U.S. Government Publishing Office's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.GovInfo.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background and Legal Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    It is in the national interest to preserve and enhance the Interstate System to meet the needs of the 21st century by ensuring that it provides the highest level of service in terms of safety and mobility. Full control of access along the Interstate mainline and ramps, along with control of access on the crossroad at interchanges, is critical to such service. Under 23 U.S.C. 111 (section 111), all agreements between the Secretary and State DOTs for the construction of projects on the Interstate System shall provide that the State will not add any points of access to, or exit from, the project in addition to those approved by the Secretary in the plans for such project, without the prior approval of the Secretary. Any change to an access point can potentially add or remove access from the Interstate System. Therefore, FHWA historically has interpreted the addition of an access point to include the addition of a new, or modification of an existing, interchange or access point along the Interstate System.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         2017 Interstate Access Policy, dated May 22, 2017 (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/programadmin/fraccess.cfm</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Secretary has delegated authority to administer section 111 to the Federal Highway Administrator pursuant to 49 CFR 1.85(a)(1). Section 111(e) allows FHWA to delegate to a State DOT authority to approve Interstate Access Justification Reports (IAJR) pertaining to certain changes in access to the Interstate System.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of the Problem and Regulatory History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FHWA published a NPRM on September 19, 2023 (88 FR 64388), seeking public comment on proposed amendments to its regulations to incorporate provisions governing changes in access to the Interstate System at new 23 CFR part 624. The FHWA received 57 comments submitted to the docket from 19 commenters representing State DOTs, individuals, and planning organizations. After carefully considering the comments received in response to the NPRM, FHWA is promulgating final regulations with changes from the proposed regulatory text. The FHWA did not receive comments on the new information collection associated with this proposal, specifically the submittal of two reports that State DOTs have submitted to FHWA for years under the existing policy: the IAJR and the Programmatic Agreement (PA) annual report.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88119"/>
                </P>
                <P>To facilitate implementation of the statutory requirements regarding changes in access to the federally-funded Interstate System, FHWA recognizes a need to codify and clarify current practices, as set forth in FHWA policy, in regulations. When considering a request for a change in access to the Interstate System, FHWA examines the safety, operations, and engineering (SO&amp;E) aspects of the requested change in access. Historically, FHWA has done this by relying on the information provided in an IAJR submitted by the State DOT. The IAJR contains the project layouts, technical analyses, and other information supporting the change in access request. To date, FHWA has determined whether to approve the request based on the factors listed in FHWA's policy on Access to the Interstate System (Policy).</P>
                <P>
                    The FHWA initially developed and published the Policy in October 1990 (55 FR 42670) due to numerous requests by States for additional clarity regarding the justification and documentation necessary to substantiate proposed changes in access to the Interstate System. The FHWA issued subsequent revisions in February 1998, August 2009, and May 2017. The February 11, 1998, revision (63 FR 7045) reflected the planning requirements of the Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act (ISTEA) of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-240) as implemented in 23 CFR part 450, to clarify coordination between the access request and environmental processes, and to update language. The FHWA issued the 2009 Interstate Access Policy (2009 Policy), published August 27, 2009 (74 FR 43743), to reflect the direction provided in Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (SAFETEA-LU) (Pub. L. 109-59) to clarify the operational and safety analysis and assessment of impacts that provides the basis for proposed changes in access to the Interstate System. The 2009 Policy also updated language to reference Federal laws, regulations, and FHWA policies. Finally, FHWA issued the 2017 Interstate Access Policy (2017 Policy), dated May 22, 2017 (
                    <E T="03">www.fhwa.dot.gov/programadmin/fraccess.cfm</E>
                    ), to reduce duplication with other project reviews. The 2017 Policy focused on the technical feasibility of any change in access in support of FHWA's determination of safety, operational, and engineering acceptability without including additional documentation related to other activities in the project development (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     planning, preliminary design, environmental analysis, final design, right-of-way acquisition, and construction) process. Codifying and clarifying current practices under the 2017 Policy in regulation facilitates implementation of the statutory requirements regarding changes in access to the Interstate System. This process is separate from the de-designation of Interstate segments that are processed through FHWA's Office of Planning, Environment, and Realty, and this rulemaking does not impact the separate de-designation process.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interstate System Access Regulation at 23 CFR Part 624</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes requirements for the justification and documentation necessary for a State DOT to substantiate proposed changes in access to the Interstate System. These requirements are consistent with the existing policies and practices described above. It facilitates decisionmaking regarding proposed changes in access to the Interstate System in a manner that considers SO&amp;E. Consistent with 23 U.S.C. 109(a) and (b) and 23 U.S.C. 111, new or modified points of access to the Interstate System must be approved by FHWA if a Federal-aid project agreement has ever been executed on the segment of Interstate highway impacted by the proposal. To facilitate these approvals, such new or modified points of access must be developed in accordance with the requirements of this regulation. In addition, new or modified points of access must comply with the requirements in 23 CFR part 625, Design Standards for Highways. As discussed in § 624.8, change in access requests will not be accepted from other parties besides a State DOT. Thus, for projects that do not include State DOT involvement, such as discretionary grants awarded directly to local government entities, any change in access requests must come from the appropriate State DOT.</P>
                <P>The FHWA's decision to approve new or revised access points to the Interstate System must be supported by information justifying and documenting the proposed change in access. Therefore, the decision to approve a request is dependent on the IAJR demonstrating that the proposed change in access will not result in a significant adverse impact on the Interstate System traffic operations or the safety in the project's area of influence. In addition, the proposed access must connect to a public road, provide for all traffic movements, be designed to meet or exceed current standards, and demonstrate that the change in access can be clearly and adequately signed.</P>
                <P>This regulation identifies the requirements for the change in access request and documentation necessary to substantiate any request that is submitted by a State DOT to FHWA for approval. Once the State DOT's analysis is completed, the analysis must be documented in the form of a standalone IAJR and submitted by the State DOT to FHWA for a SO&amp;E determination. The FHWA expects that an IAJR will be clearly written for someone who is not familiar with the project, the area, or the State. The technical analysis presented in the IAJR enables FHWA to make an informed decision about safety and operational impacts of the change in access to the Interstate System and make the SO&amp;E determination based on those impacts.</P>
                <P>The regulation does not alter or restrict the option for FHWA to delegate approval authority for the determination of SO&amp;E acceptability of IAJRs to a State DOT pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 111(e). Nor does it alter a State DOT's ability to assume FHWA environmental review responsibilities under 23 U.S.C. 326 (State assumption of responsibility for categorical exclusions (CE)) or 23 U.S.C. 327 (Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program). The FHWA may grant final approval of an Interstate System change in access request once a favorable SO&amp;E determination has been made by FHWA, and the applicable transportation planning, conformity, and National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) procedures have been completed. In addition, the alternative selected and approved in the NEPA decision must also be the subject of a favorable SO&amp;E determination. The FHWA retains authority for final approval of changes in access to the Interstate System under the regulation, consistent with current practice.</P>
                <P>The section-by-section analysis provides a detailed discussion of the final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Section-by-Section Discussion</HD>
                <P>
                    The FHWA received 57 comments submitted to the docket from 19 commenters representing State DOTs, individuals, and planning organizations. The following summarizes the comments received and FHWA's responses to the most significant issues raised in the comments. This section discusses the changes to 23 CFR part 624 that FHWA is making in this final rule. For each section, FHWA describes the final rule, explains how, if at all, it differs from the proposed change described in the NPRM, and states the reasons for any changes from the proposal.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88120"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">General Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters recommended that the name of the technical report required for the justification and documentation of requests for changes in access to the Interstate System be changed from “Interstate Justification Report” to a name that clearly identifies the purpose of the documentation that is provided in the report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 111(e), Title 23 U.S.C., uses the term, “Justification Report” when referring to the technical report developed for the purpose of justifying new or modified access to the Interstate System. States have used various names for these reports to more closely describe the purpose of the report. The FHWA does not propose to require States to use one name for the justification reports but agrees with the commenters that a name more consistent with the purpose of the report would be beneficial. The name of the report has been revised to “Interstate Access Justification Report” throughout part 624.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter inquired if the 2010 Interstate System Access Informational Guide will be revised to accompany this new Federal Rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA is examining the Interstate System Access Information Guide consistent with the provisions of this final rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     One commenter recommended adding information to explain when the final rule will take effect and to which IAJRs it would apply.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The effective date of this regulation is shown above under 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    . Use of this new regulation is required for all State DOT requests for, and FHWA approval of, changes in access to the Interstate System documented in an IAJR dated after December 9, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     One individual recommended that the Policy be returned to the 2009 version of the Policy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The streamlined Policy adopted in 2017 eliminated duplicative documentation with other project reviews and has been meeting the needs of the statute. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.1 Purpose</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the proposed regulatory text contained in the September 19, 2023, NPRM, FHWA sets forth the purpose of Part 624 in § 624.1. No change was made in the final regulatory text.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.3 Applicability</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the proposed regulatory text, § 624.3 specifies the conditions under which proposed part 624 is applicable. Changes were made to the proposed regulatory text to add two more exceptions in § 624.3(d) and (e) based on comments received.</P>
                <P>In § 624.3(d), an exception was added to exclude access to State maintenance facilities located within the Interstate right-of-way and not open to the public from this regulation. Section 111, Title 23 U.S.C., provides the statutory authority for the Interstate System Access rulemaking. The statute applies to added or modified connections from outside of the right-of-way or connections between Interstate highways. State maintenance facilities located within the right-of-way with no connections outside of the right-of-way are not subject to these requirements. Access to these facilities should be evaluated by the State DOT to ensure the design of access points will not have a significant adverse impact on safety and operations.</P>
                <P>In § 624.3(e), an exception was added to exclude access points to non-freeway sections of the Interstate System located in Alaska or Puerto Rico with average daily traffic volumes less than 400 vehicles per day from this regulation. The Interstate System in Alaska and Puerto Rico are subject to different design standards under 23 U.S.C. 103, therefore their Interstate System highways are sometimes two-lane rural highways. This exception applies to non-freeway Interstate System segments located in Alaska or Puerto Rico with average daily traffic volumes less than 400 vehicles per day. In such cases, the FHWA Division Administrator shall determine the level of analysis required to secure FHWA approval of the access modification.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Regarding the applicability of the regulation in § 624.3, a commenter recommended flexibility for Alaska to approve certain types of access that are less than interchange/freeway situations, noting that Alaska is permitted to follow geometric and construction standards that differ from other States and that much of their Interstate system are low volume roads. They requested clarification be added to § 624.3 Applicability or § 624.13 Programmatic Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 111(e), Title 23 U.S.C., provides some flexibility for State DOTs to approve justification reports through the Interstate System Access PA process. The FHWA can provide assistance with exploring the PA process and how it pertains to Alaska's circumstances. The FHWA has revised § 624.3 to clarify an exception for low volume connections to non-freeway segments of the Interstate System located in Alaska or Puerto Rico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter requested clarification on whether the exemption in § 624.3(b) includes maintenance access to support facilities such as stormwater management ponds, and other maintenance installations, that are located within the Interstate System right-of-way.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Maintaining stormwater management ponds and other supportive infrastructure would be treated similar to mowing grass along the Interstate, which does not require Interstate Access approval. State DOTs would follow their processes and procedures to ensure that current standards are applied to develop and implement a traffic control plan that maintains safety and operations along the Interstate when maintenance activities are performed. This rulemaking will not impact routine maintenance activities performed within the right-of-way to maintain Interstate facilities. No change was made in the final regulatory text. However, in response to another comment, a new exception was added to the regulatory text in § 624.3 to provide an exception for State maintenance facilities located within the Interstate right-of-way.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter sought clarification on whether the exemption in § 624.3(b) applies to access to State DOT salt sheds or other maintenance facilities not open to the public and accessible to vehicles only to and from the Interstate System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Access to State DOT salt sheds or other State maintenance facilities within the Interstate System right-of-way that are not open to the public should be evaluated by the State DOT to ensure the design of access points will not have a significant adverse impact on safety and operations. The FHWA has added an exception to the applicability of this regulation in § 624.3(d) to provide an exception for State maintenance facilities located within the Interstate right-of-way and not open to the public.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Regarding the exception provision in § 624.3(c), a commenter noted that connection ramps between toll facilities and general-purpose lanes often have a significant impact on the operation and safety of the general-purpose lanes, particularly concerning merging and diverging movements. They recommended further clarification regarding this exception.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88121"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 111, Title 23 U.S.C., provides the statutory authority for the Interstate System Access rulemaking. The FHWA interprets that the statute applies to added or modified connections from outside of the right-of-way or connections between Interstate highways. The FHWA Policy has been to exclude changes in access between managed lanes and general purpose lanes from FHWA review and action, as noted in the 2010 
                    <E T="03">Interstate Access Informational Guide,</E>
                     section 3.3.2. The guide is available at 
                    <E T="03">www.fhwa.dot.gov/design/interstate/pubs/access/access.pdf.</E>
                     The FHWA agrees that it is important for State DOTs to carefully consider the safety and operational impacts of connections between managed lanes and general purpose lanes, but an IAJR is not required because no connections are provided from outside of the right-of-way or between Interstate highways. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.5 Definitions</HD>
                <P>
                    Changes to the proposed regulatory text were made based on comments received pertaining to the definitions in § 624.5. The definition for 
                    <E T="03">Access Point</E>
                     was revised to include connections to managed lanes, such as high-occupancy vehicle (HOV) lanes, value priced lanes, high-occupancy toll (HOT) lanes, or exclusive or special use lanes, since they are part of the Interstate System and access to them must be controlled. While connections between managed lanes and general purpose lanes on the same Interstate highway are exempted from this regulation under § 624.3(c), inclusion here clarifies that other connections to managed lanes are subject to this regulation. A definition for 
                    <E T="03">Final Approval</E>
                     was added for clarity. The name for the technical report submitted by the State was changed to 
                    <E T="03">Interstate Access Justification Report (IAJR)</E>
                     to clarify that the report addresses access to the Interstate System, not justification for the Interstate overall. Consistent with the revised definition of 
                    <E T="03">Access Point,</E>
                     the definition of the 
                    <E T="03">Interstate System</E>
                     was revised to include managed lanes because these are a critical part of the Interstate System. The definition of the 
                    <E T="03">Interstate System</E>
                     was also revised to include portions of frontage roads that function as part of an interchange by providing movements to and from the crossroad. Since publishing the proposed rule, FHWA has fielded technical assistance questions regarding frontage roads and determined it important to clarify this point in the definition, consistent with guidance found at 
                    <E T="03">www.fhwa.dot.gov/planning/national_highway_system/interstate_highway_system/frontage.cfm.</E>
                     Access to frontage roads should be fully controlled in the vicinity of ramp gores, as described in the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials 
                    <E T="03">A Policy on Design Standards—Interstate System,</E>
                     2016, which has been adopted by FHWA as a standard in § 625.4(a)(2). New or modified access to the frontage road is controlled by the State DOT and an IAJR under this regulation is not required. Therefore, the reference to a portion of frontage roads has not been added to the definition of Access Point in the final regulatory text. The definition for 
                    <E T="03">safety rest area</E>
                     was modified to limit the scope of the definition for the purposes of this regulation to safety rest areas located within the Interstate System right-of-way.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     One individual suggested that the definition of “Access Point” in § 624.5 was not precise enough and could cause some ambiguity in the interpretation of what constitutes an access point to the Interstate System. They suggested FHWA specify the type and configuration of the access point, such as whether it is a ramp, a lane, a road, or a bridge, and how it connects to the Interstate mainline or crossroad.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The definition of “Access Point” is centered on connections to Interstate System elements such as through lanes or shoulders, managed lanes, collector-distributor roads, or ramps that would provide direct access to the Interstate System consistent with the 1990 and 1998 policies. It is not specific to the type and configuration of the access point. Consistent with changes to the definition of “Interstate System” in § 624.5, the definition for 
                    <E T="03">Access Point</E>
                     was revised to include connections to managed lanes, such as HOV lanes, value priced lanes, HOT lanes, or exclusive or special use lanes, since they are part of the Interstate System and access to them must be controlled. While connections between managed lanes and general purpose lanes on the same Interstate highway are exempted from this regulation under § 624.3(c), inclusion here clarifies that other connections to managed lanes are subject to this regulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended expanding the definition of “Change in Access” in § 624.5 to exclude modification of an entrance or exit ramp location by less than 200 ft with no change in the number of access points or interchange configuration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA has determined that establishing a specific distance is not appropriate because each location is unique. The 2010 
                    <E T="03">Interstate Access Informational Guide,</E>
                     section 3.3.2 lists some project types that may not require FHWA review and action, including shifts in a ramp's location within the same interchange configuration when the resulting ramp spacing will meet FHWA's design criteria adopted in § 625.4. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended providing a definition in § 624.5 for “Final Approval” because it is unclear to what the final approval applies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA agrees with the suggestion and has added a definition for “Final Approval” in § 624.5.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     One individual recommended that the definition of “Interstate System” be modified to include managed lanes (HOV lanes, etc.).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA agrees that managed lanes within the Interstate right-of-way function as part of Interstate and impact the operations of the Interstate facility. The definition for the “Interstate System” in § 624.5 was modified to include managed lanes (including HOV lanes, value priced lanes, HOT lanes, or exclusive or special use lanes).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter inquired whether a State DOT can install locked gate access for maintenance of the Interstate System without FHWA approval.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The change in definition of an “Access Point” in § 624.5 allows State DOTs to install locked gate access without FHWA approval if the access does not provide a connection to the through lanes or shoulders, managed lanes, collector-distributor roads, or ramps on the Interstate System. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter inquired in § 624.5 about the definition of “Access Point” differentiating between locked gate access for vehicular use versus an access point for bikes and pedestrians.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Locked gate access that provides a connection to through lanes or shoulders, managed lanes, collector-distributor roads, or ramps on the Interstate System will require an IAJR documenting an analysis to determine the safety, operations, and engineering aspects of the change. There is no distinction based on the mode of travel. Access points for pedestrians and bicyclists that do not connect to the roadways that comprise the Interstate System are not subject to this part. Coordination with FHWA is required to determine if a right-of-way use agreement is required in accordance 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88122"/>
                    with 23 CFR 710.405 and to evaluate any potential impact to the Interstate System safety or operations. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Several commenters recommended amending the definition of “Safety Rest Area” in § 624.5 to include language that specifies the safety rest areas are within the Interstate right-of-way.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Part 624 provides requirements for consideration of changes in access to the Interstate System. Safety Rest Areas located outside of the Interstate right-of-way with no connection to the Interstate System are not subject to the requirements of part 624. To clarify this point, FHWA revised the definition in § 624.5 of the final regulatory text to clarify that “Safety Rest Area” means a safety rest area that is located within the Interstate System right-of-way.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended clarifying the applicability of this part 624 to facilities serving active transportation users such as pedestrians, bicyclists, and micromobility users; and clarifying the intent of the NPRM language as it relates to all road users. A commenter also recommended clarifying the intended user application in the definitions or clarifying the steps required for bike/pedestrian/etc. facilities only.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     “Access point” is defined in § 624.5 as a permanent connection to facilities comprising the Interstate System, such as the through lanes or shoulders, managed lanes, collector-distributor roads, or ramps. There is no distinction based on the mode of travel. Access points for pedestrians and bicyclists that do not connect to the roadways that comprise the Interstate System are not subject to this part. Coordination with FHWA is required to determine if a right-of-way use agreement is required in accordance with 23 CFR 710.405 and to evaluate any potential impact to the Interstate System safety or operations. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Several commenters asked for additional clarity on the definition of area of influence and recommend expanding the definition to include more detail.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The definition of “Area of Influence” (AOI) in § 624.5 provides a basic understanding how the AOI extents are determined. Section 624.11(b)(3) provides the framework for determining the minimum extent of the AOI. The safety and operational impacts of the proposed change in access impel the need to extend the limits, as necessary, to support making an informed decision based on the consequences of the project. The FHWA should be consulted early in this process to ensure the proposed limits are adequate to evaluate the request for a change in access to the Interstate System. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.7 Interstate System Access Requirements</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the proposed regulatory text, § 624.7 specifies the requirements applicable to Interstate System access. The phrase “safety for all roadway users” was replaced with “safety for all users of the transportation system” to be consistent with Agency guidance and clarify that this statement applied to all users of the transportation system, including trail users, rather than only users of the roadway. This change is also consistent with BIL language regarding Complete Streets. In addition, changes were made based on comments received. In § 624.7(a), the requirements regarding the currency for the operational and safety data used in the analysis have been separated to clarify that the safety analysis shall include the most recent 3 years of available safety data. The FHWA did not intend to limit safety data to 5 years. If the State DOT believes the older data is relevant based on the context of the project, it can be included in the safety data set for the project, as long as the most recent safety data is included. In § 624.7(f)(4), FHWA added an additional scenario where FHWA may grant an exception to the requirements in paragraphs (b) through (d) for locked gate access to a safety rest area from a local public road for the limited purpose of providing access to safety rest area employees, deliveries, and emergency vehicles.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended in § 624.7 that FHWA provide a time limitation guideline for microsimulation data so that there is no misunderstanding when agencies use microsimulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The purpose of this requirement is to provide a general limitation on the age of data used in a traffic analysis. The FHWA provides guidance for applying microsimulation modeling software in the FHWA Traffic Analysis Toolbox Volume III. (
                    <E T="03">https://ops.fhwa.dot.gov/publications/fhwahop18036/index.htm</E>
                    ). Coordination with FHWA is recommended when developing State specific guidance for traffic analysis tools. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Several commenters expressed concern about references in § 624.7 of the preamble to the 3-year travel demand model update timeframe, noting that while there is a 3-year requirement for the development of the Metropolitan Transportation Plans in non-attainment areas, no baseline requirement for this frequent of a model update exists for areas in attainment with National Ambient Air Quality Standards.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA is not imposing new requirements for updating travel demand models on a 3-year cycle. The intent of § 624.7(a) is to ensure that reasonably current traffic data is being used in the operational analysis for justification reports since these reports provide the basis for decisionmaking. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter sought clarification on whether the traffic data requirement in § 624.7 applies outside of the metropolitan planning organizations (MPO).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The traffic data requirement in § 624.7 applies to all requests for new or modified access to the Interstate System. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter sought clarification on what constitutes a partial interchange, particularly where a single interchange serves more than one crossroad in § 624.7.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     A partial interchange is an interchange that does not provide all of the basic movements, as defined in § 624.5. Movements can be accomplished utilizing more than one crossroad in close proximity where those crossroads are connected by frontage roads without being considered a partial interchange. For example, a split diamond interchange configuration can reduce the number of movements within each interchange and serve multiple crossroads. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter sought clarification regarding the § 624.7 preamble discussion on existing and projected land uses that should be examined as part of the proposed access modification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 624.7(a) requires that proposals for modified access consider the traffic operations and safety for all users of the transportation system in the project's area of influence, both now and in the future. Examining existing and projected land uses are a critical factor in these analyses. The scope of the review should include local future land use plans and approved developments. The design should be compatible with the communities' goals and needs that are demonstrated in their plans and policies which ensures a design that fits land use contexts of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88123"/>
                    community. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended in § 624.7 that FHWA consider specifically mentioning the Highway Safety Manual methodologies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     There are several safety analyses tools and techniques (quantitative or qualitative) that can be deployed to analyze build and no-build configurations of a proposed access modification. The FHWA does not require the use of any specific tool. The FHWA encourages the use of appropriate tools in a scope commensurate with the project complexity. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Commenters suggested in § 624.7 that FHWA include more clarity on the definition of a significant adverse impact and asked whether State DOTs should work with FHWA to determine the significance of impacts. Two individuals suggested that FHWA provide objective and quantifiable criterion for determining the significance of an impact and provide more requirements in metro areas for determining whether a proposed change in access has a significant adverse impact on the safety or operations of the Interstate System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Defining a threshold for significant adverse impact is difficult without understanding the context of the unique project conditions and the users impacted. Based on the safety and operations analyses, judgement is used to determine whether an adverse impact is significant and employ mitigation to address concerns identified. State DOTs are encouraged to coordinate with FHWA to assist with determining the significance of impacts. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter is concerned that in § 624.7(a) adding “safety for all users within the project's area of influence” would add time to project scoping to define area of influence for each individual Interstate Access Point Approval project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The DOT is committed to the long-term goal of reaching zero roadway fatalities and has adopted the Safe System Approach to help address the crisis on our roadways. The Safe System Approach is the guiding paradigm of the National Roadway Safety Strategy (NRSS), and we are dedicated to implementing the actions outlined in the NRSS to move us closer to our zero deaths goal. Safety for all users, rather than focusing only on motor vehicle operators, must be our focus to reach this goal. This provision of § 624.7(a) ensures that proposals to modify access examine the impacts to all users of the transportation system and seize opportunities to improve the safety for vulnerable users when developing an access request. To that end, the existing and projected land use along the crossroad should be examined and opportunities to improve connectivity for pedestrian and bicycle travel should be considered as part of the access modification. This ensures the proposed design fits the land use contexts in the community in which the project is built. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Regarding § 624.7(a), several commenters asked for clarification on whether data sets that include crash data more than 5 years old may be utilized in the safety evaluation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The purpose of this requirement is to ensure the most recent crash data available is being used to support the analysis. Using crash data that is outdated would not provide an accurate assessment of the safety performance of the facility because there may have been significant changes to travel patterns and conditions as evidenced by the need for the proposed access modifications. If the data collection includes data that is more than 5 years old and the State DOT believes the older data is relevant based on the context of the project, it can be included in the data set for the project, as long as the most recent data is also included. Coordination with FHWA in these situations would be recommended to discuss the justification for using older data in addition to recent data. The FHWA agrees that clarification is needed and revised § 624.7(a) to require the use of at least the most recent 3 years of available safety data.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Commenters recommend extending the time period in § 624.7(a) for which traffic and safety data is accepted for analysis beyond 5 years with a traffic validation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     In FHWA's experience, the 5-year window will generally allow State DOTs to utilize the latest model developed by the MPO in which the project falls, if applicable. If the State DOT is performing an analysis and the MPO data is more than 5 years old, the State may develop their own data suitable for the analysis. It is critical for FHWA to evaluate a proposed access modification based on reasonably current data, keeping in mind that the State DOT may not begin construction for up to another 5-year period following an affirmative SO&amp;E determination, in accordance with § 624.9(e). No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Commenters recommend in § 624.7(a) that FHWA clarify when the 5-year time period will be applied, specifically at the time of submission to FHWA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     This requirement applies to the time period when the IAJR is submitted to FHWA. However, if there are significant delays in addressing initial FHWA comments and resubmitting the report to FHWA, then there may be a need for the State DOT to verify the data. State DOTs are encouraged to coordinate with FHWA early in the process when developing requests for Interstate System access to avoid significant delays to the review and approval processes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended adding language to § 624.7(a) to suggest that safety hotspots identified within the area of influence but outside of the project limits should be communicated to the jurisdiction responsible for that roadway.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The intent of the area of influence is to determine the comprehensive safety and operational impacts of the proposed access modification. If it is determined that the project is significantly impacting safety within the area of influence, then the project should mitigate for the impacts. The State DOT may need to coordinate with other jurisdictions to ensure local impacts are addressed. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended in § 624.7(a) replacing the “or” with an “and”, and inserting the “20-year” traffic projection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA uses “or” to indicate that both the operations of the Interstate System and safety for all users in the projects area of influence are important and should be considered when developing a project. If there is a significant impact to either, the project would need to adequately address the impacts identified. Regarding future traffic projections, the 20-year traffic projection requirement is contained in 23 U.S.C. 109(b) and must be addressed as part of the analysis, but is not the focal point of this regulation. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter sought clarification on whether § 624.7(b) would prohibit a private road or commercial entrance from being located directly across a public roadway from the access point.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The intent of this provision is to prevent access point connections that connect directly to private developments, parking lots, or private roads to ensure that the access point connection will remain open to the public and receive routine maintenance. A private connection across the public roadway from the terminus of the ramp 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88124"/>
                    at a crossroad is not expressly prohibited. However, as stated in 
                    <E T="03">A Policy on Design Standards—Interstate System</E>
                     published by the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials in 2016, which is the adopted standard under § 625.4(a)(2), controlling access on crossroads in the vicinity of interchanges can provide significant benefits to traffic operations and safety performance through the interchange area. For example, if a connection is made opposite an exit ramp terminus, the design needs to mitigate the potential for wrong way movements on the exit ramp. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommends adding language that would allow gated access for rest area employees and deliveries via local roads without direct access to the Interstate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA has determined that allowing a locked gate access for the limited purpose of providing access to safety rest area employees, deliveries, and emergency vehicles via local roads would be in the public interest by removing this traffic from the Interstate System. The FHWA has revised § 624.7(f) to add an exception for this purpose.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.9 Approval Process</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the proposed regulatory text, § 624.9 sets out the approval process for a change in access to the Interstate System. The phrase “congestion management process” was removed from § 624.9(d)(1) because this process is covered in the transportation planning regulations at 23 CFR part 450—Planning Assistance and Standards. A minor change to the proposed regulatory text was made to change the reference to the technical report from IJR to IAJR, consistent with the revised definition.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended including an appeal process for when the FHWA's decision differs from the State DOT's recommendation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The FHWA is supportive of State DOTs when it comes to developing and building projects. Early coordination between the State DOT and FHWA can help ensure that FHWA concerns are addressed early in the process. In the event FHWA's decision differs from the State DOT's recommendation, FHWA is open to having discussions with the State DOT to work on finding a path forward to ensure the project meets the safety and operational needs of the Interstate System Access process. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Commenters recommended in § 624.9 that FHWA provide timeframes for the review and the steps involved in the approval process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 624.9 provides the framework of the process to receive approval for a proposed change in access. The State DOT is responsible for developing their policies and procedures as related to submitting requests for proposed changes in access. The State DOT may coordinate with FHWA to determine specific timeframes based on their policies and procedures. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter seeks clarification in § 624.9(d) on whether the SO&amp;E determination can be made after a favorable NEPA decision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The SO&amp;E determination can be made before or after receiving an approved NEPA decision. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter seeks clarification on whether the NEPA decision or the SO&amp;E determination can occur independently from one another. They also seek to clarify, if a State DOT can decide to advance the NEPA process or the IAJR first.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     In § 624.9(d), FHWA provides the conditions that must be met for a State DOT to receive Final approval for a proposed change in access. The FHWA does not determine the order in which a State DOT advances the transportation planning, conformity, and NEPA requirements or seeks a SO&amp;E determination for a proposed change in access. A State DOT can decide to advance either the NEPA process or the IAJR first or in parallel. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     In § 624.9(e), a commenter recommended extending the time period in between affirmative SO&amp;E determination and proceeding to construction to 6 years while keeping a maximum of 10 years from the time the data was collected.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The 5-year time period commencing after an affirmative SO&amp;E determination for proceeding to construction provides up to 10 years to develop and begin construction on a project, but the 10-year window is not specified in the regulation, as proposed. If the project has not progressed to construction within 5 years of receiving an affirmative SO&amp;E determination, FHWA has flexibility to allow the project to proceed to construction based on verification from the State DOT demonstrating that the requirements of § 624.7 are still met. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Several commenters expressed support for extending the time period for projects to commence construction from 3 to 5 years in § 624.9(e). Several commenters would also welcome a further increase to the 8 years previously allowed under the 2009 Policy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     In FHWA's experience, 5 years strikes the right balance of moving forward with projects based on reasonably current data versus requiring repetitive updates of access modification proposals by State DOTs. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.11 Interstate Access Justification Report</HD>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the proposed regulatory text, § 624.11 sets out the minimum requirements for the technical report submitted by the State for a change in access to the Interstate System. A minor change to the proposed section title and regulatory text was made to change the name of the technical report to 
                    <E T="03">Interstate Access Justification Report (IAJR),</E>
                     consistent with the revised definition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter seeks clarification in § 624.11(a) on what “other documents” means.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     “Other documents” means any document other than the IAJR that are often referenced in the IAJR but may not be available to the FHWA reviewer. As noted in the parentheses, these include feasibility studies, NEPA documents, or preliminary engineering reports that were developed by a State DOT during their project development process. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     In § 624.11(b)(3), a commenter recommended revising the minimum limits of the Area of Influence to an adjacent interchange within 2 miles of the proposed change in access, rather than the adjacent interchange with no limit on the distance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 624.11(d) provides FHWA with flexibility to determine the extent of the safety and operational analysis based on the complexity of the project. The State DOT can coordinate with FHWA to discuss and provide justification for proposed analysis limits for a project. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter recommended that § 624.11(b)(3) provide flexibility to shrink as well as expand the analysis limits based on the project complexity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section § 624.11(b)(3) provides flexibility to extend the analysis to ensure that the limits are appropriate to fully understand the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88125"/>
                    impact of the proposed changes in access on the Interstate System and local road network. Section § 624.11(d) provides flexibility to determine the extent of the analysis (shrink the limits, if justified) based on the complexity of the project. The State DOT can coordinate with FHWA to discuss and provide justification for proposed analysis limits for a specific modification request. In addition, the 2010 
                    <E T="03">Interstate Access Informational Guide,</E>
                     section 3.3.2 lists some project types that may not require FHWA review and action. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter suggested that § 624.11(c) include more detailed language on wrong way movements to focus on isolated exit ramps without a corresponding entrance ramp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Section 624.11(c) provides the requirements and considerations that must be addressed when seeking approval for a partial interchange. The proposed regulatory text requires that the potential for wrong-way movements be addressed as part of the justification for a partial interchange, while allowing State DOTs to provide the justification appropriate for each specific proposal. No change was made in the final regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">§ 624.13 Programmatic Agreement</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the proposed regulatory text, § 624.13 specifies the provisions a State DOT must follow if they wish to enter into a PA with FHWA that would delegate to the State DOT responsibility for making SO&amp;E determinations on behalf of FHWA in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 111(e) and section 1318(d) of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21). No change was made in the final regulatory text.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Analyses and Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review), and DOT Rulemaking Policies and Procedures</HD>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant action under section 3(f) of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866. Accordingly, OMB has not reviewed it. This action complies with E.O.s 12866 and 13563 to improve regulation. This final rule codifies existing policy, processes and procedures relating to new or modified access to the Interstate System. The FHWA anticipates that this rule does not adversely affect, in any material way, any sector of the economy. In addition, the rule does not interfere with any action taken or planned by another agency and does not materially alter the budgetary impact of any entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs. The rule also does not raise any novel legal or policy issues. The FHWA anticipates that the economic impact of this rulemaking will be minimal; therefore, a full regulatory evaluation is not necessary.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>In compliance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354; 5 U.S.C. 601-612), FHWA has evaluated the effects of this rule on small entities, such as local governments and businesses. Based on the evaluation, FHWA has determined that this action is not anticipated to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule codifies the processes that are currently in-use by State DOTs when changes in access to the Interstate System are sought, and States are not included in the definition of small entity set forth in 5 U.S.C. 601. The FHWA has determined that the projected impact upon small entities that utilize Federal-aid highway program funding for the development of highway improvement projects on the National Highway System is expected to be negligible. Therefore, FHWA certifies that the action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>The FHWA has determined that this rule does not impose unfunded mandates as defined by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4, 109 Stat. 48) (UMRA). The actions in this final rule will not result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $168 million or more in any one year (when adjusted for inflation). In addition, the definition of “Federal Mandate” in the UMRA excludes financial assistance of the type in which State, local, or Tribal governments have authority to adjust their participation in the program in accordance with changes made in the program by the Federal Government. The Federal-aid highway program permits this type of flexibility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13132 (Federalism Assessment)</HD>
                <P>The FHWA has analyzed this final rule in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13132. The FHWA has determined that this action does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism assessment. The FHWA has also determined that this action does not preempt any State law or State regulation or affect the States' ability to discharge traditional State governmental functions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12372 (Intergovernmental Review)</HD>
                <P>The regulations implementing E.O. 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities apply to this program. This E.O. applies because State and local governments are directly affected by the regulation, which is a condition on Federal highway funding. Local entities should refer to the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Number 20.205, Highway Planning and Construction, for further information.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The FHWA identified a paperwork burden and published the required notices at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2023/09/19/2023-20218/interstate-system-access.</E>
                     The OMB control number for the information collection is 2125-0679.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The FHWA has analyzed this final rule for the purposes of the NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and has determined that it qualifies for a CE under 23 CFR 771.117(c)(20), which applies to the promulgation of regulations, and that no unusual circumstances are present under 23 CFR 771.117(b). Categorically excluded actions meet the criteria for CEs under the Council on Environmental Quality regulations and under 23 CFR 771.117(a) and normally do not require any further NEPA approvals by FHWA. This rule would not affect the NEPA process for Interstate access requests and FHWA will not grant a project final approval until the NEPA process was completed.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13175 (Tribal Consultation)</HD>
                <P>
                    The FHWA has analyzed this final rule under E.O. 13175 and anticipates that it will not have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments, and will not preempt Tribal law. This final rule will not impose any direct compliance requirements on Indian Tribal governments nor will it have any economic or other impacts on the viability of Indian Tribes. Therefore, the funding and consultation requirements 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88126"/>
                    of E.O. 13175 do not apply and a Tribal summary impact statement is not required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12898 (Environmental Justice)</HD>
                <P>The E.O. 12898 requires that each Federal Agency make achieving environmental justice part of its mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of its programs, policies, and activities on minorities and low-income populations. The FHWA has determined that this proposed rule does not raise any environmental justice issues.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Summary, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this rule can be found in the Abstract section of the Department's Unified Agenda entry for this rulemaking at [
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202310&amp;RIN=2125-AF89</E>
                    ].
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulation Identifier Number</HD>
                <P>A RIN is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN number contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this action with the Unified Agenda.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 23 CFR Part 624</HD>
                    <P>Grant programs—transportation, Highways and roads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.81 and 1.85.</P>
                    <NAME>Kristen R. White,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Federal Highway Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="23" PART="624">
                    <AMDPAR>In consideration of the foregoing, FHWA amends title 23 of the Code of Federal Regulations, by adding part 624 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 624—INTERSTATE SYSTEM ACCESS</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Sec.</HD>
                                <SECTNO>624.1 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.3 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.5 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.7 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Interstate System access requirements.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.9 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Approval process.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.11 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Interstate Access Justification Report.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>624.13 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Programmatic Agreement.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 23 U.S.C. 109(a) and (b) and 111; 23 CFR 1.32; 49 CFR 1.85.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.1 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>To prescribe requirements and procedures for State requests for, and FHWA consideration of, changes in access to the Interstate System.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.3 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, this part is applicable to all segments designated as part of the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways (Interstate System) for which Federal-aid highway funds or other funds administered under title 23, United States Code, have been used in the past or are used to develop a project.</P>
                            <P>(b) This part is not applicable to ramps providing access to safety rest areas, information centers, weigh stations, and truck inspection stations located within the Interstate right-of-way when such areas are accessible to vehicles only to and from the Interstate System. Connections from other public facilities to facilities within the Interstate System right-of way, if an exception is granted in accordance with § 624.7(f), are subject to the requirements of this part.</P>
                            <P>(c) This part is not applicable to connections between managed lanes and general-purpose lanes on the same Interstate highway.</P>
                            <P>(d) This part is not applicable to State maintenance facilities that are located within the Interstate System right-of-way and not open to the public.</P>
                            <P>(e) This part is not applicable to access points to non-freeway Interstate System segments located in Alaska or Puerto Rico with average daily traffic volumes less than 400 vehicles per day. In such cases, the provisions of 23 U.S.C. 111 apply and the FHWA Division Administrator shall determine the level of analysis required to secure FHWA approval of the access modification.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>The following terms used in this part are defined as follows:</P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Access point.</E>
                                 Any permanent connection (including those metered or closed at times) to the through lanes or shoulders, managed lanes, collector-distributor roads, or ramps on the Interstate System, including “locked gate access”.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Area of influence.</E>
                                 The geographic extent to which a proposed change in access will affect traffic operations and safety.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Change in access.</E>
                                 The addition of a new, or modification of an existing, interchange or access point along the Interstate System.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Final approval.</E>
                                 Acceptance for the proposed change in access granted by FHWA upon completion of the appropriate transportation planning, air quality conformity, and environmental review requirements under National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and receiving concurrence on the Safety, Operations, and Engineering (SO&amp;E) determination.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Interchange.</E>
                                 A system of interconnecting roadways in conjunction with one or more grade separations that provides for the movement of traffic between two or more roadways or highways on different levels.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Interstate Access Justification Report (IAJR).</E>
                                 A technical report that documents the safety, operations, and engineering aspects of a proposed change in access to the Interstate System and demonstrates that the proposal meets the provisions of this part.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Interstate System.</E>
                                 The term “Interstate System” as defined in 23 U.S.C. 101, and includes mainline lanes; shoulders; existing, new, or modified ramps; collector-distributor roads; managed lanes (including high-occupancy vehicle lanes, value priced lanes, high-occupancy toll lanes, or exclusive or special use lanes); ramp termini; and portions of frontage roads that function as part of an interchange. For purposes of this part, the Interstate System shall be limited to those routes for which Federal-aid highway funds or other funds administered under title 23, United States Code, have been used in the past or will be used to develop a project.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Partial interchange.</E>
                                 An interchange that does not provide for each of the eight basic movements (or four basic movements in the case of a three-legged interchange).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Programmatic Agreement (PA).</E>
                                 Agreement between FHWA and a State DOT under 23 U.S.C. 111(e) to allow a State to review and make the Safety, Operations, and Engineering (SO&amp;E) determination.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Public road.</E>
                                 The term “public road” as defined in 23 U.S.C. 101.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Safety, Operations, and Engineering (SO&amp;E) determination.</E>
                                 Technical determination of whether the proposed location, configuration, geometric design, and signing related to the proposed change in access may be reasonably expected to serve the anticipated traffic of the Interstate System in a manner that is conducive to safety, durability, and economy of maintenance.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Safety rest area.</E>
                                 The term “safety rest area” as defined in 23 CFR 752.3(a) that 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88127"/>
                                is located within the Interstate System right-of-way.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.7</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Interstate System access requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) The proposed change in access to the Interstate System shall not result in a significant adverse impact on the Interstate System traffic operations or the safety for all users of the transportation system in the project's area of influence, as demonstrated by operational and safety analyses based on both the current and future traffic projections using traffic data that is no more than 5 years old and at least the most recent 3 years of available safety data.</P>
                            <P>(b) Interstate System access points shall connect only to a public road. Connections directly to private developments, parking lots, or private roads are prohibited.</P>
                            <P>(c) Connections from outside of the Interstate System right-of-way to safety rest areas, information centers, weigh stations, and truck inspection stations located within the Interstate System right-of-way are prohibited.</P>
                            <P>(d) Each interchange shall provide for all traffic movements.</P>
                            <P>(e) A proposed change in access shall be designed to meet the standards in accordance with 23 CFR part 625 or have approved exceptions and shall comply with 23 CFR part 655.</P>
                            <P>(f) On a case by case basis, FHWA may grant exceptions to the requirements in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section for:</P>
                            <P>(1) Locked gate access to private property for purposes of public safety;</P>
                            <P>(2) Locked gate access from an information center, weigh station, and truck inspection station to a local road for the purposes of public safety;</P>
                            <P>(3) Access from a safety rest area to an adjacent publicly owned conservation and recreation area if access to this area is available only through the safety rest area as allowed under 23 CFR 752.5(d);</P>
                            <P>(4) Locked gate access from a local public road to the safety rest area for the limited purpose of providing access to safety rest area employees, deliveries, and emergency vehicles; or</P>
                            <P>(5) A partial interchange where necessary to provide special access, such as to managed lanes or park and ride lots, or where factors such as the social, economic, and environmental impacts of a full interchange justify an exception.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.9</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Approval process.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) To propose a change in access to the Interstate System, the State DOT shall submit electronically to FHWA a request letter and an IAJR complying with § 624.11 demonstrating that the proposed change in access meets the requirements of this part. Change in access requests will not be accepted from other parties besides a State DOT.</P>
                            <P>(b) Approval of a change in access to the Interstate System requires a SO&amp;E determination and a final approval.</P>
                            <P>(c) The SO&amp;E determination shall be based on the safety, operations, and engineering aspects of the request as documented in an IAJR meeting the requirements of this part. The FHWA shall make the SO&amp;E determination, except where FHWA has delegated to a State DOT the authority to make the SO&amp;E determination on behalf of FHWA by entering into a PA that meets the requirements of § 624.13.</P>
                            <P>(d) If a favorable SO&amp;E determination is made, FHWA will consider whether final approval is appropriate for the proposed change in access to the Interstate System. Final approval may only be granted by FHWA and constitutes a major Federal action under NEPA. Final approval may be granted if the following conditions are met:</P>
                            <P>(1) Applicable transportation planning, conformity, and NEPA procedures have been completed.</P>
                            <P>(2) The alternative covered by the favorable SO&amp;E determination is of the same scope and design as the alternative selected and approved in the NEPA decision.</P>
                            <P>(e) If the project has not progressed to construction within 5 years of receiving an affirmative SO&amp;E determination, FHWA may require the State DOT to provide verification that the requirements of § 624.7 continue to be met based on current and projected future conditions.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.11</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Interstate Access Justification Report.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) The IAJR shall be a standalone report. Relevant information from other documents (such as feasibility studies, NEPA documents or preliminary engineering reports) must be included in the appropriate section of the IAJR.</P>
                            <P>(b) At a minimum, an IAJR submitted to FHWA shall include all of the following, except as provided under paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(1) A description and overview of the proposed change in access including a project location map and distances to adjacent interchanges.</P>
                            <P>(2) Preliminary design documents sufficient to demonstrate the geometric viability of the proposal. The design documents shall include the design criteria, existing geometry overlaid with clearly labeled proposed geometric plan views, lane configuration schematics, typical sections, control-of-access lines, interchange spacing, ramp spacing, and other design features necessary to evaluate the proposed design.</P>
                            <P>(3) Operational and safety analyses that evaluate the impact of the proposed change in access on the Interstate System and local road network extending to the following area of influence limits at a minimum:</P>
                            <P>(i) Along the Interstate System, and interchanging freeway if applicable, to the adjacent existing or proposed interchange on either side of the proposed change in access, extending further as needed to ensure the limits of the analysis are appropriate to fully understand the impact of the proposed change in access on the Interstate System.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Along each crossroad to the first major intersection on either side of the proposed change in access, extending further as needed to demonstrate the safety and operational impacts that the proposed change in access and other transportation improvements may have on the local road network.</P>
                            <P>(4) A conceptual plan showing the type and location of the signs proposed to support the proposed design.</P>
                            <P>(c) The IAJR for a proposed partial interchange shall meet the following additional requirements.</P>
                            <P>(1) The IAJR shall include a full-interchange option with a comparison of the operational and safety analyses to the partial interchange option. The IAJR shall justify the necessity for a partial interchange alternative.</P>
                            <P>(2) The IAJR shall describe why a partial interchange is proposed and include the mitigation proposed to compensate for the missing basic movements, including wayfinding signage, local intersection improvements, mitigation of driver expectation leading to wrong-way movements on ramps, and other proposed strategies as necessary.</P>
                            <P>(3) The IAJR shall describe whether future provision of a full interchange is precluded by the proposed design.</P>
                            <P>(d) FHWA will consider the complexity of a change in access when determining the extent of the safety and operational analysis and the format of the IAJR.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 624.13</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Programmatic Agreement.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>A State DOT may submit to FHWA a written request to enter into a PA with FHWA that delegates to the State DOT the authority to make the SO&amp;E determination on behalf of FHWA in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 111(e) and the requirements of this part.</P>
                            <P>
                                (a) A PA may allow a State DOT to make the SO&amp;E determination for all or 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88128"/>
                                any part of the following types of change in access requests:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) New freeway-to-crossroad (service) interchanges;</P>
                            <P>(2) Modifications to existing freeway-to-crossroad (service) interchanges; and</P>
                            <P>(3) Completion of basic movements at freeway-to-crossroad (service) interchanges.</P>
                            <P>(b) The State DOT request to enter into a PA with FHWA shall include:</P>
                            <P>(1) The types of changes in access listed in paragraph (a) of this section for which the State DOT would like to make SO&amp;E determinations; and</P>
                            <P>(2) A discussion of controls the State DOT has implemented, resources available, and actions that would be taken if the PA is approved, as needed to address the considerations outlined in paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(c) Upon receipt of the request, FHWA will:</P>
                            <P>(1) Verify that appropriate controls and processes have been developed and implemented by the State DOT, and that the State DOT has the necessary resources and commits to conduct future actions in compliance with the terms of the requested PA. The FHWA will examine:</P>
                            <P>(i) State DOT policies, standard operating procedures, and processes, either in place or modified as needed to carry out the requirements of the PA;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Documentation demonstrating the processes and guidance that have been developed and implemented to support the development, analysis, documentation, review, and potential processing of each type of proposed change in access to the Interstate System to which the terms of the PA would apply;</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) Documentation demonstrating the process, guidance, assistance, and oversight the State DOT will provide to support local agencies (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 cities, counties, toll authorities, MPOs) that may propose or submit requests to the State DOT for changes in access to the Interstate System to which the terms of the PA would apply;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iv) Documentation demonstrating that the State DOT has the expertise and resources (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 training, analysis tools) needed to carry out the requirements of the PA;
                            </P>
                            <P>(v) Documentation of State DOT procedures to provide the necessary oversight, monitoring, and annual reporting to FHWA to ensure the changes in access to the Interstate System are processed consistent with the terms of the PA; and</P>
                            <P>(vi) Any other factors deemed necessary by the Secretary.</P>
                            <P>(2) Establish, with input from the State DOT, the scope and conditions for the State DOT's review of change in access requests and the process by which the State DOT will make the SO&amp;E determination.</P>
                            <P>(d) A PA shall require that the State DOT submit electronically an annual report to FHWA summarizing its performance under the PA. The report shall, at a minimum:</P>
                            <P>(1) Include the results of all changes in access to the Interstate System that were processed and received a SO&amp;E determination under the terms of the PA for the previous calendar year;</P>
                            <P>(2) Summarize the changes in access to the Interstate System that the State DOT plans to process in the coming calendar year;</P>
                            <P>(3) Assess the effectiveness of and verify that all changes in access to the Interstate System processed through this agreement were evaluated and processed in a manner consistent with the terms of this PA;</P>
                            <P>(4) Identify any areas where improvements are needed and what actions the State DOT is taking to implement those improvements; and</P>
                            <P>(5) Include actions taken by the State DOT as part of its quality control efforts.</P>
                            <P>(e) When all concerns have been addressed to the satisfaction of the Secretary, the PA may be executed.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </PART>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25757 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-22-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Investment Security</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>31 CFR Part 802</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 1505-AC88</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Definition of Military Installation and the List of Military Installations in the Regulations Pertaining to Certain Transactions by Foreign Persons Involving Real Estate in the United States</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Investment Security, Department of the Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule amends the regulations of the Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States pertaining to transactions involving the purchase or lease by, or concession to, a foreign person of certain real estate in the United States. Specifically, the final rule amends the regulations by adding, moving, and removing certain military installations on the appendix at parts 1 and 2; makes corresponding revisions to the definition of the term “military installation”; makes technical amendments to update the name or location information for certain military installations already listed on the appendix; and amends the applicability rule regarding changes to the regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on December 9, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Meena R. Sharma, Director, Office of Investment Security Policy and International Relations, at U.S. Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20220; telephone: (202) 622-3425; email: 
                        <E T="03">CFIUS.Regulations@treasury.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulations at part 802 to title 31 of the Code of Federal Regulations (part 802) implement the provisions in section 721 of the Defense Production Act (DPA) of 1950, as amended, which are codified at 50 U.S.C. 4565 (section 721), and establish the process and procedures of the Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States (CFIUS or the Committee) with respect to reviewing transactions involving the purchase or lease by, or concession to, a foreign person of certain real estate in the United States. Section 721 authorizes the president or his designee (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     CFIUS) to review certain real estate transactions by foreign persons where the real estate at issue is located in the United States and (a) is located within, or will function as part of, an air or maritime port; or (b) is in close proximity to a United States military installation or another facility or property of the U.S. Government that is sensitive for reasons relating to national security; could reasonably provide the foreign person the ability to collect intelligence on activities being conducted at such an installation, facility, or property; or could otherwise expose national security activities at such an installation, facility, or property to the risk of foreign surveillance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The appendix to the current regulations at part 802 (appendix A or the appendix) identifies certain military installations around which certain real estate transactions are subject to CFIUS's jurisdiction. As noted in the preamble to the final rule establishing part 802 in 2020 (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     85 FR 3158), the military installations listed in the appendix were identified by the U.S. Department of Defense (Department of Defense) based upon an evaluation of national security considerations. The specific military installations are listed in appendix A by name and location (or township/range), and section 802.227 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88129"/>
                    sets forth the category descriptions of the military installations identified in appendix A. The locations listed in appendix A are intended to aid in the identification of the relevant installations only and do not represent specific boundaries of the installations for purposes of determining whether a transaction is a covered real estate transaction.
                </P>
                <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) initially established part 802 through the final rule that became effective on February 13, 2020 (85 FR 3158). The Treasury Department subsequently made amendments to part 802 by adding eight military installations to appendix A and making technical changes that became effective on September 22, 2023 (September 2023 Rule) (88 FR 57348). Most recently, on July 19, 2024, the Treasury Department published a notice of proposed rulemaking (Proposed Rule) (89 FR 58653) that would: (1) add 59 military installations to the appendix at parts 1 and 2; (2) move eight military installations from part 1 to part 2; (3) remove one installation from part 1 and two installations from part 2; (4) revise the definition of the term “military installation”; (5) make technical amendments to the names of 14 installations already listed on the appendix; and (6) update the locations of seven installations already listed on the appendix.</P>
                <P>
                    The public was given an opportunity to comment on the Proposed Rule, and comments were due by August 19, 2024. The comments received are available on the public rulemaking docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     (Docket TREAS-DO-2024-0010-0001).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Comments</HD>
                <P>During the public comment period, the Treasury Department received more than 40 comment submissions reflecting a range of views. The Treasury Department considered each comment before issuing this final rule (Final Rule). Discussed below are the comments received and the Treasury Department's responses in consideration of the comments.</P>
                <P>Several commenters expressed the view that certain other military installations should be included in appendix A due to the nature of their operations and one commenter noted that any military or sensitive location should be considered for inclusion. Multiple commenters stated that Camp Grayling in Michigan should be added to appendix A. One commenter suggested three additional installations in Michigan for inclusion: Selfridge Air National Guard Base, Fort Custer, and Kellogg Air National Guard Base. Other commenters expressed support for the proposed inclusion of Whiteman Air Force Base in Missouri and suggested also including Ebbing Air National Guard Base in Arkansas.</P>
                <P>One commenter requested that the one-mile boundary around installations on part 1 of appendix A be extended to 30 miles. The commenter also requested that Marine Corps Air Station Cherry Point in North Carolina be moved from part 1 to part 2 of appendix A given the nature of the military operations at the site and that the location of this facility in the regulations be updated to Havelock, NC since it is within the city limits.</P>
                <P>The Final Rule makes no changes in response to these comments. Consistent with the Proposed Rule, the Final Rule adds Camp Grayling and Whiteman Air Force Base to the list of military installations at part 2 of appendix A. The Department of Defense identified the military installations that are the subject of this Final Rule after a comprehensive assessment that it conducted including through coordination across all military services, considering factors such as the operations, assets, missions, and training at each installation and appropriateness for coverage under section 721. Regarding any military installations not included in the Final Rule, the Department of Defense will continue on an ongoing basis to assess its military installations and the geographic scope set under part 802 to ensure appropriate application in light of national security considerations. Consistent with the authority under section 721(a)(4)(B)(ii), CFIUS is authorized to review certain real estate transactions in close proximity to facilities or properties of the U.S. Government that are sensitive for reasons relating to national security. The list of installations provided in the Proposed Rule reflects the Department of Defense's recent comprehensive assessment of its military installations in light of national security considerations. In the future, CFIUS may add other U.S. Government facilities or properties to the list of sites identified in appendix A, as appropriate and in consultation with CFIUS member agencies and other relevant departments and agencies of the U.S. Government. In response to the comment regarding the location of Marine Corps Air Station Cherry Point, the location as listed in the Proposed Rule (Cherry Point, NC) is accurate.</P>
                <P>Multiple commenters referenced a particular company and some expressed the view that the company should not be permitted to build an electric vehicle battery facility in Michigan. Several commenters noted that the location for the facility is near Camp Grayling, which the Proposed Rule would have added to the list of military installations in part 2 of appendix A. Further, some commenters expressed concerns about the particular company and suggested CFIUS review a specific transaction involving the company. One commenter also suggested that the Proposed Rule should apply retroactively so that CFIUS can review the particular transaction noted.</P>
                <P>
                    The Final Rule makes no changes in response to the comments regarding a particular company and a specific transaction. It would be inappropriate and outside the scope of the Committee's rulemaking authority to specify the application of the regulations to a particular entity or a specific transaction in the course of a rulemaking. Filing transactions with CFIUS under part 802 is a voluntary process. CFIUS reviews covered transactions to determine the effects of the transaction on the national security of the United States and conducts this review on a case-by-case basis in light of the specific facts and circumstances. If any risks to the national security of the United States arise as a result of a transaction within the jurisdiction of CFIUS, the Committee conducts a risk-based analysis consistent with the requirements in section 721(
                    <E T="03">l</E>
                    )(4)(A) and the regulations at section 802.102. The Committee welcomes those who wish to provide tips and referrals about a particular transaction or entity to visit 
                    <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/policy-issues/international/the-committee-on-foreign-investment-in-the-united-states-cfius/tips-and-referrals.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Regarding timing and applicability, this Final Rule does not apply retroactively to any transaction for which (1) the completion date is prior to the effective date set forth herein; or (2) the parties to the transaction have executed, prior to the effective date set forth herein, a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction. This Final Rule takes effect 30 days from the date of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . In response to the comment about the application of the rule, the Final Rule amends the applicability rule at section 802.104 to clarify that neither the Final Rule nor the September 2023 Rule applies retroactively.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Several commenters expressed the view that foreign persons should be prohibited from purchasing any land in the United States, including land near 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88130"/>
                    military installations. One commenter suggested that no foreign company should be allowed to build on real estate within 100 miles of a military installation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Final Rule makes no changes in response to these comments. CFIUS operates within the United States' longstanding open investment policy and, consistent with its statutory authority, takes action only with respect to certain foreign investments that pose national security concerns based on a transaction-specific assessment. A categorical prohibition on real estate transactions by foreign persons would not be consistent with CFIUS's statutory authority or the open investment policy of the United States. Instead, in instances where the Committee determines that there is a national security risk arising from a transaction, and that no other authorities are adequate to mitigate that risk, the Committee, pursuant to its statutory authority under section 721(
                    <E T="03">l</E>
                    )(3), may negotiate, enter into, or impose, and enforce any agreement or condition with any party to the transaction to mitigate the national security risk arising from the transaction or, pursuant to the authority under section 721(
                    <E T="03">l</E>
                    )(2), may refer the transaction to the President for decision. Pursuant to the authority under section 721(d), the President may suspend or prohibit a covered transaction that threatens to impair the national security of the United States. Accordingly, the risk-based approach and the authority provided in the CFIUS statute allow the Committee and the President to take action as necessary in light of national security considerations without unduly restricting broad categories of foreign investment in the United States.
                </P>
                <P>Multiple commenters noted legal and policy dynamics around U.S. states having introduced or enacted legislation restricting the purchase of real estate by foreign persons. Commenters suggested that the Treasury Department and CFIUS educate lawmakers, coordinate a federal response, consider any impacts on civil rights, and coordinate with civil society.</P>
                <P>
                    The Final Rule makes no changes in response to these comments. CFIUS values the views of civil society and recognizes the importance of educating the public regarding CFIUS jurisdiction and processes. CFIUS reviews covered transactions to determine the effects of the transaction on the national security of the United States and conducts this review on a case-by-case basis. If any risks to the national security of the United States are present, CFIUS conducts a risk-based analysis and analyzes the particular facts and circumstances of the transaction consistent with the requirements in section 721(
                    <E T="03">l</E>
                    )(4)(A) and the regulations at section 802.102. The Committee welcomes those who wish to communicate on matters relating to investment security more broadly to reach out to the Treasury Department; contact information is available at 
                    <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/policy-issues/international/the-committee-on-foreign-investment-in-the-united-states-cfius/cfius-contact-information.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Commenters also requested clarity regarding the scope of the Proposed Rule, to include any impact the rule would have on property owners, businesses, and real estate professionals, and what, if any, exemptions for coverage exist. One commenter also requested clarification regarding whether outlying assets of installations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     auxiliary sites, component installations, etc.) that meet the definition of military installation in the regulations at section 802.227 are covered by CFIUS's jurisdiction.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Final Rule makes no changes in response to these comments. Exceptions to CFIUS's jurisdiction over real estate transactions are provided for in statute (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     section 721(a)(4)(C)(i)) and in regulations (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     section 802.216). With respect to the military installations (and assets thereof) around which CFIUS has jurisdiction under part 802, the geographic reference tool available on the CFIUS website can be a helpful resource in identifying the boundaries of military installations. Auxiliary sites, subordinate sites, and other Department of Defense facilities that are geographically separate from their parent installation, and which meet the definition of military installation, are included in the geographic reference tool. Note that the geographic tool is provided for reference only; it should not be interpreted as guidance or an advisory opinion by CFIUS with respect to any particular transaction.
                </P>
                <P>The Treasury Department also received some comments that did not address any specific provision of the Proposed Rule. One comment submission referenced “family” with no other content, another raised concern over certain chemicals, and a third suggested that only tax-paying U.S. citizens can own property in the United States. The Final Rule makes no changes in response to these comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Final Rule</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Amendments to the Military Installations Listed in Appendix A</HD>
                <P>The appendix to the regulations at part 802 identifies certain bases, ranges, and other installations that, for the purposes of the regulation, meet the definition of “military installation” at section 802.227 and, to assist in the identification of such installations, the related location (or township/range) information. The appendix is important for determining whether a transaction is a covered real estate transaction because of a nearby military installation. As relevant to this Final Rule, the installations identified in the appendix at part 1 meet one of the category descriptions in section 802.227 (b) to (o). Installations identified in the appendix at part 2 meet one of the category descriptions in section 802.227 (h), (k), or (m). CFIUS's jurisdiction extends outward one mile from the boundary of the installations identified at part 1 of the appendix and outward 100 miles from the boundary of the installations identified at part 2 of the appendix.</P>
                <P>Consistent with the Proposed Rule, this Final Rule revises appendix A to include the 59 military installations listed below and removes eight military installations from part 1 of appendix A and adds them to part 2 (as noted below).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Part 1</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Anniston Army Depot, located in Anniston, Alabama</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Barter Island Regional Radar Site, located in Barter Island, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Blue Grass Army Depot, located in Richmond, Kentucky</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Blaz, located in Dededo, Guam</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Navajo, located in Bellemont, Arizona</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Roberts, located in San Miguel, California</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Cold Bay Regional Radar Site, located in Cold Bay, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Detroit Arsenal, located in Warren, Michigan</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Hawthorne Army Depot, located in Hawthorne, Nevada</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Indian Mountain Regional Radar Site, located in Indian Mountain, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Iowa Army Ammunition Plant, located in Middletown, Iowa</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Joint Base Myer-Henderson Hall, located in Arlington, Virginia</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Joint Systems Manufacturing Center—Lima, located in Lima, Ohio</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Kenai Regional Radar Site, located in Kenai, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Kotzebue Regional Radar Site, located in Kotzebue, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • Lake City Army Ammunition Plant, located in Independence, Missouri
                    <PRTPAGE P="88131"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Letterkenny Army Depot, located in Chambersburg, Pennsylvania</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Lisburne Regional Radar Site, located in Cape Lisburne, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Marine Corps Logistics Base Albany, located in Albany, Georgia</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Marine Corps Logistics Base Barstow, located in Barstow, California</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Marine Corps Support Facility Blount Island, located in Jacksonville, Florida</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• McAlester Army Ammunition Plant, located in McAlester, Oklahoma</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Military Ocean Terminal Concord, located in Concord, California</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Military Ocean Terminal Sunny Point, located in Brunswick County, North Carolina</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Air Station Corpus Christi, located in Corpus Christi, Texas</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Logistics Support Activity Ketchikan, located in Ketchikan, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Logistics Support Activity LaMoure, located in LaMoure, North Dakota</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Logistics Support Annex Orlando, located in Okahumpka, Florida</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Logistics Support Facility Aguada, located in Aguada, Puerto Rico</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Logistics Support Facility Cutler, located in Cutler, Maine</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Naval Suffolk Facility, located in Suffolk, Virginia</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Pine Bluff Arsenal, located in White Hall, Arkansas</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Pueblo Chemical Depot, located in Pueblo, Colorado</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Red River Army Depot, located in Texarkana, Texas</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Romanzof Regional Radar Site, located in Cape Romanzof, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Scott Air Force Base, located in St. Clair County, Illinois</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Scranton Army Ammunition Plant, located in Scranton, Pennsylvania</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Sparrevohn Regional Radar Site, located in Sparrevohn, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Tatalina Regional Radar Site, located in Tatalina, Alaska</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Tooele Army Depot, located in Tooele, Utah</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Part 2</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Altus Air Force Base, located in Altus, Oklahoma</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Arnold Air Force Base, located in Coffee County and Franklin County, Tennessee (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Barksdale Air Force Base, located in Bossier City, Louisiana</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Dodge, located in Johnston, Iowa</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Grayling, located in Grayling, Michigan</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Williams, located in Bluffdale, Utah</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Cannon Air Force Base, located in Clovis, New Mexico</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Chocolate Mountain Aerial Gunnery Range, located in Niland, California</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Columbus Air Force Base, located in Columbus, Mississippi</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Dover Air Force Base, located in Delmarva, Delaware</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Novosel, located in Dale County, Alabama</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Goodfellow Air Force Base, located in San Angelo, Texas</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Joint Base Cape Cod, located in Sandwich, Massachusetts</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Joint Base Charleston, located in North Charleston, South Carolina</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Joint Base San Antonio, located in San Antonio, Texas (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Little Rock Air Force Base, located in Little Rock, Arkansas</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Malmstrom Air Force Base, located in Great Falls, Montana (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Maxwell-Gunter Air Force Base, located in Montgomery, Alabama</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Moody Air Force Base, located in Valdosta, Georgia (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Muscatatuck Urban Training Center, located in Butlerville, Indiana</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Redstone Arsenal, located in Huntsville, Alabama (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Schriever Air Force Base, located in Colorado Springs, Colorado (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Tinker Air Force Base, located in Midwest City, Oklahoma (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Townsend Bombing Range, located in McIntosh County, Georgia</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Vance Air Force Base, located in Enid, Oklahoma</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Whiteman Air Force Base, located in Knob Noster, Missouri</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Wright-Patterson Air Force Base, located in Dayton, Ohio (moved from part 1 to part 2)</FP>
                <P>Additionally, the Final Rule removes three sites currently included in appendix A. Cape Cod Air Force Station is removed from part 1 because it is located within Joint Base Cape Cod, which is added to the appendix at part 2 as detailed above. Iowa National Guard Joint Force Headquarters is removed from part 2 because it is located within Camp Dodge, which is added to the appendix at part 2 as detailed above. Finally, Lackland Air Force Base is removed from part 2 because it is located within Joint Base San Antonio, which is moved from part 1 to part 2 of appendix A as detailed above.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Technical Amendments To Update Identification of Certain Military Installations</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the Proposed Rule, this Final Rule makes technical amendments to update the names of 14 military installations based on recommendations of the Department of Defense Naming Commission, the establishment of the U.S. Space Force (Space Force), and other changes to reflect the official names of the installations at present.</P>
                <P>
                    More specifically, these changes include technical corrections to the names of five military installations as a result of the recommendation of the Department of Defense Naming Commission (available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.defense.gov/News/News-Stories/Article/Article/3260434/dod-begins-implementing-naming-commission-recommendations/</E>
                    ) as well as name changes to more accurately reflect the respective installations' official name.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, on December 20, 2019, Congress established the Space Force as an armed force within the Department of the Air Force. Nine of the military installation names below are a result of the names having been officially changed by the Department of Defense and reflect efforts to align installations with space-focused operations under the appropriate military branch. These name changes are detailed below along with the names currently in the appendix.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Army Research Office (formerly Army Research Lab—Raleigh Durham)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Biometric Technology Center Defense Forensics and Biometrics Agency (formerly Biometric Technology Center (Biometrics Identity Management Activity))</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Buckley Space Force Base (formerly Buckley Air Force Base)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Cape Canaveral Space Force Station (formerly Cape Canaveral Air Force Station)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Cavalier Space Force Station (formerly Cavalier Air Force Station)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Cheyenne Mountain Space Force Station (formerly Cheyenne Mountain Air Force Station)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Clear Space Force Station (formerly Clear Air Force Station)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Combat Capabilities Development Command Soldier Center (formerly U.S. Army Natick Soldier Systems Center)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Eareckson Air Station (formerly Eareckson Air Force Station)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Eisenhower (formerly Fort Gordon)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Patrick Space Force Base (formerly Patrick Air Force Base)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • Peterson Space Force Base (formerly Peterson Air Force Base)
                    <PRTPAGE P="88132"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Schriever Space Force Base (formerly Schriever Air Force Base)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Vandenberg Space Force Base (formerly Vandenberg Air Force Base)</FP>
                <P>The locations of seven installations on the appendix at parts 1 and 2 are updated to assist the public in identifying the installations by reference to their specific location. While these seven installations have not relocated, the updates to the location information are for the purposes of providing further clarity in identifying relevant sites. Some of the location updates pertain to installations also discussed above due to name changes.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Army Research Office, located in Durham, NC (formerly Army Research Lab—Raleigh Durham, located in Raleigh Durham, NC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Camp Mackall, located in Southern Pines, NC (formerly Camp Mackall, located in Pinebluff, NC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Campbell, located in Hopkinsville, KY and Clarksville, TN (formerly Fort Campbell, located in Hopkinsville, KY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Johnson, located in Vernon Parrish, LA (formerly Fort Johnson, located in Leesville, LA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Knox, located in Elizabethtown, KY (formerly Fort Knox, located in Fort Knox, KY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fort Leavenworth, located in Leavenworth County, KS (formerly Fort Leavenworth, located in Leavenworth, KS)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Hardwood Range, located in Necedah, WI (formerly Hardwood Range, located in Necehuenemedah, WI)</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Amendments to the Definition of “Military Installation”</HD>
                <P>Consistent with the Proposed Rule, this Final Rule also makes several amendments to the definition of the term “military installation” at section 802.227 of the regulations. As defined in the current regulations, the term “military installation” means any site that meets certain category descriptions, and as identified in appendix A to part 802. The definition of “military installation” is amended with respect to paragraphs (e), (f), (g), (l), (m), and (n) of section 802.227.</P>
                <P>Consistent with name changes discussed in section B above, paragraphs (e) and (f) of section 802.227 are amended to add Space Force bases, stations, and major annexes thereof. Paragraphs (g), (l), (m), and (n) of section 802.227 are amended to expand the list of applicable installations that meet these category descriptions. With respect to paragraph (g) of section 802.227, Army major depots, arsenals, and military terminals, including those that are not collocated with an Army installation included in the appendix, are added as covered installations under this category description. For paragraph (l), this Final Rule removes the exclusion for Marine Corps installations, logistics battalions, and support facilities from this category description. Paragraph (m) of section 802.227 is amended to remove the set of states and reference to military ranges owned by the Navy or Air Force. Certain real estate transactions near military ranges owned by each of the Armed Forces could reasonably provide a foreign person the ability to collect intelligence, perform surveillance, or otherwise expose national security activities at such installations. This change broadens the category to any military range as appropriate and is consistent with the definition of military range as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(f)(1), which defines a range as “a designated land or water area that is set aside, managed, and used for range activities of the Department of Defense.” Finally, paragraph (n) is amended by removing the reference to the Submarine Force Atlantic and Submarine Force Pacific squadrons and supporting commands and by adding major support activities and annexes. This broadens the category to include any relevant Naval base and air station, and major support activities and annexes thereof, as identified by the Department of Defense.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Applicability Rule</HD>
                <P>This Final Rule amends section 802.104 regarding the timing and applicability of the changes made herein to transactions where the completion date was before the effective date of this Final Rule; or where the parties to the transaction executed a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction before the effective date of this Final Rule. This Final Rule also addresses the timing and applicability of the changes made in the September 2023 Rule with regard to transactions where the completion date was on or after February 13, 2020 and before September 22, 2023; or where the parties to the transaction executed a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction after February 13, 2020 and before September 22, 2023.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Rulemaking Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866</HD>
                <P>These regulations are not subject to the general requirements of Executive Order 12866, as amended, which covers review of regulations by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), because it relates to a foreign affairs function of the United States, pursuant to section 3(d)(2) of that order. In addition, these regulations are not subject to review under section 6(b) of Executive Order 12866 pursuant to section 1(d) of the June 9, 2023, Memorandum of Agreement between the Treasury Department and OMB, which states that CFIUS regulations are not subject to OMB's standard centralized review process under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The collection of information contained in these regulations has been previously submitted to the OMB for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) and approved under OMB Control Number 1505-0121. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis, unless the agency certifies that the rule will not, once implemented, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The RFA applies whenever an agency is required to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking under section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553), or any other law. As set forth below, because regulations issued pursuant to the DPA, such as these regulations, are not subject to the APA, or other law requiring the publication of a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the RFA does not apply.
                </P>
                <P>This Final Rule makes amendments to the regulations implementing section 721 of the DPA (85 FR 3158), which the Treasury Department previously determined would not significantly impact a substantial number of small entities. The amendments in this Final Rule do not change that analysis or determination. The Treasury Department also invited public comment on how the Proposed Rule would affect small entities and did not receive any specific comments on this topic.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule has been submitted to the OMB's Office of Information and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88133"/>
                    Regulatory Affairs, which has determined that the rule is not a “major” rule under the Congressional Review Act.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 31 CFR Part 802</HD>
                    <P>Foreign investments in the United States, Federal buildings and facilities, Government property, Investigations, Investment companies, Investments, Land sales, National defense, Public lands, Real property acquisition, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Treasury Department proposes to amend part 802 to title 31 of the Code of Federal Regulations to read as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 802—REGULATIONS PERTAINING TO CERTAIN TRANSACTIONS BY FOREIGN PERSONS INVOLVING REAL ESTATE IN THE UNITED STATES </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="31" PART="802">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 802 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 50 U.S.C. 4565; E.O. 11858, as amended, 73 FR 4677.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="31" PART="802">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 802.104 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 802.104 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applicability rule.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) The regulations in this part do not apply to any transaction for which:</P>
                        <P>(1) The completion date is prior to February 13, 2020; or</P>
                        <P>(2) The parties to the transaction have executed, prior to February 13, 2020, a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) The regulations in this part adopted by the final rule published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             on January 17, 2020 (85 FR 3158), shall apply to any transaction for which:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The completion date was on or after February 13, 2020, and before September 22, 2023; or</P>
                        <P>(2) The parties to the transaction have executed a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction on or after February 13, 2020, and before September 22, 2023.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) The regulations in this part as amended by the final rule published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             on August 23, 2023 (88 FR 57348), shall apply to any transaction for which:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The completion date was on or after September 22, 2023, and before December 9, 2024; or</P>
                        <P>(2) The parties to the transaction have executed a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction on or after September 22, 2023, and before December 9, 2024.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) The regulations in this part as amended by the final rule published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             on November 8, 2024 [(INSERT 
                            <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                             CITATION OF FINAL RULE)], shall apply to any transaction for which:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The completion date was on or after December 9, 2024; or</P>
                        <P>(2) The parties to the transaction have executed a binding written agreement, or other binding document, establishing the material terms of the transaction on or after December 9, 2024.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="31" PART="802">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend §  802.227 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (e), adding “, and Space Force bases and major annexes thereof” after “Air Force bases and major annexes thereof”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising paragraphs (f), (g), (l), (m), and (n).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 802.227</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Military installation.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(f) Air Force bases, Air Force stations, Space Force bases, Space Force stations, and major annexes thereof, containing satellite, telemetry, tracking, or commanding systems;</P>
                        <P>(g) Army bases, ammunition plants, centers of excellence, major depots and arsenals, military terminals, and research laboratories and major annexes thereof;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(l) Marine Corps bases and air stations and major annexes thereof, excluding detachments and recruit depots;</P>
                        <P>(m) Military ranges as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101 (f)(1), or joint forces training centers;</P>
                        <P>(n) Naval bases and air stations including major support activities and annexes;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="31" PART="802">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend appendix A to part 802 by revising the tables entitled “Part 1” and “Part 2” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Part 802—List of Military Installations and Other U.S. Government Sites</HD>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s200,r75">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Site name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Part 1</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Adelphi Laboratory Center</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adelphi, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Air Force Maui Optical and Supercomputing Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Maui, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Air Force Office of Scientific Research</ENT>
                            <ENT>Arlington, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Andersen Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Yigo, Guam.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Anniston Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Anniston, AL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Army Futures Command</ENT>
                            <ENT>Austin, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Army Research Lab—Orlando Simulations and Training Technology Center</ENT>
                            <ENT>Orlando, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Army Research Office</ENT>
                            <ENT>Durham, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Barter Island Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Barter Island, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beale Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Yuba City, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Biometric Technology Center (Defense Forensics and Biometrics Agency)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Clarksburg, WV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Blue Grass Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Richmond, KY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Buckley Space Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Aurora, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Blaz</ENT>
                            <ENT>Dededo, Guam.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Mackall </ENT>
                            <ENT>Southern Pines, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Navajo</ENT>
                            <ENT>Bellemont, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Roberts</ENT>
                            <ENT>San Miguel, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cape Newenham Long Range Radar Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cape Newenham, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cavalier Space Force Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cavalier, ND.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cheyenne Mountain Space Force Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Colorado Springs, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Clear Space Force Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Anderson, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cold Bay Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cold Bay, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Combat Capabilities Development Command Soldier Center</ENT>
                            <ENT>Natick, MA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Creech Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Indian Springs, NV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Davis-Monthan Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tucson, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88134"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency </ENT>
                            <ENT>Arlington, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Detroit Arsenal</ENT>
                            <ENT>Warren, MI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Eareckson Air Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Shemya, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Eielson Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fairbanks, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Ellington Field Joint Reserve Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Houston, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fairchild Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Spokane, WA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Belvoir </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fairfax County, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Bliss </ENT>
                            <ENT>El Paso, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Campbell </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hopkinsville, KY and Clarksville, TN.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Carson </ENT>
                            <ENT>Colorado Springs, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Cavazos </ENT>
                            <ENT>Killeen, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Detrick </ENT>
                            <ENT>Frederick, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Drum </ENT>
                            <ENT>Watertown, NY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Eisenhower </ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Gregg-Adams </ENT>
                            <ENT>Petersburg, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Knox </ENT>
                            <ENT>Elizabethtown, KY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Leavenworth </ENT>
                            <ENT>Leavenworth County, KS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Leonard Wood </ENT>
                            <ENT>Pulaski County, MO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Meade </ENT>
                            <ENT>Anne Arundel County, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Moore </ENT>
                            <ENT>Columbus, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Riley </ENT>
                            <ENT>Junction City, KS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Shafter </ENT>
                            <ENT>Honolulu, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Sill </ENT>
                            <ENT>Lawton, OK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Stewart </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hinesville, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Yukon Long Range Radar Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fort Yukon, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Francis E. Warren Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cheyenne, WY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Guam Tracking Station</ENT>
                            <ENT>Inarajan, Guam.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Hanscom Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Lexington, MA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Hawthorne Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Hawthorne, NV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Holloman Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Alamogordo, NM.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Holston Army Ammunition Plant </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kingsport, TN.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Indian Mountain Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Indian Mountain, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Iowa Army Ammunition Plant</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middletown, IA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling </ENT>
                            <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Andrews </ENT>
                            <ENT>Camp Springs, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson </ENT>
                            <ENT>Anchorage, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Langley-Eustis </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hampton, VA and Newport News, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Lewis-McChord </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tacoma, WA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst </ENT>
                            <ENT>Lakehurst, NJ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Myer-Henderson Hall</ENT>
                            <ENT>Arlington, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Pearl Harbor-Hickam </ENT>
                            <ENT>Honolulu, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Expeditionary Base Little Creek-Fort Story </ENT>
                            <ENT>Virginia Beach, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Systems Manufacturing Center—Lima</ENT>
                            <ENT>Lima, OH.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kaena Point Satellite Tracking Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Waianae, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kenai Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Kenai, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">King Salmon Air Force Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>King Salmon, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kirtland Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Albuquerque, NM.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kodiak Tracking Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kodiak Island, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Kotzebue Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Kotzebue, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Lake City Army Ammunition Plant</ENT>
                            <ENT>Independence, MO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Letterkenny Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Chambersburg, PA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Lisburne Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cape Lisburne, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Los Angeles Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>El Segundo, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MacDill Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tampa, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Ground Combat Center Twentynine Palms</ENT>
                            <ENT>Twentynine Palms, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Station Beaufort </ENT>
                            <ENT>Beaufort, SC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Station Cherry Point </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cherry Point, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Station Miramar </ENT>
                            <ENT>San Diego, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Station New River </ENT>
                            <ENT>Jacksonville, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Air Station Yuma </ENT>
                            <ENT>Yuma, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Base Camp Lejeune </ENT>
                            <ENT>Jacksonville, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Base Camp Pendleton </ENT>
                            <ENT>Oceanside, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Base Hawaii </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kaneohe Bay, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Base Hawaii, Camp H.M. Smith </ENT>
                            <ENT>Halawa, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Base Quantico </ENT>
                            <ENT>Quantico, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Logistics Base Albany</ENT>
                            <ENT>Albany, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Logistics Base Barstow</ENT>
                            <ENT>Barstow, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marine Corps Support Facility Blount Island</ENT>
                            <ENT>Jacksonville, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Mark Center </ENT>
                            <ENT>Alexandria, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">McAlester Army Ammunition Plant</ENT>
                            <ENT>McAlester, OK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Military Ocean Terminal Concord</ENT>
                            <ENT>Concord, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Military Ocean Terminal Sunny Point</ENT>
                            <ENT>Brunswick County, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Minot Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Minot, ND.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Corpus Christi</ENT>
                            <ENT>Corpus Christi, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88135"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Joint Reserve Base New Orleans </ENT>
                            <ENT>Belle Chasse, LA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Oceana </ENT>
                            <ENT>Virginia Beach, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Oceana Dam Neck Annex </ENT>
                            <ENT>Virginia Beach, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Whidbey Island </ENT>
                            <ENT>Oak Harbor, WA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Guam </ENT>
                            <ENT>Apra Harbor, Guam.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Kitsap Bangor </ENT>
                            <ENT>Silverdale, WA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Point Loma </ENT>
                            <ENT>San Diego, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base San Diego </ENT>
                            <ENT>San Diego, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Ventura County—Port Hueneme Operating Facility </ENT>
                            <ENT>Port Hueneme, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Logistics Support Activity Ketchikan</ENT>
                            <ENT>Ketchikan, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Logistics Support Activity LaMoure</ENT>
                            <ENT>LaMoure, ND.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Logistics Support Annex Orlando</ENT>
                            <ENT>Okahumpka, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Logistics Support Facility Aguada</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aguada, Puerto Rico.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Logistics Support Facility Cutler</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cutler, ME.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Research Laboratory </ENT>
                            <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Research Laboratory—Blossom Point </ENT>
                            <ENT>Welcome, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Research Laboratory—Stennis Space Center </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hancock County, MS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Research Laboratory—Tilghman </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tilghman, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Station Newport </ENT>
                            <ENT>Newport, RI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Station Norfolk </ENT>
                            <ENT>Norfolk, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Submarine Base Kings Bay </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kings Bay, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Submarine Base New London </ENT>
                            <ENT>Groton, CT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Suffolk Facility</ENT>
                            <ENT>Suffolk, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Activity Crane </ENT>
                            <ENT>Crane, IN.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Activity Orlando </ENT>
                            <ENT>Orlando, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Activity Panama City </ENT>
                            <ENT>Panama City, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Activity Philadelphia </ENT>
                            <ENT>Philadelphia, PA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Facility Carderock </ENT>
                            <ENT>Bethesda, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Facility Dahlgren </ENT>
                            <ENT>Dahlgren, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Support Facility Indian Head </ENT>
                            <ENT>Indian Head, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Surface Warfare Center Carderock Division—Acoustic Research Detachment </ENT>
                            <ENT>Bayview, ID.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Weapons Station Seal Beach Detachment Norco</ENT>
                            <ENT>Norco, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">New Boston Air Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>New Boston, NH.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Offutt Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Bellevue, NE.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Oliktok Long Range Radar Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Oliktok, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Orchard Combat Training Center </ENT>
                            <ENT>Boise, ID.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Peason Ridge Training Area </ENT>
                            <ENT>Leesville, LA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pentagon </ENT>
                            <ENT>Arlington, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Peterson Space Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Colorado Springs, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Picatinny Arsenal </ENT>
                            <ENT>Morris County, NJ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pine Bluff Arsenal</ENT>
                            <ENT>White Hall, AR.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Piñon Canyon Maneuver Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tyrone, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pohakuloa Training Area </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hilo, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Point Barrow Long Range Radar Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Point Barrow, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Portsmouth Naval Shipyard </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kittery, ME.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pueblo Chemical Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Pueblo, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Radford Army Ammunition Plant </ENT>
                            <ENT>Radford, VA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Red River Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Texarkana, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rock Island Arsenal </ENT>
                            <ENT>Rock Island, IL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Romanzof Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Romanzof, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rome Research Laboratory </ENT>
                            <ENT>Rome, NY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Scott Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>St. Clair County, IL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Scranton Army Ammunition Plant</ENT>
                            <ENT>Scranton, PA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Seymour Johnson Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Goldsboro, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Shaw Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Sumter, SC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Southeast Alaska Acoustic Measurement Facility </ENT>
                            <ENT>Ketchikan, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sparrevohn Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sparrevohn, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tatalina Regional Radar Site</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tatalina, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tin City Long Range Radar Site </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tin City, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tooele Army Depot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tooele, UT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Travis Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fairfield, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tyndall Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Bay County, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Watervliet Arsenal </ENT>
                            <ENT>Watervliet, NY.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Part 2</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Aberdeen Proving Ground </ENT>
                            <ENT>Aberdeen, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Air Force Plant 42 </ENT>
                            <ENT>Palmdale, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Altus Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Altus, OK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Arnold Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Coffee County and Franklin County, TN.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Barksdale Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Bossier City, LA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Dodge</ENT>
                            <ENT>Johnston, IA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Grayling</ENT>
                            <ENT>Grayling, MI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88136"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Shelby </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hattiesburg, MS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Camp Williams</ENT>
                            <ENT>Bluffdale, UT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cannon Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Clovis, NM.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cape Canaveral Space Force Station </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cape Canaveral, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Chocolate Mountain Aerial Gunnery Range</ENT>
                            <ENT>Niland, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Columbus Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Columbus, MS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dare County Range </ENT>
                            <ENT>Manns Harbor, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dover Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Delmarva, DE.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dyess Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Abilene, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Edwards Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Edwards, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Eglin Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Valparaiso, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Ellsworth Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Box Elder, SD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fallon Range Complex </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fallon, NV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Greely </ENT>
                            <ENT>Delta Junction, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Huachuca </ENT>
                            <ENT>Sierra Vista, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Irwin </ENT>
                            <ENT>San Bernardino County, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Johnson </ENT>
                            <ENT>Vernon Parish, LA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Liberty</ENT>
                            <ENT>Fayetteville, NC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Novosel</ENT>
                            <ENT>Dale County, AL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fort Wainwright </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fairbanks, AK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Goodfellow Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>San Angelo, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Grand Forks Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Grand Forks, ND.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Hardwood Range </ENT>
                            <ENT>Necedah, WI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Hill Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Ogden, UT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Cape Cod</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sandwich, MA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base Charleston</ENT>
                            <ENT>North Charleston, SC.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Joint Base San Antonio </ENT>
                            <ENT>San Antonio, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Laughlin Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Del Rio, TX.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Little Rock Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Little Rock, AR.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Luke Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Glendale, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Malmstrom Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Great Falls, MT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maxwell-Gunter Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Montgomery, AL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Moody Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Valdosta, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Mountain Home Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Mountain Home, ID.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Muscatatuck Urban Training Center</ENT>
                            <ENT>Butlerville, IN.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Meridian </ENT>
                            <ENT>Meridian, MS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Station Patuxent River </ENT>
                            <ENT>Lexington Park, MD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Air Weapons Station China Lake </ENT>
                            <ENT>Ridgecrest, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Kitsap—Keyport </ENT>
                            <ENT>Keyport, WA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Base Ventura County—Point Mugu Operating Facility</ENT>
                            <ENT>Point Mugu, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Naval Weapons Systems Training Facility Boardman </ENT>
                            <ENT>Boardman, OR.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nellis Air Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Las Vegas, NV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nevada Test and Training Range </ENT>
                            <ENT>Tonopah, NV.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pacific Missile Range Facility </ENT>
                            <ENT>Kekaha, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Patrick Space Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cocoa Beach, FL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Redstone Arsenal</ENT>
                            <ENT>Huntsville, AL.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Schriever Space Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Colorado Springs, CO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tinker Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Midwest City, OK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Townsend Bombing Range</ENT>
                            <ENT>McIntosh County, GA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tropic Regions Test Center </ENT>
                            <ENT>Wahiawa, HI.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Utah Test and Training Range </ENT>
                            <ENT>Barro, UT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Vance Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Enid, OK.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Vandenberg Space Force Base </ENT>
                            <ENT>Lompoc, CA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">West Desert Test Center </ENT>
                            <ENT>Dugway, UT.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">White Sands Missile Range </ENT>
                            <ENT>White Sands Missile Range, NM.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Whiteman Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Knob Noster, MO.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wright-Patterson Air Force Base</ENT>
                            <ENT>Dayton, OH.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Yuma Proving Ground </ENT>
                            <ENT>Yuma, AZ.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <STARS/>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Paul M. Rosen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Investment Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25773 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AK-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88137"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2024-1002]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA87</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Security Zone; Corpus Christi Ship Channel, Corpus Christi, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary moving security zone for navigable waters within a 500-yard radius of a certain vessel carrying cargo requiring an elevated level of security in the Corpus Christi Ship Channel and the La Quinta Channel. The temporary security zone is needed to protect the vessel, the cargo, and the surrounding waterway from terrorist acts, sabotage, or other subversive acts, accidents, or events of a similar nature. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Corpus Christi or a designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from November 4, 2024, until November 7, 2024. This rule is effective without actual notice from November 7, 2024 until November 14, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         type USCG-2024-1002 in the search box and click “Search.” Next, in the Document Type column, select “Supporting &amp; Related Material.”
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, call or email Lieutenant Tim Cardenas, Sector Corpus Christi Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 361-939-5130, email 
                        <E T="03">Timothy.J.Cardenas@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port, Sector Corpus Christi</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background Information and Regulatory History</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule under the authority in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this vessel's transit and cargo on October 28, 2024. There is insufficient time to publish an NPRM before this operation because the security zone must be established by November 4, 2024, to ensure security of this vessel and the surrounding area and there is insufficient time to provide a reasonable comment period and to consider those comments before issuing the rule.</P>
                <P>
                    Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard also finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Delaying the effective date of this rule would be contrary to the public interest because quick action is needed to provide for the security of this vessel and its surroundings while it is in transit.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Legal Authority and Need for Rule</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard is issuing this security zone regulation under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70051 and 70124. The Captain of the Port, Sector Corpus Christi (COTP) has determined that potential hazards are associated with the transit of the Motor Vessel (M/V) ADAMASTOS. There is a security concern within a 500-yard radius of the vessel when it is loaded and when it is transiting while loaded. This rule is needed to provide for the safety and security of the vessel, its cargo, and the surrounding waterway from terrorist acts, sabotage, or other subversive acts, accidents, or other events of a similar nature while the vessel is transiting within Corpus Christi, TX.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a 500-yard radius, temporary, moving security zone around M/V ADAMASTOS. Other mariners and vessels will be able to identify the security zone because of the M/V ADAMASTOS's name clearly marked on its stern, and port and starboard sides. The zone for the vessel will be effective from November 4, 2024, through November 14, 2024, and will be enforced when the vessel is cargo loaded and transiting the Corpus Christi Ship Channel and La Quinta Ship Channel to protect the vessel, its cargo, and the surrounding waterways from terrorist acts, sabotage, or other subversive acts, accidents, or other events of a similar nature while the vessel is traveling within the La Quinta Ship Channels and Corpus Christi Ship Channels.</P>
                <P>No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the security zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. As used in this section, “designated representative” means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port, USCG Sector Corpus Christi (COTP) in the enforcement of the security zone. Persons or vessels desiring to enter or pass through each zone must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at 361-939-0450. If permission is granted, all persons and vessels must comply with the instructions of the COTP or designated representative. The COTP or a designated representative will inform the public through Broadcast Notices to Mariners and Marine Safety Information Bulletins (MSIBs) as appropriate for the enforcement times and dates for the security zone.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094 (Modernizing Regulatory Review). Accordingly, this rule is not subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).</P>
                <P>
                    This regulatory action determination is based on the size, duration, and location of the security zone. This rule will impact a small, designated area of 500-yards around the moving vessel in the Corpus Christi Ship Channel and La Quinta Ship Channel as the vessel transits these channels over a period of approximately six hours or less. Most 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88138"/>
                    vessels will be able to move around the security zone and therefore the impediment to the movement of other vessels will be minimal. Moreover, the rule allows other vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the temporary security zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section above.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f) and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a moving security zone lasting for the duration of time that the M/V ADAMASTOS is within the Corpus Christi Ship Channel and La Quinta Channel while loaded with cargo. It will prohibit entry within a 500-yard radius of the M/V ADAMASTOS while the vessel is transiting loaded within Corpus Christi Ship Channel and La Quinta Ship Channel. It is categorically excluded from further review under L60(a) in Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket. For instructions on locating the docket, see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this preamble.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Protest Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section to coordinate protest activities so that your message can be received without jeopardizing the safety or security of people, places, or vessels.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>46 U.S.C 70034, 70051; 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                  
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-1002 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-1002</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Security Zones; Corpus Christi Ship Channel. Corpus Christi, TX.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a moving security zone: All navigable waters encompassing a 500-yard radius around the M/V ADAMASTOS while the vessel loaded with cargo and is in the Corpus Christi Ship Channel and the La Quinta Ship Channel.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced during the time the ship is loaded and underway.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) The general security zone regulations in subpart D of this part, you may not enter the security zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative. A designated representative is a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88139"/>
                            Captain of the Port, USCG Sector Corpus Christi (COTP) in the enforcement of the security zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Persons or vessels desiring to enter or pass through the zones must request permission from the COTP Sector Corpus Christi on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at 361-939-0450.</P>
                        <P>(3) If permission is granted, all persons and vessels must comply with all lawful orders and directions of the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Information broadcasts.</E>
                             The COTP or a designated representative will inform the public through Broadcast Notices to Mariners (BNMs) and Marine Safety Information Bulletins (MSIBs) of the enforcement times and dates for this security zone.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>T.H. Bertheau,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Corpus Christi.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25891 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0187; FRL-11554-02-R1]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; New Hampshire; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan for the Second Implementation Period</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the regional haze state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by New Hampshire on May 5, 2022, as satisfying applicable requirements under the Clean Air Act (CAA) and EPA's Regional Haze Rule for the program's second implementation period. New Hampshire's SIP submission addresses the requirement that states must periodically revise their long-term strategies for making reasonable progress towards the national goal of preventing any future, and remedying any existing, anthropogenic impairment of visibility, including regional haze, in mandatory Class I Federal areas. The SIP submission also addresses other applicable requirements for the second implementation period of the regional haze program. EPA is taking this action pursuant to sections 110 and 169A of the Clean Air Act.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective December 9, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0187. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or at the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1 Regional Office, Air and Radiation Division, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Boston, MA. EPA requests that if at all possible, you contact the contact listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section to schedule your inspection. The Regional Office's official hours of business are Monday through Friday, 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., excluding legal holidays and facility closures due to COVID-19.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Eric Rackauskas, Air Quality Branch, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code 5-MI), Boston, MA 02109—3912, tel. (617) 918-1628, email 
                        <E T="03">rackauskas.eric@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background and Purpose</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Response to Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Final Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 5, 2022, supplemented on September 21, 2023,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services (NHDES) submitted a revision to its SIP to address regional haze for the second implementation period. NHDES made this SIP submission to satisfy the requirements of the CAA's regional haze program pursuant to CAA sections 169A and 169B and 40 CFR 51.308. This submission included an updated version of Env-A 2300, 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation of Regional Haze.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         New Hampshire included a corrected Appendix W in a supplemental submission on September 21, 2023.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On November 20, 2023, EPA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) in which EPA proposed to approve New Hampshire's May 5, 2022, SIP submission (supplemented on September 21, 2023) as satisfying the regional haze requirements for the second implementation period contained in the CAA and 40 CFR 51.308. EPA is now determining that the New Hampshire regional haze SIP submission for the second implementation period meets the applicable statutory and regulatory requirements and is thus approving New Hampshire's submission into its SIP.</P>
                <P>Other specific requirements of the New Hampshire submittal and the rationale for EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPRM and will not be restated here.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In response to the NPRM, EPA received four sets of comments, including a comment letter signed by the National Parks Conservation Association, the Sierra Club, the Appalachian Mountain Club, and the Coalition to Protect America's National Parks (collectively, the “Conservation Groups” or the “Groups”), an anonymous comment, a comment letter from the Mid-Atlantic/Northeast Visibility Union (MANEVU), and a comment letter from the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality's Division of Air Quality. Below, EPA summarizes significant comments and provides responses. The verbatim comments may be viewed under Docket ID Number EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0187 on the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 1:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups comment that EPA improperly relied on the fact that the Class I areas impacted by New Hampshire sources are below their respective Uniform Rate of Progress (URP) glidepaths to allow New Hampshire to avoid a “rigorous analysis,” and that EPA allows New Hampshire to use being below the URP as a “safe harbor” to avoid Regional Haze and Clean Air Act requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 1:</E>
                     The comment appears to conflate two issues regarding rule requirements related to the URP glidepath. EPA has said that a Class I area's position below the URP glidepath is not a safe harbor—that is, being below the glidepath cannot be a basis for justifying a particular set of controls or decision not to require any controls. EPA did not “rely on the fact that the Class I areas impacted by New Hampshire sources are below their respective URP glidepaths” or consider 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88140"/>
                    the URP glidepaths in the context of New Hampshire's source selection or control measure determinations. Rather, on the only page of the NPRM the comment cites for support, EPA noted that the fact that the RPGs for the Class I areas are below their respective URP glidepaths means that the demonstrations that would otherwise be required under 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) are not triggered. These regulatory sections are, by their very terms, only applicable where a state establishes RPGs above the URP glidepath(s) for its Class I area(s). Thus, considering whether a particular Class I area is below the glidepath is entirely appropriate and, in fact, required in this context.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 2:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups contend that the MANEVU visibility modeling and source selection threshold “used a 2% contribution threshold (or 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     visibility impact threshold) to target the largest sources of visibility impairment in the state.” Based on this threshold, New Hampshire identified only one unit at one source in the state for a four-factor analysis, and the Groups argue that EPA cannot rely on this source review to conduct a rigorous and meaningful source selection process. The Groups further comment that “EPA states multiple times in its proposed approval of New Hampshire's SIP Revision that it does not agree with the State's reliance on MANE-VU's source selection threshold . . . [y]et . . . attempts to excuse New Hampshire's flawed source selection process and approve the State's SIP Revision anyway by claiming that New Hampshire analyzed additional sources of visibility pollution in its SIP.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 2:</E>
                     This comment also appears to conflate two issues—namely, the 2% contribution threshold MANEVU used to determine whether a state is reasonably anticipated to impact visibility at a Class I area and the 3.0 inverse megameters (Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                    ) threshold used in Ask 2 to target the largest individual sources across a multi-state region. To be clear, MANEVU considered a 2% threshold for use in determining whether emissions from a state as a whole contribute to visibility impairment in a Class I area. Here, New Hampshire concedes that emissions from the State exceed that threshold and therefore, by the State's admission, contribute to visibility impairment in Class I areas in New Hampshire, Maine, and New Brunswick (Canada). Thus, the 2% contribution threshold was of little import to New Hampshire's source selection process, as the State was above the threshold and did select numerous sources for review through the MANEVU Asks and federal land managers (FLMs) consultation process. As for the 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     threshold, the MANEVU states used it in one of the six Asks as just one means of selecting sources in a state for four-factor analysis. Other MANEVU Asks examined sources with impacts lower than 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     and, in several cases, resulted in New Hampshire considering the four factors for those sources.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For example, MANEVU Ask 5 resulted in NHDES requesting a four-factor analysis for five combustion turbines in the State. See Appendix T of the New Hampshire submittal.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As explained in the NPRM, EPA does not necessarily agree that the 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     visibility impact is a reasonable threshold for source selection. The RHR recognizes that, due to the nature of regional haze visibility impairment, numerous and sometimes relatively small sources may need to be selected and evaluated for implementation of control measures to make reasonable progress. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     2021 Clarifications Memo at 4. As explained in the 2021 Clarifications Memo, while states have discretion to choose any source selection threshold that is reasonable, “[a] state that relies on a visibility (or proxy for visibility impact) threshold to select sources for four-factor analysis should set the threshold at a level that captures a meaningful portion of the state's total contribution to visibility impairment to Class I areas.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    That said, New Hampshire did not rely on the 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     threshold as its sole means of selecting sources for review. As the comment itself concedes, New Hampshire reviewed additional sources under Asks 1, 4, and 5. Moreover, the additional sources reviewed under these Asks had estimated impacts below the 3.0 Mm
                    <E T="51">−1</E>
                     threshold. And, while the comment generally criticizes these Asks as being “highly limited” in scope and asserts that New Hampshire “fail[ed] to conduct a rigorous and meaningful source selection process,” the comment does not specify any additional sources that New Hampshire should have selected for further analysis. The comment overlooks that the sources New Hampshire examined under Asks 1 and 4 employ an array of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     controls and, in the case of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions, generally have SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     controls in place or burn low-sulfur fuels. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     New Hampshire Regional Haze SIP Submittal at 54-55, Table 4-10. Furthermore, the comment does not mention New Hampshire's consideration of the four factors in Ask 5 as well as in Ask 3, which addressed low-sulfur fuel requirements and reduces SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions from a host of sources across the state. EPA maintains that New Hampshire examined a reasonable set of sources with the greatest modeled impacts on visibility, including sources captured by the other MANEVU Asks and sources flagged by the FLMs, provided four-factor analyses, and reasonably concluded that additional four-factor analyses for other sources were not necessary because the outcome would be that no further emission reductions would be reasonably achieved.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 3:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups state that EPA “wrongfully endorses New Hampshire's decision not to analyze sources that are `Effectively Controlled' under other Clean Air Act programs.” The comment states “Nowhere in its SIP Revision did New Hampshire conduct any kind of source-specific analysis for the five facilities noted above [Burgess BioPower, Essential Power Newington, Granite Ridge Energy, and Wheelabrator Concord, and GSP Newington] demonstrating that further analysis of these facilities would be futile.” Further, “none of the Title V permit emission limits for these facilities are proposed to be included in New Hampshire's SIP Revision. While the emission limits may be `federally enforceable' for other purposes under the Clean Air Act (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     construction or operating permits), the state-issued permits where those emission limits are found can expire, and so do not meet the SIP requirement for permanence.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 3:</E>
                     EPA's approval of New Hampshire's regional haze SIP is based on its satisfaction of the applicable regulatory requirements for the second planning period in 40 CFR 51.308(f), (g), and (i). Those requirements include that states must evaluate and determine the emission reduction measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress by considering the four statutory factors, and that the measures that are necessary for reasonable progress must be in the SIP. EPA's NPRM explains that New Hampshire's engagement with MANEVU's Asks 1, 2, 3, and 5 adequately satisfy these requirements. EPA's approval is therefore based on its determination that New Hampshire's analysis and actions to address Asks 1, 2, 3, and 5 satisfy the reasonable progress requirements. New Hampshire, in the SIP submittal, did not rely on any measures at these five facilities identified by the Groups as necessary for reasonable progress. As discussed in the NPRM, New Hampshire did, contrary to the comment, provide a specific analysis for each facility that demonstrated that these facilities were 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88141"/>
                    already well controlled. Further, as stated in the NPRM, New Hampshire explained that three of these facilities (Burgess BioPower, Essential Power Newington, and Granite Ridge Energy) are subject to Nonattainment New Source Review (NNSR), and thus have limits that were established to meet Lowest Available Emission Rate (LAER) at the time their respective federally enforceable preconstruction permits were issued. While it is true that a facility's title V operating permit expires and requires periodic renewal, the LAER limits established by the preconstruction permit are carried forward into each successive title V permit and do not expire until/unless a permit is rescinded, which may occur after the respective unit is decommissioned. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 70.2 (defining “applicable requirement” to include “[a]ny term or condition of any preconstruction permits issued pursuant to regulations approved or promulgated through rulemaking under title I, including parts C or D, of the Act”), 70.6(a)(1) (requiring a title V operating permit issued by a state to include “[e]missions limitations and standards, including those operational requirements and limitations that assure compliance with 
                    <E T="03">all applicable requirements</E>
                    ”) (emphasis added); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     Env-A 609.05(b) (providing in relevant part that “[e]ach title V operating permit issued [by New Hampshire] shall contain all of the elements required by 40 CFR 70.6(a)”). If a title V operating permit expires before the permitting authority can reissue it, the permittee continues to be subject to the permit and all applicable requirements, as long as the permittee has submitted a timely and complete renewal application to the permitting authority. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 70.4(b)(10)(i); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     Env-A 609.15(c). If the permittee has not submitted a timely and complete renewal application, the expiration of the title V permit “terminates the source's right to operate.” 40 CFR 70.7(c); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     Env-A 609.15(b). The other two facilities (GSP Newington and Wheelabrator Concord) also have title V operating permits and have permit limits established in New Hampshire's NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT program, which is in the SIP and, therefore, cannot be changed without a SIP revision. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 70.2 (defining “applicable requirements” to include “[a]ny standard or other requirement provided for in the applicable implementation plan approved or promulgated by EPA through rulemaking under title I of the Act that implements the relevant requirements of the Act, including any revisions to that plan promulgated in [40 CFR] part 52”); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     Env-A 609.05(b). New Hampshire provided this analysis as a response to MANEVU Ask 1, and EPA finds New Hampshire provided a reasonable reply to this Ask (which also resulted in more stringent limits for Stored Solar Tamworth).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 4:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups comment that “New Hampshire's SIP Revision embodies a largely status quo approach for the second planning period,” and that “New Hampshire did not require a single source to install new emission control equipment to reduce haze-forming pollution in the second planning period. Instead, New Hampshire's SIP Revision incorporates only (1) a voluntary reduction in the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emission limit for Stored Solar Tamworth and (2) existing NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions limits for two units (MK1 and MK2) at GSP Merrimack Station previously adopted as part of New Hampshire's most recent ozone SIP revision.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 4:</E>
                     New Hampshire submitted Env-A 2300 for approval into the State's SIP, which contains a reduced NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions limitation for Stored Solar Tamworth 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and incorporates by reference Env-A 1300, which also includes lower NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions limitations for GSP Merrimack Station. To the extent the commenters are criticizing the reduced NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limit at Tamworth as “voluntary,” the comment does not explain why an otherwise stringent, enforceable limit is less legitimate when a facility does not oppose it. The limits were deemed necessary for reasonable progress by the State, and thus were submitted to EPA as part of Env-A 2300 for SIP inclusion as required by the Clean Air Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Env-A 2300 lowered the 30-day rolling average of allowable NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         emissions at Tamworth from 0.265 lb/MMBtu (which was allowed under its previous permit established in 1987) to 0.075 lb/MMBtu.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions at Merrimack Station, the facility currently employs highly effective selective catalytic reduction (SCR) NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control devices on both of its coal-fired boilers. New Hampshire also recently lowered the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits applicable to this facility as part of a reasonably available control technology (RACT) SIP revision (Env-A 1300) submitted to EPA in 2018 (effective in the State on August 15, 2018) and approved by EPA on April 30, 2024 (89 FR 34137). EPA's approval of Env-A 1300 includes an analysis of the state's evaluation of whether additional NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control equipment, including a sorbent injection system, should be required to further reduce NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions from the facility. New Hampshire also amended its regulations at Env-A 2300, “Mitigation of Regional Haze,” to incorporate the more stringent NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits in Env-A 1300 and submitted Env-A 2300 to EPA with its Regional Haze Plan for approval into the SIP. As EPA proposed in the NPRM, EPA is approving the revised state rule Env-A 2300, “Mitigation of Regional Haze,” into the SIP. Additionally, EPA guidance recommends that states evaluate controls from other programs when considering source selection. “It may be reasonable for a state not to select an effectively controlled source. A source may already have effective controls in place as a result of a previous regional haze SIP 
                    <E T="03">or to meet another CAA requirement.</E>
                    ” EPA's 2019 Regional Haze Guidance at 22 (emphasis added). That the regulations in Env-A 1300 were originally adopted to provide for control of ozone-forming pollutants to meet requirements for a health-based standard does not make them any less effective in preventing future, or remedying existing, visibility impairment in Class I areas. Indeed, as the commenters themselves recognize, “the same pollutants that mar scenic views at national parks and wilderness areas also cause significant public health impacts.” Comments at 22. In short, EPA finds that New Hampshire adequately evaluated control measures at existing sources and provided a satisfactory demonstration that meets the regional haze requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 5:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups state that the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits applicable to the coal units at GSP Merrimack Station are too high and “inconsistent with Regional Haze requirements” because they “appear to be little more than improper rubberstamping of existing behavior at Merrimack” and are “completely out of step with what other states—and with what EPA—considers to be achievable by SCR-equipped units like those at Merrimack.” The Groups comment that both units at GSP Merrimack Station are fully capable of achieving lower NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emission rates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 5:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups copied this portion of their comments (with only nominal change) directly from comments the Sierra Club submitted to EPA during the comment period on EPA's proposal to approve New Hampshire's latest NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT SIP revision. 88 FR 43483 (July 10, 2023). EPA previously responded to those comments in a final rulemaking for that notice, 89 FR 34137 (April 30, 2024), and incorporates those previous responses herein by reference.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As noted, the new NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits in Env-A 1300 discussed in the comment were 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88142"/>
                    developed as part of the RACT program for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control. In the April 30, 2024, final rule, EPA notes that the emissions limits New Hampshire selected for the coal-fired units at Merrimack Station of 0.22 lbs NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    /MMBtu, on a 24-hour basis, represent emission reductions of 83% and 91% from uncontrolled levels for MK1 and MK2, respectively, which is a high level of control. Given MK2's larger size and emissions, the emissions weighted average reduction from uncontrolled levels for both units combined is 88% based on recent emissions data. This level of control is near the upper end of the emission reduction capability of SCR control systems.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the Regional Haze action, New Hampshire incorporated the new lower NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits for Merrimack into Env-A 2300, which it submitted with its Regional Haze plan for incorporation into the SIP. While the commenters assert that the new limits are also “inconsistent with Regional Haze requirements,” the comment—lifted as it is from one of the commenters' earlier comments related to the RACT program—does not provide an explanation to support this conclusion, claiming only that, from a technical perspective, Merrimack is capable of doing better and that limits applicable to similar sources in other states are lower. EPA has already addressed these technical claims. 89 FR 34137. Furthermore, similar to the new lower limits in Env-A 2300 applicable to Stored Solar Tamworth, it is not inconsistent with Regional Haze requirements for New Hampshire to compare actual emission rates at Merrimack to rates currently allowed and to “lock-in” lower emissions rates. Based on the analysis New Hampshire provided with its Regional Haze submittal, EPA determined those new rates to be reasonable, as explained in EPA's earlier responses. Finally, EPA also notes that, since publication of the NPRM in this Regional Haze action, the Sierra Club, GSP, and EPA executed a settlement agreement in another matter that requires that GSP permanently cease operation of both coal-fired boilers at Merrimack Station by no later than June 1, 2028, or even by June 1, 2027, if certain events occur.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While New Hampshire's SIP submittal does not rely on this closure as necessary to make reasonable progress, it is enforceable by the Sierra Club—the original author of this comment.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Air Pollution Control Technology Fact Sheet: Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR); EPA-452/F-03-032.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Under either scenario, both units would cease operating during the second planning period of the Regional Haze program. Copies of the press releases from Sierra Club, GSP, and the Conservation Law Foundation (“CLF”) (who participated with Sierra Club in the settlement) announcing the agreement are included in the docket for the rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 6:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups comment that EPA should require New Hampshire to include Schiller Station's current non-operational status as a federally enforceable SIP provision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 6:</E>
                     EPA did not rely on Schiller's more than four-year (and counting) outage to approve New Hampshire's SIP submission. Rather, EPA referred to this long-term outage when discussing the State's conclusion that “no additional updates were needed to meet Ask 4,” 88 FR at 80673, which requested that states “pursue updating permits, enforceable agreements, and/or rules to lock-in lower emission rates for sources larger than 250 MMBtu per hour that have switched to lower emitting fuels.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     As noted in the NPRM, the only source covered by this Ask in New Hampshire appears to be Schiller, in that one of its three steam units “technically maintains the ability to operate by burning coal.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     As EPA also noted in the NPRM, however, this steam unit has not burned coal in over 17 years when it was converted to wood-fired, 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     at 80669, 80673, and that, notwithstanding New Hampshire's decision not to lock in the emissions limits associated with burning wood, “it is reasonable to conclude, for a number of reasons—including historic operation, financial viability, fuel availability, and the overall direction of the fuels market—that it is unlikely that this source will ever burn coal again,” 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     at 80673. In other words, locking in the wood-burning limits is unlikely to have any impact on actual emissions from Schiller. EPA also noted that the length of Schiller's recent outage and other related events also suggest that it may never run in 
                    <E T="03">any</E>
                     capacity again, including using wood. EPA noted all of these facts but, as the comment recognizes, did not agree that New Hampshire had met Ask 4. In this instance, Ask 4 is not necessarily required for New Hampshire's Regional Haze SIP to fulfill the requirements of the Regional Haze Rule. As EPA noted in the NPRM, New Hampshire satisfied the requirements of the Regional Haze Rule through its analysis and actions addressing Asks 1, 2, 3, and 5. 88 FR at 80671. Thus, EPA does not rely on New Hampshire's approach to Ask 4 to approve the Regional Haze SIP submission. Neither New Hampshire nor EPA found that the closure of Unit 5 is necessary for reasonable progress and, therefore, adding a closure date to the SIP is not required. In any event, EPA also notes that Unit 5 and the two coal-only units (Units 4 and 6) are all part of the previously discussed settlement among GSP, EPA, the Sierra Club, and CLF that was reached in another matter after the NPRM issued. Under that agreement, GSP shall permanently cease operation of the boilers at Schiller Unit 4, Unit 5, and Unit 6 by no later than December 31, 2025. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     CLF Press Release at 1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 7:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups comment that, for proposed actions on SIPs, CAA § 307(d)(2)-(3) requires EPA to create a docket containing all the information on which the proposal relies. Moreover, to incorporate any rules by reference into a proposed action, EPA must explain “the ways that the materials it proposes to incorporate by reference are reasonably available to interested parties or how it worked to make those materials reasonably available to interested parties.” 1 CFR 51.5(a)(1)-(2). Because EPA relies on, incorporates by reference, and seeks to approve revisions to Env-A 2300, EPA should have made Env-A 2300 publicly available in the electronic docket for this action. EPA also should have included Env-A 1300 in the electronic docket because EPA stated in the NPRM that Env-A 2300 incorporates Env-A 1300 by reference. Further, EPA did not explain in the NPRM whether Env-A 1300 and 2300 include required monitoring, reporting, or recordkeeping requirements, and if not, where those SIP elements can be found. (citing 40 CFR part 51, appendix V). EPA must provide the public with an opportunity to review and comment on Env-A 1300 and 2300 and the SIP provisions New Hampshire will rely on for monitoring, reporting and record keeping to track compliance with the emission limits, to ensure the State's SIP Revision and EPA's proposed approval comply with the CAA and RHR. Because EPA did not include Env-A 1300 and 2300 in the electronic docket, the public, including the commenters, were unable to review these provisions or provide comment on whether they satisfy the CAA or the RHR. EPA must add Env-A 1300 and 2300 to the electronic docket and re-notice the proposed action on the SIP Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 7:</E>
                     EPA acknowledges the oversight that Env-A 2300 was not included in the proposal's electronic docket on 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     but does not agree that re-noticing the proposal is necessary to remedy that harmless error. In short, EPA disagrees that the inadvertent omission of Env-A 2300 from the electronic docket prevented the commenters or other members of the public from reviewing Env-A 2300 or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88143"/>
                    Env-A 1300 or providing comment on whether they satisfy the requirements of the Clean Air Act or the RHR, because these state regulations are widely available and, therefore, could have been easily obtained through other means during the comment period. Moreover, other documents in the record indicate that at least one of the signatories to the comment letter—Sierra Club—already had Env-A 1300 in its possession.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the NPRM, EPA stated that the state's Regional Haze submission “included the revised New Hampshire's Code of Administrative Rules Env-A 2300, `Mitigation of Regional Haze,' which contains updated emissions limits for certain facilities located in the State.” 88 FR at 80664; 
                    <E T="03">see also id.</E>
                     at 80669. EPA also noted that “Env-A 2300 incorporates by reference NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits in Env-A 1300” that NHDES had revised as part of a SIP submittal for the 2008 and 2015 8-hr ozone standards related to NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT, limits that are applicable only to Merrimack Station. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 80669 n.63. EPA also noted that it had recently proposed in that NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT SIP action to approve Env-A 1300 into New Hampshire's SIP. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">citing</E>
                     88 FR 43483 (July 10, 2023)). Finally, EPA proposed to add the revised Env-A 2300 to New Hampshire's SIP. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 80671; 
                    <E T="03">see also id.</E>
                     at 80679. While EPA stated that it was making Env-A 2300 available through 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the Region 1 office, the commenters correctly observe that Env-A 2300 was not included in the electronic docket.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The comment states that CAA § 307(d)(2)-(3) require that EPA make Env-A 2300 and Env-A 1300 publicly available in the electronic docket because EPA relies on Env-A 2300 and, by reference, Env-A 1300 to approve New Hampshire's Regional Haze SIP with respect to NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     limits applicable to two facilities—Stored Solar Tamworth and Merrimack Station. The comment further states that, because the state regulations were not included in the electronic docket, EPA must add them and re-notice the proposal to allow the commenters to review the regulations. EPA does not agree that re-noticing is necessary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    First, § 307(d) is not applicable to this SIP action, nor do the commenters explain why they conclude that it is. By its terms, CAA § 307(d) applies only to particular types of actions taken by EPA, none of which expressly include EPA actions to approve a state Regional Haze SIP submission. 42 U.S.C. 7607(d)(1).
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 307(d) may also be applied to “such other actions as the Administrator may determine,” 
                    <E T="03">id.</E>
                     § 7607(d)(1)(V), but EPA never indicated in the NPRM that it had determined to apply § 307(d) to this SIP approval action. Thus, the comment's reliance on § 307(d)(2)-(3) is misplaced.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Act provides that § 307(d) applies to “promulgation or revision of regulations under part C of subchapter I (relating to prevention of significant deterioration of air quality and protection of visibility),” 42 U.S.C. 7607(d)(1)(J), but EPA is not, in today's action, promulgating or revising regulations under part C of the Act. Nor is EPA promulgating or revising a federal implementation plan under § 110(c). 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         § 7607(d)(1)(B). Rather, as noted above, EPA is approving a state's Regional Haze SIP submission. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., WildEarth Guardians</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         759 F.3d 1064, 1069 (9th Cir. 2014) (reviewing a Regional Haze SIP approval pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”), not CAA § 307(d)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, even if § 307(d) were applicable to this action, the inadvertent omission of Env-A 2300 from the electronic docket would be a harmless procedural error and does not necessitate re-noticing and re-opening the comment period, because the state regulations are publicly available. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 7607(d)(8), (9)(D)(iii).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In contrast, this is not a case where an agency relied on internal information known only to it. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g., Penobscot Indian Nation</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Hous. &amp; Urb. Dev.,</E>
                     539 F. Supp. 2d 40, 48-51 (D.D.C. 2008). The commenters could have obtained the state regulations through a number of publicly available methods, including, for instance, a simple internet search,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     visiting the New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services' (NHDES) web page,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or contacting the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     EPA listed in the NPRM. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     88 FR at 80655, 80679. The regulations' absence from the electronic docket therefore did not preclude the commenters from providing meaningful comment on EPA's proposed approval.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Similarly, where § 307(d)(2)-(3) is not applicable, a harmless error rule also exists under the APA. 
                        <E T="03">Am. Radio Relay League, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                         524 F.3d 227, 237 (D.C. Cir. 2008) (“The failure to disclose for public comment is subject . . . to the rule of prejudicial error . . . .”); 
                        <E T="03">PDK Lab'ys Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. D.E.A.,</E>
                         362 F.3d 786, 799 (D.C. Cir. 2004) (“In administrative law . . . there is a harmless error rule . . . .”) (citing 5 U.S.C. 706).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See, for example, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.law.cornell.edu/regulations/new-hampshire/title-Env/subtitle-Env-A/chapter-Env-A-2300</E>
                         (last visited Sept. 16, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         See, for example, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.des.nh.gov/air</E>
                         (last visited Sept. 16, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the Sierra Club (one of the signatories to the comment letter on the NPRM for New Hampshire's Regional Haze SIP) submitted detailed comments to EPA on Env-A 1300 in the context of the above-referenced NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT SIP action—comments that demonstrate the Sierra Club had reviewed Env-A 1300 for that action.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>10</SU>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     “Sierra Club Comments on U.S. EPA, Air Plan Approval; New Hampshire; Reasonably Available Control Technology for the 2008 and 2015 Ozone Standards [EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0188]” (August 9, 2023), hereinafter “Sierra Club's NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT Comments.” Notably, the commenters on today's Regional Haze SIP action copied a portion of these earlier Sierra Club comments relating to Env-A 1300 and pasted it directly into their comments on the Regional Haze NPRM, altering them only slightly, including by correcting typos and, notably, removing the citations to Env-A 1300. 
                    <E T="03">Compare</E>
                     Conservation Groups' Regional Haze Comments at 12-19 
                    <E T="03">with</E>
                     Sierra Club's NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT Comments at 4-12. Thus, to the extent EPA committed any error by not including Env-A 1300 in the electronic docket, it would be harmless for the additional reason that the commenters already had Env-A 1300. 
                    <E T="03">See Small Refiner Lead Phase-Down Task Force</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     705 F.2d 506, 549 (D.C. Cir. 1983) (“Our cases recognize that even if the agency has not given notice in the statutorily prescribed fashion, actual notice will render the error harmless.”) (citing 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Costle,</E>
                     657 F.2d at 355, 360, 398-99). In short, we disagree that the omission of widely available state regulations rendered the commenters “unable to review the revised administrative code or provide comment on whether that code satisfies the requirements of the Clean Air Act or the RHR.” 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Re-opening the comment period so that the commenters can review state regulations only via a copy posted to the electronic docket is, therefore, unnecessary. 
                    <E T="03">Cf. Pharm. Research &amp; Mfrs. of Am.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">FTC,</E>
                     790 F.3d 198, 211 (D.C. Cir. 2015) (rejecting as “spurious” a plaintiff's claim that it did not have access to certain information that was publicly available 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88144"/>
                    and that it had “actually used” in formulating its comments).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         In addition, EPA included Env-A 1300 in the electronic docket for that action and included a 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         citation to that action in the NPRM for this Regional Haze action, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         88 FR at 80669 n.63, meaning that the other signatories to the comment letter (or anyone else for that matter) could also have obtained Env-A 1300 by accessing the electronic docket for the NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         RACT action. (Alternatively, the other signatories could simply have asked their co-commenter, the Sierra Club, for a copy of Env-A 1300). Furthermore, the Sierra Club's comments in the NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         RACT action assert that the emission limits in Env-A 1300 “are inconsistent with both RACT 
                        <E T="03">and Regional Haze requirements,</E>
                        ” Sierra Club's NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         RACT Comments at 4 (emphasis added), indicating that the Sierra Club was even at that time well aware of the provisions of Env-A 1300 and their applicability to the state's Regional Haze plan.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         And while the commenters also state that “the public” was also prevented from reviewing the state regulations, the public, like the commenters, could also have obtained the state regulations through one or more of the methods noted earlier.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Moreover, the argument advanced by the commenters would lead to unnecessary delay based on harmless error, even where two of these commenters filed a lawsuit to compel EPA to take final action on Regional Haze SIPs submitted by numerous states, including New Hampshire.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    EPA does not contend that Env-A 2300 does not belong in the administrative record for this action—indeed, we have since placed it in the electronic docket. EPA observes only that the Region's oversight in not placing it in the electronic docket in time for the public comment period does not necessitate re-noticing the proposed approval for additional public comment.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The purpose of the notice-and-comment requirement is to “allow interested members of the public to communicate information, concerns, and criticisms to the agency during the rule-making process.” 
                    <E T="03">Conn. Light &amp; Power Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Nuclear Regul. Comm'n,</E>
                     673 F.2d 525, 530 (D.C. Cir. 1982). That purpose is served if “interested parties [are afforded] a reasonable opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process and if the parties have not been deprived of the opportunity to present relevant information by lack of notice that the issue was there.” 
                    <E T="03">WJG Tel. Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                     675 F.2d 386, 389 (D.C. Cir. 1982) (internal citations and quotation marks omitted). Here, as the comment itself notes, EPA informed the public that the agency was proposing to approve the state's plan based in part on Env-A 2300 and that the agency would add the regulations to New Hampshire's SIP. Because the state regulations are easily obtainable through public means and at least in the case of Env-A 1300 already in the possession of the commenters, the commenters have not been deprived of the opportunity to participate meaningfully in the rulemaking process or to present relevant information to the agency regarding the state regulations. That the commenters chose not to submit specific comments on Env-A 2300 when they easily could have does not require re-opening the comment period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         To the extent the commenters also rely on 1 CFR 51.5(a)(1)-(2) to support their comment that EPA must re-open the comment period, nothing in that section demands that the inadvertent omission of widely available state regulations from the electronic docket at the proposal stage requires re-noticing. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         1 CFR 51.3(a)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, the comment also asserts that EPA must re-notice the proposal because, according to the commenters “it is unclear whether Env-A 2300 also sets out the required monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements for the SIP Revision” with respect to Stored Solar Tamworth and Merrimack Station. For both facilities, Env-A 2300 requires that NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions be recorded by a continuous emissions monitoring system (CEMS) and provides for monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping by referencing the requirements of Env-A 800, 
                    <E T="03">Testing and Monitoring Procedures,</E>
                     and Env-A 900, 
                    <E T="03">Owner or Operator Recordkeeping and Reporting Obligations,</E>
                     both of which regulations are already in New Hampshire's SIP. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Env-A 2302.01, 2302.03, 2303.01. In addition, New Hampshire included in the submission, and EPA included in the electronic docket, title V permits for both facilities, which include detailed monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     NH Reg'l Haze SIP Sub, App. V (Stored Solar Tamworth Title V Operating Permit, at 12-33) (Merrimack Station Title V Operating Permit, at 30-72). EPA does not agree that re-noticing is necessary for this purpose, because, as already discussed, the omission of Env-A 2300 from the electronic docket did not prevent the commenters or other members of the public from reviewing the monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements in the state regulations or such requirements in the title V permits, which were included in the electronic docket.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 8:</E>
                     The Conservation Groups argue that EPA must consider the environmental justice implications of New Hampshire's SIP revision. The Groups cite EPA Regional Haze guidance and 1994 and 2023 Executive Orders addressing environmental justice and use EPA EJ Screen tool to identify communities near the Merrimack and Schiller facilities that may have higher percentages of low-income populations and people of color than the rest of the state as a whole.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 8:</E>
                     The regional haze statutory provisions do not explicitly address considerations of environmental justice, and neither do the regulatory requirements of the second planning period in 40 CFR 51.308(f), (g), and (i). However, the lack of explicit direction does not preclude the State from addressing EJ in the State's SIP submission. As explained in “EPA Legal Tools to Advance Environmental Justice” 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and EPA Regional Haze guidance, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     2021 Clarifications Memo at 21, the CAA provides states with the discretion to consider environmental justice in developing rules and measures related to regional haze. While a State may consider environmental justice under the reasonable progress factors, neither the statute nor the regulation compels states or EPA to conduct an environmental justice analysis in developing or evaluating a SIP submission. Therefore, environmental justice considerations do not serve as a basis for the EPA's decision to approve New Hampshire's SIP.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         EPA Legal Tools to Advance Environmental Justice, at 35-36 (May 2022), 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.epa.gov/ogc/epa-legal-tools-advance-environmental-justice.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In this instance, New Hampshire explained that its SIP submission “does not specifically add new climate change or environmental justice initiatives. The regional haze long-term strategy includes measures that will ultimately reduce greenhouse gas emissions and improve air quality in environmental justice regions.” NHDES noted that the State has more appropriate programs to address environmental justice issues, such as the State's “participation in a cap and trade program for greenhouse gas emissions . . . and creation of a NHDES environmental justice team. In 2021, the Title VI Nondiscrimination/Environmental Justice Team was formed to ensure compliance with Title VI nondiscrimination legal requirements and in incorporating the non-regulatory environmental justice principles of fair and equitable treatment that encourages meaningful involvement of impacted communities into agency programs, practices, and policies. Through its efforts, the team seeks to reduce disparities that result in vulnerable populations in NH bearing a disproportionate impact relative to the implementation of programs, policies and practices related to the environment.” NH Regional Haze Submittal, App. W, Response to Comments.</P>
                <P>
                    The commenter also refers to additional information it provided to New Hampshire from an EJ Screen analysis that the State did not consider as part of its regional haze decision making. EPA acknowledges the EJ Screen information provided as part of the comment during the State public participation process, which identifies certain demographic and environmental information regarding areas across New Hampshire. The focus of the SIP at issue here, the regional haze SIP for New Hampshire, is SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions and their impacts on visibility impairment at the 156 mandatory federal Class I areas. This action addresses New Hampshire's choices to reduce these emissions at several EGUs and other sources of air pollution across the State. As discussed in the NPRM and in this notice of final rulemaking, EPA has evaluated New Hampshire's SIP submission against the statutory and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88145"/>
                    regulatory regional haze requirements and determined that it satisfies those minimum requirements. As stated below, due to the nature of the action being taken here, this action is expected to have a neutral to positive impact on the air quality of the affected area. The CAA and applicable implementing regulations neither prohibit nor require an evaluation of environmental justice with a SIP. EPA reiterates that it is not identifying environmental justice as a basis for its decision to approve New Hampshire's SIP. With respect to EPA's adherence with the Executive Orders, see Section V below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 9:</E>
                     An anonymous commenter supported the proposed rule, but stated: “The only thing that I would change is making the goal of improving air quality not be focused on reducing regional [h]aze, but on the other massive health and environmental improvements that would naturally arise from this proposal.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 9:</E>
                     EPA acknowledges the commenter's support and notes that Congress created the regional haze program with the goal of improving visibility at Class 1 Federal areas. Thus, the Clean Air Act requires the SIP submittal to focus on reducing regional haze. EPA agrees, however, that reductions in emissions for the regional haze program have the benefit of improving public health, too, and that many of the state regulations included in the New Hampshire submittal provide public health and environmental benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 10:</E>
                     MANEVU commented in support of EPA's proposal to approve New Hampshire's regional haze SIP. MANEVU also stated that it supports EPA's thorough approach in reviewing New Hampshire's SIP, including its response to each MANEVU Ask.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 10:</E>
                     EPA acknowledges the comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 11:</E>
                     The North Carolina Division of Air Quality commented to acknowledge EPA's assessment and agree with EPA's determination that the Reasonable Progress Goals (RPGs) cannot include strategies for upwind states that those upwind states have not adopted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response 11:</E>
                     As noted in the NPRM, § 51.308(f)(3)(i) specifies that RPGs must reflect “enforceable emissions limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures r
                    <E T="03">equired under paragraph (f)(2)</E>
                     of this section” (emphasis added). RPGs are intended to provide a snapshot of projected visibility conditions at the end of the implementation period, assuming all measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress at a given class I area are being implemented. The emission reduction measures that must be reflected in RPGs include adopted regulations and measures that both the downwind and upwind states have identified as necessary and that will be implemented by 2028. However, EPA interprets this provision to exclude emission reduction measures that downwind states believe are necessary to make reasonable progress but that upwind states have not, at the time of plan submission, determined are necessary pursuant to § 51.308(f)(2). This ensures that RPGs include only those measures that are reasonably certain to be implemented. EPA also notes that New Hampshire clarified (in a response to comment) that the State's RPGs do not include reductions from emissions from upwind states.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is approving New Hampshire's May 5, 2022, supplemented on September 21, 2023, SIP submission as satisfying the regional haze requirements for the second implementation period contained in 40 CFR 51.308(f), (g), and (i). Additionally, EPA is approving the revised state rule Env-A 2300, “Mitigation of Regional Haze,” into the SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services Env-A 2300 in its entirety for updates to the Regional Haze program, described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at EPA Region 1 Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information). Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         62 FR 27968 (May 22, 1997).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <PRTPAGE P="88146"/>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>Executive Order 12898 (Federal Actions To Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations, 59 FR 7629, Feb. 16, 1994) directs Federal agencies to identify and address “disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects” of their actions on communities with environmental justice (EJ) concerns to the greatest extent practicable and permitted by law. EPA defines EJ as “the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.” EPA further defines the term fair treatment to mean that “no group of people should bear a disproportionate burden of environmental harms and risks, including those resulting from the negative environmental consequences of industrial, governmental, and commercial operations or programs and policies.”</P>
                <P>The New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services did not evaluate environmental justice considerations as part of its SIP submittal; the CAA and applicable implementing regulations neither prohibit nor require such an evaluation. EPA did not perform an EJ analysis and did not consider EJ in this action. Due to the nature of the action being taken here, this action is expected to have a neutral to positive impact on the air quality of the affected area. Consideration of EJ is not required as part of this action, and there is no information in the record inconsistent with the stated goal of E.O. 12898 of achieving environmental justice for communities with EJ concerns.</P>
                <P>
                    The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this action and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of the rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by January 6, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 30, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Cash,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, EPA Region 1.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart EE—New Hampshire</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.1520:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Amend the table in paragraph (c) by revising the entry “Env-A 2300”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Amend the table in paragraph (e) by adding an entry for “New Hampshire Regional Haze Plan Periodic Comprehensive Revision” at the end of the table.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.1520 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,r25,12,r50,r130">
                            <TTITLE>EPA-Approved New Hampshire Regulations</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">State citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>effective</LI>
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    EPA approval date 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanations</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Env-A 2300</ENT>
                                <ENT>Mitigation of Regional Haze</ENT>
                                <ENT>8/25/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    11/7/2024 [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Env-A 2300 revision approved entirely for updates to Regional Haze program.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 In order to determine EPA effective date for a specific provision listed in this table, consult the 
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                 notice cited in this column for the particular provision.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88147"/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="s75,xs80,r50,r40,r75">
                            <TTITLE>New Hampshire NonRegulatory</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Name of nonregulatory SIP provision</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Applicable
                                    <LI>geographic or</LI>
                                    <LI>nonattainment area</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State submittal date/effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approved date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanations</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">New Hampshire Regional Haze Plan Periodic Comprehensive Revision for 2nd planning period 2018-2028</ENT>
                                <ENT>Statewide</ENT>
                                <ENT>Submitted May 6, 2022 (supplemented September 21, 2023)</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    11/7/2024 [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Approves full plan including supplemental submission containing updated Appendix W.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25679 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">CORPORATION FOR NATIONAL AND COMMUNITY SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>45 CFR Part 2584</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3045-AA60</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Protection of Human Subjects</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Corporation for National and Community Service.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Corporation for National and Community Service (operating as AmeriCorps) is correcting a final rule that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on October 29, 2024. These corrections do not include any substantive changes to the final rule. The final rule adopted the Federal Policy for Protection of Human Subjects (referred to as the Common Rule).
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective on November 29, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mary Hyde, Ph.D., Director, AmeriCorps Office of Research and Evaluation, at (202) 606-6834 or 
                        <E T="03">mhyde@americorps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In FR Doc. 2024-24517 beginning on page 85870 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of October 29, 2024, the following corrections are made:
                </P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2584.102</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2584">
                    <AMDPAR>1. Beginning on page 85870, in the third column, and continuing onto page 85871, in the first and second columns, correct § 2584.102 by removing the paragraph designations (f) through (m).</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2584.103 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2584">
                    <AMDPAR>2. On page 85871, in the second column, the section number “2558.103” in the section heading is corrected to read “2584.103”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2584.104 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2584">
                    <AMDPAR>3. On page 85873, in the first column, in § 2584.104(d)(8)(i), the language “§ 2584.116(a)(1) through (4) and (6) and (d)” is corrected to read “§ 2584.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2584.111 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2584">
                    <AMDPAR>4. On page 85874, in the second column, the section number “2258.111” in the section heading is corrected to read “2584.111” and on page 85874, in the third column, in § 2584.111(a)(8)(i), the language “§ 2584.116(a)(1) through (4) and (6) and (d)” is corrected to read “§ 2584.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2584.113 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2584">
                    <AMDPAR>5. On page 85875, in the first column, the section number “2258.113” in the section heading is corrected to read “2584.113”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Andrea Grill,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25881 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6050-28-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 32</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-HQ-NWRS-2024-0034; FXRS12610900000-245-FF09R20000]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1018-BH17</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>National Wildlife Refuge System; 2024-2025 Station-Specific Hunting and Sport Fishing Regulations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), open or expand hunting opportunities on 12 National Wildlife Refuges (NWRs). We also close hunting on 111 acres at Crab Orchard NWR so that the area can be repurposed for other recreational uses, including camping. We also make changes to existing station-specific regulations in order to reduce the regulatory burden on the public, increase access for hunters and anglers on Service lands and waters, and comply with a Presidential mandate for plain-language standards. Finally, the best available science, analyzed as part of this rulemaking, indicates that lead ammunition and tackle have negative impacts on both wildlife and human health. With this final rule, Canaan Valley NWR in West Virginia will require lead-free ammunition for all hunting on the new Big Cove Unit. Additionally, Des Lacs, J. Clark Salyer, Lostwood, and Upper Souris NWRs in North Dakota will require lead-free ammunition for newly opened elk hunting. While the Service continues to evaluate the future of lead use in hunting and fishing on Service lands and waters, this rulemaking does not include any opportunities that increase or authorize the new use of lead.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective November 6, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Christian Myers, (571) 422-3595. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee), as amended (Administration Act), closes NWRs in all States except Alaska to all uses until opened. The Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) may open refuge areas to any use, including hunting and/or sport fishing, upon a determination that the use is compatible with the purposes of the refuge and National Wildlife Refuge System (Refuge System) mission. The action also must be in accordance with provisions of all laws applicable to the areas, developed in coordination with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88148"/>
                    the appropriate State fish and wildlife agency(ies), consistent with the principles of sound fish and wildlife management and administration, and otherwise in the public interest. These requirements ensure that we maintain the biological integrity, diversity, and environmental health of the Refuge System for the benefit of present and future generations of Americans.
                </P>
                <P>We annually review hunting and sport fishing programs to determine whether to include additional stations or whether individual station regulations governing existing programs need modifications. Changing environmental conditions, State and Federal regulations, and other factors affecting fish and wildlife populations and habitat may warrant modifications to station-specific regulations to ensure the continued compatibility of hunting and sport fishing programs and to ensure that these programs will not materially interfere with or detract from the fulfillment of station purposes or the Service's mission.</P>
                <P>Provisions governing hunting and sport fishing on refuges are in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations at part 32 (50 CFR part 32), and on hatcheries at part 71 (50 CFR part 71). We regulate hunting and sport fishing to:</P>
                <P>• Ensure compatibility with refuge and hatchery purpose(s);</P>
                <P>• Properly manage fish and wildlife resource(s);</P>
                <P>• Protect other values;</P>
                <P>• Ensure visitor safety; and</P>
                <P>• Provide opportunities for fish- and wildlife-dependent recreation.</P>
                <P>On many stations where we decide to allow hunting and sport fishing, our general policy of adopting regulations identical to State hunting and sport fishing regulations is adequate to meet these objectives. On other stations, we must supplement State regulations with more-restrictive Federal regulations to ensure that we meet our management responsibilities, as outlined under Statutory Authority, below. We issue station-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations when we open wildlife refuges and fish hatcheries to migratory game bird hunting, upland game hunting, big game hunting, or sport fishing. These regulations may list the wildlife species that you may hunt or fish; seasons; bag or creel (container for carrying fish) limits; methods of hunting or sport fishing; descriptions of areas open to hunting or sport fishing; and other provisions as appropriate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statutory Authority</HD>
                <P>The Administration Act, as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 (Improvement Act; Pub. L. 105-57), governs the administration and public use of refuges, and the Refuge Recreation Act of 1962 (Recreation Act; 16 U.S.C. 460k-460k-4) governs the administration and public use of refuges and hatcheries.</P>
                <P>Amendments enacted by the Improvement Act were built upon the Administration Act in a manner that provides an “organic act” for the Refuge System, similar to organic acts that exist for other public Federal lands. The Improvement Act serves to ensure that we effectively manage the Refuge System as a national network of lands, waters, and interests for the protection and conservation of our Nation's wildlife resources. The Administration Act states first and foremost that we focus our Refuge System mission on conservation of fish, wildlife, and plant resources and their habitats. The Improvement Act requires the Secretary, before allowing a new use of a refuge, or before expanding, renewing, or extending an existing use of a refuge, to determine that the use is compatible with the purpose for which the refuge was established and the mission of the Refuge System. The Improvement Act established as the policy of the United States that wildlife-dependent recreation, when compatible, is a legitimate and appropriate public use of the Refuge System, through which the American public can develop an appreciation for fish and wildlife. The Improvement Act established six wildlife-dependent recreational uses as the priority general public uses of the Refuge System. These uses are hunting, fishing, wildlife observation and photography, and environmental education and interpretation.</P>
                <P>The Recreation Act authorizes the Secretary to administer areas within the Refuge System and Hatchery System for public recreation as an appropriate incidental or secondary use only to the extent that doing so is practicable and not inconsistent with the primary purpose(s) for which Congress and the Service established the areas. The Recreation Act requires that any recreational use of refuge or hatchery lands be compatible with the primary purpose(s) for which we established the refuge and not inconsistent with other previously authorized operations.</P>
                <P>The Administration Act and Recreation Act also authorize the Secretary to issue regulations to carry out the purposes of the Acts and regulate uses.</P>
                <P>We develop specific management plans for each refuge prior to opening it to hunting or sport fishing. In many cases, we develop station-specific regulations to ensure the compatibility of the programs with the purpose(s) for which we established the refuge or hatchery and the Refuge and Hatchery System mission. We ensure initial compliance with the Administration Act and the Recreation Act for hunting and sport fishing on newly acquired land through an interim determination of compatibility made at or near the time of acquisition. These regulations ensure that we make the determinations required by these acts prior to adding refuges to the lists of areas open to hunting and sport fishing in 50 CFR parts 32 and 71. We ensure continued compliance by the development of comprehensive conservation plans and step-down management plans, and by annual review of hunting and sport fishing programs and regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Responses</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 2, 2024, we published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (89 FR 63139) a proposed rule to open or expand hunting and fishing opportunities at 12 refuges for the 2024-2025 hunting seasons. We accepted public comments on the proposed rule for 30 days, ending September 3, 2024. By that date, we received 154 comments on the proposed rule. More than two-thirds of these comments were identical or nonsubstantive comments. We received 68 unique comments, and 47 of those comments were substantive. We discuss the unique, substantive comments we received below by topic. Beyond our responses below, additional station-specific information on how we responded to comments on particular hunting or fishing opportunities at a given refuge or hatchery can be found in that station's final hunting and/or fishing package, each of which can be located in Docket No. FWS-HQ-NWRS-2024-0034 on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (1):</E>
                     We received more than 100 comments expressing general support for the proposed hunting expansions in the rule. These comments of general support either expressed appreciation for the increased hunting access in the proposed rule overall, expressed appreciation for increased access at particular refuges, or both. In addition to this general support, some commenters requested additional hunting and fishing opportunities. Requests for additional opportunities to hunt waterfowl were most common.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     Hunting and fishing on Service lands is a tradition that dates back to the early 1900s. In passing the Improvement Act, Congress reaffirmed that the Refuge System was created to conserve fish, wildlife, plants, and their habitats, and would facilitate 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88149"/>
                    opportunities for Americans to participate in compatible wildlife-dependent recreation, including hunting and fishing, on Refuge System lands. We prioritize wildlife-dependent recreation, including hunting and fishing, when doing so is compatible with the purpose of the refuge and the mission of the Refuge System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We will continue to open and expand hunting and sport fishing opportunities across the Refuge System; however, as detailed further in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (2),</E>
                     below, opening or expanding hunting or fishing opportunities on Service lands is not a quick or simple process. The annual regulatory cycle begins in June or July of each year for the following hunting and sport fishing season (the planning cycle for this 2024-2025 final rule began in June 2023). This annual timeline allows us time to collaborate closely with our State, Tribal, and Territorial partners, as well as other partners including nongovernmental organizations, on potential opportunities. It also provides us with time to complete environmental analyses and other requirements for opening or expanding new opportunities. Therefore, it would be impracticable for the Service to complete multiple regulatory cycles in one calendar year due to the logistics of coordinating with various partners. Once we determine that a hunting or sport fishing opportunity can be carried out in a manner compatible with individual station purposes and objectives, we work expeditiously to open it. In addition to creation of new opportunities, this also applies to commenter requests for changes in the season dates, days of the week, hours open, methods of take, or other logistical requirements that would expand existing opportunities, including those that would also align our hunting and fishing regulations more closely with State hunting and fishing regulations.
                </P>
                <P>Within the context of these continuous annual regulatory cycles, the Service does welcome nongovernmental organizations and individual hunters and anglers sharing their thoughts on potential future opportunities through public comments and other opportunities. We seek to provide hunting and fishing opportunities that both serve our wildlife conservation and management objectives and provide the highest quality recreational experience that we can offer for hunters and anglers, including when it comes to waterfowl hunting specifically, so we give due consideration to the requests and recommendations that we receive.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (2):</E>
                     Several commenters expressed general opposition to any hunting or fishing in the Refuge System. Some of these commenters stated that hunting was antithetical to the purposes of a “refuge,” which, in their opinion, should serve as an inviolate sanctuary for all wildlife. The remaining commenters generically opposed expanded hunting or fishing opportunities at specific stations, or opposed specific hunting activities such as waterfowl hunting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service prioritizes facilitating wildlife-dependent recreational opportunities, including hunting and fishing, on Service land in compliance with applicable Service law and policy. For refuges, the Administration Act, as amended, stipulates that hunting (along with fishing, wildlife observation and photography, and environmental education and interpretation), if found to be compatible, is a legitimate and priority general public use of a refuge and should be facilitated (16 U.S.C. 668dd(a)(3)(D)). Thus, we only allow hunting of resident wildlife on Refuge System lands if such activity has been determined compatible with the established purpose(s) of the refuge and the mission of the Refuge System as required by the Administration Act. For the 12 stations opening or expanding hunting or fishing in this rule, we determined that the proposed actions were compatible.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Each station manager makes a decision regarding hunting and fishing opportunities only after rigorous examination of the available information, consultation and coordination with States and Tribes, and compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), as well as other applicable laws and regulations. The many steps taken before a station opens or expands a hunting or fishing opportunity on the refuge ensure that the Service does not allow any opportunity that would compromise the purpose of the station or the mission of the Refuge System.
                </P>
                <P>Hunting of resident wildlife on Service lands generally occurs consistent with State regulations, including seasons and bag limits. Station-specific hunting regulations can be more restrictive (but not more liberal) than State regulations and often are more restrictive in order to help meet specific refuge objectives. These objectives include resident wildlife population and habitat objectives, minimizing disturbance impacts to wildlife, maintaining high-quality opportunities for hunting and other wildlife-dependent recreation, minimizing conflicts with other public uses and/or refuge management activities, and protecting public safety.</P>
                <P>The word “refuge” includes the idea of providing a haven of safety as one of its definitions, and as such, hunting might seem an inconsistent use of the Refuge System. However, again, the Administration Act stipulates that hunting, if found compatible, is a legitimate and priority general public use of a wildlife refuge. Furthermore, we manage refuges to support healthy wildlife populations that in many cases produce harvestable surpluses that are a renewable resource. As practiced on refuges, hunting and fishing do not pose a threat to wildlife populations. It is important to note that taking certain individuals through hunting does not necessarily reduce a population overall, as hunting can simply replace other types of mortality. In some cases, however, we use hunting as a management tool with the explicit goal of reducing a population; this is often the case with exotic and/or invasive species that threaten ecosystem stability. Therefore, facilitating hunting opportunities is an important aspect of the Service's roles and responsibilities as outlined in the legislation establishing the Refuge System, and the Service will continue to facilitate these opportunities where compatible with the purpose of the specific refuge and the mission of the Refuge System.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (3):</E>
                     We received comments from the West Virginia Division of Natural Resources, the Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries, the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies, and the Northeast Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies on the opportunities in the proposed rule. The West Virginia Division of Natural Resources supported the expansion of hunting at Canaan Valley NWR, but also expressed concern that requiring lead-free ammunition on the new Big Cove Unit could reduce hunter participation, reduce take of deer, and create enforcement challenges. The West Virginia Division of Natural Resources also recommended incentive-based approaches to the use of lead-free ammunition. The Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries commented specifically on the proposed hunt plan for Bayou Teche NWR and expressed support for the expanded hunting access. The Association of Fish and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88150"/>
                    Wildlife Agencies expressed general support for increased access for hunters and anglers, but expressed concerns about the Service's position on the use of lead ammunition and the individual refuges introducing lead-free ammunition requirements; the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies also expressed appreciation for coordination and communication between the Service and State agencies and advocated for the Service to pursue approaches based in education and incentives that encourage hunters to voluntarily choose to use lead-free ammunition, in particular the voluntary incentive pilot program developed in collaboration with the Hunting and Wildlife Conservation Council, an external stakeholder advisory group for the Department of the Interior. The Northeast Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies expressed support for the Service increasing hunting and fishing opportunities and for the Service's pilot program for providing hunters with incentives to voluntarily use lead-free ammunition, but objected to the regulations requiring the use of lead-free ammunition as inconsistent with State regulations and as lacking sufficient scientific support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service appreciates the support of, and is committed to working with, our state partners to identify additional opportunities for expansion of hunting and sport fishing on Service lands and waters. We welcome and value State partner input on all aspects of our hunting and fishing programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In response to the West Virginia Division of Natural Resources, we appreciate the support for the expanded hunting acres for all existing hunting and acknowledge the concerns expressed with the lead-free ammunition requirement on the new Big Cove Unit. As to the recommendation to explore incentives for the use of lead-free ammunition, we are actively implementing a pilot program to test out direct incentives for hunters to voluntarily use lead-free ammunition for designated hunts at Canaan Valley NWR and six other refuges in the fall of 2024, as discussed in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (4),</E>
                     below. On the concerns about hunter participation and harvest rates related to the lead-free ammunition requirement, as discussed in more detail in our responses to 
                    <E T="03">Comments (6)</E>
                     through 
                    <E T="03">(13),</E>
                     below, the Service has not seen evidence of hunter participation declines elsewhere in response to lead-free requirements, and, accordingly, we do not anticipate insufficient harvest of deer. Also, in the specific case of Canaan Valley NWR, even if declines in hunter participation on the Big Cove Unit were to occur in response to the lead-free ammunition requirement, hunters would likely simply shift their activities to the other hunt units of the same refuge and still harvest from the same deer population. On the concern about enforcement challenges for the lead-free ammunition requirement, as discussed in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (14),</E>
                     below, we are confident in our ability to enforce the regulations, since this requirement does not fundamentally differ from existing regulations elsewhere in the Refuge System and our law enforcement personnel receive applicable training.
                </P>
                <P>In response to the Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries, we appreciate the support for the new opportunities at Bayou Teche NWR and look forward to collaboration and coordination on potential future hunting and fishing opportunities in Louisiana.</P>
                <P>
                    In response to the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies, we appreciate the support for the hunting and fishing openings and expansions in this rulemaking and value our shared commitment to compatible hunter and angler access on the National Wildlife Refuge System. We also appreciate the support for our lead-free voluntary incentive pilot program, developed in collaboration and coordination with State agencies in the seven States where the pilot sites are located. As discussed in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (4),</E>
                     below, we are committed to robustly pursuing this voluntary approach and evaluating the potential efficacy for addressing lead poisoning in wildlife. At the same time, the Service's position remains that the best available science demonstrates the impacts of lead ammunition on wildlife and ecological health and supports the Service not introducing new opportunities that would increase the use of lead ammunition until we have identified the best path forward. Our lead-free pilot program could produce a voluntary incentive model that proves to be the best path forward, but we must first take time to test out the incentives, collect data, and evaluate our results. Going forward, we will continue to invite input and involvement from the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies and our individual State partners as we continue to evaluate the future of lead use on Service lands and waters as part of an open and transparent process to find the best methods to address lead's impact on wildlife and ecological health. As to the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies' objections to regulations requiring lead-free ammunition use, see our responses to 
                    <E T="03">Comments (7)</E>
                     through 
                    <E T="03">(9),</E>
                     below, addressing the concerns about scientific evidence, cost, and availability, which are shared by some other commenters. Similarly, see our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (14),</E>
                     below, regarding commenters' concerns about the enforceability of lead-free ammunition requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In response to the Northeast Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies, we value the support for the increased recreational access through this rule and appreciate the recognition of our collaboration and coordination on increasing access and on exploring voluntary incentives for the use of lead-free ammunition. We disagree with the notion that there is insufficient scientific evidence to support regulatory requirements for hunters to use lead-free ammunition, as discussed in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (7),</E>
                     below, but the Service is willing to address the demonstrated poisoning of wildlife from the use of lead ammunition for hunting through voluntary incentives, should they prove to be sufficiently effective. As to the concern that such regulations typically differ from State regulations, while we endeavor to align our regulations with State regulations wherever feasible, the Service routinely sets requirements for hunters and anglers that are more restrictive than the applicable State regulations whenever necessitated by our conservation mission or refuge purposes, as noted in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (2),</E>
                     above. Requirements to use lead-free ammunition are one example in this category, alongside limitations on season dates, time of day, methods of take, and more that are similarly necessary because the Service is obligated to prioritize the health of wildlife species and their habitats on Refuge System lands and waters. Hunting and fishing activities must be assessed to be compatible with our conservation mission as authorized by appropriate regulations, and we must introduce further regulations as necessary to ensure their continued compatibility in order to keep a given opportunity open.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (4):</E>
                     Several commenters either encouraged the Service to pursue incentives encouraging hunters to voluntarily use lead-free ammunition or specifically expressed support for the Service's new pilot program providing direct incentives for hunters participating in designated hunts at seven selected refuges in the fall of 2024. Most of these commenters noted that they objected to any regulations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88151"/>
                    requiring the use of lead-free ammunition, but some commenters were supportive of both lead-free regulatory requirements and voluntary approaches like the Service's new pilot program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service has encouraged and will continue to encourage voluntary use of non-lead ammunition and tackle, including through our new collaborative pilot program for providing direct incentives and robust educational workshops to hunters, but we also have the authority to impose regulatory requirements for use of lead-free ammunition for designated hunting on individual refuges. Notably, the Refuge System, and all Service lands and waters, are different from private, State, and even other Federal public lands. We have legal obligations to prioritize wildlife health and biodiversity, to consider the compatibility of new and ongoing hunting and fishing activities, and to assess the potential impact of these activities on the natural resources under our jurisdiction. The Service is evaluating the future of lead use through an open and transparent process with input from a broad array of partners and stakeholders about the best approach, which may include education and incentives encouraging voluntary choice. During this process, the Service does not intend to authorize hunting and fishing opportunities that increase the use of lead ammunition and tackle on the Refuge System. This is consistent with our full commitment to the lead-free pilot program for hunter education and incentives, which is aimed at identifying the most effective voluntary approach to addressing lead poisoning in wildlife from lead ammunition.
                </P>
                <P>In this rule, the Service has put in place a lead-free ammunition requirement for newly opened elk hunting at four refuges in North Dakota and for all hunting on the new Big Cove Unit at Canaan Valley NWR in West Virginia. These requirements are each either limited to a specific species or to a specific hunt unit. Each of these targeted requirements is based on the best available science and the sound professional judgement of Service personnel, and was put in place only after discussions with the relevant State agency.</P>
                <P>We appreciate the support from commenters for our new pilot program for providing hunters with educational workshops and direct economic incentives to voluntarily use lead-free ammunition. The Service was able to collaborate with some of the commenter organizations and others, in particular the Hunting and Wildlife Conservation Council, in the design of the lead-free pilot program. The Service is also collaborating with individual State agencies and the North American Non-Lead Partnership in implementing the pilot program. We are encouraged by the potential for the pilot program to identify and demonstrate the most effective voluntary approach to addressing lead ammunition impacts to wildlife and ecological health.</P>
                <P>The 2024 iteration of the pilot program will take place for designated hunts at seven selected refuges throughout the Refuge System. The pilot program is designed to address the hurdles of awareness, demonstrated performance, price, and availability that are considered some of the major barriers for hunters in voluntarily choosing to use lead-free ammunition. Accordingly, at each pilot site, the Service will utilize educational messaging, including voluntary intensive educational workshops with ammunition performance demonstrations at selected sites. Similarly, at each pilot site, we will offer a rebate incentive in the form of a prepaid debit card for eligible hunters who provide proof of their purchase of lead-free ammunition, on a first come, first served basis. The implementation of the pilot program at seven sites in 2024 will mark a substantial step in progress toward addressing poisoning of wildlife from lead ammunition and will set the stage for further refinement of the educational and direct incentive elements of the lead-free pilot program, as well as provide data for analysis of the potential impacts and potential scalability of the program. As we operate the pilot program, we will seek to continue the open and collaborative approach we have utilized thus far and hope to receive continued support and cooperation from hunters and from external hunting and conservation organizations.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (5):</E>
                     Several commenters expressed concern over the use of lead ammunition or lead fishing tackle on Service lands and waters. Nearly all of these commenters expressed support for the individual lead-free requirements in the proposed rule. Most of these commenters urged the Service to eliminate the use of lead ammunition and tackle throughout the Refuge System. Many commenters expressed concerns about raptor species, including the bald eagle (
                    <E T="03">Haliaeetus leucocephalus</E>
                    ), and other species that scientific studies have shown to be especially susceptible to adverse health impacts from lead ammunition and tackle.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service appreciates the concerns from commenters about the issue of bioavailability of lead in the environment and is aware of the potential impacts of lead on fish and wildlife. See, for example, the recent study from the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) with Service collaboration, Vincent Slabe, et al. “Demographic implications of lead poisoning for eagles across North America,” which is available online through a link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usgs.gov/news/national-news-release/groundbreaking-study-finds-widespread-lead-poisoning-bald-and-golden.</E>
                     Accordingly, the Service pays special attention to species susceptible to lead uptake and to sources of lead that could impact wildlife and ecological health.
                </P>
                <P>Historically, the principal cause of lead poisoning in waterfowl was the high densities of lead shot in wetland sediments associated with migratory bird hunting activities (Kendall et al. 1996). In 1991, as a result of high bird mortality, the Service instituted a nationwide ban on the use of lead shot for hunting waterfowl and coots (see 50 CFR 32.2(k)). However, lead ammunition is still used for other types of hunting, and lead tackle is used for fishing on private and public lands and waters, including within the Refuge System.</P>
                <P>
                    Due to the continued lead use outside of waterfowl hunting, there remains concern about the bioavailability of spent lead ammunition (bullets) and fishing tackle on the environment, the health of fish and wildlife, and human health. The Service is aware of fish and wildlife species, including endangered and threatened species, that are susceptible to the build-up of lead in their systems coming directly from their food sources or secondhand through the food ingested by their food sources. There is also evidence that some species are susceptible to direct ingestion of lead ammunition or tackle due to their foraging behaviors. For example, the Service recognizes that ingested lead fishing tackle has been found to be a leading cause of mortality in adult common loons (Grade, T. et al. (2017). Population-level effects of lead fishing tackle on common loons. The Journal of Wildlife Management 82(1): pp. 155-164). The impacts of lead on human health and safety have been a focus of several scientific studies. We are familiar with studies that have found the ingestion of animals harvested via the use of lead ammunition increased levels of lead in the human body (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="88152"/>
                    Buenz, E. (2016). Lead exposure through eating wild game. American Journal of Medicine, 128: p. 458).
                </P>
                <P>
                    It is because of lead's potential for ecological health impacts that, in this rulemaking, the Service has continued to take a measured approach in not adding to the use of lead on refuge lands (see 87 FR 35136, June 9, 2022). Accordingly, the opportunities in this final rule either do not involve the use of lead ammunition or tackle (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     waterfowl hunting or archery) or require the use of lead-free ammunition or tackle. This measured approach is also part of the Service's broader commitment to evaluating the future of lead use throughout the Refuge System.
                </P>
                <P>In response to the commenters' request that the Service eliminate the use of lead ammunition and fishing tackle throughout the Refuge System, the Service is committed to doing what best serves the public interest and our conservation mission, including facilitating compatible, wildlife-dependent, recreational hunting and fishing. As we committed to do in our 2021-2022 rulemaking (see 86 FR 48822 at 48830, August 31, 2021) and our 2022-2023 rulemaking (see 87 FR 57108 at 57122, September 16, 2022), the Service has been evaluating, and continues to evaluate, lead use in hunting and fishing on Service lands and waters. This rule is designed to avoid increased use of lead on refuges as the Service continues to evaluate the future of lead use by seeking input from partners, through a transparent process, to inform the determination of what actions and methods are appropriate for addressing the potential for adverse environmental and ecological health impacts. This process includes a commitment to fully exploring a voluntary approach through our new pilot program for hunter education and incentives.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (6):</E>
                     Several commenters expressed opposition to the Service requiring the use of lead-free ammunition for designated hunting opportunities at individual refuges in this rule or in general. Some of these commenters simply expressed a general opposition to the concept of lead-free requirements, but the rest put forward one or more points in arguing against lead-free requirements. The concerns collectively expressed by these more substantive comments are addressed in 
                    <E T="03">Comment (7)</E>
                     through 
                    <E T="03">Comment (13),</E>
                     below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service has allowed, and with the promulgation of this rule continues to allow, the use of lead ammunition and/or tackle in hunting and sport fishing in most of the Refuge System. The vast majority of stations and individual hunting and fishing opportunities currently permit lead use, consistent with State regulations allowing the use of lead ammunition and tackle. Lead ammunition and tackle are currently allowed where we have previously determined the activity is not likely to result in dangerous levels of lead exposure. However, the Service has been transparent about its intent to seriously consider the future of lead use, consistent with its role as the steward of the Refuge System. Therefore, we are evaluating what is best for the resources belonging to the American public regarding the future use of lead ammunition and tackle on Service lands and waters. The best available science, analyzed as part of this rulemaking, demonstrates that lead ammunition and tackle have negative impacts on both human health and wildlife health, and those impacts are more acute for some species.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (7):</E>
                     Most of the comments opposed to regulations concerning the use of lead ammunition questioned the sufficiency of scientific support for lead-free requirements. Some of the commenters also claimed there is specifically a lack of scientific evidence of “population-level” lead impacts and this means lead-free ammunition requirements are unwarranted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     We refer commenters concerned about scientific evidence in support of the rulemaking to the analyses of environmental impacts in the NEPA and ESA section 7 documentation for each refuge in this rulemaking and the cumulative impacts report accompanying the rulemaking, which are all available in Docket No. FWS-HQ-NWRS-2024-0034 on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     For our NEPA and ESA section 7 analyses, we considered peer-reviewed scientific studies evaluating the impacts of lead to humans, to wildlife generally, and to specific species—including endangered and threatened species and species especially susceptible to lead ammunition or tackle exposure. While this evidence is not determinative as to whether lead-free ammunition and tackle should be required in all cases, given the full range of factors to consider on the topic of lead use, it is inaccurate to claim that there is no scientific evidence of adverse impacts to human health or wildlife and ecological health, or both, from lead ammunition and tackle or that the Service has not presented such evidence as part of this rulemaking. Each refuge in this rule used the best available science and the expertise and sound professional judgment of refuge staff to determine that our management strategies, including promulgated non-lead requirements, are based on sound science and the specific circumstances of that individual refuge.
                </P>
                <P>Moreover, we also reject the related claim that scientific evidence of so-called “population-level” impacts to wildlife is both a prerequisite to Service action and lacking in the available science. Depending on the situation, we may manage wildlife at the “population level” or at the “individual level,” such as acting to protect individuals of an endangered or threatened species. Similarly, depending on the situation, we may adopt regulations, policies, or practices that respond to or prevent adverse impacts at the population level or to individual animals and plants. In fact, there are clear cases where we need to act preventatively or early to control invasive species, pests, or animal diseases, since they are much more difficult to eradicate when there is “population-level” damage. “Population-level” impacts are not necessary for regulation to the exclusion of any other factors, although in the past the Service and others have regulated lead use based, at least in part, on addressing impacts to whole populations, as demonstrated impacts to waterfowl populations and the population of California condors prompted the 1991 nationwide prohibition on waterfowl hunting with lead ammunition (see 56 FR 22100, May 13, 1991) and the 2019 prohibition on hunting with lead ammunition in California (see California Assembly Bill No. 711, California Fish and Game Code at section 3004.5), respectively. In any case, the scientific literature demonstrates that lead use has “population-level” impacts.</P>
                <P>
                    There is evidence of population-level impacts and potential population-level impacts to waterfowl and upland game bird species from lead fishing tackle and lead ammunition through direct ingestion. Lead fishing tackle presents a risk of lead poisoning to many waterfowl species, including loons and swans (Pokras and Chafel 1992; Rattner et al. 2008; Strom et al. 2009). The primary concerns are discarded whole or fragmented lead sinkers, as well as other lead tackle and even lead ammunition released into the water, that rest on river and lake bottoms where diving birds ingest them alongside pebbles, as pebbles are necessary to break down food through 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88153"/>
                    grinding in the birds' digestive systems. This results in lead poisoning because the grinding action breaks down the pieces of ingested lead into fine lead particles inside of the birds that can then enter their blood streams. Studies have consistently found impacts of ingested lead fishing tackle are a leading cause of mortality in adult common loons (Pokras and Chafel 1992; Scheuhammer and Norris 1995; Franson et al. 2003; Pokras et al. 2009; Grade et al. 2017; Grade et al. 2019). Strom et al. (2009) assessed lead exposure in Wisconsin birds and found that approximately 25 percent of the trumpeter swan fatalities from 1991 through 2007 were attributed to ingested lead. Also, lead ammunition discarded on land presents a similar risk of lead poisoning from upland game birds swallowing discarded ammunition alongside the pebbles they use for digestion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Another source of population-level impacts and potential population-level impacts from lead is indirect ingestion by birds of prey and other scavengers from consuming animals shot with lead ammunition. The primary concerns for birds of prey are lead fragments from lead ammunition that remain in the carcasses and gut piles of hunted animals that are scavenged by these birds. The fine fragments of lead, observable in x-rays of harvested game animals, are ingested because they are embedded in the meat and other animal tissues being scavenged and then enter the digestive systems and blood streams of the birds of prey. Many studies have looked at the impacts of this lead exposure to eagle health (see, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Kramer and Redig 1997; O'Halloran et al. 1998; Kelly and Kelly 2005; Golden et al. 2016; Hoffman 1985a, 1985b; Pattee 1984; Stauber 2010). This includes the recent study, published in 2022, from the USGS with Service collaboration, Vincent Slabe, et al. “Demographic implications of lead poisoning for eagles across North America,” which is available online via a link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usgs.gov/news/national-news-release/groundbreaking-study-finds-widespread-lead-poisoning-bald-and-golden.</E>
                     This study explicitly finds that lead poisoning is causing population growth ratesto slowfor bald eagles by 3.8percentand golden eagles by 0.8 percent annually. These growth-slowing impacts to populations are statistically significant and, in the case of bald eagles, are occurring for a species that was previously endangered and is still in the process of recovering to historical levels. Thus, it is inaccurate to claim there are not known “population-level” impacts from lead use.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, the Service's mission and statutory obligations require refuges to be closed to hunting and fishing by default, and this changes only when we have determined hunting or fishing activities are compatible with our conservation mission and we have promulgated regulations to open designated areas to hunting and fishing. Hunting and fishing access and opportunities are thus constrained by the regulations to only those activities that are compatible. Thus, the Service has an obligation to demonstrate, using the best available science, that any given aspect of hunting or fishing on the Refuge System is compatible with our mission. The Service has also built into our compatibility process the need to reevaluate compatibility determinations after a set period, either 10 or 15 years, depending on the use, because new science or new conditions could compel the Service to change our compatibility determinations. In the case of the use of lead, our past determinations that lead ammunition and lead tackle were permissible to use on Refuge System lands does not change this fundamental structure of our processes. The use of lead ammunition and tackle, like any other visitor activity, can only be allowed on a refuge if, and only for as long as, the refuge applies the best available science and sound professional judgment to find it compatible. The suggestion from some commenters that historical use of lead or past determinations that lead use was compatible compels us to find the future use of lead compatible is therefore counter to our mission and statutory obligations. This suggestion also ignores the accumulation of lead in the environment over time. The Service will continue to revisit our compatibility determinations, as required, while considering the best available science and applying sound professional judgment.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (8):</E>
                     Some commenters opposed to requirements in this rule to use lead-free ammunition claimed lead-free ammunition is more expensive than lead ammunition. Some of these commenters further expressed the concern that lead-free ammunition requirements could prevent participation in hunting due to price differences.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     We do not agree that lead-free ammunition is prohibitively expensive, especially in comparison to lead ammunition. However, we recognize that there could be some cost burden of compliance for hunting and fishing opportunities where lead-free ammunition or tackle is required. For example, lead-free ammunition is very close in price to premium lead ammunition but can be more expensive than some lead ammunition. Notably, the Maine Department of Inland Fisheries and Wildlife and others have recognized that this cost difference is typically less than $10 per box of ammunition, with boxes usually lasting multiple hunting seasons (see online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.maine.gov/ifw/hunting-trapping/hunting/nonlead-ammunition.html</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>When we have restricted lead ammunition use, we have first ensured that the ecological health and conservation benefits outweigh any potential for cost burden on hunters. We are confident that non-lead ammunition is not cost-prohibitive, as hunting continues on all Refuge System stations where we have restricted lead use. Moreover, we have not seen declines in hunting use attributable to lead-free ammunition requirements. In other words, hunting-use day declines at stations that require lead-free ammunition do not appear to deviate from general trends of declining hunting participation that affect all stations in the Refuge System. Where we have seen meaningful declines is in the price of lead-free ammunition options, as there has been a continuous trend for years of decreasing prices, and the 1991 nationwide ban on lead ammunition for waterfowl hunting shows that regulations can spur innovation and production, which brings the prices down for lead-free options.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, even though the cost burden of compliance with lead-free ammunition requirements on individual refuges is not onerous, the Service is considering various measures to incentivize hunters to transition from lead to lead-free ammunition and mitigate the costs of the transition. In fact, we are in the process of implementing an ambitious lead-free voluntary pilot program, beginning this fall for the 2024 hunting seasons, that includes providing direct economic incentives to hunters to address the price difference as a barrier to choosing lead-free ammunition. This pilot program is discussed further in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (4),</E>
                     above. We look forward to continuing to work closely with the Hunting and Wildlife Conservation Council, the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies, our state agency partners, and other hunting organizations to further develop our lead-free voluntary pilot program.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88154"/>
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (9):</E>
                     Most commenters opposed to non-lead ammunition and tackle requirements asserted that there is limited availability of lead-free ammunition compared to that of lead ammunition, such that requiring lead-free ammunition would prevent participation in refuge hunting opportunities. Some of these commenters further noted that the availability of non-lead ammunition is more limited for certain firearms and types of ammunition, especially .22 rifle ammunition. One commenter also, tangentially to the topic of availability, stated that the Gun Control Act of 1968, as amended (GCA; 18 U.S.C. 921 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and associated Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) regulations (27 CFR part 478) concerning armor piercing ammunition hinder the production and thus availability of lead-free ammunition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     We do not agree that lead-free ammunition and tackle are insufficiently available to hunters and anglers in localities where we have restricted the use of lead ammunition or tackle, either in the past or through this rulemaking. However, we recognize that there could be some compliance burden in identifying and locating lead-free ammunition and tackle for hunting and fishing opportunities, where required. Where we have restricted lead use in the past or will restrict it through this rulemaking, we have ensured that the ecological health and conservation benefits outweigh any potential for compliance burden on hunters and anglers, including the ease of locating available lead-free ammunition and tackle. As with the costs of lead-free options, for opportunities where lead-free ammunition or tackle are required, the Service has not seen declines in hunting or fishing participation that can be attributed to lead-free ammunition or tackle being less widely available than lead ammunition and tackle. Also, as with costs, there are existing trends of increasing availability of lead-free options, and the 1991 national ban on lead ammunition for waterfowl hunting demonstrates that regulations requiring the use of lead-free ammunition can promote increased availability. Also, the pilot program that the Service is implementing this fall for the 2024 hunting seasons will also help to address availability, as more hunters voluntarily participate and the increased demand gives manufacturers a reason to produce, and retailers a reason to offer, more lead-free ammunition. In fact, the Service is interested in collaboration with retailers that can directly address awareness and availability of lead-free ammunition and tackle as we continue to develop our pilot program.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, we recognize that non-lead ammunition may be less available than lead ammunition, in general, for some models of firearms and certain ammunition calibers. This is especially concerning, as noted by some commenters, for .22 rifle ammunition where existing lines of lead-free ammunition have been recently discontinued. Lead-free ammunition remains available, but this development will impact availability and could impact refuge hunting where lead-free ammunition is required, particularly squirrel hunting. The Service will continue to monitor the lead-free options in the market and take the information into account in deciding whether and where to require lead-free ammunition. We also encourage industry and retailers to continue to manufacture and offer more lead-free ammunition options so that ammunition is available to hunters, whether they are required, or voluntarily choose, to use lead-free ammunition.</P>
                <P>Finally, the claim that the Gun Control Act of 1968 (GCA) and associated ATF regulations concerning armor piercing ammunition hinder the production and thus availability of lead-free ammunition is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. However, the Service has raised this issue with the ATF at the recommendation of the Hunting and Wildlife Conservation Council.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (10):</E>
                     A few commenters pointed to sources of lead, other than hunting and fishing with lead ammunition and tackle, in the environment. These commenters asserted that the Service should not have lead-free ammunition and tackle requirements because these other sources of lead also cause negative health impacts for fish and wildlife.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     While there are of course other potential sources of lead in the environment, including other sources that may be bioavailable to wildlife, the Service does not see this as diminishing the importance or conservation benefits of addressing lead poisoning of wildlife from hunting with lead ammunition or from fishing with lead tackle. While these other sources of lead vary in the degree of risk that they could present to wildlife, the Service is duly concerned by the health risks from any potential source of lead exposure for wildlife and humans. There are likely benefits to be had from efforts to address each of these sources in turn, but that is generally beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Moreover, these other potential sources of lead do not change the fact that the best available science has drawn a clear link between the use of lead ammunition and tackle and its ecological health impacts. In fact, the study from Slabe et al. (2022), cited earlier in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (7),</E>
                     provides strong evidence that not only is there an impact to eagles from lead ammunition specifically, but there is also strong evidence that it represents the most important source of lead exposure for the species studied. Essentially, the study demonstrated that the highest rates of acute lead poisoning in eagles, measured by liver lead concentrations, corresponded in terms of timing with the use of lead ammunition in the form of a nationwide spike in lead poisoning during winter months in the midst of hunting seasons. To the extent other sources of lead do bear on our decisions about lead ammunition and tackle use, these additional lead sources in fact weigh in favor of lead-use restrictions, as lead can accumulate in wildlife from repeated exposure from one or multiple sources (see, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Behmke 2015). Similarly, the Service is also not discouraged from either incentivizing or requiring the use of lead-free ammunition and tackle, where appropriate, by the continued use of lead ammunition and tackle for hunting and fishing on nearby State and privately held lands and waters. The Service will act to address threats, including from visitor uses, as necessary within our authority, in the interest of our conservation mission even if, and often especially when, human activities outside of refuge borders present similar threats.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (11):</E>
                     One comment opposed to non-lead ammunition and tackle requirements maintained that lead ammunition and tackle are made of an inorganic, insoluble form of lead that poses less risk of harm to humans or animals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     While inorganic lead presents a low risk of adverse health impacts while it retains its solid, molded form (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     anglers face relatively little risk from handling lead tackle), the basis for concern about lead ammunition and tackle is that there are multiple ways for such lead to become harmful to human and wildlife health. Organic lead (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the banned gasoline additive tetramethyl lead) is more dangerous than inorganic lead because it can be absorbed through the skin. Inorganic lead can also have serious 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88155"/>
                    impacts in certain forms (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     fragments and particles) and once it is inside an animal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    First, as briefly described in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (7),</E>
                     lead ammunition, including bonded lead ammunition, fragments when it hits an animal, and this distributes tiny pieces of lead within a wide radius in the soft tissues of the harvested animal (see Trinogga et al. (2019). Fragmentation of lead-free and lead-based hunting rifle bullets under real life hunting conditions in Germany. Amibo 48(9): pp. 1056-1064 (published online March 23, 2019)). These tiny fragments of lead are then consumed by scavenger species eating carcasses or gut piles left behind or humans eating the game meat. In this tiny, fragmented form and acted on by digestive enzymes and acids, the lead derived from ammunition can then shed particles that enter the blood stream and affect systems throughout the body, presenting both chronic and acute health risks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Second, as briefly described in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (7),</E>
                     lead ammunition and tackle that is deposited along shores or at the bottom of bodies of water can be ingested by several species of birds that forage in these locations for pebbles, as pebbles are necessary to break down food through grinding in a special organ of their digestive systems called a gizzard. This grinding process, along with digestive acids and enzymes that accompany food into the gizzard, can easily break down lead ammunition and tackle into fragments and cause it to shed particles, just as the process breaks down the stones and shells the birds intended to ingest. These lead particles are then able to enter the bloodstream and affect systems throughout the body, presenting both chronic and acute health risks.
                </P>
                <P>Third, lead ammunition and tackle that ends up discarded in bodies of water may begin to dissolve and thus introduce lead particles into the water that present both chronic and acute health risks to both aquatic animals living in the water and terrestrial animals drinking from the water. This process requires high acidity in the water that dissolves lead ammunition or tackle, and it is essentially the same concern as the problem of corrosion from acidic water in lead water pipes. These particles of lead dissolved into the water are easily taken up into the bloodstream as they pass through digestive systems.</P>
                <P>It is through these known processes that lead ammunition and tackle present a risk, and the best available scientific evidence indicates that these processes are occurring at rates that are causing negative impacts on the health of certain wildlife species. Thus, we seriously consider the impact of inorganic forms of lead, such as lead ammunition and tackle, on wildlife and human health in our regulatory and management processes.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (12):</E>
                     One commenter, in objecting to the regulation of lead ammunition and tackle, expressed nonsubstantive concerns centered on their views about the constitutionality and/or legality of the Service creating non-lead ammunition and tackle requirements through our regulations. This comment also offered nonsubstantive concerns about their general projections of impacts to the ammunition and tackle industry and the broader economy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service thoroughly addressed these and similar concerns in our final rule for the 2022-2023 station-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations (see 87 FR 57108 at 57117-57119, September 16, 2022). Our position remains the same on these topics in this 2024-2025 rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (13):</E>
                     A few commenters expressed concerns about the availability of copper for use in ammunition, as copper is one of the alternatives to lead used for non-lead ammunition. The comments expressed concern that due to limited sources of copper and demand for copper for other uses, an increase in demand for copper for ammunition from non-lead ammunition requirements may not be possible or could drive up the cost of non-lead ammunition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     These concerns are outside the scope of this rulemaking. It is outside the expertise of the Service and the scope of this rule to speculate about the current or future availability of copper, or how it could affect prices for goods made using copper. There are, however, two things the Service can say on this topic. First, by requiring the use of lead-free ammunition for elk hunting at four refuges and all hunting on one unit of another refuge in this rule, the Service is not specifically requiring the use of copper ammunition. Second, the non-lead ammunition regulations in this rulemaking impact a small portion of the market for ammunition.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (14):</E>
                     We also received several comments concerning potential compliance and enforcement challenges related to requirements for hunters to use lead-free ammunition, in particular the requirement specific to the Big Cove Unit of Canaan Valley NWR set forth in this rule. Some of these comments specifically noted the compliance challenge that it may be difficult for hunters to discern when they are on the Big Cove Unit and when they are on another unit of the refuge. Some also expressed concerns related to enforcement with the difficulty of law enforcement to differentiate between lead-free and lead ammunition and with the wording of the lead-free requirement stating that hunters may only “possess” lead-free ammunition when this is applied to big game hunters who choose to carry a sidearm containing lead ammunition for self-defense.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The compliance and enforcement challenges identified in these comments are indeed inherent challenges when it comes to lead-free ammunition requirements within a given jurisdictional boundary. On the compliance side, while we recognize that differences in regulations between adjacent units of huntable land present the potential for confusion, this situation occurs in other contexts because of differences in land uses and ownership, and responsible hunters are familiar with the responsibility to be aware of what land they are on and the applicable regulations. Our law enforcement personnel have been appropriately and effectively enforcing similar requirements for years at various individual refuges and already receive applicable training. The requirement will be enforced by Service law enforcement officers in the same manner as similar existing lead-free ammunition requirements elsewhere in the Refuge System, some of which already apply to big game hunting ammunition and some of which apply only to designated units within a given refuge or individual refuges within a complex.
                </P>
                <P>This includes the scenario of a big game hunter carrying a lawful side-arm for self-defense purposes while hunting. The Service's refuge hunting regulations govern the lawful use and possession of firearms and ammunition for hunting, but do not prohibit possession for purposes of self-defense of a handgun, and ammunition it contains, lawfully carried under applicable State law.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (15):</E>
                     Several commenters expressed concerns about or objections to the removal of a permit requirement for the existing muzzleloader deer hunt at Fort Niobrara NWR, including concern about hunting pressure reducing the quality of the deer hunt.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88156"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service acknowledges the concern that removing the Fort Niobrara NWR refuge-specific permit requirement may affect the quality of the muzzleloader deer hunt there. We do not anticipate that removing the refuge permit requirement will increase the number of hunters that participate in the Fort Niobrara muzzleloader deer hunt, but we recognize that it could. Our desired result is to reduce an administrative burden for hunters and to more closely align refuge regulations with State regulations. We will continue to monitor muzzleloader deer hunter use at the refuge. If we identify significant negative impacts to habitat, wildlife, or refuge visitors, we will consider further regulatory changes.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (16):</E>
                     Two comments expressed objections to the closing of 111 acres that are currently open to hunting at Crab Orchard NWR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     This closure of a small area within Crab Orchard NWR is necessary in order to allow for use of the area for other public recreational uses, including camping. In addition to our safety and compatibility considerations, the Service must comply with State laws related to how close hunting may be authorized to the intended camping area. Crab Orchard NWR will still offer hunters more than 44,000 huntable acres.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (17):</E>
                     We received multiple comments expressing concern about opportunities for hunting of predator species, including black bear, bobcat, fox, and coyote hunting. Some of these comments also object to the use of dogs and hunting at night when hunting these species.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     Refuge managers consider predator management decisions on a case-by-case basis. As with all species, a refuge manager makes a decision about managing predator populations, which are included in the category of resident wildlife, including allowing predatory species to be hunted, only after careful examination to ensure the action would comply with relevant laws, policies, and directives.
                </P>
                <P>The Administration Act, as amended, directs the Service to manage refuges for biological integrity, diversity, and environmental health. Predators play a critical role in the integrity, diversity, and overall health of ecosystems, so before allowing predators to be hunted, a refuge manager must ensure that these actions do not threaten the integrity, diversity, or health of the refuge ecosystem.</P>
                <P>The refuge manager must also determine that the action is compatible with refuge purposes and the mission of the Refuge System, and in keeping with the refuge's comprehensive conservation plan (CCP) and other step-down plans. In addition, the refuge manager analyzes the impacts of the actions on the environment through the NEPA process and section 7 of the ESA. Therefore, a refuge manager must take many steps to ensure that any opportunity for hunting predators on a refuge meets the Service's applicable laws and policies. All of the same considerations apply where, on a case-by-case basis, we authorize the use of dogs or align with State regulations to allow hunting at night in conjunction with predator hunting or other hunting.</P>
                <P>The Administration Act, as amended, also mandates that regulations authorizing hunting or fishing of fish and resident wildlife within the Refuge System shall be, to the extent practicable, consistent with State fish and wildlife laws, regulations, and management plans (16 U.S.C. 668dd(m)). Therefore, all the opportunities for hunting predators in this rule that are intended to bring greater consistency with State fish and wildlife laws, regulations, and management plans are part of realizing the Service's mission. Moreover, these, as with all predator hunting determinations and all hunting and fishing determinations, were only made after careful consideration by the refuge manager to ensure that such actions would not threaten the integrity, diversity, and overall health of the ecosystem and were compatible with both the purpose of the refuge and the mission of the Refuge System.</P>
                <P>Finally, both the NEPA process and the rulemaking process provide the opportunity for the public to provide comments and any additional information on the impacts of our actions. We considered the additional information provided from the public on this issue during these public comment periods and determined that they did not affect our initial determinations that the opportunities for hunting predators on specific refuges will have no more than minor impacts on the population health of these species or other wildlife at the local, regional, or national level.</P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (18):</E>
                     We received two comments expressing concern about the Service having adequate funding and staffing, including law enforcement officers, to administer our hunting and fishing opportunities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     We appreciate the concern of these commenters for sufficient funding and staffing to safely and effectively administer hunting and fishing activities throughout the Refuge System. Importantly, Service policy (603 FW 2.12.A.(7); see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/policy-library/603fw2</E>
                    ) requires station managers to determine that adequate resources, including personnel, exist or can be provided by the Service or a partner to properly develop, operate, and maintain the use in a way that will not materially interfere with or detract from fulfillment of the refuge purpose(s) and the Service's mission. If resources are lacking for establishment or continuation of wildlife-dependent recreational uses, the refuge manager will make reasonable efforts to obtain additional resources or outside assistance from States, other public agencies, local communities, and/or private and nonprofit groups before determining that the use is not compatible. For example, when Service law enforcement resources are lacking, we are often able to rely upon State fish and game law-enforcement capacity to assist in enforcement of hunting and fishing regulations. For all refuges opening or expanding hunting or sport fishing in this rule, we have determined that we have adequate resources, including available funds and personnel, to develop, operate, and maintain the proposed hunt programs.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (19):</E>
                     We received one comment arguing that we should have prepared an environmental impact statement (EIS) instead of station-specific environmental analyses (EAs) combined with a national cumulative impact report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service disagrees with the assertion that we should prepare an EIS before opening or expanding hunting and fishing opportunities on refuges. We completed individual EAs for, or applied categorical exclusions to, each refuge in this rule, in compliance with NEPA, to evaluate the impacts of opening or expanding hunting or fishing opportunities through this rulemaking. These EAs and categorical exclusions underwent regional and national review to address and consider these actions from a local, regional, multi-State, and/or flyway perspective, and to consider the cumulative impacts from this larger geographical context. The 2024-2025 cumulative impacts report concludes, after analyzing the impacts, collectively, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88157"/>
                    of all EAs and categorical exclusions prepared in connection with this rule, that the rule would not have significant impacts at the local, regional, or national level. The commenter who raised these environmental analysis concerns provided no additional information that would change this analysis or our conclusion. As discussed above, we annually conduct management activities on refuges that minimize or offset impacts of hunting and fishing on physical and cultural resources, including establishing designated areas for hunting; restricting levels of use; confining access and travel to designated locations; providing education programs and materials for hunters, anglers, and other users; and conducting law enforcement activities.
                </P>
                <P>In this rulemaking, the Service is expanding opportunities for recreational hunting and fishing. Expanding opportunities does not necessarily result in increased impacts to refuge resources. We anticipate that for some refuges, these expansions will not result in changes in usage of the refuge. In other cases, these expansions may lead to some increase in use of refuges, but these changes would likely be minor. Opening of new refuges or new opportunities may attract people to the refuge, but these hunters and/or anglers were likely already participating elsewhere on State or other Federal lands. Overall, considering the decreasing trends in hunting generally, and trends on refuges specifically, we do not expect this final rule to have a significant impact on the environment. As noted in our cumulative impacts report, hunter participation trends have been generally declining, some refuges attract a very small number of participants, and often participation rates decline over the course of a season.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, a Federal court found that this approach, using a bottom-up analysis to assess the cumulative impact of increased hunting and fishing across the entire Refuge System, was an appropriate way for the Service to analyze the impacts of the rule in compliance with NEPA (see 
                    <E T="03">Fund for Animals</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Hall,</E>
                     777 F. Supp. 2d 92, 105 (D.D.C. 2011)).
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (20):</E>
                     We received two comments that advocated for requiring some form of monetary payment to the Service for members of the public to participate in recreational uses other than hunting or fishing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     Notably, the Service does not uniformly charge entrance or recreation fees, but does for some stations on a case-by-case basis. Any such fee, however, is outside the scope of this rulemaking, which is devoted to regulations for hunting and fishing activities on the Refuge System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Service collects entrance and recreation fees under the authorities of the Refuge Revenue Sharing Act of 1935 (16 U.S.C. 715s) and the Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act (FLREA; 16 U.S.C. 6801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Service policy requires refuge managers to consider two factors in determining fees for any activity: Fair market value and costs involved in providing the use. Because fair market value and refuge costs can differ among localities, there is often a range of different fees for similar activities in different locations. For locations that collect fees under FLREA, public comment periods are required when refuges initiate fees and to change the types and amounts of fees. We encourage public participation in this process.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of these comments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (21):</E>
                     We received one comment that advocated for barring all filming on the Refuge System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     The Service already has policies and regulations governing filming on the Refuge System, which are outside the scope of this rulemaking. We will note that filming has the potential to impact wildlife or habitat, particularly larger-scale commercial filming and noncommercial filming involving models, sets, or lighting equipment. Under our current regulations (see 50 CFR 27.71 and 43 CFR part 5), such filming will require a special use permit and the associated evaluation of the potential impacts prior to granting the permit. However, we encourage refuge visitors to use their personal hand-held cameras and cellphones to capture photos video of wildlife and of natural scenery in order to share with friends and loved ones and to preserve memories of their visits.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment (22):</E>
                     We received one comment requesting an extension of the public comment period through December 3, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our Response:</E>
                     We declined to extend the public comment period for the August 2, 2024, proposed rule (89 FR 63139). While extending the comment period was not necessary and extending it by 3 months would not have been feasible, the Service acknowledges that, for this annual rule cycle, the public comment period was shorter than those we provided in the last few years. This was necessitated by consideration of the balance between providing as much opportunity for public comment as possible while keeping delays to fall hunting opportunities to a minimum. We provided 30 days for public comments, and, within that time, we received comments covering the full range of typical topics for this annual rulemaking from a substantial number of the industry, sporting, and conservation organizations that are stakeholders for these regulations. The comments we received on the August 2, 2024, proposed rule are also a representative set of comments from individual members of the public. The Service believes that 30 days was an adequate amount of time for interested parties to provide their comments to us.
                </P>
                <P>We did not make any changes to the rule as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes From the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>As discussed above, under Summary of Comments and Responses, we made no changes in this final rule based on comments we received on the August 2, 2024, proposed rule (89 FR 63139) and NEPA documents for individual refuges.</P>
                <P>We did, however, withdraw the proposed authorization of incidental take of feral hog when big game hunting on Green River NWR. As of earlier this year, the Kentucky Department of Fish and Wildlife Resources prohibits hunting of feral hogs, also known as wild pigs, within Kentucky. The Department is pursuing a strategy of eradication through trapping for this invasive species, and we are seeking to ensure our refuge regulations are aligned with this effort. We encourage anyone hunting or otherwise recreating on Green River NWR to report sightings of feral hogs to the Kentucky Department of Fish and Wildlife Resources.</P>
                <P>We also made several editorial, nonsubstantive revisions to this rule to improve clarity or to correct cross-references.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    We are making this rule effective upon the date of its filing at the Office of the Federal Register (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    , above). We provided a 30-day public comment period for the August 2, 2024, proposed rule (89 FR 63139). We have determined that any further delay in implementing these station-specific hunting and sport fishing regulations would not be in the public interest, in that a delay would hinder the effective planning and administration of refuges' hunting and sport fishing programs. This rule does not impact the public generally in terms of requiring lead time for compliance. Rather, it relieves restrictions in that it allows activities on refuges and hatcheries that we would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88158"/>
                    otherwise prohibit. Therefore, we find good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) and 808(1) to make this rule effective upon the date of its filing at the Office of the Federal Register.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amendments to Existing Regulations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Updates to Hunting and Fishing Opportunities on NWRs</HD>
                <P>This document codifies in the Code of Federal Regulations all the Service's hunting and/or sport fishing regulations that we are updating since the last time we published a rule amending these regulations (88 FR 74050; October 30, 2023) and that are applicable at Refuge System units previously opened to hunting and/or sport fishing. We adopt these changes to better inform the general public of the regulations at each station, to increase understanding and compliance with these regulations, and to make enforcement of these regulations more efficient. In addition to finding these regulations in 50 CFR parts 32, visitors to our stations may find them reiterated in literature distributed by each station or posted on signs.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r30,r30,r30,r30,r30">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Changes for 2024-2025 Hunting/Sport Fishing Season</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Station</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">State</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Migratory bird
                            <LI>hunting</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Upland game
                            <LI>hunting</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Big game hunting</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Sport fishing</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bayou Teche NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Louisiana</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Canaan Valley NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>West Virginia</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Des Lacs NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Dakota</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>O</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Green River NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kentucky</ENT>
                        <ENT>N</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed</ENT>
                        <ENT>N</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Horicon NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wisconsin</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>E.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">J. Clark Salyer NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Dakota</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>O</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lostwood NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Dakota</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>O</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Trinity River NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Texas</ENT>
                        <ENT>O</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Turnbull NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Washington</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Upper Souris NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Dakota</ENT>
                        <ENT>Closed</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>O</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Valentine NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nebraska</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Waccamaw NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>South Carolina</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open</ENT>
                        <ENT>Already Open.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Key:</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>N = New station opened for the first time.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>O = Opening (New species and/or new activity on a station previously open to other activities).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>E = Expansion (Station is already open to the activity: the final rule adds new lands/waters, modifies areas open to hunting or fishing, extends season dates, adds a targeted hunt, modifies season dates, modifies hunting hours, etc.).</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The changes for the 2024-2025 hunting/fishing season noted in the table above are each based on a complete administrative record which, among other detailed documentation, also includes a hunt plan, a compatibility determination (for refuges), and the appropriate NEPA analysis, all of which were the subject of a public review and comment process. These documents are available upon request.</P>
                <P>The Service recognizes the possible effects of lead ammunition on refuge resources and human health, and we will continue to evaluate and appropriately regulate the use of lead ammunition and tackle on Service lands and waters. The Service has initiated stakeholder engagement to implement a deliberate, open, and transparent process of evaluating the future of lead use on Service lands and waters, working with our State partners and seeking input and recommendations from the Hunting and Wildlife Conservation Council, other stakeholders, and the public. The best available science, analyzed as part of this rulemaking, indicates that lead ammunition and tackle have negative impacts on both wildlife and human health. Based on the best available science and sound professional judgment, where appropriate, the Service may propose to require the use of non-lead ammunition and tackle on Service lands and waters, as we have previously done in certain areas. While the Service continues to evaluate the future of lead use in hunting and fishing on Service lands and waters, we will work with stakeholders and the public to evaluate lead use through the annual rulemaking process. In the interim, the Service does not intend to allow opportunities increasing or authorizing the new use of lead on Service lands and waters, and this rule is consistent with that approach.</P>
                <P>Crab Orchard NWR will close hunting on 111 acres that are currently open to hunting, out of more than 44,000 huntable acres, so that the area can be repurposed for other visitor recreational uses, including camping. Turnbull, Horicon, and Valentine NWRs are expanding hunting and fishing to species where lead-free ammunition or tackle is already required on the refuges. Trinity River, Bayou Teche, Green River, and Waccamaw NWRs will each open or expand archery deer hunting or open or expand migratory bird hunting, both of which are hunting activities that do not involve lead ammunition. Des Lacs, J. Clark Salyer, Lostwood, and Upper Souris NWRs are opening elk hunting that will require the use of lead-free ammunition immediately in the fall 2024 season. In this final rule, Canaan Valley NWR will expand all existing hunting onto the newly acquired Big Cove Unit and require the use of lead-free ammunition immediately for all hunting in the fall 2024 seasons on the Big Cove Unit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Fish Advisory</HD>
                <P>
                    For health reasons, anglers should review and follow State-issued consumption advisories before enjoying recreational sport fishing opportunities on Service-managed waters. You can find information about current fish-consumption advisories on the internet at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/choose-fish-and-shellfish-wisely.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Required Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Planning and Review—Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 14094 amends and reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563 and states that regulatory analysis should facilitate agency efforts to develop regulations that serve the public interest, advance statutory objectives, and are consistent with E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, and E.O. 14094. Regulatory analysis, as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88159"/>
                    practicable and appropriate, shall recognize distributive impacts and equity, to the extent permitted by law. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this final rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
                </P>
                <P>E.O. 12866, as reaffirmed by E.O. 13563 and amended by E.O. 14094, provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is not significant.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA; 5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA; title II of Pub. L. 104-121, March 29, 1996), whenever a Federal agency is required to publish a notice of rulemaking for any proposed or final rule, it must prepare and make available for public comment a regulatory flexibility analysis that describes the effect of the rule on small entities (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     small businesses, small organizations, and small government jurisdictions). However, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required if the head of an agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Thus, for a regulatory flexibility analysis to be required, impacts must exceed a threshold for “significant impact” and a threshold for a “substantial number of small entities.” See 5 U.S.C. 605(b). SBREFA amended the Regulatory Flexibility Act to require Federal agencies to provide a statement of the factual basis for certifying that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                </P>
                <P>This rule opens or expands hunting or fishing on 12 NWRs. As a result, visitor use for wildlife-dependent recreation on these stations will change. If the stations establishing new programs were a pure addition to the current supply of those activities, it would mean an estimated maximum increase of 1,481 user days (one person per day participating in a recreational opportunity; see table 2, below). Because the participation trend is flat in these activities, this increase in supply will most likely be offset by other sites losing participants. Therefore, this is likely to be a substitute site for the activity and not necessarily an increase in participation rates for the activity.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Estimated Maximum Change in Recreation Opportunities in 2024-2025</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[2023 Dollars in thousands]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Station</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Additional
                            <LI>hunting days</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Additional
                            <LI>fishing days</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Additional
                            <LI>expenditures</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bayou Teche NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>$1.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Canaan Valley NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Des Lacs NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Green River NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>144</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>5.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Horicon NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>365</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">J. Clark Salyer NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lostwood NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Trinity River NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>11.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Turnbull NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>272</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>10.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Upper Souris NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Valentine NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Waccamaw NWR</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,116</ENT>
                        <ENT>365</ENT>
                        <ENT>59.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>To the extent visitors spend time and money in the area of the station that they would not have spent there anyway, they contribute new income to the regional economy and benefit local businesses. Due to the unavailability of site-specific expenditure data, we use the national estimates from the 2016 National Survey of Fishing, Hunting, and Wildlife Associated Recreation to identify expenditures for food and lodging, transportation, and other incidental expenses. Using the average expenditures for these categories with the maximum expected additional participation of the Refuge System yields approximately $59,000 in recreation-related expenditures (see table 2, above). By having ripple effects throughout the economy, these direct expenditures are only part of the economic impact of these recreational activities. Using a national impact multiplier for hunting activities (2.51) derived from the report “Hunting in America: An Economic Force for Conservation” and for fishing activities (2.51) derived from the report “Sportfishing in America” yields a total maximum economic impact of approximately $150,000 (2023 dollars) (Southwick Associates, Inc., 2018).</P>
                <P>Since we know that most of the fishing and hunting occurs within 100 miles of a participant's residence, then it is unlikely that most of this spending will be “new” money coming into a local economy; therefore, this spending will be offset with a decrease in some other sector of the local economy. The net gain to the local economies will be no more than $149,000 and likely less. Since 80 percent of the participants travel less than 100 miles to engage in hunting and fishing activities, their spending patterns will not add new money into the local economy and, therefore, the real impact will be on the order of about $30,000 annually.</P>
                <P>
                    Small businesses within the retail trade industry (such as hotels, gas stations, taxidermy shops, bait-and-tackle shops, and similar businesses) may be affected by some increased or decreased station visitation. A large percentage of these retail trade establishments in the local communities around NWRs qualify as small businesses (see table 3, below). We expect that the incremental recreational changes will be scattered, and so we do not expect that the rule will have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities in any region or nationally. As noted previously, we expect at most $59,500 to be spent in total in the refuges' local economies. The maximum increase will be less than one-tenth of 1 percent for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88160"/>
                    local retail trade spending (see table 3, below). Table 3 does not include entries for those NWRs for which we project no changes in recreation opportunities in 2024-2025; see table 2, above.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,10,10,13,13">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Comparative Expenditures for Retail Trade Associated With Additional Station Visitation for 2024-2025</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Thousands, 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Station/county(ies)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Retail trade
                            <LI>
                                in 2017 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>maximum</LI>
                            <LI>addition</LI>
                            <LI>from new</LI>
                            <LI>activities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Addition
                            <LI>as % of</LI>
                            <LI>total</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Establishments
                            <LI>
                                in 2017 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Establishments
                            <LI>with fewer than</LI>
                            <LI>10 employees</LI>
                            <LI>in 2017</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Bayou Teche:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">St. Mary Parish, LA</ENT>
                        <ENT>$658,214</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>186</ENT>
                        <ENT>145</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Canaan Valley:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Grant, WV</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,024</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>42</ENT>
                        <ENT>28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tucker, WV</ENT>
                        <ENT>79,611</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>28</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Des Lacs:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Renville, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,869</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Green River:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Henderson, KY</ENT>
                        <ENT>825,225</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>98</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Horicon:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Dodge, WI</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,069,734</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>232</ENT>
                        <ENT>154</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Fond du Lac, WI</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,137,970</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>344</ENT>
                        <ENT>207</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">J. Clark Salyer:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">McHenry, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>39,926</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Lostwood:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Burke, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>38,614</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Mountrail, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>228,282</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>47</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Trinity River:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Liberty, TX</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,047,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>201</ENT>
                        <ENT>143</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Turnbull:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Spokane, WA</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,754,429</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,627</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,036</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Upper Souris:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Renville, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,869</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Ward, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,844,525</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>309</ENT>
                        <ENT>169</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Valentine:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Cherry, NE</ENT>
                        <ENT>116,107</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>43</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Waccamaw:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Georgetown, SC</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,035,984</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>287</ENT>
                        <ENT>206</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         U.S. Census Bureau.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    With the small change in overall spending anticipated from this rule, it is unlikely that a substantial number of small entities will have more than a small impact from the spending change near the affected stations. Therefore, we certify that this rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities as defined under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). A regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. Accordingly, a small entity compliance guide is not required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>The rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Congressional Review Act. We anticipate no significant employment or small business effects. This rule:</P>
                <P>a. Will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. The minimal impact will be scattered across the country and will most likely not be significant in any local area.</P>
                <P>b. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers; individual industries; Federal, State, or local government agencies; or geographic regions. This rule will have only a slight effect on the costs of hunting opportunities for Americans. If the substitute sites are farther from the participants' residences, then an increase in travel costs will occur. The Service does not have information to quantify this change in travel cost but assumes that, since most people travel less than 100 miles to hunt, the increased travel cost will be small. We do not expect this rule to affect the supply or demand for hunting opportunities in the United States, and, therefore, it should not affect prices for hunting equipment and supplies, or the retailers that sell equipment.</P>
                <P>c. Will not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This rule represents only a small proportion of recreational spending at NWRs. Therefore, this rule will have no measurable economic effect on the wildlife-dependent industry, which has annual sales of equipment and travel expenditures of $72 billion nationwide.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Since this rule will apply to public use of federally owned and managed refuges, it will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule will not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) is not required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Takings (E.O. 12630)</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with E.O. 12630, this rule will not have significant takings implications. This rule will affect only visitors at NWRs and describes what 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88161"/>
                    they can do while they are on a Service station.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Federalism (E.O. 13132)</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed under 
                    <E T="03">Regulatory Planning and Review</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act,</E>
                     above, this rule will not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement under E.O. 13132. In preparing this rule, we worked with State governments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Civil Justice Reform (E.O. 12988)</HD>
                <P>In accordance with E.O. 12988, the Department of the Interior has determined that this rule will not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Energy Supply, Distribution or Use (E.O. 13211)</HD>
                <P>On May 18, 2001, the President issued E.O. 13211 on regulations that significantly affect energy supply, distribution, or use. E.O. 13211 requires agencies to prepare statements of energy effects when undertaking certain actions. Because this rule will open or expand hunting opportunities on 12 NWRs, it is not a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866, and we do not expect it to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and no statement of energy effects is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments (E.O. 13175)</HD>
                <P>In accordance with E.O. 13175, we have evaluated possible effects on federally recognized Indian Tribes and have determined that there are no effects. We coordinate recreational use on NWRs and National Fish Hatcheries with Tribal governments having adjoining or overlapping jurisdiction before we propose new or revised regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule does not contain any new collections of information that require approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). OMB previously approved the information collection requirements associated with application and reporting requirements associated with hunting and sport fishing and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0140 (expires 09/30/2025). An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Endangered Species Act Section 7 Consultation</HD>
                <P>
                    We comply with section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), when developing comprehensive conservation plans and step-down management plans—which includes hunting and/or fishing plans—for public use of refuges and hatcheries, and prior to implementing any new or revised public recreation program on a station as identified in 50 CFR 26.32. We complied with section 7 for each of the stations affected by this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>We analyzed this rule in accordance with the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4332(C)), 43 CFR part 46, and 516 Departmental Manual (DM) 8.</P>
                <P>A categorical exclusion from NEPA documentation applies to publication of amendments to station-specific hunting and fishing regulations because they are technical and procedural in nature, and the environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis (43 CFR 46.210 and 516 DM 8). Concerning the actions that are the subject of this rulemaking, we have complied with NEPA at the project level when developing each package. This is consistent with the Department of the Interior instructions for compliance with NEPA where actions are covered sufficiently by an earlier environmental document (43 CFR 46.120).</P>
                <P>Prior to the addition of a refuge or hatchery to the list of areas open to hunting and fishing in 50 CFR parts 32 and 71, we develop hunting and fishing plans for the affected stations. We incorporate these station hunting and fishing activities in the station comprehensive conservation plan and/or other step-down management plans, pursuant to our refuge planning guidance in 602 Fish and Wildlife Service Manual (FW) 1, 3, and 4. We prepare these comprehensive conservation plans and step-down plans in compliance with section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, the Council on Environmental Quality's regulations for implementing NEPA in 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508, and the Department of Interior's NEPA regulations at 43 CFR part 46. We invite the affected public to participate in the review, development, and implementation of these plans. Copies of all plans and NEPA compliance are available from the stations at the addresses provided below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Available Information for Specific Stations</HD>
                <P>Individual refuge and hatchery headquarters have information about public use programs and conditions that apply to their specific programs and maps of their respective areas. To find out how to contact a specific refuge or hatchery, contact the appropriate Service office for the States and Territories listed below:</P>
                <P>Hawaii, Idaho, Oregon, and Washington. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Eastside Federal Complex, Suite 1692, 911 NE 11th Avenue, Portland, OR 97232-4181; Telephone (503) 231-6203.</P>
                <P>Arizona, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, P.O. Box 1306, 500 Gold Avenue SW, Albuquerque, NM 87103; Telephone (505) 248-6635.</P>
                <P>Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, and Wisconsin. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; Telephone (612) 713-5476.</P>
                <P>Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1875 Century Boulevard, Atlanta, GA 30345; Telephone (404) 679-7356.</P>
                <P>Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 300 Westgate Center Drive, Hadley, MA 01035-9589; Telephone (413) 253-8307.</P>
                <P>Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and Wyoming. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 134 Union Blvd., Lakewood, CO 80228; Telephone (303) 236-4377.</P>
                <P>Alaska. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1011 E Tudor Rd., Anchorage, AK 99503; Telephone (907) 786-3545.</P>
                <P>
                    California and Nevada. Regional Chief, National Wildlife Refuge System, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2606, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88162"/>
                    Sacramento, CA 95825; Telephone (916) 767-9241.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Primary Author</HD>
                <P>Christian Myers, Division of Natural Resources and Conservation Planning, National Wildlife Refuge System, is the primary author of this rulemaking document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulation Changes Summary Table</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulatory amendments set forth below are presented alongside existing station-specific regulations that have not been amended. For a table that provides additional clarity on which specific regulatory provisions have been amended, please see Docket No. FWS-HQ-NWRS-2024-0034 on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     for a separate document containing a table that provides additional clarity on which specific regulatory provisions have been amended and how they have been amended.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 32</HD>
                    <P>Fishing, Hunting, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wildlife, Wildlife refuges.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulation Promulgation</HD>
                <P>For the reasons described in the preamble, we amend title 50, chapter I, subchapter C of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 32—HUNTING AND FISHING</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 32 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 301; 16 U.S.C. 460k, 664, 668dd-668ee, and 715i; Pub. L. 115-20, 131 Stat. 86.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 32.7 by revising and republishing paragraph (q) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.7</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> What refuge units are open to hunting and/or sport fishing?</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (q) 
                            <E T="03">Kentucky.</E>
                             (1) Clarks River National Wildlife Refuge.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Green River National Wildlife Refuge.</P>
                        <P>(3) Ohio River Islands National Wildlife Refuge.</P>
                        <P>(4) Reelfoot National Wildlife Refuge.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 32.24 by revising and republishing paragraphs (j), (m), and (x) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.24</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>California.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Lower Klamath National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, coot, moorhen, and snipe on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the controlled waterfowl hunting area, we require a valid Refuge Recreation Pass (available electronically or in person at the refuge office) for all hunters age 16 or older. All hunters age 15 and younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Unless otherwise posted, we require advance reservations for the first 2 days of the hunting season. Reservations are obtained through the waterfowl lottery each year.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Hunters may enter the refuge at 4:30 a.m. unless otherwise posted.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Shooting hours end at 1 p.m. on all California portions of the refuge with the following exceptions:</P>
                        <P>(A) The refuge manager may designate up to 6 afternoon special youth, ladies, veteran, or disabled hunter waterfowl hunts per season.</P>
                        <P>(B) The refuge manager may designate up to 3 days per week of afternoon waterfowl hunting for the general public after December 1.</P>
                        <P>(v) We prohibit the setting of decoys in retrieving zones.</P>
                        <P>(vi) Pit-style hunting blinds located in the Stearns units and unit 9D are first-come, first-served. We require you to hunt within a 200-foot (61-meter) radius of the blind.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the controlled pheasant hunting area, we require a valid Refuge Recreation Pass (available electronically or in person at the refuge office) for all hunters age 16 or older.</P>
                        <P>(ii) All hunters age 15 or younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Modoc National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, coot, moorhen, and snipe on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) On the opening weekend of the hunting season, hunters must possess and carry a refuge permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System) issued through random drawing to hunters with advance reservations only.</P>
                        <P>(ii) After the opening weekend of the hunting season, we only allow hunting on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays. Hunters must check-in and out of the refuge by using self-service permits (FWS Form 3-2405, Self-Clearing Check-in/out Permit). Hunters must completely fill out the “Refuge Hunt Permit” portion of the permit and deposit it in the drop box prior to hunting. Hunters must complete and display the “Daily Vehicle Permit” in the windshield of the hunter's vehicle prior to hunting. The hunter must possess and carry the “Record of Kill” and “Waterfowl Harvest Statistics” portions of the permit while on the refuge and turn them in prior to exiting the hunting area.</P>
                        <P>(iii) In the designated spaced blind area, you must remain within the blind assigned to you.</P>
                        <P>(iv) All hunters age 15 and younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(v) You may not possess more than 25 shot shells while in the field once you have left your assigned parking lot or boat launch.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You may only use portable blinds in the free-roam hunting areas.</P>
                        <P>(vii) You must remove all blinds, decoys, shell casings, other personal equipment, and refuse from the refuge at the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>
                            (viii) Hunters must enter and exit the hunting area from the three designated hunt parking lots, which we open 1
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hours before legal shooting time and close 1 hour after legal shooting time each hunt day.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ix) We only allow walk-in access to the hunt area by foot and nonmotorized cart.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We limit hunting to junior hunters possessing a valid State Junior Hunting License and refuge Junior Pheasant Hunt Permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System).</P>
                        <P>(ii) All hunters age 15 and younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(3) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing only on Dorris Reservoir subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We prohibit fishing from October 1 to January 31.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow fishing only from legal sunrise to legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) We allow only walk-in access to Dorris Reservoir from February 1 through March 31.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88163"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow use of boats for fishing on Dorris Reservoir only from April 1 through September 30.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (x) 
                            <E T="03">Tule Lake National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, coot, moorhen, and snipe on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the controlled waterfowl hunting area, we require a valid Refuge Recreation Pass (available electronically or in person at the refuge office) for all hunters age 16 or older.</P>
                        <P>(ii) All hunters age 15 or younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Unless otherwise posted, we require advance reservations for the first 2 days of the hunting season. You may obtain a reservation through the waterfowl lottery each year.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Hunters may enter the refuge at 4:30 a.m. unless otherwise posted.</P>
                        <P>(v) Shooting hours end at 1 p.m. on all portions of the refuge with the following exceptions:</P>
                        <P>(A) The refuge manager may designate up to 6 afternoon special youth, ladies, veteran, or disabled hunter waterfowl hunts per season.</P>
                        <P>(B) The refuge manager may designate up to 3 days per week of afternoon waterfowl hunting for the general public after December 1.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You select blind sites by lottery at the beginning of each hunt day. You may shoot only from within your assigned blind site.</P>
                        <P>(vii) We prohibit the setting of decoys in retrieving zones.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We prohibit air-thrust and inboard water-thrust boats while hunting. We prohibit the use of all-terrain amphibious or utility-type vehicles (UTVs) in wetland units.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the controlled pheasant hunting area, we require a valid Refuge Recreation Pass (available electronically or in person at the refuge office) for all hunters age 16 or older.</P>
                        <P>(ii) All hunters age 15 or younger must remain in the immediate presence of an adult (age 18 or older) at all times while in the field.</P>
                        <P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 32.36 by redesignating paragraphs (b) and (c) as (c) and (d), respectively; and adding a new paragraph (b).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.36</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Kentucky.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Green River National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of duck, goose, coot, merganser, teal, and dove on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Each hunter age 12 and older must possess and carry a signed refuge hunting brochure (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System) while hunting on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(ii) All hunters age 15 or younger must be supervised by an adult age 21 or older and must remain in sight of and normal voice contact with the adult. The adult may supervise no more than two youths.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit hunting within 100 yards (91 meters) of a residence, graveled road, or hiking trail managed by the Service as part of Green River NWR.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit the use of trail cameras.</P>
                        <P>
                            (v) We allow the use of boats operated only by manual power or an electric trolling motor for hunters to access the refuge. We prohibit the use of internal combustion motors, personal watercraft (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             jet skis), airboats, and hovercraft on waters owned and managed by Green River NWR.
                        </P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow the use of bikes, including e-bikes, for hunters to access the refuge along designated routes only (graveled and paved roads, and established trails) managed by the Service as part of Green River NWR. We prohibit the use of internal combustion motors on lands owned and managed by Green River NWR.</P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) We allow the use of off-road or all-terrain vehicles (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             ATVs/UTVs) only for mobility-impaired hunters who, while hunting on the refuge, possess and carry a valid General Activities Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) approved by the refuge manager.
                        </P>
                        <P>(viii) We prohibit marking or flagging any tree or other refuge feature with non-biodegradable reflectors, paint, flagging, or other substances.</P>
                        <P>(ix) Access to open hunting areas of the refuge is from 2 hours before legal sunrise to 2 hours after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(x) We prohibit the killing or wounding of a game animal and then intentionally or knowingly failing to make a reasonable effort to retrieve and include it in the hunter's bag limit.</P>
                        <P>
                            (xi) We allow duck, goose, coot, wood duck, teal, and merganser hunting from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise until 12 p.m. (noon). We allow dove hunting according to State shooting hours.
                        </P>
                        <P>(xii) We allow the use of dogs for migratory game bird hunting. Dog owners and handlers must have a collar on each dog with the owner's contact information (FWS Form 3-2439).</P>
                        <P>(xiii) For migratory game bird hunting, you must remove all decoys, blinds, and hunting equipment at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(xiv) For youth, seniors, and disabled hunters, as defined by the State, the Horseshoe Bend Unit will be open to waterfowl hunting during the months of December and January of the Statewide waterfowl season, and during the additional Statewide veterans and youth hunt dates in February.</P>
                        <P>(xv) We prohibit waterfowl hunting during any Statewide seasons prior to December.</P>
                        <P>(xvi) We prohibit all entry to the Tscharner East section of the Bluff Unit from November 1 through March 31.</P>
                        <P>(xvii) The big game quota hunt in the month of November of the Statewide white-tailed deer season is open only to holders of a big game quota permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System). During that hunt, the Tscharner West section of the Bluff Unit and the Horseshoe Bend Unit are closed to all non-selected hunters and the general public.</P>
                        <P>(2) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow only archery and crossbow hunting of white-tailed deer and turkey on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (iii) through (x), (xvi), and (xvii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Hunters age 15 and younger must be supervised by an adult age 21 or older and must remain in sight of and normal voice contact with the adult. The adult may supervise no more than one youth.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow white-tailed deer and turkey hunting according to State shooting hours.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You must use safety belts at all times when occupying tree stands.</P>
                        <P>(v) You must remove all tree stands (portable and climbing) and ground blinds by legal sunset of each day's hunt.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You may use no more than one stand or blind per hunter.</P>
                        <P>(vii) The big game quota permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System) is a limited entry permit, is zone-specific, and is nontransferable.</P>
                        <P>
                            (viii) During the big game quota hunt, we allow only hunters possessing a valid big game quota permit (FWS Form 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88164"/>
                            3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System) on the refuge and only for the purposes of deer and turkey hunting.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ix) For the drawn holders of a big game quota permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System), the Horseshoe Bend Unit and Tscharner West section of the Bluff Unit will be open, up to 21 days, during the month of November of the Statewide season.</P>
                        <P>(x) For youth, seniors, and disabled hunters, as defined by the State, the Horseshoe Bend Unit and Tscharner West section of the Bluff Unit will be open to archery and crossbow hunting of deer and turkey during the months of September and October in accordance with State season dates.</P>
                        <P>(xi) For youth, as defined by the State, the Horseshoe Bend Unit and Tscharner West section of the Bluff Unit will be open to archery and crossbow hunting of turkey during the months of April and May in accordance with State season dates.</P>
                        <P>(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 32.37 by revising and republishing paragraphs (d), (e), and (m) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.37</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Louisiana.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Bayou Teche National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of duck, merganser, teal, light and dark goose, coot, gallinule, rail, snipe, dove, and woodcock on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Each person age 18 and older must possess and carry a valid, signed refuge user brochure while on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit hunting or discharge of firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) within 500 feet (152 meters (m)) of any residence or oil and gas infrastructure, or within 200 feet (61 m) of any road, railroad, levee, water control structure, designated public use trail, designated parking area, or other designated public use facility.</P>
                        <P>(iii) All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be supervised by an adult during all hunts. One adult may supervise up to two youths during small game and migratory game bird hunts, but may supervise only one youth during big game hunts. The supervising adult must maintain visual and voice contact with the youth at all times. Adult guardians are responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not violate refuge rules.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We require waterfowl and gallinule hunters to remove all portable blinds and decoys from the refuge by 2 p.m. each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(v) Migratory bird hunters are only allowed to enter the refuge after 4 a.m.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow waterfowl hunting daily until 2 p.m. during the State regular season, State teal season, and State youth and veteran waterfowl seasons. We allow gallinule, snipe, and rail hunting until 2 p.m.</P>
                        <P>(vii) When hunting migratory game birds, you may only use dogs to locate, point, and retrieve game.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We allow only the use of reflective tacks as marking devices.</P>
                        <P>(ix) We only allow the incidental take of nutria with approved shot and weapons during any open waterfowl season on the refuge. We allow the incidental take of raccoon, feral hog, armadillo, opossum, and coyote with approved shot and weapons during any open season on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of squirrel and rabbit, and the incidental take of nutria, coyote, raccoon, armadillo, and opossum, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow hunting from the start of the State squirrel and rabbit seasons until the last day of State waterfowl season for the State Waterfowl Zone in which you are hunting.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit upland game hunting on days corresponding with refuge deer gun hunts.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Hunters must leave the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(iv) When hunting, you must possess only shot size 4 or smaller or 0.22 caliber rimfire rifles or smaller. We allow the use of air rifles.</P>
                        <P>(v) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii), (viii), and (ix) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(vi) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section do not apply to upland game hunting on the Mitigation Units.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow the hunting of white-tailed deer, and the incidental take of feral hog, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow hunting of deer only with firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) during 5 specific days during October and November. A youth gun hunt will occur during the last weekend of October, on both Saturday and Sunday. The general gun hunt will occur during the final full weekend in November over 3 days: the Friday immediately before the weekend, Saturday, and Sunday.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow archery deer hunting according to the State of Louisiana archery season. We close refuge archery hunting during refuge deer gun hunts.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow each hunter to possess only one deer per day; the deer may be a buck or a doe.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Hunters may use only portable deer stands. Hunters may erect deer stands no earlier than 48 hours before the deer archery season and must remove them from the refuge within 48 hours after the season closes (see § 27.93 of this chapter). Hunters may place only one deer stand on the refuge. Deer stands must have the owner's State hunting license/sportsman's identification number clearly printed on the stand.</P>
                        <P>(v) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii), (viii), and (ix), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(vi) The condition set forth at paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to big game hunting on the Mitigation Units.</P>
                        <P>(vii) We prohibit the use of deer decoys.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We prohibit organized deer drives. We define a “deer drive” as an organized or planned effort to pursue, drive, chase, or otherwise frighten or cause deer to move in the direction of any person(s) who is part of the organized or planned hunt and known to be waiting for the deer.</P>
                        <P>(ix) Deer hunters must display State Wildlife Management Area (WMA) hunter-orange or blaze-pink (as governed by State WMA regulations).</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing in all refuge waters subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We prohibit the use of unattended nets, traps, or lines (trot, jug, bush, etc.).</P>
                        <P>(ii) The condition set forth at paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section applies.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The refuge is only open to recreational finfishing and shellfishing from legal sunrise to legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Big Branch Marsh National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of duck, merganser, teal, coot, light and dark goose, snipe, rail, gallinule, dove, and woodcock on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Each person age 18 and older must possess and carry a valid, signed refuge user brochure while on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) We allow waterfowl, snipe, rail, gallinule, dove, and goose hunting on Wednesdays, Thursdays, Saturdays, and Sundays from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise until 2 p.m., including waterfowl hunting during the State teal season and State youth and veterans 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88165"/>
                            waterfowl seasons. We only allow hunting of woodcock until 2 p.m.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) We allow light goose hunting for that part of the season that extends beyond the regular duck season from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise until 2 p.m.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow only temporary blinds, and hunters must remove blinds and decoys by 2 p.m. each day (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(v) All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be supervised by an adult during all hunts. One adult may supervise up to two youths during small game hunts and migratory bird hunts, but may supervise only one youth during big game hunts. The supervising adult must maintain visual and voice contact with the youth at all times. Adult guardians are responsible for ensuring that youth hunters do not violate refuge rules.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We prohibit hunting or discharge of firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) within 500 feet (152 meters (m)) of any residence adjacent to the refuge or oil and gas infrastructure on the refuge, or within 200 feet (61 m) from the center of any road, railroad, levee, water control structure, designated public use maintained trail, designated parking area, or other designated public use facility.</P>
                        <P>(vii) We allow migratory bird hunters to enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m., and all hunters must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We allow only reflective tacks as trail markers on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(ix) We allow the incidental take of raccoon, feral hog, armadillo, opossum, and coyote with approved shot and weapons allowed during any open season on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(x) We only allow the incidental take of nutria with approved shot and weapons during any open waterfowl (duck, teal, merganser, light and dark goose, and coot) season on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(xi) We prohibit hunters and anglers from utilizing air boats, air thrust boats, mud boats, aircraft, and air-cooled propulsion engines on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of squirrel, rabbit, and quail, and the incidental take of nutria, coyote, raccoon, armadillo, and opossum, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) When hunting, you must possess only shot size 4 or smaller, or 0.22 caliber rim-fire rifles or smaller. We allow the use of air rifles.</P>
                        <P>(ii) When hunting squirrel and rabbit, and for the incidental take of raccoon, we allow the use of dogs only after the close of the State archery deer season. When hunting quail, you may only use dogs to locate, point, and retrieve.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (v), (vi), and (viii) through (xi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(iv) During the dog season for squirrel and rabbit, all hunters, including archers (while on the ground), except waterfowl hunters, must wear a minimum of a cap or hat that is hunter orange, blaze pink, or other such color as governed by State regulations.</P>
                        <P>(v) We only allow hunting of quail until 2 p.m.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer, and the incidental take of feral hog, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We are open only during the State season for archery hunting of deer.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit organized deer drives. We define a “deer drive” as an organized or planned effort to pursue, drive, chase, or otherwise frighten or cause deer to move in the direction of any person(s) who is part of the organized or planned hunt and known to be waiting for the deer.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow placement of temporary deer stands no earlier than 48 hours prior to the start of deer archery season. Hunters must remove all deer stands within 48 hours after the archery deer season closes (see § 27.93 of this chapter). We allow only one deer stand per hunter on the refuge. Deer stands must have the owner's State license/sportsmen's identification number clearly printed on the stand. We prohibit hunting stands on trees painted with white bands.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Deer hunters must display State Wildlife Management Area (WMA) hunter-orange or blaze-pink (as governed by State WMA regulations) while on the ground.</P>
                        <P>(v) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (e)(1)(i), (v), (vi), and (viii) through (xi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We prohibit the use of deer decoys.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow recreational finfishing and shellfishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) You may only fish from legal sunrise until legal sunset, except we allow night fishing from the bank and pier on Lake Road.</P>
                        <P>(ii) You must only use rod and reel or pole and line while finfishing.</P>
                        <P>(iii) You must attend to any fishing, crabbing, and crawfishing equipment at all times.</P>
                        <P>(iv) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (xi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Delta National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of duck, merganser, teal, light and dark goose, dove, snipe, rail, gallinule, and coot on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Each person age 18 and older must possess and carry a valid, signed refuge user brochure while on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) We allow migratory bird hunting on Wednesdays, Thursdays, Saturdays, and Sundays from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise until 2 p.m. during the State seasons, including the regular waterfowl season, the State teal season, State youth waterfowl season, State veterans waterfowl season, and State light goose special conservation season.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iii) We only allow temporary blinds. You must remove both blinds and decoys by 2 p.m. each day (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(iv) When hunting migratory game birds, you may only use dogs to locate, point, and retrieve game.</P>
                        <P>(v) We prohibit discharge of firearms (see § 27.42 of this chapter) within 500 feet (152 meters (m)) of any residence or oil and gas infrastructure, or within 200 feet (61 m) of any road, railroad, levee, water control structure, designated public use trail, designated parking area, or other designated public use facilities.</P>
                        <P>(vi) All youth hunters age 15 and younger must be supervised by an adult during all hunts. One adult may supervise up to two youths during upland game and migratory game bird hunts, but may supervise only one youth during big game hunts. The supervising adult must maintain visual and voice contact with the youth at all times.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Migratory bird hunters may enter the refuge no earlier than 4 a.m., and all hunters must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We allow the incidental take of raccoon, feral hog, armadillo, opossum, and coyote with approved shot and weapons allowed during any open season on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(ix) We only allow the incidental take of nutria with approved shot and weapons during any open waterfowl season on the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(x) We allow only the use of reflective tacks as marking devices.</P>
                        <P>(xi) We close all refuge lands between Raphael Pass and Main Pass to public entry, including hunting and fishing, from November 1 through the end of February; year-round access is only allowed in Main, Raphael, Octave, Women, and Flatboat passes.</P>
                        <P>
                            (xii) We prohibit hunters and anglers from utilizing air boats, air thrust boats, mud boats, aircraft, and air-cooled propulsion engines on the refuge.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88166"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of rabbit, and the incidental take of nutria, coyote, raccoon, armadillo, and opossum, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The refuge rabbit season opens the day after the State duck season closes and continues through the remainder of the State rabbit season.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We restrict hunting to shotgun only.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow the use of dogs when rabbit hunting.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit upland game hunting on days corresponding with refuge deer gun hunts.</P>
                        <P>(v) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (m)(1)(i), (v) through (viii), (xi), and (xii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (m)(1)(i) and (v) through (xii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow archery deer hunting, bucks only, from October 1 through 15. We allow either-sex archery deer hunting from October 16 through 31, and from the day after the close of the State duck season through the end of the State deer archery season.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow placement of temporary deer stands up to 48 hours prior to the start of deer archery season. Hunters must remove all deer stands within 48 hours after the archery deer season closes (see § 27.93 of this chapter). We allow only one deer stand per hunter on the refuge. Deer stands must have the owner's State license/sportsmen's identification number clearly printed on the stand.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit organized deer drives. We define a “deer drive” as an organized or planned effort to pursue, drive, chase, or otherwise frighten or cause deer to move in the direction of any person(s) who is part of the organized or planned hunt and known to be waiting for the deer.</P>
                        <P>(v) We prohibit the use of deer decoys.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow shotgun hunting of deer on the Saturday and Sunday during the first split of the regular waterfowl season.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Deer hunters must display State Wildlife Management Area (WMA) hunter-orange or blaze-pink (as governed by State WMA regulations).</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow recreational finfishing and shellfishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) We only allow sport finfishing and shellfishing from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise until 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour after legal sunset. During the State waterfowl hunting seasons, we only allow sport finfishing and shellfishing from 2 p.m. until 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour after legal sunset.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit the use of trotlines, limblines, slat traps, jug lines, nets, or alligator lines.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (m)(1)(i), (xi), and (xii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 32.41 by revising and republishing paragraph (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.41</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Michigan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Shiawassee National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of waterfowl (duck and goose), American woodcock, American crow, American coot, common gallinule, sora, Virginia rail, and Wilson's snipe on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) You must possess and carry a refuge check-in card (FWS Form 3-2405, Self-Clearing Check-in Permit).</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow waterfowl hunting on Saturdays, Sundays, Tuesdays, and Thursdays during the regular goose season after September 30.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow hunter access to the refuge 2 hours before legal shooting time to 2 hours after legal shooting time.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You may possess no more than 25 shotgun shells while hunting in the field.</P>
                        <P>(v) We allow the use of dogs while hunting, provided the dog is under the immediate control of the hunter at all times.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow the take of feral hogs incidental to other lawful hunting using legal methods of take.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of turkey, small game (eastern fox squirrel, eastern cottontail, and ring-necked pheasant), and furbearers (raccoon, coyote, and red fox) on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (f)(1)(iii) and (vi) of this section apply, except we allow hunter access to the refuge for furbearer hunting from 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise to 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour after legal sunset.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) You may only hunt turkey during the spring season.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow dogs for hunting. Raccoon hunting dogs must wear global positioning system (GPS) or radio collars.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (f)(1)(iii) and (vi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) You must possess and carry a refuge permit (State-issued permit).</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow fishing by boat in navigable waterways but not within any managed refuge units.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow bank fishing from legal sunrise to legal sunset only at designated sites along the Tittabawassee and Cass Rivers.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 32.42 by revising and republishing paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.42</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Minnesota.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Agassiz National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow youth waterfowl hunting on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow the use of dogs while hunting, provided the dog is under the immediate control of the hunter at all times.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Hunters must dismantle hunting blinds, platforms, and ladders made from natural vegetation at the end of each day.</P>
                        <P>(iii) You must remove all boats, decoys, blind materials, stands, platforms, cameras, and other personal property brought onto the refuge at the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(iv) We close the refuge from 7 p.m. to 5:30 a.m.</P>
                        <P>(v) We allow the use of motorless boats for hunting.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We only allow waterfowl hunting during the State's youth waterfowl season.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of ruffed grouse and sharp-tailed grouse on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (v) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We only allow hunting from the opening of the State's deer firearms season to the close of the State's ruffed grouse and sharp-tailed grouse seasons, respectively.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer and moose on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (iv), and (v) of this section apply.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88167"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit shooting on, from, over, across, or within 30 feet (9 meters) of a roadway open to motorized public vehicle transportation at a big game animal or a decoy of a big game animal.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We only allow archery hunting from the start of the State's deer firearms season, and close as governed by the State's archery deer season.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You must remove all boats, decoys, cameras, and other personal property brought onto the refuge at the end of each day (see §§ 27.93 and 27.94 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(v) We allow only portable tree stands; portable, elevated hunting platforms not attached to trees; and portable ground blinds that can be hand-carried into the hunting area.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You may place your tree stand(s), elevated platform(s), and/or ground blind(s) on the refuge only during your designated licensed season. You must remove these stands/blinds by the end of your designated licensed season (see § 27.93 of this chapter). Unoccupied stands/blinds may be used by anyone.</P>
                        <P>(vii) We allow only two stands/blinds per hunter on the refuge. You must clearly label the stands/blinds with your State hunting license number.</P>
                        <P>(viii) We prohibit the use of nails, wire, screws, or bolts to attach a stand to a tree.</P>
                        <P>(ix) We prohibit hunting from a tree into which a metal object has been driven to support a hunter.</P>
                        <P>(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>8. Amend § 32.45 by revising and republishing paragraph (o) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.45 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Montana.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (o) 
                            <E T="03">Lost Trail National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) [Reserved]
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of turkey and mountain grouse on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow use of riding or pack stock on designated access routes through the refuge to access off-refuge lands as identified in the public use leaflet.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit retrieval of game in areas closed to hunting without a refuge retrieval permit.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow portable or temporary blinds and tree stands.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You may only use or possess nontoxic shot shells while in the field (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of elk, white-tailed deer, and mule deer on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (o)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Persons assisting disabled hunters must not be afield with a hunting firearm, bow, or other hunting device.</P>
                        <P>(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 32.46 by revising and republishing paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.46</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Nebraska.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Fort Niobrara National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of coot, crow, dark goose, dove, duck, light goose, rail, snipe, teal, and woodcock on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Hunters and anglers may access the refuge from 2 hours before legal sunrise until 2 hours after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow access from designated areas of the refuge.</P>
                        <P>(iii) You must remove all blinds and decoys at the conclusion of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow the use of dogs when hunting August 1 through April 30.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of badger, bobcat, coyote, fox, long-tailed weasel, mink, opossum, prairie dog, porcupine, rabbit, hare, raccoon, skunk, squirrel, woodchuck, State-defined furbearers, greater prairie chicken, grouse, partridge, pheasant, quail, and turkey on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iv) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow hunting with muzzleloader, archery, shotgun, and falconry.</P>
                        <P>(iii) You may only possess nontoxic shot when hunting turkey (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) Shooting hours for coyote, prairie dog, porcupine, woodchuck, and State-defined furbearers are 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour before legal sunrise to 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hour after legal sunset.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of deer, elk, and pronghorn antelope on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow hunting only with muzzleloader and archery equipment.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow portable tree stands and ground blinds to be used from August 16 through January 31.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow fishing on Minnechaduza Creek and on the Niobrara River, downstream from the Cornell Dam, subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit the use of limb or set lines.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit the take of baitfish, reptiles, and amphibians.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit use or possession of alcoholic beverages while fishing on refuge lands and waters.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 32.53 by revising and republishing paragraphs (q), (w), (oo), and (kkk) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.53 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>North Dakota.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (q) 
                            <E T="03">Des Lacs National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) [Reserved]
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of fox, sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, turkey, and ring-necked pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We open for upland game bird hunting on the day following the close of the regular deer gun season through the end of the State season.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow the use of hunting dogs for retrieval of upland game.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow fox hunting from the day following the regular firearm deer season until March 31.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit accessing refuge lands from refuge waters.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow deer, elk, and moose hunting on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow the use of portable tree stands and ground blinds. We prohibit leaving stands and blinds overnight on the refuge (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective bow, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting seasons.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The condition set forth at paragraph (q)(2)(iv) of this section applies.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You may only possess nontoxic ammunition when hunting elk (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (w) 
                            <E T="03">J. Clark Salyer National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, and coot on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following condition: We allow the use of dogs for hunting and retrieving game birds.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88168"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of ruffed and sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, turkey, ring-necked pheasant, and fox on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We open the refuge to hunting for sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and ring-necked pheasant north of the Willow-Upham road on the day following the close of the regular firearm deer season.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We open the refuge to fox hunting on the day following the close of the regular firearm deer season. Fox hunting on the refuge closes March 31.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Hunters may possess only approved nontoxic shot (see § 32.2(k)) for all upland game hunting, including turkey.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of deer, elk, and moose on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) You must possess and carry a refuge permit to hunt antlered deer on the refuge outside the nine public hunting areas during the regular firearms season.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective bow, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting seasons. You may access refuge roads open to the public before 12 p.m. (noon).</P>
                        <P>(iii) You may only possess nontoxic ammunition when hunting elk (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow boat fishing from May 1 through September 30.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow ice fishing and dark house spearfishing. We allow snowmobiles, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), utility terrain vehicles (UTVs), motor vehicles, and fish houses on the ice as conditions allow.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (oo) 
                            <E T="03">Lostwood National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) [Reserved]
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and ring-necked pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following condition: We allow the use of dogs to retrieve upland game.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow deer, elk, and moose hunting on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective archery, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting season.</P>
                        <P>(ii) You may only possess nontoxic ammunition when hunting elk (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (kkk) 
                            <E T="03">Upper Souris National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) [Reserved]
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of wild turkey, sharp-tailed grouse, Hungarian partridge, and pheasant on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow the use of dogs for hunting and retrieving of upland game birds.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow hunters on the refuge from 5 a.m. until 10 p.m.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow deer, elk, and moose hunting on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow the use of portable tree stands and ground blinds. You must remove stands and blinds from the refuge at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(ii) The condition set forth at paragraph (kkk)(2)(ii) of this section applies.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit entry to the refuge before 12 p.m. (noon) on the first day of the respective bow, gun, or muzzleloader deer hunting seasons.</P>
                        <P>(iv) You may only possess nontoxic ammunition when hunting elk (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We allow the use of fishing boats, canoes, kayaks, and float tubes in designated boat fishing areas from Lake Darling Dam north to State Highway 28 (Greene) crossing for fishing from May 1 through September 30.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow fishing from nonmotorized vessels only on the Beaver Lodge Canoe Trail from May 1 through September 30.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow boating and fishing from vessels on the Souris River from Mouse River Park to the north boundary of the refuge from May 1 through September 30.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow snowmobiles, all-terrain vehicles (ATVs), utility terrain vehicles (UTVs), motor vehicles, and fish houses on the ice as conditions allow from Lake Darling Dam north to Carter Dam (Dam 41) for ice fishing.</P>
                        <P>(v) We allow you to place fish houses overnight on the ice of Lake Darling as governed by State regulations.</P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow anglers to place portable fish houses on the Souris River north of Carter Dam (Dam 41) and south of Lake Darling Dam for ice fishing, but anglers must remove the fish houses from the refuge at the end of each day's fishing activity (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(vii) We allow anglers on the refuge from 5 a.m. until 10 p.m.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>11. Amend § 32.62 by revising and republishing paragraph (p) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.62 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Texas.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (p) 
                            <E T="03">Trinity River National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of duck, merganser, and coot on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow hunting on Champion Lake with a refuge-issued permit (signed hunt brochure).</P>
                        <P>(ii) We only allow hunting on Champion Lake on Saturdays and Sundays during the State duck season. Hunters may not enter the refuge until 4:30 a.m. and must be out of the hunt area by 12 p.m. (noon).</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow the use of dogs when retrieving game.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Hunters age 16 and younger must be under the direct supervision of an adult age 17 or older.</P>
                        <P>(v) We require a minimum distance between hunt parties of 150 yards (135 meters).</P>
                        <P>(vi) We allow motors of 10 horsepower or less on Champion Lake.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting for squirrel, and incidental take of rabbit, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We require hunters to possess a permit issued by Texas Parks and Wildlife Department (TPWD). Permits are issued by a lottery drawing. The hunter must carry the nontransferable permit at all times while hunting.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The condition set forth at paragraph (p)(1)(iii) of this section applies.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow all-terrain vehicle use for hunters with disabilities in designated units.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We require a minimum distance between hunt parties of 200 yards (180 meters).</P>
                        <P>
                            (v) Hunters may enter the refuge no earlier than 4:30 a.m. We allow hunting from 30 minutes before legal sunrise to 30 minutes after legal sunset only during the days specified on the permit. Hunters must be off the refuge 1
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             hours after legal sunset.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) Hunters may place no more than one temporary stand on the refuge. Hunters may place the stand during the scouting week before the hunt begins 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88169"/>
                            and must remove it the day the hunt ends (see § 27.93 of this chapter). Hunters must label blinds with the name of the permit holder.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer, and incidental take of feral hog, on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We require hunters to possess a TPWD-issued permit. Permits are issued by a lottery drawing. The hunter must carry the nontransferable permit at all times while hunting.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (p)(1)(iii) and (p)(2)(iii) through (vi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow archery hunting of white-tailed deer during the refuge designated 23-day archery season.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow gun hunting of white-tailed deer during the State-designated general gun season in two 9-day “mini-seasons” and during the State-designated muzzleloader season.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow fishing with pole and line, rod and reel, or hand-held line.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit the use of trotlines, setlines, bows and arrows, gigs, spears, fish traps, crab/crawfish traps, and/or nets.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit the harvesting of frog or turtle (see § 27.21 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow fishing from legal sunrise to legal sunset.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 32.66 by revising and republishing paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.66</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Washington.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Conboy Lake National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, coot, and snipe on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) We prohibit discharge of any firearm within 
                            <FR>1/4</FR>
                             mile (396 meters) of any maintained building or Federal facility, such as, but not limited to, a structure designed for storage, human occupancy, or shelter for animals.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Hunters must remove all decoys and other equipment at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(2)-(4) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>13. Amend § 32.67 by revising and republishing paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.67</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> West Virginia.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Canaan Valley National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, rail, coot, gallinule, mourning dove, snipe, and woodcock on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We require each hunter to possess and carry a signed refuge hunting brochure (signed brochure).</P>
                        <P>(ii) Hunters may enter the refuge 1 hour before legal sunrise and must exit the refuge, including parking areas, no later than 1 hour after legal sunset.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit overnight parking except by Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) on Forest Road 80.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow the use of dogs consistent with State regulations.</P>
                        <P>(v) We prohibit dog training except during legal hunting seasons.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You may only use or possess approved lead-free shot shells and ammunition while in the Big Cove Unit (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow the hunting of ruffed grouse, squirrel, cottontail rabbit, snowshoe hare, red fox, gray fox, bobcat, woodchuck, coyote, opossum, striped skunk, and raccoon on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (iv), (v), and (vi) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) You may hunt coyote, raccoon, opossum, skunk, and fox at night, but you must obtain a Special Use Permit (FWS Form 3-1383-G) at the refuge headquarters before hunting.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We only allow hunting in the No Rifle Zones with the following equipment: archery (including crossbow), shotgun, or muzzleloader.</P>
                        <P>(iv) We prohibit the hunting of upland game species from March 1 through August 31.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow the hunting of white-tailed deer, black bear, and turkey on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The conditions set forth at paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (iv), (vi), and (a)(2)(iii) of this section apply.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We allow the use of dogs for hunting black bear during the gun season.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit organized deer drives. We define a “deer drive” as an organized or planned effort to pursue, drive, chase, or otherwise frighten or cause deer to move in the direction of any person(s) who is part of the organized or planned hunt and known to be waiting for the deer.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow sport fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following condition: We prohibit the use of lead fishing tackle on designated areas of the refuge.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="32">
                    <AMDPAR>14. Amend § 32.68 by revising and republishing paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 32.68 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Wisconsin.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Horicon National Wildlife Refuge</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Migratory game bird hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of goose, duck, coot, common moorhen, and American woodcock on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following condition: We allow only participants in the Learn to Hunt and other special programs to hunt goose, duck, coot, and common moorhen.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Upland game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of wild turkey, ring-necked pheasant, gray partridge, ruffed grouse, squirrel, cottontail rabbit, snowshoe hare, raccoon, opossum, striped skunk, red fox, gray fox, coyote, and bobcat on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) For hunting, you may use or possess only approved nontoxic shot shells while in the field, including shot shells used for hunting wild turkey (see § 32.2(k)).</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit night hunting of upland game from 30 minutes after legal sunset until 30 minutes before legal sunrise the following day.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We allow the use of dogs while hunting upland game (except raccoon, opossum, striped skunk, red fox, gray fox, coyote, and bobcat), provided the dog is under the immediate control of the hunter at all times.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Coyote, red fox, gray fox, and bobcat hunting begins on the first day of the traditional 9-day gun deer season.</P>
                        <P>(v) Coyote hunting ends on the last day of the season for fox.</P>
                        <P>(vi) You may only hunt striped skunk and opossum during the season for raccoon.</P>
                        <P>(vii) You may only hunt snowshoe hare during the season for cottontail rabbit.</P>
                        <P>(viii) Hunters may enter the refuge no earlier than 2 hours before legal shooting hours and must exit the refuge no later than 2 hours after legal shooting hours.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Big game hunting.</E>
                             We allow hunting of white-tailed deer and black bear in designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) You must remove all boats, decoys, game cameras, blinds, blind materials, stands, platforms, and other personal equipment brought onto the refuge at the end of each day's hunt (see § 27.93 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88170"/>
                            of this chapter). We prohibit hunting from any stand left up overnight.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit hunting bear with dogs.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Hunters must possess a refuge permit (FWS Form 3-2439, Hunt Application/Permit—National Wildlife Refuge System) to hunt in Area E (surrounding the office/visitor center).</P>
                        <P>(iv) The condition set forth at paragraph (d)(2)(viii) applies.</P>
                        <P>(v) Any ground blind used during any gun deer season must display at least 144 square inches (929 square centimeters) of solid-blaze-orange or fluorescent pink material visible from all directions.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Sport fishing.</E>
                             We allow fishing on designated areas of the refuge subject to the following conditions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) We only allow bank fishing or fishing through the ice.</P>
                        <P>(ii) We prohibit the use of fishing weights or lures containing lead.</P>
                        <P>(iii) We prohibit the taking of any mussel (clam), crayfish, frog, leech, or turtle species by any method on the refuge (see § 27.21 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(iv) We allow fishing in designated areas from legal sunrise to legal sunset each day.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shannon A. Estenoz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Fish and Wildlife and Parks.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25905 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 665</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 241101-0287]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-BN03</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Pacific Island Fisheries; Amendment 7 to the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for the American Samoa Archipelago and Final Rule; Discontinue Rebuilding Plan for American Samoa Bottomfish and Implement Annual Catch Limits and Accountability Measures for Fishing Years 2024-2026</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule amends the Fishery Ecosystem Plan for the American Samoa Archipelago (FEP) to discontinue the rebuilding plan for American Samoa bottomfish and implements single-species annual catch limits (ACL) and accountability measures (AM) for bottomfish in the American Samoa archipelago for fishing years 2024, 2025 and 2026. The action is necessary because new best scientific information indicates the fishery is not overfished or experiencing overfishing, and new ACLs and AMs are warranted. This final rule supports the long-term sustainability of the fishery.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective December 9, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Background information on the bottomfish fishery in American Samoa is found in the FEP available from the Western Pacific Regional Fishery Management Council, 1164 Bishop St., Suite 1400, Honolulu, HI 96813, telephone 808-522-8220, fax 808-522-8226, or 
                        <E T="03">https://www.wpcouncil.org.</E>
                         Copies of supporting documents for this action are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NOAA-NMFS-2024-0088,</E>
                         or from Sarah Malloy, Regional Administrator, NMFS Pacific Islands Regional Office (PIRO), 1845 Wasp Blvd., Bldg. 176, Honolulu, HI 96818.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Keith Kamikawa, NMFS Pacific Islands Regional Office, Sustainable Fisheries, 808-725-5177.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    NMFS and the Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) manage the bottomfish fishery in the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Federal waters, generally 3-200 nautical miles (nmi) (6-345 kilometers (km)) around American Samoa under the FEP for the American Samoa Archipelago, as authorized by the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). The 2019 stock assessment for the American Samoa bottomfish fishery indicated that the stock was overfished and experiencing overfishing. The fishery has therefore been managed under a rebuilding plan since 2022 (87 FR 25590, May 5, 2022). However, in September 2023 NMFS determined that none of the stocks in the fishery are overfished and were not overfished in the year in which the 2019 overfished determination was made or in any year since. Accordingly, NMFS is discontinuing the rebuilding plan, and implementing new ACLs and AMs to prevent overfishing and provide sustainable management for the fishery consistent with the FEP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act and implementing regulations.
                </P>
                <P>NMFS is implementing the following single-species ACLs for each of the bottomfish management unit species (BMUS) assessed by the 2023 benchmark stock assessment for fishing years 2024, 2025 and 2026. The fishing year for American Samoa bottomfish begins on January 1 and ends on December 31.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—ACLs for American Samoa BMUS for Fishing Years 2024, 2025, and 2026</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Samoan name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            ACL
                            <LI>(lb/kg)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Aphareus rutilans</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Palu-gutusiliva</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,554/3,880</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Aprion virescens</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Asoama</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,872/2,210</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Caranx lugubris</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Tafauli</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,086/1,400</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Etelis coruscans</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Palu-loa</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,872/2,210</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Lethrinus rubrioperculatus</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Filoa-paomumu</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,554/3,880</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Lutjanus kasmira</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Savane</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,645/7,550</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Pristipomoides flavipinnis</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Palu-sina</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,579/1,170</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Pristipomoides zonatus</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Palu-ula</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,521/690</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Variola louti</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Velo</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,205/1,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="88171"/>
                <P>
                    All ACLs are below the overfishing limits (equal to 50 percent risk of overfishing), and below the allowable biological catches established by the Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee, consistent with National Standard 1 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Further, NMFS is establishing indicator species for 
                    <E T="03">E. carbunculus</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">P. filamentosus,</E>
                     which were not assessed in the 2023 stock assessment due to data limitations. 
                    <E T="03">E. coruscans</E>
                     is the indicator species for 
                    <E T="03">E. carbunculus</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">P. flavipinnis</E>
                     is the indicator species for 
                    <E T="03">P. filamentosus.</E>
                     This rule does not establish separate ACLs for 
                    <E T="03">E. carbunculus</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">P. filamentosus.</E>
                     Instead, they are be subject to the post-season AM based on catch of the indicator species, as defined at 50 CFR 600.310(d)(2)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>As an AM for all assessed species, if the average catch from the most recent 3-year period exceeds the ACL for any species, NMFS will reduce the ACL for that species in the subsequent year by the amount of overage. Although the ACLs apply to Federal waters, both catch from territorial and Federal waters will be counted towards the ACLs. American Samoa does not currently implement catch limits in territorial waters. As an additional performance measure specified in the FEP, if catches exceed an ACL more than once in a 4-year period, the Council must re-evaluate the ACL process, and adjust the system, as necessary, to improve its performance and effectiveness for that species.</P>
                <P>This rule is consistent with recommendations made by the Council at its 197th meeting in December 2023. Additional background information on this action is in the preamble to the proposed rule (89 FR 67402, August 20, 2024).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Responses</HD>
                <P>On August 2, 2024, NMFS published a notice of availability for the draft amendment and request for public comments (89 FR 63155). The comment period ended on October 1, 2024. On August 20, 2024, NMFS published the associated proposed rule and request for public comments (89 FR 67402), and NMFS did not receive any comments on the Amendment. The comment period for the proposed rule ended on October 4, 2024. NMFS received one comment on the proposed rule that was generally in support of the action. NMFS made no changes to the final rule based on the public comment received.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 1:</E>
                     There appears to be very few negative biophysical impacts created by this proposal. Implementing single species ACLs will prevent overfishing of individual BMUS species and allow the use of an AM to diminish the effects of harvest for individual species. Consistent year-to-year harvest will reduce economic stress in relation to socioeconomic standings, and a more sustainable approach to fishing will be introduced, ultimately increasing profit. There is no evidence of the proposed action conflicting with Federal rules or putting smaller commercial entities at a disadvantage compared to larger entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     NMFS agrees, and we will continue to manage the fishery in Federal waters to perpetuate sustainable fisheries resources for communities in American Samoa, consistent with the Magnuson-Steven Act, the FEP and implementing regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes From the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>This final rule contains one minor technical change from the proposed rule for consistency in the regulatory text, to clarify that the post-season overage adjustment would apply if the ACL is exceeded rather than if it is reached.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this rule is consistent with the FEP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.</P>
                <P>The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration during the proposed rule stage that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for the certification was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. NMFS received one comment on the proposed rule that was generally in support of the action; no comments were received regarding this certification. As a result, a final regulatory flexibility analysis was not required and none was prepared.</P>
                <P>This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <P>This final rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 665</HD>
                    <P>Accountability measures, American Samoa, annual catch limits, bottomfish management unit species, Fisheries, Fishing, Pacific Islands, Western Pacific.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs,  National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS amends 50 CFR part 665 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 665—FISHERIES IN THE WESTERN PACIFIC</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="665">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 50 CFR part 665 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             16 U.S.C. 1801 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="665">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 665.103 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 665.103 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibitions. </SUBJECT>
                        <P>In addition to the general prohibitions specified in § 600.725 of this chapter and § 665.15, it is unlawful for any person to fish for American Samoa bottomfish MUS or ECS using gear prohibited under § 665.104.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                  
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="665">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 665.106 to read as follows: </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 665.106</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> American Samoa annual catch limits (ACL). </SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Annual catch limits (ACL).</E>
                             In accordance with § 665.4, the ACLs for American Samoa bottomfish MUS during fishing years 2024, 2025 and 2026 are as follows:
                        </P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,15">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">a</E>
                                )
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Samoan name</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    ACL
                                    <LI>(lb)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Aphareus rutilans</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Palu-gutusiliva</ENT>
                                <ENT>8,554</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Aprion virescens</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Asoama</ENT>
                                <ENT>4,872</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Caranx lugubris</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Tafauli</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,086</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Etelis coruscans</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Palu-loa</ENT>
                                <ENT>4,872</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Lethrinus rubrioperculatus</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Filoa-paomumu</ENT>
                                <ENT>8,554</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Lutjanus kasmira</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Savane</ENT>
                                <ENT>16,645</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Pristipomoides flavipinnis</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Palu-sina</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,579</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="88172"/>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Pristipomoides zonatus</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Palu-ula</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,521</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    <E T="03">Variola louti</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Velo</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,205</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Post-season accountability measure (AM).</E>
                             If the average catch of any species in the most recent three years exceeds its specified ACL, the Regional Administrator will make an overage adjustment in a separate rulemaking to reduce the ACL for that species for the subsequent year by the amount of the overage. All ACLs for species for which the three most recent years of catch did not exceed the ACL will remain unchanged. 
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Indicator species. E. coruscans</E>
                             will serve as an indicator species for 
                            <E T="03">E. carbunculus</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">P. flavipinnis</E>
                             will serve as an indicator species for 
                            <E T="03">P. filamentosus.</E>
                             There are no separate ACLs and AMs for 
                            <E T="03">E. carbunculus</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">P. filamentosus. E. carbunculus</E>
                             will be subject to the post-season AM if 
                            <E T="03">E. coruscans</E>
                             exceeds the ACL. 
                            <E T="03">P. filamentosus</E>
                             will be subject to the post-season AM if 
                            <E T="03">P. flavipinnis</E>
                             reaches exceeds the ACL.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25829 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88173"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2142; Project Identifier AD-2024-00033-A]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Piper Aircraft, Inc. Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); extension of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document announces an extension of the comment period for the referenced NPRM, which proposed to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2020-26-16, which applies to certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. (Piper) Model PA-28-151, PA-28-161, PA-28-181, PA-28-235, PA-28R-180, PA-28R-200, PA-28R-201, PA-28R-201T, PA-28RT-201, PA-28RT-201T, PA-32-260, PA-32-300, PA-32R-300, PA-32RT-300, and PA-32RT-300T airplanes. This NPRM invited comments concerning the proposed requirements for calculating the calculated service hours (CSH) to determine the times for required actions for each main wing spar; repetitively inspecting the lower main wing spar bolt holes for crack(s) and non-crack damage and taking corrective actions as needed; and replacing or modifying main wing spars at a specified time. This NPRM also invited comments concerning the proposal to revise the applicability by removing certain airplanes and adding a new airplane model. This extension of the comment period is necessary to provide all interested persons an opportunity to present their views on the proposed requirements of this NPRM.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The comment period for the NPRM published on September 23, 2024, at 89 FR 77457, and scheduled to close on November 7, 2024, is extended until December 9, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2142; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Fred Caplan, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: (404) 474-5507; email: 
                        <E T="03">9-ASO-ATLACO-ADS@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-2142; Project Identifier AD-2024-00033-A” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may revise this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Fred Caplan, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued an NPRM to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would supersede AD 2020-26-16, Amendment 39-21371 (86 FR 3769, January 15, 2021) (AD 2020-26-16), for certain Piper Model PA-28-151, PA-28-161, PA-28-181, PA-28-235, PA-28R-180, PA-28R-200, PA-28R-201, PA-28R-201T, PA-28RT-201, PA-28RT-201T, PA-32-260, PA-32-300, PA-32R-300, PA-32RT-300, and PA-32RT-300T airplanes. AD 2020-26-16 requires calculating the factored service hours (FSH) for each main wing spar to determine when an inspection is required, inspecting the lower main wing spar bolt holes for crack(s), and replacing any cracked main wing spar. Since the FAA issued AD 2020-26-16, the FAA evaluated the reports required by AD 2020-26-16 and determined that repetitive inspections of the lower main wing spar bolt holes for crack(s) and non-crack damage (including deep scratches, gouges, and thread marks) and replacement or modification of the main wing spar should be required, CSH should be used instead of FSH to determine times for required actions for each main wing spar, and that certain airplanes should be removed from the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88174"/>
                    applicability and a new airplane model added to the applicability.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 23, 2024 (89 FR 77457). In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require calculating the CSH for each main wing spar; repetitively inspecting the lower main wing spar bolt holes for crack(s) and non-crack damage and taking corrective actions as needed; replacing or modifying main wing spars at a specified time; and reporting inspection results to Piper and the FAA if any cracks are found during any inspection. In the NPRM, the FAA also proposed to revise the applicability by removing certain airplanes and adding a new airplane model. The FAA is proposing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracks in the lower main wing spar cap bolt holes. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in a wing separating from the fuselage in flight.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since the NPRM Was Issued</HD>
                <P>Since issuance of the NPRM, the FAA received a request from Piper to extend the comment period. The commenter stated that the NPRM is complex and could drive substantial costs, among other things. In addition, the commenter stated that two significant hurricanes have prevented operators from performing a dedicated review of the NPRM. To be able to prepare informed and meaningful comments Piper requested an extension of 30 days to the comment period.</P>
                <P>The FAA has determined that it is appropriate to extend the comment period for the NPRM to give all interested persons additional time to examine the proposed requirements and submit comments. The FAA has determined that extending the comment period an additional 30 days will not compromise the safety of the affected airplanes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Extension of Comment Period</HD>
                <P>The FAA has reviewed the request for extension of the comment period for this notice. The commenter has shown a substantive interest in the proposed policy and good cause for the extension of the comment period. Therefore, in accordance with 14 CFR 11.47(c), the FAA has determined that an extension of the comment period for an additional 30 days to December 9, 2024, is consistent with the public interest, and that good cause exists for taking this action.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, the comment period for Docket No. FAA-2024-2142 is extended until December 9, 2024.</P>
                <P>Because no other portion of the proposal or other regulatory information has been changed, the entire proposal is not being republished.</P>
                <P>Issued under authority provided by 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, and 44701.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25883 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2421; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00221-T]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus SAS Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and F4-600R series airplanes; and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes). This proposed AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. This proposed AD would require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is proposed for incorporation by reference (IBR). The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2421; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For EASA material identified in this proposed AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2421.
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dan Rodina, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3225; email 
                        <E T="03">Dan.Rodina@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-2421; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00221-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88175"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Dan Rodina, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3225; email 
                    <E T="03">Dan.Rodina@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2024-0083, dated April 9, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0083) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus SAS Model A300-600 series airplanes; and Model A300 C4-620 airplanes. Model A300 C4-620 airplanes are not certificated by the FAA and are not included on the U.S. type certificate data sheet; this proposed AD therefore does not include those airplanes in the applicability. The MCAI states that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations have been developed.</P>
                <P>EASA AD 2024-0083 specifies that it requires a task (limitation) already in Airbus A300-600 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS) Part 2 Revision 4 that is required by EASA AD 2024-0009 (which corresponds to FAA AD 2024-16-02, Amendment 39-22808 (89 FR 75464, September 16, 2024) (AD 2024-16-02)), and that incorporation of EASA AD 2024-0083 invalidates (terminates) prior instructions for that task. This proposed AD therefore would terminate the limitations required by paragraph (dd) of AD 2024-16-02 for the tasks identified in the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0083 only.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is proposing this AD to address fatigue cracking, damage, and corrosion in principal structural elements. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-2421.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2024-0083, which specifies new airworthiness limitations for airplane structures and safe life limits. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations, which are specified in EASA AD 2024-0083 described previously, as incorporated by reference. Any differences with EASA AD 2024-0083 are identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD.</P>
                <P>
                    This proposed AD would require revisions to certain operator maintenance documents to include new actions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     inspections). Compliance with these actions is required by 14 CFR 91.403(c). For airplanes that have been previously modified, altered, or repaired in the areas addressed by this proposed AD, the operator may not be able to accomplish the actions described in the revisions. In this situation, to comply with 14 CFR 91.403(c), the operator must request approval for an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) according to paragraph (k)(1) of this proposed AD.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate EASA AD 2024-0083 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2024-0083 through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2024-0083 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2024-0083. Material required by EASA AD 2024-0083 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     by searching for and locating Docket No. FAA-2024-2421 after the FAA final rule is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Airworthiness Limitation ADs Using the New Process</HD>
                <P>The FAA's process of incorporating by reference MCAI ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with corresponding FAA ADs has been limited to certain MCAI ADs (primarily those with service bulletins as the primary source of information for accomplishing the actions required by the FAA AD). However, the FAA is now expanding the process to include MCAI ADs that require a change to airworthiness limitation documents, such as airworthiness limitation sections.</P>
                <P>For these ADs that incorporate by reference an MCAI AD that changes airworthiness limitations, the FAA requirements are unchanged. Operators must revise the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the information specified in the new airworthiness limitation document. The airworthiness limitations must be followed according to 14 CFR 91.403(c) and 91.409(e).</P>
                <P>
                    The previous format of the airworthiness limitation ADs included a paragraph that specified that no alternative actions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     inspections) or intervals may be used unless the actions and intervals are approved as an AMOC in accordance with the procedures specified in the AMOC paragraph under “Additional AD Provisions.” This new format includes a “Provisions for Alternative Actions and Intervals” paragraph that does not specifically refer to AMOCs, but operators may still 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88176"/>
                    request an AMOC to use an alternative action or interval.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 128 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:</P>
                <P>The FAA has determined that revising the existing maintenance or inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator, although the agency recognizes that this number may vary from operator to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane estimate. Therefore, the agency estimates the average total cost per operator to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus SAS:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2024-2421; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00221-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by December 23, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD affects AD 2024-16-02, Amendment 39-22808 (89 FR 75464, September 16, 2024) (AD 2024-16-02).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to the Airbus SAS airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this AD, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0083, dated April 9, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0083).</P>
                    <P>(1) Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes.</P>
                    <P>(2) Model A300 B4-605R and B4-622R airplanes.</P>
                    <P>(3) Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes.</P>
                    <P>(4) Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/Maintenance Checks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address fatigue cracking, damage, and corrosion in principal structural elements. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2024-0083.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2024-0083</HD>
                    <P>(1) This AD does not adopt the requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2024-0083.</P>
                    <P>(2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0083 specifies revising “the approved AMP,” within 12 months after its effective date, but this AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0083 is at the applicable “associated thresholds” as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0083, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.</P>
                    <P>(4) This AD does not adopt the provisions specified in paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2024-0083.</P>
                    <P>(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0083.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Provisions for Alternative Actions and Intervals</HD>
                    <P>
                        After the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         inspections) and intervals are allowed unless they are approved as specified in the provisions of the “Ref. Publications” section of EASA AD 2024-0083.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Terminating Action for Certain Tasks Required by AD 2024-16-02</HD>
                    <P>Accomplishing the actions required by this AD terminates the corresponding requirements of AD 2024-16-02 for the tasks identified in the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0083 only.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                         The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD and email to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                         Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                         For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88177"/>
                        EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Dan Rodina, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3225; email 
                        <E T="03">Dan.Rodina@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0083, dated April 9, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Peter A. White,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25783 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-1979; Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-20]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Class E Airspace; Kinston, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface for Kinston, NC, by adding airspace for Lenoir Regional Hospital Heliport, Kinston, NC. This action would also update the coordinates for Kinston Regional Jetport at Stallings Field, Kinston, NC. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2024-1979 and Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-20 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J Airspace Designations and Reporting Points and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Marc Ellerbee, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; Telephone: (404) 305-5589.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would amend Class E airspace in Kinston, NC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edits, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88178"/>
                    person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during regular business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, Room 210, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA proposes an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 to amend Class E airspace by adding airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of the Lenoir Memorial Hospital Heliport, Kinston, NC. This action also proposes to correct the coordinates for Kinston Regional Jetport at Stallings Field, Kinston, NC. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in the area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any final regulatory action by the FAA.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASO NC E5 Kinston, NC [Amended]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Kinston Regional Jetport at Stallings Field, NC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 35°19′53″ N, Long. 77°36′32″ W)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Kinston VORTAC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 35°22′15″ N, Long. 77°33′30″ W)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Lenoir Memorial Hospital Heliport, NC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 35°17′24″ N, Long. 77°35′04″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.7-mile radius of Kinston Regional Jetport at Stallings Field, within 2.5 miles on each side of the Kinston VORTAC 047° radial, extending from the 6.7-mile radius to 7 miles northeast of the VORTAC, and within a 6-mile radius of Lenoir Memorial Hospital Heliport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in College Park, Georgia, on November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Patrick Young,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Airspace &amp; Procedures Team North, Eastern Service Center, Air Traffic Organization.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25775 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2444; Airspace Docket No. 24-ASW-7]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Establishment of Area Navigation (RNAV) Routes Q-162 and Q-166; Southwest United States.</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish Area Navigation (RNAV) routes Q-162 and Q-166 in the Southwest United States. The proposed new RNAV routes would provide alternative routing for air traffic travelling between southwest Arizona and western Texas in response to severe weather events during the spring and summer months. Additionally, the new RNAV routes would expand the availability of RNAV routing in support of transitioning the National Airspace System (NAS) from a ground-based to satellite-based system for navigation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2024-2444 and Airspace Docket No. 24-ASW-7 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88179"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Policy Directorate, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Colby Abbott, Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify the National Airspace System (NAS) as necessary to preserve the safe and efficient flow of air traffic.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    United States Area Navigation Routes are published in paragraph 2006 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates would be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. That order is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <P>FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>During the spring and summer months each year, the FAA experiences severe dry-line thunderstorm weather activity across central Arizona and New Mexico, and western Texas that impact air traffic operations transiting that area. When the severe weather activity events occur, the Albuquerque Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) issues radar vectors to affected aircraft to minimize the operational impact to the operators and to the NAS as a whole.</P>
                <P>To further mitigate severe weather-related impacts for aircraft operations flying through the southwest United States during the spring and summer months, the FAA is proposing to establish two new RNAV routes, Q-162 and Q-166, within Albuquerque ARTCC airspace. The proposed Q-162 route would transition west to east across the northern portion of Albuquerque ARTCC's airspace and the proposed Q-166 route would transition west to east across the southern portion of Albuquerque ARTCC's airspace. Instrument flight rules pilots with RNAV-equipped aircraft would be able to navigate north or south of the severe weather events and affected areas without further contributing to air traffic control (ATC) workload associated with sequencing and separating affected aircraft via radar vectors around the severe weather events and affected areas.</P>
                <P>Having experienced a 24 percent increase of enroute air traffic through Albuquerque ARTCC's airspace in the last 10 years, the proposed routes would support the increased enroute operations and establish much-needed published holding information that would increase safety for both pilots and controllers by reducing phraseology/frequency congestion and depicting predictable holding locations during days that require restraints as a result of system overload due to a high volume of traffic. Moreover, the proposed Q-routes would add structure for overflight air traffic in concert with new Phoenix Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) and Tucson TRACON procedures when the traditional route structure is inadequate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish RNAV routes Q-162 and Q-166 in the southwest United States. The proposed new RNAV Q-routes are described below.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Q-162:</E>
                     Q-162 is a proposed new route that would extend between the HAHAA, AZ, Waypoint (WP), located approximately 20 nautical miles (NM) northwest of the Flagstaff, AZ, Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME) and the AGGIY, TX, WP, located approximately 36 NM northeast of the Panhandle, TX, VOR/Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC). This Q-route would provide a routing alternative along the northern portion of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88180"/>
                    Albuquerque ARTCC airspace between the Flagstaff, AZ, area and the Borger, TX, area when severe weather events impact the high altitude enroute structure through central Arizona and New Mexico, and western Texas.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Q-166:</E>
                     Q-166 is a proposed new route that would extend between the MOHAK, AZ, Fix, located approximately 32 NM east of the Bard, CA, VORTAC and the MRTHN, TX, WP, located approximately 55 NM southeast of the Fort Stockton, TX, VORTAC. This Q-route would also provide a routing alternative along the southern portion of Albuquerque ARTCC airspace between the Wellton, AZ, area and the Longfellow, TX, area when severe weather events impact the high altitude enroute structure through central Arizona and New Mexico, and western Texas.
                </P>
                <P>This proposal to establish RNAV routes Q-162 and Q-166 would reduce air traffic control (ATC) sector workload and complexity, reduce pilot-to-controller communication requirements, and increase NAS safety and capacity in areas effected by severe weather events in the southwest United States. These new RNAV Q-routes would also assist ATC when non-radar procedures are required and provide additional RNAV enroute structure supporting the FAA's NextGen efforts to make flying safer, more efficient, and more predictable within the NAS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 2006 United States Area Navigation Routes.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="xls80,xls50,xls190">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="04">Q-162 HAHAA, AZ to AGGIY, TX [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">HAHAA, AZ</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°27′21.83″ N, long. 111°51′43.96″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gallup, NM (GUP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°28′33.60″ N, long. 108°52′21.41″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DRICC, NM</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°41′21.20″ N, long. 105°22′08.78″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MIRME, NM</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°47′00.72″ N, long. 103°50′31.88″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">AGGIY, TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°48′20.71″ N, long. 101°28′38.83″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <STARS/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="xls80,xls50,xls190">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="04">Q-166 MOHAK, AZ to MRTHN, TX [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">MOHAK, AZ</ENT>
                            <ENT>FIX</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 32°46′33.04″ N, long. 113°58′19.55″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gila Bend, AZ (GBN)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 32°57′22.53″ N, long. 112°40′27.38″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Stanfield, AZ (TFD)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 32°53′09.08″ N, long. 111°54′31.44″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OLIIN, AZ</ENT>
                            <ENT>FIX</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 32°03′45.69″ N, long. 110°11′23.06″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GRNNT, NM</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 31°53′00.00″ N, long. 108°07′00.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SWIMS, TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 31°50′35.65″ N, long. 106°35′10.22″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">El Paso, TX (ELP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 31°48′57.28″ N, long. 106°16′54.78″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FNLAY, TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 31°10′24.00″ N, long. 105°20′29.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TRQSE, TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 31°01′00.41″ N, long. 105°05′22.81″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Marfa, TX (MRF)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VOR/DME</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 30°17′54.14″ N, long. 103°57′17.12″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MRTHN, TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 30°04′59.00″ N, long. 102°38′47.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Eric Konie,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager (A), Rules and Regulations Group.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25706 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88181"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-1983; Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-24]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Class E Airspace; Edenton, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface by adding airspace for ECU Health Chowan Hospital Heliport, Edenton, NC. Additionally, this would correct the Northeastern Regional Airport name along with correcting coordinates for Northeastern Regional Airport.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2024-1983 and Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-24 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J Airspace Designations and Reporting Points and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Robert Scott Stuart, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; Telephone: (404) 305-5926.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would amend Class E airspace in Edenton, NC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edits, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during regular business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, Room 210, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA proposes an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 to amend Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface by adding airspace within a 6-mile radius of the ECU Health Chowan Hospital Heliport, Edenton, NC. Additionally, it would correct the Northeastern Regional Airport name and coordinates for Northeastern Regional Airport (formerly Edenton Municipal Airport). Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in the area.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88182"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any final regulatory action by the FAA.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows: </AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASO NC E5 Edenton, NC [Amended]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Northeastern Regional Airport, NC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 36°01′43″ N, long. 76°34′11″ W)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">ECU Health Chowan Hospital Heliport, NC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 36°04′09″ N, long. 76°36′41″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Northeastern Regional Airport and within a 6-mile radius of ECU Health Chowan Hospital Heliport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in College Park, Georgia, on November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Patrick Young,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Airspace &amp; Procedures Team North, Eastern Service Center, Air Traffic Organization.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25797 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2333; Airspace Docket No. 24-AAL-111]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Modification of Class E Airspace; Alaska, AK</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to modify Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within a designated landmass and within 12 miles from a designated coastline associated with the state of Alaska. Additionally, this action proposes administrative amendments to update the airspace's existing Class E airspace legal description. These actions will support lower altitude instrument flight rules (IFR) operations and enhance safety for aircraft utilizing IFR and visual flight rules (VFR) operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2024-2333 and Airspace Docket No. 24-AAL-111 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Keith T. Adams, Federal Aviation Administration, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone (206) 231-2428.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify Class E airspace to support IFR and VFR operations in the state of Alaska.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88183"/>
                    supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the Northwest Mountain Regional Office of the Federal Aviation Administration, Air Traffic Organization, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S. 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E6 airspace designations are published in paragraph 6006, of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates would be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. That order is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <P>FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Alaska has 103 different Class E 1,200 feet airspace areas that are primarily used for low level IFR en route operations. Alaska currently has a Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface, which is designated as the northeast en route domestic airspace. The Alaska en route domestic airspace is inadequately sized. This modification to the northeast en route domestic airspace will expand the coverage of controlled airspace, eliminating Class G airspace extending upward from 1,200 ft above the surface.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 that would modify Class E airspace beginning at 1,200 feet above the surface over the mainland of Alaska to provide continuous controlled airspace from 1,200 feet above the surface until reaching the base of adjacent controlled airspace. The proposed airspace would cover most of Alaska's mainland and would provide adequate coverage of controlled airspace for aircraft conducting IFR operations.</P>
                <P>In addition, the FAA proposes an administrative modification that updates the airspace name.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures, prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                        <E T="03">Paragraph 6006 En Route Domestic Airspace Areas.</E>
                    </HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">AAL AK E6 Alaska-Yukon, AK [Amend]</HD>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within the area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 69°52′17″ N, long. 141°00′00″ W; to lat. 60°33′27″ N, long. 141°00′08″ W; to lat. 59°49′14″ N, long. 142°03′04″ W; thence west and north 12 miles from, and parallel to, the coastline, to lat. 57°30′27″ N, long. 155°24′35″ W; to lat. 57°50′00″ N, long. 158°00′00″ W; thence north and east 12 miles from, and parallel to, the coastline, to the point of beginning; excluding that portion within restricted areas R-2201A, R-2201B, R-2202A, R-2202B, R-2203A, R-2203B, R-2203C, R-2204 Low, R-2205A, R-2205B, R-2205C, R-2205D, R2205E, R-2206A, R-2206B, R-2206D, and R-2211 when active.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <STARS/>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Des Moines, Washington, on October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>B.G. Chew,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Group Manager, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25855 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88184"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-1982; Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-23]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of Class E Airspace; Windsor, NC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface for ECU Health Bertie Hospital Heliport, Windsor, NC. This action would accommodate a new instrument approach procedure for ECU Health Bertie Hospital Heliport, Windsor, NC.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 23, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2024-1982 and Airspace Docket No. 24-ASO-23 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except for Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J Airspace Designations and Reporting Points and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Office of Policy, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Robert Scott Stuart, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; Telephone: (404) 305-5926.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would establish Class E airspace in Windsor, NC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edits, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during regular business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, Room 210, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA proposes an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of ECU Health Bertie Hospital Heliport, Windsor, NC. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in the area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88185"/>
                    therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any final regulatory action by the FAA.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">ASO NC E5 Windsor, NC [New]</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">ECU Health Bertie Hospital Heliport, NC</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(Lat. 35°59′19″ N, long. 76°55′45″ W)</FP>
                    <P>That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of ECU Health Bertie Hospital Heliport.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in College Park, Georgia, on November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Patrick Young,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Airspace &amp; Procedures Team North, Eastern Service Center, Air Traffic Organization.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25863 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>34 CFR Chapter III</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID ED-2024-OSERS-0114]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Technical Assistance on State Data Collection—IDEA Data Management Center</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services, Department of Education.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed priority.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Education (Department) proposes a priority for an IDEA Data Management Center, under the Technical Assistance on State Data Collection program. The Department may use this priority for competitions in fiscal year (FY) 2025 and later years. We take this action to focus attention on an identified national need to provide technical assistance (TA) to improve the capacity of States to meet the data collection requirements under Part B and Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). The IDEA Data Management Center (Data Management Center) will assist States in collecting, reporting, and determining how to best analyze and use their Part B and Part C data to establish and meet high expectations for each child with a disability by enhancing, streamlining, and integrating IDEA Part B data into their State longitudinal data systems (SLDS), and IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B preschool special education data into their early childhood integrated data system (ECIDS). A brief summary of the proposed rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov/docket/ED-2024-OSERS-0114.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We must receive your comments on or before January 21, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         However, if you require an accommodation or cannot otherwise submit your comments via 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         please contact the program contact person listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        . The Department will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email, or comments submitted after the comment period closes. To ensure the Department does not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         to submit your comments electronically. Information on using 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , including instructions for accessing agency documents, submitting comments, and viewing the docket, is available on the site under “FAQ.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The Department's policy is generally to make comments received from members of the public available for public viewing in their entirety on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Therefore, commenters should be careful to include in their comments only information that they wish to make publicly available.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Amy Bae, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, Room 4A10, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 987-1557. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Amy.Bae@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability and wish to access telecommunications relay services, please dial 7-1-1.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Invitation to Comment:</E>
                     We invite you to submit comments regarding the proposed priority. To ensure that your comments have maximum effect in developing the final priority, we urge you to identify clearly the specific section of the proposed priority that each comment addresses.
                </P>
                <P>We invite you to assist us in complying with the specific requirements of Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 and their overall requirement of reducing regulatory burden that might result from the proposed priority. Please let us know of any further ways we could reduce potential costs or increase potential benefits while preserving the effective and efficient administration of the program.</P>
                <P>
                    During and after the comment period, you may inspect public comments about the proposed priority by accessing 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                    . To inspect comments in person, please contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Assistance to Individuals With Disabilities in Reviewing the Rulemaking Record:</E>
                     On request, we will provide an appropriate accommodation or auxiliary aid to an individual with a disability who needs assistance to review the comments or other 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88186"/>
                    documents in the public rulemaking record for the proposed priority. If you want to schedule an appointment for this type of accommodation or auxiliary aid, please contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of Program:</E>
                     The purpose of the Technical Assistance on State Data Collection program is to improve the capacity of States to meet IDEA data collection and reporting requirements. Funding for the program is authorized under section 611(c)(1) of IDEA, which gives the Secretary the authority to reserve not more than one-half of one percent of the amounts appropriated under Part B for each fiscal year to provide TA activities authorized under section 616(i), where needed, to improve the capacity of States to meet the data collection and reporting requirements under Parts B and C of IDEA. The maximum amount the Secretary may reserve under this set-aside for any fiscal year is $25,000,000, cumulatively adjusted by the rate of inflation. Section 616(i) of IDEA requires the Secretary to review the data collection and analysis capacity of States to ensure that data and information determined necessary for implementation of sections 616 and 642 of IDEA are collected, analyzed, and accurately reported to the Secretary. It also requires the Secretary to provide TA, where needed, to improve the capacity of States to meet the data collection requirements, which include the data collection and reporting requirements in sections 616 and 618 of IDEA. In addition, the Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2024, Public Law 118-47, gives the Secretary authority to use funds reserved under section 611(c) of IDEA to “administer and carry out other services and activities to improve data collection, coordination, quality, and use under Parts B and C of the IDEA.” Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2024, Public Law 118-47, Division D, Title III, 138 Stat. 460, 685 (2024).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Assistance Listing Number:</E>
                     84.373M.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Program Authority:</E>
                     20 U.S.C. 1411(c), 1416(i), 1418(c), 1418(d), 1442; Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2024, Public Law 118-47, Division D, Title III, 138 Stat. 460, 685 (2024).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicable Program Regulations:</E>
                     34 CFR 300.702.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Proposed Priority:</E>
                </P>
                <P>This document contains one proposed priority.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">IDEA Data Management Center.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                </P>
                <P>The purpose of this proposed priority is to establish a TA center to provide TA to improve States' capacity to collect, report, analyze, and use high-quality IDEA Part B and Part C data (including data reported under IDEA sections 616, 618, and 642) by enhancing, streamlining, and integrating IDEA Part B data into their SLDS and IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B, preschool special education data into their ECIDS. The Data Management Center's work and TA will identify applicable requirements for, and reflect compliance with, the privacy and confidentiality protections under Parts B and C of the IDEA and the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA). The Data Management Center will not provide the Department with access to child-level data and will further ensure that such data is de-identified, as defined in 34 CFR 99.31(b)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    Integrating SLDS with IDEA Part B data is a complex issue. While a majority of States have an SLDS, until recently very few of those systems integrated IDEA Part B data. Specifically, in the IDEA State Supplemental Survey in school year (SY) 2015-16, only 18 of 60 (30 percent) Part B reporting entities responded that all their special education data was in their SLDS. However, in the 2022 survey data reported to the National Center for Education Statistics through the SLDS State Data Capacity Survey,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     40 (71 percent) respondents indicated that they now connect Part B data to kindergarten-12 data in the SLDS. An additional three (5.4 percent) report that it is in progress and five (8.9 percent) report that it is planned.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For more information on the National Center for Education Statistics SLDS State Data Capacity Survey, please go to 
                        <E T="03">https://nces.ed.gov/programs/slds/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Integrating IDEA Part B data into their SLDS adds value.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It allows States to standardize data collected across programs, meet Federal reporting requirements, provide additional information on the participation in other programs by children with disabilities, and support program improvement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For more information on the SLDS Grant Program and its intended outcomes, please visit: 
                        <E T="03">https://nces.ed.gov/programs/slds/about_SLDS.asp.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, most children with disabilities are educated in the same settings as children without disabilities; 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     however, the majority of States continue to separate disability and special education related data from other data collected on students (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     demographics, assessment data). Some States are using separate data collections to meet the reporting requirements under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     discipline, assessment, educational environments) rather than including all data elements needed for Federal reporting in their SLDS. Through interactions with States and TA providers around data quality needs and challenges, the Department has found that programs, districts, and State educational agencies (SEAs) are using different collection processes to gather data for their required data submissions, resulting in different degrees of reliability in the data collected.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://data.ed.gov/dataset/idea-section-618-data-products-state-level-data-files.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>States with fragmented data systems are more likely to have missing or duplicate data. For example, if a State collects and maintains data on disciplinary removals of children with disabilities in a special education data system but maintains data on the demographics of all children in another data system, the State may not be able to accurately match all data on disciplinary removals with the demographic data needed to meet IDEA Part B data collection and reporting requirements. Since discipline data is used to examine issues related to disproportionality affecting children with disabilities, inaccurate data or incomplete data will impact States' ability to use the data to make appropriate programmatic changes aimed at addressing exclusionary practices within educational settings.</P>
                <P>In addition, States with fragmented data systems often lack the capacity to cross-validate related data elements. For example, if the data on the type of statewide assessment in which children with disabilities participate is housed in one database and the grade in which children are enrolled is housed in another, the State may not be able to accurately match the assessment data to the grade-level data to meet the Federal reporting requirements, including IDEA Part B reporting requirements under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA. The inability to match children with disabilities who participated in statewide assessments with the appropriate grades may result in these children with disabilities not being included in the accountability system and improvement activities may not take these children with disabilities into consideration.</P>
                <P>
                    Fragmented data systems and variations in how programs or districts are operationalizing the reporting instructions and definitions hinder States' capacity both to collect and report valid and reliable data on children with disabilities to the Secretary and to the public, which is specifically required by IDEA sections 616(b)(2)(B)(i), 616(b)(2)(C)(ii), and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88187"/>
                    618(a), and to meet IDEA Part B data collection and reporting requirements under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA. Valid and reliable data on children with disabilities is crucial for effective program planning and evaluation. It allows key parties to make informed decisions, allocate resources effectively, and tailor interventions to meet the specific needs of students, ultimately leading to improved outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>States have expressed greater desire for TA from the currently funded Data Management Center to establish or improve their SLDS, exceeding the Center's capacity to serve all of them. Although focused TA has been provided to 23 targeted States, 28 more await targeted TA to integrate their IDEA Part B data with their SLDS.</P>
                <P>
                    Similarly, improvements are necessary in States' management, collection, coordination, reporting, and integration of Part C and Part B preschool special education data so that high-quality IDEA Part C and Part B preschool special education data required under sections 618 and 616 of IDEA are reported to the Department. Beginning with the 2023-24 Part C Exiting data, States will be required to submit all IDEA section 618 Part C data collections through a new submission system (EDPass). In previous years, States have submitted these data through the ED
                    <E T="03">Facts</E>
                     Metadata and Process system, which provides onscreen data entry tables and fields for reporting the IDEA section 618 data. The EDPass system will require States to build data files based on new file specifications and upload those files to EDPass. Once uploaded, the State will be required to respond to a series of data quality checks to ensure the quality of their Part C data being submitted to the Department.
                </P>
                <P>As the process to submit the IDEA Part C data has evolved and increased in complexity due to the move to EDPass, more efficient, effective, and user-friendly approaches are necessary for conducting the early childhood IDEA data collection, reporting, and submission processes. Improved data management and coordination processes, as well as the increase of linked and integrated child-level data in IDEA Part C data systems, IDEA Part B preschool special education data systems, early care and education program data systems, and SLDS for school-aged children, are key approaches for States in meeting these increased expectations around Part C data and Part B section 619 data being submitted via EDPass.</P>
                <P>States are strongly encouraged to establish and implement effective early childhood data management and, where appropriate, data system coordination and integration policies and procedures to support program improvement, compliance accountability, and Federal and public reporting. Developing interagency agreements and revising policies and procedures (that all meet applicable Federal privacy requirements) would allow States, where appropriate, to coordinate, link, or integrate child-level data in IDEA Part C data systems and IDEA Part B preschool special education data systems as an important first step, and also potentially with other early care and education program data. An ECIDS could help States identify what works best to improve outcomes for young children in their States. For instance, an ECIDS can provide States with information needed to assess the characteristics of services that may be related to better outcomes for children and families or the relationship between early childhood settings and early childhood outcomes. An ECIDS that includes data across various early care and education programs could also improve child find activities in the State by identifying potentially underserved populations as well as strong referral sources and those where more outreach may be needed. An ECIDS could also help States determine the other early care and education programs that serve young children with disabilities and their families, allowing States to coordinate better with such programs and operate early intervention or preschool special education programs with a focus on improving outcomes. For example, States are working to link their universal screening data to SLDS and ECIDS in order to increase early childhood developmental screening rates for young children.</P>
                <P>Building robust ECIDSs that include Part C early intervention data and Part B preschool special education data would help improve IDEA child find and transition data collection, reporting, and analysis, improve responses to critical policy questions, facilitate program improvement, and improve compliance for IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education programs. This level of coordination and integration would help ensure that States report high-quality IDEA data to the Department and the public.</P>
                <P>
                    Though some improvements have been made over the last 10 years in linking and integrating IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education data to data from early care and education programs, K-12 data systems, and the workforce, as well as longitudinally over time, the percentage of State programs that report they can make these linkages remains low. Less than 40 percent of IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education programs that responded to a survey 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in 2021 reported they can link their child-level data to their workforce data. Less than 30 percent of IDEA Part C early intervention programs that responded reported that their State links IDEA Part C child-level data to Early Head Start, Head Start, State Pre-K, child care programs, home visiting programs, or other early care or education programs. Most IDEA Part C early intervention programs that responded reported they have never linked their IDEA Part C data to their IDEA Part B preschool special education data. Reasons vary, but the most common reasons include budgetary constraints and competing staffing priorities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Perez, N., &amp; Mercier, B. (2022). 
                        <E T="03">2021 DaSy data systems (State of the States) survey findings.</E>
                         SRI International. 
                        <E T="03">https://dasycenter.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/12/DaSy_2021DaSyDataSystemsSurveyFindings_Acc.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This proposed priority would directly address these capacity-related challenges, as well as increased expectations and other capacity challenges IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education programs face with respect to effectively and efficiently collecting, reporting, analyzing, and using high-quality IDEA data to improve the capacity of States to meet the data collection and reporting requirements under Parts B and C of IDEA.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Proposed Priority:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this proposed priority is to fund a cooperative agreement to establish and operate an IDEA Data Management Center (Data Management Center). The Data Management Center will respond to State needs as States determine whether and how to coordinate and integrate their IDEA Part B and Part C data required to meet the data collection requirements in sections 616 and 618 of IDEA into their longitudinal data systems (including SLDS and ECIDS) while ensuring applicable IDEA and FERPA privacy protections are met. This integration will improve the capacity of States to collect, report, analyze, and use high-quality IDEA Part B and Part C data to establish and meet high expectations for each child with a disability. The Data Management Center will help States address challenges with data management procedures and data systems architecture and better meet current and future IDEA Part B and Part C data collection and reporting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88188"/>
                    requirements. The Data Management Center's work will comply with the privacy and confidentiality protections under IDEA and FERPA. The Data Management Center will not provide the Department with access to child-level data and will further ensure that such data is de-identified, as defined in 34 CFR 99.31(b)(1).
                </P>
                <P>The Data Management Center must be designed to achieve, at a minimum, the following expected outcomes:</P>
                <P>(a) Increased capacity of States to use interagency agreements or other mechanisms to coordinate and integrate IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA within their SLDS while meeting the applicable privacy requirements under Parts B and C of the IDEA and FERPA (which may include developing or disseminating TA resources on privacy, interagency agreements on data sharing and/or data coordination, and integration);</P>
                <P>
                    (b) Increased use of IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data within States by developing products to allow States to report their special education, preschool special education, and early intervention data to various partners (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     other State agencies, policymakers, school and early care and education program personnel, local and State school boards, local educational agency (LEA) administrators, early care and education childhood administrators, researchers, charter school authorizers, parents and advocates, Indian Tribes, and Tribal organizations) through their longitudinal data systems;
                </P>
                <P>(c) Increased number of States that use data governance and data management procedures to increase their capacity to meet the IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C reporting requirements under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA;</P>
                <P>(d) Increased capacity of States to utilize their SLDS and ECIDS to collect, report, analyze, and use high-quality IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data (including data required under sections 616, 618, and 642 of IDEA);</P>
                <P>(e) Increased capacity of States to use their SLDS and ECIDS to analyze high-quality data on the participation and outcomes of children with disabilities who receive services under IDEA and under Title I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, as amended (ESEA), to improve IDEA and ESEA programs and the outcomes of children with disabilities; and</P>
                <P>
                    (f) Increased capacity of States to coordinate and use available IDEA Part C early intervention data with IDEA Part B preschool special education data (and to integrate or link such data with ECIDS, if applicable) to analyze high-quality data on the participation and outcomes of infants, toddlers, and children with disabilities served under IDEA who may also participate in other programs and services (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     child care, Early Head Start, Head Start, publicly funded preschool, and home visiting programs).
                </P>
                <P>In addition to these programmatic requirements, to be considered for funding under this priority, applicants must meet the application and administrative requirements in this priority, which are:</P>
                <P>(a) Describe, in the narrative section of the application under “Significance,” how the proposed project will—</P>
                <P>
                    (1) Address State challenges associated with State data management procedures, data systems architecture, and building ED
                    <E T="03">Facts</E>
                     data files and reports for timely reporting of the IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data to the Department and the public. To meet this requirement the applicant must—
                </P>
                <P>(i) Present applicable national, State, or local data demonstrating the difficulties that States have encountered in the collection and submission of valid and reliable IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data;</P>
                <P>
                    (ii) Demonstrate knowledge of current educational and technical issues and policy initiatives relating to IDEA Part B data and IDEA Part C collections and ED
                    <E T="03">Facts</E>
                     file specifications for the IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data collections; and
                </P>
                <P>(iii) Present information about the current level of implementation of integrating IDEA Part B data within SLDS and IDEA Part C and IDEA Part B preschool special education data within ECIDs, and the reporting of high-quality IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data to the Department and the public.</P>
                <P>(b) Describe, in the narrative section of the application under “Quality of project services,” how the proposed project will—</P>
                <P>(1) Achieve its goals, objectives, and intended outcomes. To meet this requirement, the applicant must provide—</P>
                <P>(i) Measurable intended project outcomes; and</P>
                <P>(ii) In Appendix A, the logic model (as defined in 34 CFR 77.1) by which the proposed project will achieve its intended outcomes that depicts, at a minimum, the goals, activities, outputs, and intended outcomes of the proposed project;</P>
                <P>(2) Use a conceptual framework (and provide a copy in Appendix A) to develop project plans and activities, describing any underlying concepts, assumptions, expectations, beliefs, or theories, as well as the presumed relationships or linkages among these variables, and any empirical support for this framework;</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The following website provides more information on logic models and conceptual frameworks: 
                    <E T="03">https://ies.ed.gov/ncee/rel/Products/Region/central/Resource/100644.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) Be based on current research and make use of evidence-based 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     practices (EBPs). To meet this requirement, the applicant must describe—
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         For the purposes of these requirements, “evidence-based” means the proposed project component is supported by one or more of strong evidence, moderate evidence, promising evidence, or evidence that demonstrates a rationale (as such terms are defined in 34 CFR 77.1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(i) The current research on data collection strategies, data management procedures, and data systems architecture; and</P>
                <P>(ii) How the proposed project will incorporate current research and EBPs in the development and delivery of its products and services;</P>
                <P>(4) Develop products and provide services that are of high quality and sufficient intensity and duration to achieve the intended outcomes of the proposed project. To address this requirement, the applicant must describe—</P>
                <P>(i) How it proposes to identify or develop the knowledge base on States' data management processes and data systems architecture;</P>
                <P>(ii) A plan to provide a range of products and services to—</P>
                <P>(A) Improve States' capacity to report high-quality IDEA Part B and Part C data required under sections 616, 618, and 642 of IDEA through their SLDS and other applicable data systems; and</P>
                <P>(B) Improve States' capacity to link and integrate (where determined appropriate by States) their IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education data with data/data systems associated with other Federal programs and services that support infants, toddlers, and young children and their families in order to report high-quality IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B preschool special education data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA. The plan must include, at a minimum, how the project will—</P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">1</E>
                    ) In Years 1 through 5—
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">i</E>
                    ) Support, in partnership with the Department, the implementation of an existing open-source electronic tool to assist States in building ED
                    <E T="03">Facts</E>
                     data files and reports that can be submitted to the Department and made available to the public. The tool must utilize Common Education Data Standards (CEDS) and meet all States' needs associated with reporting the IDEA Part 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88189"/>
                    B and Part C data required under sections 616, 618, and 642 of IDEA;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                    ) Provide maintenance to support the appropriate functionality of the open-source electronic tool as changes are made to data collections, reporting requirements, file specifications, and CEDS (such as links within the system to include TA products developed by other Office of Special Education Programs (OSEP) and Department-funded centers or contractors);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">iii</E>
                    ) Provide TA focused on data governance to facilitate the use of the open-source electronic tool and training to State staff to implement the open-source electronic tool;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">iv</E>
                    ) Revise the CEDS “Connections” to calculate metrics needed to report the IDEA Part B and Part C data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">v</E>
                    ) Develop other outputs (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     reports, Application Programming Interface, new innovations) of an open-source electronic tool that can support reporting by States of IDEA Part B data to different partner groups (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     LEAs, charter schools, legislative branch, parents);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">vi</E>
                    ) Implement strategies to support the inclusion of other OSEP and Department-funded TA centers' products within the open-source electronic tool or build connections that allow the SEAs to pull IDEA Part B data efficiently into the other TA products;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">vii</E>
                    ) Support a user group of States that are using an open-source electronic tool for reporting IDEA Part B and Part C data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA; and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">viii</E>
                    ) Develop products and presentations that include tools and solutions to challenges in data management procedures and data system architecture for reporting the IDEA Part B and Part C data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">2</E>
                    ) In Years 2 through 5—
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">i</E>
                    ) Develop, in partnership with the Department, an open-source electronic tool to assist States with linking and integrating their IDEA Part C early intervention and IDEA Part B preschool special education data with other data/data systems associated with other Federal programs and services that support infants, toddlers, and young children and their families, in order to provide high-quality reporting of the IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B preschool special education data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA; drive program improvement; improve results for children with disabilities; and improve compliance accountability. The tool must utilize CEDS and meet States' needs associated with linking or integrating their Part C early intervention and Part B preschool special education data with other data/data systems associated with other Federal programs that support infants, toddlers, and young children and their families;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                    ) Develop the CEDS “Connections” to ensure the electronic tool is built for States to conduct analyses related to reporting the IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B preschool special education data required under sections 616 and 618 of IDEA, driving program improvement, improving results for children with disabilities and their families, and improving compliance accountability;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">iii</E>
                    ) Provide maintenance to support the appropriate functionality of the open-source electronic tool as changes are made to data reporting requirements and CEDS;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">iv</E>
                    ) Provide TA on data governance to facilitate the use of the open-source electronic tool and training to State staff to implement the open-source electronic tool; and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">v</E>
                    ) Support a user group of States that are using an open-source electronic tool for reporting the IDEA Part C data and IDEA Part B preschool special education data required under sections 616, 618, and 642 of IDEA;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (iii) Its proposed approach to universal, general TA,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which must identify the intended recipients, including the type and number of recipients, that will receive the products and services, a description of the products and services that the Center proposes to make available, and the expected impact of those products and services under this approach;
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         “Universal, general TA” means TA and information provided to independent users through their own initiative, resulting in minimal interaction with TA center staff and including one-time, invited or offered conference presentations by TA center staff. This category of TA also includes information or products, such as newsletters, guidebooks, or research syntheses, downloaded from the TA center's website by independent users. Brief communications by TA center staff with recipients, either by telephone or email, are also considered universal, general TA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    (iv) Its proposed approach to targeted, specialized TA,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which must identify—
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         “Targeted, specialized TA” means TA services based on needs common to multiple recipients and not extensively individualized. A relationship is established between the TA recipient and one or more TA center staff. This category of TA includes one-time, labor-intensive events, such as facilitating strategic planning or hosting regional or national conferences. It can also include episodic, less labor-intensive events that extend over a period of time, such as facilitating a series of conference calls on single or multiple topics that are designed around the needs of the recipients. Facilitating communities of practice can also be considered targeted, specialized TA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(A) The intended recipients, including the type and number of recipients, that will receive the products and services, a description of the products and services that the Center proposes to make available, and the expected impact of those products and services under this approach; and</P>
                <P>(B) Its proposed approach to measure the readiness of potential TA recipients to work with the project, assessing, at a minimum, their current infrastructure, available resources, and ability to build capacity at the local level; and</P>
                <P>(C) The process by which the proposed project will collaborate with Department-funded centers (including privacy TA centers such as the DaSy Center that provides Department-funded TA on early childhood data privacy, and the Privacy Technical Assistance Center) and other federally funded TA centers to develop and implement a coordinated TA plan when they are involved in a State;</P>
                <P>
                    (v) Its proposed approach to intensive, sustained TA,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which must identify—
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         “Intensive, sustained TA” means TA services often provided on-site and requiring a stable, ongoing relationship between the TA center staff and the TA recipient. “TA services” are defined as negotiated series of activities designed to reach a valued outcome. This category of TA should result in changes to policy, program, practice, or operations that support increased recipient capacity or improved outcomes at one or more systems levels.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(A) The intended recipients, including the type and number of recipients from a variety of settings and geographic distribution, that will receive the products and services under this approach;</P>
                <P>(B) Its proposed approach to address States' challenges associated with integrating IDEA Part B data within SLDS and IDEA Part C and IDEA Part B preschool special education data within ECDIS and to report high-quality IDEA Part B and IDEA Part C data to the Department and the public, which should, at a minimum, include providing on-site consultants to SEAs and Part C lead agencies to—</P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">1</E>
                    ) Model and document data management and data system integration policies, procedures, processes, and activities within the State;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">2</E>
                    ) Support the State's use of an open-source electronic tool and provide technical solutions to meet State-specific data needs;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">3</E>
                    ) Develop a sustainability plan for the State to maintain the data management and data system integration work in the future; and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">4</E>
                    ) Support the State's cybersecurity plan in collaboration, to the extent appropriate, with the Department's Student Privacy Policy Office and its Privacy Technical Assistance Center;
                    <PRTPAGE P="88190"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">5</E>
                    ) Develop products and implement services that maximize efficiency. To address this requirement, the applicant must describe—
                </P>
                <P>(i) How the proposed project will use technology to achieve the intended project outcomes;</P>
                <P>(ii) With whom the proposed project will collaborate and the intended outcomes of this collaboration; and</P>
                <P>(iii) How the proposed project will use non-project resources, such as non-Federal funds and in-kind contributions, to achieve the intended project outcomes; and</P>
                <P>
                    (
                    <E T="03">6</E>
                    ) Develop a dissemination plan that describes how the applicant will systematically distribute information, products, and services to varied intended audiences, using a variety of dissemination strategies, to promote awareness and use of the Center's products and services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) In the narrative section of the application under “Quality of the project evaluation or other evidence-building,” describe how the project will develop an evaluation plan in consultation with, and to be implemented by, a third-party evaluator.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The evaluation plan must—
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         A “third-party” evaluator is an independent and impartial program evaluator who is contracted by the grantee to conduct an objective evaluation of the project. This evaluator must not have participated in the development or implementation of any project activities, except for the evaluation activities, nor have any financial interest in the outcome of the evaluation.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(1) Articulate formative and summative evaluation questions, including important process and outcome evaluation questions. These questions must be related to the project's proposed logic model required under paragraph (b)(2)(ii);</P>
                <P>(2) Describe how progress in and fidelity of implementation, as well as project outcomes, will be measured to answer the evaluation questions. Specify the measures and associated instruments or sources for data appropriate to the evaluation questions. Include information regarding reliability and validity of measures where appropriate;</P>
                <P>(3) Describe strategies for analyzing data and how data collected as part of this plan will be used to inform and improve service delivery over the course of the project and to refine the proposed logic model and evaluation plan, including subsequent data collection;</P>
                <P>(4) Provide a timeline for conducting the evaluation and include staff assignments for completing the plan. The timeline must indicate that the data will be available annually for the Annual Performance Report (APR) and at the end of Year 2; and</P>
                <P>(5) Dedicate sufficient funds in each budget year to cover the costs of developing or refining the evaluation plan in consultation with a third-party evaluator, as well as the costs associated with the implementation of the evaluation plan by the third-party evaluator.</P>
                <P>(d) Demonstrate, in the narrative section of the application under “Adequacy of resources and quality of the project personnel,” how—</P>
                <P>(1) The proposed project will encourage applications for employment from persons who are members of groups that have traditionally been underrepresented based on race, color, national origin, gender, age, or disability, as appropriate;</P>
                <P>(2) The proposed key project personnel, consultants, and subcontractors have the qualifications and experience to carry out the proposed activities and achieve the project's intended outcomes;</P>
                <P>(3) The applicant and any key partners have adequate resources to carry out the proposed activities; and</P>
                <P>(4) The proposed costs are reasonable in relation to the anticipated results and benefits, and funds will be spent in a way that increases their efficiency and cost-effectiveness, including by reducing waste or achieving better outcomes.</P>
                <P>(e) Describe, in the narrative section of the application under “Quality of the management plan,” how—</P>
                <P>(1) The proposed management plan will ensure that the project's intended outcomes will be achieved on time and within budget. To address this requirement, the applicant must describe—</P>
                <P>(i) Clearly defined responsibilities for key project personnel, consultants, and subcontractors, as applicable; and</P>
                <P>(ii) Timelines and milestones for accomplishing the project tasks;</P>
                <P>(2) Key project personnel and any consultants and subcontractors will be allocated and how these allocations are appropriate and adequate to achieve the project's intended outcomes;</P>
                <P>(3) The proposed management plan will ensure that the products and services provided are of high quality, relevant, and useful to recipients; and</P>
                <P>(4) The proposed project will benefit from a diversity of perspectives, including those of families, educators, TA providers, researchers, and policy makers, among others, in its development and operation.</P>
                <P>(f) Address the following application requirements. The applicant must—</P>
                <P>(1) Include, in Appendix A, personnel-loading charts and timelines, as applicable, to illustrate the management plan described in the narrative;</P>
                <P>(2) Include, in the budget, attendance at the following:</P>
                <P>(i) A one and one-half day kick-off meeting in Washington, DC, after receipt of the award, and an annual planning meeting in Washington, DC, with the OSEP project officer and other relevant staff during each subsequent year of the project period.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     Within 30 days of receipt of the award, a post-award teleconference must be held between the OSEP project officer and the grantee's project director or other authorized representative;
                </P>
                <P>(ii) A three-day project directors' conference in Washington, DC, during each year of the project periods, provided that, if the meeting is conducted virtually, the project must reallocate unused travel funds no later than the end of the third quarter of each budget period;</P>
                <P>(iii) Three annual two-day trips to attend Department briefings, Department-sponsored conferences, and other meetings, as requested by OSEP; and</P>
                <P>(3) Include, in the budget, a line item for an annual set-aside of five percent of the grant amount to support emerging needs that are consistent with the proposed project's intended outcomes, as those needs are identified in consultation with, and approved by, the OSEP project officer. With approval from the OSEP project officer, the project must reallocate any remaining funds from this annual set-aside no later than the end of the third quarter of each budget period;</P>
                <P>(4) Provide an assurance that it will maintain a high-quality website, with an easy-to-navigate design, that meets government or industry-recognized standards for accessibility;</P>
                <P>(5) Include, in Appendix A, an assurance to assist OSEP with the transfer of pertinent resources and products and to maintain the continuity of services to States during the transition to a new award at the end of this award period, as appropriate; and</P>
                <P>(6) Budget at least 50 percent of the grant award for providing targeted and intensive TA to States.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Types of Priorities:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The effect of each type of priority follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Absolute priority:</E>
                     Under an absolute priority, we consider only applications that meet the priority (34 CFR 75.105(c)(3)).
                    <PRTPAGE P="88191"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Competitive preference priority:</E>
                     Under a competitive preference priority, we give competitive preference to an application by (1) awarding additional points, depending on the extent to which the application meets the priority (34 CFR 75.105(c)(2)(i)); or (2) selecting an application that meets the priority over an application of comparable merit that does not meet the priority (34 CFR 75.105(c)(2)(ii)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Invitational priority:</E>
                     Under an invitational priority, we are particularly interested in applications that meet the priority. However, we do not give an application that meets the priority a preference over other applications (34 CFR 75.105(c)(1)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Final Priority</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    We will announce the final priority in a document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . We will determine the final priority after considering public comments on the proposed priority and other information available to the Department. This document does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     This document does 
                    <E T="03">not</E>
                     solicit applications. In any year in which we choose to use this proposed priority, we invite applications through a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <P>Under Executive Order 12866, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) determines whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by OMB. Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094, defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—</P>
                <P>(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more (adjusted every three years by the Administrator of Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) for changes in gross domestic product); or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, territorial, or Tribal governments or communities;</P>
                <P>(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;</P>
                <P>(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or</P>
                <P>(4) Raise legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive order, as specifically authorized in a timely manner by the Administrator of OIRA in each case.</P>
                <P>This proposed regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094.</P>
                <P>We have also reviewed this proposed regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—</P>
                <P>(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);</P>
                <P>(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;</P>
                <P>(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);</P>
                <P>(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and</P>
                <P>(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.</P>
                <P>Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”</P>
                <P>We are issuing the proposed priority only on a reasoned determination that their benefits would justify their costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that would maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Department believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.</P>
                <P>We also have determined that this regulatory action would not unduly interfere with State, local, and Tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.</P>
                <P>In accordance with these Executive orders, the Department has assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the Department's programs and activities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Clarity of the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 12866 and the Presidential memorandum “Plain Language in Government Writing” require each agency to write regulations that are easy to understand.</P>
                <P>The Secretary invites comments on how to make the proposed priority easier to understand, including answers to questions such as the following:</P>
                <P>• Are the requirements in the proposed priority clearly stated?</P>
                <P>• Does the proposed priority contain technical terms or other wording that interferes with their clarity?</P>
                <P>• Does the format of the proposed priority (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing, etc.) aid or reduce their clarity?</P>
                <P>• Would the proposed priority be easier to understand if we divided them into more (but shorter) sections?</P>
                <P>
                    • Could the description of the proposed priority in the 
                    <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                     section of this preamble be more helpful in making the proposed priority easier to understand? If so, how?
                </P>
                <P>• What else could we do to make the proposed priority easier to understand?</P>
                <P>
                    To send any comments about how the Department could make the proposed priority easier to understand, see the instructions in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                     This program is subject to Executive Order 12372 and the regulations in 34 CFR part 79. One of the objectives of the Executive order is to foster an intergovernmental partnership and a strengthened federalism. The Executive order relies on processes developed by State and local governments for coordination and review of proposed Federal financial assistance.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88192"/>
                </P>
                <P>This document provides early notification of our specific plans and actions for this program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification:</E>
                     The Secretary certifies that the proposed priority would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The small entities that this proposed regulatory action would affect are LEAs, including charter schools that operate as LEAs under State law; institutions of higher education; other public agencies; private nonprofit organizations; freely associated States and outlying areas; Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations; and for-profit organizations. We believe that the costs imposed on an applicant by the proposed priority would be limited to paperwork burden related to preparing an application and that the benefits of the proposed priority would outweigh any costs incurred by the applicant.
                </P>
                <P>Participation in the Technical Assistance on State Data Collection program is voluntary. For this reason, the proposed priority would impose no burden on small entities unless they applied for funding under the program. We expect that in determining whether to apply for Technical Assistance on State Data Collection program funds, an eligible entity would evaluate the requirements of preparing an application and any associated costs and weigh them against the benefits likely to be achieved by receiving a Technical Assistance on State Data Collection program grant. An eligible entity probably would apply only if it determines that the likely benefits exceed the costs of preparing an application.</P>
                <P>We believe that the proposed priority would not impose any additional burden on a small entity applying for a grant than the entity would face in the absence of the proposed action. That is, the length of the applications those entities would submit in the absence of the proposed regulatory action and the time needed to prepare an application would likely be the same.</P>
                <P>This proposed regulatory action would not have a significant economic impact on a small entity once it receives a grant because it would be able to meet the costs of compliance using the funds provided under this program. We invite comments from eligible small entities as to whether they believe this proposed regulatory action would have a significant economic impact on them and, if so, request evidence to support that belief.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>The proposed priority contains information collection requirements that are approved by OMB under OMB control number 1820-0028. The proposed priority does not affect the currently approved data collection.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessible Format:</E>
                     On request to the program contact person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    , individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format. The Department will provide the requestor with an accessible format that may include Rich Text Format (RTF) or text format (txt), a thumb drive, an MP3 file, braille, large print, audiotape, compact disc, or other accessible format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access to This Document:</E>
                     The official version of this document is the document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . You may access the official edition of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the Code of Federal Regulations at 
                    <E T="03">www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                     At this site you can view this document, as well as all other Department documents published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     in text or Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also access Department documents published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by using the article search feature at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                     Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Glenna Wright-Gallo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Special Education and Rehabilitative Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25862 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <CFR>38 CFR Parts 14 and 36</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 2900-AS05</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Legal Services, General Counsel, and Miscellaneous Claims</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend its regulations governing Legal Services, the Office of General Counsel, and Miscellaneous Claims to reflect nomenclature changes regarding employees and groups within the Office of General Counsel as well as to make other changes intended to further clarify and explain various functions and procedures within the Office of General Counsel.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Except as provided below, comments received before the close of the comment period will be available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         for public viewing, inspection, or copying, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post the comments received before the close of the comment period on 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as soon as possible after they have been received. VA will not post on 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         public comments that make threats to individuals or institutions or suggest that the commenter will take actions to harm an individual. VA encourages individuals not to submit duplicative comments; however, we will post comments from multiple unique commenters even if the content is identical or nearly identical to other comments. Any public comment received after the comment period's closing date is considered late and will not be considered in the final rulemaking. In accordance with the Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act of 2023, a 100 word Plain-Language Summary of this proposed rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , under RIN 2900-AS05.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Michael Gibbs, Executive Director, Management, Planning and Analysis, Office of General Counsel (026), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-4995. (This is not a toll-free telephone number.)</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Title 38 of the Code of Federal Regulations, chapter I, part 14, governs Legal Services, General Counsel, and Miscellaneous Claims. Executive Order 13563 requires agencies to carry out retrospective analyses of rules that “may be outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome, and to modify, streamline, expand, or repeal them in accordance with what has been learned.” Exec. Order No. 13563, section 6, 76 FR 3821, 3822 (Jan. 21, 2011). After a review of 38 CFR part 14, VA's Office of General Counsel (OGC) is proposing revisions to reflect nomenclature changes to the names of certain Office of General Counsel offices and the employees in those offices. The proposed revisions would also make changes in certain policies, procedures, and authorities. In the amendatory text 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88193"/>
                    of this proposed rule, OGC is removing 38 CFR 14.503 through 14.504 and revising 38 CFR 14.500 through 14.502, 14.505 through 507, 14.514 through 14.518, 14.560 through 14.561, 14.600 through 14.605, 14.615 through 14.619, 14.664 through 14.669, and 14.800 through 14.810, when necessary to (1) decrease the likelihood of introducing errors, (2) improve efficiency during the publication process, and (3) meet Office of the Federal Register drafting and formatting requirements for publication. The substantive individual changes to the affected CFR units are detailed elsewhere in this preamble.
                </P>
                <P>As a result of a reorganization, the Office of General Counsel changed its organizational structure from regions to districts, and further changed the names of the leadership in those districts from Regional Counsel to Chief Counsel or District Chief Counsel. To reflect those changes, the following sections are proposed to be amended to reflect the change in position titles from “Regional Counsel” to “Chief Counsel:” §§ 14.500(e), 14.501's title and paragraphs (a) and (c) through (e), 14.514(a), (b), and (e), and 14.516. The Regulation's Table of Contents is also proposed to be amended to reflect the new “Chief Counsel” language in § 14.501.</P>
                <P>Multiple sections are proposed to be amended to reflect a nomenclature change from “Regional Counsel” to “District Chief Counsel.” The sections proposed to be amended to reflect the new language of “District Chief Counsel” are §§ 14.517, 14.518(a) and (b)(1) through (4), 14.560, 14.561, 14.605(b), 14.709(a) through (c), and 14.807(b). Additional sections are proposed to be amended to reflect a nomenclature change from “his or her” to “their” in §§ 14.500(a), 14.514(b) and (c), 14.518(a), 14.600(a), (c) and (d), 14.605(b) through (e), 14.615(b) and (c), 14.618(a), 14.619(a), 14.560, 14.665(a), 14.667(a), 14.807(a), and 14.810(f). Proposed amendments are included in §§ 14.605(a), 14.665(a), and 14.807(a) to change “he or she” to “they.”</P>
                <P>Multiple sections in part 14 are proposed to be amended with various other nomenclature changes as well as changes intended to clarify the meaning of the regulations. The language in § 14.500, “Functions and responsibilities of General Counsel” and specifically paragraph (e) is proposed to be amended to remove “field” from the phrase “system of field offices” and substitute the word “organizations” for the phrase “field installations.” This amendment is proposed as the current language in the regulation is outdated and is no longer used to describe the Agency's various offices, locations, and organizations. In § 14.500(e), the last phrase is proposed to be changed from “the Regional Counsel” to “a Chief Counsel” for consistency in reference to the updated title for these positions and to reflect that these matters may be reported to different Chief Counsels, depending on the type of case. Finally, in paragraph (f), the word “as” is proposed to be inserted in the existing phrase so that it now states: “Other matters as assigned.”</P>
                <P>Additional amendments are proposed in § 14.501 which is proposed to be renamed to “Functions and Responsibilities of Chief Counsels” to reflect the new position titles of employees formerly referred to as Regional Counsels. Specifically, paragraph (b) is proposed to be amended to include the phrase “Deputy Chief Counsels” before the phrase “and designated staff attorneys” to provide a more comprehensive list of the Office of General Counsel employees who are authorized to perform the tasks listed in this paragraph. Paragraph (c) includes an additional proposed amendment to replace the phrase “installations within the district assigned” with the phrase “organizations within their geographic area of responsibility and/or legal practice area of responsibility.” This amendment is proposed as the term “installations” is outdated and is no longer used to describe the Office of General Counsel's areas of responsibility. Additional changes are proposed in paragraph (b) to correct the spelling of “affidavits” and in paragraph (c) to change the word “authority” to “authorized” for readability.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.501(e) is proposed to be amended to remove the sentence “Where it is impractical for the Regional Counsel to perform the legal service because of cost, distance, etc., the customary fee for the service rendered by a local attorney employed by the Regional Counsel will be borne by the administration requesting such action.” This sentence is proposed to be removed as the process described does not have a corresponding statutory authority.</P>
                <P>
                    Additional amendments are proposed in paragraph (f), including the removal of the phrase “addresses of Regional Counsels are as follows” and the removal of the list of regions within the Office of General Counsel, the Regional Counsel's physical addresses, and the states over which those Regional Counsel offices had jurisdiction. This information is proposed to be replaced with the following statement: “locations and jurisdictions of the District Chief Counsels can be found here: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OGC/DistrictOffices.asp.”</E>
                     This web page link and the new language in § 14.501(f) are proposed to reflect the updated office names, jurisdictions, and locations of the District Chief Counsels.
                </P>
                <P>The language in § 14.502, “Requests for legal opinions from Central Office” describes the Department officials who may make a request for formal legal advice from the Office of General Counsel. This rulemaking proposes to update this section to reflect grammatical and nomenclature changes. Specifically, the phrase “requests for” is proposed to be replaced with “A request for” at the beginning of the paragraph for readability. To reflect updated titles for individuals who hold various leadership positions in the Department, the following nomenclature changes have been proposed: the phrase “an Under Secretary” will be inserted after “Deputy Secretary” and the phrases “Assistant Secretaries” and “Deputy Assistant Secretaries” will be updated to “an Assistant Secretary” and “a Deputy Assistant Secretary.” The phrase “administration head or top staff office” is proposed to be removed as the individuals described with that language are now referred to more specifically. Finally, the word “and” will be replaced with the word “or” after the phrase “Deputy Assistant Secretary” to indicate that any one of the individuals listed may submit a request for formal legal advice from the Office of General Counsel.</P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to remove certain regulations in their entirety as they contain outdated procedures, do not reflect current Office of General Counsel operations, and describe communications between offices and teams within the Office of General Counsel that do not require reference in Federal regulations. Specifically, this rulemaking proposes to remove § 14.503, “Requests for legal advice and assistance in other than domestic relations matters” and § 14.504, “Domestic relations questions, authority and exceptions” in their entirety for these reasons. Reference to these regulations is also proposed to be removed from the Table of Contents in part 14.</P>
                <P>
                    Further amendments are proposed to § 14.505, “Submissions” which describes how certain Department officials can request formal legal advice from the Office of General Counsel. Specifically, it is proposed that the language in this section be amended to clarify that it refers to requests for legal opinions pursuant to § 14.502. For clarity and coherence in the paragraph's 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88194"/>
                    first sentence, it is proposed that the phrase “on which the opinion is desired” be replaced with “underlying the opinion requested.” In the paragraph's second sentence, the rulemaking proposes to replace the phrase “original papers will not be submitted unless pertinent portions thereof cannot practicably be summarized or copies made and attached as exhibits” with the phrase “relevant documents should be attached as exhibits to the submission.” This proposed replacement is intended to further clarify and simplify these instructions and to remove the outdated term of “original papers.”
                </P>
                <P>The language and structure in § 14.507, “Opinions” is proposed to be revised to clarify that it relates only to those things that the General Counsel has designated as precedent, conclusive, or advisory opinions and does not apply to most of the guidance written by the General Counsel or the Office of General Counsel. The section is proposed to be further amended to clearly delineate and describe the three categories of opinions.</P>
                <P>The newly proposed paragraph (a) in § 14.507 would provide a general overview and introduction of the three types of legal opinions described in this section that may be requested under § 14.502 or issued when determined necessary or appropriate. Under this rulemaking, all of the existing language in paragraph (a) is proposed to be removed or moved to paragraph (b) and the newly proposed paragraph (f).</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed changes to paragraph (b) in § 14.507 include inserting the title “
                    <E T="03">Precedent Opinions”</E>
                     to clarify the subject of this paragraph and inserting the word “Principal” before the phrase “Deputy General Counsel acting as or for the General Counsel” to reflect that the Principal Deputy General Counsel is the individual who may be acting as or for the General Counsel. Proposed revisions to the second sentence in (b) include the addition of the phrase “The designated holdings in written legal opinions” at the beginning of the sentence to clarify that OGC will affirmatively designate certain holdings or conclusions as precedent opinions in a written legal opinion. Paragraph (b) includes a proposed revision to add the phrase “The holdings in an opinion designated as a precedent opinion are binding” at the beginning of the third sentence to further clarify that only holdings in an opinion that has been affirmatively designated as a “precedent opinion” are the subject of this section. The third sentence includes another proposed addition where the phrase “or the opinion has been withdrawn” has been added at the end of the sentence. This proposed language is intended to further clarify that the withdrawal of an opinion which has been designated as a precedent opinion is another action which will reverse the status of the opinion such that the holdings in that opinion are no longer binding on Department officials and employees in subsequent matters involving a legal issue decided in that opinion. Finally, the third sentence includes two proposed revisions for grammatical reasons and specifically, the replacement of “is” with the word “are” and removal of the word “or” before the phrase “the opinion has been overruled.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    This rulemaking proposes to re-write paragraph (c) in its entirety to provide additional information and explanation for the category of opinions designated as “conclusive opinions” which is mentioned in paragraph (a) but not fully described in the existing regulation. To provide additional description and guidance on “conclusive opinions,” the current language in paragraph (c) is proposed to be removed as it is outdated and references procedures for legal opinions that are no longer followed. The existing text in paragraph (c) is proposed to be replaced with the following language: “
                    <E T="03">Conclusive opinions.</E>
                     The designated holdings in written legal opinions designated as conclusive opinions under this section shall be considered by the Department of Veterans Affairs to be subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2). The holdings in an opinion designated as a conclusive opinion are binding as to all Department officials and employees with respect to the particular matter at issue, unless there has been a material change in controlling statute or regulation; the opinion has been overruled or modified by a subsequent precedent opinion, applicable conclusive opinion, or judicial decision; or the opinion has been withdrawn.” This proposed language is intended to describe conclusive opinions and clearly delineate this type of opinion from the others listed in the section.
                </P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to include a new paragraph in paragraph (d) to describe “advisory opinions” which are mentioned in the current version of the regulation in paragraph (a) but were not specifically defined. The new proposed language in paragraph (d) describes advisory opinions as opinions that are not binding but are issued to provide legal guidance or recommendations to Department officials.</P>
                <P>Two additional paragraphs are proposed to be added to § 14.507 to provide further guidance on the scope of this section and to include language from the existing paragraph (a) which describes where conclusive opinions are maintained. A proposed new paragraph (e) would include language to clarify that this regulation applies to the specific types of legal opinions issued by the General Counsel or designee as described in paragraphs (a) through (d) and acknowledges that employees in the Office of General Counsel provide other types of informal legal opinions or legal guidance in accordance with existing policies and practice.</P>
                <P>Finally, a proposed new paragraph (f) would describe where opinions from this regulation are maintained. Except for the newly proposed phrase “described in paragraphs (a) through (d),” the language in the proposed paragraph (e) is included in the current version of the regulation in paragraph (a). The Office of General Counsel proposes to move this language to paragraph (e) to clarify that it applies to all opinions described in this section. For grammatical and consistency reasons, it is proposed that the word “the” be inserted before the phrase “Department of Veterans Affairs” in multiple locations throughout the section.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Litigation (Other Than Under the Federal Tort Claims Act); Indemnification</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend § 14.514, “Suits by or against United States or Department of Veterans Affairs officials; indemnification of Department of Veterans Affairs employees” with additional nomenclature changes. This section outlines the procedures to be followed when lawsuits are filed against the Department, the Secretary, and individual Department employees. In paragraphs (a) and (b), the word “petition” is proposed to be replaced with “complaint” to correct outdated language. In paragraph (b), the phrase “(or equivalent position)” is proposed to be included in the second sentence after “facility Director” to clarify that the official who completes an affidavit regarding an employee's scope of employment may hold a position other than facility Director. The phrase “two copies of” is proposed to be removed from the last sentence as it refers to an outdated process for transmitting paper copies. In paragraph (c)(4), the word “advice” is proposed to replace the word “view” in the third sentence such that it now reads: “Where the Department of Veterans Affairs determines it appropriate, the Agency shall seek the advice of the Department 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88195"/>
                    of Justice.” Additional proposed changes to paragraph (e) include revisions to the second sentence where the phrase “two copies of such report” is proposed to be replaced with “will forward a copy of such report . . .” This proposed change is intended to reflect that the language of “two copies” is outdated as most communications and reports are sent electronically within VA. Paragraph (e) is further revised to change the last sentence to reflect OGC's current organizational structure and direct Chief Counsels to send a copy of the report to their Deputy General Counsel, rather than directly to the General Counsel.
                </P>
                <P>The language in § 14.515, “Suits involving loan guaranty matters” is proposed to be revised in its entirety to reflect the language in 38 U.S.C. 3730(a). Under 38 U.S.C. 3730(a), Congress authorized VA to use the services of both VA and non-VA attorneys to protect VA's interests in home loans arising from or related to VA's home loan benefit programs. The authority is subject to the direction and supervision of the United States Attorney General and to such terms and conditions as the United States Attorney General may prescribe, and nothing in section 3730 derogates from the authority of the Attorney General under sections 516 and 519 of title 28 to direct and supervise all litigation to which the United States or an agency or officer of the United States is a party. 38 U.S.C. 3730(a), (b).</P>
                <P>Proposed § 14.515(a) would essentially restate the statute. It would provide that attorneys employed by the Office of General Counsel may exercise the right of the United States to bring suit in any court of competent jurisdiction for the limited purposes authorized under 38 U.S.C. 3730. The first limited purpose would be to foreclose a loan made or acquired by the Secretary under any home loan program administered by the Veterans Benefits Administration. The second would be to recover possession of any property conveyed to the Secretary after the foreclosure of a home loan previously described.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 14.515(b) and (c) would clarify the scope of the section. Paragraph (b) would provide that to carry out the activities described in § 14.515(a), the Office of General Counsel may acquire, or oversee the acquisition and performance of, legal services provided by attorneys other than those who are employees of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Paragraph (c) would provide that the authority to bring suit also means representation in bankruptcy proceedings, as well as other activities necessary to preserve the Secretary's interest in a loan guaranteed, insured, or made under 38 U.S.C. chapter 37, or in a property acquired under such chapter. The clarifications would codify, without change, the longstanding policies and procedures VA implemented in coordination with, and subject to the supervision of, the Department of Justice.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 14.515(d) would restate the element of the statute requiring that the activities described in § 14.515 are subject to the direction and supervision of the United States Attorney General and to such terms and conditions as the United States Attorney General may prescribe. Proposed § 14.515(e) would provide that in any legal or equitable proceeding to which the Secretary is a party (including probate and bankruptcy proceedings) related to any home loan program administered by the Veterans Benefits Administration, original process and any other process prior to appearance that may be served on the Secretary must be delivered to the Office of General Counsel, 810 Vermont Ave. NW (02), Washington, DC 20420. Additionally, proposed § 14.515(e) would provide that copies of such process must also be served on the United States Attorney General and the United States Attorney having jurisdiction over that area, and that failure to comply with the requirements of proposed § 14.515(e) renders the service improper. The proposed change is necessary to reflect the Office of General Counsel's restructure, help the public understand whom to contact with questions about service of process related to the home loan programs, and further ensure timely responses to service of process. Because proposed § 14.515(e) would render 38 CFR 36.4321 obsolete, VA proposes to remove § 36.4321.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.516 “Escheat and post fund cases” includes minimal proposed edits. This section describes procedures to be followed when the Department receives assets or property under escheat, gift, or General Post Fund authorities. This section's proposed amendments include the addition of the phrase “where the assets or property are not surrendered upon entitlement” after the citation “38 U.S.C. Ch. 85” to further clarify when the Department of Veterans Affairs is entitled to possession of assets or property under the listed escheat, gifts, and General Post Fund provisions. Additionally, another amendment proposed throughout the section is to include the phrase “or entity” after “person” to clarify that the assets or property described in this section may be in possession of an entity and not a singular person in every case.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.517 “Cases affecting the Department of Veterans Affairs generally” is proposed to be amended to add the phrase “and related State and Federal agencies” to expand the entities with which the Office of General Counsel will liaise to ensure the Agency is notified of all cases involving the Department of Veterans Affairs. Additional proposed amendments include replacement of the word “insure” with “ensure” to correct a typographical error in the existing regulation and replacement of the phrase “Such information” with “Cases affecting substantial interest of the Department of Veterans Affairs.” This proposed amendment is intended to specify the types of cases that will be forwarded to the General Counsel.</P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend § 14.518 “Litigation involving beneficiaries in custody of Department of Veterans Affairs employees acting in official capacity” to reflect nomenclature changes. In paragraph (a), the phrase “field facility” is proposed to be replaced with “Department of Veterans Affairs medical facility” and in paragraphs (b)(1) and (3), the word “hospital” is proposed to be replaced with “medical facility.” In paragraph (b)(4), the Office of General Counsel proposes to replace the words “installations” and “installation” with the words “facilities” and “facility” respectively. These terminology changes are proposed to reflect the updated and most commonly used terms for medical facilities within the Department.</P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (b) in § 14.518 describes procedures for when Department employees are served with a writ of habeas corpus involving a VA beneficiary. Explanatory language is proposed to be added to paragraph (b)(3) for clarity and comprehensiveness. The term “or other representative” is proposed to be included after the phrase “Veteran's attorney” to explain that the medical facility can notify representatives other than attorneys when a Veteran is to be discharged. The addition of the phrase “subject to existence of an appropriate release authority” is proposed at the end of the second sentence to ensure that authority to release the patient has been received prior to discharge in the context of involuntary confinement of a mentally ill patient. Additional proposed amendments include the addition of hyphens to the word “self-protection” in paragraph (a) and to the word “self-
                    <PRTPAGE P="88196"/>
                    injury” in paragraph (b)(3) for grammatical reasons.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Prosecution</HD>
                <P>The title of 38 CFR 14.560 is proposed to be updated to reflect the plural of the word “crimes” so that it matches the name of the statute it is referencing. Specifically, the proposed new title will now read “Procedure where violation of penal statutes is involved including those offenses coming within the purview of the Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13).” This section includes additional proposed nomenclature changes, including to correct the spelling of the word “warrant” and, in the third sentence, to substitute “the Chief Counsel” for “he or she.”</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.561 “Administrative action prior to submission” is proposed to be amended to reflect updated citations. Specifically, the parenthetical citation in § 14.561 is proposed to be replaced with “38 U.S.C. 6103” to reflect the correct current citation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Federal Tort Claims</HD>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes multiple amendments throughout the “Federal Tort Claims” section of the regulations. Proposed amendments to § 14.600 are intended to remove outdated citations and language. This regulation provides an overview of the Federal Tort Claims Act and describes various delegations of authority for the settlement of any claim and the authority to reconsider the final denial of a claim. One proposed edit to § 14.600 is to update the title of the regulation from “Federal Tort Claims Act—general” to “Federal Tort Claims Act generally.” An additional proposed amendment in paragraph (a) is the revision of the first sentence to remove reference to 28 U.S.C. 2402, 2411 and 2412 as these citations are not helpful. Specifically, the first sentence is now proposed to state: “The Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 1291, 1346, 1402, 2401(b)), and 2671 through 2680).” In paragraph (c), the phrase “and other necessary instruments in connection therewith” is proposed to be removed as it is outdated and vague language. The phrase “or stipulation for settlement” is proposed to replace the removed language to provide more explanation regarding the authority for settlement that is delegated to the individuals listed in this paragraph. In paragraph (c)(3), the phrase “General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel, and Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group” is proposed to be replaced with “Deputy Chief Counsels, Torts Law Group” to clarify that Torts Law Group's Deputy Chief Counsels are authorized to act regarding claims, subject to the parameters described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (iii). Additionally, the phrase “but not more than $500,000” is proposed to be removed from paragraph (c)(3)(i) as it is redundant to the language in paragraph (c)(3) which describes the approval required for awards, settlements, and compromises in excess of $500,000.</P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes significant amendments to § 14.601 “Investigation and development,” a section which describes the processes for the submission, investigation, and processing of tort claims. The proposed amendments include new language to provide clearer descriptions regarding the processing of tort claims and the removal of language that exists in other regulations, is no longer applicable, or is outdated. First, the title of paragraph (a) is proposed to be changed to replace the phrase “untoward incidents” with the phrase “general tort claims” to reflect the updated language that is used by the Office of General Counsel to describe this category of tort claims.</P>
                <P>In paragraph (a)(1), the phrase “Department of Veterans Affairs” is proposed to be inserted before phrase “Government-owned vehicle” in the first sentence to specify that the procedures in this section relate to government-owned vehicles used by the Department. In the second sentence of paragraph (a)(1), additional nomenclature changes are proposed, including the replacement of the word “said” with the word “the” so that the beginning of the sentence now reads “A copy of the report.” This sentence is proposed to be amended to clarify that the SF 91 and VA Form 2162 should initially be sent to the Director of the facility involved in the motor vehicle accident.</P>
                <P>Additional amendments are proposed for paragraph (a)(2) in § 14.601 and specifically, the existing paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) are proposed to be combined and streamlined to comprise a new single paragraph in (a)(2) which outlines procedures for all property damage or loss, including that which relates to patients' personal effects. Proposed amendments to the first sentence in the newly combined paragraph (a)(2) include the insertion of the phrase “non-medical malpractice” before the term “incident” and replacement of the phrase “other than” with “including” prior to the phrase “personal effects of the patient” in the new paragraph (a)(2). The phrase “to the facility Director or designee” is added to the end of the first sentence to clarify where incidents described in this paragraph should be reported. Nomenclature changes are also proposed to reduce extraneous language, including replacement of the phrase “due apparently or allegedly to the” with the phrase “due to alleged” and replacement of the phrase “an employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs acting within the scope of his or her office of employment, or damage to or loss of Government-owned property caused by other than a Department of Veterans Affairs employee acting within the scope of his or her office ” with “a VA employee acting within the scope of their employment will be immediately reported to the facility Director or designee”</P>
                <P>The newly edited paragraph (a)(2) also includes a proposed new sentence which states: “If a claim is filed seeking damages of $5,000 or less, it will be adjudicated by the facility.” This sentence is proposed to be included to reflect the same information provided in § 14.600(c)(1) which was amended via rulemaking on October 20, 2022. To further clarify the parameters of the $5,000 settlement authority for VA facility Directors, this section is proposed to be amended to include the additional phrase: “If the claim seeks damages in excess of $5,000” prior to the phrase “the Director of the facility where such occurrence took place will promptly transmit a copy of the report.” Finally, this sentence is proposed to be amended to replace the phrase “Regional Counsel who will authorize such additional investigation as the circumstance of the case may warrant” with the phrase “Office of General Counsel Torts Law Group for investigation and adjudication.” This proposed replacement is intended to consistently reiterate that the Torts Law Group manages the investigation and adjudication of these claims. Additionally, a sentence is being added to clarify that the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group will investigate and adjudicate non-medical malpractice claims brought against the Veterans Benefits Administration and National Cemetery Administration. As these proposed amendments ensure that all of the relevant information related to the investigation and development of these types of tort claims is described in the newly proposed paragraph (a)(2), the existing paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (a)(3) and (4) are proposed to be removed.</P>
                <P>
                    The Office of General Counsel proposes to revise paragraph (b) of § 14.601 to remove language that describes outdated procedures. The existing language regarding referral to the Under Secretary for Health via the Director, Medical-Legal Affairs and the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88197"/>
                    language stating that the responsible Regional Counsel involved and the General Counsel will be guided by the views of the Under Secretary for Health does not accurately describe current procedures for the investigation and development of medical malpractice claims. As a result, these sentences are proposed to be replaced with the following statement which concisely summarizes the current process for medical malpractice claims: “All medical malpractice claims will be referred to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group for investigation and adjudication.”
                </P>
                <P>The procedures described in § 14.602, “Requests for medical information” include proposed amendments as the information in the existing regulation does not accurately reflect current processes. Specifically, the following statement in paragraph (a): “Where there is indication that a tort claim will be filed, medical records or other information shall not be released without approval of the Regional Counsel” is proposed to be removed from this regulation as it is outdated and does not accurately reflect current procedures. The statement in paragraph (b) will remain and comprise the only language in this regulation and is intended to reflect that the Department follows the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and its implementing regulations in the release of documents.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.603, “Disposition of claims” includes proposed amendments. This regulation section generally describes that a claimant's indebtedness to the Government will be included in a tort claim award. The proposed amendments include the removal of the last two sentences: “The amount of the indebtedness is for credit to the appropriation account from which the services were provided. The voucher prepared for settlement of the claim will specify the amount to be deposited to the credit of the designated account and the balance of the aware be paid to the claimant.” These statements are proposed to be removed as they include extraneous language that describes outdated procedures regarding the settlement of tort claims with debt related to unauthorized medical treatment.</P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend § 14.604, “Filing a claim” to reflect nomenclature changes and to specifically describe certain procedures regarding the filing of administrative tort claims and the processing of tort claims immediately after their receipt. In the first sentence of paragraph (a), the phrase “an alleged” before negligent or wrongful act or omission is proposed to be included to convey that the acts or omissions at issue in the claim have not been fully adjudicated by this point in the tort claim process. The phrase “a Standard Form 95 (SF 95)” is proposed to replace the phrase “SF 95” to explain the abbreviation for this document. In the second sentence in paragraph (a), the phrase “Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” is proposed to replace “Regional Counsel having jurisdiction of the area wherein the occurrence complained of took place” to reflect that after a reorganization, the Torts Law Group handles administrative tort claims for the Office of General Counsel. Language has also been added to this sentence to provide a link to a website with further instructions for submitting a claim.</P>
                <P>Additional nomenclature changes are proposed in the third and fourth sentence of § 14.604(a), including the replacement of “He or she” with “The claimant” and the replacement of “Department of Veterans Affairs” with “VA” for readability. Finally, the proposed amendment in the fourth sentence in paragraph (a) will replace the phrase “it will be forwarded to the Department of Veterans Affairs General Counsel, for appropriate action” with “the Office of General Counsel will immediately transfer the claim to the appropriate agency in accord with 28 CFR 14.2(b)(1).” This substitution is intended to accurately describe current practice when other Federal agencies may be involved in a claim.</P>
                <P>In paragraph (b) of § 14.604, the phrase “an executed SF 95” is proposed to be replaced with the phrase “a signed SF 95” for clarity. Additionally, the phrase “written notification of an incident” is proposed to be replaced with “detailed written statement of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the claim, including the time, place, and date of the accident or” in order to provide a detailed explanation to the previously vague phrase of “notification.” This section also proposes to remove the final sentence regarding the receipt of an SF-95 as it is outdated and no longer describes current procedures.</P>
                <P>Several amendments are proposed throughout § 14.605 “Suits against Department of Veterans Affairs employees arising out of a wrongful act or omission or based upon medical care and treatment furnished in or for the Veterans Health Administration” to replace outdated language and procedures. In paragraph (a)(2)(ii), the phrase “property damage” is proposed to be removed because paragraph (a)(2) describes the applicability of 38 U.S.C. 7316 which applies to personal injury, including death, and medical malpractice but does not apply to property damage. Throughout paragraph (b), the phrase “or to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” is proposed to be added to clarify that employees can provide a copy of all papers received regarding a Federal lawsuit to their local Chief Counsel or to the Torts Law Group. Additionally, the phrase “he or she” is proposed to be replaced with “the employee” in two places in this paragraph for grammatical consistency.</P>
                <P>Paragraphs (c) and (d) in § 14.605 are proposed to be amended to use the term “immunity”, rather than “representation”, “protection”, or “immunization” to clarify the protection of employees acting within the scope of their employment. Paragraph (c) is further amended to remove language that describes outdated procedures that are no longer followed when a lawsuit has been filed against a VA employee. The first sentence includes a proposed amendment to replace the phrase “the Regional Counsel having jurisdiction over the place where the employee works” with the phrase “Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” as the Torts Law Group is the group within the Office of General Counsel that conducts preliminary investigations when a lawsuit against a VA employee is filed. Additionally, the sentences which describe the submission of a preliminary report to the General Counsel, the Regional Counsel investigation, and the submission of the investigation report to the General Counsel and to the appropriate U.S. Attorney are proposed to be removed from this paragraph. These procedures are no longer followed as the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group manages the process by which a VA employee requests representation from the U.S. Attorney's Office and handles all communications with the U.S. Attorney's office. For consistency, the phrase “Regional Counsel” is proposed to be replaced with “Torts Law Group” throughout paragraph (c).</P>
                <P>
                    In paragraph (d), the phrase “local Regional Counsel” is proposed to be replaced with “Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” and the last two sentences in this paragraph are proposed to be combined for nomenclature changes and readability. In paragraph (e), the phrase “specifically excluded under the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 2680(h)” is proposed to be replaced with “otherwise not actionable under the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88198"/>
                    Federal Tort Claims Act” for readability and clarity. A misspelling in paragraph (e) is proposed to be corrected to read “cognizable.” Finally, the term “immunization” is proposed to be replaced with “immunity” in both paragraphs (c) and (d) for grammatical reasons.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Administrative Settlement of Tort Claims Arising in Foreign Countries</HD>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes amendments to §§ 14.615 through 14.617, “Administrative Settlement of Tort Claims Arising in Foreign Countries” to remove or correct outdated or inaccurate information. The language in § 14.615 “General” provides general information for filing tort claims involving the Department that arise in foreign countries. One amendment is proposed in paragraph (a) to remove the word “abroad” from the end of the sentence due to redundancy.</P>
                <P>Significant amendments are proposed in § 14.616, “Form and place of filing claim.” This section outlines specific instructions for how claimants can submit a tort claim when the events described in the claim arose in a foreign country and involve the Department. Paragraph (a) includes a proposed amendment to combine the first two sentences and to remove the redundant phrase “sworn statement,” the outdated language of “submitted in duplicate” and “original copy of the claim,” and the vague phrase “at least.” Additional new language is proposed to provide guidance regarding the submission of a Standard Form 95 as the way to submit a claim in compliance with the instructions in the regulation. As a result of these revisions, the proposed new combined sentence in paragraph (a) will now read: “Claims arising under 38 U.S.C. 515(b) will be submitted on a Standard Form 95 or prepared in the form of a statement sworn to or affirmed before an official with authority to administer oaths or affirmations and will contain the following information . . .”</P>
                <P>Additional nomenclature changes are proposed for § 14.616(a)(8) for readability and clarity purposes. The specific proposed edits include the removal of the word “official,” the addition of “(s)” to the word “employee,” and the addition of the phrase “Department of Veterans Affairs” after United States. The paragraph (a)(10) is proposed to be removed to reflect that claimants do not need to indicate the law applicable to a tort claim when they file a claim. As a result of the proposed removal of paragraph (a)(10), paragraph (a)(9) will now conclude this section.</P>
                <P>Amendments in paragraph (b) of § 14.616 include the proposed addition of the phrase “or submitted directly to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” at the end of the first sentence to provide an additional option for submission of claims as the Torts Law Group handles the processing and investigations of tort claims for the Department. Paragraph (c)(1) is proposed to be amended by replacing the phrase “the like will, if possible, be obtained from disinterested parties” with the phrase “documented evidence of the damages must accompany the claim.” This proposed amendment is intended to remove the vague phrase “the like” and to clarify the specific documents that should be submitted for this type of claim. The Office of General Counsel also proposes to amend the second and third sentences of paragraph (c)(1) for readability and to remove outdated terms that reflect procedures related to the processing of paper copies of claims that are no longer utilized. Specifically, paragraph (c)(1) is proposed to be amended to replace the existing phrases “All evidence will be submitted in duplicate” and “Original evidence or certified copies shall be attached to the original copy of the claim, and simple copies shall be attached to the other copy of the claim” with the newly proposed sentence: “All evidence and certified copies must be attached to the original claim.” Finally, the last sentence of this section is proposed to be amended to replace the word “will” with the word “must” to clarify that English translations are required to be included with the claim so that there is no dispute regarding the language that describes the claim.</P>
                <P>The only proposed amendment in paragraph (c)(2) of § 14.616 is the replacement of the phrase “the like” with the phrase “any other relevant evidence” for clarity and nomenclature reasons. The Office of General Counsel also proposes to delete paragraph (c)(5) “Damage to crops” as it is redundant to the prior paragraphs which outline procedures related to claims for property damage.</P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend § 14.617 “Disposition of Claims” to clarify the requirements of administrative tort claims in the Philippines and in countries other than the Philippines. This section provides guidance for how claims in foreign countries should be routed when received by employees of the Department or other employees of the Federal Government. Paragraph (a) includes a proposed amendment to remove the phrases “including a complete investigation report and a brief resume of applicable law” and “together with a recommendation as to disposition” to clarify that the facility does not need to send an investigation report, a summary of applicable law, or a recommendation of a disposition of the claim. These amendments are proposed to more accurately reflect the current process and procedures which describe the Office of General Counsel's Torts Law Group as the entity which prepares the investigation report, researches the applicable law, and proposes a disposition for the claim. The phrase “Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group” is proposed to be included after the existing phrase “will be forwarded directly by the Director to the” to clarify the central role of the Torts Law Group in this process.</P>
                <P>Further amendments are proposed for paragraph (b) to include the removal of the phrase “including a resume of applicable law and a recommendation regarding allowance or disallowance of the claim” as this language is outdated and does not reflect current procedures or practice. As stated previously, current practice does not involve the submission of a review of applicable law and a recommendation regarding the disposition of the claim by staff at the relevant American Embassy or Consulate. Finally, this section is amended to include “Torts Law Group, Office of” prior to “General Counsel, Department of Veterans Affairs, Washington, DC” as the Torts Law Group is the group within the Office of General Counsel that coordinates administrative tort claims from foreign countries other than the Philippines.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Claims for Damage to or Loss of Government Property</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of General Counsel proposes multiple amendments to the section of regulations that govern claims for damage to or loss of government property. Specifically, § 14.618 “Collection action” includes proposed amendments to reflect nomenclature changes and other minor edits. Proposed amendments to paragraph (a) include replacement of the phrase “Regional Counsel” with “Office of General Counsel” and inclusion of the phrase “or appropriate VA designee” before the phrase “will request payment in full.” This proposed amendment is intended to reflect that individuals other than those employed by the Office of General Counsel may request payment or other appropriate relief from the individual responsible for the damage to or loss of Government property. An additional proposed amendment includes the replacement of the phrases “amount of” and “liable 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88199"/>
                    therefore or such person's insurer” with new language to clarify available relief. Specifically, the proposed new language after the comma would read: “the Office of General Counsel or appropriate VA designee will request payment in full or other appropriate relief for the damage or loss from the responsible person or entity.” The proposed language is intended to clearly describe in plain terms that the Office of General Counsel or designee will seek reimbursement or other relief from the person responsible for damage to or loss of Government property.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (b) of § 14.618 includes additional proposed amendments. The proposed edits include the replacement of “Regional” with “Office of General” and the addition of the phrase “or designee” after Counsel to indicate individuals other than those in the Office of General Counsel may collect, compromise, suspend, or terminate a collection action. This sentence is further proposed to be amended to update outdated citations and specifically, replace “§ 2.6(e)(4)(ii)” with “§ 2.6(e)(4)” and replace “§ 1.900 series” with “§ 1.900 
                    <E T="03">et seq.”</E>
                     The second sentence is proposed to be amended to replace the phrase “and does not exceed $100,000, will be referred by the Regional Counsel” with the language “may be referred” to reflect that not all of these cases are automatically referred to the United States Attorney's Office. The phrase “U.S. attorney along with the information required by §§ 1.951” is proposed to be replaced with “United States Attorney's Office, in accordance with §§ 1.950” to spell out the abbreviation for United States and to correct an outdated citation. Finally, the last sentence in paragraph (b) that begins with “Any claim in excess of $100,000” and the entirety of paragraphs (c) and (d) are proposed to be removed. This language is proposed to be removed as it is redundant with existing language in § 2.6 and § 14.619 and does not reflect current practices or procedures.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Claims for the Costs of Medical Care and Services</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule proposes to revise § 14.619, “Collection Action” to update references to other offices, remove obsolete material and references, and clarify and streamline policies and procedures. The Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (“FMCRA”), 42 U.S.C. 2651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and 38 U.S.C. 1729 authorize the Department to recover from third parties the costs of medical care or services furnished or to be furnished to an individual by the Department or paid for or to be paid for on behalf of an individual by the Department. In the proposed rule, the Office of General Counsel would revise § 14.619, which establishes the Office of General Counsel's ability to assert a claim, and authorize the Office of the General Counsel to collect, compromise suspend, or terminate collection activity as well as to refer cases to the Department of Justice to protect the government's interest. This rulemaking proposes to amend § 14.619 to clarify VA's right of recovery under 42 U.S.C. 2651 and 38 U.S.C. 1729, as well as to further clarify individual's duty to notify and cooperate with VA, and to describe legal remedies to effect recovery. Paragraph (a) is proposed to be amended to include definitions of the terms “Responsible Official”, “third party” and “individual” as well as to define medical care or services for which the Department may recover.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (b) is proposed to be amended to clarify the duty of Veterans, Veteran beneficiaries and those individuals acting on their behalf to furnish requested information, notify VA of settlements and offers of settlement and cooperate with prosecution of all claims and actions by the United States against third persons under the authority delegated by the Secretary to the Office of General Counsel. 
                    <E T="03">See,</E>
                     38 CFR 2.6(e)(3) and (9) as well as the authority under 28 CFR 43.1 and 43.2. A new paragraph (c) is proposed to be added to clarify assertion of claims on behalf of the United States, and the calculation of charges in accordance with Federal law and the implementing regulations cited. A new paragraph (d) is proposed to be added to clarify the authority to collect, compromise, settle, or waive any claim, and defines the information necessary for a request to compromise or waive a claim. This new paragraph (d) also clarifies that claims cannot be compromised in consideration of private attorneys' fees. Finally, a new paragraph (e) is proposed to provide a non-exhaustive list of legal remedies to effect recovery of a claim asserted under this section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Personnel Claims</HD>
                <P>Additional amendments are proposed for the regulations in the “Personnel Claims” section to reflect nomenclature changes and substantive updates. These regulations describe procedures for managing claims made by Department employees for damage to or loss of employees' personal property incident to their employment. The language in § 14.664 “Scope of authority and effective date” is proposed to be amended to replace the reference to “Pub L. 88 558 (78 Stat. 767), approved August 31, 1964, as amended” with the updated citation of “The Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act (MPCECA) of 1964, 31 U.S.C. 3721”. The phrase “for not more than” is proposed to be replaced with “not to exceed” for clarity and the phrase “civilian officer or” is proposed to be removed as the differentiation between civilian and non-civilian officers is not applicable to VA. This section is also proposed to be amended to replace the phrase “Deputy General Counsel, Assistant General Counsel (Professional Staff Group III), and the Deputy Assistant General Counsel, of said staff group and the Regional Counsel” with the new phrase “the Principal Deputy General Counsel, the Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, and the Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group.” This amendment is proposed to reflect the updated names of positions in the Office of General Counsel and to clarify where these claims should be investigated. Additionally, this proposed amendment is intended to reflect that OGC's Torts Law Group handles MPCECA claims as a result of a recent reorganization. Similar amendments are proposed throughout this section to reflect that change, including elimination of the reference to “appropriate Regional Counsel” in what was 14.665(c), and substitution of the phrase “Torts Law Group” for “Regional Counsel having jurisdiction” in 14.666(a) and in other references to “Regional Counsel” in the Title and paragraphs (a) and (b) in 14.666.</P>
                <P>
                    In § 14.665 “Claims,” the phrase “in writing” is proposed to be removed from the first sentence as it is outdated. Additionally, the phrase “or VA Form 4629, Claim for Reimbursement for Damaged or Destroyed Personal Property for property destroyed or damaged by a patient while the employee was engaged in the performance of official duties” is proposed to be added to the first sentence to explain that an additional form can be used to submit a claim under MPCECA. The second sentence is proposed to be revised to state that “The form will be submitted to the facility Director or designee of the VA facility where the claim originates within 2 years after the incident that caused the loss or damage, or after the employee discovers the loss or damage.” These revisions are intended to remove an outdated reference to “personnel” and to remove reference to language regarding armed conflicts and other 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88200"/>
                    military-related language that is not applicable to VA. This section includes further proposed revisions to remove reference to officer in the third sentence and to replace the phrases “the surviving spouse, children, father or mother or both, or brothers or sisters or both” with the phrase “the employee's survivors in the following order of precedence: spouse, child, parent, or sibling” for clarity. As a result of this revision, the sentence “Claims of survivors shall be settled and paid in the order named” is proposed to be removed as it is redundant to the prior phrase “order of precedence.”
                </P>
                <P>Paragraphs (b) and (c) are proposed to be combined into one new paragraph (b), which would include multiple proposed revisions to explain responsibility for investigation and evaluation of the merits of these claims. The newly combined paragraph (b) includes edits to the first sentence which is proposed to begin with the following phrase: “The VA facility Director or designee receiving the claim will ascertain if such claim is complete.” The last sentence in the newly combined paragraph (b) starting with the phrase “The completed investigation” is proposed to be removed as it describes an outdated process that does not reflect current procedures. Finally, this section is proposed to be revised to update the citation to 38 U.S.C. 703(e) in paragraph (a)(4).</P>
                <P>Significant revisions are proposed in § 14.666 to reflect that Torts Law Group is the OGC office which now handles or may be consulted regarding these claims. The first paragraph is revised to include the new language of: “Torts Law Group is available for consultation if requested and as needed by the facility's human resources office.” The second sentence is proposed to be revised to explain when additional investigation by Torts Law Group may be necessary by including the following proposed additional language at the beginning of the second sentence: “If, after consultation from the investigating facility or with the Torts Law Group, it is determined by the Torts Law Group that the facts or amount in controversy requires further input or investigation from the Torts Law Group.” The sentence beginning with the phrase “If the claimant has a potential claim for indemnification” is proposed to be removed as the description of the potential claims against “other than the United States” appears to relate to military personnel and is not applicable to VA. The last sentence is proposed to be revised to include the phrase “Torts Law Group may be consulted to” before the phrase “ascertain that the claimant has filed a timely proper claim” to clarify that Torts Law Group's involvement is not required unless requested by the relevant facility.</P>
                <P>Finally, the language in paragraph (b) is proposed to be removed as not all MPCECA claims are sent to Torts Law Group for review and thus, input regarding payments of claims is not needed.</P>
                <P>In § 14.667 “Claims payable,” the phrase “and does not exceed $40,000” is proposed to be added to the end of the sentence in paragraph (a)(1) to reflect the maximum amount that can be paid for an MPCECA claim per the statutory language in 31 U.S.C. 3721. The language in paragraph (a)(3) “Did not occur at quarters occupied within the 50 States or the District of Columbia that were not assigned to the claimant or otherwise provided in kind by the United States” is proposed to be removed as this language is applicable to military quarters and is not relevant to VA. New replacement language in paragraph (a)(3) is proposed to state “The claim is substantiated by proper and convincing evidence” as this language is specifically mentioned in the current policy on MPCECA claims. Paragraph (a)(4) includes nomenclature changes for clarity and consistency including adding the phrase “or wrongful” before the phrase “act of the claimant” and deleting “or employee.” Finally, reference to 38 U.S.C. 703(a)(5) (§ 17.78 of this chapter) is proposed to be replaced with 38 U.S.C. 703(e) to reflect the accurate citation.</P>
                <P>Amendments are proposed for § 14.668 “Disposition of claims,” including in paragraph (b)(1) to add the phrase “(where applicable)” after the “Reimbursement in kind” as Torts Law Group is not authorized to process or permit “in kind” reimbursements. This paragraph is further proposed to be revised to replace the phrase “request the Director, Supply Service, Veterans Health Services and Research Administration, to procure” with the phrase “facilitate the procurement of” as the position references in the current regulation are outdated. Paragraph (b)(2) is proposed to be revised to replace outdated phrases and terms including substituting the word “payment” for the word “check,” the phrase “Fiscal office” for “Finance activity,” and the phrase “facility” for “installation.” Similarly, the phrases “on SF 1166, Voucher and Schedule of Payments” and “Regional Disbursing Office” are proposed to be removed from paragraph (b)(2) as these terms are outdated and do not reflect current processes. The last phrase of the section is proposed to read “forwarded to the appropriate office for payment” to concisely describe this part of the process.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.669 “Fees of agents or attorneys; penalty” is proposed to include significant revisions including a new phrase at the beginning of the section which states, “Notwithstanding a contract, the representative of a claimant may not receive more than” to replace the prior redundant phrasing starting with “The Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act of 1964.” Additional nomenclature changes are proposed in this sentence for clarity and readability to include replacement of the phrase “amount paid in settlement” with the word “payment,” and removal of the phrases “each individual” and “and settled.” Further, the phrase starting with “the Act shall be paid” is proposed to be replaced with the citation for the Act “31 U.S.C. 3721” and the phrase “rendered in connection with that claim” is proposed to be replaced with the phrase “related to the claim.” Finally, the last sentence is proposed to be replaced with the following sentence “A person violating this provision shall be fined not more than $1,000” for readability and clarity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Testimony of Department Personnel and Production of Department Records in Legal Proceedings</HD>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel also proposes amendments to the set of regulations which govern the testimony of Department employees and production of Department records in certain legal proceedings as defined in the regulations.</P>
                <P>In § 14.801 “Applicability,” the regulation which defines who these procedures apply to and in which situations, multiple changes are proposed to improve readability. Specifically, the following changes are proposed: (1) in paragraph (b)(2)(i), the word “or” is replaced with “and”; (2) in paragraph (b)(3), the word “personnel's” is replaced with the word “individual's;” (3) in paragraph (c)(2), the phrase “in appropriate cases” is removed as it is vague and undefined language; and (4) in paragraph (c)(3), the phrase “as to them” is deleted in the parenthetical to remove extraneous and confusing language.</P>
                <P>
                    Additional amendments are proposed to § 14.802 “Definitions,” which defines terms that are used throughout this regulation. Specifically, in paragraph (c), the phrase “official of the VA” is proposed to be replaced with “VA official” to reduce extraneous language. The proposed change to paragraph (f) will update the reference to “televised 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88201"/>
                    or videotaped testimony” to “video or video recorded testimony.” Additionally, the Office of General Counsel proposes to include a new definition in paragraph (h) to define “Designated VA Official.” The new language is proposed to state: “(h) Designated VA Official. VA official authorized to make the determinations provided in § 14.807. Other than for personnel in the Office of the Inspector General (OIG), the General Counsel or their designee is the Designated VA Official. For personnel in the OIG, the Counselor to the Inspector General or an attorney designated by the Counselor to the Inspector General, is the Designated VA Official authorized to make the determinations provided in § 14.807, and that official will keep the General Counsel informed of such determinations for purposes of litigation or claims of privilege.” The proposed addition of this definition in paragraph (h) is intended to ensure that the official authorized to make determinations provided in § 14.807 is specifically named and described. The use of this specific title of “Designated VA Official” is intended to promote uniformity and consistency throughout this set of regulations.
                </P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend § 14.803 “Policy” for readability, coherence, and consistency. This regulation establishes the Department's policy regarding requests for documents and testimony. That policy is to comply with the requests as authorized in accordance with these regulations and not otherwise inhibit employees' access to the courts as citizens or in their private capacities or to deny Veterans' access to the courts. Specifically, in paragraph (a), the phrase “the determining official” is proposed to be replaced with “Designated VA Official” as this is the individual defined and referred to in § 14.802(h). This paragraph includes additional proposed amendments including modifying and moving the phrase “testifying or producing records will have on the ability of the agency or VA personnel to perform their official duties” from the end of the sentence to the middle of the sentence. As a result of this proposed amendment, the sentence will now end with the phrase “as well as in future cases generally, based on the factors set forth in § 14.804.”</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.804, “Factors to consider” includes one proposed nomenclature amendment for consistency purposes. This regulation lists the specific factors that the Designated VA Official uses when determining whether to approve or deny a request for documents or testimony made under these regulations. The first sentence is proposed to be amended to replace the phrase “VA personnel responsible for making the decision” with “the Designated VA Official” for consistency with the rest of the regulations in this section.</P>
                <P>Additional proposed amendments are included in § 14.805 “Contents of a demand or request,” a regulation which addresses the information that should be included in any demand or request for testimony or documents sent to the Department under these regulations. Specifically, the phrase “if that is not feasible, in, or accompanied by” is proposed to be removed as it is extraneous language and the phrase “a summary” is proposed to be replaced with the word “summarizing.” This section is proposed to be further amended to insert a period after the phrase “legal proceedings” and the new proposed sentence after the period will start with the phrase “The affidavit or written statement shall contain.” These proposed changes are intended to improve readability and coherence.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.807 “Procedure when demand or request is made” is proposed to be amended for readability, coherence, and nomenclature. This section describes the procedures that VA employees should follow when a demand or request for testimony or records is received and includes instructions for notifying leadership, the Designated VA Official, and the Department of Justice, and guidelines for interacting with a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority. In paragraph (a), the phrase “is made” is proposed to be moved to before “in connection with legal proceedings” for readability. The second sentence proposes to replace “responsible VA official designated in § 14.807(b)” with “Office of General Counsel” to reflect current procedures that involve the Office of General Counsel as the central point of contact responsible for managing these types of requests and demands.</P>
                <P>In paragraph (b) of § 14.807, the phrase beginning with “In response to a demand or request for the production of records or the testimony of VA personnel, other than personnel in the Office of the Inspector General (OIG)” is proposed to be replaced with “The Designated VA Official shall” as that is the individual specifically designated in § 14.802(h) to make the determinations regarding testimony provided or documents produced in these matters. The second sentence beginning with “For personnel in the OIG” is proposed to be removed as this information is now addressed in the proposed definition for “Designated VA Official” in § 14.802(h).</P>
                <P>Additional changes are proposed in § 14.807(f). The last sentence in paragraph (e) is proposed to be amended to begin with the phrase “However, if directed by the Designated VA Official.” As a result of this new language, the word “however” is proposed to be deleted before the phase “the affected VA personnel” to avoid redundancy. The word “however” in paragraph (f)(1) and the word “then” in paragraph (f)(2) are proposed to be removed for readability.</P>
                <P>The language in § 14.808 is proposed to be amended for nomenclature, clarity, and consistency purposes. This regulation provides procedures for the approval of testimony, the management of court orders for testimony, and the appropriate responses for expert or opinion testimony about official VA information, subjects, or activities, when such testimony was not previously approved. The specific proposed amendments include changing the title of § 14.808 to include the phrase “or fact” so that the new title would read “Expert, opinion, or fact testimony.” This amendment is intended to describe the contents of this section more accurately. In the second sentence in paragraph (a), the phrase “responsible VA official designated in § 14.807(b)” is proposed to be replaced with the term “Designated VA Official” as that is the individual defined in the proposed § 14.802(h) who authorizes testimony or the production of documents under this regulation. The word “however” is proposed to be moved from the middle of the last sentence to the beginning of the sentence such that the last sentence would start with the phrase: “However, if directed by.”</P>
                <P>
                    A new paragraph (e) is proposed to be included in § 14.808 to address fact testimony and it would state: “If an employee is authorized to give fact witness testimony in a legal proceeding not involving the United States, the testimony, if otherwise proper, shall be limited to facts within the personal knowledge of the employee that are not classified, privileged, or protected from disclosure under applicable law or regulation. If asked to provide factual testimony that the employee believes may be classified, privileged, or protected from disclosure under applicable law or regulation, then the witness shall: (1) Respectfully decline to answer on the grounds that such testimony is prohibited; and (2) Request an opportunity to consult with the Designated VA Official.” This proposed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88202"/>
                    language is intended to provide more specific guidance regarding the scope of fact testimony that VA employees are authorized to provide and instructions on how to handle questions that may solicit fact testimony that is unauthorized due to an applicable law or regulation.
                </P>
                <P>The Office of General Counsel proposes to amend the language in § 14.810, “Fees,” which provides guidance regarding the fees VA may charge when testimony is authorized and provided under these regulations. In paragraph (a), the phrase “particularly as expert witnesses” is proposed to be removed from the first sentence to reduce confusion regarding the applicability of this section as it applies to all testimony and not just expert testimony. The third sentence is proposed to be amended to remove the extraneous phrasing of “establish a” and “for providing.” The newly proposed sentence states: “Consequently, these are the sort of services for which VA may charge under 31 U.S.C. 9701.”</P>
                <P>The next sentence in § 14.810(a) is also proposed to be re-written to remove extraneous words and improve clarity by referencing fees associated with the Department's FOIA regulation at 38 CFR 1.561. Specifically, the existing sentence “The responsible VA official will determine all fees associated with §§ 14.800 through 14.810, and shall timely notify the requester of the fees, particularly those which are to be paid in advance” is proposed to be replaced with: “Where a determination is made to comply with the demand, order or request pursuant 38 CFR 14.807(e) or 14.808, the Designated VA Official will calculate fees consistent with 38 CFR 1.561(d), (f) through (l) and shall timely notify the requester of the fees, particularly those which are to be paid in advance.” An additional new sentence is proposed in this paragraph to provide specific guidance for how fees should be calculated for requesters in the context of the FOIA and the Department's corresponding regulations. That proposed new sentence would state: “For purposes of calculating fees all requesters under §§ 14.800 through 14.810 will be considered Commercial Use Requesters as defined by 38 CFR 1.561(c)(1).”</P>
                <P>Additional amendments are proposed for paragraph (b)(1) which specifically outlines the types of costs that may be included in the fees charged to the requester under these regulations. Specifically, paragraph (b)(1) is proposed to be amended to delete the phrase “in whole or in part as to expert, opinion or policy matters” as this language is now redundant to language in prior sections. More language is proposed to be added in this paragraph to clarify that fees may be assessed for preparing the witness for testimony. Specifically, the phrase “preparing and” and the phrase “for testimony” are proposed to be added so that the proposed new sentence now reads: “When a request is granted under § 14.808 to permit VA personnel to testify, the requester shall pay to the government a fee calculated to reimburse the cost of preparing and providing the witness for testimony.”</P>
                <P>Additional amendments are proposed for the lower-level paragraphs within paragraph (b)(1). One proposed amendment, in paragraph (b)(1)(i), is the addition of the word “order” after “demand” to reference the potential for court orders for testimony which may be managed in accordance with these regulations. Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) is proposed to be removed in its entirety as its description of charges for attorney time expended in reviewing the demand or request is redundant to the information provided in paragraph (b)(1)(i). The existing language in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) regarding expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for and copy responsive information is also proposed to be removed as it is redundant to the information provided in paragraph (b)(1)(i) and is also covered in the newly proposed language in paragraph (a) regarding the calculation of fees in accordance with § 1.561. Due to the proposed removal of the existing language in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii), amended language from the existing paragraph (b)(1)(iv) is proposed to be moved to (b)(1)(ii) so that the new paragraph (b)(1)(ii) now reads “the cost of the time expended to prepare the witness to testify.” The existing language in paragraph (b)(1)(v) is also proposed to be amended to change sentence structure and be moved to paragraph (b)(1)(iii). The language in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) is proposed to read: “Travel costs for VA personnel associated with providing testimony.”</P>
                <P>In paragraph (b)(2), the phrase “necessary for such expert testimony” is proposed to be removed as the scope of this section applies to all requested testimony and not just expert testimony. Paragraph (f)(3) is proposed to be amended to add the phrase “in accordance with General Services Administration (GSA) policy” to clarify that GSA policy must be followed with regard to the rates for travel and per diem that will be funded by the requesting party.</P>
                <P>Finally, the phrase “responsible VA official” has been replaced with “Designated VA Official” throughout §§ 14.805 through 14.810. In §§ 14.802, 14.807, and 14.810, the word “the” is proposed to be deleted before “VA” for consistency. In §§ 14.800 through 14.810, the phrase “this part” has been replaced with “§§ 14.800 through 14.810” for specificity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Secretary hereby certifies that this proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612). The factual basis for this certification is because this proposed rulemaking is merely internal to VA and does not involve any actions and/or processing by small entities. Therefore, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604 do not apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Orders 12866, 13563 and 14094</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) directs agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 14094 (Executive Order on Modernizing Regulatory Review) supplements and reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing contemporary regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866 of September 30, 1993 (Regulatory Planning and Review), and Executive Order 13563 of January 18, 2011 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review). The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094. The Regulatory Impact Analysis associated with this rulemaking can be found as a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88203"/>
                    supporting document at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assistance Listing</HD>
                <P>There are no Assistance Listing numbers and titles for the programs affected by this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. This proposed rule will have no such effect on State, local, and Tribal governments, or on the private sector.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>38 CFR Part 14</CFR>
                    <P> Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Courts, Foreign Relations, Government employees, Lawyers, Legal services, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds, Trusts and trustees, Veterans.</P>
                    <CFR>38 CFR Part 36</CFR>
                    <P>Condominiums, Housing, Individuals with disabilities, Loan programs—housing and community development, Loan programs—Indians, Loan programs—veterans, Manufactured homes, Mortgage insurance, Veterans.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority:</HD>
                <P>Denis McDonough, Secretary of Veterans Affairs, approved and signed this document on October 8, 2024, and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Luvenia Potts,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regulation Development Coordinator, Office of Regulation Policy &amp; Management, Office of General Counsel, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Department of Veterans Affairs proposes to amend 38 CFR parts 14 and 36 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 14—LEGAL SERVICES, GENERAL COUNSEL, AND MISCELLANEOUS CLAIMS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 14 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 5 U.S.C. 301; 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 501(a), 512, 515, 3730, 5502, 5901-5905; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise and republish §§ 14.500 through 14.502 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.500</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Functions and responsibilities of the General Counsel.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The General Counsel is responsible to the Secretary for the following:</P>
                    <P>(a) All litigation arising in, or out of, the activities of the Department of Veterans Affairs or involving any employee thereof in their official capacity.</P>
                    <P>(b) All interpretative legal advice involving construction or application of laws, including statutes, regulations, and decisional as well as common law.</P>
                    <P>(c) All legal services, advice and assistance required to implement any law administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                    <P>(d) All delegations of authority and professional guidance required to meet these responsibilities.</P>
                    <P>(e) Maintenance of a system of offices capable of providing legal advice and assistance to all Department of Veterans Affairs organizations and acting for the General Counsel as provided by Department of Veterans Affairs Regulations and instructions, or as directed by the General Counsel in special cases. This includes cooperation with U.S. Attorneys in all civil and criminal cases pertaining to the Department of Veterans Affairs and reporting to the U.S. Attorneys, as authorized, or to the General Counsel, or both, criminal matters coming to the attention of a Chief Counsel.</P>
                    <P>(f) Other matters as assigned.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.501</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Functions and responsibilities of Chief Counsels.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) Functions and responsibilities of the Chief Counsels are those set forth in this part and all other matters assigned by the General Counsel.</P>
                    <P>(b) In any matter within the jurisdiction of the General Counsel, delegated or otherwise assigned, the Chief Counsel, Deputy Chief Counsels, and designated staff attorneys are authorized to conduct investigations, examine witnesses, take affidavits, administer oaths and affirmations, and certify copies of public or private documents.</P>
                    <P>(c) The Chief Counsel is authorized to, and shall, under the guidance of the General Counsel, provide legal services, advice, and assistance to Department of Veterans Affairs organizations within their geographic area of responsibility and/or legal practice area of responsibility. In any area of regulatory, assigned, or delegated responsibility, the Chief Counsel may delegate to staff members or other Department of Veterans Affairs attorneys authorized to perform, to the extent specified, any legal function under the professional direction of the Chief Counsel. Conversely, the Chief Counsel may modify, suspend, or rescind any authority delegated hereunder.</P>
                    <P>(d) The Chief Counsel is authorized to cooperate with affiliated organizations, legislative committees, and with local and State bar associations to the end that any State law deficiencies relating to Department of Veterans Affairs operations may be removed. No commitment as to proposed legislation will be made without the approval of the General Counsel.</P>
                    <P>(e) In any case wherein the Chief Counsel is authorized to take legal action and payment of costs and necessary expenses incident thereto are involved, the administration requesting such action will pay such cost and expenses.</P>
                    <P>
                        (f) Chief Counsels whose responsibilities are defined by the geographic area served by their offices are “District Chief Counsels”. The locations and jurisdictions of the District Chief Counsels can be found here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OGC/DistrictOffices.asp.</E>
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.502</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Requests for legal opinions from Central Office.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>A request for formal legal advice, including interpretation of law or regulations, shall be made only by the Secretary, the Deputy Secretary, an Under Secretary, an Assistant Secretary, a Deputy Assistant Secretary, or the official having jurisdiction over the particular subject matter, or by a subordinate acting for any such official.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§§ 14.503 and 14.504</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Removed]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. Remove §§ 14.503 and 14.504.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>4. Revise and republish §§ 14.505 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.505</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Submissions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>All submissions for formal legal advice described in § 14.502 will set forth the question of law underlying the opinion requested, together with a complete and accurate summary of relevant facts. Files, correspondence, and other relevant documents should be attached as exhibits to the submission.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Revise and republish § 14.507 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.507</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Opinions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">General.</E>
                         When requested under § 14.502 or when determined necessary or appropriate, the General Counsel, another official so authorized by the General Counsel, or the Principal Deputy General Counsel when acting as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88204"/>
                        or performing the duties of the General Counsel, may issue a written legal opinion designated as a “precedent opinion,” a “conclusory opinion,” or an “advisory opinion” regarding any issue of law affecting programs or operations of the Department of Veterans Affairs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Precedent opinions.</E>
                         A written legal opinion of the General Counsel involving Veterans' benefits under laws administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs which, in the judgment of the General Counsel or the Principal Deputy General Counsel acting as or for the General Counsel, necessitates regulatory change, interprets a statute or regulation as a matter of first impression, clarifies or modifies a prior opinion, or is otherwise of significance beyond the matter at issue, may be designated a “precedent opinion” for purposes of such benefits. The designated holdings in written legal opinions designated as precedent opinions under this section shall be considered by the Department of Veterans Affairs to be subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1). The holdings in an opinion designated as a precedent opinion are binding on Department officials and employees in subsequent matters involving a legal issue decided in the precedent opinion, unless there has been a material change in a controlling statute or regulation, the opinion has been overruled or modified by a subsequent precedent opinion or judicial decision, or the opinion has been withdrawn.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Conclusive opinions.</E>
                         The designated holdings in written legal opinions designated as conclusive opinions under this section shall be considered by the Department of Veterans Affairs to be subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2). The holdings in an opinion designated as a conclusive opinion are binding as to all Department officials and employees with respect to the particular matter at issue, unless there has been a material change in controlling statute or regulation; the opinion has been overruled or modified by a subsequent precedent opinion, applicable conclusive opinion, or judicial decision; or the opinion has been withdrawn.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Advisory opinions.</E>
                         An advisory opinion is not binding on Department personnel, but generally is issued to provide legal guidance or recommendations to Department officials.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Scope of this section.</E>
                         This section pertains only to opinions issued by the General Counsel or designee as described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Nothing in this section is intended to preclude the Office of General Counsel or any employees thereof from issuing informal legal opinions or providing legal guidance within the Department in any appropriate format.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Other matters.</E>
                         Written legal opinions described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section that are executed by the General Counsel will be maintained by the Office of General Counsel. Where such opinions involve Veterans' benefits under laws administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs and pertain to a particular individual's claim, such opinions will be filed in the individual claim folder in addition to being maintained by the Office of General Counsel.
                    </P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>6. Revise and republish § 14.514 through 14.518 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.514</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Suits by or against United States or Department of Veterans Affairs officials; indemnification of Department of Veterans Affairs employees.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Suits against United States or Department of Veterans Affairs officials.</E>
                         When a suit involving any activities of the Department of Veterans Affairs is filed against the United States or the Secretary or a suit is filed against any employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs in which is involved any official action of the employee, not covered by the provisions of §§ 14.600 through 14.617, a copy of the complaint will be forwarded to the General Counsel, who will take necessary action to obtain the pertinent facts, cooperate with or receive the cooperation of the Department of Justice and, where indicated, advise the Chief Counsel of any further action required.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Counsel and representation of employees.</E>
                         The Department of Justice may afford counsel and representation to Government employees who are sued individually as a result of the performance of their official duties. A civil action commenced in a State court against an employee, as the result of an action under color of their office, may be removed to the applicable Federal District Court. If a suit is filed against an employee as the result of the performance of their official duties, where the provisions of either 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316 are not applicable (see § 14.610), and the employee desires to be represented by the U.S. Attorney, the Chief Counsel will obtain a written request to this effect from the employee and will also obtain an affidavit of the facility Director (or equivalent position) describing the incident in sufficient detail to enable a determination to be made as to whether the employee was in the scope of their employment at the time. These statements, together with a copy of the complaint and a summary of pertinent facts, will be sent to the General Counsel, who will transmit copies thereof to the Department of Justice for appropriate action.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Indemnification.</E>
                         (1) The Department of Veterans Affairs may indemnify a Department of Veterans Affairs employee who is personally named as a defendant in any civil suit in State or Federal court or an arbitration proceeding or other proceeding seeking damages against the employee personally, where either 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316 is not applicable, for any verdict, judgment, or other monetary award which is rendered against such employee; provided that: the alleged conduct giving rise to the verdict, judgment, or award was taken within the scope of their employment and that such indemnification is in the interest of the Department of Veterans Affairs, as determined by the Secretary or their designee.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) The Department of Veterans Affairs may settle or compromise a personal damage claim against a Department of Veterans Affairs employee, in cases where the provisions of either 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316 are not applicable, by the payment of available funds, at any time; provided that: the alleged conduct giving rise to the personal damage claim was taken within the employee's scope of employment and that such settlement or compromise is in the interest of the Department of Veterans Affairs, as determined by the Secretary or their designee.</P>
                    <P>(3) Absent exceptional circumstances as determined by the Secretary or their designee, the Agency will not entertain a request either to agree to indemnify or to settle a personal damage claim before entry of an adverse verdict, judgment, or award.</P>
                    <P>
                        (4) A Department of Veterans Affairs employee may request indemnification to satisfy a verdict, judgment, or award entered against that employee. The employee shall submit a written request, with appropriate documentation including copies of the verdict, judgment, award, or settlement proposal, in a timely manner to the Department of Veterans Affairs General Counsel, who shall make a recommended disposition of the request. Where the Department of Veterans Affairs determines it appropriate, the Agency shall seek the advice of the Department of Justice. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88205"/>
                        General Counsel shall forward the employee request for indemnification, and the accompanying documentation, with the General Counsel's recommendation to the Secretary for decision.
                    </P>
                    <P>(5) Any payment under this section either to indemnify a Department of Veterans Affairs employee or to settle or compromise a personal damage claim shall be contingent upon the availability of appropriated funds of the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Attorney-client privilege.</E>
                         Attorneys employed by the Department of Veterans Affairs who participate in any process utilized for the purpose of determining whether the Agency should request the Department of Justice to provide representation to a Department employee sued, subpoenaed or charged in his individual capacity, or whether attorneys employed by the Department of Veterans Affairs should provide assistance in the representation of such a Department employee, undertake a full and traditional attorney-client relationship with the employee with respect to application of the attorney-client privilege. If representation is authorized, Department of Veterans Affairs attorneys who assist in the representation of an employee also undertake a full and traditional attorney-client relationship with the employee with respect to the attorney-client privilege. Any adverse information communicated by the client-employee to an attorney during the course of such attorney-client relationship shall not be disclosed to anyone, either inside or outside the Department of Veterans Affairs, other than attorneys responsible for representation of the employee, unless such disclosure is authorized by the employee.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Suits by the United States.</E>
                         In any instance wherein direct submission to a U.S. Attorney for institution of civil action has been authorized by the Department of Justice, the Chief Counsel will furnish the U.S. Attorney a complete report of the facts and applicable law, documentary evidence, names and addresses of witnesses and, in cases wherein Department of Veterans Affairs action has been taken, a copy of any pertinent decision rendered. The Chief Counsel will forward a copy of such report and of any proposed pleading to the Deputy General Counsel to whom the Chief Counsel reports and will render any practicable assistance requested by the U.S. Attorney.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.515</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Suits involving loan guaranty matters (where the Secretary is a party to the action).</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) Attorneys employed in the Office of General Counsel may exercise the right of the United States to bring suit in any court of competent jurisdiction to—</P>
                    <P>(1) Foreclose a loan made or acquired by the Secretary under any home loan program administered by the Veterans Benefits Administration, or</P>
                    <P>(2) Recover possession of any property conveyed to the Secretary after the foreclosure of a home loan described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(b) To carry out the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Office of General Counsel may acquire, or oversee the acquisition and performance of, legal services provided by attorneys other than those who are employees of the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                    <P>(c) For the purpose of this section, the authority to bring suit also means representation in bankruptcy proceedings, as well as other activities necessary to preserve the Secretary's interest in a loan guaranteed, insured, or made under 38 U.S.C. chapter 37, or in a property acquired under such chapter.</P>
                    <P>(d) The activities described in this section are subject to the direction and supervision of the United States Attorney General and to such terms and conditions as the United States Attorney General may prescribe.</P>
                    <P>(e) In any legal or equitable proceeding to which the Secretary is a party (including probate and bankruptcy proceedings) related to any home loan program administered by the Veterans Benefits Administration, original process and any other process prior to appearance that may be served on the Secretary must be delivered to the Office of General Counsel, 810 Vermont Ave. NW (02), Washington, DC 20420. Copies of such process must also be served on the United States Attorney General and the United States Attorney having jurisdiction over that area. Failure to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (e) renders the service improper.</P>
                    <SECAUTH>(Authority: 38 U.S.C. 3730)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.516</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Escheat and post fund cases.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>In any case in which the Department of Veterans Affairs is entitled to possession of assets or property under the escheat provisions of 38 U.S.C. 5502(e), the gifts provisions of 38 U.S.C. chapter 83 or the General Post Fund provisions of 38 U.S.C. chapter 85, where the assets or property are not surrendered upon entitlement, the Chief Counsel will endeavor to obtain possession of such assets or property in any manner appropriate under local procedure and practice, other than litigation. This procedure would include exploratory inquiry of the person or entity having custody or possession of the assets or property for the purpose of determining whether the person or entity would be willing to turn over the property to the Department of Veterans Affairs without litigation. If unsuccessful in this effort, a complete report will be submitted by the Chief Counsel to the Deputy General Counsel to whom the Chief Counsel reports so that appropriate action may be taken to obtain the assistance of the Department of Justice in the matter.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.517</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Cases affecting the Department of Veterans Affairs generally.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>District Chief Counsels will establish and maintain such close liaison with the State and Federal courts and related State and Federal agencies as to ensure that notice will be afforded the Department of Veterans Affairs on all cases affecting the Department of Veterans Affairs. Cases affecting substantial interest of the Department of Veterans Affairs will be forwarded to the Deputy General Counsel to whom the Chief Counsel Reports promptly in every case.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.518</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Litigation involving beneficiaries in custody of Department of Veterans Affairs employees acting in official capacity.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Service of process generally.</E>
                         An employee, at a Department of Veterans Affairs medical facility, served with a writ of habeas corpus involving a beneficiary of the Department of Veterans Affairs in the employee's custody will immediately notify the District Chief Counsel of the region in addition to taking such steps as in their judgment are necessary for self-protection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Habeas corpus writs.</E>
                         (1) If a Director of a Department of Veterans Affairs medical facility concerned advises that, according, to current medical opinion, hospitalization is necessary for the Veteran's safety or the safety of others, the District Chief Counsel will vigorously oppose the writ at the trial court level. If the writ is granted, no further action will be taken unless so instructed by the General Counsel.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) If the medical opinion is that hospitalization is not required for the Veteran's safety or the safety of others but continued treatment is clearly indicated in the Veteran's interest, the District Chief Counsel will assure that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88206"/>
                        the court issuing the writ is so informed and will abide by the court's decision.
                    </P>
                    <P>(3) If the medical opinion is that there is no danger of self-injury to the Veteran or others and the need for continued treatment is not clearly demonstrated, the District Chief Counsel will advise the Director of the medical facility concerned that the Veteran should be released and will notify the Veteran's attorney or other representative of the planned discharge, subject to existence of an appropriate release authority. These cases will be handled informally to the extent practicable.</P>
                    <P>(4) Involuntary confinement of mentally ill patients in Department of Veterans Affairs facilities is predicated upon the law of the State in which the facility is located. In the event the writ is filed in Federal Court, the District Chief Counsel will cooperate with the U.S. Attorney to the end that the case is removed to the appropriate State court.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>7. Revise and republish § 14.560 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.560</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedure where violation of penal statutes is involved including those offenses coming within the purview of the Assimilative Crimes Act.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The Department of Justice, or the U.S. Attorneys, are charged with the duty and responsibility of interpreting and enforcing criminal statutes, and the final determination as to whether the evidence in any case is sufficient to warrant prosecution is a matter solely for their determination. If the Department of Justice or U.S. Attorney decides to initiate action, the Chief Counsel will cooperate as may be requested. The Chief Counsel will promptly bring to the attention of the Deputy General Counsel to whom the Chief Counsel Reports any case wherein the Chief Counsel is of the opinion that criminal or civil action should be initiated notwithstanding a decision by the U.S. Attorney not to bring such action; any case where action has been inordinately delayed; and any case which would cause significant publicity or notoriety.</P>
                    <SECAUTH>(Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>8. Revise and republish § 14.562 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.562</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Collections or adjustments.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>When it is determined that a submission is to be made to the U.S. Attorney, no demand for payment or adjustment will be made without the advice of the U.S. Attorney. However, if, before or after submission, the potential defendant or other person tenders payment of the liability to the United States, payment will be accepted if the U.S. Attorney has no objection. If the U.S. Attorney determines that prosecution is not indicated, or when prosecution has ended, the file will be returned to the appropriate office with a report as to the action taken.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>9. Revise and republish §§ 14.600 through 14.605 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.600</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Federal Tort Claims Act generally.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Federal Tort Claims Act—overview.</E>
                         The Federal Tort Claims Act (28 U.S.C. 1291, 1346, 1402, 2401(b), and 2671 through 2680) prescribes a uniform procedure for handling of claims against the United States, for money only, on account of damage to or loss of property, or on account of personal injury or death, caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of a Government employee while acting within the scope of their office or employment, under circumstances where the United States, if a private person, would be liable in accordance with the law of the place where the act or omission occurred.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Applicable regulations.</E>
                         The regulations issued by the Department of Justice at 28 CFR part 14 are applicable to claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, including such claims that are filed with VA. The regulations in §§ 14.600 through 14.605 supplement the regulations at 28 CFR part 14.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Delegations of authority concerning claims.</E>
                         Subject to the limitations in 28 CFR 14.6(c) through (e), authority to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise, and settle claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act (including the authority to execute an appropriate voucher or stipulation for settlement) is delegated as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) To the Under Secretary for Health, the Deputy Under Secretary for Health, Veterans Integrated Service Network (VISN) Directors, and VA Medical Facility Directors; with respect to any non-medical malpractice claim for $5,000 or less that arises out of the operations of the Veterans Health Administration.</P>
                    <P>(2) To the General Counsel, Principal Deputy General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, and Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group or those authorized to act for them with respect to any claim; provided that any award, compromise, or settlement in excess of $500,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or their designee; provided further that whenever a settlement is effected in an amount in excess of $200,000 a memorandum fully explaining the basis for the action taken shall be sent to the Department of Justice.</P>
                    <P>(3) To the Deputy Chief Counsels, Torts Law Group or those authorized to act for them with respect to any claim, provided that:</P>
                    <P>(i) Any award, compromise, or settlement in excess of $300,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the General Counsel, Principal Deputy General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, or Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group; provided further that whenever a settlement is effected in an amount in excess of $200,000, a memorandum fully explaining the basis for the action taken shall be sent to the Department of Justice; and</P>
                    <P>(ii) Any award where, for any reason, the compromise of a particular claim, as a practical matter, will, or may control the disposition of a related claim in which the amount to be paid exceeds $300,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the General Counsel, Principal Deputy General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, or Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group; and</P>
                    <P>(iii) Any award, compromise, or settlement in excess of $500,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the General Counsel, Principal Deputy General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, or Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group; and with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or their designee.</P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Delegations of authority to reconsider final denial of a claim.</E>
                         Subject to the limitations in 28 CFR 14.6(c) through (e), authority under 28 CFR 14.9 to reconsider final denials of claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act is delegated as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) To the Torts Law Group, with respect to any claim for $5,000 or less that arises out of the operations of the Veterans Health Administration.</P>
                    <P>(2) To the General Counsel, Principal Deputy General Counsel, Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, and Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group with respect to any claim; provided that any award, compromise, or settlement in excess of $500,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or their designee; provided further that whenever a settlement is effected in an amount in excess of $200,000, a memorandum fully explaining the basis for the action taken shall be sent to the Department of Justice.</P>
                    <SECAUTH>(Authority: 28 U.S.C. 1291, 1346, 1402, 2401, 2402, 2671-80; 38 U.S.C. 512, 515; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88207"/>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.601</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Investigation and development.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Development of general tort claims</E>
                        —(1) A report of any collision involving a Department of Veterans Affairs Government-owned vehicle which results in property damage or personal injury or death will be made by the operator of the Government vehicle immediately following the accident, on SF 91, Operator's Report of Motor Vehicle Accident. A copy of the report, accompanied by an executed copy of VA Form 2162, Report of Accident, will be promptly submitted to the Director of the facility involved. Forms required by other agencies will continue to be used in addition to VA Form 2162.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Any non-medical malpractice incident resulting in damage to, or loss of, property, including personal effects of a patient in a Department of Veterans Affairs facility, or in personal injury or death, due to alleged negligent or wrongful act or omission of a VA employee acting within the scope of their employment, will be immediately reported to the facility Director or designee. If a claim is filed seeking damages of $5,000 or less, it will be adjudicated by the facility. If the claim seeks damages in excess of $5,000, the Director of the facility where such occurrence took place will promptly transmit a copy of the report to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group for investigation and adjudication. Non-medical malpractice claims brought against the Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA) or the National Cemetery Administration (NCA) will also be referred to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group, for investigation and adjudication.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Development of medical malpractice claims.</E>
                         All medical malpractice claims will be referred to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group for investigation and adjudication.
                    </P>
                    <SECAUTH>(Authority: 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 512, 515; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.602</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Requests for medical information.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Request for medical records, documents, reports, or other information shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of 38 CFR 1.511(a)(2).</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.603</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Disposition of claims.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Setoff for cost of unauthorized medical treatment.</E>
                         In any tort claim administratively settled or compromised where the claimant owes the Department of Veterans Affairs for unauthorized medical treatment, there will be included in the tort claim award the amount of the claimant's indebtedness to the Government.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.604</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Filing a claim.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) Each person who inquires as to the procedure for filing a claim against the United States, predicated on an alleged negligent or wrongful act or omission of an employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs acting within the scope of their employment, will be furnished a copy of a Standard Form 95 (SF 95), Claim for Damage, Injury, or Death. The claimant will be advised to submit the executed claim directly to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group using the instructions located here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OGC/FTCA.asp.</E>
                         The claimant will also be advised to submit the information prescribed by 28 CFR 14.4 to the extent applicable. If a claim is presented to VA which involves the actions of employees or officers of other agencies, the Office of General Counsel will immediately transfer the claim to the appropriate agency in accord with 28 CFR 14.2(b)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) A claim shall be deemed to have been presented when the Department of Veterans Affairs receives from a claimant, or their duly authorized agent or legal representative, a signed SF 95, or other detailed written statement of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the claim, including the time, place, and date of the accident or incident, together with a claim for money damages, in a sum certain, for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or death.</P>
                    <P>(c) A claim presented in compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final Department of Veterans Affairs action or prior to the exercise of the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a). Amendments shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or their duly authorized agent or legal representative. Upon the timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the Department of Veterans Affairs shall have 6 months in which to make a final disposition of the claim as amended and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of the amendment.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 28 U.S.C. 1346(b)(1), 2401(b), 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 512, 515; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.605</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Suits against Department of Veterans Affairs employees arising out of a wrongful act or omission or based upon medical care and treatment furnished in or for the Veterans Health Administration.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a)(1) Section 2679 of title 28 of the U.S. Code., provides that no suit will lie against a Federal employee, or the employee's estate, for damage to property, personal injury, or death resulting from their wrongful act or omission while acting within the scope of their office or employment with the Federal Government. An action against the United States under 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680 is the exclusive remedy under these circumstances.</P>
                    <P>(2) Section 7316 of title 38 of the U.S. Code, provides that:</P>
                    <P>(i) Where there is remedy against the United States under 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680; or</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) Where proceedings for compensation or other benefits from the United States are provided by law, and the availability of such benefits precludes a remedy under 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680 (as is the case, for example, in the Federal Employees' Compensation Act, 5 U.S.C. 8101, 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), such recourse is the exclusive remedy for personal injury or death allegedly occurring as a result of malpractice or negligence committed by a physician, dentist, nurse, physician's assistant, dentist's assistant, pharmacist or paramedical (for example, medical and dental technicians, nursing assistants, and therapists), or other supporting personnel, while furnishing medical care and treatment in the exercise of duties in or for the Veterans Health Administration. Accordingly, a malpractice or negligence suit for personal injury or death will not lie against such personnel under the circumstances set forth in this paragraph (a)(2)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) The Department of Justice will defend any civil action or proceeding brought in any court against persons referred to in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section under the circumstances set forth therein. Accordingly, when a suit is filed against any employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs as a result of a wrongful act or omission arising out of employment with the Government, or as a result of furnishing medical or dental care and treatment in or for the Veterans Health Administration, the employee shall immediately forward a copy of all papers served on them to the District Chief Counsel having jurisdiction over the area in which the employee works or to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group. The employee will also promptly forward to the appropriate District Chief Counsel or the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group, a signed statement indicating whether the employee desires the Department of Justice to protect their interests as provided for by law. Even though there may not have been service, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88208"/>
                        if an employee learns that a suit arising from either of the above-described circumstances has been filed against them, the employee shall immediately so advise the appropriate District Chief Counsel or the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group, provide a brief description of the facts involved, and state whether the employee desires Federal intervention.
                    </P>
                    <P>(c) Upon receipt of notice that suit has been filed against an employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs who is entitled to immunity under 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316, the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group, will conduct a preliminary investigation, which will include an affidavit by the employee's supervisor as to whether the defendant-employee was acting in the scope of their employment at the time of the incident, and a request from the defendant-employee for representation. The affidavit will contain a factual description of the employee's duties and responsibilities at the time of the incident and should describe the incident in question. Upon receipt of such information, the Torts Law Group will make a preliminary determination as to whether such suit comes within the provisions of either 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316. The Torts Law Group will refer the matter to the appropriate U.S. Attorney with a recommendation as to whether the employee is eligible for immunity under 28 U.S.C. 2679 or 38 U.S.C. 7316. The U.S. Attorney will decide whether the Department of Veterans Affairs employee is eligible for the immunity. The General Counsel, through the Torts Law Group, will keep the employee advised of the action being taken concerning the suit. In the event that the U.S. Attorney or the Department of Justice determines that the employee is not eligible for immunity pursuant to one of the aforementioned provisions, the General Counsel's office, through the Torts Law Group, will advise the employee and will call to their attention the discretionary conditional indemnification provisions of 38 U.S.C 7316(e).</P>
                    <P>(d) Where a civil action is commenced in a State court against a Department of Veterans Affairs employee, and the matter is within the purview of either 28 U.S.C. 2679, or 38 U.S.C. 7316, the Department of Justice will be asked to remove such suit to the appropriate Federal District Court before trial, where it will be deemed an action against the United States. The defendant employee will be dismissed from the suit.</P>
                    <P>After such removal, the United States has available all defenses to which it would have been entitled if the action had originally been commenced against the United States in the proper Federal District Court. Should a Federal District Court determine that the Department of Veterans Affairs employee whose acts or omissions gave rise to the suit was not acting within the scope of their office or employment, and therefore not eligible for immunity as provided for in the aforementioned section, the case will be remanded to the State court from which it was removed, the employee will be reinstated as the defendant, and the United States will be dismissed from the suit. Where the employee has been reinstated as the defendant under such circumstances, in order to protect any rights which they may have under 38 U.S.C. 7316(e), they shall immediately notify the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group, which will call the employee's attention to the discretionary conditional indemnification provisions of section 7316(e).</P>
                    <P>
                        (e) Under the authority of 38 U.S.C. 7316(e), the Secretary of Veterans Affairs may pay for monetary damages sustained by or assessed against an individual (or their estate) described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as the result of any suit instituted against such individual which is not cognizable under the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680 because the individual was assigned to a foreign country, the said individual was detailed to a State or political division thereof, or the cause of action was otherwise not actionable under the Federal Tort Claims Act; 
                        <E T="03">Provided,</E>
                         That the amount of damages sustained is reasonable when compared with similar cases, litigated or settled, and the United States was given a reasonable opportunity to defend such individual and to participate in settlement negotiations.
                    </P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 28 U.S.C 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 512, 515, 7316; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>10. Revise and republish §§ 14.615 through 14.619 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.615</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Authority.</E>
                         Section 515(b) of title 38 of the U.S. Code., provides that the Secretary of Veterans Affairs may pay tort claims, in the manner authorized in the first paragraph of 28 U.S.C. 2672, when such claims arise in foreign countries in connection with Department of Veterans Affairs operations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Action by claimant.</E>
                         Claims for property loss or damage may be filed by the owner of the property or their duly authorized agent or legal representative. If the property was insured and the insurer is subrogated, in whole or in part, and if both the owner and the insurer desire to file a claim for their respective losses they should join in one claim. Claims for personal injury may be filed by the injured person or their agent or legal representative. Claims for death may be filed by the personal representative of the decedent or any other legally qualified person. When filed by an agent or legal representative, the claim must show the title or capacity of the person representing the claimant and be accompanied by evidence of the appointment of such person as agent, legal representative, executor/executrix, administrator/administratrix, guardian, or other fiduciary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Time for filing.</E>
                         A claim may not be allowed under 38 U.S.C. 515(b) unless it is presented to the Secretary or their designee within 2 years after the claim accrues.
                    </P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 28 U.S.C 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 512, 515, 7316; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.616</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Form and place of filing claim.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Form of claim.</E>
                         Claims arising under 38 U.S.C. 515(b) will be submitted on a Standard Form 95 or prepared in the form of a statement sworn to or affirmed before an official with authority to administer oaths or affirmations and will contain the following information:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) The name and address of claimant;</P>
                    <P>(2) The amount claimed for injury or death, and for property loss or damage;</P>
                    <P>(3) If property was lost or damaged, the amount paid or payable by the insurer together with the name of the insurer;</P>
                    <P>(4) A detailed statement of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the claim, including the time, place, and date of the accident or incident;</P>
                    <P>(5) If property was involved, a description of the property and the nature and extent of the damage and the cost of repair or replacement based upon at least two impartial estimates;</P>
                    <P>(6) If personal injury was involved, the nature of the injury, the cost of medical and/or hospital services, and time and income lost due to the injury;</P>
                    <P>(7) If death is involved, the names and ages of claimants and their relationship to decedent;</P>
                    <P>(8) The name and position of the employee(s) of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs allegedly responsible for the accident or injury, or loss or damage of property; and</P>
                    <P>(9) The names and addresses of any witnesses to accident or incident.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Place of filing claim.</E>
                         Claims arising in the Philippines under 38 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88209"/>
                        U.S.C. 515(b) will be filed with the Director, Department of Veterans Affairs Regional Office, Manila, Republic of the Philippines or submitted directly to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group using the instructions located here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OGC/FTCA.asp.</E>
                         Claims arising in other foreign countries will be filed with the American Embassy or Consulate nearest the place where the incident giving rise to the claim took place.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Evidence to be submitted by claimant</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">General.</E>
                         The amount claimed on account of damage to or loss of property or on account of personal injury or death shall, so far as possible, be substantiated by competent evidence. Supporting statements, estimates and documented evidence of the damages must accompany the claim. All evidence and certified copies must be attached to the original claim. All documents in other than the English language must be accompanied by English translations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Personal injury or death.</E>
                         In support of claims for personal injury or death, the claimant will submit, as may be appropriate, itemized bills for medical, hospital, or burial expenses actually incurred; a statement from the claimant's or decedent's employer as to time and income lost from work; and a written report by the attending physician with respect to the nature and extent of the injury, the nature and extent of treatment, the degree of disability, the period of hospitalization or incapacitation, and the prognosis as to future treatment, hospitalization and any other relevant evidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Damage to personal property.</E>
                         In support of claims for damage to personal property which has been repaired, the claimant will submit an itemized receipt, or, if not repaired, itemized estimates of the cost of repairs by two reliable parties who specialize in such work. If the property is not economically repairable, the claimant will submit corroborative statements of two reliable, qualified persons with respect to cost, age of the property and salvage value.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Damage to real property.</E>
                         In support of claims for damage to land, trees, buildings, fences, or other improvements to real property, the claimant will submit an itemized receipt if repairs have been made, or, if repairs have not been made, itemized estimates of the cost of repairs by two reliable persons who specialize in such work. If the property is not economically repairable, the claimant will submit corroborative statements of two reliable, qualified persons with respect to the value of the improvements both before and after the accident or incident and the cost of replacements.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2900-0437)</FP>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.617</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Disposition of claims.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Disposition of claims arising in Philippines.</E>
                         All claims arising under 38 U.S.C. 515(b) in the Philippines, will be forwarded directly by the Director to the Office of General Counsel, Torts Law Group.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Disposition of claims arising in foreign countries other than the Philippines.</E>
                         When a claim is received in an American Embassy or Consulate, the Embassy or Consulate receiving such claim shall make such investigation as may be necessary or appropriate for a determination of the validity of the claim and thereafter shall forward the claim, together with all pertinent material, through regular channels of the Department of State to the Torts Law Group, Office of General Counsel, Department of Veterans Affairs, Washington, DC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Payment of claims.</E>
                         Upon determining that there is liability on the part of the United States under 38 U.S.C. 515(b), the General Counsel, or such other personnel as may be designated by the Secretary, will take the necessary action to effect payment.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.618</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Collection action.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) In a case where the Office of General Counsel determines that damage to or loss of Government property under the jurisdiction of the Department of Veterans Affairs resulted from the negligence or other legal wrong of a person other than an employee of the United States, while acting within the scope of their employment, the Office of General Counsel or appropriate VA designee will request payment in full or other appropriate relief for the damage or loss from the responsible person or entity.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) The Office of General Counsel or VA designee may collect, compromise, suspend, or terminate collection action on any such claim as is authorized under 38 CFR 2.6(e)(4), in conformity with the standards in 38 CFR 1.900 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         Any such claim that has not been collected in full and which has not been compromised, suspended, or terminated may be referred to the appropriate United States Attorney's Office, in accordance with 38 CFR 1.950 through 1.953.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.619</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Collection action.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) The Federal Medical Care Recovery Act (“FMCRA”), 42 U.S.C. 2651, 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         and 38 U.S.C. 1729 authorize the Department to recover from third parties the costs of medical care or services furnished or to be furnished to an individual by the Department, or paid for or to be paid for on behalf of an individual by the Department.
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) The Chief Counsel, Revenue Law Group, or their designee (“Responsible Official”) shall have the responsibility for taking action with respect to the rights described in this paragraph (a).</P>
                    <P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term “third party” refers to those from whom the United States may recover pursuant to the FMCRA and 38 U.S.C. 1729.</P>
                    <P>(3) For purposes of this section, the term “individual” refers to the person to whom the Department furnished, or will furnish, medical care or services or on whose behalf the Department paid, or will pay for, medical care or services. The term also includes those acting on behalf of such person.</P>
                    <P>(4) For purposes of this section, medical care, or services for which the Department may recover shall include medical care or services provided, paid for, to be provided, or to be paid for resulting from aggravation or exacerbation of a service-connected disability.</P>
                    <P>(b) Where the circumstances of the medical care or services may support a claim under the authorities described in paragraph (a) of this section, the individual is obligated to notify the Department of the circumstances underlying the medical care or services and to cooperate with the Department's efforts to pursue recovery incident to that treatment.</P>
                    <P>(1) The initial duty to notify is satisfied by fully completing a billing request and submitting the same to the Responsible Official. The form and instructions for completing and submitting this request are available at the Department's revenue recovery website. This constitutes the minimum information necessary for the Department to investigate a potential claim.</P>
                    <P>(2) There is a continuing duty to notify the Department of all significant developments regarding any claim or demand made by the individual against a third party, including but not limited to:</P>
                    <P>(i) The presentation of any formal or informal claim or demand against the third party;</P>
                    <P>(ii) The commencement and progress of any legal proceedings against the third party;</P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88210"/>
                    <P>(iii) Any settlement or offer of settlement with the third party and the details of any such settlement or offer; and</P>
                    <P>(iv) Such other information as requested by the Responsible Official.</P>
                    <P>(3) The individual must cooperate with the Department's recovery efforts.</P>
                    <P>(i) The amounts specified in any claim asserted under this section constitute an asset of the United States. Accordingly, any assertion by the individual of the costs of medical care or services furnished or paid for by the Department is authorized only for the sole use and benefit of the United States, and the individual must ensure that the Department's interests are protected. Individuals who refuse to assert the Department's interests are not authorized to present the Department's treatment or billing information in support of any claim of the individual and must promptly notify the Responsible Official in writing of the refusal. Absent timely notice of refusal, assertion of the Department's interests is assumed and will be relied upon by the Department.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The Department's claim can be resolved only as described in this section. The Department's rights cannot be extinguished by an individual's settlement and release with the third party. Accordingly, individuals must contact the Responsible Official prior to the distribution of any settlement proceeds to confirm the amount of the Department's claim and to discuss the resolution of that claim.</P>
                    <P>(iii) Third parties must, when demanded by the Responsible Official, pay the Department separately and directly in satisfaction of the Department's interest and must do so contemporaneously with distribution to other stakeholders, including attorneys and beneficiaries.</P>
                    <P>(iv) Should any portion of the Department's claim reasonably be disputed, the Responsible Official must be notified, in writing, of the dispute and the reasons for it within 30 days of receipt of funds from the third party. Amounts not in dispute must be remitted to the Department, and the amounts in dispute must be held in trust, pending resolution of the dispute.</P>
                    <P>(4) Failure to meet the notification and cooperation duties associated with the Department's recovery interests may result in referral to the Department of Justice, as described in paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(c) Where the Responsible Official determines that a claim to recover the costs of medical care or services is appropriate under any of the authorities described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Responsible Official will assert a claim against the third party, or the third party's insurer, to recover such costs.</P>
                    <P>(1) The claim shall consist of a Notice of Claim describing the legal basis of the claim, together with an explanation of the charges. This serves as notice that proceeds from the individual's claim/case must not be distributed without first satisfying the Department's claim.</P>
                    <P>(2) The charges sought shall be calculated and communicated pursuant to Federal law.</P>
                    <P>(i) The Department is not obligated to provide itemized billing.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The Department is not obligated to provide billing in any particular format.</P>
                    <P>(iii) The costs of medical care or services furnished by the Department shall be calculated according to the framework of 38 CFR 17.101.</P>
                    <P>(iv) The costs of medical care or services provided by non-Federal providers at Departmental expense shall be calculated consistent with the actual amounts that the Department paid for such care.</P>
                    <P>(v) The costs of medical care or services provided by the Department on a humanitarian basis pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 1784 shall be calculated according to the framework of 38 CFR 17.102.</P>
                    <P>(vi) No other authorities that purport to value the medical care or services for which the Department may recover, to include State fee schedules, are applicable, absent express agreement to that effect from the Responsible Official.</P>
                    <P>(3) The individual or other stakeholder must forward requests for medical records directly to the Release of Information Office of the treating facility. The provision of medical records is not a prerequisite to the Department's recovery.</P>
                    <P>(d) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph (d), the Responsible Official is authorized to resolve a claim pursuant to this section.</P>
                    <P>(1) The Responsible Official may collect, compromise, settle, or waive any claim asserted pursuant to this section, as is authorized under 38 CFR 2.6(e)(3) and (9). However, the Responsible Official is not authorized to resolve a claim arising under the FMCRA without approval of the Department of Justice, other than by payment in full, if such claim is in excess of the amount specified by the Department of Justice.</P>
                    <P>(2) The Responsible Official may suspend or terminate collection activity on any claim asserted pursuant to this section, as is authorized by 38 CFR 2.6(e)(4)(iii). However, the Responsible Official is not authorized to suspend or terminate collection activity on such a claim arising under the FMCRA without approval of the Department of Justice if such claim is in excess of the amount specified by the Department of Justice.</P>
                    <P>(3) Requests for compromises and waivers should be in writing and should include:</P>
                    <P>(i) Copies of all settlement agreements, judgments, or offers of resolution,</P>
                    <P>reflecting the amount of settlement;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Amounts received from all sources;</P>
                    <P>(iii) A confirmation from the individual that no additional assets are available to satisfy the claim;</P>
                    <P>(iv) A draft distribution plan, which accounts for all amounts received under the settlement;</P>
                    <P>(v) The amount(s), if any, by which any non-Departmental stakeholders have agreed to reduce their claims against the settlement;</P>
                    <P>(vi) The amount of the proposed distribution to the Department; and</P>
                    <P>(vii) Any additional information that indicates a need for reasonableness and moderation in the exercise of the Department's rights.</P>
                    <P>(4) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3106, the Responsible Official shall not compromise a claim in consideration of private attorney fees.</P>
                    <P>(e) The Department may pursue all available legal remedies to effect recovery of a claim asserted under this section. These remedies include, but are not limited to the following.</P>
                    <P>(1) The Responsible Official may refer any such claim to the appropriate United States Attorney's Office for enforcement action.</P>
                    <P>(i) The United States may, at its discretion, file suit in an appropriate United States District Court, intervene in a State court action, or pursue removal of a State action to an appropriate United States District Court.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The amounts specified in any claim asserted under this section constitute an asset of the United States. Consequently, in the event that a party other than the United States comes into possession of any funds conveyed in contemplation of such a claim, such funds may not be distributed other than as authorized by the Responsible Official. Distribution of funds without such authorization may be referred to the Department of Justice for action under 31 U.S.C. 3729(a)(1)(D), which may result in treble damages and civil penalties against the party undertaking such unauthorized distribution.</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) Unless expressly authorized, claims asserted under this section cannot be satisfied other than by payment in full. Unauthorized payment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88211"/>
                        of less than the amounts asserted may be referred to the Department of Justice for action under 31 U.S.C. 3729(a)(1)(G), which may result in treble damages and civil penalties.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) The Responsible Official may refer any such claim to the Department of Treasury for debt collection.</P>
                    <SECAUTH>
                        (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 1729; 42 U.S.C. 2651 
                        <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                         28 CFR 43.2)
                    </SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>11. Revise and republish §§ 14.664 through 14.669 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.664</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Scope of authority and effective date.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The Military Personnel and Civilian Employees' Claims Act (MPCECA) of 1964, 31 U.S.C. 3721, authorizes the Secretary or the Secretary's designee to settle and pay a claim not to exceed $40,000 made by an employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs for damage to, or loss of personal property incident to such person's service.</P>
                    <P>Authority is delegated by 38 CFR 2.6(e)(5) to the General Counsel, the Principal Deputy General Counsel, the Deputy General Counsel for Legal Operations, and the Chief Counsel, Torts Law Group, and those acting for them to settle and pay such claims on behalf of the Secretary, and such settlement shall be final and conclusive.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 31 U.S.C. 3721(b))</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.665</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Claims.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) The claim must be presented on VA Form 4760, Employee's Claim for Reimbursement for Personal Property Damaged or Lost Incident to Employment or VA Form 4629, Claim for Reimbursement for Damaged or Destroyed Personal Property for property destroyed or damaged by a patient while the employee was engaged in the performance of official duties. The form will be submitted to the facility Director or designee of the VA facility where the claim originates within 2 years after the incident that caused the loss or damage or within 2 years after the employee discovers the loss or damage. The claim must be executed and certified by the employee suffering the loss or damage, or in the event of their death, by the employee's survivors in the following order of precedence: Spouse, Child, Parent, or Sibling. All claims must contain the following:</P>
                    <P>(1) The date, time, and place the loss or damage occurred and the circumstances surrounding such loss or damage, together with the supporting statements of any witnesses who can verify such facts.</P>
                    <P>(2) In the event of damage, the date of acquisition, original cost, condition before damage, and at least two estimates of the cost of repair or replacement. In the event of loss, the date of acquisition, the original cost, the condition, and an estimate of the reasonable market value of the article or articles.</P>
                    <P>(3) A statement as to any claim or potential claim they may have for indemnification of the loss or damage against other than the United States and whether they will assign such to the United States and cooperate in its prosecution. Where such claim or potential claim is against a carrier or insurer, evidence that a timely claim has been properly made. Where a recovery from the carrier or their insurer has been obtained or offered, such information shall be included.</P>
                    <P>(4) In cases involving damage or destruction of personal property by patients or domiciliary members, a statement as to whether a claim was filed pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 703(e) and whether such claim has been finally denied.</P>
                    <P>(b) The VA facility Director or designee receiving the claim will ascertain if such claim is complete in all respects and conduct such investigation as is necessary to establish all facts required to properly evaluate the claim both as to merit and the reasonable amount payable for the loss or damage or will refer the claim to the Office of General Counsel Torts Law Group for investigation if the claim seeks damages in excess of $5,000. Where it is indicated that the claimant may have a potential claim against other than the United States, the employee designated will secure a suitable assignment of all right and title to such claim, to the extent the United States makes reimbursement, and the agreement of the claimant to furnish such evidence as may be necessary to pursue such claim. If the potential claim is against a carrier or insurer, the employee designated will ascertain that the claimant has filed a timely proper claim and procure evidence thereof. The employee designated will also include information concerning any offer of settlement the carrier may have made.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.666</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Torts Law Group responsibility.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Torts Law Group is available for consultation if requested and as needed by the facility's human resources office. If, after consultation from the investigating facility or with the Torts Law Group, it is determined by the Torts Law Group that the facts or amount in controversy requires further input or investigation from the Torts Law Group, the Torts Law Group will conduct such additional investigation as it deems necessary to establish all facts required. If such potential claim is against a carrier or insurer, the Torts Law Group may be consulted to help to ascertain that the claimant has filed a timely proper claim against the carrier or insurer and review same for legal sufficiency.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.667</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Claims payable.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) No claim shall be paid unless timely filed in proper form as provided in § 14.665 and the preponderance of the evidence establishes that the loss or damage:</P>
                    <P>(1) Actually occurred and the amount claimed is reasonable and does not exceed $40,000;</P>
                    <P>(2) Was incident to the employee's service and their possession of the property was reasonable, useful, or proper under the circumstances;</P>
                    <P>(3) The claim is substantiated by proper and convincing evidence;</P>
                    <P>(4) Was not caused wholly or in part by the negligent or wrongful act of the claimant or the claimant's agent, and that the claimant has no right to indemnification for the loss or damage from other than the United States, except to the extent that the claimant assigns such right to the United States and agrees to furnish evidence required to enable the United States to enforce such right. In the event there is a right to recovery for the loss or damage from a carrier or insurer the claimant will be required to file a timely claim for such recovery before consideration of the claim against the United States.</P>
                    <P>(b) No claim for the cost of repair or replacement of personal property of employees damaged or destroyed by patients or domiciliary members while such employees are engaged in the performance of official duties shall be entertained under §§ 14.664 through 14.667, unless claim filed pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 703(e) has been finally denied for the reason that such claim did not meet the criteria established by that law.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.668</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Disposition of claims.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Disallowed claims.</E>
                         Claimants will be promptly notified of the disallowance of a claim and the reasons therefor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Allowed claims</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">Reimbursement in kind (where applicable).</E>
                         Where a claim is allowed and it is determined to be advantageous to the Government, reimbursement will be made in kind. The official authorizing settlement will facilitate the procurement of the necessary article or articles and deliver same to the claimant.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Reimbursement by payment.</E>
                         The official authorizing settlement will 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88212"/>
                        forward allowed claims, other than those requiring reimbursement in kind, to the Fiscal office at the Department of Veterans Affairs facility where the claim arose. That activity will audit the claim, which if found proper for payment, will be scheduled and forwarded to the appropriate office for payment.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.669</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Fees of agents or attorneys; penalty.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Notwithstanding a contract, the representative of a claimant may not receive more than 10 percent of the payment of a claim submitted under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3721 for services related to the claim. A person violating this provision shall be fined not more than $1,000.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>12. Revise and republish §§ 14.800 through 14.810 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.800</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Purpose.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Sections 14.800 through 14.810 establish policy, assign responsibilities, and prescribe procedures with respect to:</P>
                    <P>(a) The production or disclosure of official information or records of the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA); and</P>
                    <P>(b) The testimony of present or former VA personnel relating to any official information acquired by any individual as part of that individual's performance of official duties, or by virtue of that individual's official status, in Federal, state, or other legal proceedings covered by §§ 14.800 through 14.810.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.801</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) Sections 14.800 through 14.810 apply to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Contractors and subcontractors which undertake a VA activity or maintain VA records when the contract covering their actions provides that §§ 14.800 through 14.810 apply, as well as the personnel of contractors and subcontractors.</P>
                    <P>(2) All components of the Department, including Canteen Service, the Office of Inspector General, and all staff offices, services and administrations, and their personnel.</P>
                    <P>(b) Sections 14.800 through 14.810 do not apply to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Testimony or records provided in accordance with Office of Personnel Management regulations implementing 5 U.S.C. 6322.</P>
                    <P>(2)(i) Legal proceedings in which the Department of Veterans Affairs, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or the United States is a party, is represented, and has a direct and substantial interest; or</P>
                    <P>(ii) Legal proceedings in which an individual or entity is a party for whom the United States is providing representation.</P>
                    <P>(3) Legal proceedings in which VA personnel are to testify while in leave or off-duty status as to matters which are purely personal and that do not arise out of, or relate in any way to, the individual's official duties or to the functions and activities of VA or the United States.</P>
                    <P>(4) Official comments on matters in legal proceedings, where appropriate.</P>
                    <P>(5) Disclosures, in the absence of a request or demand, of information or records by VA components, particularly the Office of Inspector General, to Federal, state, local and foreign law enforcement or regulatory agencies.</P>
                    <P>(6) Congressional demands or requests for testimony or documents.</P>
                    <P>(7) Requests for, and release of, records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a.</P>
                    <P>(8) Disclosures in child support and alimony proceedings under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 659 and regulations promulgated by the Office of Personnel Management implementing that section.</P>
                    <P>(9) Legal proceedings before or involving VA concerning a claim or dispute as to the rights of a beneficiary or obligations or liabilities of the United States under any law or program administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                    <P>(10) Requests by a Veteran or that Veteran's representative for access to the Veteran's records for use in an administrative or judicial claim for benefits administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                    <P>(11) Foreign legal proceedings covered by Department of State procedures governing the production of records or witnesses in response to requests or demands in connection with foreign legal proceedings.</P>
                    <P>(c) Sections 14.800 through 14.810 are not intended to, and do not:</P>
                    <P>(1) Waive the sovereign immunity of the United States;</P>
                    <P>(2) Infringe upon or displace the responsibilities committed to the Department of Justice in conducting litigation on behalf of the United States;</P>
                    <P>(3) Remove the need for the Department to comply with any applicable legal confidentiality provisions, such as the Privacy Act, before having the legal authority to make any disclosure or providing any testimony under §§ 14.800 through 14.810. (Sections 14.800 through 14.810 do not give VA disclosure authority under applicable confidentiality statutes; absent disclosure authority granted by those statutes, information, and records subject to those laws may not be disclosed, or testimony given under the procedures established in §§ 14.800 through 14.810); or</P>
                    <P>(4) Preclude treating any written request for agency records that is not in the nature of a request or demand related to legal proceedings as a request under the Freedom of Information or Privacy Acts.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.802</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Demand.</E>
                         Order, subpoena, or other demand of a court of competent jurisdiction, or other specific authority or under color of law, for the production, disclosure, or release of VA information or records or for the appearance and testimony of VA personnel as witnesses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Request.</E>
                         Any informal request, by whatever method, from a party, a party's attorney, or any person acting on behalf of a party, for the production of VA records or information or for the testimony of VA personnel as witnesses, which has not been ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction or other specific authority or under color of law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">VA personnel.</E>
                         All present and former officers and employees of VA and any other individuals who are or have been appointed by, or subject to the supervision, jurisdiction, or control of the Secretary of Veterans Affairs or another VA official, including nonappropriated fund activity employees, and other individuals hired through contractual agreements by or on behalf of VA, or performing services under such agreements for VA, such as consultants, contractors, subcontractors, their employees and personnel. This phrase also includes individuals who served or are serving on any advisory committee or in any advisory capacity, whether formal or informal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Legal proceedings.</E>
                         All pretrial, trial, and post-trial stages of all existing or reasonably anticipated judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before courts, commissions, boards, or other tribunals, foreign or domestic that are not specified in § 14.801(b). This phrase includes depositions and other pretrial proceedings, as well as responses to formal or informal requests by attorneys or others in situations involving legal proceedings not specified in § 14.801(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Official VA information.</E>
                         All information of any kind, however stored, that is in the custody and control of VA or was acquired by VA personnel 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88213"/>
                        as part of their official duties or because of their official status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Testimony.</E>
                         Testimony in any form, including personal appearances in court, depositions, recorded interviews, telephonic, video or video recorded testimony or any response during discovery or similar proceedings, which response would involve more than the production of records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (g) 
                        <E T="03">VA records.</E>
                         All documents which are records of the Department of Veterans Affairs for purposes of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, regardless of storage media, including the term “record” as defined in 44 U.S.C. 3301, and implementing regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (h) 
                        <E T="03">Designated VA Official.</E>
                         VA official authorized to make the determinations provided in § 14.807. Other than for personnel in the Office of the Inspector General (OIG), the General Counsel or the General Counsel's designee is the Designated VA Official. For personnel in the OIG, the Counselor to the Inspector General or an attorney designated by the Counselor to the Inspector General, is the Designated VA Official authorized to make the determinations provided in § 14.807, and that official will keep the General Counsel informed of such determinations for purposes of litigation or claims of privilege.
                    </P>
                    <SECAUTH>(Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.803</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Policy.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) VA personnel may provide testimony or produce VA records in legal proceedings covered by §§ 14.800 through 14.810 only as authorized in accordance with §§ 14.800 through 14.810. In determining whether to authorize testimony or the production of records, the Designated VA Official will consider the effect testifying or producing records will have on the ability of the agency or VA personnel to perform their official duties in this case, as well as in future cases generally, based on the factors set forth in § 14.804.</P>
                    <P>(b) The Department of Veterans Affairs does not seek to deny its employees access to the courts as citizens, or in the employees' private capacities on off-duty time.</P>
                    <P>(c) The Department of Veterans Affairs does not seek to deny the Nation's Veterans access to the courts.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.804</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Factors to consider.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>In deciding whether to authorize the disclosure of VA records or information or the testimony of VA personnel, the Designated VA Official should consider the following types of factors:</P>
                    <P>(a) The need to avoid spending the time and money of the United States for private purposes and to conserve the time of VA personnel for conducting their official duties concerning servicing the Nation's Veteran population;</P>
                    <P>(b) How the testimony or production of records would assist VA in performing its statutory duties;</P>
                    <P>(c) Whether the disclosure of the records or presentation of testimony is necessary to prevent the perpetration of fraud or other injustice in the matter in question;</P>
                    <P>(d) Whether the demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable court or administrative rules;</P>
                    <P>
                        (e) Whether the testimony or production of records, including release 
                        <E T="03">in camera,</E>
                         is appropriate or necessary under the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose, or under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege;
                    </P>
                    <P>(f) Whether the testimony or production of records would violate a statute, executive order, regulation, or directive. (Where the production of a record or testimony as to the content of a record or about information contained in a record would violate a confidentiality statute's prohibition against disclosure, disclosure will not be made. Examples of such statutes are the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and 38 U.S.C. 5701, 5705 and 7332;</P>
                    <P>(g) Whether the testimony or production of records, except when in camera and necessary to assert a claim of privilege, would reveal information properly classified pursuant to applicable statutes or Executive orders;</P>
                    <P>(h) Whether the testimony would interfere with ongoing law enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, compromise national security interests, hamper VA or private health care research activities, reveal sensitive patient or beneficiary information, interfere with patient care, disclose trade secrets or similarly confidential commercial or financial information, or otherwise be inappropriate under the circumstances;</P>
                    <P>(i) Whether such release or testimony reasonably could be expected to result in the appearance of VA or the Federal Government favoring one litigant over another;</P>
                    <P>(j) Whether such release or testimony reasonably could be expected to result in the appearance of VA or the Federal Government endorsing or supporting a position advocated by a party to the proceeding;</P>
                    <P>(k) The need to prevent the public's possible misconstruction of variances between personal opinions of VA personnel and VA or Federal policy;</P>
                    <P>(l) The need to minimize VA's possible involvement in issues unrelated to its mission;</P>
                    <P>(m) Whether the demand or request is within the authority of the party making it; </P>
                    <P>(n) Whether the demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered; and</P>
                    <P>(o) Other matters or concerns presented for consideration in making the decision.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.805</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Contents of a demand or request.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The request or demand for testimony or production of documents shall set forth in, or be accompanied by, an affidavit or a written statement by the party seeking the testimony or records, or by the party's attorney, summarizing of the nature and relevance of the testimony or records sought in the legal proceedings. The affidavit or written statement shall contain sufficient information for the Designated VA Official to determine whether VA personnel should be allowed to testify or records should be produced. Where the materials are considered insufficient to make the determination as described in § 14.807, the Designated VA Official may ask the requester to provide additional information.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.806</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Scope of testimony or production.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>VA personnel shall not, in response to a request or demand for testimony or production of records in legal proceedings, comment or testify or produce records without the prior written approval of the Designated VA Official. VA personnel may only testify concerning or comment upon official VA information, subjects, or activities, or produce records, that were specified in writing, submitted to and properly approved by the Designated VA Official.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.807</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedure when demand or request is made.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) VA personnel upon whom a demand or request for testimony or the production of records is made in connection with legal proceedings as defined in § 14.802(d) shall notify the head of their field station, or if in Central Office, the head of the component for which they work. The field station or Central Office 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88214"/>
                        component shall notify the Office of General Counsel.
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) The Designated VA Official shall determine whether VA personnel may be interviewed, contacted, or used as witnesses, including used as expert witnesses, and whether VA records may be produced; and what, if any, conditions will be imposed upon such interview, contact, testimony, or production of records.</P>
                    <P>(c) In appropriate cases, the Designated VA Official shall promptly notify the Department of Justice of the demand or request. After consultation and coordination with the Department of Justice, as required, and after any necessary consultation with VA component which employs or employed VA personnel whose testimony is sought or which is responsible for the maintenance of the records sought, the Designated VA Official shall determine in writing whether the individual is required to comply with the demand or request and shall notify the requester or the court or other authority of the determination reached where the determination is that VA will not comply fully with the request or demand. The Designated VA Official shall give notice of the decision to other persons as circumstances may warrant. Oral approval may be granted, and a record of such approval made and retained in accordance with the procedures in § 14.807(f) concerning oral requests or demands.</P>
                    <P>(d) If, after VA personnel have received a request or demand in a legal proceeding and have notified the Designated VA Official in accordance with this section, a response to the request or demand is required before instructions from the Designated VA Official are received, the Designated VA Official shall furnish the requester or the court or other authority with a copy of §§ 14.800 through 14.810 and any other relevant documentation, inform the requester or the court or other authority that the request or demand is being reviewed, and seek a stay of the request or demand pending a final determination by the Designated VA Official.</P>
                    <P>
                        (e) If a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority declines to stay the effect of the demand or request in response to action taken pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, or if such court or other authority orders that the demand or request be complied with notwithstanding the final decision of the Designated VA Official, VA personnel upon whom the demand or request was made shall notify the Designated VA Official of such ruling or order. If the Designated VA Official determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the ruling or order will be sought, the affected VA personnel shall comply with the demand, order, or request. However, if directed by the Designated VA Official, after consultation with the appropriate United States Attorney's office, the affected VA personnel shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand, request, or order. See 
                        <E T="03">United States ex rel. Touhy</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Ragen,</E>
                         340 U.S. 462 (1951).
                    </P>
                    <P>(f) Normally, written demands or requests allowing reasonable lead time for evaluation and processing are required. However, in emergency situations where response time is limited and a written demand or request is impractical, the following procedures should be followed:</P>
                    <P>(1) The Designated VA Official has the authority to waive the requirement of a written demand or request and may expedite a response in the event of an emergency under conditions which could not be anticipated in the course of proper planning or which demonstrate a good faith attempt to comply with §§ 14.800 through 14.810. Determinations on oral demands or requests should be reserved for instances where insistence on compliance with the requirements of a proper written request would result in the effective denial of the request and cause an injustice in the outcome of the legal proceeding for which the testimony or records are sought. No requester has a right to make an oral demand or request and receive a determination. Whether to permit such an exceptional procedure is a decision within the sole discretion of the Designated VA Official.</P>
                    <P>(2) If the Designated VA Official concludes that the demand or request, or any portion of it, should be granted (after considering the factors listed in § 14.804), the Designated VA Official will orally advise the requester of the determination in accordance with the procedures provided in paragraph (c) of this section, including any limitations on such testimony or production of records, and seek a written confirmation of the oral demand or request. The Designated VA Official will make a written record of the determination made concerning the oral demand or request, including the grant or denial, the circumstances requiring the procedure, and the conditions to which the requester agreed.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.808</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Expert, opinion, or fact testimony.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) VA personnel shall not provide, with or without compensation, opinion or expert testimony in any legal proceedings concerning official VA information, subjects, or activities, except on behalf of the United States or a party represented by the United States Department of Justice. Upon a showing by the requester or court or other appropriate authority that, in light of the factors listed in § 14.804, there are exceptional circumstances and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the Department of Veterans Affairs or to the United States, the Designated VA Official may, in writing, grant special authorization for VA personnel to appear and testify. If, despite the final determination of the Designated VA Official, a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority, orders the expert or opinion testimony of VA personnel, the personnel shall notify the Designated VA Official of such order. If the Designated VA Official determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the order will be sought, the affected VA personnel shall comply with the order. However, if directed by the Designated VA Official after consultation with the appropriate United States Attorney's office, the affected VA personnel shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand, request, or order. See 
                        <E T="03">United States ex rel. Touhy</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Ragen,</E>
                         340 U.S. 462 (1951).
                    </P>
                    <P>(b)(1) If, while testifying in any legal proceeding, VA personnel are asked for expert or opinion testimony concerning official VA information, subjects or activities, which testimony has not been approved in advance in accordance with §§ 14.800 through 14.810, the witness shall:</P>
                    <P>(i) Respectfully decline to answer on the grounds that such expert or opinion testimony is forbidden by §§ 14.800 through 14.810;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Request an opportunity to consult with the Designated VA Official mentioned in § 14.807(b) before giving such testimony;</P>
                    <P>(iii) Explain that, upon such consultation, approval for such testimony may be provided; and</P>
                    <P>(iv) Explain that providing such testimony absent such approval may expose the individual to criminal liability under 18 U.S.C. 201-209 and to disciplinary or other adverse personnel action.</P>
                    <P>
                        (2) If the witness is then ordered by the body conducting the proceeding to provide expert or opinion testimony concerning official VA information, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88215"/>
                        subjects, or activities without the opportunity to consult with the appropriate VA official, the witness respectfully shall refuse to do so. See 
                        <E T="03">United States ex rel. Touhy</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Ragen,</E>
                         340 U.S. 462 (1951).
                    </P>
                    <P>(c) Upon notification by the witness of a request for opinion or expert testimony concerning official VA information, subjects, or activities during § 14.802(d) legal proceedings, the Designated VA Official shall follow the procedures contained in this section to determine whether such testimony shall be approved.</P>
                    <P>(d) If VA personnel who are unaware of §§ 14.800 through 14.810 provide expert or opinion testimony concerning official VA information, subjects or activities in any legal proceeding, including one mentioned in § 14.802(d) in which the United States is not already represented, without consulting with the Designated VA Official, the witness, as soon after testifying as possible, shall inform the Designated VA official of the fact that such testimony was given and provide a summary of the expert or opinion testimony given.</P>
                    <P>(e) If an employee is authorized to give fact witness testimony in a legal proceeding not involving the United States, the testimony, if otherwise proper, shall be limited to facts within the personal knowledge of the employee that are not classified, privileged, or protected from disclosure under applicable law or regulation. If asked to provide factual testimony that the employee believes may be classified, privileged, or protected from disclosure under applicable law or regulation, then the witness shall:</P>
                    <P>(1) Respectfully decline to answer on the grounds that such testimony is prohibited; and</P>
                    <P>(2) Request an opportunity to consult with the Designated VA Official.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.809</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Demands or requests in legal proceedings for records protected by confidentiality statutes.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>In addition to complying with the requirements of §§ 14.800 through 14.810, requests or demands in legal proceedings for the production of records, or for testimony of VA employees concerning information, protected by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or other confidentiality statutes, such as 38 U.S.C. 5701, 5705 and 7332, must satisfy the requirements for disclosure imposed by those statutes, and implementing regulations, such as 38 CFR 1.511, before the records may be provided or testimony given. Accordingly, the Designated VA Official may first determine whether there is legal authority to provide the testimony or records sought under applicable confidentiality statutes before applying §§ 14.800 through 14.810. Where an applicable confidentiality statute mandates disclosure, §§ 14.800 through 14.810 will not apply.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 14.810</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Fees.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) The testimony of VA personnel as witnesses and the production of VA records in legal proceedings subject to §§ 14.800 through 14.810 are services which convey special benefits to the individuals or entities seeking such testimony or production of records above and beyond those accruing to the general public. These services are not regularly received by or available without charge to the public at large. Consequently, these are the sort of services for which VA may charge under 31 U.S.C. 9701. Where a determination is made to comply with the demand, order or request pursuant to § 14.807(e) or 14.808, the Designated VA Official will calculate fees consistent with 38 CFR 1.561(d) and (f) through (l) and shall timely notify the requester of the fees, particularly those which are to be paid in advance. For purposes of calculating fees all requesters under §§ 14.800 through 14.810 will be considered Commercial Use Requesters as defined by 38 CFR 1.561(c)(1).</P>
                    <P>(b)(1) When a request is granted under § 14.808 to permit VA personnel to testify, the requester shall pay to the government a fee calculated to reimburse the cost of preparing and providing the witness for testimony. The fee shall include:</P>
                    <P>(i) Costs of the time expended by VA personnel to process and respond to the demand, order, or request;</P>
                    <P>(ii) The cost of the time expended to prepare the witness to testify; and</P>
                    <P>(iii) Travel costs for VA personnel associated with providing testimony.</P>
                    <P>(2) All costs for documents shall be calculated as provided in VA regulations implementing the fee provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.</P>
                    <P>(c) When an individual testifies in legal proceedings covered by §§ 14.800 through 14.810in any capacity other than as an expert witness, the requester shall pay to the witness the fee and expenses prescribed for attendance by the applicable rule of court. If no such fee is prescribed, the applicable Federal rule, such as a local Federal District Court rule, will apply. No additional fee will be prescribed for the time spent while testifying or in attendance to do so.</P>
                    <P>(d) When a requester wishes to interview VA personnel as part of legal proceedings covered by §§ 14.800 through 14.810, and such interview has been approved in accordance with §§ 14.800 through 14.810, the requester shall pay a fee calculated upon the total hourly pay of the individual interviewed.</P>
                    <P>(e) When VA produces records in legal proceedings pursuant to §§ 14.800 through 14.810, the fees to be charged and paid prior to production of the records shall be the fees charged by VA under its regulations implementing the fee provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.</P>
                    <P>(f) Fees shall be paid as follows:</P>
                    <P>(1) Fees for copies of documents, blueprints, electronic tapes, or other VA records will be paid to the VA office or station providing the records, and covered to the General Fund of the Department of the Treasury.</P>
                    <P>(2) Witness fees for testimony shall be paid to the witness, who shall endorse the check “pay to the United States,” and surrender it to their supervisor. It shall thereafter be deposited in the General Fund.</P>
                    <P>(3) The private party requesting a VA witness shall forward in advance necessary round trip tickets and all requisite travel and per diem funds in accordance with General Services Administration (GSA) policy.</P>
                    <P>(g) A waiver of any fees in connection with the testimony of an expert witness may be granted by the Designated VA Official at the official's discretion provided that the waiver is in the interest of the United States. Fee waivers shall not be routinely granted, nor shall they be granted under circumstances which might create the appearance that VA or the United States favors one party or a position advocated by a party to the legal proceeding.</P>
                    <SECAUTH> (Authority: 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and (b); 5 U.S.C. 301)</SECAUTH>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 36—LOAN GUARANTY</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>13. The authority citation for part 36 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 38 U.S.C. 501 and 3720.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 36.4321</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Removed]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>14. Remove § 36.4321.</AMDPAR>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-23840 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88216"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 18</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140; FXES111607MRG01-245-FF07CAMM00]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1018-BI09</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Marine Mammals; Incidental Take of Polar Bears During Specified Activities; North Slope, Alaska</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; availability of draft environmental assessment; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, propose to revise a portion of our regulations under the Marine Mammal Protection Act pertaining to incidental take of marine mammals. Existing regulations authorize the nonlethal, incidental, unintentional take by harassment of small numbers of polar bears from the Southern Beaufort Sea stock and Pacific walruses during year-round oil and gas industry activities in the Beaufort Sea (Alaska and the Outer Continental Shelf) and adjacent northern coast of Alaska. Such take may result from oil and gas exploration, development, production, and transportation activities occurring through August 5, 2026. The proposed revisions would authorize incidental take by Level A harassment of polar bears in addition to the incidental Level B harassment of polar bears and Pacific walruses already authorized in the existing regulations. No lethal take is or would be authorized. We request comments on these proposed regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on these proposed revisions to our incidental take regulations and the accompanying draft supplemental environmental assessment will be accepted on or before December 9, 2024.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Information Collection Requirements:</E>
                         If you wish to comment on the information collection requirements in this proposed rule, please note that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information contained in this proposed rule between 30 and 60 days after publication of this proposed rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Therefore, comments should be submitted to OMB by January 6, 2025.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Document availability:</E>
                         You may view this proposed rule, the associated draft supplemental environmental assessment, comments received, and other supporting material at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140, or these documents may be requested as described under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment submission:</E>
                         You may submit comments on this proposed rule and draft supplemental environmental assessment by one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic submission:</E>
                         Federal eRulemaking Portal at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments to Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140. Comments submitted electronically must be received by 11:59 p.m. eastern time on the closing date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Public Comments Processing, Attn: Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140, Policy and Regulations Branch, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We will post all comments at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         You may request that we withhold personal identifying information from public review; however, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. See 
                        <E T="03">Request for Public Comments</E>
                         for more information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Information collection requirements:</E>
                         Send your comments on the information collection request to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, by email to 
                        <E T="03">Info_Coll@fws.gov;</E>
                         or by mail to 5275 Leesburg Pike, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), Falls Church, VA 22041-3803. Please include “1018-0070” in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Stephanie Burgess, Marine Mammals Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 1011 East Tudor Road, MS-341, Anchorage, AK 99503, Telephone 907-786-3844, or email: 
                        <E T="03">R7mmmregulatory@fws.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point of contact in the United States. Please see Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140 on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         for a document that summarizes this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1371 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and its implementing regulations, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service) finalized incidental take regulations in 2021 (2021-ITRs) in response to a request from the Alaska Oil and Gas Association (AOGA). The request was for regulations to provide for the issuance of letters of authorization (LOA) for incidental take of small numbers of Pacific walruses and Southern Beaufort Sea (SBS) polar bears during specified oil and gas industry (“Industry”) activities in the Beaufort Sea and adjacent northern coast of Alaska over a 5-year period (86 FR 42982, August 5, 2021). The regulations were added to title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) in part 18 at subpart J and expire August 5, 2026. The 2021-ITRs authorize, via Service-issued LOAs, the incidental Level B harassment of up to 15 Pacific walruses and 92 SBS polar bears each year. The 2021-ITRs do not authorize (or facilitate the authorization of) any incidental Level A harassment or lethal take of any marine mammals during specified Industry activities, and any such take remains prohibited by the MMPA.
                </P>
                <P>The term “take” as defined by the MMPA, means to harass, hunt, capture, or kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal (16 U.S.C. 1362(13)). Harassment, as defined by the MMPA, for activities other than military readiness activities or scientific research conducted by or on behalf of the Federal Government, means “any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild” (the MMPA defines this as Level A harassment); or “(ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering” (the MMPA defines this as Level B harassment) (16 U.S.C. 1362(18)).</P>
                <P>
                    The 2021-ITRs, along with the accompanying National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) environmental assessment and Endangered Species Act (ESA) biological opinion, were challenged in litigation that commenced in the United States District Court for the District of Alaska (District Court). On March 30, 2023, the District Court issued summary judgment in favor of the Service upholding the 2021-ITRs. Portions of this ruling were appealed to the United States Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit (Appellate Court). On March 19, 2024, a three-judge panel of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88217"/>
                    the Appellate Court issued an order that affirmed in part, and reversed in part, the District Court ruling. The Appellate Court panel declined to vacate the 2021-ITRs but issued a remand that requires the Service to conduct additional analysis and, depending on the results, potentially take regulatory action. In their remand order, specific only to polar bears, the Court directed (omitting internal references): “We . . . remand to the Service to offer a fuller explanation for its determination that no Level A incidents are expected during the period covered by the 2021 ITR. . . . In assessing the `negligible impact' prong on remand, the Service may, consistent with its expertise, emphasize certain outputs over others. However, given the MMPA's two-part conception of take, it must determine whether aggregating serious and non-serious Level A take yields a `reasonably likely' result. . . . If so (as the 75 percent figure proffered by Plaintiffs suggests), the Service will then need to determine (i) whether any Level A take predicted will affect only `small numbers' of bears and have a `negligible impact' on the subpopulation and, if so, (ii) whether to issue an updated ITR covering Level A take or no ITR at all.”
                </P>
                <P>The Court further stated, “Hence, we . . . remand to the Service so that it may (i) aggregate serious and non-serious Level A take together . . . and (ii) determine whether the five-year risk of such take of a denning cub is `reasonably likely'. . . . To the extent that it is, the Service must then evaluate whether the five-year impacts of Level A take is `negligible' and whether such take will be of `small numbers' of bears and possibly amend or reverse the 2021 ITR.”</P>
                <P>Accordingly, the Service has conducted additional analysis consistent with the Appellate Court's direction. As discussed below, this new analysis has resulted in preliminary determinations that, while no lethal take is predicted to occur, it is likely that Level A harassments of polar bears will occur, and that authorizing such take is consistent with MMPA standards. Therefore, this proposed rule, if finalized, would amend the 2021-ITRs to allow the issuance of LOAs authorizing take by Level A harassment of polar bears that may result from Industry activities.</P>
                <P>Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA gives the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) the authority to allow the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals, in response to requests by U.S. citizens (as defined in 50 CFR 18.27(c)) engaged in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographic region. The Secretary has delegated authority for implementation of the MMPA to the Service. According to the MMPA, the Service shall allow this incidental taking if we find the total of such taking for a 5-year period or less:</P>
                <P>(1) will affect only small numbers of marine mammals of a species or population stock;</P>
                <P>(2) will have no more than a negligible impact on such species or stocks;</P>
                <P>(3) will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence use by Alaska Natives; and</P>
                <P>(4) we issue regulations that set forth:</P>
                <P>(a) permissible methods of taking;</P>
                <P>(b) other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the species or stock and its habitat, and on the availability of such species or stock for subsistence uses; and</P>
                <P>(c) requirements for monitoring and reporting of such taking.</P>
                <P>If final regulations allowing such incidental taking are issued, we may then subsequently issue LOAs, upon request, to authorize incidental take during the specified activities.</P>
                <P>The terms “negligible impact” and “unmitigable adverse impact” are defined in 50 CFR 18.27 (the Service's regulations governing small takes of marine mammals incidental to specified activities). “Negligible impact” is an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. “Unmitigable adverse impact” means an impact resulting from the specified activity (1) that is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by (i) causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas, (ii) directly displacing subsistence users, or (iii) placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and (2) that cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.</P>
                <P>
                    The term “small numbers” is also defined in § 18.27. However, we do not rely on that definition here as it conflates “small numbers” with “negligible impacts.” We recognize “small numbers” and “negligible impacts” as two separate and distinct requirements for promulgating incidental take regulations (ITRs) under the MMPA (see 
                    <E T="03">Natural Res. Def. Council, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Evans,</E>
                     232 F. Supp. 2d 1003, 1025 (N.D. Cal. 2003)). Instead, for our small numbers determination, we estimate the likely number of takes of marine mammals and evaluate if that take is small relative to the size of the species or stock.
                </P>
                <P>The term “least practicable adverse impact” is not defined in the MMPA or its enacting regulations. The Service ensures the least practicable adverse impact by requiring mitigation measures that are effective in reducing the impact of Industry activities but are not so restrictive as to make Industry activities unduly burdensome or impossible to undertake and complete.</P>
                <P>
                    The MMPA does not require Industry to obtain an incidental take authorization; however, any taking that occurs without authorization is a violation of the MMPA. Since 1993, the oil and gas industry operating in the Beaufort Sea and the adjacent northern coast of Alaska has requested, and we have issued, ITRs for the incidental take of Pacific walruses and polar bears within a specified geographic region during specified activities. For a detailed history of our current and past Beaufort Sea ITRs, refer to the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 81 FR 52276, August 5, 2016; 76 FR 47010, August 3, 2011; 71 FR 43926, August 2, 2006; and 68 FR 66744, November 28, 2003. The current regulations are codified at 50 CFR part 18, subpart J (§§ 18.121 through 18.129), and were published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on August 5, 2021 (86 FR 42982).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Changes to 50 CFR Part 18, Subpart J</HD>
                <P>Our reanalysis, as discussed in detail below, indicates that Level A harassment of polar bears is reasonably likely to occur during the 5-year effective period of the 2021-ITRs. Therefore, we are proposing revisions to our regulations that, if finalized, would allow the Service to authorize take by both Level A and Level B harassment of polar bears. The lethal incidental take of polar bears would continue to be prohibited under this proposed revision, as would any Level A harassment or lethal take of Pacific walrus.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">New Information and Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Aggregated Level A Harassment Across 5-Year Period</HD>
                <P>
                    In conducting the additional analysis required by the Court's remand, the Service utilized best available scientific evidence. New information has been acquired and several advancements in the Service's analytical methods have been made subsequent to the promulgation of the 2021-ITRs. Many of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88218"/>
                    these advancements were recently described and considered in an incidental harassment authorization that was issued by the Service to the Bureau of Land Management (88 FR 88943, December 26, 2023).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the denning analysis described in the 2021-ITRs was conducted using the simulation of annual land-based maternal polar bear dens, spatially and temporally explicit descriptions of Industry activity, and predictions of polar bear response rooted in distributions established from den disturbance case studies (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     86 FR 42982, August 5, 2021). For each of the five winter seasons analyzed in the 2021-ITRs, a series of dens were simulated by assigning each a location on the landscape, the sow's entrance date, the number of cubs she bore, the cub(s)' birthdate, den emergence date, and den departure date. We then overlaid the season's Industry activity across the same landscape and simulated whether polar bears within maternal dens that fell within a mile of activity responded to Industry-caused disturbances, and if so, how. Potential responses include disturbance of the sow inside the den, den abandonment, early emergence from the den, and early departure from the den site. Polar bear disturbance responses that occurred during the den establishment period were estimated to result in Level B harassment of the sow (no cubs are present during this period). Responses that occurred during the early denning period were estimated to result in Level B harassment of the sow and lethal take of the cub(s). Responses that occurred during the late denning period were estimated to result in Level B harassment of the sow and “serious Level A harassment” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     likely to result in cub mortality) of the cub(s). Responses during the post-emergence period were estimated to result in Level B harassment of the sow and “non-serious Level A harassment” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not likely to result in cub mortality) of the cub(s).
                </P>
                <P>The denning model was created to assess individual denning seasons and has included several levels of assumptions that generate an estimate of the potential annual impacts to denning polar bears that is somewhat conservative in that it is more likely to overstate, rather than understate, potential impacts. Use of this methodology achieved the objective of ensuring that actual impacts would not exceed what was contemplated in the incidental take authorization and would remain consistent with applicable MMPA thresholds. However, when applied to activities spanning a 5-year period, conservative aspects of certain model assumptions are amplified in a manner that risks unduly overstating projected aggregate impacts, raising the possibility that incidental take resulting from specified activities with acceptable levels of impacts could not be authorized, a scenario that would be inconsistent with the intent of section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA. Thus, in complying with the remand's direction to aggregate Level A harassment estimates over a 5-year period, we reexamined the denning model to incorporate newly available scientific evidence and further refine certain model assumptions where appropriate to achieve greater accuracy.</P>
                <P>Since 2021, LOA applicants have annually provided the Service with revised project descriptions and geospatial files that more precisely reflected the scope of their planned activities to be conducted during the ensuing (1-year) LOA period, as compared with the descriptions of specified activities provided during development of the 5-year ITRs. We used the revised files in the present analysis as they constitute the best available information concerning the scope of Industry's specified activities. We also account for AOGA's clarification that no onshore terrestrial seismic surveys will occur during the winter of 2024-2025. Potential seismic surveys in the winter of 2025-2026 remain within the scope of AOGA's specified activities and were analyzed during our re-analysis.</P>
                <P>As a condition of their authorizations, LOA holders also submit records of all polar bear encounters during their activities. Using this information, and records from separate activities that were not operating under the 2021-ITRs, we incorporated data from recently observed dens into our disturbance probabilities and litter size distributions, modified the model to incorporate newly published data that describes the relationship between den emergence date, den departure time, and litter survival (Andersen et al. 2024), and updated the simulation of dens across the landscape to now include several previously unidentified areas that may sustain polar bear dens.</P>
                <P>Four known dens (monitored in 2022 and 2023) have occurred near human activity since the promulgation of the 2021-ITRs. Of the four newly observed dens, three were extremely close to human activity (&lt;50 meters), yet the sows remained in their dens until the late denning period. We updated polar bear disturbance probabilities and litter size distributions with the information from these dens, then reexamined the historic dens that were used to create disturbance probabilities. We found that the distances between human activity and polar bear dens that experienced an observed disturbance response during the early denning period were considerably closer than those dens that experience an observed disturbance response during other denning periods. Specifically, of the 15 dens within the case studies that were exposed to human activity during the early denning period, only 1 was potentially disturbed at a distance greater than 800 meters. This single den record also had imprecise information on the distance to human activity, so activity was assumed to occur within 1,610 meters of the den and was likely closer.</P>
                <P>The historic dens analyzed during the den establishment, late denning, and post-emergence periods did not follow this pattern. For those dens, disturbance distances commonly exceeded 805 meters. Evidence derived from dens exposed to human activity during the early denning period, including both new den records and historic dens, illustrates the reluctance of sows to abandon their maternal den/cubs in response to exposure to stimuli from nearby activity and support the concept that sows may be more risk tolerant during the early denning period. Additionally, sows may be less affected by sound from outside activities during the early denning period because dens are typically closed during that time, which can reduce propagation of noise into the den (Owen et al. 2021). Given this evidence, we modified the denning analysis model to adjust the impact area for the early denning period to range from 0 to 805 meters. As a result, dens that were simulated to be within 805 meters of human activity could be disturbed during all denning periods, while dens between 806-1,610 meters of human activity could be disturbed only during the den establishment, late denning, and post-emergence periods.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the method for categorizing certain disturbance responses was modified to comply with the Court's direction to provide aggregated estimates of Level A harassment and to better align the model results with the categories of “take” defined in the MMPA. In the preamble to the 2021-ITRs, we drew a distinction between “serious Level A” and “non-serious Level A” harassment and largely addressed these categories separately. If a sow and cub(s) emerged early (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     during the late denning period), the litter was assigned serious Level A harassment(s). If the sow and cub(s) departed the den site early (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     during the post-emergence period), the litter 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88219"/>
                    was assigned non-serious Level A harassment(s). These categories were based on the historic den disturbance case studies. Now we omit the “serious”/“non-serious” dichotomy and instead report results that aggregate all estimated Level A harassments. If an exposure resulted in disturbance during either of these periods, we assigned a Level A harassment to each cub in the litter (table 1).
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,13,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Probability of Simulated Exposures Resulting in Disturbance Response to Denning Polar Bears</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[MMPA Level A and Level B harassment and lethal take]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Denning period</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            None
                            <LI>(sow or cub(s))</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Level B
                            <LI>(sow)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Level B
                            <LI>(cub(s))</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Level A
                            <LI>(cub(s))</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Lethal
                            <LI>cub(s)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Den establishment</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.750</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.250</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Early denning</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.870</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.130</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.130</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Late denning</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.510</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.490</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.490</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Post emergence—previously undisturbed den</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.200</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.800</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Post emergence—previously disturbed den</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.474</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.526</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>We also use newly described relationships between den emergence date, den departure time, and litter survival (Andersen et al. 2024) to assign litter survival rates to simulated dens that experienced Level A harassment, a method used in recent polar bear take authorizations (88 FR 88943, December 26, 2023). If an exposure resulted in a disturbance response during the late denning period, we first assigned that den a new random earlier emergence date. We then simulated whether that den was disturbed during the post-emergence period. Dens that were disturbed during the post-emergence period were also assigned a new random earlier den departure date. We relied on estimates of litter survival derived from empirical data from approximately 100 days post emergence (Andersen et al. 2024) to determine the fitness consequence of the Level A harassment, and we consider this information below when addressing the MMPA's negligible impact standard. This revised methodology provides a clearer and more in-depth understanding of the potential fitness consequence of polar bear disturbance.</P>
                <P>As in the existing 2021-ITRs, some concepts and mitigation measures could potentially reduce impacts to polar bears, but they are not reflected in our take estimates because their mitigative benefit is not quantifiable. For example, LOA holders must train their staff to identify the characteristics of a polar bear den, and if a suspected den is identified, they must cease operations and notify the Service. However, the efficacy of this technique cannot be quantified and could not be accounted for in the model results. Consideration of the conservative nature of certain model assumptions along with qualitative factors suggests that if the actual number of Level A harassment events does not align with the median model output, the actual number of Level A harassment events would be fewer than modeled. However, we preliminarily find, based on best professional judgment, that Level A harassment is reasonably likely to occur, and is anticipated, during the 5-year period of the 2021-ITRs (table 2).</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12C,12C,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Anticipated Level A Harassment Over the 5-Year Period of the 2021-ITRs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Probability</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Median</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">95% CI *</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Level A harassment</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.93</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Confidence interval (CI).</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>We base this conclusion on the strength of the modeled probability of Level A harassment (0.93), the estimated median number of harassments (5), and denning observations that have occurred within the area of the 2021-ITRs subsequent to the promulgation of the regulations in 2021. Of the four dens that have been observed within 1 mile of the human activity since 2021, two polar bear family groups appear to have spent less time at the den site during the post emergence period than average. Following the relationship between den emergence date and den departure date described by Andersen et al. (2024), the cubs in the early departing family groups may have experienced a reduction in fitness and, as a result, a temporary decrease in their probability of survival. The Service considers such reductions in fitness as “injuries” for the purposes of interpreting the MMPA's definition of Level A harassment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Updated and Revised Findings</HD>
                <P>Our reanalysis has led to the conclusion that Level A harassment of polar bears is reasonably likely to occur during the 5-year effective period of the 2021-ITRs. Due to this conclusion, and in light of the Court's remand, we propose to revise aspects of the 2021-ITRs that pertain to polar bears (but not Pacific walruses).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Updated “Small Numbers” and “Negligible Impact” Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    In conducting analysis for this proposed revision to the 2021-ITRs, we began by focusing on the impact of AOGA's specified activities that may occur during the 2 remaining years of the 2021-ITRs (which expire August 5, 2026), 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the activities to which revised regulations would apply. Using the updated information and denning model methodology described above, we estimated the potential Level B harassment, Level A harassment, and lethal take of denning polar bears that may occur as a result of these specified activities (table 3).
                    <PRTPAGE P="88220"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Annual and Aggregate Estimates of MMPA Take of Denning Polar Bears Under the 2021-ITRs August 6, 2024, Through August 5, 2026</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Probability</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Median</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">95% CI</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Level B harassment: 2-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.97</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Level B harassment: 1-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.86</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.45</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Level A harassment: 2-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.71</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Level A harassment: 1-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lethal take: 2-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.45</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lethal take: 1-year</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.65</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0-4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Small Numbers</HD>
                <P>We propose a determination that AOGA's specified activities between December 1, 2024, and August 5, 2026, would incidentally take small numbers of SBS polar bears. For this determination, we consider whether the estimated number of marine mammals to be subjected to incidental take is small relative to the population size of the species or stock.</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Within the specified geographical region, the area of Industry activity is expected to be small relative to the range of polar bears.</E>
                     SBS polar bears range well beyond the boundaries of the Beaufort Sea 2021-ITRs region. As such, the region represents only a subset of the potential area in which SBS polar bears may occur. Further, only seven percent of the 2021-ITRs area (518,800 ha of 7.9 million ha) is estimated to be impacted by Industry activities, even accounting for a disturbance zone surrounding industrial facility and transit routes. Thus, the area of Industry activity will be relatively small compared to the range of polar bears.
                </P>
                <P>We expect that only small numbers of the SBS polar bear stock would be taken by the Industry activities specified in the 2021-ITRs because SBS polar bears are widely distributed throughout their expansive range, which encompasses areas beyond the Beaufort Sea 2021-ITRs region, meaning only a small proportion of the SBS polar bear stock will occur in the areas where Industry activities will occur, and the estimated number of polar bears that could be impacted by the specified activities is small relative to the size of the stock.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of polar bears that will be harassed by Industry activity is small relative to the number of animals in their stocks.</E>
                     The Beaufort Sea 2021-ITRs region is completely within the range of the SBS stock of polar bears, and during some portions of the year polar bears can be frequently encountered by Industry. From 2014 through 2018, Industry made 1,166 polar bear reports comprising 1,698 bears. However, when we evaluated the effects upon the 1,698 bears observed, we found that 84 percent (1,434) did not experience take. Over those 5 years, Level B harassments of polar bears totaled 264, approximately 15.5 percent of the observed bears. No other forms of take or harassment were observed. Annually an average of 340 polar bears were observed during Industry activities. The number of observed Level B harassment events averaged 53 per year from 2014 to 2018. We conclude that over the remaining 2 years of the 2021-ITRs, Industry activities will result in a similarly small number of incidental harassments of polar bears.
                </P>
                <P>Based on this information derived from Industry observations, along with the results of the Service's own predictive modeling analysis described above, we estimate that no more than 184 Level B harassment takes and 2 Level A harassment takes of polar bears will occur during the remaining 2 years of the 2021-ITRs, with no more than 92 Level B and 2 Level A harassment takes occurring within a single year. Conservatively assuming that, in a given year, each estimated take will accrue to a different individual polar bear, we note that take of 94 animals is 10.36 percent of the best available estimate of the current stock size of 907 animals in the SBS stock (Bromaghin et al. 2015, Atwood et al. 2020) ((94 ÷ 907) × 100 ≉ 10.36), and we propose a finding that this proportion represents a “small number” of polar bears of that stock. While we do not have data to estimate the frequency of repeated Level B harassments to the same polar bear in different years, polar bears exhibiting terrestrial habitat preferences may be harassed repeatedly. Thus, it is highly probable that the number of individuals experiencing Level B harassment over the 2024-2026 period is less than 184.</P>
                <P>
                    While the Service does not propose to retroactively authorize any incidental take, we also address the remand directive to “evaluate the five-year impacts of Level A take” and determine whether that take “will be of `small numbers' of bears.” Once again conservatively assuming that each estimated take over the 5-year period accrues to a different individual polar bear, we note that take is not anticipated to exceed 94 animals in any of the 5 years and take of 94 animals is 10.36 percent of the best available estimate of the current stock size of 907 animals in the SBS stock. This proportion represents a “small number” of polar bears of that stock. We conservatively base this preliminary determination on all the specified activities originally described in AOGA's request, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     without discounting the estimated take associated with specified activities that were planned for the initial 3 years of the 2021-ITR but did not actually occur.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Negligible Impact</HD>
                <P>We proposed a determination that AOGA's specific activities would result in a negligible impact to the SBS stock of polar bears. For our negligible impact determination finding, we consider the following:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">The number of polar bears that use the terrestrial habitat of the North Slope is small in relation to the entire SBS stock.</E>
                     The distribution and habitat use patterns of polar bears indicate that relatively few polar bears will occur in the specified areas of activity at any particular time and, therefore, few polar bears are likely to be affected.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation measures will reduce potential impacts.</E>
                     If this proposed rule is finalized, the applicant will be required to adopt monitoring requirements and mitigation measures designed to reduce the potential impacts of their operations on polar bears. Den detection surveys for polar bears and adaptive mitigation and management responses based on real-time monitoring information (described in this proposed rule) will be used to avoid or minimize interactions with polar bears and, therefore, limit potential disturbance of these animals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The majority of human-polar bear interactions will result in no effect or short-term, temporary behavioral changes.</E>
                     When developing estimates for Level B harassment, we have determined that there is a 99 percent chance that at least 81 percent of encounters with bears on the surface in the open water season and 63 percent of encounters with bears on the surface in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88221"/>
                    the ice season are expected to result in no significant change in a biologically important behavior. The remainder of encounters are anticipated to result in short-term, temporary changes in behavior.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Few dens would occur in proximity to Industry activities.</E>
                     Our denning simulations show that on average six dens are estimated to occur within 1 mile of the specified activities during each of the next two denning seasons (2024-2025 and 2025-2026). This number represents roughly 5 percent of the approximately 120 SBS polar bear dens that are established each year. The mitigation measures required by the 2021-ITRs reduce the estimated number of Level A disturbed dens to 1.8 percent of the land-based dens and 0.9 percent of all dens in the SBS stock (figure 1).
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Figure 1—Proportion of SBS land-based dens that are estimated to experience Level A disturbance each year. Land-based dens represent roughly half of the SBS maternal polar bear dens established each year.</FP>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="234">
                    <GID>EP07NO24.084</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Anticipated Level A harassments will not alter the distribution of cub survival probabilities for the SBS stock.</E>
                     We anticipate two Level A harassment events may occur as a result of the specified activities over a period of 2 years. The updated denning analysis model allows us to examine the simulated dens to estimate the probability of litter survival to 100 days using both their undisturbed and disturbed (if applicable) emergence and departure dates. With this information, we can determine the average decrease in survival probability that can be attributed to potential Industry disturbance. Only 0.9 percent of dens within the SBS stock are anticipated to experience Level A harassment annually. For those dens that experience harassment, the mean probability of litter survival before disturbance was 87.3 percent. After simulating disturbance, the mean probability of litter survival was 72.8 percent, a decrease of 14 percent. However, given the low percentage of SBS dens that are anticipated to experience Level A harassment, the 14 percent decrease does not alter or shift the overall survival probability distribution for the SBS stock (figure 2).
                </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Figure 2—Litter survival probability distributions for the annual land-based dens of the SBS polar bear stock (Graph A: Survival probabilities simulated with no disturbance from Industry; Graph B: Survival probabilities simulated with estimated Level A harassment from Industry activities).</FP>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="380">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88222"/>
                    <GID>EP07NO24.085</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Lethal take via den abandonment is rare within the Southern Beaufort Sea stock.</E>
                     Records of den abandonment in the oilfield are rare—we have only 2 accounts of potential den abandonment within the 15 case studies used to develop early denning period disturbance rates. Applying the denning model, the greatest annual probability of lethal take in the final 2 years of the 2021-ITRs is 0.31. The aggregated probability of lethal take over a 2-year period is 0.45, indicating lethal take due to sow abandonment of the den and litter during the early denning period is unlikely. We do not believe the estimate of lethal take is inaccurate; however, it is potentially conservative.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">We do not anticipate that loss of a cub or litter will adversely affect annual recruitment rates at the population level.</E>
                     If a den is disturbed and the disturbance resulted in cub mortality, such take would not be authorized under the revised 2021-ITRs. Any Level A harassment would be limited to only cubs during the denning period. Impacts to denning females, the demographic group most important to annual recruitment, would be limited to take by Level B harassment. Therefore, the immediate number of potentially available reproductive females that would contribute to recruitment for the SBS stock would remain unaffected if a den disturbance were to result in the mortality of the cubs. If a den disturbance were to result in the mortality of the entire litter, the female would be available to breed during the next mating season and produce another litter during the next denning season.
                </P>
                <P>Cubs inherently cannot contribute to annual rates of recruitment until they have reached sexual maturity. Further, while adult male bears would contribute to the overall number of individuals in the population, they do not contribute significantly to annual rates of recruitment. While a very small decrease in the number of males in a breeding population may be a concern if the stock was at risk of inbreeding depression or allee effects, this is not the case in the SBS stock. Female cubs have the opportunity to reach sexual maturity and contribute to annual recruitment; however, natural rates of survival fluctuate in the SBS stock. As such, death of less than one female cub per year is within the natural variability found within the SBS stock and cannot be reasonably expected to cause an adverse impact on annual rates of recruitment.</P>
                <P>Based on the low percentage of SBS stock polar bears potentially being removed from the stock if den disturbance were to result in the mortality of the cubs, and the expectation that the number of potentially available reproductive females that would contribute to recruitment would be unaffected by den disturbance, the Service does not anticipate that the loss of a cub or litter would adversely affect annual recruitment rates at the population level for the SBS stock of polar bears.</P>
                <P>
                    We reviewed the effects of Industry activities on polar bears, including impacts from surface interactions, aircraft overflights, marine vessel traffic, and den disturbance. Based on our 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88223"/>
                    review of these potential impacts, past monitoring reports, and the biology and natural history of polar bears, we conclude that any incidental take reasonably likely to occur as a result of specified activities would be limited to short-term behavioral disturbances and temporary reductions in fitness that would not affect the rates of recruitment or survival for the SBS stock of polar bears.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed the potential impact of the proposed taking in light of other factors affecting SBS polar bears, including subsistence harvest and other human-caused removals as well as climate change. Climate change is a global phenomenon and was considered as the overall driver of effects that could alter polar bear habitat and behavior. The Service is currently involved in research to understand how climate change may affect polar bears. As we gain a better understanding of climate change effects, we will incorporate the information in future authorizations. While climate change and other ongoing factors pose significant challenges to SBS polar bears, we do not expect them to influence the degree of impacts (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     short-term behavioral responses and temporary reductions in fitness) resulting from the specified activities or incidental harassment to be authorized under a revised ITR.
                </P>
                <P>Our analysis indicates that the impacts of these specified activities over the remaining 2 years addressed by the 2021-ITRs cannot be reasonably expected to, and are not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the SBS stock of polar bears through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. We therefore propose a determination that the total of the taking estimated above and to be authorized via the revised 2021-ITRs will have no more than a negligible impact on the SBS stock of polar bears.</P>
                <P>
                    While the Service does not propose to retroactively authorize any incidental take, we also address the remand directive to “evaluate whether the five-year impacts of Level A take is ‘negligible.’ ” Because we do not anticipate adverse effects to the SBS stock through effects on annual rates or recruitment or survival over the remaining 2 years, and because the scope of specified activities and the extent of estimated impacts is largely consistent across each year of the 5-year period, we propose a determination that the total of the taking estimated above over the 5-year period cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the SBS stock of polar bears through effect on annual rates or recruitment or survival, and thus will have no more than a negligible impact on the SBS stock of polar bears. We conservatively base this preliminary determination on all the specified activities originally described in AOGA's request, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     without discounting the estimated impacts of specified activities that were planned for the initial 3 years of the 2021-ITR but did not actually occur.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reevaluation of Other ITR Provisions</HD>
                <P>We have not identified any means through which the Level A harassment described above, in combination with the Level B harassment already contemplated in the 2021-ITRs, is likely to reduce the availability of SBS polar bears to a level insufficient for harvest to meet subsistence needs. Thus, we preliminarily reaffirm our finding that the total taking will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of SBS polar bears or Pacific walruses for taking for subsistence uses.</P>
                <P>
                    We have not identified any additional (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not already incorporated into the 2021-ITRs) mitigation measures that are effective in reducing the impact of Industry activities but are not so restrictive as to make Industry activities unduly burdensome or impossible to undertake and complete. Thus, we preliminarily reaffirm our finding that the mitigation measures required by the 2021-ITRs will ensure the least practicable adverse impacts on SBS polar bears and Pacific walruses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We have not identified any additional (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not already incorporated into the 2021-ITRs) monitoring or reporting requirements to better assess the effects of industrial activities, ensure that the number of takes and the effects of taking are consistent with that anticipated in the ITR, or detect any unanticipated effects on SBS polar bears or Pacific walruses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Updates</HD>
                <P>
                    In addition to proposing amendments to the regulations in 50 CFR part 18 to accomplish the regulatory revisions described above, we also propose regulatory revisions to update our regulations that carry out the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA; 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). The proposed revisions to §§ 18.4, 18.129, and 18.152 that are set forth in the rule portion of this document are administrative and nonsubstantive. These proposed changes would serve only to update and streamline the regulatory text that ensures our regulations in 50 CFR part 18 are in compliance with the PRA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    If you wish to comment on this proposed rule or the associated draft environmental assessment, you may submit your comments by any of the methods described in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Please identify if you are commenting on the proposed regulations, draft environmental assessment, or both, make your comments as specific as possible, confine them to issues pertinent to the proposed regulations, and explain the reason for any changes you recommend. Where possible, your comments should reference the specific section or paragraph that you are addressing. We will consider all comments that are received by the close of the comment period (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>Comments, including names and street addresses of respondents, will become part of the administrative record. Before including your address, telephone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, be advised that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comments to withhold from public review your personal identifying information, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Required Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)</HD>
                <P>
                    We have prepared a draft supplemental environmental assessment in accordance with NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). We have preliminarily concluded that the proposed revisions to additionally authorize two takes by Level A harassment of polar bears during the remaining 2 years of the 2021-ITRs would not significantly affect the quality of the human environment and, thus, preparation of an environmental impact statement for this proposed rule is not required by section 102(2) of NEPA or its implementing regulations. We are accepting comments on the draft environmental assessment as specified above in 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Endangered Species Act (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.)</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the ESA, all Federal agencies are required to ensure the actions they authorize are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any threatened or endangered species or result in destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. The polar bear is listed as a threatened species under the ESA at 50 CFR 17.11(h) with provisions 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88224"/>
                    issued under section 4(d) of the ESA at 50 CFR 17.40(q) and designated critical habitat for polar bear subpopulations in the United States at 50 CFR 17.95(a). On August 3, 2021, the Service issued a biological opinion on the 2021-ITRs, concluding that, “[Issuance of the 2021-ITRs] is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of polar bears by appreciably reducing the likelihood of both survival and recovery of the species in the wild by reducing its reproduction, numbers, or distribution.” Because this proposed regulation change, if finalized, would allow both Level A and B taking of polar bears, whereas the 2021-ITRs provide for only Level B taking of polar bears, our Marine Mammal Management Office has re-initiated intra-Service ESA section 7 consultation regarding the effects of these proposed regulations with our Fairbanks' Ecological Services Field Office. We would complete the consultation prior to finalizing these proposed regulation revisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Planning and Review (Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14904)</HD>
                <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 14094 amends and reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563 and states that regulatory analysis should facilitate agency efforts to develop regulations that serve the public interest, advance statutory objectives, and are consistent with E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563, and the Presidential Memorandum of January 20, 2021 (Modernizing Regulatory Review). Regulatory analysis, as practicable and appropriate, shall recognize distributive impacts and equity, to the extent permitted by law. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this proposed rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
                <P>We have determined that this proposed rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This proposed rule is not likely to result in a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, or government agencies or have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises in domestic or export markets.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    We have also determined that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Oil companies and their contractors conducting exploration, development, and production activities in Alaska have been identified as the only likely applicants under the regulations, and these potential applicants have not been identified as small businesses. Therefore, neither a regulatory flexibility analysis nor a small entity compliance guide is required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Takings Implications</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule does not have takings implications under Executive Order 12630 because it authorizes the nonlethal, incidental, but not intentional, take of polar bears by Industry and thereby, exempts these companies from civil and criminal liability as long as they operate in compliance with the terms of their LOAs. Therefore, a takings implications assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Federalism Effects</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule does not contain policies with federalism implications sufficient to warrant preparation of a federalism assessment under Executive Order 13132. The MMPA gives the Service the authority and responsibility to protect polar bears.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), this proposed rule would not “significantly or uniquely” affect small governments. A small government agency plan is not required. The Service has determined and certifies pursuant to the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act that this rulemaking would not impose a cost of $100 million or more in any given year on local or State governments or private entities. Therefore, this proposed rule is not a “significant regulatory action” under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Government-to-Government Coordination</HD>
                <P>It is our responsibility to communicate and work directly on a government-to-government basis with federally recognized Alaska Native Tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems. We seek their full and meaningful participation in evaluating and addressing conservation concerns for protected species. It is our goal to remain sensitive to Alaska Native culture, and to make information available to Alaska Tribal organizations and communities. Our efforts are guided by the following policies and directives:</P>
                <P>(1) The Native American Policy of the Service (January 20, 2016);</P>
                <P>(2) The Alaska Native Relations Policy (currently in draft form; see 87 FR 66255, November 3, 2022);</P>
                <P>(3) Executive Order 13175 (January 9, 2000);</P>
                <P>(4) Department of the Interior Secretary's Orders 3206 (June 5, 1997), 3225 (January 19, 2001), 3317 (December 1, 2011), 3342 (October 21, 2016), and 3403 (November 15, 2021) as well as Director's Order 227 (September 8, 2022);</P>
                <P>(5) The Alaska Government-to-Government Policy (a departmental memorandum issued January 18, 2001); and</P>
                <P>(6) the Department of the Interior's policies on consultation with Alaska Native Tribes and organizations.</P>
                <P>We have evaluated possible effects of the proposed rule on federally recognized Alaska Native Tribes and ANCSA (Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act) Corporations. The Service has determined that authorizing two takes by Level A harassment of polar bears during the remaining 2 years of the 2021-ITRs, with no more than two Level A harassment takes occurring within a single year from the SBS stock of polar bears, would not have any Tribal implications or ANCSA Corporation implications and, therefore, government-to-government consultation or Government-to-ANCSA Corporation consultation is not necessary. However, we invite continued discussion through the public comment process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>The Department's Office of the Solicitor has determined that these proposed regulations do not unduly burden the judicial system and meet the applicable standards provided in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule requests a revision to an existing information collection. All information collections (ICs) require approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB previously reviewed and approved the information collection requirements associated with incidental take of marine mammals in 50 CFR part 18, subparts J and L, and assigned OMB 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88225"/>
                    Control Number 1018-0070 (expires July 31, 2026).
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with the PRA and its implementing regulations at 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on our proposal to revise OMB Control Number 1018-0070 and on our request for a new control number as described below. This input will help us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It will also help the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, and in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on any aspect of this proposed information collection, including:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this proposed rulemaking are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>This is a nonform collection. Respondents must comply with the regulations at 50 CFR part 18, which outline the procedures and requirements for submitting a request. Specific regulations governing authorized incidental take of marine mammal activities are contained in 50 CFR part 18, subparts J (incidental take of polar bears and Pacific walruses in the Beaufort Sea) and L (incidental take of northern sea otters in the Gulf of Alaska). These regulations provide the applicant with a detailed description of information that we need to evaluate the proposed activity and determine if it is appropriate to issue specific regulations and, subsequently, LOAs. We use the information to verify the findings required to issue incidental take regulations, to decide if we should issue an LOA, and (if an LOA is issued) what conditions should be included in the LOA. In addition, we analyze the information to determine impacts to polar bears, Pacific walruses, northern sea otters, and the availability of those marine mammals for subsistence purposes of Alaska Natives.</P>
                <P>In conjunction with this rulemaking, we propose the following revisions for OMB approval:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Revise and renew OMB Control No. 1018-0070 to retain the currently approved ICs and burden estimates associated with 50 CFR part 18, subpart J—Beaufort Sea</E>
                    —This ITR in subpart J, issued to the Alaska Oil and Gas Association (AOGA) is effective August 5, 2021, through August 5, 2026. It authorizes the nonlethal incidental, but not intentional, take of small numbers of polar bear and Pacific walrus for oil and gas exploration, development, and production activities in the Beaufort Sea and adjacent northern coast of Alaska. Unless a new ITR is issued for subpart J, we will discontinue OMB Control No. 1018-0070 when the ITR expires in 2026.
                </P>
                <P>We request OMB approval to renew the following ICs and to adjust the currently approved burden associated with the ICs in subpart J that will remain in OMB Control No. 1018-0070:</P>
                <P>
                    (A) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Application for Regulations</E>
                    —Regulations at 50 CFR part 18 require the applicant to provide information on the activity as a whole, which includes, but is not limited to, an assessment of total impacts by all persons conducting the activity. Applicants can find specific requirements in 50 CFR part 18, subpart J. These regulations provide the applicant with a detailed description of information that we need to evaluate the proposed activity and determine whether to issue specific regulations and, subsequently, LOAs. The required information includes:
                </P>
                <P>1. A description of the specific activity or class of activities that can be expected to result in incidental taking of marine mammals.</P>
                <P>2. The dates and duration of such activity and the specific geographical region where it will occur.</P>
                <P>3. Based on the best available scientific information, each applicant must also provide:</P>
                <P>a. An estimate of the species and numbers of marine mammals likely to be taken by age, sex, and reproductive conditions;</P>
                <P>
                    b. The type of taking (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     disturbance by sound, injury or death resulting from collision, etc.) and the number of times such taking is likely to occur;
                </P>
                <P>c. A description of the status, distribution, and seasonal distribution (when applicable) of the affected species or stocks likely to be affected by such activities;</P>
                <P>d. The anticipated impact of the activity upon the species or stocks; and</P>
                <P>e. The anticipated impact of the activity on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses.</P>
                <P>4. The anticipated impact of the activity upon the habitat of the marine mammal populations and the likelihood of restoration of the affected habitat.</P>
                <P>5. The availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, their habitat, and, where relevant, on their availability for subsistence uses, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance. (The applicant and those conducting the specified activity and the affected subsistence users are encouraged to develop mutually agreeable mitigating measures that will meet the needs of subsistence users.)</P>
                <P>6. Suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species through an analysis of the level of taking or impacts and suggested means of minimizing burdens by coordinating such reporting requirements with other schemes already applicable to persons conducting such activity.</P>
                <P>7. Suggested means of learning of, encouraging, and coordinating research opportunities, plans, and activities relating to reducing such incidental taking from such specified activities, and evaluating its effects.</P>
                <P>
                    8. Applicants must develop and implement a site-specific (or umbrella plan addressing site-specific considerations), Service-approved marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of mitigation measures and the effects of activities on marine 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88226"/>
                    mammals and the subsistence use of these species.
                </P>
                <P>9. Applicants must also provide trained, qualified, and Service-approved onsite observers to carry out monitoring and mitigation activities identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan.</P>
                <P>This information is necessary for the Service to anticipate the impact of the activity on the species or stocks and on the availability of the species or stocks for Alaska Native subsistence uses. Under requirements of the MMPA, we cannot authorize a take unless the total of all takes will have a negligible impact on the species or stocks and, where appropriate, will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses. These requirements ensure that applicants are aware of related monitoring and research efforts they can apply to their situation, and that the monitoring and reporting that we impose are the least burdensome to the applicant.</P>
                <P>
                    (B) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Requests for LOA</E>
                    —LOAs, which may be issued only to U.S. citizens, are required to conduct activities pursuant to any specific regulations established. Once specific regulations are effective, the Service will, to the maximum extent possible, process subsequent requests for LOAs within 30 days after receipt of the request by the Service. All LOAs will specify the period of validity and any additional terms and conditions appropriate for the specific request. Issuance of LOAs will be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the specific regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (C) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Final Monitoring Report</E>
                    —The results of monitoring and mitigation efforts identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan must be submitted to the Service for review within 90 days of the expiration of an LOA. Upon request, final report data must be provided in a common electronic format (to be specified by the Service). Information in the final (or annual) report must include, but is not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>1. Copies of all observation reports submitted under the LOA;</P>
                <P>2. A summary of the observation reports;</P>
                <P>3. A summary of monitoring and mitigation efforts including areas, total hours, total distances, and distribution;</P>
                <P>4. Analysis of factors affecting the visibility and detectability of walruses and polar bears during monitoring;</P>
                <P>5. Analysis of the effectiveness of mitigation measures;</P>
                <P>6. Analysis of the distribution, abundance, and behavior of walruses and/or polar bears observed; and</P>
                <P>7. Estimates of take in relation to the specified activities.</P>
                <P>
                    (D) 
                    <E T="03">Polar Bear Den Detection Report</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA seeking to carry out onshore activities in known or suspected polar bear denning habitat during the denning season must make efforts to locate occupied polar bear dens within and near proposed areas of operation. They may use any appropriate tool, such as forward-looking infrared imagery and/or polar bear scent-trained dogs, in concert with denning habitat maps along the Alaskan coast.
                </P>
                <P>1. In accordance with 50 CFR 18.128(b)(1) and (2), LOA holders must report all observed or suspected polar bear dens to us prior to the initiation of activities. We use this information to determine the appropriate terms and conditions in an individual LOA in order to minimize potential impacts and disturbance to polar bears.</P>
                <P>2. Holders of an LOA seeking to carry out onshore activities during the denning season (November-April) must conduct two separate surveys for occupied polar bear dens in all denning habitat within 1.6 km (1 mi) of proposed activities using aerial infrared (AIR) imagery. Further, all denning habitat within 1.6 km (1 mi) of areas of proposed seismic surveys must be surveyed three separate times with AIR technology.</P>
                <P>3. Flight crews will record and report environmental parameters including air temperature, dew point, wind speed and direction, cloud ceiling, and percent humidity, and a flight log will be provided to the Service within 48 hours of the flight.</P>
                <P>
                    (E) 
                    <E T="03">In-Season Monitoring—Activity Progress Reports</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must:
                </P>
                <P>1. Notify the Service at least 48 hours prior to the onset of activities;</P>
                <P>2. Provide the Service weekly progress reports of any significant changes in activities and/or locations; and</P>
                <P>3. Notify the Service within 48 hours after ending of activities.</P>
                <P>
                    (F) 
                    <E T="03">In-season Monitoring—Observation Reports</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must report, within 48 hours, all observations of polar bears and potential polar bear dens, during any industry activity. Upon request, monitoring report data must be provided in a common electronic format (to be specified by the Service). Information in the observation report must include, but is not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>1. Date, time, and location of observation;</P>
                <P>2. Number of bears;</P>
                <P>3. Sex and age of bears (if known);</P>
                <P>4. Observer name and contact information;</P>
                <P>5. Weather, visibility, sea state, and sea-ice conditions at the time of observation;</P>
                <P>6. Estimated closest distance of bears from personnel and facilities;</P>
                <P>7. Industry activity at time of sighting;</P>
                <P>8. Possible attractants present;</P>
                <P>9. Bear behavior;</P>
                <P>10. Description of the encounter;</P>
                <P>11. Duration of the encounter; and</P>
                <P>12. Mitigation actions taken.</P>
                <P>
                    (G) 
                    <E T="03">Notification of LOA Incident Report</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must report, as soon as possible, but within 48 hours, all LOA incidents during any Industry activity. An LOA incident is any situation when specified activities exceed the authority of an LOA, when a mitigation measure was required but not enacted, or when injury or death of a marine mammal occurs. Reports must include:
                </P>
                <P>1. All information specified for an observation report;</P>
                <P>2. A complete detailed description of the incident; and</P>
                <P>3. Any other actions taken.</P>
                <P>
                    (H) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Interaction Plan</E>
                    —All holders of an LOA must have an approved polar bear safety, awareness, and interaction plan on file with the Service's Marine Mammals Management Office and onsite and provide polar bear awareness training to certain personnel. Interaction plans must include:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. The type of activity and where and when the activity will occur (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a summary of the plan of operation);
                </P>
                <P>2. A food, waste, and other “bear attractants” management plan;</P>
                <P>3. Personnel training policies, procedures, and materials;</P>
                <P>4. Site-specific walrus and bear interaction risk evaluation and mitigation measures;</P>
                <P>5. Bear avoidance and encounter procedures; and</P>
                <P>6. Bear observation and reporting procedures.</P>
                <P>
                    (I) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—3rd Party Notifications</E>
                    —All applicants for an LOA must contact affected Alaska Native subsistence communities and hunter organizations to discuss potential conflicts caused by the activities and provide the Service documentation of communications.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (J) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Requests for Exemption Waivers</E>
                    —Exemption waivers to the operating conditions in 50 CFR 18.126(c) may be issued by the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88227"/>
                    Service on a case-by-case basis, based upon a review of seasonal ice conditions and available information on walrus and polar bear distributions in the area of interest.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (K) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Plan of Cooperation</E>
                    —When appropriate, a holder of an LOA will be required to develop and implement a Service-approved plan of cooperation (POC).
                </P>
                <P>1. The POC must include a description of the procedures by which the holder of the LOA will work and consult with potentially affected Alaska Native subsistence hunters and a description of specific measures that have been or will be taken to avoid or minimize interference with subsistence hunting of otters, walruses, and polar bears and to ensure continued availability of the species for subsistence use.</P>
                <P>2. The Service will review the POC to ensure that any potential adverse effects on the availability of the animals are minimized. The Service will reject POCs if they do not provide adequate safeguards to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on the availability of walruses and polar bears for subsistence use.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) 
                    <E T="03">Revise OMB Control No. 1018-0070 to remove references to, and all burden associated with, information collections (ICs) in 50 CFR part 18, subpart K—Cook Inlet, to include updating the title of this collection</E>
                    —The ITR in subpart K, issued to Hilcorp Alaska, LLC, Harvest Alaska, LLC, and the Alaska Gasline Development Corporation on August 1, 2019, authorized the nonlethal, incidental, but not intentional, take of small numbers of northern sea otters (
                    <E T="03">Enhydra lutris kenyoni</E>
                    ) for activities associated with or in support of oil and gas exploration, development, production, and transportation in Cook Inlet, Alaska. This ITR expired on August 1, 2024, and is no longer active; therefore, we are removing the reference to the ICR, along with the associated burden, from OMB Control No. 1018-0070.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">Request a new control number for the currently approved ICs and burden estimates associated with 50 CFR part 18, subpart L—U.S. Coast Guard</E>
                    —We will submit a separate information collection request to OMB for approval that will contain the applicable ICs and associated burden for subpart L previously approved by OMB under OMB Control No. 1018-0070. The ITR in subpart L, effective May 19, 2023, authorizes the nonlethal, incidental, unintentional take by harassment of small numbers of northern sea otters (otters; 
                    <E T="03">Enhydra lutris kenyoni</E>
                    ) while engaged in activities associated with or in support of marine construction activities in the Gulf of Alaska. Unless a new ITR is issued for subpart L, we will discontinue the newly assigned control number when the ITR expires on May 19, 2028.
                </P>
                <P>We propose to transfer the following currently approved ICs from OMB Control No. 1018-0070 into a new control number:</P>
                <P>
                    (A) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Application for Regulations</E>
                    —Regulations at 50 CFR part 18 require the applicant to provide information on the activity as a whole, which includes, but is not limited to, an assessment of total impacts by all persons conducting the activity. Applicants can find specific requirements in 50 CFR part 18, subpart J. These regulations provide the applicant with a detailed description of information that we need to evaluate the proposed activity and determine whether to issue specific regulations and, subsequently, LOAs. The required information includes:
                </P>
                <P>1. A description of the specific activity or class of activities that can be expected to result in incidental taking of marine mammals.</P>
                <P>2. The dates and duration of such activity and the specific geographical region where it will occur.</P>
                <P>3. Based on the best available scientific information, each applicant must also provide:</P>
                <P>a. An estimate of the species and numbers of marine mammals likely to be taken by age, sex, and reproductive conditions;</P>
                <P>
                    b. The type of taking (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     disturbance by sound, injury or death resulting from collision, etc.) and the number of times such taking is likely to occur;
                </P>
                <P>c. A description of the status, distribution, and seasonal distribution (when applicable) of the affected species or stocks likely to be affected by such activities;</P>
                <P>d. The anticipated impact of the activity upon the species or stocks; and</P>
                <P>e. The anticipated impact of the activity on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses.</P>
                <P>4. The anticipated impact of the activity upon the habitat of the marine mammal populations and the likelihood of restoration of the affected habitat.</P>
                <P>5. The availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, their habitat, and, where relevant, on their availability for subsistence uses, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance. (The applicant and those conducting the specified activity and the affected subsistence users are encouraged to develop mutually agreeable mitigating measures that will meet the needs of subsistence users.)</P>
                <P>6. Suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species through an analysis of the level of taking or impacts and suggested means of minimizing burdens by coordinating such reporting requirements with other schemes already applicable to persons conducting such activity.</P>
                <P>7. Suggested means of learning of, encouraging, and coordinating research opportunities, plans, and activities relating to reducing such incidental taking from such specified activities, and evaluating its effects.</P>
                <P>8. Applicants must develop and implement a site-specific (or umbrella plan addressing site-specific considerations), Service-approved marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of mitigation measures and the effects of activities on marine mammals and the subsistence use of these species.</P>
                <P>9. Applicants must also provide trained, qualified, and Service-approved onsite observers to carry out monitoring and mitigation activities identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan.</P>
                <P>This information is necessary for the Service to anticipate the impact of the activity on the species or stocks and on the availability of the species or stocks for Alaska Native subsistence uses. Under requirements of the MMPA, we cannot authorize a take unless the total of all takes will have a negligible impact on the species or stocks and, where appropriate, will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses. These requirements ensure that applicants are aware of related monitoring and research efforts they can apply to their situation, and that the monitoring and reporting requirements that we impose are the least burdensome to the applicant.</P>
                <P>
                    (B) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Requests for LOA</E>
                    —LOAs, which may be issued only to U.S. citizens, are required to conduct activities pursuant to any specific regulations established. Once specific regulations are effective, the Service will, to the maximum extent possible, process subsequent requests for LOAs within 30 days after receipt of the request by the Service. All LOAs will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88228"/>
                    specify the period of validity and any additional terms and conditions appropriate for the specific request. Issuance of LOAs will be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the specific regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (C) 
                    <E T="03">Incidental Take of Marine Mammals—Final Monitoring Report</E>
                    —The results of monitoring and mitigation efforts identified in the marine mammal monitoring and mitigation plan must be submitted to the Service for review within 90 days of the expiration of an LOA. Upon request, final report data must be provided in a common electronic format (to be specified by the Service). Information in the final (or annual) report must include, but is not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>1. A summary of monitoring efforts (hours of monitoring, activities monitored, number of protected species observers (PSOs), and, if requested by the Service, the daily monitoring logs).</P>
                <P>
                    2. A description of all project activities, along with any additional work yet to be done. Factors influencing visibility and detectability of otters (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     sea state, number of observers, and fog and glare) will be discussed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. A description of the factors affecting the presence and distribution of sea otters (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     weather, sea state, and project activities). An estimate will be included of the number of sea otters exposed to noise at received levels greater than or equal to 160 dBRMS re: 1 µPa (decibels root-mean squared referenced to 1 microPascal) (based on visual observation).
                </P>
                <P>4. A description of changes in sea otter behavior resulting from project activities and any specific behaviors of interest.</P>
                <P>5. A discussion of the mitigation measures implemented during project activities and their observed effectiveness for minimizing impacts to sea otters. Sea otter observation records will be provided to the Service in the form of electronic database or spreadsheet files.</P>
                <P>
                    (D) 
                    <E T="03">In-Season Monitoring—Activity Progress Reports</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must:
                </P>
                <P>1. Notify the Service at least 48 hours prior to the onset of activities;</P>
                <P>2. Provide the Service weekly progress reports of any significant changes in activities and/or locations;</P>
                <P>
                    3. Injured, dead, or distressed sea otters that are not associated with project activities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     animals known to be from outside the project area, previously wounded animals, or carcasses with moderate to advanced decomposition or scavenger damage) must be reported to the Service within 24 hours of the discovery to either the Service MMM (1-800-362-5148, business hours); or the Alaska SeaLife Center in Seward (1-888-774-7325, 24 hours a day); or both. Photographs, video, location information, or any other available documentation must be provided to the Service.
                </P>
                <P>4. Notify the Service within 48 hours after ending of activities.</P>
                <P>
                    (E) 
                    <E T="03">In-season Monitoring—Observation Reports</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must report, within 48 hours, all observations of polar bears and potential polar bear dens, during any Industry activity. Upon request, monitoring report data must be provided in a common electronic format (to be specified by the Service). Information in the observation report must include, but is not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>1. Date, time; the observer's locations, heading, and speed (if moving); weather; visibility; number of animals; group size and composition (adults/juveniles); and the location of the animals (or distance and direction from the observer);</P>
                <P>2. Initial behaviors of the sea otters, descriptions of project activities and underwater sound levels being generated, the position of sea otters relative to applicable monitoring and mitigation zones, any mitigation measures applied, and any apparent reactions to the project activities before and after mitigation;</P>
                <P>3. Distance from the vessel to the sea otter upon initial observation, the duration of the encounter, and the distance at last observation in order to monitor cumulative sound exposures; and</P>
                <P>4. Any instances of animals lingering close to or traveling with vessels for prolonged periods of time.</P>
                <P>
                    (F) 
                    <E T="03">Notification of LOA Incident Report</E>
                    —Holders of an LOA must report, as soon as possible, but within 48 hours, all LOA incidents during any Industry activity. An LOA incident is any situation when specified activities exceed the authority of an LOA, when a mitigation measure was required but not enacted, or when injury or death of a marine mammal occurs. Reports must include:
                </P>
                <P>1. All information specified for an observation report;</P>
                <P>2. A complete detailed description of the incident; and</P>
                <P>3. Any other actions taken.</P>
                <P>
                    (G) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Interaction Plan</E>
                    —All holders of an LOA must have an approved polar bear safety, awareness, and interaction plan on file with the Service's Marine Mammals Management Office and onsite and provide polar bear awareness training to certain personnel. Interaction plans must include:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. The type of activity and where and when the activity will occur (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a summary of the plan of operation);
                </P>
                <P>2. Personnel training policies, procedures, and materials;</P>
                <P>3. Site-specific sea otter interaction risk evaluation and mitigation measures;</P>
                <P>4. Sea otter avoidance and encounter procedures; and</P>
                <P>5. Sea otter observation and reporting procedures.</P>
                <P>
                    (H) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—3rd Party Notifications</E>
                    —All applicants for an LOA must contact affected Alaska Native subsistence communities and hunter organizations to discuss potential conflicts caused by the activities and provide the Service documentation of communications.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (I) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Requests for Exemption Waivers</E>
                    —Exemption waivers to the operating conditions in 50 CFR 18.126(c) may be issued by the Service on a case-by-case basis, based upon a review of seasonal ice conditions and available information on marine mammal distributions in the area of interest.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (J) 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation—Plan of Cooperation</E>
                    —When appropriate, a holder of an LOA will be required to develop and implement a Service-approved plan of cooperation (POC).
                </P>
                <P>1. The POC must include a description of the procedures by which the holder of the LOA will work and consult with potentially affected subsistence hunters and a description of specific measures that have been or will be taken to avoid or minimize interference with subsistence hunting of marine mammals and to ensure continued availability of the species for subsistence use.</P>
                <P>2. The Service will review the POC to ensure that any potential adverse effects on the availability of the animals are minimized. The Service will reject POCs if they do not provide adequate safeguards to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence use.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Incidental Take of Marine Mammals During Specified Activities, 50 CFR 18.27 and 50 CFR part 18, subpart J.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1018-0070.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Oil and gas industry representatives, including applicants for ITRs and LOAs, operations managers, and environmental compliance personnel.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     61.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88229"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     201.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies from 1.25 hours to 150 hours, depending on activity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,426.
                </P>
                <P>Respondent's Obligation: Required to obtain or retain a benefit.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $350,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Incidental Take of Marine Mammals During Specified Activities, 50 CFR 18.27 and 50 CFR part 18, subpart L.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1018-New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Federal Government—U.S. Coast Guard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     22.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies from 1.25 hours to 150 hours, depending on activity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     325.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain a benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Send your comments and suggestions on this information collection by the date indicated in 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     to the Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5275 Leesburg Pike, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), Falls Church, VA 22041-3803 (mail); or 
                    <E T="03">Info_Coll@fws.gov</E>
                     (email). Please reference OMB Control Number 1018-New/0070 in the subject line of your comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Energy Effects</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13211 requires agencies to prepare statements of energy effects when undertaking certain actions. This proposed rule provides exceptions from the MMPA's taking prohibitions for Industry engaged in specified oil and gas activities in the specified geographic region. By providing certainty regarding compliance with the MMPA, this proposed rule would have a positive effect on Industry and its activities. Therefore, this proposed rule is not expected to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use and does not constitute a significant energy action. No statement of energy effects is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">References</HD>
                <P>
                    For a list of the references cited in this proposed rule, see Docket No. FWS-R7-ES-2024-0140, available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 18</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Alaska, Imports, Indians, Marine mammals, Oil and gas exploration, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Regulation Promulgation</HD>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Service proposes to amend part 18, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 18—MARINE MAMMALS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation of part 18 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 18.4</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Removed]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. Remove § 18.4.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 18.124 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 18.124</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Authorized take allowed under a Letter of Authorization (LOA).</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) An LOA allows for the nonlethal, non-injurious, incidental, but not intentional take by Level B harassment, as defined in § 18.3 and under section 3 of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1362), of Pacific walruses while conducting oil and gas industry exploration, development, and production within the Beaufort Sea ITR region described in § 18.120.</P>
                    <P>(b) An LOA allows for the nonlethal, incidental, but not intentional take by Level A harassment and Level B harassment, as defined in § 18.3 and under section 3 of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1362), of polar bears while conducting oil and gas industry exploration, development, and production within the Beaufort Sea ITR region described in § 18.120.</P>
                    <P>(c) Each LOA will identify terms and conditions for each activity and location.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>4. Revise § 18.125 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 18.125</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Prohibited take under a Letter of Authorization (LOA).</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, prohibited taking is described in § 18.11 as well as:</P>
                    <P>(a) Level A harassment, as defined in section 3 of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1362), of Pacific walruses and intentional take and lethal incidental take of polar bears or Pacific walruses; and</P>
                    <P>(b) Any take that fails to comply with this subpart or with the terms and conditions of an LOA.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 18.129 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 18.129</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Information collection requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements contained in this subpart and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0070. Federal agencies may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Direct comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of the information collection to the Service's Information Collection Clearance Officer at the address provided at 50 CFR 2.1(b).</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 18.152</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 18.152 by removing the words, “contained in this part and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0070” and adding in their place the words, “contained in this subpart and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-New”.</AMDPAR>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shannon A. Estenoz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Fish and Wildlife and Parks.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25762 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88230"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comments Requested: USDA National Hunger Clearinghouse Database Form (FNS 543)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This is a revision of a currently approved information collection form that organizations fighting hunger and poverty fill out to keep their information up to date for use by the general public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be sent to: Jimmy Nguyen, Food and Nutrition Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1320 Braddock Place, 7th Floor, Alexandria, VA 22314. Comments may also be submitted via email to 
                        <E T="03">Jimmy.Nguyen@fns.usda.gov.</E>
                         Comments will also be accepted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for submitting comments electronically. Comments will also be accepted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal.
                    </P>
                    <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Requests for additional information or copies of this information collection should be directed to Jimmy Nguyen at 703-305-2530.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     USDA National Hunger Clearinghouse Database Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FNS-543.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0584-0474.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     4/30/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revised Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Section 26(d) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1769g (d)) (the Act), which was added to the Act by section 123 of Public Law 103-448 on November 2, 1994, mandated that FNS enter into a contract with a non-governmental organization to establish and maintain an information clearinghouse (named “USDA National Hunger Clearinghouse” or “Clearinghouse”) for groups that assist low-income individuals or communities regarding nutrition assistance programs or other assistance. Section 26(d) of this Act was most recently amended by the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2024 (Pub. L. 118-42) on March 9, 2024, to extend funding for the Clearinghouse through fiscal year 2024. FNS recently awarded another five-year contract (one year with four options) to the hunger advocacy organization Hunger Free America on May 17, 2024. Hunger Free America has had this contract since 2015.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Clearinghouse includes a database of non-governmental, grassroots organizations in the areas of hunger and nutrition, along with a mailing list to communicate with these organizations. These organizations provide their information and Clearinghouse staff use that information to provide the public with information about where they can get food assistance. Previously, the Clearinghouse used a form (FNS-543) that was downloaded from the Clearinghouse website, filled out, and submitted back to the Clearinghouse to enter into the database. For the past several years, however, the Clearinghouse has been using an electronic form (available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.tfaforms.com/4821149</E>
                    ) which automatically links to the Clearinghouse's database. This new process reduces burden on organizations, by avoiding the need for them to download the FNS-543 form, fill it out, and then submit it to the Clearinghouse; and for Clearinghouse staff, as they no longer need to manually enter the information. FNS acknowledges that the online form the Clearinghouse currently uses does not have the required burden information and OMB approval although many elements from the approved form are present on the online form. FNS will ensure that appropriate burden and OMB approval information is added to the online form. Information was obtained from the Clearinghouse to provide estimates for future collections and the following information was determined:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Respondent groups identified include (1) Food banks—Not for Profit, and (2) Other Not For Profit. Most of these groups are organizations providing nutrition assistance services to the public.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     600.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     Each respondent is expected to only participate in one survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     600.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     4 minutes (0.0667 hours).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     2,401.20 minutes (40.02 hours).
                </P>
                <P>
                    See the table below for estimated total annual burden for each type of respondent.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88231"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,10,10,10,12,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Respondent</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Responses
                            <LI>annually per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual responses
                            <LI>(Col. bxc)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated avg. number of
                            <LI>hours per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>total hours</LI>
                            <LI>(col. dxe)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Reporting Burden</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Food Banks (Not for Profit)</ENT>
                        <ENT>400</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>400</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0667</ENT>
                        <ENT>26.86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Other Not For Profit</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0667</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.34</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reporting Burden</ENT>
                        <ENT>600</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>600</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>40.02</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tameka Owens,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator and Assistant Administrator, Food and Nutrition Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25833 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ARCTIC RESEARCH COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Request for Nominations</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of vacancy.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given, pursuant to public law, which states that any vacancy occurring in the membership of the Commission shall be filled, after notice of the vacancy is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , in the manner in which the original appointment was made, for the remainder of the unexpired term. This notice is published to comply with the aforesaid requirement.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Debra Dickson, Administrative Officer, Arctic Research Commission, 703-235-1040.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Arctic Research and Policy Act of 1984 (Title I, Pub. L. 98-373) and the Presidential Executive Order on Arctic Research (Executive Order 12501) dated January 28, 1985, established the United States Arctic Research Commission and provides the authority for this notice.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Debra L. Dickson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrative Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25860 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7555-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Economic Development Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Requirements for Approved Construction Investments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Economic Development Administration, Department of Commerce</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection, request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit written comments to Jeff Roberson, Chief Counsel, U.S. Department of Commerce, via email at 
                        <E T="03">jroberson@eda.gov</E>
                         or via phone at (202) 482-1315. You may also submit comments to 
                        <E T="03">PRAcomments@doc.gov.</E>
                         Please reference OMB Control Number 0610-0096 in the subject line of your comments. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to Jeff Roberson, Chief Counsel, Economic Development Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, via email at 
                        <E T="03">jroberson@eda.gov</E>
                         or via phone at (202) 482-1315.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>
                    The Economic Development Administration (EDA) leads the Federal economic development agenda by promoting innovation and competitiveness, preparing American regions for growth and success in the worldwide economy. Guided by the basic principle that sustainable economic development should be locally driven, EDA works directly with communities and regions to help them build the capacity for economic development based on local business conditions and needs. The Public Works and Economic Development Act of 1965 (PWEDA) (42 U.S.C. 3121 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) is EDA's organic authority and is the primary legal authority under which EDA awards financial assistance. Under PWEDA, EDA provides financial assistance to both rural and urban distressed communities by fostering entrepreneurship, innovation, and productivity through investments in infrastructure development, capacity building, and business development to attract private capital investments and new and better jobs to regions experiencing economic distress. Further information on EDA programs and financial assistance opportunities can be found at 
                    <E T="03">www.eda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>To effectively administer and monitor its economic development assistance programs, EDA collects certain information from applications for, and recipients of, EDA investment assistance. EDA may award assistance for construction projects through its Public Works and Economic Adjustment Assistance (EAA) programs. Public Works program investments help support the construction or rehabilitation of essential public infrastructure and facilities necessary to generate or retain private sector jobs and investments, attract private sector capital, and promote vibrant economic ecosystems, regional competitiveness, and innovation. The EAA program provides a wide range of technical, planning, and infrastructure assistance in regions experiencing adverse economic changes that may occur suddenly or over time.</P>
                <P>
                    EDA seeks comments from the public and other Federal agencies on a proposed revision and extension of the series of checklists and templates that constitute EDA's post-approval tool for construction projects. These checklists and templates, as well as any special conditions incorporated into the terms and conditions at the time of award, supplement the requirements that apply to EDA-funded construction projects.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88232"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>The checklists and templates are collected via both paper and electronic submissions. These checklists and templates, as well as any special conditions incorporated into the terms and conditions at the time of award, supplement the requirements that apply to EDA-funded construction projects.</P>
                <P>As a part of this renewal process, EDA plans to make clarifying edits to the series of checklists and templates, thereby facilitating timely completion by the award recipient and approval by EDA. Additionally, EDA developed a collection to help recipients comply with the requirements of the Build America, Buy America provisions of the Infrastructure and Investment Jobs Act (Pub. L. 117-58); updated the environmental narrative form required for all construction projects; and developed a new version of its existing property reporting requirements to accommodate situations unique to Tribal recipients. None of the edits are expected to increase the time burden on the respondent nor do the modifications change the type of collected information.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0610-0096.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission; Revision and extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Recipients of EDA construction (Public Works or Economic Assistance Adjustment) awards, including (1) cities or other political subdivisions of a state, including a special purpose unit of state or local government engaged in economic or infrastructure development activities, or a consortium of political subdivisions; (2) states; (3) institutions of higher education or a consortium of institutions of higher education; (4) public or private non-profit organizations or associations; (5) District Organizations; and (6) Indian Tribes or a consortia of Indian Tribes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3,500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     2 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     7,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public:</E>
                     $480,200 (cost assumes application of U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics September 2024 hourly employer costs for employee compensation for professional and related occupations of $68.60).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     The Public Works and Economic Development Act of 1965 (42 U.S.C. 3121 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25901 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-24-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[B-49-2024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 250; Withdrawal of Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Boss Laser LLC; (Laser Machines); Sanford, Florida</SUBJECT>
                <P>Notice is hereby given of the withdrawal of the notification of proposed production activity submitted by Boss Laser LLC for its facility in Sanford, Florida, within FTZ 250. The notification was docketed on September 17, 2024 (89 FR 77472, September 23, 2024). The withdrawal was requested by Boss Laser LLC on October 31, 2024.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25868 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[S-153-2024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval of Subzone Status; Senior Operations LLC; New Braunfels, Texas</SUBJECT>
                <P>On August 22, 2024, the Executive Secretary of the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board docketed an application submitted by the City of San Antonio, grantee of FTZ 80, requesting subzone status subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 80, on behalf of Senior Operations LLC, in New Braunfels, Texas.</P>
                <P>
                    The application was processed in accordance with the FTZ Act and Regulations, including notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     inviting public comment (89 FR 68583-68584, August 27, 2024). The FTZ staff examiner reviewed the application and determined that it meets the criteria for approval. Pursuant to the authority delegated to the FTZ Board Executive Secretary (15 CFR 400.36(f)), the application to establish Subzone 80H was approved on November 4, 2024, subject to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations, including section 400.13, and further subject to FTZ 80's 2,000-acre activation limit.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 4, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25900 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-557-831]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From Malaysia: Amended Preliminary Determination of Countervailing Duty Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is amending the preliminary affirmative countervailing duty determination on crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not assembled into modules (solar 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88233"/>
                        cells), from Malaysia to correct for significant ministerial errors.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable November 7, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Preston Cox or Scarlet Jaldin, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5041 or (202) 482-4275, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.205(b), on October 4, 2024, Commerce published its preliminary affirmative countervailing duty determination on solar cells from Malaysia.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 8, 2024, we received timely ministerial error allegations from the American Alliance for Solar Manufacturing Trade Committee (the petitioner) and Jinko Solar Technology Sdn. Bhd. (Jinko Solar Technology) that Commerce made significant ministerial errors in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination</E>
                     with respect to the subsidy rate calculated for Jinko Solar Technology (JST) and its affiliates Jinko Solar (Malaysia) Sdn. Bhd. and Omega Solar Sdn. Bhd. (Omega) (collectively, Jinko Solar).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from Malaysia: Preliminary Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Alignment of Final Determination with Final Antidumping Duty Determination,</E>
                         89 FR 80861 (October 4, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Determination</E>
                        ), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Ministerial Error Comments Regarding the Preliminary Determination,” dated October 8, 2024 (Petitioner's Ministerial Error Allegation); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Jinko Solar's Letter, “Jinko Ministerial Error Allegation,” dated October 8, 2024 (Jinko Solar's Ministerial Error Allegation).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Period of Investigation</HD>
                <P>The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    The product covered by this investigation is solar cells from Malaysia. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the appendix to this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Significant Ministerial Error Allegations</HD>
                <P>
                    According to 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze any comments received and, if appropriate, correct any significant ministerial error by amending the preliminary determination. A ministerial error is defined in 19 CFR 351.224(f) as “an error in addition, subtraction, or other arithmetic function, clerical error resulting from inaccurate copying, duplication, or the like, and any other similar type of unintentional error which the Secretary considers ministerial.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A significant ministerial error is defined as a ministerial error, the correction of which, singly or in combination with other errors, would result in: (1) a change of at least five absolute percentage points in, but not less than 25 percent of, the countervailing duty (CVD) rate calculated in the original preliminary determination; or (2) a difference between a CVD rate of zero (or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                    ) and a CVD rate greater than 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     or vice versa.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 705(e) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.224(g).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amended Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce is amending the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination</E>
                     to reflect the correction of two ministerial errors made in the calculation of the countervailable subsidy rate for Jinko Solar.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     First, when calculating Jinko Solar's countervailable subsidy rate, we incorrectly calculated one of Jinko Solar's denominators, used for the purposes of calculating the 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     subsidy rate. Commerce finds that correction of this error submitted by the petitioner results in a change that is both at least five absolute percentage points in, and not less than 25 percent of, the subsidy rate calculated for Jinko Solar in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination.</E>
                     As such, we find that there is a significant ministerial error within the meaning of sections 705(e) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.224(f) and (g)(1). Therefore, we are correcting for this error by amending the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination,</E>
                     consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), and revising the calculations with regard to Jinko Solar's subsidy rate, the all-others rate, and the adverse facts available (AFA) rate. Additionally, when calculating the countervailable subsidy rate attributable to Jinko Solar under the Exemption of Import Duties and Sales Taxes for Raw Materials, Machinery, Equipment, and Spare Parts/Accessories through Licensed Manufacturing Warehouses (LMWs) program, we inadvertently summed the benefits for both the LMW program and the Free Trade Zone (FTZ) program to calculate the raw materials LMW benefit, resulting in double-counting of the benefits from the FTZ program for raw materials imports. We find that this allegation constitutes a ministerial error within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.224(f). Although by itself, this error is not “significant” within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.224(g), because correcting for this error in combination with the error alleged by the petitioner satisfies the requirements of 19 CFR 351.224(g)(1), we are correcting for both errors by amending the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination,</E>
                     consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Countervailing Duty Investigation of Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from Malaysia: Ministerial Error Allegations in the Preliminary Determination,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (Preliminary Ministerial Error Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For a complete discussion of these ministerial errors, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Preliminary Ministerial Error Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amended Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>As a result of correcting the ministerial errors described above, we determine the following amended preliminary net countervailable subsidy rates for Jinko Solar and all other producers/exporters, and the AFA subsidy rate:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Company</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Subsidy rate
                            <LI>(percent</LI>
                            <LI>
                                <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hanwha Q CELLS Malaysia Sdn. Bhd</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 14.72</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Jinko Solar Technology Sdn Bhd and its cross-owned companies: Jinko Solar (Malaysia) Sdn. Bhd. and Omega Solar Sdn. Bhd</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.92</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Baojia New Energy</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 124.78</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pax Union Resources SDN BHD</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 124.78</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SunMax Energy SDN BHD</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 124.78</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Others</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.32</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * Rate unchanged from the 
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Determination.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** Rate based on AFA.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amended Cash Deposits and Suspension of Liquidation</HD>
                <P>
                    The collection of cash deposits and suspension of liquidation will be established according to the rates calculated in this amended preliminary determination. Because the amended rates for Jinko Solar, all-others, and non-responsive companies result in increased cash deposits, they will be effective retroactively to October 4, 2024, the date of the publication of the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Determination.</E>
                     Parties will be notified of this determination, in accordance with section 703(d) and (f) of the Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Disclosure</HD>
                <P>
                    We intend to disclose the calculations performed to parties in this proceeding within five days after public 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88234"/>
                    announcement of the amended preliminary determination, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.224(e).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ryan Majerus,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                    <P>The merchandise covered by this investigation is crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, and modules, laminates, and panels, consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not partially or fully assembled into other products, including, but not limited to, modules, laminates, panels and building integrated materials.</P>
                    <P>This investigation covers crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells of thickness equal to or greater than 20 micrometers, having a p/n junction formed by any means, whether or not the cell has undergone other processing, including, but not limited to, cleaning, etching, coating, and/or addition of materials (including, but not limited to, metallization and conductor patterns) to collect and forward the electricity that is generated by the cell.</P>
                    <P>Merchandise under consideration may be described at the time of importation as parts for final finished products that are assembled after importation, including, but not limited to, modules, laminates, panels, building-integrated modules, building-integrated panels, or other finished goods kits. Such parts that otherwise meet the definition of merchandise under consideration are included in the scope of the investigation.</P>
                    <P>Excluded from the scope of the investigation are thin film photovoltaic products produced from amorphous silicon (a-Si), cadmium telluride (CdTe), or copper indium gallium selenide (CIGS).</P>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, not exceeding 10,000 mm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         in surface area, that are permanently integrated into a consumer good whose function is other than power generation and that consumes the electricity generated by the integrated crystalline silicon photovoltaic cell. Where more than one cell is permanently integrated into a consumer good, the surface area for purposes of this exclusion shall be the total combined surface area of all cells that are integrated into the consumer good.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, excluded from the scope of the investigation are panels with surface area from 3,450 mm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         to 33,782 mm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         with one black wire and one red wire (each of type 22 AWG or 24 AWG not more than 206 mm in length when measured from panel extrusion), and not exceeding 2.9 volts, 1.1 amps, and 3.19 watts. For the purposes of this exclusion, no panel shall contain an internal battery or external computer peripheral ports.
                    </P>
                    <P>Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) Off grid CSPV panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with the following characteristics: (A) a total power output of 100 watts or less per panel; (B) a maximum surface area of 8,000 cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         per panel; (C) do not include a built-in inverter; (D) must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in either an 8 mm male barrel connector, or a two-port rectangular connector with two pins in square housings of different colors; (E) must include visible parallel grid collector metallic wire lines every 1-4 millimeters across each solar cell; and (F) must be in individual retail packaging (for purposes of this provision, retail packaging typically includes graphics, the product name, its description and/or features, and foam for transport); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) Off grid CSPV panels without a glass cover, with the following characteristics: (A) a total power output of 100 watts or less per panel; (B) a maximum surface area of 8,000 cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         per panel; (C) do not include a built-in inverter; (D) must include visible parallel grid collector metallic wire lines every 1-4 millimeters across each solar cell; and (E) each panel is (1) permanently integrated into a consumer good; (2) encased in a laminated material without stitching, or (3) has all of the following characteristics: (i) the panel is encased in sewn fabric with visible stitching, (ii) includes a mesh zippered storage pocket, and (iii) includes a permanently attached wire that terminates in a female USB-A connector.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the following CSPV panels are excluded from the scope of the investigation: off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with each of the following physical characteristics, whether or not assembled into a fully completed off-grid hydropanel whose function is conversion of water vapor into liquid water: (A) a total power output of no more than 80 watts per panel; (B) a surface area of less than 5,000 square centimeters (cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) per panel; (C) do not include a built-in inverter; (D) do not have a frame around the edges of the panel; (E) include a clear glass back panel; and (F) must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in a twoport rectangular connector.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally excluded from the scope of this investigation are off-grid small portable crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels, with or without a glass cover, with the following characteristics: (1) a total power output of 200 watts or less per panel; (2) a maximum surface area of 16,000 cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         per panel; (3) no built-in inverter; (4) an integrated handle or a handle attached to the package for ease of carry; (5) one or more integrated kickstands for easy installation or angle adjustment; and (6) a wire of not less than 3 meters either permanently connected or attached to the package that terminates in an 8 mm diameter male barrel connector.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are off-grid crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with each of the following physical characteristics, whether or not assembled into a fully completed off-grid hydropanel whose function is conversion of water vapor into liquid water: (A) a total power output of no more than 180 watts per panel at 155 degrees Celsius; (B) a surface area of less than 16,000 square centimeters (cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) per panel; (C) include a keep-out area of approximately 1,200 cm
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         around the edges of the panel that does not contain solar cells; (D) do not include a built-in inverter; (E) do not have a frame around the edges of the panel; (F) include a clear glass back panel; (G) must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in a two-port rounded rectangular, sealed connector; (H) include a thermistor installed into the permanently connected wire before the twoport connector; and (I) include exposed positive and negative terminals at opposite ends of the panel, not enclosed in a junction box.
                    </P>
                    <P>Modules, laminates, and panels produced in a third-country from cells produced in a subject country are covered by the investigation; however, modules, laminates, and panels produced in a subject country from cells produced in a third-country are not covered by the investigation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of this investigation are all products covered by the scope of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on 
                        <E T="03">Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, and Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73018 (December 7, 2012); and 
                        <E T="03">Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73017 (December 7, 2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>Merchandise covered by the investigation is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 8541.42.0010 and 8541.43.0010. Imports of the subject merchandise may enter under HTSUS subheadings 8501.71.0000, 8501.72.1000, 8501.72.2000, 8501.72.3000, 8501.72.9000, 8501.80.1000, 8501.80.2000, 8501.80.3000, 8501.80.9000, 8507.20.8010, 8507.20.8031, 8507.20.8041, 8507.20.8061, and 8507.20.8091. These HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; the written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25872 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-580-898]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Large Diameter Welded Pipe From the Republic of Korea: Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2022</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88235"/>
                        producers and/or exporters of large diameter welded pipe (welded pipe) from the Republic of Korea (Korea) received countervailable subsidies during the period of review (POR), January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable November 7, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jonathan Schueler or Brandon James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-9175 or (202) 482-7472, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 6, 2024, Commerce published the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     of this administrative review in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    ,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and invited interested parties to comment. For a complete description of the events that followed the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results, see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On July 22, 2024, Commerce tolled certain deadlines in this administrative proceeding by seven days.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On September 27, 2024, Commerce extended the deadline for the final results to November 1, 2024.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Large Diameter Welded Pipe from the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Results and Partial Rescission of the Countervailing Duty Administrative Review;</E>
                         2022, 89 FR 48382 (June 6, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum (PDM).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the Countervailing Duty Administrative Review of Large Diameter Welded Pipe from the Republic of Korea; 2022,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (Issues and Decision Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Tolling of Deadlines for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,” dated July 22, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum “Extension of Deadline for Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2022,” dated September 26, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                    Scope of the Order 
                    <E T="51">5</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Large Diameter Welded Pipe from the Republic of Korea: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         84 FR 18773 (May 2, 2019) (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is welded pipe. For a complete description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order, see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    All issues raised in interested parties' briefs are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed is attached to this notice as an appendix. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov.</E>
                     In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on our analysis of the case and rebuttal briefs and the evidence on the record, we made certain changes from the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                     These changes are explained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we find that there is a subsidy, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a government-provided financial contribution that gives rise to a benefit to the recipient, and that the subsidy is specific.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For a description of the methodology underlying Commerce's conclusions, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         sections 771(5)(B) and (D) of the Act regarding financial contribution; section 771(5)(E) of the Act regarding benefit; and section 771(5A) of the Act regarding specificity.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rate for Non-Selected Companies</HD>
                <P>
                    Generally, Commerce looks to section 705(c)(5) of the Act for guidance for calculating the rate for companies that were not selected for individual examination in an administrative review. Section 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act states that for companies not investigated, in general, we will determine an all-others rate by weight averaging the countervailable subsidy rates established for each of the companies individually investigated, excluding zero and 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     rates or any rates based solely on facts otherwise available. There are six companies for which a review was requested and not rescinded, and which were not selected as mandatory respondents or found to be cross-owned with a mandatory respondent. For these non-selected companies, because the rates calculated for mandatory respondents Hyundai RB and SeAH Steel are above 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     and not based entirely on facts available, we are applying a subsidy rate based on a weighted average of the rates calculated for the two mandatory respondents using the publicly-ranged sales data they submitted on the record.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This methodology is consistent with our practice for establishing an all-others subsidy rate pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Preliminary Results,</E>
                         89 FR 48383.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This is the same methodology Commerce applied in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     for determining a rate for companies not selected for individual examination. However, due to changes in the calculations for Hyundai RB, we revised the non-selected rate accordingly. Consequently, we are applying an 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     subsidy rate of 0.56 percent for the six non-selected companies for which a review was requested and not rescinded.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Review</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5), we determine the following net countervailable subsidy rates exist for the POR January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022:
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Commerce finds Shinchang Construction Co., Ltd. to be cross-owned with Hyundai RB.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Commerce finds the following companies to be cross-owned with SeAH Steel: SeAH Steel Holdings Corporation; and ESAB SeAH Corporation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Subject merchandise both produced and exported by Husteel Co., Ltd. (Husteel) is excluded from the 
                        <E T="03">Order.</E>
                         Thus, Husteel's inclusion in this administrative review is limited to entries for which Husteel was not both the producer and exporter of the subject merchandise.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Company</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Subsidy rate
                            <LI>
                                (percent 
                                <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Hyundai RB Co., Ltd. and its cross-owned affiliate 
                            <SU>8</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.71</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            SeAH Steel Corporation and its cross-owned affiliates 
                            <SU>9</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.54</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Review-Specific Average Rate Applicable to the Following Companies</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Chang Won Bending Co., Ltd.</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dong Yang Steel Pipe Co., Ltd.</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">EEW Korea Co., Ltd.</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HiSteel Co., Ltd.</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Husteel Co., Ltd.
                            <SU>10</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Kumsoo Connecting Co., Ltd.</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Disclosure</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for these final results of review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.224(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), Commerce has determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88236"/>
                    shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review, for the above-listed companies at the applicable 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     assessment rates listed. Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Instructions</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with section 751(a)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amounts shown for each of the companies listed above based on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this administrative review.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For all non-reviewed firms subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the most recent company-specific rate or the all-others rate established in the original investigation (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     9.29 percent), as appropriate.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These cash deposit requirements, effective upon publication of these final results, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Honey from Argentina: Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review,</E>
                         69 FR 29518 (May 24, 2004), and accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum at Issue 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Order,</E>
                         84 FR 18775.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing these final results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ryan Majerus,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        III. Scope of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Subsidies Valuation Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Analysis of Programs</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Discussion of Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Whether the Provision of Electricity for Less Than Adequate Remuneration (LTAR) Is Countervailable</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Whether the Demand Response Resources (DRR) Program Is Countervailable</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Comment 3: Whether Certain Programs Are 
                        <E T="03">De Facto</E>
                         Specific When Widely Available and Used
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 4: Whether the Discount Electricity Charges for Energy Storage Systems (ESS) Program Is Specific</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Recommendation</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25873 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institute of Standards and Technology</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Advisory Committee on Earthquake Hazards Reduction Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institute of Standards and Technology, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Advisory Committee on Earthquake Hazards Reduction (ACEHR or Committee) will hold an open virtual meeting via web conference. The primary purpose of this meeting is for the Committee to discuss their 2025 Biennial Report on the Effectiveness of the National Earthquake Hazards Reduction Program (NEHRP).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The ACEHR will meet on Monday, November 18, 2024 from 1:30 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held via web conference. For instructions on how to participate in the meeting, please see the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tina Faecke, Management and Program Analyst, NEHRP, Engineering Laboratory, NIST. Ms. Faecke's email address is 
                        <E T="03">tina.faecke@nist.gov</E>
                         and her phone number is (240) 477-9841.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 7704(a)(5) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. 1001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     The Committee is composed of 11 members, appointed by the Director of NIST, who were selected for their established records of distinguished service in their professional community, their knowledge of issues affecting NEHRP, and to reflect the wide diversity of technical disciplines, competencies, and communities involved in earthquake hazards reduction. In addition, the Chairperson of the U.S. Geological Survey Scientific Earthquake Studies Advisory Committee serves as an ex-officio member of the Committee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the FACA, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 1001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     notice is hereby given that the ACEHR will meet on the date and at the times set forth in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of this notice. The meeting will be open to the public and will be held via web conference. Interested members of the public will be able to participate in the meeting from remote locations. The primary purpose of this meeting is for the Committee to discuss their 2025 Biennial Report on the Effectiveness of NEHRP. The final agenda will be posted on the NEHRP website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nehrp.gov/committees/meetings.htm.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals and representatives of organizations who would like to offer comments and suggestions related to the Committee's business are invited to request a place on the agenda. Approximately fifteen minutes will be reserved for public comments and speaking times will be assigned on a first-come, first-serve basis. The amount of time per speaker will be determined by the number of requests received. This meeting will be recorded. Public comments can be provided via email or by web conference attendance. Questions from the public will not be considered during this period. All those wishing to speak must submit their request by email to Tina Faecke at 
                    <E T="03">tina.faecke@nist.gov</E>
                     by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Wednesday, November 13, 2024. Speakers who wish to expand upon their oral statements, those who had wished to speak but could not be accommodated on the agenda, and those who were unable to participate are invited to submit written statements electronically by email to 
                    <E T="03">tina.faecke@nist.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Anyone wishing to attend this meeting via web conference must register by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Wednesday, November 13, 2024, to attend. Please submit your full name, the organization you represent (if applicable), email address, and phone number to Tina Faecke at 
                    <E T="03">tina.faecke@nist.gov.</E>
                     After pre-registering, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88237"/>
                    participants will be provided with instructions on how to join the web conference. The final agenda will be posted on the NEHRP website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nehrp.gov/committees/meetings.htm.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alicia Chambers,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>NIST Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25490 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S"> DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Marine Recreational Fishing Expenditure Survey</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 30, 2024 during a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Marine Recreational Fishing Expenditure Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0648-0693.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Regular submission [revision and extension of a current information collection].
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     28,106.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     Trip Expenditure survey 7 minutes, Durable Good Surveys 15 minutes, HI Charter Trip Expenditures 5 minutes, and HMS Trip Expenditure 6.5 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,160 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This is a request for revision and extension of an approved information collection. As specified in the Magnuson-Stevenson Fishery Conservation and Management Act of 1996 (and reauthorized in 2007), NMFS is required to enumerate the economic impacts of the policies it implements on fishing participants and coastal communities. The objective of the survey is to collect information on marine (saltwater) recreational fishing trip expenditures and durable good expenditures made by marine recreational anglers. The survey has two parts which may be conducted either jointly during the same calendar year or in separate years. The trip expenditure portion will ask anglers about the expenses incurred on their most recent marine recreational fishing trip. The durable goods portion will ask anglers about their purchases of durable goods such as fishing gear, boats, vehicles, and second homes over a 12-month period. The expenditure data collected in this regular survey is widely used by both federal, state, and non-governmental organizations for research and analysis regarding the economic importance and contributions of marine recreational fishing to each coastal state and nationwide. The program office would like to make minor changes to a few of the questions on the survey. These changes will not affect the integrity or overall purpose of said survey. The NMFS Office of Science and Technology conducts the survey and publishes the results in both technical reports and the annual `Fisheries Economics of the U.S.' report series.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act as reauthorized in 2007 (16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et. seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view the Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering either the title of the collection or the OMB Control Number 0648-0693.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25865 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID ED-2024-IES-0051]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Institute of Education Sciences, U.S. Department of Education.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a new system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes this notice of a new system of records titled “Evaluation of Transition Supports for Youth with Disabilities” (18-13-47). This system contains records maintained by the Department and its contractor to conduct the Evaluation of Transition Supports for Youth with Disabilities study (the study). The records in this system will be used to measure the effectiveness of two strategies encompassing transition supports that research has identified as having potential to improve the high school and post-high school outcomes for high school students who have individualized education programs (IEPs) under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit your comments on this notice of a new system of records on or before December 9, 2024.</P>
                    <P>
                        This new system of records notice, except for the routine uses, will become applicable upon publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on November 7, 2024, unless it needs to be changed as a result of public comment. The routine uses outlined in the section titled “ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES” will become effective on the expiration of the 30-day period of public comment on December 9, 2024, unless they need to be changed as a result of public comment. The Department will publish any significant changes to this new system of records notice or routine uses resulting from public comment.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         However, if you require an accommodation or cannot otherwise submit your comments via 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                         please contact the program contact person listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        . The Department will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email, or comments submitted after the comment period closes. To ensure that the Department does not receive 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88238"/>
                        duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         to submit your comments electronically. Information on using 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov,</E>
                         including instructions for accessing agency documents, submitting comments, and viewing the docket, is available on the site under “FAQ”.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Note:</E>
                         The Department's policy is to make all comments received from members of the public available for public viewing in their entirety on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Therefore, commenters should be careful to include in their comments only information that they wish to make publicly available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Assistance to Individuals with Disabilities in Reviewing the Rulemaking Record:</E>
                         On request, we will provide an appropriate accommodation or auxiliary aid to an individual with a disability who needs assistance to review the comments or other documents in the public rulemaking record for this notice. If you want to schedule an appointment for this type of accommodation or auxiliary aid, please contact the person listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Teresa Cahalan, SORN coordinator, Institute of Education Sciences, U.S. Department of Education, Potomac Center Plaza, 550 12th Street SW, Room SW, Room 4126, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: 202-245-7299. Email: 
                        <E T="03">IES_SORN@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability, please dial 7-1-1 to access telecommunications relay services.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department will use the records maintained in this new system to measure the effectiveness of two strategies encompassing transition supports that research has identified as having the potential to improve high school and post-high school outcomes for high school students who have IEPs under the IDEA. This study will allow the Department to measure the effectiveness of providing students instruction to strengthen their goal-setting, planning, and self-advocacy skills and helping them apply these self-determination skills to work toward their post-high school goals.</P>
                <P>The records maintained in this system will be used to address the following research questions:</P>
                <P>• Is instruction in self-determination skills and how to apply them to transition planning effective in improving the intermediate and post-high school outcomes of students with disabilities with IEPs under the IDEA?</P>
                <P>• Is offering individual mentoring along with self-determination skills instruction effective?</P>
                <P>• What is the added benefit and cost of providing individual mentoring support?</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessible Format:</E>
                     On request to the program contact person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    , individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format. The Department will provide the requestor with an accessible format that may include Rich Text Format (RTF) or text format (txt), a thumb drive, an MP3 file, braille, large print, audiotape, compact disc, or other accessible format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access to This Document:</E>
                     The official version of this document is the document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . You may access the official edition of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the Code of Federal Regulations at 
                    <E T="03">www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                     At this site you can view this document, as well as all other documents of this Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in text or Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also access documents of the Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by using the article search feature at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                     Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Matthew Soldner,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Institute of Education Sciences.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Acting Director of the Institute of Education Sciences, U.S. Department of Education, publishes a a new system of records notice (SORN) to read as follows:</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Evaluation of Transition Supports for Youth with Disabilities (18-13-47).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Institute of Education Sciences (IES), U.S. Department of Education, 550 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20202. (This is the location of the IES Data Center.)</P>
                    <P>American Institutes for Research (AIR), 1400 Crystal Drive, 10th Floor, Arlington, VA 22202. (This is the location of a Department contractor that collects personally identifiable information (PII) regarding district and school staff, program instructors, and students and their families in participating districts and stores such information until it is uploaded through secure transfer to the IES Data Center.)</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>Associate Commissioner, Evaluation Division, National Center for Education Evaluation and Regional Assistance, Institute of Education Sciences, U.S. Department of Education, 550 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20202.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Evaluation of Transition Supports for Youth with Disabilities study (the study) is authorized by section 664(b)(2)(D)(iii) of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) (20 U.S.C. 1400 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and sections 171 and 173 of the Education Sciences Reform Act (Pub. L. 114-95) (20 U.S.C. 9561 and 9563). The collection of Social Security numbers is authorized under Executive Order 9397 (November 22, 1943), as amended by Executive Order 13478 (November 18, 2008).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>The Department will use the records maintained in this system to measure the effectiveness of two strategies encompassing transition supports that research has identified as having the potential to improve the high school and post-high school outcomes for high school students who have individualized education programs (IEPs) under the IDEA. This study will allow the Department to gauge the effectiveness of providing students instruction to strengthen their goal-setting, planning, and self-advocacy skills and helping them apply these self-determination skills to work toward their post-school goals, including employment and postsecondary education.</P>
                    <P>The records maintained in this system will be used to address the following research questions:</P>
                    <P>• Is instruction in self-determination skills and how to apply them to transition planning effective in improving the intermediate and post-high school outcomes of students with disabilities under the IDEA?</P>
                    <P>• Is offering individual mentoring along with self-determination skills instruction effective?</P>
                    <P>• What is the added benefit and cost of providing individual mentoring support?</P>
                    <P>
                        To evaluate the effectiveness of providing students instruction to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88239"/>
                        strengthen their goal-setting, planning, and self-advocacy skills and helping them apply these self-determination skills to work toward their post-high school goals, the study will randomly assign high school students with IEPs under the IDEA who are two years from expected graduation to receive one of two transition support strategies or to continue with the regular transition supports they receive from their school. Training for program instructors on the study's transition support strategies and students' participation in the strategies will occur over two years, from 2024 through 2026. Data will be collected starting in spring 2024, and student outcomes will be measured through spring 2028.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>This system will maintain records on school district staff from approximately 16 districts, school staff from approximately 100 high schools across the 16 districts, 75 program instructors delivering the two strategies in high schools, and 3,000 high school students and their families.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>For school district staff, records maintained in this system include, but are not limited to, name, email address, telephone number, and other select information from the district's transition services and programs.</P>
                    <P>For high school staff supporting students with their education and transition objectives, records maintained in this system include, but are not limited to, name, email address, telephone number, and role supporting students' IEP/transition planning. The system will also maintain records that the school staff provide on students' goals, services, and supports, including those identified in the participating students' IEPs under the IDEA.</P>
                    <P>For program instructors, records maintained in this system include, but are not limited to, name, email address, telephone number, mailing address, education background, work and professional development/training experiences, and demographic information (such as race, age, ethnicity, and gender). Additionally, the system will also maintain records that the program instructor provides on what program activities they are implementing with students, the resources offered to students, the type of support provided to students and families, their coordination with school staff, and their participation in the study's training.</P>
                    <P>For families, records maintained in this system include, but are not limited to, names of family members, telephone number, mailing address, email address, and, for families who decline participation, the reasons for not participating.</P>
                    <P>For students, records maintained in this system include, but are not limited to, name, date of birth, Social Security number, State/local student identification number, demographic information (such as race, age, ethnicity, and gender), school information (such as grade level and school name), free or reduced-price lunch status, special education status, disability type, English learner status, home language, goals, transition support identified in their IEP(s), participation in transition support services, perceptions of the study's instruction to strengthen and apply self-determination skills (such as goal-setting, planning, and self-advocacy) to work toward their post-high school goals, progress in school, graduation/high school completion status, performance on State standardized English language arts and mathematics assessments, levels of self-determination skills the study's instruction focuses on, preparation for postsecondary education and independent living, work experience, enrollment in postsecondary education programs, use of financial aid to support participation in postsecondary education programs, employment, and earnings.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>Information in this system will be obtained through student records maintained by the school districts, surveys of students, surveys and interviews completed by families, and forms completed by district and high school staff. Post-secondary enrollment and participation data will be obtained through the National Student Clearinghouse and through administrative records maintained by the Department's Federal Student Aid Office. Financial aid data also will be obtained through administrative records maintained by the Department's Federal Student Aid Office. Vocational Rehabilitative Services data will be obtained through administrative records maintained by the Department's Rehabilitation Services Administration. Employment and earnings data, including unemployment insurance information, will be obtained through the administrative records maintained by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' National Directory of New Hires. Records in this system also may be obtained from other persons or entities from whom or from which data is obtained under the routine uses set forth below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND THE PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>The Department may disclose information contained in a record in this system of records under the routine uses listed in this system of records without the consent of the individual if the disclosure is compatible with the purpose(s) for which the record was collected. The Department may make these disclosures on a case-by-case basis or, if the Department has complied with the computer matching requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act) (5 U.S.C. 552a), under a computer matching agreement. Any disclosure of PII from a record in this system must also comply with the requirements of section 183 of the Education Sciences Reform Act of 2002 (ESRA) (20 U.S.C. 9573) providing for confidentiality standards that apply to all collections, reporting, and publication of data by IES. Any disclosure of PII from student education records that were obtained from participating agencies and educational agencies or institutions must also comply respectively with the requirements of IDEA's confidentiality of information/privacy provisions (20 U.S.C. 1417(c); 34 CFR 300.611 through 300.626), which protect PII in education records collected, maintained, or used under Part B of the IDEA, and the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) (20 U.S.C. 1232g; 34 CFR part 99), which protects the privacy of student education records maintained by educational agencies and institutions that receive funds from the Department.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">(1) Contract Disclosure.</E>
                         If the Department contracts with an entity for the purpose of performing any function that requires disclosure of records in this system to employees of the contractor, the Department may disclose the records to those employees. As part of such a contract, the Department will require the contractor to agree to maintain safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the records in the system. If the Department discloses PII from a student's education record covered by FERPA or the IDEA to the contractor, the contractor also must agree to comply with applicable FERPA and IDEA requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">(2) Disclosure for the Purpose of Obtaining Student Participants' Post-Secondary and Employment and Earnings Records to Conduct this Study.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from this system of records to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88240"/>
                        National Student Clearinghouse (NSC) and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) in order to obtain student participants' post-secondary, employment, earnings, and unemployment insurance records to conduct this study. The NSC and HHS must agree to safeguards, consistent with section 183(c) of ESRA (20 U.S.C. 9573(c)), to protect the security and confidentiality of the records disclosed from this system.If the Department discloses personally identifiable information from a student's education record covered by FERPA or the IDEA to the NSC and HHS, the NSC and HHS also must agree to comply with applicable FERPA and IDEA requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">(3) Research Disclosure.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to a researcher if the Department determines that the individual or organization to which the disclosure would be made is qualified to carry out specific research related to the functions or purpose(s) of this system of records. The Department may disclose records from this system of records to that researcher solely to carry out that research related to the functions or purpose(s) of this system of records. The researcher must agree to safeguards, consistent with section 183(c) of the ESRA (20 U.S.C. 9573(c)), to protect the security and confidentiality of the records disclosed from this system. If the Department discloses PII from a student's education record covered by FERPA or the IDEA to the researcher, the researcher also must agree to comply with applicable FERPA and IDEA requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>The Department maintains secured, password-protected records on the IES Data Center, and the Department's contractor (American Institutes for Research) maintains records for this system on the Department's behalf on secured, password-protected computer systems and in hard copy until uploaded to the IES Data Center. Hard copy records will be kept in locked file cabinets during nonworking hours and work on hard copy records will take place in a single room, except for data entry.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system are indexed by a unique number assigned to each individual, which can be cross-referenced when needed (such as for data matching) with the separately stored direct identifiers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>The Department has submitted a retention and disposition schedule that is intended to cover the records contained in this system to the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) for review. The records will not be destroyed until NARA approves said schedule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>Security protocols for this system of records meet all required security standards. All physical access to the Department's site and to the site of the Department's contractor, where this system of records is also maintained, is controlled and monitored by security personnel. The computer system employed by the Department offers a high degree of resistance to tampering and circumvention with the use of firewalls, encryption, and password protection. This system limits data access to Department and contract staff on a need-to-know basis and controls individual users' ability to access and alter records within the system. The contractor will establish a similar set of procedures at its site to ensure the confidentiality of data. The contractor's systems are required to ensure that PII is in files physically separated from other research data. The contractor will maintain the security of the complete set of all master data files. Access to PII will be strictly controlled. Access to information by contractor staff will be granted on a need-to-know basis, and individual staff's ability to alter records within the systems will be controlled. Security features that protect project data include password-protected accounts that authorize users to use the contractor's systems but to access only specific network directories and network software; user rights and directory and file attributes that limit those who can use particular directories and files and determine how they can use them; and additional security features that the network administrators will establish for projects as needed. The contractor's employees who “maintain” (collect, maintain, use, or disseminate) data in the contractor's systems shall comply with the requirements of the confidentiality standards in section 183 of the ESRA (20 U.S.C. 9573) and applicable provisions in the Privacy Act, IDEA, and FERPA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>If you wish to gain access to a record regarding you in this system of records, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. Your request must provide necessary particulars of your full name, address, telephone number, and any other identifying information requested by the Department to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>If you wish to contest the content of a record regarding you, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. Requests must contain your full name, address, and telephone number, and any other identifying information requested by the Department to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of the regulations at 34 CFR 5b.7.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>If you wish to determine whether a record exists regarding you, you must contact the systems manager at the address listed above. Your request must provide necessary particulars, such as your full name, address, telephone number, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                </PRIACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25896 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID ED-2024-FSA-0106]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes this notice of a modified system of records entitled “Aid Awareness and Application Processing” (18-11-21). This system maintains information necessary for the Department to process applications for Federal student financial program assistance under title IV of the Higher 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88241"/>
                        Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA); to perform the responsibilities of the Federal Student Aid (FSA) Ombudsman; to provide Federal student loan repayment relief including under the borrower defense to repayment regulations; to notify aid applicants and aid recipients of aid program opportunities and updates under title IV of the HEA via digital communication channels; and to maintain the 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         website as the front end for assisting customers with all of their Federal student financial aid needs throughout the student aid lifecycle. The Department's Digital and Customer Care (DCC) Information Technology (IT) system collects the electronic records maintained in the Aid Awareness and Application Processing (AAAP) system.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit your comments on this modified system of records notice on or before December 9, 2024.</P>
                    <P>
                        This modified system of records notice will become applicable upon publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on November 7, 2024, except for new routine use (1)(t), which is outlined in the section entitled “ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES,” which will be applicable December 9, 2024, unless it needs to be changed as a result of public comment. The Department will publish any changes to the modified system of records notice resulting from public comment.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         However, if you require an accommodation or cannot otherwise submit your comments via 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        , please contact one of the program contact persons listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        . The Department will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email, or comments submitted after the comment period closes. To ensure that the Department does not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         to submit your comments electronically. Information on using 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , including instructions for accessing agency documents, submitting comments, and viewing the docket, is available on the site under “FAQ”.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Note:</E>
                         The Department's policy is generally to make comments received from members of the public available for public viewing in their entirety on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Therefore, commenters should be careful to include in their comments only information that they wish to make publicly available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Assistance to Individuals with Disabilities in Reviewing the Rulemaking Record:</E>
                         On request, the Department will provide an appropriate accommodation or auxiliary aid to an individual with a disability who needs assistance to review the comments or other documents in the public rulemaking record for this notice. If you want to schedule an appointment for this type of accommodation or aid, please contact one of the program contact persons listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        Rachel Coghlan, Central Processing System (CPS) System Manager, Student Experience and Aid Delivery, Federal Student Aid (FSA), U.S. Department of Education, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3205. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Rachel.Coghlan@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Corey Johnson, Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA®) Processing System (FPS) Information System Owner, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3898. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Corey.Johnson@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Bonnie Latreille, Ombudsman/Director, Ombudsman Group, Federal Student Aid (FSA), U.S. Department of Education, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3726. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Bonnie.J.Latreille@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Pardu Ponnapalli, Information System Owner, Technology Directorate, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (240) 382-5825. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Pardu.Ponnapalli@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability and wish to access telecommunications relay services, please dial 7-1-1.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act) (5 U.S.C. 552a), the Department proposes to modify the system of records notice entitled “Aid Awareness and Application Processing” (18-11-21), which was last published in full in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on May 30, 2024 (89 FR 46870).
                </P>
                <P>The Department is adding a note within the section entitled “SYSTEM LOCATION” to indicate that the Specialty Processing Subsystem (SPS) is part of the DCC IT system.</P>
                <P>
                    The Department is modifying the section entitled “PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM” related to the purposes of assisting aid applicants and recipients with Federal student financial assistance programs authorized by title IV of the HEA, and managing customer relationships for marketing and improving customer service to add a new purpose (6) for collecting, processing, storing, and promoting the completion of Public Service Loan Forgiveness (PSLF)/Temporary Expanded Public Service Loan Forgiveness (TEPSLF) applications, Teacher Education Assistance for College and Higher Education (TEACH) Grant certifications, and Total and Permanent Disability (TPD) loan requests in the DCC IT system under the 
                    <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                     website to provide automated processing flows for borrowers. The purpose of this modification is to enhance the aid applicant's and recipient's experience in the above-mentioned programs. This proposed purpose also reflects activity that is essential to the conduct of the Department's applicable matching programs with the U.S. Social Security Administration (SSA) and the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) relating to TPD discharge because the Department will use the AAAP system to (i) determine whether to approve a TPD discharge based on SSA or VA documentation or through medical documentation submitted by the borrower for audit purposes; (ii) send out TPD loan discharge transactions or loan assignment transactions directly to loan servicers, guaranty agencies, and institutions of higher education (IHEs); and (iii) track the 3-year post-discharge monitoring period for TPD discharges based on SSA documentation or a licensed medical professional's certification.
                </P>
                <P>The Department is modifying the section entitled “PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM” relating to the Department's administration and oversight of title IV, HEA programs as follows:</P>
                <P>(i) Purpose (19) is added to support the calculation of the earnings premium (EP) measure related to Financial Value Transparency and Gainful Employment (FVT/GE) regulations by using the State of residence listed as part of the permanent address provided by program graduates in their earliest FAFSA submission to support the establishment of an earnings threshold for the program; and</P>
                <P>
                    (ii) Purpose (20) is added to track the qualifying payments for PSLF/TEPSLF, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88242"/>
                    number of years taught for TEACH Grant certifications, and TPD discharge eligibility match information from SSA and VA.
                </P>
                <P>The Department is modifying the section entitled “CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM” to indicate that the Department also maintains records on individuals who may be eligible for benefits related to their title IV, HEA obligations (including, but not limited to, TPD discharges, PSLF/TEPSLF, and other Federal and State loan repayment or discharge benefits) obtained from matching programs or other information exchanges with other Federal and State agencies, and other entities.</P>
                <P>The Department is modifying the section entitled “CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM” as follows:</P>
                <P>(i) In category (1), the Department is adding “State of residence” to the list of examples of information provided by applicants for title IV, HEA program assistance on an incomplete or completed FAFSA to enable the calculation of the earnings premium measure under the GE/FVT regulations;</P>
                <P>(ii) In category (9), the Department is adding, as examples of loan discharge eligibility and verification information for use in determining whether a title IV, HEA debt/loan qualifies for discharge, information related to TPD (such as medical records submitted to support an application for discharge by reason of disability) and PSLF/TEPSLF (such as employment records and qualifying payment counts); and</P>
                <P>(iii) The Department is adding a new category (14) to explain that the system contains TEACH Grant recipient school verification information (including, but not limited to, school authorizing official name, title, phone number, email address, and digital signature (including time and date stamp)) to complete and process TEACH Grant certification applications.</P>
                <P>The Department is modifying the section entitled “RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES” as follows:</P>
                <P>(i) To indicate that the SPS receives information from the Department's National Student Loan Database System concerning qualifying payment periods for PSLF/TEPSLF and TPD loan discharge eligibility; and</P>
                <P>(ii) To add a new paragraph to explain the process by which the Department obtains TEACH Grant recipient school verification information through DocuSign (a secure digital software used by the Department to obtain and document digital signatures) for the purpose of completing and processing the recipient's TEACH Grant certification application.</P>
                <P>The Department is modifying the section entitled “ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES” to add new routine use (1)(t) to permit the Department to disclose records to IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, or Tribal agencies to detect, prevent, and support the investigation of possible fraud and abuse in the use of title IV, HEA program funds.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessible Format:</E>
                     On request to any of the program contact persons listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    , individuals with disabilities can obtain this document in an accessible format. The Department will provide the requestor with an accessible format that may include Rich Text Format (RTF) or text format (txt), a thumb drive, an MP3 file, braille, large print, audiotape, compact disc, or other accessible format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access to This Document:</E>
                     The official version of this document is the document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . You may access the official edition of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the Code of Federal Regulations at 
                    <E T="03">www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                     At this site you can view this document, as well as all other documents of this Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in text or Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF, you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also access documents of the Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by using the article search feature at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                     Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Denise Carter,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief Operating Officer, Federal Student Aid.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Acting Chief Operating Officer, Federal Student Aid (FSA) of the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes a modified system of records notice to read as follows:</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Aid Awareness and Application Processing (18-11-21).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202.</P>
                    <P>The following locations are for the Central Processing System (CPS) until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024:</P>
                    <P>
                        Lee's Summit Federal Records Center, National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), 200 Space Center Drive, Lee's Summit, MO 6464-1182 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         This is where paper applications are stored);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        General Dynamics Information Technology (GDIT) Image and Data Capture (IDC) Center, 1084 South Laurel Road, Building 1, London, KY 40744 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The IDC scans paper financial aid documents and correspondence, key-enters the data and electronically transmits the data and related images to the CPS for processing);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Next Generation Data Center (NGDC), 250 Burlington Drive, Clarksville, VA 23927 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         NGDC hosts the infrastructure that supports CPS applications including backend application processing); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CPS Print Facility, 327 Columbia Pike, Rensselaer, NY 12144 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         This facility handles print operations).
                    </P>
                    <P>The following locations are for the Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA®) Processing System (FPS):</P>
                    <P>
                        Perspecta/Peraton, 15052 Conference Center Drive, Chantilly, VA 20151 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Perspecta supports the FSA-provided development, security, and operations (DevSecOps) toolchain configuration; coordinates environment building; and supports technical operations activities and application modernization);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Information Capture Solutions (ICS), 25 Air Park Drive, London, KY 40744 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         ICS provides image and data capture, print/mailing operational services, and builds and operates the IDC);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        iWorks, 1889 Preston White Drive, Suite 100, Reston, VA 20191 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         iWorks provides quality control managers (key personnel); develops and updates the quality control plan; oversees/validates service level measures; supports internal Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) audits; supports Project Management Office (PMO) activities; and provides application development support using Agile methodologies);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Red Cedar Consultancy, LLC, 161 Fort Evans Road NE, Suite 200, Leesburg, VA 20176 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Red Cedar provides application development support using Agile methodologies);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Windsor Group, LLC, 6820 Wisconsin Avenue, Unit 4004, Chevy Chase, MD 20815 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Windsor Group provides quality resources in system security, database administration, and technical writing); and
                        <PRTPAGE P="88243"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Jazz Solutions, LLC, 20745 Williamsport Place, Suite 320, Ashburn, VA 20147 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Jazz Solutions provides application development support using Agile methodologies and supports application programming interface (API) management solutions, including designing, building, and operating services).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The following locations are for the Digital and Customer Care (DCC) Information Technology (IT) system (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The Specialty Processing Subsystem (SPS) is part of the DCC IT system):
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Salesforce Government Cloud, 415 Mission Street, 3rd Floor, San Francisco, CA 94105 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The system is accessible via the internet to different categories of users, including Department personnel, customers, and designated agents of the Department at any location where they have internet access. This site is the location where customer interactions with contact center support via all inbound and outbound channels (phone, email, chat, webform, email, customer satisfaction survey, fax, physical mail, and controlled correspondence) and customer-provided feedback (complaints, suspicious activities, positive feedback, and dispute cases) are tracked and worked by contractors and the Department. This site also contains workflow management for processing tasks including, but not limited to: credit appeals, borrower defense to repayment, commingled Social Security numbers (SSNs), and archived document retrieval in the Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) system, and the FAFSA special correction application process. This site stores customer-provided documentation to support the interactions and processing tasks, as needed. The Department also uses this site for determining employer eligibility to support Public Service Loan Forgiveness/Temporary Expanded Public Service Loan Forgiveness (PSLF/TEPSLF), and Office of Inspector General (OIG) fraud referrals);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Amazon Web Services (AWS) GovCloud (East/West), 410 Terry Avenue, North Seattle, WA 98109-5210 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The DCC IT system is hosted at this location. This site is the location where the Shado (Dynamo) application collects, processes, stores, and makes available user activity events from across the DCC IT system to provide a complete view of the customer to the Department and its contractors. This site is also the location where the Adobe Marketing Campaign application delivers strategic and real-time personalized email and short message service (SMS) communications); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Contact Center Fulfillment Center (Senture facility), 4255 W. Highway 90, Monticello, KY 42633 (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         This facility handles mail fulfillment and imaging operations).
                    </P>
                    <P>The following 10 listings are the locations of the Aid Awareness and Application Processing Customer Contact Centers: Jacksonville Contact Center, One Imeson Park Boulevard, Jacksonville, FL 32118; Knoxville, TN Servicing Center, 120 N Seven Oaks Drive, Knoxville, TN 37922; 1600 Osgood Street, Suite 2-120, North Andover, MA 01845; 11499 Chester Road, Suite 101, Sharonville, OH 45246; 100 Domain Drive, Suite 200, Exeter, NH 03833; 221 N Kansas Street, Suite 700, El Paso, TX 79901; 4255 W Highway 90, Monticello, KY 42633; 555 Vandiver Drive, Columbia, MO 65202; 633 Spirit Drive, Chesterfield, MO 63005; and 820 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20002.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>CPS—System Manager, Student Experience and Aid Delivery, FSA, U.S. Department of Education, Union Center Plaza (UCP), 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454.</P>
                    <P>FPS—Information System Owner, Technology Directorate, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, UCP, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454.</P>
                    <P>Ombudsman, FSA, U.S. Department of Education, UCP, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454.</P>
                    <P>DCC/SPS IT system—Information System Owner, Technology Directorate, Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, UCP, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The authorities are title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) (20 U.S.C. 1070 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ); 20 U.S.C. 1018(f); and the Higher Education Relief Opportunities for Students Act of 2003 (20 U.S.C. 1098bb) (including any waivers or modifications that the Secretary of Education deems necessary to make to any statutory or regulatory provision applicable to the Federal student financial assistance programs under title IV of the HEA to achieve specific purposes listed in the section in connection with a war, other military operation, or a national emergency). The collection of SSNs of individuals, and parents of dependent students, who apply for or receive Federal student financial assistance under programs authorized by title IV of the HEA is also authorized by 31 U.S.C. 7701 and Executive Order 9397, as amended by Executive Order 13478 (November 18, 2008).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The information contained in this system is maintained for the following purposes related to applying for Federal student financial assistance and administering title IV, HEA programs: (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Different parts of the HEA use the terms “discharge,” “cancellation,” or “forgiveness” to describe when a borrower's loan amount is reduced in whole or in part by the Department. To reduce complexity, this system of records notice uses the term “discharge” to include all three terms (“discharge,” “cancellation,” and “forgiveness”), including but not limited to discharges of student loans made pursuant to specific benefit programs. At times, the system of records notice may refer by name to a specific benefit program, such as the “Public Service Loan Forgiveness” program; such specific references are not intended to exclude any such program benefits from more general references to loan discharges.)
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Assisting with the determination, correction, processing, tracking, and reporting of program eligibility and benefits for the Federal student financial assistance programs authorized by title IV of the HEA, including, but not limited to, discharge of eligible loans under title IV, HEA programs;</P>
                    <P>(2) Making a loan or grant;</P>
                    <P>(3) Verifying the identity of the applicant for Federal financial assistance under title IV of the HEA, the spouse of a married applicant, the parent(s) of a dependent applicant, and, until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024, an individual who applies for an FSA ID; and verifying the accuracy of the information in this system;</P>
                    <P>(4) Reporting the results of the need analysis and Federal Pell Grant eligibility determination to applicants, institutions of higher education (IHEs), third-party servicers, State agencies designated by the applicant, and Departmental and investigative components;</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) Reporting the results of duly authorized matching programs between the Department and other Federal agencies and between the Department and State or local governments, or agencies thereof, to applicants, IHEs, third-party servicers, State agencies designated by the applicant, and Departmental and investigative components where the Department is required by law to do so or where it would be essential to the conduct of the matching program to report, such as for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88244"/>
                        the imposition of criminal, civil, or administrative sanctions;
                    </P>
                    <P>(6) Enforcing the terms and conditions of a title IV, HEA loan or grant;</P>
                    <P>(7) Servicing and collecting a delinquent title IV, HEA loan or grant;</P>
                    <P>(8) Initiating enforcement action against individuals, IHEs, or other entities involved in program fraud, abuse, or noncompliance;</P>
                    <P>(9) Locating a debtor or recipient of a grant overpayment;</P>
                    <P>(10) Maintaining a record of the data supplied by those requesting title IV, HEA program assistance;</P>
                    <P>(11) Ensuring compliance with and enforcing title IV, HEA programmatic requirements and various consumer protection laws;</P>
                    <P>(12) Acting as a repository and source for information necessary to fulfill the requirements of title IV of the HEA;</P>
                    <P>(13) Evaluating title IV, HEA program effectiveness;</P>
                    <P>(14) Enabling IHEs and State grant agencies designated by the applicant to review and analyze the financial aid data of their applicant population;</P>
                    <P>(15) Enabling IHEs and State grant agencies to assist applicants with the completion of the application for the Federal student financial assistance programs authorized by title IV of the HEA;</P>
                    <P>(16) Assisting State agencies, eligible IHEs, and other entities that award aid to students and that are designated by the Secretary of Education with making eligibility determinations for the award of aid and with administering these awards;</P>
                    <P>(17) Promoting and encouraging applications for title IV, HEA program assistance, State assistance, and aid awarded by eligible IHEs or by other entities designated by the Secretary of Education; and</P>
                    <P>(18) Enabling IHEs and State higher education agencies to provide aid applicants and aid recipients with information about certain Federal means-tested benefits for which they may qualify and to enable IHEs and State higher education agencies, with the explicit written consent of aid applicants or aid recipients, and parents of dependent aid applicants or aid recipients and spouses of married aid applicants or aid recipients if necessary, to share non-FTI FAFSA information directly with Federal, State, or local government agencies or tribal organizations to assist such applicants or recipients, in applying for or receiving Federal, State, or local government assistance, or tribal assistance for any component of the applicants' or recipients' cost of attendances that may include financial assistance or non-monetary assistance.</P>
                    <P>The information contained in this system is also maintained for the following purposes related to managing customer engagement:</P>
                    <P>(1) Carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the FSA Ombudsman, including investigating and resolving complaints, inquiries, and requests for assistance, updating borrower account records, correcting errors, analyzing complaint trends, and making appropriate recommendations pursuant to 20 U.S.C. 1018(f);</P>
                    <P>(2) Carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the Department to provide Federal student loan repayment relief under Federal law;</P>
                    <P>(3) Verifying the identity of FSA customers;</P>
                    <P>(4) Recording complaints, suspicious activities, positive feedback, and comments as provided by customer interactions with contact center support via inbound and outbound channels (phone, chat, webform, email, customer satisfaction survey, fax, physical mail, social media platforms, digital engagement platforms, and controlled correspondence);</P>
                    <P>(5) Tracking individual cases, including complaints, borrower defense submissions, general inquiries, and chat sessions, through final resolution, reporting trends, and analyzing the data to recommend improvements in Federal student financial assistance programs;</P>
                    <P>(6) Assisting in the informal resolution of disputes submitted by aid applicants or aid recipients about issues related to title IV, HEA program assistance;</P>
                    <P>(7) Carrying out the duties and responsibilities of the Department under the borrower defense to repayment regulations at 34 CFR 685.206 and 685.222 and 34 CFR part 685, subpart D, including receiving, reviewing, evaluating, and processing requests for relief under the borrower defense to repayment regulations; and</P>
                    <P>(8) Initiating proceedings, where appropriate, to recover liabilities from an IHE for losses incurred as a result of the act or omission of the IHE participating in the Federal student loan programs.</P>
                    <P>The information contained in this system is also maintained for the following purposes related to assisting aid applicants and recipients with Federal student financial assistance programs authorized by title IV of the HEA, and managing customer relationships for marketing and improving customer service:</P>
                    <P>(1) Determining employer qualification for borrowers to receive a discharge under the Public Service Loan Forgiveness (PSLF)/Temporary Expanded Public Service Loan Forgiveness (TEPSLF) Program;</P>
                    <P>(2) Collecting, processing, storing, and making available user activity events and user-submitted documentation from across the DCC IT system to provide a complete view of the customer to the Department and its contractors;</P>
                    <P>(3) Sending aid applicants and aid recipients strategic and real-time, personalized communications via email, and SMS “text messages” via mobile phone communications to inform them of title IV, HEA aid marketing campaigns (such as encouraging completion of their FAFSA), and sending transactional communication to customers (such as confirmation emails when a user completes an action);</P>
                    <P>(4) Measuring customer satisfaction and analyzing results;</P>
                    <P>(5) Promoting and encouraging the repayment of title IV, HEA program loans in a timely manner; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (6) Collecting, processing, storing, and promoting the completion of PSLF/TEPSLF applications, Teacher Education Assistance for College and Higher Education (TEACH) Grant certifications, and Total and Permanent Disability (TPD) loan requests across the DCC IT system under the 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         website to provide automated processing flows for borrowers.
                    </P>
                    <P>The information in this system is also maintained for the following purposes relating to the Department's administration and oversight of title IV, HEA programs:</P>
                    <P>(1) To support the investigation of possible fraud and abuse and to detect and prevent fraud and abuse in the title IV, HEA Federal grant and loan programs;</P>
                    <P>(2) To support compliance with title IV, HEA statutory and regulatory requirements;</P>
                    <P>(3) To provide an aid recipient's financial aid history, including information about the recipient's title IV, HEA loan defaults, title IV, HEA aid receipt, and title IV, HEA grant program overpayments;</P>
                    <P>(4) To facilitate receiving and correcting application data, processing Federal Pell Grants and Direct Loans, and reporting Federal Perkins Loan Program expenditures to the Department's processing and reporting systems;</P>
                    <P>(5) To support pre-claims/supplemental pre-claims assistance;</P>
                    <P>(6) To assist in locating holders of title IV, HEA loan(s);</P>
                    <P>
                        (7) To assist in assessing the administration of title IV, HEA program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88245"/>
                        funds by guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders, IHEs, and third-party servicers;
                    </P>
                    <P>(8) To initiate or support a limitation, suspension, or termination action, an emergency action, or a debarment or suspension action;</P>
                    <P>(9) To inform the parent(s) of a dependent applicant of information about the parent(s), or the spouse of a married applicant of information about the spouse, in an application for title IV, HEA funds;</P>
                    <P>(10) To disclose applicant records to the parent(s) of a dependent applicant applying for a PLUS loan (to be used on behalf of a student), to identify the student as the correct beneficiary of the PLUS loan funds, and to allow the processing of the PLUS loan application and promissory note;</P>
                    <P>(11) To expedite the application process;</P>
                    <P>(12) To enable an applicant, at the applicant's written request, to obtain income information about the applicant from the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) using the Data Retrieval Tool, until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024;</P>
                    <P>(13) To identify, prevent, reduce, and recoup improper payments, prevent fraud, and conduct at-risk campaigns, including protecting customers from Third-Party Debt Relief firms;</P>
                    <P>(14) To help Federal, State, Tribal, and local government entities exercise their supervisory and administrative powers (including, but not limited to licensure, examination, discipline, regulation, or oversight of educational institutions, Department contractors, guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders, and third-party servicers) or to respond to individual aid applicant or recipient complaints submitted regarding the practices or processes of the Department and/or the Department's contractors, or to update information or correct errors contained in Department records regarding the aid applicant's or recipient's title IV, HEA program funds;</P>
                    <P>(15) To provide eligible applicants for title IV, HEA aid, and when necessary, the spouse or parents of an applicant, with information about certain Federal means-tested benefits and services for which they may qualify;</P>
                    <P>(16) To collect, track, and process Office of Inspector General (OIG) fraud referrals;</P>
                    <P>(17) To support research, analysis, and development, and the implementation and evaluation of educational policies in relation to title IV, HEA programs;</P>
                    <P>(18) To conduct testing, analysis, or take other administrative actions needed to prepare for or execute programs under title IV of the HEA;</P>
                    <P>(19) To support the calculation of the earnings premium measure related to Financial Value Transparency and Gainful Employment (FVT/GE) regulations by using the State of residence listed as part of the permanent address provided by program graduates in their earliest FAFSA submission to support the establishment of an earnings threshold for the program; and</P>
                    <P>(20) To track the qualifying payments for PSLF/TEPSLF, number of years taught for TEACH Grant certifications, and the TPD discharge eligibility match information from the U.S. Social Security Administration (SSA) and U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>This system maintains records on individuals who are, were, or may be participants in any of the Federal student financial assistance programs under title IV of the HEA who request assistance from the Department, directly or through State requestors and legal assistance organizations (“third-party requestors”) who may request that the Secretary of Education form a group of Federal student loan borrowers for borrower defense relief.</P>
                    <P>This system also maintains records on student and parent applicants (and their third-party preparers), as well as the spouse of a married applicant and the parent(s) of a dependent applicant, who apply for Federal student financial assistance under one of the programs authorized under title IV of the HEA, including, but not limited to the: (1) Federal Pell Grant Program; (2) Federal Perkins Loans Program; (3) Academic Competitiveness Grant (ACG) Program; (4) National Science and Mathematics Access to Retain Talent (National SMART) Grant Program; (5) TEACH Grant Program; (6) Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grant (IASG) Program; (7) Direct Loan Program, which includes Federal Direct Stafford/Ford Loans, Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford/Ford Loans, Federal Direct PLUS Loans, and Federal Direct Consolidation Loans; (8) Federal Family Education Loan (FFEL) Program; and (9) Federal Insured Student Loan (FISL) Program.</P>
                    <P>This system also maintains records on individuals who apply for an FSA ID in the Department's Person Authentication Service (PAS) system because the Department uses CPS, which maintains records that are part of this system, as a pass-through to send these individuals' records from the PAS system to the SSA for computer matching in order to assist the Department in verifying their identities. This pass-through will be terminated when CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024.</P>
                    <P>This system also maintains records on individuals who may be eligible for benefits related to their title IV, HEA obligations (including, but not limited to, TPD discharges, PSLF/TEPSLF, and other Federal and State loan repayment or discharge benefits) obtained from matching programs or other information exchanges with other Federal and State agencies, and other entities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>This system maintains records that contain the following information:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) Information provided by applicants for title IV, HEA program assistance on an incomplete or completed FAFSA, including, but not limited to, the applicant's name, address, State of residence, SSN, DOB, telephone number, driver's license number (which will not be collected on the FAFSA for award year 2024-2025 and onward, and will not be collected by FPS), email address, citizenship status, marital status, legal residence, status as a veteran, educational status, and financial information (including asset and income information). (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         The Federal Tax Information (FTI) that the Department obtains directly from the IRS under the Fostering Undergraduate Talent by Unlocking Resources for Education (FUTURE) Act, Pub. L. 116-91, is maintained in a separate system of records entitled “FUTURE Act System (FAS)” (18-11-23), the notice for which was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on June 29, 2023 (88 FR 42220));
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Information provided about the parent(s) of a dependent applicant, including, but not limited to, the parent's highest level of schooling completed (which will not be collected on the FAFSA starting with award year 2024-2025 and will not be collected by FPS; after which point the Department will instead collect on the FAFSA the parent's college attendance status), marital status, SSN, last name and first initial, DOB, email address, number of people in the household supported by the parent, and asset and income information;</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) Information about the spouse of a married applicant including, but not limited to: the spouse's name, address, SSN, DOB, telephone number, email address, citizenship status, marital status, legal residence, status as a veteran, and financial information (including asset and income information that is needed for CPS processing until 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88246"/>
                        CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024);
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) Information provided by IHEs on behalf of student and parent applicants, including, but not limited to, verification results, dependency overrides, and resolution of comment codes or reject codes;</P>
                    <P>(5) Information calculated by CPS through the 2023-24 award year on the applicant's expected family contribution (EFC);</P>
                    <P>(6) Information on the applicant's Institutional Student Information Record (ISIR), and Student Aid Report (SAR) or the renamed FAFSA Submission Summary (FSS). The Department uses the ISIR and SAR or FSS to report, among other things, the EFC, or the Student Aid Index (SAI) results that are calculated during FPS processing, to IHEs, State grant agencies, and applicants. The EFC or SAI is available to, and used by, IHEs to determine the applicant's eligibility for Federal and institutional program assistance and the amount of assistance, and State grant agencies to determine the applicant's eligibility for State grants and the amount of grant assistance. The Department notifies the applicant of the results of their application via the SAR or FSS. The Department provides the IHEs identified on the applicant's FAFSA with the ISIR, which indicates whether there are discrepant or insufficient information, school adjustments, or CPS assumptions that affect the processing of the FAFSA. Other information in the system includes, but is not limited to: Secondary EFC (an EFC that is calculated from the full EFC formula and is printed in the Financial Aid Administrator's (FAA) Information section of the ISIR), dependency status, Federal Pell Grant eligibility, duplicate SSN (an indicator that is set to alert ISIR recipients that two applications were processed with the same SSN, Incarcerated Student Indicator Flag (an indicator that will be used to identify an aid applicant as an incarcerated student), selection for verification, Simplified Needs Test (SNT) or Automatic Zero EFC (used for extremely low family income), CPS and FPS processing comments, reject codes (explanation for applicant's FAFSA not computing EFC), assumptions made with regard to the student's information due to incomplete or inconsistent FAFSA information, FAA adjustments including dependency status overrides, and CPS and FPS record processing information (application receipt date, transaction number, transaction process date, SAR Serial Number, Compute Number, Data Release Number (DRN), a four-digit number assigned to each application), National Student Loan Database System (NSLDS) match results, a bar code, and transaction source);</P>
                    <P>(7) Information that identifies aid applicant or aid recipient complaints, positive feedback, reports of suspicious activity, requests for assistance, requests for borrower defense relief, requests for PSLF/TEPSLF reconsideration, or other inquiries. Such information includes, but is not limited to: written documentation of an aid applicant or aid recipient's complaint, request for assistance, request for relief under the borrower defense to repayment regulations, case tracking number, case appeal identifier, or other comment or inquiry; and information pertaining to the aid recipient's or the aid recipient's parent's student financial assistance program account(s) under title IV of the HEA, such as the aid recipient's and the aid recipient's parent's names and Federal Student Aid IDs (FSA IDs). Information may include the name, address, and phone numbers of the aid recipient's counsel or representative, IHE(s), lender(s), secondary holder(s) or lender(s), guaranty agency(ies), servicer(s), private collection agency(ies), and third-party requestor(s), as this term is defined in 34 CFR 685.401(a), if applicable, and may contain other loan-level information;</P>
                    <P>(8) Information provided and generated through customer interactions with contact center support via inbound and outbound channels (phone, chat, webform, email, customer satisfaction survey, fax, physical mail, social media platforms, digital engagement platforms, and controlled correspondence). Information includes, but is not limited to: chat transcripts, email communications, audio recordings of customer calls, and screen recordings of contact center support desktop during customer interactions;</P>
                    <P>(9) Loan discharge eligibility and verification information for use in determining whether a title IV, HEA debt/loan qualifies for discharge including, but not limited to, information relating to TPD (such as medical records submitted to support an application for discharge by reason of disability) and PSLF/TEPSLF (such as employment records and qualifying payment counts);</P>
                    <P>(10) Aid recipient's employer information to determine employer qualification for borrowers to receive discharge under PSLF/TEPSLF; OIG fraud referral information; and customer support interactions including phone, chat, webform, email, fax, physical mail, and controlled correspondence;</P>
                    <P>(11) Information for collecting, processing, and storing user activity events from across the DCC IT system: campaign details, delivery details, email/SMS sent timestamp, transaction ID, Federal Account Number (FAN) ID, activity details, activity date, pages/URL accessed, user IP address, user-submitted materials, and user request details;</P>
                    <P>(12) Information needed to aid in the delivery of strategic and real-time communication to customers, including, but not limited to, first name, last name, DOB, state of residence, email, phone number, mobile device ID, device data, FAFSA transaction data, uniform resource locator (URL), computer-related data, and customer communication preferences and user activity (open or clicks) for email and SMS communications;</P>
                    <P>(13) Information provided on third-party preparers, including, but not limited to, first name, last name, SSN or employer identification number, affiliation, address or employer's address, signature, and signature date; and</P>
                    <P>(14) TEACH Grant recipient school verification information (including, but not limited to, authorizing school official name, title, phone number, email address, and digital signature (including time and date stamp)) to complete and process TEACH Grant certification applications.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         This system of records also maintains information that is collected in this system and stored in other systems of records. The following information about individuals who apply for or receive a Federal grant or loan under one of the programs authorized under title IV of the HEA is collected in this system and stored in the “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02) system of records: applicant identifiers including applicant's name, SSN, and DOB; demographic information, including asset and income information (tax return status, adjusted gross income, Internal Revenue Service exemptions, and tax year), and enrollment information; borrower's loan(s) information, including information about recipients of Direct Loans, FFEL Program loans, Perkins Loans, and FISL Program loans, such as the period from the origination of the loan through final payment, and milestones, including, but not limited to, consolidation, discharge, or other final disposition including details such as loan amount, disbursements, balances, loan status, repayment plan and related information, collections, claims, deferments, forbearances, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88247"/>
                        refunds; information about students receiving Federal grants, including recipients of Pell Grants, ACG, National SMART Grants, TEACH Grants, Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grants, and including grant amounts, grant awards, verification status, lifetime eligibility used (LEU), IASG eligible veteran's dependent indicator, Children of Fallen Heroes Scholarship eligibility indicator, and the Pell Grant additional eligibility indicator; Pell Grant collection status indicator and overpayment collection information; promissory notes, Direct Loan Entrance Counseling forms, Federal Student Loan Exit Counseling forms, PLUS Loan Counseling forms, the Annual School Loan Acknowledgement (ASLA), Direct PLUS Loan Requests, endorser addendums, and counseling in the Direct Loan and TEACH Grant programs, such as the date that applicant completed counseling; PLUS Loan credit report information; applicant identifier information for an electronic request to repay a Direct Loan under an income-driven repayment plan and endorser/spouse information, such as the SSN, date that applicant completed the income-driven repayment plan application, and current loan balances; Electronic Direct Consolidation Loan borrower identifier information, such as the borrower's SSN, the date that borrower completed the Federal Direct Consolidation Loan application and promissory note, and current loan balances; and credit check decisions, credit appeals, credit appeal identifiers, and credit history information to support the credit appeal process. Further, information from the “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS)” (18-11-22) system of records is accessible in the DCC IT system to: allow real-time updates to a customer's identifiers, demographic attributes, address, phone, and email contact details; update customer preference for receiving marketing information via text message; allow the Department and its contractors to identify customers who have completed a customer satisfaction survey; and enable the Department to contact borrowers who have been identified by the Department as potentially having fraudulent activity from a Third-Party Debt Relief (TPDR) company and are at risk of loan default. The following information is modifiable by the customer through 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov:</E>
                         name, DOB, address, phone number, and email address. The DCC IT system also sends the following information to the EDMAPS system for analytics and reporting: case information including complaints, and OIG fraud referral data. Information includes, but is not limited to: SSN, DOB, address, phone, and email. Additionally, some information from Federal Loan Servicers' systems (covered by the “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16) system of records) is accessible on 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         to allow customers to view their payment information, loan information, and to make payments on 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         as they would on the various Federal Loan Servicer websites. Further, customers can use 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         to update their contact information and access financial aid history that is stored in the “National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS)” (18-11-06) system of records. Additionally, until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024, CPS is also used as a pass-through to send information that is stored in the “Person Authentication Service (PAS)” (18-11-12) system of records to SSA for computer matching on individuals who apply for an FSA ID in PAS in order to assist the Department in verifying their identities. The information includes, but is not limited to: SSN, name, and DOB. Finally, beginning with the 2024-25 award year application cycle, the IRS began disclosing directly to the Department FTI for FAFSA application processing and aid eligibility determination; that FTI is not maintained in this system. As of July 30, 2023, the IRS also began disclosing directly to the Department FTI to determine eligibility and monthly payment amounts under Income-Driven Repayment (IDR) plans; that FTI also is not maintained in this system. All FTI that the Department obtains directly from the IRS under the FUTURE Act is maintained within the FTI Module (FTIM) system that is compliant with the IRS Publication 1075, “Tax Information Security Guidelines for Federal, State and Local Agencies, Safeguards for Protecting Federal Tax Returns and Return Information,” and that is covered under the Department's system of records notice entitled “FUTURE Act System (FAS)” (18-11-23). This system will continue to maintain both historical income information (obtained from the IRS until CPS is decommissioned) and applicant-provided income information (either through a manual FAFSA entry or submission of alternative documentation of income (ADOI) through the IDR process). Any reference to income throughout this system of records notice refers explicitly to income information that the Department did not obtain directly from the IRS but obtained from the applicant or from another source.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>Information maintained in this system of records is obtained from applicants, the parents of dependent applicants, third-party preparers, and the spouse of married applicants for title IV, HEA program assistance, on the paper FAFSA, Portable Document Format (PDF) FAFSA, the online FAFSA form, and FAFSA by phone; the authorized employees or representatives of authorized entities (namely, IHEs, institutional third-party servicers, FFEL Program lenders, FFEL Program guaranty agencies, Federal loan servicers, State grant agencies, other Federal agencies, and research agencies); and from other persons or entities from which information is obtained following a disclosure under the routine uses set forth below.</P>
                    <P>The Financial Aid Administrators at IHEs designated by the applicant and IHEs' third-party servicers may correct the records in this system as a result of documentation provided by the applicant or by a dependent applicant's parents, such as Federal income return(s) (IRS Form 1040), Social Security card(s), and Department of Homeland Security I-551 Permanent Resident Card.</P>
                    <P>
                        This system maintains information added during CPS processing and FPS processing and information received from other Department systems, including the NSLDS, the COD system, and the SAIG Participation Management System. The results of matching programs with Federal agencies or State or local governments, or agencies thereof, are added to the student's record during CPS processing and FPS processing. The Department's matching programs at the time of the publication of this system of records notice are with the SSA to verify the SSNs of applicants, dependent applicants' parent(s), and spouses of married applicants, as well as of individuals who apply for an FSA ID, and to confirm the U.S. citizenship status of applicants as recorded in SSA records and date of death (if applicable) of applicants, and dependent applicants' parents, pursuant to title IV of the HEA, including section 484(o) (20 U.S.C. 1091(o)); with the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to verify the status of applicants who claim to be veterans, pursuant to section 480(c) and (d)(4)) of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1087vv(c) and (d)((4); with the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to confirm the immigration status of applicants for assistance as authorized by section 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88248"/>
                        484(g) of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1091(g)); and with the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) to enforce any requirement imposed at the discretion of a court, pursuant to section 5301 of the Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988, Public Law 100-690, as amended by section 1002(d) of the Crime Control Act of 1990, Public Law 101-647 (21 U.S.C. 862), denying Federal benefits under the programs established by title IV of the HEA to any individual convicted of a State or Federal offense for the distribution or possession of a controlled substance. The Department also maintains records on the matching program, with the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to identify dependents of U.S. military personnel who died in service in Iraq and Afghanistan after September 11, 2001, to determine if they are eligible for increased amounts of title IV, HEA program assistance, pursuant to sections 420R and 473(b) of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1070h and 1087mm(b)). The matching program ended September 30, 2024. (
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         following implementation of the FAFSA Simplification Act, section 401(c) of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1070a(c)) replaced sections 420R and 473(b)).
                    </P>
                    <P>During CPS and FPS processing, the Department's COD system sends information to these systems for students who have received a Federal Pell Grant. CPS and FPS use this information for verification analysis and for end-of-year reporting. These data elements include, but are not limited to: Verification Selection and Status, Potential Over-award Project (POP) indicator, Institutional Cost of Attendance, Reporting and Attended Campus Pell ID and Enrollment Date, and Federal Pell Grant Program information (Scheduled Federal Pell Grant Award, Origination Award Amount, Total Accepted Disbursement Amount, Number of Disbursements Accepted, Percentage of Eligibility Used At This Attended Campus Institution, and Date of Last Activity from the Origination or Disbursement table).</P>
                    <P>CPS and FPS also receive applicant information from the Department's NSLDS each time an application is processed or corrected. This process assesses student aid eligibility, updates financial aid history, and ensures compliance with title IV, HEA regulations. Some of this information appears on the applicant's SAR or FSS and ISIR. SPS also receives information from the Department's NSLDS concerning qualifying payment periods for PSLF/TEPSLF and TPD loan discharge eligibility. Title IV, HEA award information is provided to NSLDS from several different sources. Federal Perkins Loan information and Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant (FSEOG) overpayment information is sent from IHEs or their third-party servicers; the Department's COD system provides Federal Pell Grant and Direct Loan data; and State and guaranty agencies provide information on FFEL loans received from lending institutions participating in the FFEL programs. Financial aid transcript information reported by NSLDS provides aid recipients, IHEs, and third-party servicers with information about the type(s), amount(s), dates, and overpayment status of prior and current title IV, HEA funds the aid recipient has received. FFEL and William D. Ford Federal Direct Student Loan data information reported by NSLDS includes, but is not limited to: (1) Aggregate Loan Data, such as Subsidized, Unsubsidized; Combined Outstanding Principal Balances; Unallocated Consolidated Outstanding Principal Balances, Subsidized, Unsubsidized; Combined Pending Disbursements, Subsidized, Unsubsidized; Combined Totals; and Unallocated Consolidated Totals; (2) Detailed Loan Data, such as Loan Sequence Number; Loan Type Code; Loan Change Flag; Loan Program Code; Current Status Code and Date; Outstanding Principal Balance and Date; Net Loan Amount; Loan Begin and End Dates; Amount and Date of Last Disbursement; Guaranty Agency Code; School Code; Contact Code; and Institution Type and Grade Level; and (3) system flags for Additional Unsubsidized Loan; Capitalized Interest; Defaulted Loan Change; Discharged Loan Change; Loan Satisfactory Repayment Change; Active Bankruptcy Change; Overpayments Change; Aggregate Loan Change; Defaulted Loan; Discharged Loan; Loan Satisfactory Repayment; Active Bankruptcy; Additional Loans; Direct Loan Master Promissory Note; Direct PLUS Loan Master Promissory Note; Subsidized Loan Limit; and the Combined Loan Limit. Federal Perkins Loan information reported by NSLDS includes, but is not limited to: Cumulative and Current Year Disbursement Amounts; flags for Perkins Loan Change; Defaulted Loan; Discharged Loan; Loan Satisfactory Repayment; Active Bankruptcy; Additional Loans; and Perkins Overpayment Flag and Contact (School or Region). Federal Pell Grant payment information reported includes, but is not limited to: Pell Sequence Number; Pell Attended School Code; Pell Transaction Number; Last Update Date; Scheduled Amount; Award Amount; Amount Paid to Date; Percent Scheduled Award Used; Pell Payment EFC; Flags for Pell Verification; and Pell Payment Change. TEACH Grant Program information includes, but is not limited to: TEACH Grant Overpayment Contact; TEACH Grant Overpayment Flag; TEACH Grant Loan Principal Balance; TEACH Grant Total; and TEACH Grant Change Flag. Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grants information includes, but is not limited to, Total Award Amount. The Department obtains from and exchanges information that is included in this system of records with IHEs, third-party servicers, and State agencies. These eligible entities register with the SAIG system to participate in the information exchanges specified for their business processes.</P>
                    <P>TEACH Grant school verification information is also obtained through DocuSign (a secure digital software used by the Department to obtain and document digital signatures). The process through which the Department obtains such information using DocuSign is as follows:</P>
                    <P>(1) The grant recipient completes the TEACH Grant application via the “SPS Helptool,” which includes the applicable school's name and email address;</P>
                    <P>(2) The Department sends the information to DocuSign, which then sends an email to the school containing, among other things, a randomly generated code;</P>
                    <P>(3) If the school does not opt-out, the school logs in to DocuSign with the randomly generated code to ensure the school is accessing the correct recipient certification in DocuSign;</P>
                    <P>(4) The school certifies the grant recipient's school information, provides the school's authorizing official's name, title, email address, and phone number, and electronically signs the TEACH Grant certification; and</P>
                    <P>(5) DocuSign returns to the Department the TEACH Grant school verification information and the grant recipient's signature. Once SPS receives both the authorizing school official's and grant recipient's signatures, the grant recipient's certification information is updated.</P>
                    <P>During FPS processing, this system receives the SAI information from the Department's FAS. The SAI is calculated using FTI that the IRS provides directly to the Department under the FUTURE Act that is not maintained in this system but instead is maintained in the system of records entitled “FUTURE Act System (FAS)” (18-11-23).</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, for individuals who request assistance from the Department, directly or through State requestors and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88249"/>
                        legal assistance organizations (“third-party requestors”), as these terms are defined in 34 CFR 685.401(a), who may request that the Secretary of Education form a group of Federal student loan borrowers for borrower defense relief, information is obtained from individuals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         borrowers), their counsel or representatives, or students or their parents (when the individual is a borrower and depending on whether the individual is a parent or student), Federal agencies, State agencies, IHEs, lenders, private collection agencies, guaranty agencies, accreditors, and from other persons or entities from whom or from which data is obtained following a disclosure under routine uses set forth below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Some customer information that is retrieved from Federal Loan Servicers' IT systems (covered by the system of records notice entitled “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16)) is accessible through 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         to provide customers with payment and loan information and to enable customers to make loan payments as they would on the various Federal Loan Servicer websites. Information that is collected in this system is stored in and retrieved from the COD system (covered by the system of records notice entitled “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02)) to allow: applicants and borrowers to submit Counseling (Entrance, Exit, Financial Awareness Counseling, PLUS, TEACH Grant Initial and Subsequent, TEACH Grant Exit, TEACH Grant Conversion), Master Promissory Note (MPN), Endorser Addendum, TEACH Grant Agreement to Serve or Repay (Agreement), Loan Consolidation, Income-Driven Repayment, PLUS Loan Request, and Annual Student Loan Acknowledgement (ASLA) applications through 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                        ; credit check decision, credit appeal, and credit history information to be viewable on 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         to support credit appeal processing; users to view and search the PSLF employer database as retrieved from the COD system and provide updates to employers' information; and the PDF version of the PSLF/TEPSLF certification and application form that is generated from the PSLF Help Tool to be accessible. Information is also retrieved from the COD system to provide 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         functionality for creating and updating customer records. The following information from the EDMAPS system is accessible in the DCC IT system: customer information that is retrieved to allow real-time updates to a customer's identifiers, demographic attributes, address, phone, and email contact details; SMS opt-in/out information for customer communication preferences to opt-in/out of receiving marketing information via text message; information for customers who have been identified by the Department and its contractors as having completed a customer satisfaction survey; information for borrowers who will be contacted by the Department because they have been identified by the Department as having potentially fraudulent activity from a TPDR company; and information on borrowers who have been identified by the Department and its contractors as being at risk for loan default.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES: </HD>
                    <P>The Department may disclose information maintained in a record in this system of records under the routine uses listed in this system of records notice without the consent of the individual if the disclosure is compatible with the purposes for which the record was collected. These disclosures may be made on a case-by-case basis or pursuant to a computer matching agreement that meets the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act) (5 U.S.C. 552a).</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Program Disclosures.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from the system of records for the following program purposes:
                    </P>
                    <P>(a) To verify the identity of the applicant, the spouse of a married applicant, and the parent(s) of a dependent applicant, to verify, until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024, the identities of individuals who apply for a FSA ID, to determine the accuracy of the information contained in the record, to support compliance with title IV, HEA statutory and regulatory requirements, and to assist with the determination, correction, processing, tracking, and reporting of program eligibility and benefits, the Department may disclose records to applicants, guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, or Tribal agencies;</P>
                    <P>(b) To provide an applicant's financial aid history to IHEs, guaranty agencies and State agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, and third-party servicers, including information about the applicant's title IV, HEA loan defaults, and title IV, HEA grant program overpayments, the Department may disclose records to IHEs, guaranty agencies and State agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, and third-party servicers;</P>
                    <P>(c) To facilitate receiving and correcting application information, processing Federal Pell Grants and Direct Loans, and reporting Federal Perkins Loan Program expenditures to the Department's processing and reporting systems, the Department may disclose records to IHEs, State agencies, and third-party servicers;</P>
                    <P>(d) To assist loan holders with the collection and servicing of title IV, HEA loans, to support pre-claims/supplemental pre-claims assistance, to assist in locating borrowers, and to assist in locating students who owe grant overpayments, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, and Tribal agencies;</P>
                    <P>(e) To facilitate assessments of title IV, HEA program compliance, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies and IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, and local agencies;</P>
                    <P>(f) To assist in locating holders of loans, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, and local agencies;</P>
                    <P>(g) To assist in assessing the administration of title IV, HEA program funds by guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders in the FFEL Program, IHEs, and third-party servicers, the Department may disclose records to Federal and State agencies;</P>
                    <P>(h) To enforce the terms of a loan or grant or to assist in the collection of loan or grant overpayments, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, and local agencies;</P>
                    <P>(i) To assist borrowers in repayment, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, and local agencies;</P>
                    <P>
                        (j) To determine the relief that is appropriate if the Secretary of Education grants a borrower defense to repayment discharge application, as well as to pursue the recovery of liabilities of such discharges against the IHE, the Department may disclose records to Federal, State, and Tribal agencies, accreditors, IHEs, lenders and loan holders, guaranty agencies, third-party 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88250"/>
                        servicers, and private collection agencies;
                    </P>
                    <P>(k) To initiate legal action against an individual or entity involved in an illegal or unauthorized title IV, HEA program expenditure or activity, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, and Tribal agencies;</P>
                    <P>(l) To initiate or support a limitation, suspension, or termination action, an emergency action, or a debarment or suspension action, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, IHEs, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, and Tribal agencies;</P>
                    <P>(m) To investigate and resolve complaints, inquiries, requests for assistance, requests for Federal student loan repayment relief and other relief under the borrower defense to repayment regulations, and to update borrower account records and to correct errors, the Department may disclose records to guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders participating in the FFEL Program, accreditors, IHEs, third-party requestors, third-party servicers, private collection agencies, and Federal, State, and local agencies;</P>
                    <P>(n) To inform the parent(s) of a dependent applicant of information about the parent(s), or the spouse of a married applicant of information about the spouse, in an application for title IV, HEA funds, the Department may disclose records to the parent(s), or spouse, respectively;</P>
                    <P>(o) To identify the student as the correct beneficiary of the PLUS loan funds, and to allow the processing of the PLUS loan application and promissory note, the Department may disclose records to the parent(s) applying for the parent PLUS loan;</P>
                    <P>(p) To encourage a student to complete a FAFSA that they started but did not submit or to assist a student with the completion of a FAFSA, the Department may disclose a student's FAFSA filing status to a State higher education agency so that the agency may redisclose that information to a local educational agency; a secondary school where the student is or was enrolled; grantees of the Department; American Indian and Alaska Native educational entities; and nonprofit college access organizations with an established relationship with the student;</P>
                    <P>(q) The Department may disclose records under Sections 483(a)(2)(D)(i), 483(a)(2)(E)(ii), and 483(a)(3)(B)(i) of the HEA (20 U.S.C. 1090(a)(2)(D)(i), 1090(a)(2)(E)(ii), and 1090(a)(3)(B)(i)) from this system to State higher education agencies, eligible IHEs, and scholarship organizations that were designated prior to the date of enactment (December 19, 2019) of the FUTURE Act (Pub. L. 116-91, 133 Stat. 1189) that award and administer aid to students, to determine an applicant's eligibility for aid awarded by State higher education agencies, eligible IHEs, or designated scholarship organizations, and to administer Federal aid or aid awarded by State higher education agencies, eligible IHEs, or designated scholarship organizations;</P>
                    <P>(r) To help Federal, State, Tribal, and local government entities exercise their supervisory and administrative powers (including, but not limited to licensure, examination, discipline, regulation, or oversight of IHEs, Department contractors, guaranty agencies, lenders and loan holders, and third-party servicers) or to respond to aid applicant or recipient complaints submitted regarding the practices or processes of the Department and/or the Department's contractors, or to update information or correct errors contained in Department records regarding the aid applicant's or recipient's title IV, HEA program funds, the Department may disclose records to governmental entities at the Federal, State, Tribal, and local levels. These records may include all aspects of loans and grants made under title IV of the HEA to permit these governmental entities to verify compliance with applicable debt collection, consumer protection, financial, and other applicable statutory, regulatory, or local requirements. Before making a disclosure to these Federal, State, local, or Tribal governmental entities, the Department will require them to maintain safeguards consistent with the Privacy Act to protect the security and confidentiality of the disclosed records;</P>
                    <P>(s) The Department may disclose records from an applicant's FAFSA to IHEs and State higher education agencies to provide aid applicants and aid recipients with information about certain Federal means-tested benefits for which they may qualify; and</P>
                    <P>(t) To detect, prevent, and support the investigation of possible fraud and abuse in the use of title IV, HEA program funds, the Department may disclose records to institutions of higher education, third-party servicers, and Federal, State, local, or Tribal agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note:</E>
                         Some information that is maintained in this system of records is also maintained in other Department systems of records and, therefore, may be disclosed pursuant to the routine uses published in those other systems' system of records notices, including the “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02), “National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS)” (18-11-06), “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16), and “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS)” (18-11-22).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Enforcement Disclosure.</E>
                         In the event that information in this system of records indicates, either on its face or in connection with other information, a violation or potential violation of any applicable statute, regulations, or order of a competent authority, the Department may disclose the relevant records to the appropriate agency, whether Federal, State, Tribal, or local, charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting that violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, Executive Order, rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Litigation and Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Disclosure.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Introduction.</E>
                         In the event that one of the parties listed in sub-paragraphs (i) through (v) of this routine use is involved in judicial or administrative litigation or ADR, or has an interest in judicial or administrative litigation or ADR, the Department may disclose certain records to the parties described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this routine use under the conditions specified in those paragraphs:
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) The Department or any of its components;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Any Department employee in their official capacity;</P>
                    <P>(iii) Any Department employee in their individual capacity where the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) agrees to or has been requested to provide or arrange for representation of the employee;</P>
                    <P>(iv) Any Department employee in their individual capacity where the Department has agreed to represent the employee; and</P>
                    <P>(v) The United States, where the Department determines that the litigation is likely to affect the Department or any of its components.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to the DOJ.</E>
                         If the Department determines that disclosure of certain records to the DOJ is relevant and necessary to judicial or administrative litigation or ADR, the Department may disclose those records as a routine use to the DOJ.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Adjudicative Disclosure.</E>
                         If the Department determines that it is relevant and necessary to judicial or administrative litigation or ADR to disclose certain records to an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88251"/>
                        adjudicative body before which the Department is authorized to appear or to a person or entity designated by the Department or otherwise empowered to resolve or mediate disputes, the Department may disclose those records as a routine use to the adjudicative body, person, or entity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to Parties, Counsel, Representatives, and Witnesses.</E>
                         If the Department determines that disclosure of certain records is relevant and necessary to judicial or administrative litigation or ADR, the Department may disclose those records as a routine use to the party, counsel, representative, or witness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and Privacy Act Advice Disclosure.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to the DOJ or to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) if the Department determines that disclosure is desirable or necessary in determining whether records are required to be disclosed under the FOIA or the Privacy Act.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">Contract Disclosure.</E>
                         If the Department contracts with an entity to perform any function that requires disclosing records in this system of records to the contractor's employees, the Department may disclose the records to those employees. As part of such a contract, the Department shall require the contractor to agree to establish and maintain safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the disclosed records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">Congressional Member Disclosure.</E>
                         The Department may disclose the records of an individual to a member of Congress or the member's staff when necessary to respond to an inquiry from the member made at the written request of and on behalf of the individual whose records are being disclosed. The member's right to the information is no greater than the right of the individual who requested it.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">Employment, Benefit, and Contracting Disclosure.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">For Decisions by the Department.</E>
                         The Department may disclose a record to a Federal, State, or local agency, or to another public agency or professional organization, maintaining civil, criminal, or other relevant enforcement or other pertinent records, if necessary to obtain information relevant to a Department decision concerning the hiring or retention of an employee or other personnel action, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">For Decisions by Other Public Agencies and Professional Organizations.</E>
                         The Department may disclose a record to a Federal, State, local, or other public agency or professional organization, or the Department's contractor in connection with the hiring or retention of an employee or other personnel action, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an employee, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit, to the extent that the record is relevant and necessary to the receiving entity's decision on the matter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (8) 
                        <E T="03">Employee Grievance, Complaint, or Conduct Disclosure.</E>
                         If a record is relevant and necessary to an employee grievance, complaint, or disciplinary action involving a present or former employee of the Department, the Department may disclose a record from this system of records in the course of investigation, fact-finding, or adjudication to any party to the grievance, complaint, or action; to the party's counsel or representative; to a witness; or to a designated fact-finder, mediator, or other person designated to resolve issues or decide the matter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (9) 
                        <E T="03">Labor Organization Disclosure.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from this system of records to an arbitrator to resolve disputes under a negotiated grievance procedure or to officials of labor organizations recognized under 5 U.S.C. chapter 71 when relevant and necessary to their duties of exclusive representation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (10) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to the DOJ.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to the DOJ to the extent necessary for obtaining DOJ advice on any matter relevant to an audit, inspection, or other inquiry related to the programs covered by this system.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (11) 
                        <E T="03">Research Disclosure.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to a researcher if the Department determines that the individual or organization to which the disclosure would be made is qualified to carry out specific research related to functions or purposes of this system of records. The Department may disclose records from this system of records to that researcher solely for the purpose of carrying out that research related to the functions or purposes of this system of records. The researcher must agree to establish and maintain safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the disclosed records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (12) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to the OMB and Congressional Budget Office (CBO) for Federal Credit Reform Act (FCRA) Support.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to OMB and CBO as necessary to fulfill FCRA requirements in accordance with 2 U.S.C. 661b.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (13) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure in the Course of Responding to Breach of Data.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records to appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (a) the Department suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (b) the Department has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, the Department (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (c) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (14) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure in Assisting Another Agency in Responding to a Breach of Data.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from this system of records to another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Department determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach, or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (15) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure of Information to State and Federal Agencies.</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from this system of records to (a) a Federal or State agency, its employees, agents (including contractors of its agents), or contractors, or (b) a fiscal or financial agent designated by the U.S. Department of the Treasury, including employees, agents, or contractors of such agent, for the purpose of identifying, preventing, or recouping improper payments to an applicant for, or recipient of, Federal funds.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (16) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</E>
                         The Department may disclose records from this system of records to NARA for the purpose of records management inspections conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (17) 
                        <E T="03">Disclosure to Consumer Reporting Agencies.</E>
                         Disclosures pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12): The Department may disclose the following information to a consumer reporting agency regarding a valid, overdue claim of the Department: (a) the name, address, taxpayer identification number, and other information necessary to establish the identity of the individual responsible for the claim; (b) the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88252"/>
                        amount, status, and history of the claim; and (c) the program under which the claim arose. The Department may disclose the information specified in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(12) and the procedures contained in subsection 31 U.S.C. 3711(e). A consumer reporting agency to which these disclosures may be made is defined at 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f) and 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS: </HD>
                    <P>System records are paper-based and stored in locked rooms or electronic and stored on secured computer systems and in the cloud.</P>
                    <P>Fully processed paper applications and supporting paper documentation that were received on or before June 30, 2024, are stored for applicable periods in standard Federal Records Center boxes in locked storage rooms at the contractor facilities in London, Kentucky. Fully processed paper applications and supporting paper documentation requiring retention and received on or after July 1, 2024, will be stored in a private records storage facility, as applicable. The records storage facilities currently utilized are listed in the “System Location” section above.</P>
                    <P>Digitized paper applicant records, which include optically imaged documents, are stored on DADS (disks) in a virtual disk library, which is also electronic, in the computer facilities controlled by the Next Generation Data Center (NGDC) in Clarksville, VA.</P>
                    <P>Records that are collected in this system for applicants of Federal grants or loans are stored in the COD system for individuals who apply under one of the programs authorized under title IV of the HEA, including, but not limited to the: (1) Federal Pell Grant Program; (2) Federal Perkins Loans Program; (3) ACG Program; (4) National SMART Grant Program; (5) TEACH Grant Program; (6) Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grant Program; (7) Direct Loan Program, which includes Federal Direct Stafford/Ford Loans, Federal Direct Unsubsidized Stafford/Ford Loans and Federal Direct PLUS Loans and Federal Direct Consolidation Loans; (8) FFEL Program; and (9) FISL Program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system pertaining to a title IV, HEA loan applicant, borrower, or grant recipient are indexed and retrieved by a single data element, or a combination of the following data elements, to include SSN, name, DOB, the award year in which the applicant applied for title IV, HEA program assistance, and case tracking number. These data elements are also used to retrieve information of title IV, HEA program applicants and recipients of Federal grants or loans from the COD system (applicant information is collected in this system of records and stored in the COD system).</P>
                    <P>This system also uses a credit appeal identifier to retrieve credit appeal information from the COD system to support the credit appeal process.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, this system uses a combination of SSN, DOB, and name data elements to retrieve some records from Federal Loan Servicers' systems (covered by the system of records notice entitled “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16)) to allow customers to access their payment information, loan information and to make payments on 
                        <E T="03">StudentAid.gov</E>
                         as they would on the various Federal Loan Servicer websites.
                    </P>
                    <P>This system also uses customer identifiers to retrieve customer information data from the EDMAPS system (covered by the system of records notice entitled “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS) System” (18-11-22)) to allow real-time updates to customer information and communication preferences; and for the Department and its contractors to identify customers who have completed a customer satisfaction survey in the DCC IT system; who may have potential fraudulent activity from a TPDR company; and who may be at risk for loan default.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records maintained in this system are primarily retained and disposed of in accordance with the records schedules listed below. The Department has submitted amendments to these records schedules to NARA for its review and approval.</P>
                    <P>(a) Department Records Schedule 051: FSA National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS) (DAA-0441-2017-0004) (ED 051). (Records covered by ED 051 will not be destroyed until NARA-approved amendments to ED 051 are in effect, as applicable.)</P>
                    <P>(b) Department Records Schedule 052: Ombudsman Case Files (N1-441-09-21) (ED 052). (Records covered by ED 052 will not be destroyed until NARA-approved amendments to ED 052 are in effect, as applicable.)</P>
                    <P>(c) Department Records Schedule 072: FSA Application, Origination, and Disbursement Records (DAA-0441-2013-0002) (ED 072). (Records covered by ED 072 will not be destroyed until NARA-approved amendments to ED 072 are in effect, as applicable.)</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>All users of the system will have a unique user ID with a password. All physical access to the data housed at system locations is controlled and monitored by security personnel who check each individual entering the building for their employee or visitor badge. The IT systems employed by the Department offer a high degree of resistance to tampering and circumvention with firewalls, encryption, and password protection. This security system limits data access to Department and contract staff on a “need-to-know” basis and controls individual users' ability to access and alter records within the system. All interactions by users of the system are recorded.</P>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 (FISMA), as amended by the Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014, every Department system must receive a signed Authorization to Operate (ATO) from a designated Department official. The ATO process includes a rigorous assessment of security and privacy controls, a plan of action and milestones to remediate any identified deficiencies, and a continuous monitoring program.</P>
                    <P>FISMA controls implemented are comprised of a combination of management, operational, and technical controls, and include the following control families: access control, awareness and training, audit and accountability, security assessment and authorization, configuration management, contingency planning, identification and authentication, incident response, maintenance, media protection, physical and environmental protection, planning, personnel security, privacy, risk assessment, system and services acquisition, system and communications protection, system and information integrity, and program management.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you wish to gain access to a record in this system, contact the respective system manager at the address listed above. You must provide necessary particulars such as your name, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88253"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Alternatively, to gain access to a record in the system, you may make a Privacy Act request through the U.S. Department of Education, FOIA Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://www2.ed.gov/policy/gen/leg/foia/request_privacy.html</E>
                         by completing the applicable request forms. Requests by an individual for access to a record must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity.
                    </P>
                    <P>Borrowers are able to access their financial aid history from NSLDS in this system. If you wish to gain access to other records in the NSLDS, please refer to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS)” (18-11-06).</P>
                    <P>For title IV, HEA program applicants and recipients of Federal grants or loans, if you wish to gain access to such information about you from the COD system, please refer to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to gain access to the EDMAPS system information that is about you and accessible in this system, please refer to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS) System” (18-11-22).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to gain access to the PAS system information about you that is maintained in this system until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024, please refer to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Person Authentication Service (PAS)” (18-11-12).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to gain access to the information in the Federal Loan Servicers' IT systems that is about you and accessible in this system, please refer to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>If you wish to contest or change the content of a record about you in the system of records, provide the respective system manager with your name, DOB, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Identify the specific items to be changed and provide a written justification for the change.</P>
                    <P>To contest information submitted or included on a FAFSA application for the current award year, send your request to the FOIA Service Center listed in the Notification Procedures section.</P>
                    <P>Financial aid history from NSLDS is accessible in this system. To contest name and address records about you, provide the respective system manager with your name, DOB, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name. All other financial aid history records from NSLDS must be contested by following the CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES identified in the system of records notice entitled “National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS)” (18-11-06).</P>
                    <P>For title IV, HEA program applicants and recipients of Federal grants or loans, if you wish to contest such information about you, please refer to the CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02).</P>
                    <P>To contest information about you in a Federal Loan Servicer IT system, such as the payment and loan information that is accessible in this system, please refer to the CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16).</P>
                    <P>To contest the EDMAPS system information that is accessible in this system, please refer to the CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS) System” (18-11-22).</P>
                    <P>To contest the PAS system information about you that is maintained in this system until CPS is decommissioned after September 30, 2024, please refer to the CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Person Authentication Service (PAS)” (18-11-12).</P>
                    <P>Requests to amend a record must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.7.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>If you wish to determine whether a record exists about you in the system of records, contact the respective system manager at the address listed above. You must provide necessary particulars such as your name, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department while processing the request to distinguish between individuals with the same name.</P>
                    <P>
                        Alternatively, you may make a Privacy Act request through the U.S. Department of Education, FOIA Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://www2.ed.gov/policy/gen/leg/foia/request_privacy.html</E>
                         by completing the applicable request forms.
                    </P>
                    <P>If you wish to submit a request for notification to determine whether a record exists about you in the COD system as a title IV, HEA program applicant or recipient of a Federal grant or loan, please refer to the NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Origination and Disbursement (COD) System” (18-11-02).</P>
                    <P>Borrowers are able to access their financial aid history from NSLDS in this system. If you wish to submit a request for notification to determine whether a record exists about you in the NSLDS system of records, please refer to the NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “National Student Loan Data System (NSLDS)” (18-11-06).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to submit a request for notification to determine whether a record exists about you in a Federal Loan Servicer IT system, please refer to the NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Common Services for Borrowers (CSB)” (18-11-16).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to submit a request for notification to determine whether a record exists about you in EDMAPS system, please refer to the NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Enterprise Data Management and Analytics Platform Services (EDMAPS) System” (18-11-22).</P>
                    <P>If you wish to submit a request for notification to determine whether a record exists about you in the PAS system, please refer to the NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES section in the system of records notice entitled “Person Authentication Service (PAS)” (18-11-12).</P>
                    <P>Requests for notification about whether the system of records contains information about an individual must meet the requirements of the Department's Privacy Act regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        None.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88254"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The system of records entitled “Aid Awareness and Application Processing” (18-11-21) was last modified and published in full in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on May 30, 2024 (89 FR 46870).
                    </P>
                </PRIACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25897 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As required by the Privacy Act of 1974 and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circulars A-108 and A-130, the Department of Energy (DOE or the Department) is publishing notice of a modification to an existing Privacy Act System of Records. DOE proposes to amend System of Records DOE-9 Members of DOE Advisory Committees. This System of Records Notice (SORN) is being modified to align with new formatting requirements, published by the Office of Management and Budget, and to ensure appropriate Privacy Act coverage of business processes and Privacy Act information.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This modified SORN will become applicable following the end of the public comment period on December 9, 2024 unless comments are received that result in a contrary determination.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments should be sent to the DOE Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503 and to Ken Hunt, Chief Privacy Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Rm. 8H-085, Washington, DC 20585, by facsimile at (202) 586-8151, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">privacy@hq.doe.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ken Hunt, Chief Privacy Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Rm. 8H-085, Washington, DC 20585, or by facsimile at (202) 586-8151, by email at 
                        <E T="03">privacy@hq.doe.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (240) 686-9485.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On January 9, 2009, DOE published a Compilation of its Privacy Act Systems of Records, which included System of Records DOE-9 Members of DOE Advisory Committees. This notice proposes the following amendments: in the “Routine Uses” section, this modified notice deletes a previous routine use concerning efforts responding to a suspected or confirmed loss of confidentiality of information as it appears in DOE's compilation of its Privacy Act Systems of Records (January 9, 2009) and replaces it with one to assist DOE with responding to a suspected or confirmed breach of its records of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), modeled with language from OMB's Memorandum M-17-12, “Preparing for and Responding to a Breach of Personally Identifiable Information” (January 3, 2017). Further, this notice adds one new routine use to ensure that DOE may assist another agency or entity in responding to the other agency's or entity's confirmed or suspected breach of PII, as appropriate, as aligned with OMB's Memorandum M-17-12. An administrative change required by the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Improvement Act of 2016 extends the length of time a requestor is permitted to file an appeal under the Privacy Act from 30 to 90 days. Both the “System Locations” and “Administrative, Technical and Physical Safeguards” sections have been modified to reflect the Department's usage of cloud-based services for records storage. Language throughout the SORN has been updated to align with applicable Federal privacy laws, policies, procedures, and best practices.</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>DOE-9 Members of DOE Advisory Committees.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Systems leveraging this SORN may exist in multiple locations. All systems storing records in a cloud-based server are required to use government-approved cloud services and follow National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) security and privacy standards for access and data retention. Records maintained in a government-approved cloud server are accessed through secure data centers in the continental United States.</P>
                    <P>U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the Executive Secretariat, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Headquarters:</E>
                         Director, Office of the Executive Secretariat, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                         50 U.S.C. 2401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                         and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. app. 2.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system are maintained and used by DOE to keep a current listing of advisory committee members.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>All individuals who are considered, nominated, or appointed to serve as members of a DOE Federal advisory committee, including any committee of the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Name, biographical information, home address and telephone number, work address and telephone number, email address, type of business or organizational affiliation, present position with business or other organization, number of years in present position, other related experience, congressional district, and photographs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>The subject individual, members of Congress, and public interest groups.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>1. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to a member of Congress submitting a request involving a constituent when the constituent has requested assistance from the member concerning the subject matter of the record. The member of Congress must provide a copy of the constituent's signed request for assistance.</P>
                    <P>2. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to DOE contractors in performance of their contracts, and their officers and employees who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties. Those provided information under this routine use are subject to the same limitations applicable to Department officers and employees under the Privacy Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        3. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the Department suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the System of Records; (2) the Department has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, DOE (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88255"/>
                        national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>4. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Department determines that information from this System of Records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records may be stored as paper records or electronic media.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are retrieved by name.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Retention and disposition of these records is in accordance with the National Archives and Records Administration approved records disposition schedules under the Federal Advisory Committee records with the potential of two retentions. One is after superseded/obsolete, and the other is permanent.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>Electronic records may be secured and maintained on a cloud-based software server and operating system that resides in Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP) and Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) hosting environment. Data located in the cloud-based server is firewalled and encrypted at rest and in transit. The security mechanisms for handling data at rest and in transit are in accordance with DOE encryption standards. Records are protected from unauthorized access through the following appropriate safeguards:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Administrative:</E>
                         Access to all records is limited to lawful government purposes only, with access to electronic records based on role and either two-factor authentication or password protection. The system requires passwords to be complex and to be changed frequently. Users accessing system records undergo frequent training in Privacy Act and information security requirements. Security and privacy controls are reviewed on an ongoing basis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Technical:</E>
                         Computerized records systems are safeguarded on Departmental networks configured for role-based access based on job responsibilities and organizational affiliation. Privacy and security controls are in place for this system and are updated in accordance with applicable requirements as determined by NIST and DOE directives and guidance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Physical:</E>
                         Computer servers on which electronic records are stored are located in secured Department facilities, which are protected by security guards, identification badges, and cameras. Paper copies of all records are locked in file cabinets, file rooms, or offices and are under the control of authorized personnel. Access to these facilities is granted only to authorized personnel and each person granted access to the system must be an individual authorized to use or administer the system.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>The Department follows the procedures outlined in 10 CFR part 1008.4. Valid identification of the individual making the request is required before information will be processed, given, access granted, or a correction considered, to ensure that information is processed, given, corrected, or records disclosed or corrected only at the request of the proper person.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Any individual may submit a request to the System Manager and request a copy of any records relating to them. In accordance with 10 CFR 1008.11, any individual may appeal the denial of a request made by him or her for information about or for access to or correction or amendment of records. An appeal shall be filed within 90 calendar days after receipt of the denial. When an appeal is filed by mail, the postmark is conclusive as to timeliness. The appeal shall be in writing and must be signed by the individual. The words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” should appear in capital letters on the envelope and the letter. Appeals of denials relating to records maintained in government-wide System of Records reported by Office of Personnel Management (OPM), shall be filed, as appropriate, with the Assistant Director for Agency Compliance and Evaluation, OPM, 1900 E Street NW, Washington, DC 20415. All other appeals relating to DOE records shall be directed to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA), 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the DOE regulation implementing the Privacy Act, 10 CFR part 1008, a request by an individual to determine if a System of Records contains information about themselves should be directed to the U.S. Department of Energy, Headquarters, Privacy Act Officer. The request should include the requester's complete name and the time period for which records are sought.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This SORN was last published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , 74 FR 1007-1008, on January 9, 2009.
                    </P>
                </PRIACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document of the Department of Energy was signed on November 2, 2024, by Ann Dunkin, Senior Agency Official for Privacy, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on November 4, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer Hartzell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25899 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by the Privacy Act of 1974 and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circulars A-108 and A-130, the Department of Energy (DOE or the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88256"/>
                        Department) is publishing notice of a modification to an existing Privacy Act system of records. DOE proposes to amend System of Records DOE-17 DOE Alert System. This System of Records Notice (SORN) is being modified to align with new formatting requirements, published by OMB, and to ensure appropriate Privacy Act coverage of business processes and Privacy Act information.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This modified SORN will become applicable following the end of the public comment period on December 9, 2024 unless comments are received that result in a contrary determination.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments should be sent to the DOE Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503 and to Ken Hunt, Chief Privacy Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Rm. 8H-085, Washington, DC 20585, by facsimile at (202) 586-8151, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">privacy@hq.doe.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ken Hunt, Chief Privacy Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Rm. 8H-085, Washington, DC 20585, by facsimile at (202) 586-8151, by email at 
                        <E T="03">privacy@hq.doe.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (240) 686-9485.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On January 9, 2009, DOE published a Compilation of its Privacy Act systems of records, which included System of DOE-17 DOE Alert System. This notice proposes the following amendments. The system manager has been updated as the Office of Emergency Management. “Categories of Individuals Covered by the System” now includes contractors. “Categories of Records in this System” has been updated to include cell phone number. In the “Routine Uses” section, this modified notice deletes a previous routine use concerning efforts responding to a suspected or confirmed loss of confidentiality of information as it appears in DOE's compilation of its Privacy Act systems of records (January 9, 2009) and replaces it with one to assist DOE with responding to a suspected or confirmed breach of its records of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), modeled with language from OMB's Memorandum M-17-12, “Preparing for and Responding to a Breach of Personally Identifiable Information” (January 3, 2017). Further, this notice adds one new routine use to ensure that DOE may assist another agency or entity in responding to the other agency's or entity's confirmed or suspected breach of PII, as appropriate, as aligned with OMB's Memorandum M-17-12. An administrative change required by the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 extends the length of time a requestor is permitted to file an appeal under the Privacy Act from 30 to 90 days. Both the “System Locations” and “Administrative, Technical and Physical Safeguards” sections have been modified to reflect the Department's usage of cloud-based services for records storage. Language throughout the SORN has been updated to align with applicable Federal privacy laws, policies, procedures, and best practices.</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>DOE-17 DOE Alert System.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Systems leveraging this SORN may exist in multiple locations. All systems storing records in a cloud-based server are required to use government-approved cloud services and follow National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) security and privacy standards for access and data retention. Records maintained in a government-approved cloud server are accessed through secure data centers in the continental United States.</P>
                    <P>U.S. Department of Energy, Headquarters, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>Director, Office of Emergency Management, Office of Continuity Programs and Mission Resilience, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         and 50 U.S.C. 2401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system are used by the Department to alert those employees who have requested and registered to be notified in the event of an emergency at DOE or its facilities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Current DOE, including National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA), employees and contractor employees, consultants, and board members.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>The records include the name of the individual, work and home email addresses, work and home telephone numbers, cellphone numbers, and pager numbers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>The individual to whom the record pertains provides all information maintained in the system.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>1. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use for the purpose of an investigation, settlement of claims, or the preparation and conduct of litigation to (1) persons representing the Department in the investigation, settlement or litigation, and to individuals assisting in such representation; (2) others involved in the investigation, settlement, and litigation, and their representatives and individuals assisting those representatives; (3) witnesses, potential witnesses, or their representatives and assistants; and (4) any other persons who possess information pertaining to the matter when it is necessary to obtain information or testimony relevant to the matter.</P>
                    <P>2. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use in court or administrative proceedings to the tribunals, counsel, other parties, witnesses, and the public (in publicly available pleadings, filings, or discussion in open court) when such disclosure: (1) is relevant to, and necessary for, the proceeding; (2) is compatible with the purpose for which the Department collected the records; and (3) the proceedings involve:</P>
                    <P>(a) The Department, its predecessor agencies, current or former contractors of the Department, or other United States Government agencies and their components, or</P>
                    <P>(b) A current or former employee of the Department and its predecessor agencies, current or former contractors of the Department, or other United States Government agencies and their components, who is acting in an official capacity, or in any individual capacity where the Department or other United States Government agency has agreed to represent the employee.</P>
                    <P>
                        3. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to the appropriate local, tribal, state, or federal agency when records, alone or in conjunction with other information, indicate a violation or potential violation of law whether civil, criminal, or regulatory in nature, and whether 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88257"/>
                        arising by general statute or particular program pursuant thereto.
                    </P>
                    <P>4. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to a member of Congress submitting a request involving a constituent when the constituent has requested assistance from the member concerning the subject matter of the record. The member of Congress must provide a copy of the constituent's signed request for assistance.</P>
                    <P>5. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to DOE contractors in performance of their contracts, and their officers and employees who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties. Those provided information under this routine use are subject to the same limitations applicable to Department officers and employees under the Privacy Act.</P>
                    <P>6. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the Department suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) the Department has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, DOE (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.</P>
                    <P>7. A record from this system may be disclosed as a routine use to another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Department determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records may be stored as paper records or electronic media.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are retrieved by the name of the individual.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Retention and disposition of these records is in accordance with the National Archives and Records Administration-approved records disposition schedule with a retention of 3 years.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>Electronic records may be secured and maintained on a cloud-based software server and operating system that resides in Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP) and Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) hosting environment. Data located in the cloud-based server is firewalled and encrypted at rest and in transit. The security mechanisms for handling data at rest and in transit are in accordance with DOE encryption standards. Records are protected from unauthorized access through the following appropriate safeguards:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Administrative:</E>
                         Access to all records is limited to lawful government purposes only, with access to electronic records based on role and either two-factor authentication or password protection. The system requires passwords to be complex and to be changed frequently. Users accessing system records undergo frequent training in Privacy Act and information security requirements. Security and privacy controls are reviewed on an ongoing basis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Technical:</E>
                         Computerized records systems are safeguarded on Departmental networks configured for role-based access based on job responsibilities and organizational affiliation. Privacy and security controls are in place for this system and are updated in accordance with applicable requirements as determined by NIST and DOE directives and guidance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Physical:</E>
                         Computer servers on which electronic records are stored are located in secured Department facilities, which are protected by security guards, identification badges, and cameras. Paper copies of all records are locked in file cabinets, file rooms, or offices and are under the control of authorized personnel. Access to these facilities is granted only to authorized personnel and each person granted access to the system must be an individual authorized to use or administer the system.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>The Department follows the procedures outlined in 10 CFR 1008.4. Valid identification of the individual making the request is required before information will be processed, given, access granted, or a correction considered, to ensure that information is processed, given, corrected, or records disclosed or corrected only at the request of the proper person.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Any individual may submit a request to the System Manager and request a copy of any records relating to them. In accordance with 10 CFR 1008.11, any individual may appeal the denial of a request made by him or her for information about or for access to or correction or amendment of records. An appeal shall be filed within 90 calendar days after receipt of the denial. When an appeal is filed by mail, the postmark is conclusive as to timeliness. The appeal shall be in writing and must be signed by the individual. The words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” should appear in capital letters on the envelope and the letter. Appeals relating to DOE records shall be directed to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA), 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the DOE regulation implementing the Privacy Act, at 10 CFR part 1008, a request by an individual to determine if a system of records contains information about themselves should be directed to the U.S. Department of Energy, Headquarters, Privacy Act Officer. The request should include the requester's complete name and the time period for which records are sought.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This SORN was last published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         74 FR 1019-1020, on January 9, 2009.
                    </P>
                </PRIACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document of the Department of Energy was signed on November 1, 2024, by Ann Dunkin, Senior Agency Official for Privacy, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88258"/>
                    the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on November 4, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer Hartzell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25898 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2701-061]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Erie Boulevard Hydropower, L.P.; Notice of Availability of Final Environmental Assessment</SUBJECT>
                <P>In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) regulations, 18 CFR part 380, the Office of Energy Projects has reviewed the application for a new license to continue to operate and maintain the West Canada Creek Hydroelectric Project (West Canada Creek Project) and has prepared a Final Environmental Assessment (final EA) for the project. The West Canada Creek Project is located on West Canada Creek, in the counties of Oneida and Herkimer, New York.</P>
                <P>The final EA contains staff's analysis of the potential environmental impacts of the project and concludes that licensing the project, with appropriate environmental protective measures, would not constitute a major federal action that would significantly affect the quality of the human environment.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission provides all interested persons with an opportunity to view and/or print the final EA via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/</E>
                    ), using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number, excluding the last three digits in the docket number field, to access the document. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or toll-free at (866) 208-3676, or for TTY, (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202)502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For further information, contact Laurie Bauer at (202) 502-6519 or by email at 
                    <E T="03">laurie.bauer@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25849 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP25-7-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Colorado Interstate Gas Company, LLC; Notice of Application and Establishing Intervention Deadline</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on October 17, 2024, Colorado Interstate Gas Company, L.L.C. (CIG), P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944, filed an application under section 7(b) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization to abandon by sale to its affiliate, Hiland Crude LLC, approximately 100 miles of its 16-inch-diameter Powder River Lateral. CIG estimates the total cost of the abandonment to be $1,115,203, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, Colorado Interstate Gas Company, L.L.C., P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944, by phone at (719) 667-7517, or by email at 
                    <E T="03">CIGregulatoryaffairs@kindermorgan.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental review and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or environmental assessment (EA) for this proposal. The filing of an EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.9.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on November 21, 2024. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88259"/>
                    contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Protests</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 385.211 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations under the NGA, any person 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     may file a protest to the application. Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 385.2001 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations. A protest may also serve as a motion to intervene so long as the protestor states it also seeks to be an intervenor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10(a)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.211.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Persons include individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities. 18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.2001.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before November 21, 2024.</P>
                <P>There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-7-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     under the link to Documents and Filings. Using eComment is an easy method for interested persons to submit brief, text-only comments on a project;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. With eFiling, you can provide comments in a variety of formats by attaching them as a file with your submission. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Comment on a Filing”; or
                </P>
                <P>(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP25-7-000).</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852
                </FP>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.</P>
                <P>The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interventions</HD>
                <P>
                    Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations under the NGA 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by the intervention deadline for the project, which is November 21, 2024. As described further in Rule 214, your motion to intervene must state, to the extent known, your position regarding the proceeding, as well as your interest in the proceeding. For an individual, this could include your status as a landowner, ratepayer, resident of an impacted community, or recreationist. You do not need to have property directly impacted by the project in order to intervene. For more information about motions to intervene, refer to the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/resources/guides/how-to/intervene.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-7-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Intervention.” The eFiling feature includes a document-less intervention option; for more information, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/document-less-intervention.pdf.;</E>
                     or
                </P>
                <P>(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP25-7-000.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852
                </FP>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Francisco Tarin, Director, Regulatory, Colorado Interstate Gas Company, L.L.C., P.O. Box 1087, Colorado Springs, Colorado 80944 or by email (with a link to the document) at 
                    <E T="03">CIGregulatoryaffairs@kindermorgan.com.</E>
                     Any subsequent submissions by an intervenor must be served on the applicant and all other parties to the proceeding. Contact information for parties can be downloaded from the service list at the eService link on FERC Online. Service can be via email with a link to the document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All timely, unopposed 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88260"/>
                    may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The applicant has 15 days from the submittal of a motion to intervene to file a written objection to the intervention.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(b)(3) and (d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tracking the Proceeding</HD>
                <P>
                    Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link as described above. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intervention Deadline</E>
                    : 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on November 21, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25846 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC25-16-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tenaska Frontier Partners, Ltd.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of Tenaska Frontier Partners, Ltd.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5298.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 12/16/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG25-23-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Calvada Energy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Calvada Energy submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5341.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER10-3050-014; ER10-3053-014.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Whitewater Hill Wind Partners, LLC, Cabazon Wind Partners, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Cabazon Wind Partners, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5295.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER12-164-026; ER10-1882-014; ER10-1894-014; ER10-2563-010; ER18-2203-006; ER19-1402-005; ER20-2288-006; ER22-2046-005.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Sapphire Sky Wind Energy LLC, Tatanka Ridge Wind, LLC, Coyote Ridge Wind, LLC, Upper Michigan Energy Resources Corporation, Wisconsin Electric Power Company, Wisconsin Public Service Corporation, Wisconsin River Power Company, Bishop Hill Energy III LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Bishop Hill Energy III LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5356.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER16-2044-004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Elk Hills Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Elk Hills Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5296.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER17-256-021; ER17-242-020; ER17-243-020; ER17-245-020; ER17-652-020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Lightstone Marketing LLC, Waterford Power, LLC, Lawrenceburg Power, LLC, Gavin Power, LLC, Darby Power, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Darby Power, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5357.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER20-1629-006; ER11-2036-016; ER18-2327-009; ER18-2492-010; ER19-902-004; ER19-1793-003; ER19-1795-003; ER19-1796-003; ER19-1797-003; ER19-1798-003; ER19-1799-003; ER19-2395-002; ER20-902-005; ER20-1593-007; ER20-1594-006; ER20-1596-007; ER20-1597-007; ER20-1599-007; ER20-1620-006; ER21-2767-004; ER22-414-006; ER22-1518-004; ER23-495-007; ER23-1503-002; ER23-2346-004; ER23-2439-003; ER23-2448-004; ER23-2450-003; ER23-2451-003; ER23-2511-003; ER24-2103-002; ER24-2327-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Calhoun County Solar Project, LLC, Keydet Solar Center, LLC, Hardy Hills Solar Energy LLC, Great Cove Solar II LLC, Great Cove Solar LLC, Tunica Windpower LLC, Cavalier Solar A2, LLC, Oak Ridge Solar, LLC, Cavalier Solar A, LLC, AES CE Solutions, LLC, Laurel Mountain BESS, LLC, AES Marketing and Trading, LLC, Skipjack Solar Center, LLC, AES Solutions Management, LLC, Richmond Spider Solar, LLC, Pleinmont Solar 2, LLC, Pleinmont Solar 1, LLC, Highlander IA, LLC, Highlander Solar Energy Station 1, LLC, sPower Energy Marketing LLC, AES Integrated Energy, LLC, Valcour Wethersfield Windpark, LLC, Valcour Ellenburg Windpark, LLC, Valcour Clinton Windpark, LLC, Valcour Chateaugay Windpark, LLC, Valcour Bliss Windpark, LLC, Valcour Altona Windpark, LLC, Valcour Wind Energy, LLC, FTS Master Tenant 2, LLC, Riverhead Solar Farm, LLC, AES Laurel Mountain, LLC, AES ES Alamitos, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of AES ES Alamitos, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5297.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-917-003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Placerita ESS, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Placerita ESS, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5294.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-2505-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Solar Star 3, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Response to Deficiency Letter to be effective 9/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5138.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-2506-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Solar Star 4, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Response to Deficiency Letter to be effective 9/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5143.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-316-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Wisconsin Electric Power Company.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88261"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Section 205 Filing for Oak Creek Power Plant Retirement to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5323.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-317-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 3330R5 City of Nixa, Missouri NITSA NOAs to be effective 10/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5332.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-318-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Central Power &amp; Lime LLC, Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Central Power &amp; Lime LLC submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: Central Power Electric Cooperative, Inc. Formula Rate Revisions to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5032.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-319-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., ALLETE, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: 2024-11-01_ALLETE Depreciation Rates to be effective 1/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5038.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-321-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     DesertLink, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: DesertLink LLC Annual TRBAA Filing to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5045.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-322-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Northern States Power Company, a Minnesota corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2025 Interchange Agreement Annual FIling to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5047.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-323-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2024-11-01_MISO TOs Compliance for Order 898 to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5066.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-324-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., Citizens Electric Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: 2024-11-01_Citizen's Electric Corporation (CEC) TO Integration to be effective 2/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5082.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-325-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2024-11-01_RPU Request for Approval of Transmission Rate Incentives to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5083.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-326-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Termination of Tri-State, Empire Const Agmt at Pinto to be effective 1/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5098.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-327-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: 2024-11-01_SA 4379 METC-DTE Electric Company E&amp;P (J1939) to be effective 10/25/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5112.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-328-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ISO New England Inc., New England Power Pool Participants Committee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: ISO New England Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: Rev. to Coordination Agreement—ISO-NE and New Brunswick Power Corp. to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5114.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-329-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., Ameren Illinois Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: 2024-11-01_SA 4155 Ameren IL-Coles Wind 1st Rev E&amp;P (J2128) to be effective 11/2/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5132.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-330-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Georgia Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Cancellation of Dominion Affected System Agreement Concurrence to be effective 10/28/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5135.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-331-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwestern Public Service Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2024.11.01—FERC Order 898 Filing—Production to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5146.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-332-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Ministerial Clean-Up Filing regarding Hybrids Phase II Implementation to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5153.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-333-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     DATC Path 15, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Normal filing 2025 Appendix I to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5158.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-334-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ITC Midwest LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: ITC-NEP Distribution-Transmission Interconnection Agreement to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5170.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-335-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     AlbertaEx, L.P.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5177.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-336-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     BHE Glacier Wind 1, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5180.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-337-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     BHE Power Watch, LLC.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88262"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5181.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-338-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     BHE Rim Rock Wind, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5182.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-339-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     BHE Glacier Wind 2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5183.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-340-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     BHE Wind Watch, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to MBR Tariffs to Restore MBR Authority in Northwestern BAA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5186.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-341-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     American Electric Power Service Corporation, PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: American Electric Power Service Corporation submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: AEP submits one amended Facilities Agreement re: ILDSA, SA No. 1336 to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5191.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-342-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of Colorado.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2024-11-01-Att O-PSCo Formula Rate—Order 898 to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-343-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     The Narragansett Electric Company, ISO New England Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: The Narragansett Electric Company submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: RIE Post-Retirement Benefits Other Than Pensions Expenses Refund Report to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5212.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/22/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25889 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG25-20-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     RWE Clean Energy, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Westside Canal 2A, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5280.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER10-2437-022.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arizona Public Service Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of Arizona Public Service Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5285.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-2534-003; ER19-2434-003; ER24-729-002; ER24-738-002; ER24-1982-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Wellesley BESS LLC , PNY BESS LLC, Holyoke BESS LLC, Citizens Imperial Solar LLC, Citizens Energy Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Citizens Energy Corporation, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5284.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER22-381-012; ER10-1781-008; ER19-2626-010; ER21-714-011; ER22-399-006; ER25-263-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Dunns Bridge Energy Storage, LLC, Meadow Lake Solar Park LLC, Indiana Crossroads Wind Farm LLC, Rosewater Wind Farm LLC, Northern Indiana Public Service Company, Dunns Bridge Solar Center, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Dunns Bridge Solar Center, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5282.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER22-2424-004; ER19-53-007; ER22-2426-004; ER22-2428-004; ER23-2512-002; ER23-2513-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     SR Canadaville Lessee, LLC, SR Canadaville, LLC, SR McKellar Lessee, LLC, SR McKellar, LLC, SR Millington, LLC, SR Bell Buckle, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of SR Bell Buckle, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5287.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER23-2439-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Cavalier Solar A2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of Cavalier Solar A2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5289.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1035-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     20SD 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of 20SD 8me LLC.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88263"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5288.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1698-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     AES ES Alamitos 2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of AES ES Alamitos 2, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5287.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-3127-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Sun Pond, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Supplement to 09/27/2024 Sun Pond, LLC tariff filing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5231.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-289-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to WAPA New Melones (RS 60) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-290-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to WAPA POA (RS 228) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-291-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Termination of Trinity Public Utilities District (TO SA 65) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-292-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Q3 2024 Quarterly Filing of City and County of San Francisco's WDT SA (SA 275) to be effective 9/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-293-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Extension to SMUD (TO SA 119) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-294-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to WAPA SA 59 for TPUD (TO SA 59) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5005.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-295-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to WAPA SA 17 for TPUD to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5006.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-296-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     New England Power Pool Participants Committee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Nov 2024 Membership Filing to be effective 10/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5008.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-297-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to Attachment W to Update Index of Grandfathered Agreements (RR 644) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5042.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-298-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Green Mountain Power Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Green Mountain Power Corporation submits a Notice of Cancellation of a Network Integration Transmission Service Agreement and Local Network Operating Agreement of ISO New England Tariff.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5281.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-299-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     FL Solar 7, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Notice of Change in Status Reporting Passive Tax Equity Investor to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5068.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-300-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ITC Great Plains, LLC, Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: ITC Great Plains, LLC submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: ITC Great Plains, LLC Formula Rate Revisions to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5093.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-301-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bartonsville Energy Facility, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revised Market-Based Rate Tariff Filing and Notice of Change in Status to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5122.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-302-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: L and O Power Cooperative Formula Rate Revisions to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5126.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-303-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     DWW Solar II, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revised Market-Based Rate Tariff Filing to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5128.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-304-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Hecate Energy Highland LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revised Market-Based Rate Tariff Filing and Notice of Change in Status to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5131.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-305-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southern California Edison Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: SCE 2025 RSBAA Update to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5139.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-306-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eversource Energy Service Company (as agent), ISO New England Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Eversource Energy Service Company (as agent) submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: CL&amp;P Refund of Differences for Post Retirement Benefits other than Pensions to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5156.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ES25-12-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Ameren Illinois Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application Under Section 204 of the Federal Power Act for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88264"/>
                    Authorization to Issue Securities of Ameren Illinois Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ES25-13-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Union Electric Company d/b/a Ameren Missouri.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application Under Section 204 of the Federal Power Act for Authorization to Issue Securities of Union Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5277.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ES25-14-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Lucky Corridor, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application Under Section 204 of the Federal Power Act for Authorization to Issue Securities of Lucky Corridor, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241029-5278.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/19/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25842 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 14861-002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>FFP Project 101, LLC; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Project Name and Number:</E>
                     Goldendale Energy Storage Project No. 14861-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     FFP Project 101, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date and Time of Meeting:</E>
                     Monday, November 18, 2024 from 11:00 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. Pacific Standard Time (2:00 p.m. to 3:30 p.m. Eastern Standard Time).
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Michael Tust, (202) 502-6522, 
                    <E T="03">michael.tust@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Purpose of Meeting:</E>
                     Commission staff will hold a meeting with representatives from the Washington State Historic Preservation Office (Washington SHPO), Advisory Council on Historic Preservation (Advisory Council), and affected Native American Tribes to discuss revisions to Commission staff's draft Programmatic Agreement for the proposed Goldendale Energy Storage Project pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act. The meeting will be held virtually via Microsoft Teams.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. Intervenors in the referenced proceeding may attend the meeting as observers; however, participation will be limited to representatives from the Washington SHPO, Advisory Council, Tribes, and Commission staff. If meeting attendees decide to disclose information about a specific location which could create a risk or harm to an archaeological site or Native American cultural resource, attendees other than the Washington SHPO, Advisory Council, Tribal representatives and Commission staff will be excused for that portion of the meeting. A summary of the meeting will be placed in the public record of this proceeding. As appropriate, the meeting summary will include both a public, redacted version that excludes any information about the specific location of the archeological site or Native American cultural resource and an unredacted privileged version. Intervenors planning to attend the meeting should notify Michael Tust at (202) 502-6522 or 
                    <E T="03">michael.tust@ferc.gov</E>
                     by Wednesday, November 13, 2024 to RSVP and to receive specific instructions for logging in to the meeting.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25907 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RM01-5-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Electronic Tariff Filings; Notice of Final Codes for Deployment</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the final set of codes and tables for the November 25, 2024, deployment are posted at the same eLibrary Accession Number as this Notice. The following are the changes to filing-type codes since the September 30, 2024, Notice.</P>
                <P>Code 1090—Non-Jurisdictional filing Amendment—Changed to compliance type.</P>
                <P>The following new ALJ Settlement Codes have been added to accommodate settlement filings, such as settlements of complaints, for which the filer does not have an existing docket number with an associated filing identifier.</P>
                <P>Code 1385—ALJ Settlement—new docket</P>
                <P>Code 1395—ALJ Settlement—new docket</P>
                <P>Code 1405—ALJ Settlement—new docket</P>
                <P>Code 1415—ALJ Settlement—new docket</P>
                <P>Code 1425—ALJ Settlement—new docket</P>
                <P>
                    These revisions will not be available in the test sandbox at 
                    <E T="03">https://etariff.ferc.gov/TariffSandbox2.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Questions on these changes should be directed to: Michael Goldenberg at 
                    <E T="03">Michael.Goldenberg@ferc.gov</E>
                     or James Sarikas at 
                    <E T="03">James.Sarikas@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25850 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings Instituting Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     PR25-10-000.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88265"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Kansas Gas Service, A Division of ONE Gas, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 284.123(g) Rate Filing: Kansas Gas Service Notice of Revised Statement of Operating Comditions to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5216.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24..
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">§ 284.123(g) Protest:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 12/30/24
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-105-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Eastern Transmission, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: TETLP PCB DEC 2024 Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5155.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-106-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreements Update (2024) to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5177.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-107-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Ruby Pipeline, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: RP 2024-10-30 Negotiated Rate Agreement and Non-Conforming Amendment to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5219.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-108-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Ruby Pipeline, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: RP 2024-10-30 FL&amp;U and EPC Rate Adjustment to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5220.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-109-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Shipper Name Change and Housekeeping Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5229.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-110-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Equitrans, L.P.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Amended and New EQT Energy Agreements—11/1/2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-111-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Equitrans, L.P.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Update Initial Retainage Rate 11-1-2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-112-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Fayetteville Express Pipeline LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Fuel Filing on 10-31-2024 to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5069.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-113-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ETC Tiger Pipeline, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Fuel Filing on 10-31-2024 to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5072.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-114-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Trunkline Gas Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Annual Interruptible Storage Revenue Credit Filed 10-31-24 to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5084.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-115-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Kern River Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 2024 October Negotiated Rate Amendments to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5085.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-116-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eastern Gas Transmission and Storage, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: EGTS—October 31, 2024 Negotiated Rate Agreement to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5094.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-117-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eastern Gas Transmission and Storage, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: EGTS—October 31, 2024 MCS Negotiated Rates to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5102.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-118-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     WBI Energy Transmission, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 2024 Compliance for Wahpeton Expansion to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5108.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-119-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eastern Gas Transmission and Storage, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: EGTS—Incremental Electric Power Costs Clarification to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5109.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-120-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement Update (Conoco Nov 2024) to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5110.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-121-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Destin Pipeline Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     2024 Annual Fuel Retention Percentage of Destin Pipeline Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5138.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-122-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     WBI Energy Transmission, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 2024 Negotiated and Non-Conforming SA—MDU (FT-1966) to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5149.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-123-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—Yankee Gas to Emera eff 10-31-24 to be effective 10/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5153.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-124-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midwestern Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2023-2024 Cashout Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5157.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-125-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midwestern Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2023-2024 Gas Sales and Purchases Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88266"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5164.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-126-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Guardian Pipeline, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2023-2024 Gas Sales and Purchases Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5171.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-127-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Colorado Interstate Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement Filing (BHSC #221132-TF1CIG) to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5173.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-128-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     OkTex Pipeline Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2023-2024 Gas Sales and Purchases Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5180.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-129-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Viking Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2023-2024 Gas Sales and Purchases Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5185.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf</E>
                    . For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25844 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP20-48-001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P.; Notice of Request for Extension of Time</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Take notice that on October 28, 2024, Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P. (Iroquois) requested that the Commission grant an extension of time, until March 25, 2027, to construct and place into service its Enhancement by Compression Project (Project) located in Greene and Dutchess Counties, New York and Fairfield and New Haven Counties, Connecticut as authorized in the Order Issuing Certificate (Order).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Order required Iroquois to complete construction of the Project and make it available for service within three years of the date of the Order or by March 25, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Iroquois Gas Transmission Sys., L.P.,</E>
                         178 FERC ¶ 61,200 (2022).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Iroquois states that construction of the Project has been delayed due to pending state permit approvals, specifically air permits from the New York State Department of Environmental Conservation and the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection. Iroquois asserts that it has been working in good faith with these agencies and expects to receive approvals for the Project in the near future. Thus, Iroquois is requesting an extension of time until March 25, 2027, to complete construction of the Project and make it available for service.</P>
                <P>This notice establishes a 15-calendar day intervention and comment period deadline. Any person wishing to comment on Iroquois's request for an extension of time may do so. No reply comments or answers will be considered. If you wish to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this request, you should, on or before the comment date stated below, file a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) (18 CFR 157.10).</P>
                <P>
                    As a matter of practice, the Commission itself generally acts on requests for extensions of time to complete construction for NGA facilities when such requests are contested before order issuance. For those extension requests that are contested,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission will aim to issue an order acting on the request within 45 days.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission will address all arguments relating to whether the applicant has demonstrated there is good cause to grant the extension.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission will not consider arguments that re-litigate the issuance of the certificate order, including whether the Commission properly found the project to be in the public convenience and necessity and whether the Commission's environmental analysis for the certificate complied with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At the time a pipeline requests an extension of time, orders on certificates of public convenience and necessity are final and the Commission will not re-litigate their issuance.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Director of the Office of Energy Projects, or his or her designee, will act on all of those extension requests that are uncontested.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Contested proceedings are those where an intervenor disputes any material issue of the filing. 18 CFR 385.2201(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC,</E>
                         170 FERC ¶ 61,144, at P 40 (2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at P 40.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Similarly, the Commission will not re-litigate the issuance of an NGA section 3 authorization, including whether a proposed project is not inconsistent with the public interest and whether the Commission's environmental analysis for the permit order complied with NEPA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC,</E>
                         170 FERC ¶ 61,144, at P 40 (2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88267"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments in lieu of paper using the “eFile” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    . In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy which must reference the Project docket number.
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852
                </FP>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202)502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on November 15, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25845 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings Instituting Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     PR25-11-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Matterhorn Express Pipeline, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 284.123 Rate Filing: Petition for NGPA Sec. 311 Rate Approval to be effective 10/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5203.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     PR25-12-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     New Mexico Gas Company, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 284.123(g) Rate Filing: Amended Statement of Operating Conditions to be effective 10/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5244.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">§ 284.123(g) Protest:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 12/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     PR25-13-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Interstate Power and Light Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 284.123(g) Rate Filing: Update IPL SOC to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5335.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">§ 284.123(g) Protest:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 12/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-130-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: AGT FRQ 2024 Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5212.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-131-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     NEXUS Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—Various Releases eff 11-1-2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5213.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-132-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     East Tennessee Natural Gas, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Operational Purchases and Sales and System Balancing Adjustment Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5217.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-133-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Algonquin Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—Various Releases eff 11-1-24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5219.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-134-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Eastern Transmission, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: TETLP ASA DEC 2024 Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5229.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-135-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Northern Natural Gas Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 20241031 Negotiated Rate to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5258.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-136-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: New Service Agreement—City of Walker to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5260.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-137-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Wyoming Interstate Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Fuel_LU Quarterly Update Filing Eff Dec 2024 to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5264.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-138-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Update Non-Conforming List—City of Walker to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5268.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-139-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Rockies Express Pipeline LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: REX 2024-10-31 Negotiated Rate Agreements and Amendments to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5271.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-140-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement Update (SoCal Nov-Jan) to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5294.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-141-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Henderson Minimum Rates Housekeeping Filing to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88268"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5310.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-142-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Non-Conforming—SRE In-Service to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5319.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-143-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Non-Conforming—Leidy Southeast_WGL Superseding to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5339.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-144-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Viking Gas Transmission Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Update to Non-Conforming Agreement AF0022 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5353.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-145-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Equitrans, L.P.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement—11/1/2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-146-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Enable Mississippi River Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2024 Annual Report of Penalty Revenue Credits to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5009.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-147-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Enable Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2024 Annual Report of Total Penalty Revenue Credits to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5011.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-148-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Enable Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2024 Annual Report of Linked Firm Service Penalty Revenue Credits to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5012.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-149-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Gulf Run Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: 2024 Annual Report of Penalty Revenue Credits to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5013.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-150-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Eastern Transmission, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—BUG Co Nat 911814 Releases to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-151-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Mountain Valley Pipeline, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Capacity Release Agreements—11/1/2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5029.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-152-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Rover Pipeline LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Summary of Negotiated Rate Capacity Release Agreements 11-1-2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5040.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-153-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ANR Pipeline Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: ANR—Negotiated Rate Agreements, Eff 11.1.24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5041.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-154-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Columbia Gulf Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: CGT SWN Amend &amp; Vitol NR Agmts, eff. 11.1.24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5048.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-155-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Eastern Transmission, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—Various Releases eff 11-1-24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5049.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-156-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Equitrans, L.P.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Capacity Release Agreements—11/1/2024 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5051.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-157-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Great Lakes Gas Transmission Limited Partnership.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: TCPL—18966_8 Neg. Rate Amendment to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5061.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-158-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Trunkline Gas Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Filing—NextEra Energy to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5072.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-159-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Northern Border Pipeline Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreement—Northern States 284364 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5079.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-160-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: OTRA Winter 2024 to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5085.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-161-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: TCO Negotiated Rate Agreements Eff 11.1.24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5094.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-162-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Texas Eastern Transmission, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rates—Con Ed 910950 Releases eff 11-1-24 to be effective11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5099.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-163-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Capacity Releases Eff 11.1.24 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-164-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Natural Gas Pipeline Company of America LLC.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88269"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Negotiated Rate Agreements Filing-Devon Gas Services, L.P. to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241101-5102.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/13/24.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings in Existing Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     PR24-96-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     DCP Raptor Pipeline, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Amendment Filing: 2024 Rate Petition to be effective 12/31/9998.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5303.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>§ 284.123(g) Protest: 5 p.m. ET12/30/24.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP24-617-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     East Tennessee Natural Gas, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Revised 2022-2023 ETNG Cashout Report to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5209.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP24-744-005.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southern Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: SNG Motion to Place Suspended Revisedf Tariff Records into Effect to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/12/24.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to protest in any the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.</P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25888 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. IC24-23-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Commission Information Collection Activities (FERC-725A); Comment Request; Extension</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on the currently approved information collection, FERC-725A (Mandatory Reliability Standards for the Bulk-Power System). There are no changes to the information collection. The 60-day notice comment period ended on October 15, 2024, with no comments received.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection of information are due December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit copies of your comments (identified by Docket No. IC24-23-000) by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        Electronic filing through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov,</E>
                         is preferred.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filing:</E>
                         Documents must be filed in acceptable native applications and print-to-PDF, but not in scanned or picture format.
                    </P>
                    <P>• For those unable to file electronically, comments may be filed by USPS mail or by hand (including courier) delivery:</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Mail via U.S. Postal Service Only:</E>
                         Addressed to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Hand (Including Courier) Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must be formatted and filed in accordance with submission guidelines at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                         For user assistance, contact FERC Online Support by email at 
                        <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                         or by phone at (866) 208-3676 (toll-free).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Users interested in receiving automatic notification of activity in this docket or in viewing/downloading comments and issuances in this docket may do so at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Doug Reimel may be reached by email at 
                        <E T="03">DataClearance@FERC.gov,</E>
                         telephone at (202) 502-6461.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     FERC-725A (Mandatory Reliability Standards for the Bulk-Power System).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     1902-0244.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Three-year extension of the FERC-725A information collection requirements with no changes to the current reporting requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     On August 8, 2005, the Electricity Modernization Act of 2005, which is title XII, subtitle A, of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (EPAct 2005), was enacted into law.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPAct 2005 added a new section 215 to the FPA, which requires a Commission-certified electric reliability organization (ERO) (FERC-725) to develop mandatory and enforceable Reliability Standards, which are subject to Commission review and approval. Once approved, the Reliability Standards may be enforced by the ERO, subject to Commission oversight or the Commission can independently enforce Reliability Standards (FERC-725A).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Energy Policy Act of 2005, Public Law 109-58, title XII, subtitle A, 119 Stat. 594, 941 (2005), to be codified at 16 U.S.C. 824o.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         16 U.S.C. 824o(e)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="88270"/>
                <P>
                    On February 3, 2006, the Commission issued Order No. 672, implementing section 215 of the FPA.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to Order No. 672, the Commission certified one organization, NERC, as the ERO.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The ERO is required to develop Reliability Standards, which are subject to Commission review and approval. The Reliability Standards will apply to users, owners, and operators of the Bulk-Power System, as set forth in each Reliability Standard.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Rules Concerning Certification of the Electric Reliability Organization; Procedures for the Establishment, Approval and Enforcement of Electric Reliability Standards, Order No. 672, 71 FR 8662 (February 17, 2006), FERC Stats. &amp; Regs. ¶ 31,204 (2006), order on reh'g, Order No. 672-A, 71 FR 19814 (April 18, 2006), FERC Stats. &amp; Regs. ¶ 31,212 (2006).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         North American Electric Reliability Corp., 116 FERC ¶ 61,062 (ERO Certification Order), order on reh'g &amp; compliance, 117 FERC ¶ 61,126 (ERO Rehearing Order) (2006), order on compliance, 118 FERC ¶ 61,030 (2007) (January 2007 Compliance Order).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On March 16, 2007, the Commission issued Order No. 693, a Final Rule adding part 40, a new part, to the Commission's regulations. The Final Rule states that this part applies to all users, owners, and operators of the Bulk-Power System within the United States (other than Alaska or Hawaii). It also requires that each Reliability Standard identify the subset of users, owners, and operators to which that particular Reliability Standard applies. The new regulations also require that each Reliability Standard that is approved by the Commission will be maintained on the ERO's internet website for public inspection.</P>
                <P>In order for the Commission to perform its oversight function with regard to Reliability Standards that are proposed by the ERO, it is essential that the Commission receives timely information regarding all or potential violations of Reliability Standards. While section 215 of the FPA contemplates the filing of the record of an ERO or Regional Entity enforcement action, FERC needs information regarding violations and potential violations at or near the time of occurrence. Therefore, it will work with the ERO and regional reliability organizations to be able to use electronic filing of information, so the Commission receives timely information. The new regulations also require that each Reliability Standard that is approved by the Commission will be maintained on the ERO's internet website for public inspection.</P>
                <P>In accordance with section 39.5 of the Commission's regulations, the ERO must file each Reliability Standard or a modification to a Reliability Standard with the Commission. The filing is to include a concise statement of the basis and purpose of the proposed Reliability Standard, either a summary of the Reliability development proceedings conducted by the ERO or a summary of the Reliability Standard development proceedings conducted by a Regional Entity together with a summary of the Reliability Standard review proceedings of the ERO and a demonstration that the proposed Reliability Standard is “just, reasonable, not unduly discriminatory or preferential, and in the public interest.</P>
                <P>The existing burden inventory for the entire FERC-725A collection is estimated at 1,103,040 burden hours (table 1). FERC-725A contains the information collection requirements for nearly all of the US wide Reliability Standards. The collection started in 2007 when FERC approved 83 Reliability Standards with an estimated 1,252,680 burden hours. Since that time, NERC has revised many of the original standards (as well as proposed new standards) resulting in many incremental additions to the total burden hours. Additionally, over time FAC-003, FAC-008, PER-003; INT-006; INT-009; TOP-001, TOP-002, TOP-003, TOP-010 revisions were captured in 725A collection. In August 2024, the associated manhours and cost for PER-003-2 are being relocated from 725A into 725Y (table 2). This change will not result in change in the number of respondents in 725A as the same group of responsible entities have other obligation under 725A but the associated cost per entity will decrease slightly overall (table 3).</P>
                <P>In an effort to target similar NERC Reliability Standards by family in this 725A renewal, manhours associated with two FAC (Facilities) Reliability Standards (FAC-008-5 and FAC-003-2) will be retired from 725A and then added to the 725D, where other FAC standards are collected. This should facilitate future three-year renewal efforts and more accurate tracking of for the FAC Reliability Standards.</P>
                <P>In an effort to target similar NERC Reliability Standards by family in this 725A renewal, manhours associated with three PRC (Protection and Control) Reliability Standards (PRC-008-0, PRC-011-0, and PRC-017-1) will be retired from 725A Bulk-Power System and then added to the 725G, where other PRC standards are collected. This should facilitate future three-year renewal efforts and more accurate tracking of for the PRC Reliability Standards.</P>
                <P>
                    PRC-008 (Underfrequency and Documentation of Underfrequency Load Shedding Equipment Maintenance Program) represents responsibility of TOs and GOs to create and follow their maintenance program to ensure that underfrequency relays operate when needed to drop system load to preserve the BES. PRC-011-0 (Undervoltage Load Shedding (UVLS) System Maintenance and Testing) identifies that TOs and DPs that own a UVLS system to create and follow their maintenance program to ensure that undervoltage relays operate when needed to drop system load to preserve volage collapse or voltage instability. Not every TO or DP has a UVLS program, staff is estimating that half of the registered TOs and DPs need to follow PRC-011-0. PRC-017-1 (Remedial Action Scheme (RAS) Maintenance and Testing) System Maintenance and Testing) identifies that TOs, DPs, GOs that their RASs are properly designed, meet expected performance, and are coordinated with other protection systems.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The maintenance and testing programs for RAS are reviewed by engineers and when a relay mis-operations occurs the RAS is reviewed and corrected. PRC-008-0 and PRC-011-0 have been in-service since April 2005 and PRC-017-1 was revised in November 2015.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         RAS are automatic protection systems designed to detect abnormal or predetermined system conditions and take corrective actions other than and/or in addition to the isolation of faulted components to maintain system reliability.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="88271"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimate of Annual Burden:</E>
                     
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission estimates the burden and cost for this information collection as follows.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Burden is defined as the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, or disclose or provide information to or for a federal agency. For further explanation of what is included in the information collection burden, refer to 5 CFR part 1320.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IC24-23-000 Renewal of 725A</HD>
                <P>
                    The following table represents the current burden associated with all Mandatory Reliability Standards that fall under FERC-725A.
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         This is a list of NERC registered entities who under 725A need to follow the NERC Standards. BA=Balancing Authority (98); DP = Distribution Provider (371); GP = Generator Owner (1,210); Generator Operator (1028); PA/PC Planning Authority/Planning Coordinator (62); RC=Reliability Coordinator (12); RP = Resource Planner (159); RSG = Reserve Sharing Group (8); FRSG = Frequency Response Sharing Group (1); TO = Transmission Owner (324); TOP = Transmission Operator (165); TP = Transmission Provided (203); TSP = Transmission Service Provider (70); for a sum total of (3,711). The same entity may have multiple registration obligation to follow under 725A, so an individual entity's obligation increases based on registration functions. These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         For PER-003-2: RC = Reliability Coordinator; BA = Balancing Authority; TOP = Transmission Operator; TO = Transmission Owner; GOP = Generator Operator. The NERC compliance registry table April 16, 2024, was used to perform analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024. The estimates for cost per response are loaded hourly wage figure (includes benefits) based on two occupational categories for 2023 found on the Bureau of Labor Statistics website (
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/naics2_22.htm</E>
                        ): Electrical Engineer (Occupation Code: 17-2071): $79.31 (to calculate the reporting requirements); Office and Administrative Support (Occupation Code: 43-0000): $48.59 (to calculate the recordkeeping requirements).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,11,12,12,r50,r50,10">
                    <TTITLE>Original 725 A IC24-23-000-From 60-Day Notice</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number and
                            <LI>type of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Avg. burden &amp; cost per
                            <LI>
                                response 
                                <SU>8</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual burden hours &amp; total annual cost
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            (1) 
                            <SU>7</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(5) ÷ (1)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual Review of 725A</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                        <ENT>379.21 hrs., $26,798.77</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,407,238 hrs., $99,449,509.46</ENT>
                        <ENT>$26,798.77</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,407,238 hrs., $99,449,509.46</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,12,12,r50,r50,10">
                    <TTITLE>Original 725 A Moving to FERC-725Y in Docket No. IC24-16-000 Reliability Standard PER-003-2</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number and
                            <LI>type of</LI>
                            <LI>
                                respondents 
                                <SU>9</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Avg. burden &amp; cost per
                            <LI>
                                response 
                                <SU>10</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual burden hours &amp; total annual cost
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(5) ÷ (1)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Annual Review of Credentials</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 (RC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 hrs., $4,758.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>720 hrs., $57,103.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,758.60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>98 (BA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>98</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 hrs., $4,758.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,880 hrs., $466,342.80</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,758.60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>165 (TOP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>165</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 hrs., $4,758.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,900 hrs., $785,169</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,758.60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Record Retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>(RC, BA, TOP) 275</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>275</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 hrs., $2,915.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,500 hrs., $801,735</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,915.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>33,000 hrs., $2,110,350</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>FAC-008-5 Transfer From FERC 725A to FERC 725D</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>11</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                            <LI>per entity </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>12</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A Decrease</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>324 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>200 hrs., $ 70.67/hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>64,800 hrs., −$4,579,416.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>1210 (GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1210</ENT>
                        <ENT>80 hrs., $ 70.67/hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>96,800 hrs., $6,840,856.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reduction in 725A for FAC-008-5</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>161,600 hrs., $11,420,272.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="88272"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>FAC-003-2 Transfer From FERC 725A to FERC 725D</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity
                                <SU>13</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual
                            <LI>responses per entity </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response
                            <SU>14</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A Decrease</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>324 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., $ 70.67/hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−7,776 hrs., −$549,529.92.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reduction in 725A for FAC-003-2</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>−7,776 hrs., −$549,529.92.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r60">
                    <TTITLE>PRC-008-0 Transfer From 725A to 725G</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>15</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual
                            <LI>responses per entity </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>16</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A Reduction</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>324 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., −$1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−7,776 hrs., −$549,529.92.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>371 (DP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>371</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., −$1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−8,904 hrs., −$629,245.68.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reduction in 725A for PRC-008-0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>−18,680 hrs., −$1,178,775.60.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>
                        PRC-011-0 Transfer From FERC 725A to FERC 725G 
                        <SU>17</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Reliability standard &amp; requirement</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>18</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of annual responses per entity </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>19</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A Reduction</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>162 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>162</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., $1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−3,888 hrs., −$274,764.96.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>181 (DP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>181</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., −$1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−4,344 hrs., −$306,990.48.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reduction in 725A for PRC-011-0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>−8,232 hrs., −$581,755.44.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         For PRC-011-0 (Undervoltage Load Shedding System Maintenance and Testing) Reliability Standard, not ever applicable TO (324) and DP (371) have UVLS programs. Staff estimates that fifty percent of the TOs and DPs need to follow PRC-011-0, so the number of entities will be TO (162) and DP (181).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities. For PRC-011-0 only half of the TO = Transmission Owner (324/2 = 162) and DP = Distribution Provider (371/2 = 180.5, rounded to 181).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="88273"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r60">
                    <TTITLE>PRC-017-1 Transfer From FERC 725A to FERC 725G</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>20</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual
                            <LI>responses per entity </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>21</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total burden
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A Reduction</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>324 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>−80 hrs., −$5,653.60/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−25,920 hrs., −$1,831,766.40.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>371 (DP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>371</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., −$1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−8,904 hrs., −$629,245.68.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>1,210 (GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,210</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs., −$1,696.08/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>−29,040 hrs., −$2,052,256.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reduction in 725A for PRC-017-1</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>−63,864 hrs., −$4,513,268.88.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs54,10,12,r50,r60">
                    <TTITLE>725A Master</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>22</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual
                            <LI>responses per entity </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>23</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total burden
                            <LI>hours </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">INT-006-5</ENT>
                        <ENT>168 (BA, TSP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>168</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,160 hrs., $1,424,707.20.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">INT-009-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>98 (BA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>98</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,760 hrs., $831,079.20.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TOP-001-6</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,567 (BA, TOP, GOP, DP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1567</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>188,040 hrs., $13,288,787.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TOP-002-5</ENT>
                        <ENT>422 (TO, BA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>422</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,640 hrs., $3,578,728.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TOP-003-6.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,567 (BA, TOP, GOP, DP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1567</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>188,040 hrs., $13,288,786.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TOP-010-1(i)</ENT>
                        <ENT>422 (TO, BA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>422</ENT>
                        <ENT>120 hrs., $8,480.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,640 hrs., $3,578,728.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">725A BPS Record Keeping</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711 (All)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                        <ENT>160 hrs., $11,307.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>593,760 hrs., $41,961,019.20.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">FERC 725A Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,103,040 hrs., $77,951,836.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         This is a list of NERC registered entities who under 725A need to follow the NERC Standards. BA = Balancing Authority (98); DP = Distribution Provider (371); GP = Generator Owner (1,210); Generator Operator (1028); PA/PC Planning Authority/Planning Coordinator (62); RC=Reliability Coordinator (12); RP = Resource Planner (159); RSG = Reserve Sharing Group (8); FRSG = Frequency Response Sharing Group (1); TO = Transmission Owner (324); TOP = Transmission Operator (165); TP = Transmission Provided (203); TSP = Transmission Service Provider (70); for a sum total of (3,711). The same entity may have multiple registration obligation to follow under 725A, so an individual entity's obligation increases based on registration functions. These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                     
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="88274"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third table to show different from table 1 minus table 2.</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,11,10,12,r50,r60">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Reliability
                            <LI>standard &amp;</LI>
                            <LI>requirement</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entities 
                                <SU>24</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of annual 
                            <LI>responses per entity</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total number of 
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>25</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total burden
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">FERC-725A—Reliability Standards being removed and transferred</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Mandatory Reliability Standards for Bulk Power System</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                        <ENT>379.21 hrs., $26,798.77</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,407,238 hrs., $99,449,509.46.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Determine facility ratings consistent with methodology, R6 Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT>−369</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−369</ENT>
                        <ENT>−48 hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−17,712 hrs. (Reduction).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">FAC-008-5 Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1,003</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1,003</ENT>
                        <ENT>−418.86 hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−420,117 hrs. (Reduction).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">FAC-003-2 Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT>−330</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−330</ENT>
                        <ENT>−24 hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1,760 hrs. (Reduction).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mandatory Bulk-Power System: Reporting Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT>−251</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−251</ENT>
                        <ENT>−2,782.53 hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−698,414 hrs. (Reduction).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TOP-002-5 (One-Time) Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT>−98</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−98</ENT>
                        <ENT>−13.33 hrs</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1,306 hrs. (Reduction).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Total Net Changes</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>−510,736 hrs. removed/transferred + 206,538 hrs. Modified = 304,198 hrs.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total for FERC-725A</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,103,040 hrs., $77,951,836.80.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     Comments
                    <FTREF/>
                     are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         These values were derived from the NERC Compliance data of April 16, 2024, using only unique United States registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), as of 2024, for 75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × .75 = 59.4825 ($59.48-rounded) ($59.48/hour) and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × .25% = 11.185 ($11.19 rounded) ($11.19/hour), for a total ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25847 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #2</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG25-21-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     IN Solar 1, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     IN Solar 1, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5247.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG25-22-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     IEP Tejas Cerde, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     IEP Tejas Cerde, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5288.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER10-2193-005.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     H.Q. Energy Services (U.S.) Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of H.Q. Energy Services (U.S.) Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5289.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER17-1742-011; ER13-2490-015; ER17-311-011; ER19-2595-010; ER19-2670-010; ER19-2671-010; ER19-2672-010; ER20-1073-009; ER20-2510-009; ER20-2512-009; ER20-2515-009; ER20-2663-009; ER21-2406-008; ER21-2407-008; ER21-2408-008; ER21-2409-008; ER21-2638-008; ER22-734-007; ER22-2028-006; ER22-2421-005; ER22-2423-005; ER22-2425-005; ER22-2427-005; ER23-1237-003; ER23-2186-002; ER23-2188-002; ER23-2190-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     SR DeSoto III, LLC, SR DeSoto III Lessee, LLC, SR DeSoto II, LLC, SR Snipesville III, LLC, SR Cedar Springs, LLC, SR Clay, LLC, SR DeSoto I Lessee, LLC, SR DeSoto I, LLC, SR Hazlehurst, LLC, SR Arlington, LLC, SR Perry, LLC, SR Snipesville II, LLC, SR Lumpkin, LLC, SR Georgia Portfolio II Lessee, LLC, Lancaster Solar LLC, SR Snipesville, LLC, SR Georgia Portfolio I MT, LLC, SR Baxley, LLC, Odom Solar LLC, SR Terrell, LLC, SR Arlington II MT, LLC, SR Arlington II, LLC, SR Meridian III, LLC, SR Hazlehurst III, LLC, SR South Loving LLC, Simon Solar, LLC, Hattiesburg Farm, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Hattiesburg Farm, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5288.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-158-016; ER10-1547-017; ER10-1975-033; ER10-2421-014; ER10-2616-028; ER10-2617-014; ER10-2619-015; ER10-2674-017; ER10-2677-018; ER11-2457-014; ER11-4400-025; ER12-75-017; ER12-192-019; ER12-2250-015; ER12-1769-016; ER12-2251-015; ER12-2253-015; ER13-2475-016; ER14-883-020; ER14-1569-021; ER14-2245-016; ER15-1596-021; ER15-1598-011; ER15-1599-021; ER15-1600-010; ER15-1602-010; ER15-1605-010; ER15-1607-010; ER19-102-014; ER19-2803-013; ER11-2449-005; ER19-2807-013; ER19-2809-013; ER19-2810-013; ER19-2811-013; ER20-1436-006; ER20-1438-006.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Energy Harbor Nuclear Generation LLC, Energy Harbor LLC, Viridian Energy, LLC, Viridian Energy PA, LLC, Viridian Energy NY, LLC, Energy Rewards, LLC, Connecticut Gas &amp; Electric, Inc., Cincinnati Bell Energy LLC, Luminant Energy Company LLC, Washington Power Generation LLC, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88275"/>
                    Miami Fort Power Company LLC, Hanging Rock Power Company LLC, Fayette Power Company LLC, Dynegy Energy Services (East), LLC, Dicks Creek Power Company LLC, Luminant Commercial Asset Management LLC, TriEagle Energy, LP, Dynegy Energy Services, LLC, Illinois Power Marketing Company, Kincaid Generation, L.L.C., Public Power &amp; Utility of Maryland, LLC, Public Power &amp; Utility of NY, Inc, Everyday Energy, LLC, Everyday Energy NJ, LLC, Liberty Electric Power, LLC, Public Power, LLC, Dynegy Power Marketing, LLC, Massachusetts Gas &amp; Electric, Inc., Pleasants Energy, LLC, Calumet Energy Team, LLC, Kendall Power Company LLC, Ontelaunee Power Operating Company LLC, Dynegy Marketing and Trade, LLC, Energy Services Providers, LLC, Sayreville Power Generation LP, Hopewell Power Generation, LLC, Ambit Northeast, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Ambit Northeast, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5293.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1575-013; ER01-2760-009; ER10-2488-030; ER13-1586-025; ER14-2871-024; ER15-463-023; ER15-621-023; ER15-622-023; ER16-72-019; ER16-182-019; ER16-902-016; ER17-47-016; ER17-48-017; ER18-47-016; ER18-2240-012; ER18-2241-012; ER19-427-012; ER19-1660-012; ER19-1662-012; ER20-71-012; ER20-72-012; ER20-75-012; ER20-76-014; ER20-77-012; ER20-79-012; ER21-1368-008; ER21-1369-009; ER21-1371-009; ER21-1373-010; ER21-1376-010; ER21-2782-009; ER22-149-010; ER22-1439-010; ER22-1440-010; ER22-1441-010; ER22-1442-008; ER22-2419-006; ER22-2420-006; ER23-562-006; ER23-1048-006; ER23-2001-006; ER24-916-002; ER24-917-002; ER24-2257-002; ER24-2258-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Lockhart CL ESS II, LLC, Lockhart CL ESS I, LLC, Placerita ESS, LLC, Beaumont ESS, LLC, Sagebrush ESS II, LLC, Lockhart ESS, LLC, TGP Energy Management II, LLC, Lockhart Solar PV II, LLC, Lockhart Solar PV, LLC, EdSan 1B Group 3, LLC, EdSan 1B Group 2, LLC, EdSan 1B Group 1 Sanborn, LLC, EdSan 1B Group 1 Edwards, LLC, Sagebrush Line, LLC, Sagebrush ESS, LLC, Sanborn Solar 1A, LLC, Edwards Solar 1A, LLC, Edwards Sanborn Storage II, LLC, Edwards Sanborn Storage I, LLC, Valley Center ESS, LLC, Voyager Wind IV Expansion, LLC, Painted Hills Wind Holdings, LLC, Oasis Plains Wind, LLC, Oasis Alta, LLC, Coachella Wind Holdings, LLC, Coachella Hills Wind, LLC, Mojave 16/17/18 LLC, Mojave 3/4/5 LLC,LUZ Solar Partners IX, Ltd., Garnet Wind, LLC, Yavi Energy, LLC, Voyager Wind II, LLC, Terra-Gen Mojave Windfarms, LLC, DifWind Farms LTD VI, Voyager Wind I, LLC, Cameron Ridge II, LLC, San Gorgonio Westwinds II—Windustries, LLC, Ridgetop Energy, LLC, Pacific Crest Power, LLC, San Gorgonio Westwinds II, LLC, Cameron Ridge, LLC, TGP Energy Management, LLC, Oasis Power Partners, LLC, Ridge Crest Wind Partners, LLC, Alta Oak Realty, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Alta Oak Realty, LLC et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5292.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-619-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     MS Solar 5, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Change in Status of MS Solar 5, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/30/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241030-5290.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/20/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-2220-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     FL Solar 7, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Notice of Change in Status Reporting Passive Tax Equity Investor to be effective 12/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5227.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-307-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Aron Energy Prepay 23 LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Notice of Non-Material Change in Status and Revised Market-Based Rate Tariff to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5186.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-308-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to Modify Schedule 1-A to Increase Administration Cap (RR 647) to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-309-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Duke Energy Progress, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: DEP-NCEMC DTA RS No. 450 to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5231.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-310-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Camino Solar, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Baseline eTariff Filing: Application for Market-Based Rate Authorization, Request for Related Waivers to be effective 12/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5257.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-311-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     NorthWestern Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Att G Revisions to Update Load Shedding Procedures to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5259.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-312-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Niagara Mohawk Power Corporation, New York Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Niagara Mohawk Power Corporation submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: NMPC 205: Amended LGIA among NMPC and Sterling Power Partners SA 1144 to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5261.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-313-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Clyde Onsite Generation, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Notice of Change in Status and Tariff Revisions to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5266.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-314-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Martinsville OnSite Generation, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Notice of Change in Status and Tariff Revisions to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5274.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-315-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     South River OnSite Generation, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Notice of Change in Status and Tariff Revisions to be effective 11/1/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     10/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241031-5277.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 11/21/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88276"/>
                    before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25843 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. AC25-15-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Wisconsin Electric Power Company; Notice of Filing</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on October 31, 2024, Wisconsin Electric Power Company requested from the Chief Accountant of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) approval to use Account 182.2, Unrecovered Plant and Regulatory Study Costs, of the Commission's Uniform System of Accounts, to account for the retirement of its Oak Creek Power Plant.</P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                     Persons unable to file electronically may mail similar pleadings to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426. Hand delivered submissions in docketed proceedings should be delivered to Health and Human Services, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. Eastern Time on November 22, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25909 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 8615-049]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fiske Hydro, Inc.; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment</SUBJECT>
                <P>On September 20, 2023, Fiske Hydro, Inc., licensee, filed an application for surrender of its license for the Fiske Mill Hydroelectric Project No. 8615. The project is located on the Ashuelot River, in the town of Hinsdale, Cheshire County, New Hampshire. The project does not occupy federal lands.</P>
                <P>To surrender the project, the licensee proposes to: (1) disconnect the generating units from the utility interconnection point; (2) disconnect the turbine drive shafts, and offer the equipment for sale; (3) install service lines to provide power for future dam operation and security needs; (4) close the intake structure at the north abutment; (5) remove transformers; (6) remove any hydraulic fluids from project equipment; and (7) lock and secure the powerhouse. The turbine-generator units may remain in place until sold. No major physical changes to any project features are planned and no ground disturbance would occur as part of the proposed surrender. The Commission issued public notice of the proposed surrender on July 31, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the project.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The planned schedule for the completion of the EA is February 15, 2025. Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate. The EA will be issued and made available for review by all interested parties and a 30-day comment period. All comments filed on the EA will be reviewed by staff and considered in the Commission's final decision on the proceeding.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In accordance with the Council on Environmental Quality's regulations, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1728548635. 40 CFR 1501.5(c)(4) (2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88277"/>
                    others to access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Diana Shannon at 202-502-6136 or 
                    <E T="03">diana.shannon@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25908 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2601-077]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Northbrook Hydro Carolina II, LLC; Notice of Revised Schedule for Environmental Review</SUBJECT>
                <P>On November 16, 2023, as supplemented on March 11, 2024, and April 30, 2024, Northbrook Hydro Carolina II, LLC filed an application to surrender the project license for the Bryson Hydroelectric Project No. 2601. The project is located on the Oconaluftee River in Swain County, North Carolina. The project does not occupy any Federal lands.</P>
                <P>The project is located on the Oconaluftee River downstream of the Great Smoky Mountain National Park and the lands of the Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians (Qualla Boundary). The project boundary abuts the Qualla Boundary for 1.5 miles. The proposed mode of surrender would include disconnection from the utility interconnection point and the removal of the generators and turbines. The licensee would offer the generators, control equipment, and wiring for sale following decommissioning, or would properly dispose of the equipment. The proposal includes leaving the dam and associated structures intact and operational. The licensee intends to later deed ownership of the project to Mainspring Conservation Land Trust for potential future removal of the dam after the surrender is final.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on the limited number and scope of comments received on the Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Commission staff is revising the schedule to issue an Environmental Assessment (EA) by November 15, 2024, and for the EA to be issued for a 15-day public comment period.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate. All comments filed on the EA will be reviewed by staff and considered in the Commission's final decision on the proceeding.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         On September 24, 2024, Commission staff issued a Notice of Intent to Prepare an Environmental Assessment, citing its planned schedule for issuance of the EA by January 31, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members, and others to access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Michael Calloway at 202-502-8041 or 
                    <E T="03">Michael.calloway@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25848 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPPT-2024-0508; FRL-12307-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed New Collection and Request for Comment; Threshold Setting Data Needs for the Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces the availability of and solicits public comment on the following Information Collection Request (ICR) that EPA is planning to submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB): “Threshold Setting Data Needs for the Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials,” identified by EPA ICR No. 2805.01 and OMB Control No. 2070-NEW. This ICR represents a new request. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval under the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2024-0508, through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/</E>
                        dockets.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Connie Ocampo, Office of Program Support (7602M), Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 566-1216; email address: 
                        <E T="03">ocampo.connie@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. What information is EPA particularly interested in?</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. In particular, EPA is requesting comments from very small businesses (those that employ less than 25) on examples of specific additional efforts that EPA could make to reduce the paperwork 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88278"/>
                    burden for very small businesses affected by this collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What information collection activity or ICR does this action apply to?</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Threshold Setting Data Needs for the Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">EPA ICR No.:</E>
                    2805.01.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     2070-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">ICR status:</E>
                     This ICR is for a new information collection activity. Under the PRA, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's regulations in title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), after appearing in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     when approved, are displayed either by publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or by other appropriate means, such as on the related collection instrument or form, if applicable. The display of OMB control numbers for certain EPA regulations is consolidated in 40 CFR part 9.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This ICR is for the Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials Program (the Program). Under this ICR, the Program is seeking approval to collect the data on the asphalt and concrete products purchased by state and local government agencies and the concrete products purchased by large architectural and engineering (A&amp;E) firms. Among the data being requested is information on Environmental Product Declarations (EPDs) associated with these products. EPD information, along with data on amounts purchased of each product, will provide EPA with data that can be used in setting threshold values to define categories for labels under the Program. The underpinnings of being able to label construction materials with substantially lower levels of embodied greenhouse gas emissions is collecting, assessing the quality of, and analyzing data on embodied greenhouse gas emissions of products and materials and setting substantially lower embodied carbon emissions thresholds. To do so effectively, the Agency will need to supplement available data from public data sources with direct requests for information from users about the specifications for materials purchased and the volumes purchased. The Program's beginning focus is on four types of materials: (1) concrete and cement, (2) steel, (3) asphalt binders, and (4) glass. The ICR, however, will only need to focus on two sectors: concrete and asphalt. Additionally, this ICR is only focused on collecting data from the larger consumers of these two materials (state/local agencies and large A&amp;E firms). EPA will include the other sectors in a future ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden statement:</E>
                     The annual public reporting and recordkeeping burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 60 hours per response. Burden is defined in 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
                </P>
                <P>The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Entities potentially affected by this ICR are those that potentially affected entities with North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) for the following NAICS codes state government (NAICS code 9920), local governments (NAICS code 9930), construction (NAICS code 23), and construction of buildings (NAICS code 236).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Forms:</E>
                     EPA Form 9600-XX.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated number of potential respondents:</E>
                     95.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated average number of responses for each respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     5,700 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual respondent costs:</E>
                     $325,319 million, which includes $0 for capital investment or maintenance and operational costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. What is the next step in the process for this ICR?</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     document pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.5(a)(1)(iv) to announce the submission of the ICR to OMB and the opportunity to submit additional comments to OMB. If you have any questions about this ICR or the approval process, please contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 2, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Michal Freedhoff,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25880 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPPT-2023-0499; FRL-11938-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed New Collection and Request for Comment; Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 4 Test Orders for Standardized Testing of Per-and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces the availability of and solicits public comment on the following Information Collection Request (ICR) that EPA is planning to submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB): “Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 4 Test Orders for the Standardized Testing of Per-and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS),” identified by EPA ICR No. 2797.01 and OMB Control No. 2070-NEW. This ICR represents a new request. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval under the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2023-0499, through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/</E>
                        dockets.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Katherine Sleasman, Mission Support Division (7602M), Office of Program Support, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 566-1204; email address: 
                        <E T="03">sleasman.katherine@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">
                    SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
                    <PRTPAGE P="88279"/>
                </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. What information is EPA particularly interested in?</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. In particular, EPA is requesting comments from very small businesses (those that employ less than 25) on examples of specific additional efforts that EPA could make to reduce the paperwork burden for very small businesses affected by this collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What information collection activity or ICR does this action apply to?</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 4 Test Orders for the Standardized Testing of Per-and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">EPA ICR No.:</E>
                     2797.01.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     2070-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">ICR status:</E>
                     This ICR is for a new information collection activity. Under the PRA, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's regulations in title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), after appearing in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     when approved, are displayed either by publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or by other appropriate means, such as on the related collection instrument or form, if applicable. The display of OMB control numbers for certain EPA regulations is consolidated in 40 CFR part 9.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This ICR covers the information collection activities associated with the submission of information to EPA pursuant to TSCA section 4 for Test Orders on PFAS (15 U.S.C. 2603). Under TSCA, EPA has the authority to issue orders or rules designed to gather or develop information on chemical substances and mixtures. TSCA section 4 authorities allow EPA to require the development of information related to chemicals and the use of prescribed “protocols and methodologies” to inform EPA and other federal agencies about chemical risks from manufacture, distribution in commerce, processing, use, or disposal of such substance or mixture, or any combination of such activities. The testing included in this ICR was informed by the National PFAS Testing Strategy. Data received pursuant to testing associated with this ICR will help inform the National PFAS Testing Strategy and any modifications to the Strategy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden statement:</E>
                     The annual public reporting and recordkeeping burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 137 hours per response. Burden is defined in 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
                </P>
                <P>The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Entities potentially affected are those that manufacture (including import) and processes chemical substances containing PFAS. The ICR includes a list of potentially affected entities with North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes provided to assist in determining potential applicability.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Mandatory, per 15 U.S.C. 2603.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated number of potential respondents:</E>
                     13.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated average number of responses for each respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     29,162 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual respondent costs:</E>
                     $131,046,039 total costs, which includes $128,648,300, for laboratory costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. What is the next step in the process for this ICR?</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     document pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.5(a)(1)(iv) to announce the submission of the ICR to OMB and the opportunity to submit additional comments to OMB. If you have any questions about this ICR or the approval process, please contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 2, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Michal Freedhoff,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25879 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">EXPORT-IMPORT BANK</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Notice of Open Meeting of the Sub-Saharan Africa Advisory Committee of the Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM)</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, November 19th, 2024 from 1:00 p.m.-2:30 p.m. ET.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Microsoft Teams:</E>
                         The meeting will be held virtually for committee and council members, EXIM's Board of Directors, support staff, and all other participants.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration and Public Comment:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Virtual Public Participation:</E>
                         The meeting will be open to public participation virtually and time will be allotted for questions or comments submitted online. Members of the public may also file written statements before or after the meeting to 
                        <E T="03">advisory@exim.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Interested parties may register for the meeting at: 
                        <E T="03">https://events.teams.microsoft.com/event/420f09f2-2060-42b4-9f59-241e31610c39@b953013c-c791-4d32-996f-518390854527.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS:</HD>
                    <P>Open to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P>Discussion of EXIM policies and programs designed to support the expansion of financing support for U.S. manufactured goods and services in Sub-Saharan Africa.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information, contact India Walker, Senior External Engagement Specialist, at 202-480-0062 or 
                        <E T="03">india.walker@exim.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         The Committee was established by the Bank as directed by Section 2(b)(9) of the Export Import Bank Act of 1945. This Advisory Committee is chartered in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (“FACA”), 5 U.S.C. App.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>India A. Walker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior External Engagement Specialist, Office of External Engagement. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25870 Filed 11-5-24; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6690-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88280"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">EXPORT-IMPORT BANK OF THE UNITED STATES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: EIB-2025-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Application for Final Commitment for a Long-Term Loan or Financial Guarantee in Excess of $100 million: AP099423XX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Export-Import Bank of the United States.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This Notice is to inform the public, in accordance with section 3(c)(10) of the Export-Import Bank Act of 1945, as amended, the Export-Import Bank of the United States (“EXIM”) has received an application for final commitment for a long-term loan or financial guarantee in excess of $100 million. Comments received within the comment period specified below will be presented to the EXIM Board of Directors prior to final action on this Transaction.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before December 2, 2024 to be assured of consideration before final consideration of the transaction by the Board of Directors of EXIM.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         To submit a comment, enter EIB-2025-0001 AP099423XX under the heading “Enter Keyword or ID” and select Search. Follow the instructions provided at the Submit a Comment screen. Please include your name, company name (if any) and EIB-2024-0001 AP099423XX on any attached document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Reference:</E>
                     AP099423XX.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose and Use:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Brief description of the purpose of the transaction:</E>
                     To support the export of U.S.-manufactured commercial aircraft to Ethiopia.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Brief non-proprietary description of the anticipated use of the items being exported:</E>
                     To be used for passenger and cargo air transport services between Ethiopia and other countries.
                </P>
                <P>To the extent that EXIM is reasonably aware, the items being exported are not expected to produce exports or provide services in competition with the exportation of goods or provision of services by a United States industry.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Parties:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Principal Supplier:</E>
                     The Boeing Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligor:</E>
                     Ethiopian Airlines Group.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Guarantor(s):</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Items Being Exported:</E>
                     Boeing commercial jet aircraft.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information on Decision:</E>
                     Information on the final decision for this transaction will be available in the “Board Agenda and Meeting Minutes” on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.exim.gov/news/meeting-minutes.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Confidential Information:</E>
                     Please note that this notice does not include confidential or proprietary business information; information which, if disclosed, would violate the Trade Secrets Act; or information which would jeopardize jobs in the United States by supplying information that competitors could use to compete with companies in the United States.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Deidre Hodge,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Corporate Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25884 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6690-01-PA07NO3.</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-0700 and OMB 3060-0937; FR ID 258832]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before January 6, 2025. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email to 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">Cathy.Williams@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0700.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Open Video Systems Provisions, FCC Form 1275.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 1275.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities; and State, Local or Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     280 respondents; 4,672 respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement; On occasion reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.25 to 20 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     9,855 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation To Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in section 302 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     Section 302 of the 1996 Telecommunications Act provides for specific entry options for telephone companies wishing to enter the video programming marketplace, one option being to provide cable service over an “open video system” (“OVS”). The rule sections that are covered by this collection relate to OVS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0937.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Establishment of a Class A Television Service, MM Docket No. 00-10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement; Third party disclosure requirement; On occasion and quarterly reporting requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     385 respondents; 9,850 responses.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88281"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.017 hours-52 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation To Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in Sections 154(i), 307, 308, 309 and 319 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     172,087 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $1,851,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On November 29, 1999, the Community Broadcasters Protection Act of 1999 (CBPA), Public Law 106-113, 113 Stat. appendix I at pp. 1501A-594-1501A-598 (1999), codified at 47 U.S.C. 336(f), was enacted. That legislation provided that a low power television (LPTV) licensee should be permitted to convert the secondary status of its station to the new Class A status, provided it can satisfy certain statutorily-established criteria by January 28, 2000. The CBPA directs that Class A licensees be subject to the same license terms and renewal standards as full-power television licenses and that Class A licensees be accorded primary status as television broadcasters as long as they continue to meet the requirements set forth in the statute for a qualifying low power station.
                </P>
                <P>For those stations that met the certification deadline, the CBPA sets out certain certification procedures, prescribes the criteria to maintain a Class A license, and outlines the interference protection Class A stations must provide to analog, digital, LPTV and TV translator stations.</P>
                <P>The CBPA directs that Class A stations must comply with the operating requirements for full-service television broadcast stations in order to maintain Class A status. Therefore, beginning on the date of its application for a Class A license and thereafter, a station must be “in compliance” with the Commission's operating rules for full-service television stations, contained in 47 CFR part 73.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25895 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL ELECTION COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P>Wednesday, November 13, 2024, at 10:00 a.m. and its continuation at the conclusion of the open meeting on November 14, 2024.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P>1050 First Street NE, Washington, DC, and virtual (This meeting will be a hybrid meeting.)</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS:</HD>
                    <P>This meeting will be closed to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>Compliance matters pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 30109.</P>
                    <P>Matters relating to internal personnel decisions, or internal rules and practices.</P>
                    <P>Information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to have a considerable adverse effect on the implementation of a proposed Commission action.</P>
                    <P>Matters concerning participation in civil actions or proceedings or arbitration.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Vicktoria J. Allen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25999 Filed 11-5-24; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6715-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces an amendment to the following meeting of the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC). The meeting is open to the public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sydnee Byrd, M.P.A., Program Analyst, Division of Healthcare Quality Promotion, National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE, Mailstop H16-3, Atlanta, Georgia 30329-4027. Telephone: (404) 718-8039; Email: 
                        <E T="03">HICPAC@cdc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee; November 14, 2024, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m., EST, and November 15, 2024, from 9 a.m. to 12 p.m., EST, in the original 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Notice of the virtual meeting was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 17, 2024, 89 FR 83688.
                </P>
                <P>The meeting notice is being amended to update the dates section; addresses section; and supplementary information section, including the addition of instructions for providing written public comment. These sections should read as follows:</P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="02">DATES:</E>
                     The meeting will be held on November 14, 2024, from 8 a.m. to 5:45 p.m., EST, and November 15, 2024, from 8 a.m. to 12:30 p.m., EST.
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES:</E>
                     The meeting will be webcast live via the World Wide Web. The webcast link can be found on the HICPAC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/php/upcoming-meeting/index.html.</E>
                </FP>
                <FP>
                    <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</E>
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose:</E>
                     The Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee (HICPAC) is charged with providing advice and guidance to the Director, Division of Healthcare Quality Promotion; the Director, National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases; the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC); and the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services, regarding (1) the practice of healthcare infection prevention and control; (2) strategies for surveillance, prevention, and control of infections, antimicrobial resistance, and related events in settings where healthcare is provided; and (3) periodic updating of CDC guidelines and other policy statements regarding prevention of healthcare-associated infections and healthcare-related conditions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Matters to be Considered:</E>
                     The agenda will include the following updates: the Division of Healthcare Quality Promotion; the Isolation Precautions Guideline Workgroup; and the Healthcare Personnel Guideline Workgroup. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Oral Public Comment:</E>
                     This meeting will include time for members of the public to make an oral comment. Priority will be given to individuals who submit a request to make an oral public comment before the meeting according to the procedures below. All persons interested in making an oral public comment at the November 14-15, 2024, HICPAC meeting must submit a request between October 15, 2024, and October 25, 2024, at 
                    <E T="03">
                        https://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/php/upcoming-
                        <PRTPAGE P="88282"/>
                        meeting/index.html
                    </E>
                     no later than 5 p.m., EDT, on October 25, 2024, according to the instructions provided. If the number of persons requesting to speak is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the scheduled time, CDC will conduct a random draw to determine the speakers for the scheduled public comment session. CDC staff will notify individuals regarding their request to speak by email by November 1, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written Public Comment:</E>
                     Written comments should be submitted by email to 
                    <E T="03">HICPAC@cdc.gov.</E>
                     The deadline for receipt of written public comments is November 22, 2024. All submissions must contain the submitter's name, address, and organizational affiliation, as well as the topic being addressed. Written comments should not exceed one single-spaced typed page in length, not including attachments. All written comments will be shared with the Committee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Director, Office of Strategic Business Initiatives, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kalwant Smagh,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Strategic Business Initiatives, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25906 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4163-18-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[CMS-9150-N]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Quarterly Listing of Program Issuances—July through September 2024</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This quarterly notice lists CMS manual instructions, substantive and interpretive regulations, and other 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notices that were published in the 3-month period, relating to the Medicare and Medicaid programs and other programs administered by CMS.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>It is possible that an interested party may need specific information and not be able to determine from the listed information whether the issuance or regulation would fulfill that need. Consequently, we are providing contact persons to answer general questions concerning each of the addenda published in this notice.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s150,r50,15">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Addenda</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Contact</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Phone number</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">I—CMS Manual Instructions</ENT>
                            <ENT>Ismael Torres</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-1864</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                II—Regulation Documents Published in the 
                                <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Terri Plumb</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-4481</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">III—CMS Rulings</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tiffany Lafferty</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-7548</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">IV—Medicare National Coverage Determinations</ENT>
                            <ENT>Wanda Belle, MPA</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-7491</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">V—FDA-Approved Category B IDEs</ENT>
                            <ENT>John Manlove</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-6877</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">VI—Collections of Information</ENT>
                            <ENT>William Parham</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-4669</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">VII—Medicare-Approved Carotid Stent Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarah Fulton, MHS</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-2749</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">VIII—American College of Cardiology-National Cardiovascular Data Registry Sites</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarah Fulton, MHS</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-2749</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">IX—Medicare's Active Coverage-Related Guidance Documents</ENT>
                            <ENT>Lori Ashby, MA</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-6322</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">X—One-time Notices Regarding National Coverage Provisions</ENT>
                            <ENT>JoAnna Baldwin, MS</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-7205</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">XI—National Oncologic Positron Emission Tomography Registry Sites</ENT>
                            <ENT>David Dolan, MBA</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-3365</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">XII—Medicare-Approved Ventricular Assist Device (Destination Therapy) Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>David Dolan, MBA</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-3365</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">XIII—Medicare-Approved Lung Volume Reduction Surgery Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarah Fulton, MHS</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-2749</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">XIV—Medicare-Approved Bariatric Surgery Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarah Fulton, MHS</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-2749</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">XV—Fluorodeoxyglucose Positron Emission Tomography for Dementia Trials</ENT>
                            <ENT>David Dolan, MBA</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-3365</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">All Other Information</ENT>
                            <ENT>Annette Brewer</ENT>
                            <ENT>(410) 786-6580</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is responsible for administering the Medicare and Medicaid programs and coordination and oversight of private health insurance. Administration and oversight of these programs involves the following: (1) furnishing information to Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, health care providers, and the public; and (2) maintaining effective communications with CMS regional offices, state governments, state Medicaid agencies, state survey agencies, various providers of health care, all Medicare contractors that process claims and pay bills, National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC), health insurers, and other stakeholders. To implement the various statutes on which the programs are based, we issue regulations under the authority granted to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services under sections 1102, 1871, 1902, and related provisions of the Social Security Act (the Act) and Public Health Service Act. We also issue various manuals, memoranda, and statements necessary to administer and oversee the programs efficiently.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 1871(c) of the Act requires that we publish a list of all Medicare manual instructions, interpretive rules, statements of policy, and guidelines of general applicability not issued as regulations at least every 3 months in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Format for the Quarterly Issuance Notices</HD>
                <P>
                    This quarterly notice provides only the specific updates that have occurred in the 3-month period along with a hyperlink to the full listing that is available on the CMS website or the appropriate data registries that are used as our resources. This is the most current up-to-date information and will be available earlier than we publish our quarterly notice. We believe the website list provides more timely access for beneficiaries, providers, and suppliers. We also believe the website offers a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88283"/>
                    more convenient tool for the public to find the full list of qualified providers for these specific services and offers more flexibility and “real time” accessibility. In addition, many of the websites have listservs; that is, the public can subscribe and receive immediate notification of any updates to the website. These listservs avoid the need to check the website, as notification of updates is automatic and sent to the subscriber as they occur. If assessing a website proves to be difficult, the contact person listed can provide information.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. How To Use the Notice</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is organized into 15 addenda so that a reader may access the subjects published during the quarter covered by the notice to determine whether any are of particular interest. We expect this notice to be used in concert with previously published notices. Those unfamiliar with a description of our Medicare manuals should view the manuals at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.cms.gov/manuals.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Director of the Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Kathleen Cantwell, having reviewed and approved this document, authorizes Trenesha Fultz-Mimms, who is the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Liaison, to electronically sign this document for purposes of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Trenesha Fultz-Mimms,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88284"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.073</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88285"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.074</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88286"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.075</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88287"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.076</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="637">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88288"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.077</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88289"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.078</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88290"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.079</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88291"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.080</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88292"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.081</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88293"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.082</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="292">
                    <PRTPAGE P="88294"/>
                    <GID>EN07NO24.083</GID>
                </GPH>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25874 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Standardized Tests and Minimum Passing Scores for Foreign Health Care Workers To Demonstrate English Language Proficiency</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HRSA proposes modifications to the list of standardized tests and minimum passing scores for foreign health care workers to demonstrate English language proficiency pursuant to section 343 of the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996 (IIRIRA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments no later than December 9, 2024, 11:59 p.m. (ET).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Web-Based Portal: https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                         This is the preferred method for the submission of comments. Follow instructions for submitting comments. Include Billing Code 4165-15 in your comments. All submitted comments will be posted without changes to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                         Please do not include any personally identifiable or confidential business information you do not want publicly disclosed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: HRSAComments@hrsa.gov</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">HRSA_ELP@hrsa.gov</E>
                         with the subject line: “Billing Code 4165-15 Comments on Standardized Tests and Minimum Passing Scores for Foreign Health Care Workers.” This is the alternative method for the submission of comments. Please do not include any personally identifiable or confidential business information you do not want publicly disclosed.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Tanchica West, Office of Special Health Initiatives, Office of Global Health, HRSA, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857, 301-443-4412.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The purpose of this request is to solicit public comments regarding proposed modifications to the current list of tests and passing scores approved by HHS through HRSA pursuant to section 343 of the IIRIRA, Public Law 104-208 (8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(5)(C)) and implementing regulations promulgated by the Department of Homeland Security at 8 CFR 212.15(g), to demonstrate English language proficiency for noncitizen health care workers. Demonstration of English language proficiency is an element of the certification requirements for certain noncitizen health care workers seeking admission to the United States for the primary purpose of performing labor in a covered health care occupation. HRSA is seeking public comments regarding proposed modifications to the current list of approved standardized tests and minimum passing scores required for certification of foreign health care workers to enhance consistency across approved tests.</P>
                <P>Public comments may include the submission of evaluation studies, concordance analysis and findings of concordance, or methodologies supporting the inclusion of a particular test or minimum passing score for demonstrating English language proficiency. In addition to evidence and justification, HRSA requests that comments include:</P>
                <P>(1) A bulleted summary of no more than five (5) pages (12-point font single spaced) and</P>
                <P>(2) The table (below) with responses for each applicable recommendation.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments may address any aspect of the proposed modifications, and all comments will be considered.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88295"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50">
                    <TTITLE>Summary of Recommendations on English Language Proficiency Tests and Scores</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[12-point font single spaced]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test section</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Current score</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Recommended score</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Justification 
                            <LI>and impact</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Evidence</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Timeframe</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">[Insert Name of Test]</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Insert what section of the test the modification refers to, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             overall, listening, reading, writing, or speaking.]
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert current score for each test by health profession or occupation by level of degree.]</ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert recommended score for each test by health profession or occupation by level of degree.]</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Provide a brief description of why the modification is necessary.]
                            <LI>[Provide a brief description of potential impact of the modification if accepted.]</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Describe evidence to support this modification (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             concordance analysis and findings, evaluation studies, and other supporting material to substantiate this recommendation).]
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert if this modification is time sensitive. If yes, describe why.]</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06">
                        <ENT I="21">Summary of Administrative Comments on English Language Proficiency Tests and Scores</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50,xl50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test section</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Current language</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Suggested language</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Justification 
                            <LI>and impact</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Evidence</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Timeframe</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">[Insert Name of Test]</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Insert what section of the test the modification refers to, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             overall, listening, reading, writing, or speaking, if applicable.]
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert recommended modification by health profession or occupation by level of degree.]</ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert recommended modification by health profession or occupation by level of degree.]</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Provide description of why the modification is necessary.]
                            <LI>[Provide description of potential impact of the modification if accepted.]</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            [Describe evidence to support this modification (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             concordance analysis and findings, evaluation studies, and other supporting material to substantiate this recommendation).]
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>[Insert if this modification is time sensitive. If yes, describe why.]</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">General</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="21">[Insert any other comments.]</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Modifications to the June 2022 List of Approved Standardized Tests and Minimum Passing Scores:</HD>
                <P>
                    (1) Cambridge English provides in-depth exams to prove knowledge of the English language.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA proposes the following modification to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See, Cambridge English website: 
                        <E T="03">https://cambridgeenglish.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>a. Change the title of the tests from “Cambridge Assessment English: B2 First, C1 Advanced, or C2 qualifications exams” to “Cambridge English B2 First, C1 Advanced, or C2 Proficiency,” because Cambridge English changed the name of the exams.</P>
                <P>b. The minimum passing scores for each of the occupations will remain unchanged.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) Test of English as a Foreign Language internet-Based Test (TOEFL iBT) prepares test-takers for immigration to the United States by examining their English ability.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA proposes the following modifications to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See,website for English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) Internet-Based Test: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ets.org/toefl/institutions/ibt/about.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>a. Change the title from “Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) internet-Based Test” to “Test of English as a Foreign Language internet-Based Test (TOEFL iBT),” to reflect the organization's current name for the exam.</P>
                <P>b. Increase the overall passing score from an 81 to an 83 for registered nurses and Bachelor of Science level health care workers to enhance parity among minimum passing test scores across approved tests.</P>
                <P>c. Increase the minimum passing score for the “Speaking” section from 24 to 26 for registered nurses and Bachelor of Science level health care workers to enhance parity among minimum passing test scores across approved tests.</P>
                <P>d. There are no proposed changes to the minimum passing scores for health care workers holding less than a Bachelor of Science degree and occupational therapists/physical therapists.</P>
                <P>
                    (3) HRSA understands that the TOEFL Paper-Based Test has been discontinued.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA therefore proposes the following modification to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         See, Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ets.org/toefl.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>a. Remove the TOEFL Paper-Based Test from the list of standardized tests and minimum passing scores to demonstrate English language proficiency, since it is no longer available for test-takers.</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Test of English in International Communication (TOEIC) (Listening and Reading) and TOEIC (Speaking and Writing) measure English comprehension skills and determines a test-taker's ability to communicate in English effectively and proficiently.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA proposes the following modifications to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See, website for Test of English in International Communication (TOEIC) 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ets.org//toeic/test-takers/about.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>a. Increase the minimum passing score from 700 to 725 for “Listening and Reading” for health care workers holding less than a Bachelor of Science degree to enhance parity among minimum passing test scores across approved tests.</P>
                <P>b. There are no proposed changes to the minimum passing score of 160 for “Speaking” and 150 for “Writing” for registered nurses, Bachelor of Science level health care workers, and health care workers holding less than a Bachelor of Science degree.</P>
                <P>
                    (5) The Occupational English Test (OET) is a language test designed to evaluate language skills of healthcare professionals in an English-speaking environment.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA proposes the following modifications to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See, website for the Occupational English Test (OET): 
                        <E T="03">https://oet.com/en-us.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    a. Change test scores from a letter-based scoring system to numerical values, as suggested by OET, to increase precision in scoring and overall parity across English language proficiency tests. For registered nurses and Bachelor of Science level health care workers, the current minimum passing score for “Reading,” “Writing,” and “Listening” is a letter grade of C+ and a letter grade of B for “Speaking.” HRSA proposes to replace these letter scores with the equivalent numeric scores of 300 for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88296"/>
                    “Reading,” “Writing,” and “Listening,” and 350 for “Speaking” which, per consultation with OET, does not represent an increase or decrease in minimum passing test scores.
                </P>
                <P>b. For health care workers holding less than a Bachelor of Science degree, the current minimum passing score for “Reading,” “Writing,” and “Listening” is a letter grade of C and a letter grade of B for “Speaking.” HRSA proposes to replace these letter scores with the equivalent numeric scores of 250 for “Reading,” “Writing,” “Listening,” and 350 for “Speaking” which, per consultation with OET, does not represent an increase or decrease in minimum passing test scores.</P>
                <P>c. For occupational and physical therapists, there are currently no minimum passing tests scores listed for OET. HRSA proposes the minimum passing scores of 300 for “Reading,” “Writing,” and “Listening” and the score of 350 for “Speaking” to include versions of OET designed specifically for occupational and physical therapists.</P>
                <P>
                    (6) Pearson PTE Academic is a computer-based exam that measures academic-level speaking, writing, reading, and listening skills.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HRSA proposes the following modification to the listing:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See, website for Pearson PTE Academic: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.pearsonpte.com/pte-academic.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>a. Add a new passing minimum score of 63 for “Speaking” for registered nurses and Bachelor of Science level health care workers. Previously, no passing minimum score for “Speaking” was listed. HRSA proposes this change to enhance parity among minimum passing test scores.</P>
                <P>To reflect the aforementioned modifications*, HRSA proposes to update its website to replace the June 2022 listing of approved standardized tests and minimum passing scores with the following table, which reflects the information described above:</P>
                <P>
                    * 
                    <E T="03">Proposed modifications are bolded and italicized for this document but will not appear in bold and italics when published on the website.</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">English competency tests</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Scores: occupational therapists/physical therapists</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Scores: registered nurses and B.S. level health care workers</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Scores: &lt;B.S. level health care workers</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Cambridge English B2 First, C1 Advanced, or C2 Proficiency</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Cambridge English Scale 185 overall and 185 Speaking</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cambridge English Scale 176 overall and 185 Speaking</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cambridge English Scale 169 overall and 185 Speaking.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Educational Testing Service: TOEFL Internet-Based Test</ENT>
                        <ENT>Overall 89 with minimum of 63 on Reading, Listening and Writing and 26 on Speaking</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Overall 
                            <E T="03">83 with minimum of 57 on Reading, Listening and Writing and 26 on Speaking</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Overall 77 with minimum of 53 on Reading, Listening, and Writing and 24 on Speaking.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Educational Testing Service: TOEIC (Listening and Reading)</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Not applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>725</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">725</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Educational Testing Service: TOEIC (Speaking/Writing)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>160 Speaking/150 Writing</ENT>
                        <ENT>160 Speaking/150 Writing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">International English Language Testing System (IELTS)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.5 academic with minimum of 7 on Speaking</ENT>
                        <ENT>6 academic or general with minimum of 7 on Speaking.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Michigan English Test (MET)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>Overall 55; minimum Speaking section score of 55</ENT>
                        <ENT>Overall 55; minimum Speaking section score of 55.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Occupational English Test (OET)</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Reading, Writing, Listening/300; Speaking 350</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Reading, Writing, Listening/300; Speaking 350</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Reading, Writing, Listening/250; Speaking 350</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Pearson PTE Academic</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Not applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Overall 55; Reading, Writing, Listening, no section below 50
                            <LI>
                                <E T="03">63 minimum for Speaking</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Overall 55; Reading, Writing, Listening, no section below 50.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Maria G. Button,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25854 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifier: OS-0990-NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Request; 30-Day Public Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, is publishing the following summary of a proposed collection for public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the ICR must be received on or before December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sherrette Funn, 
                        <E T="03">Sherrette.Funn@hhs.gov</E>
                         or (202) 264-0041, or 
                        <E T="03">PRA@HHS.GOV.</E>
                         When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier 0990-new-30D and project title for reference.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of the Collection:</E>
                     Evaluation of the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic Demonstration in Accordance with the Bipartisan Safer Communities Act.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Collection:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB No.:</E>
                     0990-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE) at the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is requesting Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for new data collection activities to support its evaluation of the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88297"/>
                    demonstration program in accordance with the Bipartisan Safer Communities Act.
                </P>
                <P>Section 223 of the Protecting Access to Medicare Act (Pub. L. 113-93; PAMA) authorized the Certified Community Behavioral Health Clinic (CCBHC) demonstration to allow states to test a different strategy for delivering and reimbursing a comprehensive array of services provided in community behavioral health clinics. The demonstration aims to improve the availability, quality, and outcomes of outpatient services provided in these clinics by establishing a standard definition for CCBHCs and develops a new Medicaid prospective payment system (PPS) in each state that accounts for the total cost of providing nine types of services to all people who seek care. The PPS in each state is designed to provide CCBHCs with the financial support and stability necessary to deliver these required services. The demonstration also aims to incentivize quality through quality bonus payments to clinics and requires CCBHCs to report quality measures and costs. The demonstration was originally authorized for two years.</P>
                <P>Need and Proposed Use of the Information: PAMA mandates that HHS submit reports to Congress about the Section 223 demonstration that assess (1) access to community-based mental health services under Medicaid in the area or areas of a state targeted by a demonstration program as compared to other areas of the state, (2) the quality and scope of services provided by certified community behavioral health clinics as compared to community-based mental health services provided in states not participating in a demonstration program and in areas of a demonstration state that are not participating in the demonstration, and (3) the impact of the demonstration on the federal and state costs of a full range of mental health services (including inpatient, emergency, and ambulatory services). The ability of ASPE to provide this information to Congress requires a rigorously designed and independent evaluation of the CCBHC demonstration.</P>
                <P>The total annual burden hours estimated for this information collection request are summarized in the table below.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of respondent</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State official interviews</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>113</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CCBHC interviews</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CCBHC survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>231</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>924</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CCBHC client focus groups</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>334</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,079</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sherrette A. Funn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Reports Clearance Officer, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25856 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Emergency Management Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FEMA-2024-0002; Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-B-2472]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR), in accordance with Federal Regulations. The currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These flood hazard determinations will be finalized on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.</P>
                    <P>From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                         for comparison.
                    </P>
                    <P>Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov;</E>
                         or visit the FEMA Mapping and Insurance eXchange (FMIX) online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.floodmaps.fema.gov/fhm/fmx_main.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.</P>
                <P>Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.</P>
                <P>
                    The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88298"/>
                    Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and with 44 CFR part 65.
                </P>
                <P>The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).</P>
                <P>These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.</P>
                <P>
                    The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                    <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                     for comparison.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicholas A. Shufro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator (Acting) for Risk Management, Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r75,r75,r75,xs55,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">State and county</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Location and case No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Chief executive officer of community</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Community map repository</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Online location of letter of map revision</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Date of
                            <LI>modification</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Community No.</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">California: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Orange</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Anaheim (24-09-1187X)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Ashleigh Aitken, Mayor, City of Anaheim, 200 South Anaheim Boulevard, 7th Floor, Anaheim, CA 92805</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 200 South Anaheim Boulevard, Anaheim, CA 92805</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 14, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>060213</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Orange</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Placentia (24-09-1187X)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jeremy B. Yamaguchi, Mayor, City of Placentia, 401 East Chapman Avenue, Placentia, CA 92870</ENT>
                        <ENT>Development Services Department, 401 East Chapman Avenue, Placentia, CA 92870</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 14, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>060229</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Colorado: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">El Paso</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Manitou Springs (24-08-0006P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable John Graham, Mayor, City of Manitou Springs, 606 Manitou Avenue, Manitou Springs, CO 80829</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pikes Peak Regional Building Department Floodplain Management Office, 2880 International Circle, Colorado Springs, CO 80910</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 21, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>080063</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Larimer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Wellington (24-08-0267P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Calar Chaussee, Mayor, Town of Wellington, P.O. Box 127, Wellington, CO 80549</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 3735 Cleveland Street, Wellington, CO 80549</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 29, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>080104</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Florida: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Manatee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Manatee County (24-04-3397P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Charlie Bishop, Manatee County Administrator, 1112 Manatee Avenue West, Bradenton, FL 34205</ENT>
                        <ENT>Manatee County, Administration Building, 1112 Manatee Avenue West, Bradenton, FL 34205</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 14, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>120153</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monroe</ENT>
                        <ENT>Village of Islamorada (24-04-4610P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Joseph Buddy Pinder III, Mayor, Village of Islamorada, 86800 Overseas Highway, Islamorada, FL 33036</ENT>
                        <ENT>Building Department, 86800 Overseas Highway, Islamorada, FL 33036</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 7, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>120424</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Polk</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Polk County (23-04-4569P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bill Beasley, Polk County Manager, 330 West Church Street, Bartow, FL 33830</ENT>
                        <ENT>Polk County Land Development Division, 330 West Church Street, Bartow, FL 33830</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 23, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>120261</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Illinois: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DuPage</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of DuPage County (23-05-1793P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deborah Conroy, Chair, DuPage County Board, 421 North County Farm Road, Wheaton, IL 60187</ENT>
                        <ENT>DuPage County Administration Building Stormwater Management, 421 North County Farm Road, Wheaton, IL 60187</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 27, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>170197</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">McHenry</ENT>
                        <ENT>Village of Algonquin (24-05-0682P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Debby Sosine, Village President, Village of Algonquin, 2200 Harnish Drive, Algonquin, IL 60102</ENT>
                        <ENT>Village Hall, 2200 Harnish Drive, Algonquin, IL 60102</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 24, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>170474</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Indiana: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tippecanoe</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of West Lafayette (23-05-0732P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Erin Easter, Mayor, City of West Lafayette, 222 North Chauncey Avenue, West Lafayette, IN 47906</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 222 North Chauncey Avenue, West Lafayette, IN 47906</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 18, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>180254</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tippecanoe</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Tippecanoe County (23-05-0732P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Tracy Brown, President, Tippecanoe County Board of Commissioners, 20 North 3rd Street, 1st Floor, Lafayette, IN 47901</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tippecanoe County Administration Building, 20 North 3rd Street, Lafayette, IN 47901</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 18, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>180428</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88299"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Kentucky: Fayette</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lexington-Fayette Urban County Government (23-04-6269P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Linda Gorton, Mayor, Lexington-Fayette Urban County Government, 200 East Main Street, Lexington, KY 40507</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fayette County Phoenix Building, 101 East Vine Street, 4th Floor, Lexington, KY 40507</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 18, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>210067</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Minnesota:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Dodge</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Mantorville (24-05-1406P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Chuck Bradford, Mayor, City of Mantorville, P.O. Box 188, 21 5th Street East, Mantorville, MN 55955</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 21 5th Street East, Mantorville, MN 55955</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 7, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>270585</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Dodge</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Dodge County (24-05-1406P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Rodney Peterson, Commissioner, District 3, Dodge County Board of Commissioners, 721 Main Street North, Department 31, Mantorville, MN 55955</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dodge County Environmental Services Department, 721 Main Street North, Department 123, Mantorville, MN 55955</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 7, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>270548</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Missouri: Johnson</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Holden (24-07-0417P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Ray Briscoe, Mayor, City of Holden, 101 West 3rd Street, Holden, MO 64040</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 101 West 3rd Street, Holden, MO 64040</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 10, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>290714</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">North Carolina: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Alexander</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Alexander County (24-04-1106P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marty Pennell, Chair, Alexander County Board of Commissioners, 621 Liledoun Road, Taylorsville, NC 28681</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alexander County Planning and Development Department, 151 West Main Avenue, Suite 7, Taylorsville, NC 28681</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 23, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370398</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Avery</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Avery County (23-04-6256P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tim Phillips, Chair, Avery County Board of Commissioners, P.O. Box 640, Newland, NC 28657</ENT>
                        <ENT>Avery County Planning Department, 200 Old Montezuma Road, Newland, NC 28657</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 9, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370010</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Caldwell</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Caldwell County (24-04-2160P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Randy Church, Chair, Caldwell County Board of Commissioners, P.O. Box 2200, Lenoir, NC 28645</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caldwell County Planning and Development Department, 2345 Morganton Boulevard Southwest, Lenoir, NC 28645</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 22, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370039</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Iredell</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Mooresville (24-04-1233P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Chris Carney, Mayor, Town of Mooresville, 413 North Main Street, Mooresville, NC 28815</ENT>
                        <ENT>Planning Department, 413 North Main Street, Mooresville, NC 28815</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 27, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370314</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Mecklenburg</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Charlotte (22-09-2871P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Vi Alexander Lyles, Mayor, City of Charlotte, 600 East 4th Street, Charlotte, NC 28202</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mecklenburg County Stormwater Services Division, 2145 Suttle Avenue, Charlotte, NC 28208</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 9, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370159</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Mecklenburg</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Pineville (22-09-2871P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable David Phillips, Mayor, Town of Pineville, P.O. Box 249, Pineville, NC 28134</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mecklenburg County Stormwater Services Division, 2145 Suttle Avenue, Charlotte, NC 28208</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 9, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370160</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Union</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Monroe (24-04-2810P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Robert Burns, Mayor, City of Monroe, 300 West Corwell Street, Monroe, NC 28112</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 300 West Corwell Street, Monroe, NC 28112</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 28, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370236</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Wake</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Cary (23-04-4024P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Harold Weinbrecht, Mayor, Town of Cary, P.O. Box 8005, Cary, NC 27512</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stormwater Services Division, 316 North Academy Street, Cary, NC 27513</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 24, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>370238</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">South Carolina: Richland</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Columbia (24-04-5321P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Daniel J. Rickenmann, Mayor, City of Columbia, 1737 Main Street, Columbia, SC 29201</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 1737 Main Street, Columbia, SC 29201</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 18, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>450172</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Texas: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Fort Worth (24-06-1006P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Mattie Parker, Mayor, City of Fort Worth, 200 Texas Street, Fort Worth, TX 76102</ENT>
                        <ENT>Department of Transportation and Public Works, Engineering Vault and Map Repository, 200 Texas Street, Fort Worth, TX 76102</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 10, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480596</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Northlake (24-06-1006P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Drew Corn, Manager, Town of Northlake, 1500 Commons Circle, Suite 300, Northlake, TX 76226</ENT>
                        <ENT>Development Services Department, 1700 Commons Circle, Suite 200, Northlake, TX 76226</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 10, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480782</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Denton County (24-06-1006P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andy Eads, Denton County Judge, 1 Courthouse Drive, Suite 3100, Denton, TX 76208</ENT>
                        <ENT>Denton County Development Services Department, 3900 Morse Street, Denton, TX 76208</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 10, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480774</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88300"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Denton County (24-06-2149P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andy Eads, Denton County Judge, 1 Courthouse Drive, Suite 3100, Denton, TX 76208</ENT>
                        <ENT>Denton County Development Services Department 3900 Morse Street Denton, TX 76208</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 18, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480774</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Navarro</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Corsicana (23-06-2188P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Mike Fletcher, Mayor, City of Corsicana, 200 North 12th Street, Corsicana, TX 75110</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 200 North 12th Street, Corsicana, TX 75110</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 5, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480498</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Navarro</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Navarro County (23-06-2188P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable H.M. Davenport, Jr., Navarro County Judge, 300 West 3rd Avenue, Suite 102, Corsicana, TX 75110</ENT>
                        <ENT>Navarro County Courthouse, 300 West 3rd Avenue, Corsicana, TX 75110</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 5, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480950</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Taylor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Taylor County (24-06-0933P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Phil Crowley, Taylor County Judge, 400 Oak Street, Suite 300, Abilene, TX 79602</ENT>
                        <ENT>Taylor County Administration Building, 400 Oak Street, Suite 300, Abilene, TX 79602</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 4, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>481014</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Williamson</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Jarrell (24-06-0042P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Patrick Sherek, Mayor, City of Jarrell, 161 Town Center Boulevard, Jarrell, TX 76537</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 161 Town Center Boulevard, Jarrell, TX 76537</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 4, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>480111</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Wisconsin: Waupaca</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Waupaca County (24-05-1652P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>David Morack, Chair, Waupaca County Board of Supervisors, 811 Harding Street, Waupaca, WI 54981</ENT>
                        <ENT>Waupaca County Courthouse, 811 Harding Street, Waupaca, WI 54981</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Feb. 21, 2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>550492</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25877 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Emergency Management Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FEMA-2024-0002; Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-B-2473]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are to be submitted on or before February 5, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location 
                        <E T="03">https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload</E>
                         and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                         for comparison.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-2473, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov;</E>
                         or visit the FEMA Mapping and Insurance eXchange (FMIX) online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.floodmaps.fema.gov/fhm/fmx_main.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).</P>
                <P>These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP.</P>
                <P>The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.</P>
                <P>
                    Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88301"/>
                    recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.floodsrp.org/pdfs/srp_overview.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location 
                    <E T="03">https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload</E>
                     and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                    <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                     for comparison.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicholas A. Shufro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator (Acting) for Risk Management, Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Community</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Community map repository address</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Delta County, Colorado and Incorporated Areas</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Project: 19-08-0038S Preliminary Date: November 21, 2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">City of Delta</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 360 Main Street, Delta, CO 81416.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Town of Cedaredge</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 235 West Main Street, Cedaredge, CO 81413.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Town of Hotchkiss</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 276 West Main Street, Hotchkiss, CO 81419.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Town of Orchard City</ENT>
                        <ENT>Orchard City Town Hall, 9661 2100 Road, Austin, CO 81410.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Town of Paonia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 214 Grand Avenue, Paonia, CO 81428.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Unincorporated Areas of Delta County</ENT>
                        <ENT>Delta County Courthouse, 501 Palmer Street, Delta, CO 81416.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25878 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R8-FAC-2024-0150; FXFR1335088KRF0-256-FF08EACT00; OMB Control Number 1018-New]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Klamath Basin Juvenile Salmon Monitoring Data System</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are proposing a new information collection in use without Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send your comments on the information collection request (ICR) by one of the following methods (please reference “1018-Klamath” in the subject line of your comments):</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Internet (preferred): https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments on Docket No. FWS-R8-FAC-2024-0150.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5275 Leesburg Pike, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Madonna L. Baucum, Service Information Collection Clearance Officer, by email at 
                        <E T="03">Info_Coll@fws.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (703) 358-2503. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and its implementing regulations at 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), all information collections require approval under the PRA. We may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88302"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Klamath River basin historically supported large runs of Chinook Salmon (
                    <E T="03">Oncorhynchus tshawytscha</E>
                    ), Coho Salmon (
                    <E T="03">O. kisutch</E>
                    ), steelhead (
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                    ), and other anadromous fishes (KRBFTF 1991; NAS 2004; USDOI and NMFS 2012). These species contribute to economically and culturally important subsistence, sport, and commercial fisheries. However, abundance of anadromous fish species has declined dramatically due to a variety of factors, including overfishing, logging, mining, road building, livestock grazing, water diversion, wetland conversion, and dam construction (KRBFTF 1991; NAS 2004; USDOI and NMFS 2012).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 2000, the Service, in collaboration with the Karuk Tribe and the U.S. Geological Survey, began trapping juvenile salmonids annually on the Klamath River between Iron Gate Dam and the Scott River confluence, in order to collect outmigration timing data and weekly catch of young-of-the-year (age-0) Chinook Salmon to calibrate the production model SALMOD (Bartholow et al. 2002). Beginning in 2006, the objectives of this ongoing monitoring project shifted to generate weekly stratified estimates of production (Gough et al. 2015) and prevalence of infection with the parasite 
                    <E T="03">Ceratonova shasta</E>
                     (Nichols and True 2007; Nichols et al. 2009; True et al. 2010, 2011, 2013, 2016; Bolick et al. 2012, 2013). Additionally, these data have been used to develop and calibrate an improved salmon production model, the Stream Salmonid Simulator, or S3 Model (Perry et al. 2018, 2019), which is being used as a decision-support tool to aid in water management (Perry et al. 2019). Data generated by this project are also useful for assessing the status and trends of salmonid populations in the Klamath River.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The authorities for Service activities in restoring fishery resources of the Klamath Basin are described in several acts, the most significant being the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 (16 U.S.C. 742(a)-754), Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act (16 U.S.C. 661-666), Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 791 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Klamath Termination Act of 1954 (25 U.S.C. 564), and Anadromous Fish Conservation Act (16 U.S.C. 757a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), among others.
                </P>
                <P>We collect the following information in conjunction with submissions in the Klamath Basin Juvenile Salmon Monitoring Data System:</P>
                <P>1. Trapping event data:</P>
                <P>a. Event date, site, trap identification, and crew;</P>
                <P>b. Weather conditions;</P>
                <P>c. Dates traps set and pulled;</P>
                <P>d. Species type, count, and length;</P>
                <P>e. Mortality counts and external abnormalities;</P>
                <P>f. Box data, to include measurements, saturation, temperature, and pH level; and</P>
                <P>g. Comments.</P>
                <P>2. Marking event data:</P>
                <P>a. Event date, site, trap identification, and crew;</P>
                <P>b. Origin;</P>
                <P>c. Species and type;</P>
                <P>d. Measurements;</P>
                <P>e. Counts;</P>
                <P>f. Start and end time, effectiveness, and buffer used;</P>
                <P>g. Timestamp and number marked;</P>
                <P>h. Number unmarked;</P>
                <P>i. Release site, trap, and date/time;</P>
                <P>j. Water quality type and temperature; and</P>
                <P>k. Comments.</P>
                <P>The data are collected by partnering States, Tribes, and other Federal agencies. The Service and our partners will use the collected data to inform decision makers in the Klamath Basin of real-time fish conditions and to help manage water resources in response to those conditions. The data are also used to generate annual reports summarizing the biological data, catch numbers, and fish health information. The catch and mark/recapture data are used to generate population estimates, which are also included in annual reports.</P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the data submission form is available to the public for viewing in the docket on the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website, or by submitting an email request to the Service ICCO as provided in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Klamath Basin Juvenile Salmon Monitoring Data System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1018-New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State/Tribal government respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     8.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     700.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     30 minutes for electronic submissions and 45 minutes for paper-based submissions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     375.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $2,080.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Madonna Baucum,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Information Collection Clearance Officer, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25882 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[GX25DJ70GY10000; OMB Control Number 1028-NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: U.S. Geological Survey Generic Clearance for Water Availability Data Collections</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Department of the Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is proposing a new information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to U.S. Geological Survey, Information Collections Officer, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive MS 159, Reston, VA 20192; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">gs-info_collections@usgs.gov</E>
                        . Please reference Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 1028-NEW in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Katrina Alger by email at 
                        <E T="03">kalger@usgs.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at 608-828-9901. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), all information collections require approval.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88303"/>
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Water information is fundamental to national and local economic well-being, protection of life and property, and effective management of the Nation's water resources. The USGS works with partners to monitor, assess, conduct targeted research, and deliver information on a wide range of water resources and conditions, as mandated by the SECURE Water Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-11, title IX, subtitle F of the Omnibus Public Land Management Act of 2009). This legislation emphasizes the need for updated, reliable data to support water resource planning and management, and specifically directs the USGS to improve assessments and forecasts of water availability, defined as “the balance between water supply and demand, as determined using a set of core components of water quality, quantity, and use.” This generic clearance will centralize administration of USGS public data collections in the topic area of water availability—encompassing both the supply and demand aspects, as well as water quality, access, and usage patterns—and allow for more systematic and timely collections that will benefit new and ongoing research programs within the Water Resources Mission Area.
                </P>
                <P>The USGS plans a variety of qualitative and quantitative data collection methods under this clearance, which may include surveys, interviews, and focus groups. The exact nature of the instruments and samples is dependent on each individual project and details will be provided for each individual information collection request submitted, following OMB requirements. The bureau commits to ensuring that all collections are voluntary, minimally burdensome, noncontroversial, and only conducted with informed participant consent. All data collected will protect respondent privacy to the extent permitted by law, with a particular emphasis on protecting PII. Any information collected will not be used to influence policy decisions directly and will only be disseminated in aggregated or anonymized formats, adhering to strict guidelines for scientific integrity and privacy. Respondents will be informed of all planned data uses. Measures will be taken to minimize public burden to the greatest extent possible, including review and pre-testing of instruments to ensure clarity and relevance, and using electronic collection means whenever possible.</P>
                <P>The research anticipated under this request will be used to advance both the scientific understanding of our socio-hydrological system, and bureau priorities to integrate social science, decision science, and human-centered design more fully into Water Enterprise projects in a strategic, rigorous, and consistent way. Collection of this information supports the USGS by improving both national and regional assessments of water quantity, quality, and use, advancing scientific understanding of how water availability impacts different groups in different ways, informing product development to maximize the utility and usability of USGS water data, and framing future and ongoing research efforts within the Bureau. Outputs are likely to reduce costs and improve outcomes for both the bureau and the public by ensuring our science is conducted efficiently, effectively, and is serving its intended purpose.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     USGS Generic Clearance for Water Availability Data Collections.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, Federal, and Tribal governments; individuals or households; Universities, businesses, or other for-profit organizations; not-for-profit institutions;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     10,860.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies from 15 minutes to 2 hours, depending on information collection method.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     10,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     As needed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, nor is a person required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Joseph Nielsen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Integrated Information Dissemination Division, Water Resources Mission Area.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25840 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4338-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 731-TA-1186-1187 (Second Review)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Stilbenic Optical Brightening Agents From China and Taiwan; Scheduling of Expedited Five-Year Reviews</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of expedited reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty orders on stilbenic optical brightening agents from China and Taiwan would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>October 7, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie Duffy (202) 708-2579), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-
                        <PRTPAGE P="88304"/>
                        impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this proceeding may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —On October 7, 2024, the Commission determined that the domestic interested party group response to its notice of institution (89 FR 54525, July 1, 2024) of the subject five-year reviews was adequate and that the respondent interested party group responses were inadequate. The Commission did not find any other circumstances that would warrant conducting full reviews.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Commission determined that it would conduct expedited reviews pursuant to section 751(c)(3) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(3)).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         A record of the Commissioners' votes, the Commission's statement on adequacy, and any individual Commissioner's statements will be available from the Office of the Secretary and at the Commission's website.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Staff report.</E>
                    —A staff report containing information concerning the subject matter of the reviews has been placed in the nonpublic record, and will be made available to persons on the Administrative Protective Order service list for these reviews on January 22, 2025. A public version will be issued thereafter, pursuant to § 207.62(d)(4) of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —As provided in § 207.62(d) of the Commission's rules, interested parties that are parties to the reviews and that have provided individually adequate responses to the notice of institution,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any party other than an interested party to the reviews may file written comments with the Secretary on what determinations the Commission should reach in the reviews. Comments are due on or before 5:15 p.m. on January 30, 2025, and may not contain new factual information. Any person that is neither a party to the five-year reviews nor an interested party may submit a brief written statement (which shall not contain any new factual information) pertinent to the reviews by January 30, 2025. However, should the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) extend the time limit for its completion of the final results of its reviews, the deadline for comments (which may not contain new factual information) on Commerce's final results is three business days after the issuance of Commerce's results. If comments contain business proprietary information (BPI), they must conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission has found the response submitted on behalf of Archroma U.S., Inc. to be individually adequate. Comments from other interested parties will not be accepted (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         19 CFR 207.62(d)(2)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Determination.</E>
                    —The Commission has determined these reviews are extraordinarily complicated and therefore has determined to exercise its authority to extend the review period by up to 90 days pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(5)(B).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Act; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: November 4, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25904 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On November 1, 2024, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the District of Nebraska in the lawsuit entitled 
                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Black Hills Nebraska Gas, LLC, et al.,</E>
                     Civil Action No. 8:24-cv-425.
                </P>
                <P>The United States filed this lawsuit under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA). The United States' complaint names Black Hills Nebraska Gas, LLC; Brightspeed Kansas Holding, LLC; and Nebraska Public Power District as defendants. The complaint seeks response costs and injunctive relief to address releases of hazardous substances at the Iowa-Nebraska Light &amp; Power Company Superfund Site in Norfolk, Nebraska. Under the terms of the proposed consent decree, the defendants will complete a cleanup action that EPA selected for the site, which will include in-place treatment of contamination accompanied by environmental monitoring. The defendants will also be responsible for reimbursing EPA for costs incurred in reviewing the work. In return, the United States agrees not to sue the defendants under sections 106 and 107 of CERCLA.</P>
                <P>
                    The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to 
                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Black Hills Nebraska Gas, LLC, et al.,</E>
                     D.J. Ref. No. 90-11-3-12784. All comments must be submitted no later than thirty (30) days after the publication date of this notice. Comments may be submitted either by email or by mail:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1" O="L">
                            <E T="03">To submit comments:</E>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1" O="L">
                            <E T="03">Send them to:</E>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">By email</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">pubcomment-ees.enrd@usdoj.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">By mail</ENT>
                        <ENT>Assistant Attorney General, U.S. DOJ—ENRD, P.O. Box 7611, Washington, DC 20044-7611.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Any comments submitted in writing may be filed by the United States in whole or in part on the public court docket without notice to the commenter.</P>
                <P>
                    During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/enrd/consent-decrees.</E>
                     If you require assistance accessing the Consent Decree, you may request assistance by email or by mail to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88305"/>
                    addresses provided above for submitting comments.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kathryn C. Macdonald,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Section Chief, Environmental Enforcement Section, Environment and Natural Resources Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25858 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2022-0011]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health (MACOSH): Request for Nominations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for nominations.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA invites interested persons to submit nominations for membership on the Maritime Advisory Committee on Occupational Safety and Health (MACOSH).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Nominations for MACOSH membership must be submitted by January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit nominations and supporting materials, including attachments, electronically at: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the online instructions for submitting nominations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        OSHA will post submissions in response to this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice, including personal information, in the public docket, which is available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download submissions or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         All documents in the public docket are listed in the index; however, some documents (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) are not publicly available to read or download through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone: (202) 693-1999; email:
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General information and technical inquiries:</E>
                         Ms. Amy Wangdahl, Director, Office of Maritime and Agriculture, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone (202) 693-2066; email: 
                        <E T="03">wangdahl.amy@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Secretary of Labor (Secretary) invites interested persons to submit nominations for membership on MACOSH.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>MACOSH (Committee) was established by Section 7(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651, 656) to advise the Secretary of Labor through the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health (Assistant Secretary) in formulating maritime industry standards and regarding matters pertaining to the administration of the OSH Act related to the maritime industry. MACOSH is a non-discretionary advisory committee of indefinite duration (see section 3510 of the National Defense Authorization Act of 2020 (Pub. L. 116-92)).</P>
                <P>
                    MACOSH operates in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (5 U.S.C. 1001, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), its implementing regulations (41 CFR 102-3), and OSHA's regulations on advisory committees (29 CFR part 1912). Pursuant to section 14 of FACA (5 U.S.C. 1013(b)(2)), the MACOSH charter must be renewed every two years.
                </P>
                <P>The Committee meets approximately two times per year. Committee members serve without compensation, but OSHA provides travel and per diem expenses. Members serve a two-year term, which begins from the date of appointment by the Secretary of Labor. The terms of all current MACOSH members will expire on April 13, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. MACOSH Membership</HD>
                <P>MACOSH consists of not more than 15 members appointed by the Secretary of Labor. The agency seeks committed members who have a strong interest in the safety and health of workers in the maritime industries. The U.S. Department of Labor is committed to equal opportunity in the workplace. The Secretary of Labor will appoint members to create a broad-based, balanced, and diverse committee reflecting the shipyard, longshoring, and commercial fishing industries, and representing affected interests such as employers, employees, safety and health professional organizations, government organizations with interests or activities related to the maritime industry, academia, and the public.</P>
                <P>
                    Nominations of new members, or resubmissions of current or former members, will be accepted in all categories of membership. Interested persons may nominate themselves or submit the name of another person whom they believe to be interested in and qualified to serve on MACOSH. Nominations may also be submitted by organizations from one of the categories listed above (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     employer, employee, public, safety and health professional organization, state safety and health agency, academia).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Submission Requirements</HD>
                <P>Any individual or organization may nominate one or more qualified persons for membership on MACOSH. Nominations must include the following information:</P>
                <P>(1) The nominee's name, contact information, and current employment or position;</P>
                <P>(2) The nominee's resume or curriculum vitae, including prior membership on MACOSH and other relevant organizations and associations;</P>
                <P>
                    (3) The maritime industry interest (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     employer, employee, public, safety and health professional organization, state safety and health agency, academia) that the nominee is qualified to represent;
                </P>
                <P>(4) A summary of the background, experience, and qualifications that addresses the nominee's suitability for membership; and</P>
                <P>(5) A statement that the nominee is aware of the nomination, is willing to regularly attend and participate in MACOSH meetings, and has no conflicts of interest that would preclude membership on MACOSH.</P>
                <P>OSHA will conduct a basic background check of candidates before their appointment to MACOSH. The background check will involve accessing publicly available, internet-based sources.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Member Selection</HD>
                <P>
                    The Secretary of Labor will select MACOSH members based on their experience, knowledge, and competence in the field of occupational safety and health, particularly in the maritime industries. Information received through this nomination process, and other relevant sources of information, will assist the Secretary of Labor in appointing members to MACOSH. In selecting MACOSH members, the Secretary of Labor will consider individuals nominated in response to this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, as well as other qualified individuals. OSHA will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88306"/>
                    publish a list of MACOSH members in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    James S. Frederick, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, authorized the preparation of this notice pursuant to the OSH Act, 29 U.S.C. 653, 655, and 656, FACA (5 U.S.C. 1001, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the implementing regulations (41 CFR 102-3), Department of Labor Manual Series Chapter 1-900 (March 25, 2022), OSHA's regulations on Advisory Committees (29 CFR part 1912), and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393, Sept. 18, 2020).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Signed at Washington, DC, on October 31, 2024.</P>
                    <NAME>James S. Frederick,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25828 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2010-0046]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>QPS Evaluation Services, Inc.: Application for Expansion of Recognition</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the application of QPS Evaluation Services, Inc., for expansion of the recognition as a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL) and presents the agency's preliminary finding to grant the application.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments, information, and documents in response to this notice, or requests for an extension of time to make a submission, on or before November 22, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be submitted as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments, including attachments, electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency's name and the docket number for this rulemaking (Docket No. OSHA-2010-0046). All comments, including any personal information you provide, are placed in the public docket without change and may be made available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting information they do not want made available to the public, or submitting materials that contain personal information (either about themselves or others), such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket (including this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice) are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Extension of comment period:</E>
                         Submit requests for an extension of the comment period on or before November 22, 2024 to the Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3653, Washington, DC 20210, or by fax to (202) 693-1644.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, phone: (202) 693-1999 or email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, phone: (202) 693-1911 or email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Notice of the Application for Expansion</HD>
                <P>OSHA is providing notice that QPS Evaluation Services, Inc. (QPS), is applying for expansion of the current recognition as a NRTL. QPS requests the addition of five test standards to the NRTL scope of recognition.</P>
                <P>OSHA's recognition of a NRTL signifies that the organization meets the requirements specified in 29 CFR 1910.7. Recognition is an acknowledgment that the organization can perform independent safety testing and certification of the specific products covered within the scope of recognition. Each NRTL's scope of recognition includes: (1) the type of products the NRTL may test, with each type specified by the applicable test standard; and (2) the recognized site(s) that has/have the technical capability to perform the product-testing and product-certification activities for test standards within the NRTL's scope. Recognition is not a delegation or grant of government authority; however, recognition enables employers to use products approved by the NRTL to meet OSHA standards that require product testing and certification.</P>
                <P>
                    The agency processes applications by a NRTL for initial recognition and for an expansion or renewal of this recognition, following requirements in Appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.7. This appendix requires that the agency publish two notices in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in processing an application. In the first notice, OSHA announces the application and provides a preliminary finding. In the second notice, the agency provides a final decision on the application. These notices set forth the NRTL's scope of recognition or modifications of that scope. OSHA maintains an informational web page for each NRTL, including QPS which details the NRTL's scope of recognition. These pages are available from the OSHA website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.osha.gov/dts/otpca/nrtl/index.html.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. General Background on the Application</HD>
                <P>QPS submitted an application to OSHA for expansion of the NRTL scope of recognition on February 13, 2024 (OSHA-2010-0046-0021), requesting the addition of five standards to the NRTL scope of recognition. OSHA staff performed a detailed analysis of the application packet and reviewed other pertinent information. OSHA did not perform an on-site review related to this application.</P>
                <P>Table 1, below, lists the appropriate test standards found in QPS's application for expansion for testing and certification of products under the NRTL Program.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="02" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs45,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Proposed Appropriate Test Standards for Inclusion in QPS's NRTL Scope of Recognition</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Test 
                            <LI>standard</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard title</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 22 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Amusement and Gaming Machines</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 751 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Vending Machines</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 1012 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Power Units Other Than Class 2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88307"/>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 891 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Standard for Switchboards</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ASME 17.5 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Elevator and Escalator Electrical Equipment</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Preliminary Findings on the Application</HD>
                <P>QPS submitted an acceptable application for expansion of the scope of recognition. OSHA's review of the application files and pertinent documentation indicates that QPS has met the requirements prescribed by 29 CFR 1910.7 for expanding the recognition to include the addition of the seven test standards for NRTL testing and certification listed in Table 1. This preliminary finding does not constitute an interim or temporary approval of QPS's application.</P>
                <P>OSHA seeks comment on this preliminary determination.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation</HD>
                <P>OSHA welcomes public comment as to whether QPS meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7 for expansion of recognition as a NRTL. Comments should consist of pertinent written documents and exhibits.</P>
                <P>Commenters needing more time to comment must submit a request in writing, stating the reasons for the request by the due date for comments. OSHA will limit any extension to 10 days unless the requester justifies a longer time period. OSHA may deny a request for an extension if it is not adequately justified.</P>
                <P>
                    To review copies of the exhibits identified in this notice, as well as comments submitted to the docket, contact the Docket Office, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. These materials also are generally available online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. OSHA-2010-0046 (for further information, see the “
                    <E T="02">Docket</E>
                    ” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>OSHA staff will review all comments to the docket submitted in a timely manner. After addressing the issues raised by these comments, staff will make a recommendation to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health on whether to grant QPS's application for expansion of the scope of recognition. The Assistant Secretary will make the final decision on granting the application. In making this decision, the Assistant Secretary may undertake other proceedings prescribed in Appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.7.</P>
                <P>
                    OSHA will publish a public notice of the final decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>James S. Frederick, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 657(g)(2), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393, Sept. 18, 2020), and 29 CFR 1910.7.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James S. Frederick,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25827 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">LEGAL SERVICES CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice to Legal Services Corporation Grantees of Application Process for Subgranting Special Grant Funds</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Legal Services Corporation (LSC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application dates and format for applications to make subgrants of LSC Special Grant Funds, including Technology Initiative Grant, Pro Bono Innovation Fund, and Disaster Relief Grant funds.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Legal Services Corporation is the national organization charged with administering Federal funds provided for civil legal services to low-income people. LSC hereby announces the submission dates for applications to make subgrants of its Special Grant funds. LSC is also providing information about where applicants may locate subgrant application questions and directions for providing the information required to apply for a subgrant.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">Supplementary Information</E>
                         section for application dates.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Legal Services Corporation—Office of Compliance and Enforcement, 1825 I Street NW, Suite 800, Washington, DC 20006.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Megan Lacchini, Office of Compliance and Enforcement at 
                        <E T="03">lacchinim@lsc.gov</E>
                         or (202) 295-1506, or visit the LSC website at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.lsc.gov/grants-grantee-resources/grantee-guidance/how-apply-subgrant.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under 45 CFR part 1627, LSC must publish, on an annual basis, “notice of the requirements concerning the format and contents of the application annually in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and on LSC's website.” 45 CFR 1627.4(b). This Notice and the publication of the Subgrant Application on LSC's website satisfy § 1627.4(b)'s notice requirement for LSC Special Grant programs. Only current or prospective recipients of LSC Special Grants may apply for approval to subgrant these funds.
                </P>
                <P>An applicant must submit an application to make a subgrant of LSC Special Grant funds at least 45 days in advance of the subgrant's proposed effective date. 45 CFR 1627.4(b)(2).</P>
                <P>All applicants must provide answers to the application questions in GrantEase and upload the following documents:</P>
                <P>• A draft subgrant agreement (with the required terms provided in LSC's Special Grant Subgrant Agreement Template); and</P>
                <P>• A subgrant budget (using LSC's Subgrant Budget Template)</P>
                <P>Applicants seeking to subgrant to a new subrecipient that is not a current LSC grantee or applying to renew a subgrant with an organization that is not a current LSC grantee in a year in which the applicant was not already required to submit the documents listed below as a part of an application to subgrant LSC Basic Field funds, must also upload:</P>
                <P>• The subrecipient's accounting manual;</P>
                <P>• The subrecipient's most recent audited financial statements;</P>
                <P>• The subrecipient's current cost allocation policy (if not in the accounting manual);</P>
                <P>• The recipient's 45 CFR part 1627 policy (required under 45 CFR 1627.7).</P>
                <P>
                    A list of subgrant application questions, the Special Grant Subgrant Agreement Template, and the Subgrant Budget Template are available on LSC's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.lsc.gov/grants-grantee-resources/grantee-guidance/how-apply-subgrant.</E>
                </P>
                <P>LSC encourages applicants to use LSC's Special Grant Subgrant Agreement Template as a model subgrant agreement. If the applicant does not use LSC's Template, the proposed agreement must include, at a minimum, the substance of the provisions of the Template.</P>
                <P>
                    Once submitted, LSC will evaluate the application and provide applicants with instructions on any needed modifications to the submitted documents or Draft Agreement provided with the application. The applicant must then upload a final and signed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88308"/>
                    subgrant agreement through GrantEase by the date requested.
                </P>
                <P>As required by 45 CFR 1627.4(b)(3), LSC will inform applicants of its decision to disapprove, approve, or request modifications to the subgrant no later than the subgrant's proposed effective date.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 42 U.S.C. 2996g(e).)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Stefanie Davis,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy General Counsel for Administrative Law and Regulatory Practice, Legal Services Corporation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25852 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7050-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">LEGAL SERVICES CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Pro Bono Innovation Fund Process for Submitting Pre-Applications for 2025 Grants</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Legal Services Corporation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Legal Services Corporation (LSC) issues this Notice describing the conditions for submitting a Pre-Application for 2025 Pro Bono Innovation Fund grants.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Pre-applications must be submitted by 11:59 p.m. EST on Friday, January 10, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Letters of Intent must be submitted electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://lscgrants.lsc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Katherine Harris, Special Grant Program Coordinator, Office of Program Performance, Legal Services Corporation, 1825 I Street NW, Suite 800, Washington, DC 20006; (202) 295-1572 or 
                        <E T="03">harrisk@lsc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    Since 2014, Congress has provided an annual appropriation to LSC “for a Pro Bono Innovation Fund.” 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, 136 Stat. 4553 (2022). LSC requested these funds for grants to “develop, test, and replicate innovative pro bono efforts that can enable LSC grantees to expand clients' access to high quality legal assistance.” LSC Budget Request, Fiscal Year 2014 at 26 (2013). The grants must involve innovations that are either “new ideas” or “new applications of existing best practices.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Each grant would “either serve as a model for other legal services providers to follow or effectively replicate a prior innovation.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     The Senate Appropriations Committee explained that these funds “will support innovative projects that promote and enhance pro bono initiatives throughout the Nation,” and the House Appropriations Committee directed LSC “to increase the involvement of private attorneys in the delivery of legal services to [LSC-eligible] clients.” Senate Report 114-239 at 123 (2016), House Report 113-448 at 85 (2014).
                </P>
                <P>Since its inception, the Pro Bono Innovation Fund has advanced LSC's goal of increasing the quantity and quality of legal services by funding projects that more efficiently and effectively involve pro bono volunteers in serving the critical unmet legal needs of LSC-eligible clients. PBIF has four funding categories that are described in further detail below: Planning, Project, Sustainability, and Transformation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Funding Opportunities Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Eligible Applicants</HD>
                <P>To be eligible for PBIF grants, Applicants must be current grantees of LSC Basic Field-General, Basic Field-Migrant, or Basic Field-Native American grants. To qualify for a Sustainability Grant, Applicants must also have a 2023 PBIF Project Grant.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Pro Bono Innovation Fund Purpose and Key Goals</HD>
                <P>PBIF grants develop, test, and replicate innovative pro bono efforts that can enable LSC grantees to use pro bono volunteers to serve larger numbers of low-income clients and improve the quality and effectiveness of the services provided. The key goals of the Pro Bono Innovation Fund are to:</P>
                <P>1. Address gaps in the delivery of legal services to low-income people;</P>
                <P>2. Engage more lawyers and other volunteers in pro bono service;</P>
                <P>3. Develop, test, and replicate innovative pro bono efforts.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Funding Categories</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Planning Grants</HD>
                <P>Planning Grants provide organizations with a one-time grant to complete an assessment of their pro bono program and develop a plan to build or revitalize their pro bono delivery system. Planning Grants have a 6-month term.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Project Grants</HD>
                <P>Project Grants aim to leverage volunteers to meet a critical, unmet and well-defined client need. Consistent with the key goals of PBIF, Applicants are encouraged to focus on engaging volunteers to increase free civil legal aid for low-income Americans by proposing new, replicable ideas.</P>
                <P>Applicants are strongly encouraged to research prior PBIF projects to replicate and improve upon them. LSC is particularly interested in applications that propose to replicate projects LSC has previously funded with “Sustainability” Grants. Project Grants can be either 18 or 24 months.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Sustainability Grants</HD>
                <P>Sustainability Grants are available to current PBIF grantees who received a 2023 Project Grant. Sustainability Grants provide the most promising and replicable PBIF projects with an additional 24 months of funding so grantees can leverage new sources of revenue for the project and collect meaningful data to demonstrate the project's results and outcomes for clients and volunteers. Applicants for Sustainability Grants are asked to propose an ambitious strategy that reduces the Pro Bono Innovation Fund contribution to the project over the Sustainability Grant term. Sustainability Grants have a 24-month term.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Transformation Grants</HD>
                <P>Transformation Grants aim to support LSC grantees in the comprehensive assessment and restructuring of their pro bono programs using best practices in pro bono delivery. Each Transformation Grant will support a rigorous assessment of a grantee's pro bono program and identify best practices in pro bono delivery suited to that grantee's needs and circumstances. Transformation Grants are for LSC grantees whose leadership is committed to restructuring their pro bono delivery system to create a high-impact pro bono program now. Transformation Grants can have either a 24- or 36-month term.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Available Funds for 2025 Grants</HD>
                <P>The amount of funds available for PBIF Grants for FY2025 depends on LSC's final appropriation. LSC currently operates under a Continuing Resolution for FY2025, which funds the Federal government through December 20, 2024. The Continuing Resolution maintains funding for PBIF at $5,000,000. LSC will make PBIF grant decisions for FY2025 in the summer of 2025. LSC anticipates publicizing the total amount available for Pro Bono Innovation Fund grants when Congress enacts the FY2025 appropriation.</P>
                <P>LSC will not designate fixed or estimated amounts for the four different funding categories and will make grant awards for the three categories within the total amount of funding available.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Grant Terms</HD>
                <P>
                    Pro Bono Innovation Fund awards can have grant terms of 6, 18, 24, or 36 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88309"/>
                    months, depending on the category of grant.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">6 Months</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">12 Months</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">18 Months</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">24 Months</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">36 Months</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Planning Grants</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project Grants</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Transformation Grants</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Sustainability Grants</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>✓</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Applicants for Planning Grants can apply for a 6-month grant. Applicants for Project Grants can apply for either an 18- or a 24-month grant. Applicants for Transformation Grants can apply for either a 24- or a 36-month grant. Applicants for Sustainability Grants can apply for a 24-month grant only. The grant activities described in the application must cover the full proposed grant term which commences on October 1, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Grant Application Process</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Pro Bono Innovation Fund Grant Application Process</HD>
                <P>The PBIF application process is administered in LSC's unified grants management system, GrantEase. Applicants must first submit a Pre-Application to LSC in GrantEase by January 16, 2024, to be considered for a grant. After review by LSC Staff, LSC's President decides which applicants will be asked to submit a full application. Applicants will be notified of approval to submit a full application by early March 2025. Full applications are due to LSC in the GrantEase system on May 5, 2025. Once received, full applications will undergo a rigorous review by LSC staff and other subject matter experts. LSC's President makes the final decision on funding for the Pro Bono Innovation Fund.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Late or Incomplete Applications</HD>
                <P>
                    LSC may consider a request to submit a Pre-Application after the deadline, but only if the Applicant has submitted an email to 
                    <E T="03">probonoinnovation@lsc.gov</E>
                     explaining the circumstances that caused the delay prior to the Pre-Application deadline. Communication with LSC staff, including assigned LSC Special Grant staff members, is not a substitute for sending a formal request and explanation to 
                    <E T="03">probonoinnovation@lsc.gov.</E>
                     At its discretion, LSC may consider incomplete applications. LSC will determine the admissibility of late or incomplete applications on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Multiple Pre-Applications</HD>
                <P>Applicants may submit multiple Pre-applications under the same or different funding category. If applying for multiple grants, applicants should submit separate Pre-applications for each funding request.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Additional Information and Guidelines</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional guidance and instructions on the Pro Bono Innovation Fund Pre-Application and Application processes, will be available and regularly updated at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.lsc.gov/grants-grantee-resources/our-grant-programs/pro-bono-innovation-fund.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 42 U.S.C. 2996g(e))</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Stefanie Davis,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy General Counsel for Administrative Law and Regulatory Practice, Legal Services Corporation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25853 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7050-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">OFFICE OF MANAGEMENT AND BUDGET</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Draft Report to Congress on the Benefits and Costs of Federal Regulations and Agency Compliance With the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Management and Budget, Executive Office of the President.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) requests comments on its Draft Report to Congress on the Benefits and Costs of Federal Regulations and Agency Compliance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, available at 
                        <E T="03">www.whitehouse.gov/omb/information-regulatory-affairs/reports.</E>
                         The Draft Report is divided into two parts, the first of which is further divided into several chapters. Part I, chapter I examines the benefits and costs of major Federal regulations issued in fiscal year 2023. Part I, chapter II discusses regulatory impacts on State, local, and Tribal governments, small business, wages and employment, and economic growth. Part I, chapter III offers recommendations for regulatory reform. Part II summarizes agency compliance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act. OMB requests that comments be submitted electronically to OMB by December 9, 2024, through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         using Docket ID OMB-2024-0012.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration of comments as OMB prepares this Draft Report for submission to Congress, comments must be in writing and received by December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov:</E>
                         Direct comments to Docket ID OMB-2024-0012.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 395-7285.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, 9th Floor, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503. To ensure that your comments are received timely, we recommend that comments on this draft report be electronically submitted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act Statement:</E>
                         OMB is issuing this draft report pursuant to its authorities under the Regulatory Right to Know Act, Public Law 106-554, title IV, sec. 624. Your submission of comments is voluntary. OMB will use your feedback to inform sound decision making regarding this report. Please note that submissions received in response to this notice may be posted in the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or otherwise released in their entirety, including any personal and business confidential information provided. Do not include in your submissions any information of a confidential nature, such as personal or proprietary information, or any information you would not like to be made publicly available. The OMB System of Records Notice, OMB Public Input System of Records, OMB/INPUT/01, at 88 FR 20913 (
                        <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov/documents/2023/04/07/2023-07452/privacy-act-of-1974-system-of-records</E>
                        ) includes a list of routine uses associated with the collection of this information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For general inquiries email: MBX.OMB.OIRA.BC_Report_Questions@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <PRTPAGE P="88310"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Congress directed the Office of Management and Budget to prepare an annual Report to Congress on the Benefits and Costs of Federal Regulations. Specifically, section 624 of title IV of the FY 2001 Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, also known as the “Regulatory Right-to-Know Act” (the Act), requires OMB to submit a report on the benefits and costs of Federal regulations together with recommendations for reform. The Act states that the report should contain estimates of the costs and benefits of regulations in the aggregate, by agency and agency program, and by major rule, as well as an analysis of impacts of Federal regulation on State, local, and Tribal governments, small businesses, wages, and economic growth. The Act also states that the report should be subject to notice and comment and peer review. OIRA requests public comments on the report in general, including its substance and format; how to improve transparency and accountability with respect to the effects of regulation; and the various recommendations for reform.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Richard Revesz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25859 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. C2024-13; Presiding Officer's Ruling No. 4]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Complaint</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is providing notice that a prehearing videoconference is being scheduled and setting a deadline to file a notice of intervention. This notice also sets out additional case management procedures.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Live WebEx Videoconference:</E>
                         January 16, 2025, at 10 a.m., eastern daylight time, virtual; 
                        <E T="03">Notice of Intervention due:</E>
                         December 2, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit notices of intervention electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Persons interested in intervening who cannot submit their views electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</E>
                         David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Procedural Schedule</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Ruling</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Procedural Schedule</HD>
                <P>The deadline to file a notice of intervention pursuant to 39 CFR 3010.142 is December 2, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Order No. 7507, the Presiding Officer shall conduct limited discovery for the purpose of determining disputed issues of fact in this case.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The parties may request that the Presiding Officer obtain specific discovery but may not independently propound discovery on each other. Order No. 7507 at 12. The parties shall email their initial information requests to the Presiding Officer (and cc'ing the other party) no later than 
                    <E T="03">Thursday, December 12, 2024, at 5:00 p.m.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Order Partially Denying United States Postal Service's Motion to Dismiss and Notice of Limited Formal Proceedings, September 12, 2024, at 12 (Order No. 7507).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A prehearing videoconference is scheduled to be conducted before the Presiding Officer on 
                    <E T="03">January 16, 2025, at 10:00 a.m.</E>
                     Among other things, this videoconference will discuss procedures for the presentation of evidence and legal arguments, the need for any additional information requests, as well as the resolution of any pending discovery-related disputes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Additional Case Management Procedures</HD>
                <P>
                    The parties must make a good faith effort to confer with the opposing party to attempt to resolve any discovery dispute before filing any motions related to discovery. The Presiding Officer will not entertain a motion to compel discovery, motion for sanctions, motion for protective order, or any other discovery motions until this good faith effort has been made. If this good faith effort is unsuccessful, the motion shall (1) state that a good faith effort has been made to resolve the dispute, (2) attach each disputed discovery request, answer, and objection (if applicable), (3) provide available dates and times for a hearing to be conducted by videoconference, and (4) concisely state the relief sought, the basis therefor, and the authority relied upon. Any party opposing the motion shall file a response no later than 7 days after the motion is filed. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3010.160(b).
                </P>
                <P>The Presiding Officer may waive or modify the terms of his order for good cause shown.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Ruling</HD>
                <P>1. The deadline to file a notice of intervention pursuant to 39 CFR 3010.142 is December 2, 2024.</P>
                <P>2. A prehearing videoconference will be conducted before the Presiding Officer on January 16, 2025, at 10:00 a.m.</P>
                <P>3. The parties and counsel shall follow the procedural schedule and case management procedures established by this Presiding Officer's Ruling.</P>
                <P>
                    4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this ruling (or abstract thereof) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erica A. Barker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25831 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. CP2021-131; CP2023-45; MC2025-230; K2025-228; MC2025-231; K2025-229; MC2025-232; K2025-230; MC2025-233; K2025-231; MC2025-234; K2025-232; MC2025-235; K2025-233; MC2025-236; K2025-234; MC2025-237; K2025-235; MC2025-238; K2025-236; MC2025-239; K2025-237; MC2025-240; K2025-238; MC2025-241; K2025-239; MC2025-242; K2025-240; MC2025-243; K2025-241; MC2025-244; K2025-242; MC2025-245; K2025-243; MC2025-246; K2025-244; MC2025-247; K2025-245; MC2025-248; K2025-246; MC2025-249; K2025-247; MC2025-250; K2025-248; MC2025-251; K2025-249; MC2025-252; K2025-250]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         November 8, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">
                    SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
                    <PRTPAGE P="88311"/>
                </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Public Proceeding(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     CP2021-131; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     Request of the United States Postal Service Concerning Modification Three to Global Reseller Expedited Package 2 Negotiated Service Agreement, Which Includes an Extension of that Agreement; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 CFR 3035.105, 39 CFR 3041.505, and 39 CFR 3041.515; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     CP2023-45; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request Concerning Amendment Four to Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 4, Filed Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 CFR 3035.105, 39 CFR 3041.310, and 39 CFR 3041.505; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-230 and K2025-228; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 591 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-231 and K2025-229; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 592 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-232 and K2025-230; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 593 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Elsie Lee-Robbins; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-233 and K2025-231; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 594 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Elsie Lee-Robbins; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-234 and K2025-232; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 424 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Samuel Robinson; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-235 and K2025-233; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 595 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-236 and K2025-234; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 596 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Elsie Lee-Robbins; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-237 and K2025-235; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 597 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-238 and K2025-236; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 598 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88312"/>
                    Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-239 and K2025-237; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 425 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-240 and K2025-238; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 599 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jana Slovinska; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-241 and K2025-239; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 426 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-242 and K2025-240; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 600 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    16. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-243 and K2025-241; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 601 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    17. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-244 and K2025-242; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 602 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    18. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-245 and K2025-243; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 603 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    19. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-246 and K2025-244; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 427 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    20. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-247 and K2025-245; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 604 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    21. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-248 and K2025-246; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 605 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Alain Brou; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    22. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-249 and K2025-247; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 606 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    23. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-250 and K2025-248; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 607 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Alain Brou; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    24. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-251 and K2025-249; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 608 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    25. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-252 and K2025-250; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 609 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 31, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 8, 2024.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    None. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Section II for public proceedings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erica A. Barker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25861 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. CP2023-21; MC2025-189 and K2025-187; MC2025-190 and K2025-188; MC2025-191 and K2025-189; MC2025-192 and K2025-190; MC2025-193 and K2025-191; MC2025-194 and K2025-192; MC2025-195 and K2025-193; MC2025-196 and K2025-194; MC2025-197 and K2025-195; MC2025-198 and K2025-196; MC2025-199 and K2025-197; MC2025-200 and K2025-198; MC2025-201 and K2025-199; MC2025-202 and K2025-200; MC2025-203 and K2025-201; MC2025-204 and K2025-202; MC2025-205 and K2025-203; MC2025-206 and K2025-204; MC2025-207 and K2025-205; MC2025-208 and K2025-206; MC2025-209 and K2025-207; MC2025-210 and K2025-208; MC2025-211 and K2025-209]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88313"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         November 6, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Public Proceeding(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).: Docket No(s).:</E>
                     CP2023-21; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     Request of the United States Postal Service Concerning Modification Two to Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 9, which Includes an Extension of that Agreement; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 CFR 3035.105, 39 CFR 3041.505, and 39 CFR 3041.515; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-189 and K2025-187; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 562 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-190 and K2025-188; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 563 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-191 and K2025-189; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 564 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-192 and K2025-190; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 565 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Samuel Robinson; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-193 and K2025-191; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 566 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-194 and K2025-192; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 567 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-195 and K2025-193; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 568 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-196 and K2025-194; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88314"/>
                    Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 569 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-197 and K2025-195; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 570 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-198 and K2025-196; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 571 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-199 and K2025-197; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 572 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-200 and K2025-198; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 413 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-201 and K2025-199; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 414 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-202 and K2025-200; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 415 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    16. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-203 and K2025-201; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 416 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Samuel Robinson; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    17. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-204 and K2025-202; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 573 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    18. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-205 and K2025-203; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 574 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    19. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-206 and K2025-204; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 575 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    20. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-207 and K2025-205; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 576 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    21. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-208 and K2025-206; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 577 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jana Slovinska; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    22. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-209 and K2025-207; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 578 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Samuel Robinson; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    23. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-210 and K2025-208; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 579 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Samuel Robinson; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    24. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-211 and K2025-209; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 417 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     October 29, 2024; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     November 6, 2024.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    None. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Section II for public proceedings.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        This Notice will be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <NAME>Erica A. Barker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25841 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="88315"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-101500; File No. SR-ISE-2024-51]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Increase the Exchange's SQF Fees in Options 7, Section 7.C</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>November 1, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on October 18, 2024, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to increase the Exchange's port fees in Options 7, Section 7.C.</P>
                <P>While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on January 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/ise/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposed rule change is to increase the Exchange's connectivity fees in Options 7, Section 7.C for the Specialized Quote Feed (“SQF”) Ports 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and SQF Purge Ports 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by 10%.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         “Specialized Quote Feed” or “SQF” is an interface that allows Market Makers to connect, send, and receive messages related to quotes, Immediate-or-Cancel Orders, and auction responses to the Exchange. Features include the following: (1) options symbol directory messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         underlying instruments); (2) System event messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         start of trading hours messages and start of opening); (3) trading action messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         halts and resumes); (4) execution messages; (5) quote messages; (6) Immediate-or-Cancel Order messages; (7) risk protection triggers and purge notifications; (8) opening imbalance messages; (9) auction notifications; and (10) auction responses. Market Makers may only enter interest into SQF in their assigned options series. Immediate-or-Cancel Orders entered into SQF are not subject to the Order Price Protection, Market Order Spread Protection, and Size Limitation Protection in Options 3, Section 15(a)(1)(A), (1)(B), and (2)(B) respectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The SQF Purge Interface only receives and notifies of purge requests from the Market Maker. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Options 7, Section 7.C(i) includes the Exchange's fees that relate to the SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports that Market Makers 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     use to connect to the Exchange. Today, the Exchange assesses all Market Makers an SQF Port fee of $1,100 per port per month and an SQF Purge Port Fee of $1,100 per port per month. The Exchange now proposes to increase the foregoing fees by 10% so that the amended SQF Port and amended SQF Purge Port fees would each become $1,210 per port per month.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Market Makers” refers to “Competitive Market Makers” and “Primary Market Makers” collectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(21).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed fee increases would enable the Exchange to maintain and improve its market technology and services to remain competitive with its peers. Over the years, customer demand for risk protections and capacity has increased. The Exchange continues to invest in maintaining, improving, and enhancing its protocols like SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers. Such enhancements include refreshing hardware, upgrading risk protections and information security, and offering customers additional capacity. Nevertheless, the Exchange has not increased the fees for SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports since 2017 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (where inflation has been around 14.6%, as measured using the metric described below). Nevertheless, the Exchange proposes to increase its fees by only 10%.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 81882 (October 16, 2017), 82 FR 48865 (October 20, 2017) (SR-ISE-2017-87).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed below, the Exchange proposes to adjust its fees by an industry- and product-specific inflationary measure. It is reasonable and consistent with the Act for the Exchange to recoup its investments, at least in part, by adjusting its fees. Continuing to operate at fees frozen at 2017 levels impacts the Exchange's ability to enhance its offerings and the interests of market participants and investors.</P>
                <P>
                    The fee increases the Exchange proposes are based on an industry-specific Producer Price Index (“PPI”), which is a tailored measure of inflation.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a general matter, the Producer Price Index is a family of indexes that measures the average change over time in selling prices received by domestic producers of goods and services. PPI measures price change from the perspective of the seller. This contrasts with other metrics, such as the Consumer Price Index (“CPI”), that measure price change from the purchaser's perspective.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     About 10,000 PPIs for individual products and groups of products are tracked and released each month.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     PPIs are available for the output of nearly all industries in the goods-producing sectors of the U.S. economy—mining, manufacturing, agriculture, fishing, and forestry—as well as natural gas, electricity, and construction, among others. The PPI program covers approximately 69 percent of the service sector's output, as measured by revenue reported in the 2017 Economic Census.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/overview.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For purposes of this proposal, the relevant industry-specific PPI is the Hosting, Active Server Pages, and Other IT Infrastructure Provisioning Services (“Data PPI”) within the Data Processing and Related Services Industry, which is an industry net-output PPI that measures the average change in selling prices received by companies that provide data processing services.</P>
                <P>
                    The Data Processing and Related Services Industry was introduced to the PPI in January 2002 by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) as part of an ongoing effort to expand Producer Price Index coverage of the services sector of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88316"/>
                    the U.S. economy and is identified as NAICS—518210 in the North American Industry Classification System.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the BLS “[t]he primary output of NAICS 518210 is the provision of electronic data processing services. In the broadest sense, computer services companies help their customers efficiently use technology. The processing services market consists of vendors who use their own computer systems—often utilizing proprietary software—to process customers' transactions and data. Companies that offer processing services collect, organize, and store a customer's transactions and other data for record-keeping purposes. Price movements for the NAICS 518210 index are based on changes in the revenue received by companies that provide data processing services. Each month, companies provide net transaction prices for a specified service. The transaction is an actual contract selected by probability, where the price-determining characteristics are held constant while the service is repriced. The prices used in index calculation are the actual prices billed for the selected service contract.” 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/factsheets/producer-price-index-for-the-data-processing-and-related-servicesindustry-naics-518210.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI is the most appropriate subset of the Data Processing and Related Services Industry to be considered in the context of the proposed pricing changes because the Exchange uses its “own computer systems” and “proprietary software,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     its own data center and proprietary matching engine software, respectively, to receive options quotes on the Exchange's proprietary trading platform.
                </P>
                <P>For purposes of this proposed rule change, the Exchange examined the Data PPI value for the period from October 2017 to August 2024. The Data PPI had a starting value of 101.6 in October 2017 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 14.6% increase. This data indicates that companies who are also in the data storage and processing business have generally increased prices for a specified service covered under NAICS 518210 by an average of 14.6% during this period. Based on that percentage change, the Exchange proposes to make a one-time fee increase of only 10%, which reflects an increase covering roughly the entire period since the last price adjustments to these fees were made.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes the Data PPI is an appropriate measure for purposes of the proposed rule change on the basis that it is a stable metric with limited volatility, unlike other consumer-side inflation metrics. In fact, the Data PPI has not experienced a greater than 2.16% increase for any one calendar year period since Data PPI was introduced into the PPI in January 2002. The average calendar year change from January 2002 to December 2023 was .62%, with a cumulative increase of 15.67% over this 21-year period. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is considerably less volatile than other inflation metrics such as CPI, which has had individual calendar-year increases of more than 6.5%, and a cumulative increase of over 73% over the same period.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.usinflationcalculator.com/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI, and significant investments into, and enhanced performance of, the Exchange support the reasonableness of the proposed fee increases.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         discussion of SQF Port and SQF Purge Port enhancements. Additionally, other exchanges have filed for increases in certain fees, based in part on comparisons to inflation. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 34-100004 (April 22, 2024), 89 FR 32465 (April 26, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-012); and 34-100398 (June 21, 2024), 89 FR 53676 (June 27, 2024) (SR-BOX-2024-16)l; Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-100994 (September 10, 2024), 89 FR 75612 (September 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-79).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This belief is based on two factors. First, the current fees do not properly reflect the quality of the SQF and SQF Purge Ports, as fees for these offerings have been static in nominal terms, and therefore falling in real terms due to inflation. Second, the Exchange believes that investments made in enhancing the risk protections and capacity of SQF and SQF Purge Ports has increased the performance of these offerings.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Rule Change Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Exchange has not increased any of the fees included in the proposal since 2017. However, in the years following the last fee increases, the Exchange has made significant investments in upgrades to its SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, enhancing the quality of its services, as measured by, among other things, increased capacity. In other words, Exchange customers have greatly benefitted, while the Exchange's ability to recoup its investments has been hampered. Between 2017 and 2024, the inflation rate is 3.66% per year, on average, producing a cumulative inflation rate of 28.63%.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Using the more targeted inflation number of Data PPI, the cumulative inflation rate was around 14.6%. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is a reasonable metric to base this fee increase on because it is targeted to producer-side increases in the data processing industry, which based on the definition adopted by BLS would include the Exchange's port offerings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.officialdata.org/us/inflation/2017?amount=1.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Notwithstanding inflation, as noted above, the Exchange has not increased its fees at all for seven years for the SQF and SQF Purge Ports. The proposed fee changes represent a modest increase from the current fees. The Exchange believes the proposed fee increase is reasonable in light of the Exchange's continued expenditure in maintaining a robust technology ecosystem. Furthermore, the Exchange continues to invest in maintaining and enhancing its port products—for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers and global investors. Such enhancements include refreshing several aspects of the technology ecosystem including software, hardware, and network while introducing new and innovative products. The goal of the enhancements discussed above, among other things, is to provide more modern connectivity to the match engine. Accordingly, the Exchange continues to expend resources to innovate and modernize its technology so that it may benefit its members in offering SQF and SQF Purge Ports.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fees Are Equitably Allocated and Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges because Exchange fees have fallen in real terms during the relevant period. The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply uniformly to all Market Makers 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88317"/>
                    that subscribe to SQF and SQF Purge Ports to quote on the Exchange. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Unlike other market participants, Market Makers are subject to market making and quoting obligations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Sections 4 and 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed pricing changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intra-Market Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees do not put any market participants at a relative disadvantage compared to other market participants. As noted above, the Exchange would apply the proposed 10% increase to the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees to all Market Makers uniformly. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange. These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intermarket Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees do not impose a burden on intermarket competition or on other SROs that is not necessary or appropriate. In determining the proposed fees, the Exchange utilized an objective and stable metric with limited volatility. Utilizing Data PPI over a specified period of time is a reasonable means of recouping the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing its port offerings such as the SQF and SQF Purge Ports. The Exchange believes utilizing Data PPI, a tailored measure of inflation, to increase the fees for the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port, to recoup the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing such offerings would not impose a burden on intermarket competition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-ISE-2024-51 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2024-51. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2024-51 and should be submitted on or before November 28, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25835 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-101503; File No. SR-NYSEARCA-2024-88]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of the FM Compounders Equity ETF Under Rule 8.900-E (Managed Portfolio Shares)</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>November 1, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on October 24, 2024, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="88318"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares of the following under Rule 8.900-E (Managed Portfolio Shares): FM Compounders Equity ETF. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    NYSE Arca Rule 8.900-E permits the listing and trading, or trading pursuant to unlisted trading privileges, of Managed Portfolio Shares, which are securities issued by an actively managed open-end investment management company.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 8.900-E(b)(1) requires the Exchange to file separate proposals under Section 19(b) of the Act before listing and trading any series of Managed Portfolio Shares on the Exchange. Therefore, the Exchange is submitting this proposal in order to list and trade Managed Portfolio Shares of the FM Compounders Equity ETF (the “Fund”) under Rule 8.900-E.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(1) provides that the term “Managed Portfolio Share” means a security that (a) represents an interest in an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Investment Company”) organized as an open-end management investment company that invests in a portfolio of securities selected by the Investment Company's investment adviser consistent with the Investment Company's investment objectives and policies; (b) is issued in a Creation Unit, or multiples thereof, in return for a designated portfolio of instruments (and/or an amount of cash) with a value equal to the next determined net asset value and delivered to the Authorized Participant (as defined in the Investment Company's Form N-1A filed with the Commission) through a Confidential Account; (c) when aggregated into a Redemption Unit, or multiples thereof, may be redeemed for a designated portfolio of instruments (and/or an amount of cash) with a value equal to the next determined net asset value delivered to the Confidential Account for the benefit of the Authorized Participant; and (d) the portfolio holdings for which are disclosed within at least 60 days following the end of every fiscal quarter.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission has previously approved 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and noticed for immediate effectiveness 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     listing and trading on the Exchange of Managed Portfolio Shares under NYSE Arca Rule 8.900-E.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 89663 (August 25, 2020), 85 FR 53868 (August 31, 2020) (SR-NYSEArca-2020-48) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To List and Trade Shares of Gabelli ETFs Under Rule 8.900-E, Managed Portfolio Shares); 90528 (November 30, 2020), 85 FR 78389 (December 4, 2020) (SR-NYSEArca-2020-80) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, To List and Trade Shares of Alger Mid Cap 40 ETF and Alger 25 ETF Under Rule 8.900-E); and 90683 (December 16, 2020), 85 FR 83665 (December 22, 2020) (SR-NYSEArca-2020-94) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendments No. 1 and No. 2, To List and Trade Shares of the AdvisorShares Q Portfolio Blended Allocation ETF and AdvisorShares Q Dynamic Growth ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.900-E).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 92349 (July 19, 2021), 86 FR 39084 (July 23, 2021) (SR-NYSEArca-2021-54) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to List and Trade Shares of the Cambiar Large Cap ETF, Cambiar Small Cap ETF and Cambiar SMID ETF); 94569 (March 31, 2022), 87 FR 19990 (April 6, 2022) (SR-NYSEARCA-2022-16) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to List and Trade Shares of the DoubleLine Shiller CAPE U.S. Equities ETF under Rule 8.900-E (Managed Portfolio Shares)); and 97029 (March 2, 2023), 88 FR 14419 (March 8, 2023) (SR-NYSEARCA-2023-16) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of Alger Weatherbie Enduring Growth ETF).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Description of the Fund and the Trust</HD>
                <P>
                    The shares of the Fund (the “Shares”) will be issued by Northern Lights Fund Trust IV (the “Trust”), a statutory trust organized under the laws of the state of Delaware and registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment company.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The investment adviser to the Fund will be First Manhattan Co. LLC (the “Adviser”). The sub-adviser to the Fund will be Vident Advisory, LLC dba Vident Asset Management (the “Sub-Adviser”). Northern Lights Distributors, LLC (the “Distributor”) will serve as the distributor for the Fund's Shares. All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio or reference assets, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange rules shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange, as provided under Rule 8.900-E(b)(1).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The Trust is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “1940 Act”). On August 9, 2024, the Trust filed a registration statement on Form N-1A under the Securities Act of 1933 (the “1933 Act”) and the 1940 Act for the Fund (File No.811-23066) (the “Registration Statement”). The Commission issued an order granting exemptive relief to the Trust (“Exemptive Order”) under the 1940 Act on March 22, 2022 (Investment Company Act Release No. 34537). The Exemptive Order was granted in response to the Trust's application for exemptive relief (the “Exemptive Application”) (File No. 812-15282). The description of the operation of the Trust and the Fund herein is based, in part, on the Registration Statement. The Exchange will not commence trading in Shares of the Fund until this proposed rule change is operative.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Rule 8.900-E(b)(4) provides that, if the investment adviser to the Investment Company issuing Managed Portfolio Shares is registered as a broker-dealer or is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser will erect and maintain a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and personnel of the broker-dealer or broker-dealer affiliate, as applicable, with respect to access to information concerning the composition of and/or changes to such Investment Company portfolio and/or the Creation Basket.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any person related to the investment adviser or Investment Company who makes decisions pertaining to the Investment Company's portfolio composition or has access to information regarding the Investment Company's portfolio composition or changes thereto or the Creation Basket must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the applicable Investment Company portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(5) provides that the term “Creation Basket” means, on any given business day, the names and quantities of the specified instruments (and/or an amount of cash) that are required for an AP Representative to deposit in-kind on behalf of an Authorized Participant in exchange for a Creation Unit and the names and quantities of the specified instruments (and/or an amount of cash) that will be transferred in-kind to an AP Representative on behalf of an Authorized Participant in exchange for a Redemption Unit, which will be identical and will be transmitted to each AP Representative before the commencement of trading.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Rule 8.900-E(b)(4) is similar to Commentary .03(a)(i) and (iii) to Rule 5.2-E(j)(3); however, Commentary .03(a) in connection with the establishment of a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer reflects the applicable open-end fund's portfolio, not an underlying benchmark index, as is the case with index-based funds.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 8.900-E(b)(4) is also 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88319"/>
                    similar to Commentary .06 to Rule 8.600-E related to Managed Fund Shares, except that Rule 8.900-E(b)(4) relates to establishment and maintenance of a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and personnel of the broker-dealer or broker-dealer affiliate, as applicable, with respect to an Investment Company's portfolio and Creation Basket, and not just to the underlying portfolio, as is the case with Managed Fund Shares. Neither the Adviser nor the Sub-Adviser is registered as a broker-dealer. The Sub-Adviser is not affiliated with a broker-dealer. The Adviser, however, is affiliated with a broker-dealer. The Adviser has implemented and will maintain a “fire wall” with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition of and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio and/or Creation Basket.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         An investment adviser to an open-end fund is required to be registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). As a result, the Adviser and its related personnel will be subject to the provisions of Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act relating to codes of ethics. This Rule requires investment advisers to adopt a code of ethics that reflects the fiduciary nature of the 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        relationship to clients as well as compliance with other applicable securities laws. Accordingly, procedures designed to prevent the communication and misuse of non-public information by an investment adviser must be consistent with Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act. In addition, Rule 206(4)-7 under the Advisers Act makes it unlawful for an investment adviser to provide investment advice to clients unless such investment adviser has (i) adopted and implemented written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violations, by the investment adviser and its supervised persons, of the Advisers Act and the Commission rules adopted thereunder; (ii) implemented, at a minimum, an annual review regarding the adequacy of the policies and procedures established pursuant to subparagraph (i) above and the effectiveness of their implementation; and (iii) designated an individual (who is a supervised person) responsible for administering the policies and procedures adopted under subparagraph (i) above. The Fund will also be required to comply with Exchange rules relating to disclosure, including Rule 5.3-E(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In the event (a) the Adviser or the Sub-Adviser becomes registered as a broker-dealer or becomes newly affiliated with a broker-dealer, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer, or becomes affiliated with a broker-dealer, it will implement and maintain a fire wall with respect to personnel of the broker-dealer or broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio and/or Creation Basket. Any person related to the Adviser, the Sub-Adviser or the Trust who makes decisions pertaining to the Fund's portfolio composition or that has access to information regarding the Fund's portfolio composition or that has access to information regarding the Fund's portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio or changes thereto and the Creation Basket.</P>
                <P>Further, Rule 8.900-E(b)(5) requires that any person or entity, including an AP Representative (as defined below), custodian, Reporting Authority, distributor, or administrator, who has access to non-public information regarding the Investment Company's portfolio composition or changes thereto or the Creation Basket, must be subject to procedures reasonably designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the applicable Investment Company portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket. Moreover, if any such person or entity is registered as a broker-dealer or affiliated with a broker-dealer, such person or entity will erect and maintain a “fire wall” between the person or entity and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such Investment Company portfolio or Creation Basket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                    Description of the Fund 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The Exchange represents that, for initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.10A-3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund's holdings will conform to the permissible investments as set forth in the Exemptive Application and Exemptive Order, and the holdings will be consistent with all requirements in the Exemptive Application and Exemptive Order.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Pursuant to the Exemptive Order, the only permissible investments for the Fund are the following that trade on a U.S. exchange contemporaneously with Shares of the Fund: exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”), exchange-traded notes, exchange-listed common stocks, exchange-traded preferred stocks, exchange-traded American Depositary Receipts, exchange-traded real estate investment trusts, exchange-traded commodity pools, exchange-traded metal trusts, exchange-traded currency trusts, and exchange-traded futures for which the reference asset is one in which the Fund may invest directly, in the case of an index future traded on a U.S. exchange, is based on an index, the components of which are a type of asset in which the Fund could invest directly, as well as cash and cash equivalents (which are short-term U.S. Treasury securities, government money market funds, and repurchase agreements). All of the equity instruments or futures held by the Fund will be traded on an exchange that is a member of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”) or affiliated with a member of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>According to the Registration Statement, the Fund's primary objective is to seek long-term capital appreciation. The Fund will seek to invest in 25-35 U.S. exchange-traded common stocks of various market capitalization. From time to time, the Fund may hold a greater number of stocks.</P>
                <P>Under normal circumstances, the Fund will invest at least 80% of its net assets in equity securities. According to the Registration Statement, the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser focuses on companies that it expects to generate free cash flow and that it believes to possess durable competitive advantages, earn higher than average returns on capital, and have opportunities to reinvest excess cash flows at above-average rates of return. The Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser seeks investments that may include: (1) compounders (highly resilient businesses that reliably generate and compound free cash flow), (2) undervalued businesses (companies, often out of favor, that the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser believes are undervalued relative to their earnings power, cash flow, and/or tangible assets), and/or (3) special situations (companies undergoing restructuring, refinancing, management changes, and/or comparable corporate actions that cause temporary disconnects between the share price and what the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser believes to be the company's intrinsic value).</P>
                <P>According to the Registration Statement, in effecting its investment strategy, once an investment opportunity is identified, the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser will seek to purchase the shares at valuations that are favorable relative to the quality of the company's business, its earnings, and the Adviser's and/or the Sub-Adviser's expectation for long-term growth in value-per-share. Generally, the Fund will focus on making long-term investments. However, the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser may sell a Fund holding when: (1) the holding no longer meets the Adviser's and/or the Sub-Adviser's investment criteria or the requirements of the Exemptive Order or its Exchange listing requirements; (2) the holding's long-term earnings and reinvestment prospects deteriorate; (3) the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser loses confidence in the leadership and governance of the holding; (4) a new holding is judged to be comparatively more attractive than a current position; and/or (5) the valuation of a holding appears excessively higher than the Adviser's and/or the Sub-Adviser's estimates of long-term value.</P>
                <P>According to the Registration Statement, the Fund is a non-diversified investment company, which means that a meaningful portion of its assets may be invested in the securities of a smaller number of companies and/or a more limited number of sectors.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund is a non-transparent, actively managed ETF that does not seek to replicate the performance of a specified index.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88320"/>
                </P>
                <P>According to the Registration Statement, the Fund will invest in cash (and cash equivalents) when the Fund is unable to find enough attractive long-term investments to meet its investment objective.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Investment Restrictions</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund's holdings will be consistent with all requirements described in the Exemptive Application and Exemptive Order.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 11, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with its investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     2X or -3X) of any securities benchmark index. As noted above, the Fund will not seek to replicate the performance of a specified index.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Creations and Redemptions of Shares</HD>
                <P>
                    Creations and redemptions of Shares will take place as described in Rule 8.900-E. Specifically, in connection with the creation and redemption of Creation Units 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the delivery or receipt of any portfolio securities in-kind will be required to be effected through a separate confidential brokerage account (a “Confidential Account”).
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An Authorized Participant (“AP”), as defined in the applicable Form N-1A filed with the Commission, will sign an agreement with an AP Representative 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     establishing the Confidential Account for the benefit of the AP. AP Representatives will be broker-dealers. An AP must be a participant in the Continuous Net Settlement System of the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”) or a participant in the Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) and must have executed an authorized participant agreement (“Participant Agreement”) with the Distributor with respect to the creation and redemption of Creation Units and formed a Confidential Account for its benefit in accordance with the terms of the Participant Agreement. For purposes of creations or redemptions, all transactions will be effected through the respective AP's Confidential Account, for the benefit of the AP, without disclosing the identity of such securities to the AP.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(6) provides that the term “Creation Unit” means a specified minimum number of Managed Portfolio Shares issued by an Investment Company at the request of an Authorized Participant in return for a designated portfolio of instruments and/or cash. Rule 8.900-E(c)(7) provides that the term “Redemption Unit” means a specified minimum number of Managed Portfolio Shares that may be redeemed to an Investment Company at the request of an Authorized Participant in return for a portfolio of instruments and/or cash. For purposes of this filing, the terms “Creation Unit” means either a Creation Unit as defined in Rules 8.900-E(c)(6) or a Redemption Unit as defined in Rule 8.900-E(c)(7).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(4) provides that the term “Confidential Account” means an account owned by an Authorized Participant and held with an AP Representative on behalf of the Authorized Participant. The account will be established and governed by contractual agreement between the AP Representative and the Authorized Participant solely for the purposes of creation and redemption, while keeping confidential the Creation Basket constituents of each series of Managed Portfolio Shares, including from the Authorized Participant. The books and records of the Confidential Account will be maintained by the AP Representative on behalf of the Authorized Participant.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(3) provides that the term “AP Representative” means an unaffiliated broker-dealer, with which an Authorized Participant has signed an agreement to establish a Confidential Account for the benefit of such Authorized Participant, that will deliver or receive, on behalf of the Authorized Participant, all consideration to or from the Investment Company in a creation or redemption. An AP Representative will not be permitted to disclose the Creation Basket to any person, including the Authorized Participants.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Each business day, the Fund's custodian will transmit the composition of the Fund's Creation Basket (as described below) to each AP Representative. This information will permit an AP that has established a Confidential Account with an AP Representative to transact in the underlying securities of the Creation Basket through their AP Representatives, enabling them to engage in in-kind creation or redemption activity without knowing the identity or weighting of those securities. Fund Shares will be issued and redeemed in Creation Units of 5,000 Shares. The size of a Creation Unit is subject to change. The Fund will offer and redeem Creation Units on a continuous basis at the net asset value (“NAV”) per Share next determined after receipt of an order in proper form. The Fund's NAV per Share will be determined as of the closing time of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily, 4:00 p.m. E.T.) on each day that the Exchange is open.</P>
                <P>In order to keep costs low and permit the Fund to be as fully invested as possible, Shares will be purchased and redeemed in Creation Units and principally in-kind for securities or in cash for the value of such securities. The Fund will issue Creation Units principally in exchange for (i) the in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of securities (the “Deposit Securities”), which for each Creation Unit will constitute a substantial replication, or a representation, of the securities included in the Fund's portfolio, and (ii) if applicable, an amount of cash (the “Cash Component”). Together, the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component, if applicable, constitute the “Fund Deposit.” The Deposit Securities and the securities that will be delivered in an in-kind transfer in a redemption (the “Fund Securities”) will be identical. The Cash Component is an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares of the Fund (per Creation Unit) and the market value of the Deposit Securities. The Cash Component serves the function of compensating for any differences between the NAV per Creation Unit and the market value of the Deposit Securities.</P>
                <P>On each business day, prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (ordinarily, 9:30 a.m. E.T.), the custodian will make available through NSCC the list of the company names and the required number of shares of each Deposit Security, as applicable, and Cash Component, as applicable, to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day) for the Fund. The Deposit Securities, as applicable, and Cash Component, as applicable, announced are applicable to purchases of Creation Units until the next-announced composition of the Fund Deposit. When full or partial cash purchases of Creation Units are available or specified for the Fund, they will be effected in essentially the same manner as in-kind purchases thereof.</P>
                <P>On any given business day, the names and quantities of the instruments that constitute the Deposit Securities and the names and quantities of the instruments that constitute the Fund Securities will be identical to and will correspond pro rata to the positions in the Fund's portfolio (including cash positions), and these instruments may be referred to, in the case of either a purchase or a redemption, as the “Creation Basket.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Placement of Purchase Orders</HD>
                <P>The Fund will issue Shares through the Distributor on a continuous basis at NAV. The Exchange represents that the issuance of Shares will operate in a manner substantially similar to that of other ETFs. The Fund will issue Shares only at the NAV per Share next determined after an order in proper form is received.</P>
                <P>
                    A creation transaction, which is subject to acceptance by the Distributor, generally begins when an AP enters into an irrevocable creation order with the Fund and delivers to the AP Representative the cash necessary to purchase the designated portfolio of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88321"/>
                    securities that constitute the Creation Basket in the Confidential Account. The AP Representative then purchases and delivers the designated portfolio of securities to the Fund's custodian, and the Fund then instructs the custodian to exchange such portfolio of securities for a specified number of Shares in volumes of Creation Units. The AP Representative will seek to assemble the shares of the Creation Basket in a manner that will not reveal its composition. The Distributor will furnish acknowledgements to those placing such orders that the orders have been accepted, but the Distributor may reject any order which is not submitted in proper form, as described in the Fund's prospectus or Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”).
                </P>
                <P>The NAV of the Fund is expected to be determined once each business day as of the close of the regular trading session on the Exchange (ordinarily, 4:00 p.m. E.T.). An AP must submit an irrevocable purchase order by the time set forth in the Participant Agreement and/or applicable order form, on any business day in order to receive that business day's NAV. On days when the Exchange closes or is anticipated to close earlier than normal, the Fund may require purchase orders to be placed earlier in the day. The date on which an order to purchase (or redeem, as further described below) Creation Units is received and accepted is referred to as the “Order Placement Date.”</P>
                <P>
                    Purchases of Shares will be settled in-kind and/or in cash for an amount equal to the applicable NAV per Share purchased plus applicable transaction fees.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Fund may permit full or partial cash purchases of Creation Units of the Fund under the circumstances described above. When full or partial cash purchases of Creation Units are available or specified for the Fund, they will be effected in essentially the same manner as in-kind purchases thereof. In the case of a full or partial cash purchase, the AP, through the AP Representative, must pay the cash equivalent of the Deposit Securities it would otherwise provide through an in-kind purchase, plus the same Cash Component required to be paid in connection with an in-kind purchase.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         To the extent that the Fund allows creations or redemptions to be conducted in cash, such transactions will be effected in the same manner for all APs transacting in cash.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Authorized Participant Redemption</HD>
                <P>The Shares may be redeemed to the Fund in Creation Unit size or multiples thereof as described below. Redemption orders of Creation Units must be placed by or through an AP. Creation Units of the Fund will be redeemable at their NAV per Share next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form. Orders to redeem Creation Units must be submitted in proper form prior to the time as set forth in the Participant Agreement.</P>
                <P>Each business day, prior to the opening of trading on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m., Eastern time), the custodian will transmit to each AP Representative the identity and the required number of each Fund Security and, as applicable and under the circumstances described below, the cash value of the Fund Securities that will be applicable to redemption requests for that day, and the amount of the Cash Redemption Amount (as defined below, if any). A redemption transaction generally begins when an AP enters into an irrevocable redemption order with the Fund. The Fund then instructs the custodian to deliver a designated portfolio of securities that constitute the Creation Basket to the appropriate AP Representative's Confidential Account in exchange for the Fund Shares in volumes of Creation Units being redeemed. Orders to redeem Creation Units must submitted in proper form prior to the time as set forth in the Participant Agreement.</P>
                <P>Redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit are paid in-kind, in cash, or combination thereof, as determined by the Trust. With respect to in-kind redemptions of a Fund, redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit will consist of Fund Securities, as announced by the custodian on the business day of the request for redemption received in proper form plus cash in an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares of the Fund being redeemed, as next determined after a receipt of a request in proper form, and the value of Fund Securities (the “Cash Redemption Amount”), less any fixed redemption transaction fee as set forth below and any applicable additional variable charge as set forth below. In the event that the Fund's securities have a value greater than the NAV of the Shares of the Fund, the Cash Redemption Amount equal to the differential is required to be made by the AP to the Fund. The Participant Agreement signed by each AP will require establishment of a Confidential Account to receive distributions of securities in-kind upon redemption. Each AP will be required to open a Confidential Account with an AP Representative in order to facilitate orderly processing of redemptions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Net Asset Value</HD>
                <P>The NAV will be calculated for the Shares of the Fund on each business day. The Fund's NAV is determined as of the close of regular trading on the New York Stock Exchange, normally 4:00 p.m., E.T. The NAV of the Fund's Shares is determined by adding the total value of its assets, subtracting its liabilities and then dividing the result by the number of Shares outstanding.</P>
                <P>In computing the Fund's NAV, the Fund's securities holdings are valued based on their last readily available market price. Securities for which such information is readily available are generally valued at the last reported sales price, the official closing price as reported by an independent pricing service on the primary market or exchange on which they are traded, or, in the absence of reported sales, at the mean between the current bid and ask prices on such exchange. If market prices are unavailable or the Fund thinks that they are unreliable, or when the value of a security has been materially affected by events occurring after the relevant market closes, the Fund will price those securities at fair value as determined in good faith using methods approved by the Fund's Board.</P>
                <P>More information about the valuation of the Fund's holdings can be found in the SAI.</P>
                <P>
                    Information regarding the Fund's NAV and how often Shares of the Fund traded at a price above (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     at a premium) or below (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     at a discount) the Fund's NAV will be available on the Fund's website (
                    <E T="03">www.firstmanhattan.com</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Availability of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund's website, (
                    <E T="03">www.firstmanhattan.com</E>
                    ), will include the prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded. The Fund's website will include additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis, including the prior business day's NAV, market closing price or mid-point of the bid/ask spread at the time of calculation of such NAV (the “Bid/Ask Price”),
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and a calculation of the premium and discount of the market closing price or Bid/Ask Price against the NAV. The website and information will be publicly available at no charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         The Bid/Ask Price of the Fund's Shares is determined using the mid-point between the current national best bid and offer at the time of calculation of the Fund's NAV. The records relating to Bid/Ask Prices will be retained by the Fund or its service providers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Form N-PORT requires reporting of a Fund's complete portfolio holdings on a position-by-position basis on a quarterly 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88322"/>
                    basis within 60 days after fiscal quarter end. Investors can obtain a Fund's SAI, its shareholder reports, its Form N-CSR, filed twice a year, and its Form N-CEN, filed annually. The Fund's SAI and shareholder reports are available free upon request from the Fund, and those documents and the Form N-PORT, Form N-CSR, and Form N-CEN may be viewed onscreen or downloaded from the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares will be continually available to market participants on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. Information regarding the previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) high-speed line. In addition, the Verified Intraday Indicative Value (“VIIV”), as defined in Rule 8.900-E(c)(2),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     will be widely disseminated by the Reporting Authority 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and/or one or more major market data vendors in one second intervals during the Exchange's Core Trading Session.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(2) provides that the term “Verified Intraday Indicative Value” is the indicative value of a Managed Portfolio Share based on all of the holdings of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares as of the close of business on the prior business day and, for corporate actions, based on the applicable holdings as of the opening of business on the current business day, priced and disseminated in one second intervals during the Core Trading Session by the Reporting Authority.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Rule 8.900-E(c)(8) provides that the term “Reporting Authority” in respect of a particular series of Managed Portfolio Shares means the Exchange, an institution, or a reporting service designated by the Exchange or by the exchange that lists a particular series of Managed Portfolio Shares (if the Exchange is trading such series pursuant to unlisted trading privileges), as the official source for calculating and reporting information relating to such series, including, but not limited to, the NAV, the VIIV, or other information relating to the issuance, redemption, or trading of Managed Portfolio Shares. A series of Managed Portfolio Shares may have more than one Reporting Authority, each having different functions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Dissemination of the VIIV</HD>
                <P>With respect to trading of the Shares, the ability of market participants to buy and sell Shares at prices near the VIIV is dependent upon their assessment that the VIIV is a reliable, indicative real-time value for the Fund's underlying holdings. Market participants are expected to accept the VIIV as a reliable, indicative real-time value because (1) the VIIV will be calculated and disseminated based on the Fund's actual portfolio holdings, (2) the securities in which the Fund plans to invest are generally highly liquid and actively traded and trade at the same time as the Fund and therefore generally have accurate real time pricing available, and (3) market participants will have a daily opportunity to evaluate whether the VIIV at or near the close of trading is indeed predictive of the actual NAV.</P>
                <P>The VIIV will be widely disseminated by the Reporting Authority and/or by one or more major market data vendors in one second intervals during the Core Trading Session and will be disseminated to all market participants at the same time. The VIIV is based on the current market value of the securities in the Fund's portfolio that day. The methodology for calculating the Fund's VIIV will be available on the Fund's website. The VIIV is intended to provide investors and other market participants with a highly correlated per Share value of the underlying portfolio that can be compared to the current market price. Therefore, under normal circumstances the VIIV would be effectively a near real time approximation of the Fund's NAV, which will be computed only once a day, and is available free of charge from one or more market data vendors.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Halts</HD>
                <P>
                    With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in Rule 7.12-E have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. Trading in the Shares will be subject to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund will be halted.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 7.12-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(i) provides that the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt trading in a series of Managed Portfolio Shares. Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the series of Managed Portfolio Shares inadvisable. These may include: (a) the extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and/or the financial instruments composing the portfolio; or (b) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         The Exemptive Application provides that the Investment Company or their agent will request that the Exchange halt trading in the applicable series of Managed Portfolio Shares where: (i) the intraday indicative values calculated by the calculation engines differ by more than 25 basis points for 60 seconds in connection with pricing of the VIIV; or (ii) holdings representing 10% or more of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares' portfolio have become subject to a trading halt or otherwise do not have readily available market quotations. Any such requests will be one of many factors considered in order to determine whether to halt trading in a series of Managed Portfolio Shares and the Exchange retains sole discretion in determining whether trading should be halted. As provided in the Exemptive Application, each series of Managed Portfolio Shares would employ a pricing verification agent to continuously compare two intraday indicative values during regular trading hours in order to ensure the accuracy of the VIIV.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(ii) provides that, if the Exchange becomes aware that: (i) the VIIV of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares is not being calculated or disseminated in one second intervals, as required; (ii) the NAV with respect to a series of Managed Portfolio Shares is not disseminated to all market participants at the same time; (iii) the holdings of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares are not made available on at least a quarterly basis as required under the 1940 Act; or (iv) such holdings are not made available to all market participants at the same time (except as otherwise permitted under the currently applicable exemptive order or no-action relief granted by the Commission or Commission staff to the Investment Company with respect to the series of Managed Portfolio Shares), it will halt trading in such series until such time as the VIIV, the NAV, or the holdings are available, as required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Rules</HD>
                <P>The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the Exchange in all trading sessions in accordance with Rule 7.34-E(a). As provided in Rule 7.6-E, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00, for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001. A minimum of 50,000 Shares of the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under Rule 8.900-E, as well as all terms in the Exemptive Order. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88323"/>
                    of the Shares of the Fund that the NAV per Share of the Fund will be calculated daily and will be made available to all market participants at the same time.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Surveillance</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that its surveillance procedures are adequate to properly monitor the trading of Shares on the Exchange during all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and the applicable federal securities laws. Trading of Shares through the Exchange will be subject to the Exchange's surveillance procedures for derivative products. As part of these surveillance procedures and consistent with Rule 8.900-E(b)(3) and 8.900-E(d)(2)(B), the Adviser will upon request make available to the Exchange and/or the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”), on behalf of the Exchange, the daily portfolio holdings of the Fund. The issuer of the Shares of the Fund will be required to represent to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will surveil for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If the Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under Exchange Rule 5.5-E(m).</P>
                <P>FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or the regulatory staff of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares and certain exchange-traded instruments with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or the regulatory staff of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and certain exchange-traded instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.</P>
                <P>In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that this proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Fund would meet each of the rules relating to listing and trading of Managed Portfolio Shares. To the extent that the Fund is not in compliance with such rules, the Exchange would either prevent the Fund from listing and trading on the Exchange or commence delisting procedures under Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(B). Specifically, the Exchange would consider the suspension of trading, and commence delisting proceedings under Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(B), of the Fund under any of the following circumstances: (a) if, following the initial twelve-month period after commencement of trading on the Exchange, there are fewer than 50 beneficial holders of the Fund; (b) if the Exchange has halted trading in the Fund because the VIIV is interrupted pursuant to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(ii) and such interruption persists past the trading day in which it occurred or is no longer available; (c) if the Exchange has halted trading in the Fund because the net asset value with respect to such Fund is not disseminated to all market participants at the same time, the holdings of such Fund are not made available on at least a quarterly basis as required under the 1940 Act, or such holdings are not made available to all market participants at the same time pursuant to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(ii) and such issue persists past the trading day in which it occurred; (d) if the Exchange has halted trading in Shares of the Fund pursuant to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(i) and such issue persists past the trading day in which it occurred; (e) if the Fund has failed to file any filings required by the Commission or if the Exchange is aware that the Fund is not in compliance with the conditions of any currently applicable exemptive order or no-action relief granted by the Commission or Commission staff with respect to the Fund; (f) if any of the continued listing requirements set forth in Rule 8.900-E are not continuously maintained; (g) if any of the statements of representations regarding (a) the description of the portfolio, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings, or (c) the applicability of Exchange listing rules as specified herein to permit the listing and trading of the Fund, are not continuously maintained; or (h) if such other event shall occur or condition exists which, in the opinion of the Exchange, makes further dealings on the Exchange inadvisable.</P>
                <P>As discussed above, neither the Adviser nor the Sub-Adviser is registered as a broker-dealer. The Sub-Adviser is not affiliated with a broker-dealer. The Adviser, however, is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a “fire wall” with respect to such affiliate broker-dealer regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio and Creation Basket. In the event that (a) the Adviser or the Sub-Adviser becomes registered as a broker-dealer or becomes newly affiliated with a broker-dealer, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer or becomes affiliated with a broker-dealer, the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser will implement and maintain a fire wall with respect to personnel of the broker-dealer or broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio and/or Creation Basket. Any person related to the Adviser, the Sub-Adviser or the Trust who makes decisions pertaining to the Fund's portfolio composition or that has access to information regarding the Fund's portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio or changes thereto and the Creation Basket.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, Rule 8.900-E(b)(5) requires that any person or entity, including an AP Representative, custodian, Reporting Authority, distributor, or administrator, who has access to non-public information regarding the Investment Company's portfolio composition or changes thereto or the Creation Basket, must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the applicable Investment Company portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket. Moreover, if any such person or entity is registered as a broker-dealer or affiliated with a broker-dealer, such person or entity will erect and maintain a “fire wall” between the person or entity and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88324"/>
                    concerning the composition and/or changes to such Investment Company portfolio or Creation Basket. Any person or entity who has access to information regarding the Fund's portfolio composition or changes thereto or the Creation Basket will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material nonpublic information regarding the portfolio or changes thereto or the Creation Basket.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange further believes that Rule 8.900-E is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices related to the listing and trading of Shares of the Fund because it provides meaningful requirements about both the data that will be made publicly available about the Shares, as well as the information that will only be available to certain parties and the controls on such information. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the requirements related to information protection set forth in Rule 8.900-E(b)(5) will act as a safeguard against misuse and improper dissemination of information related to the Fund's portfolio composition, the Creation Basket, or changes thereto. The requirement that any person or entity implement procedures to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the portfolio or Creation Basket will act to prevent any individual or entity from sharing such information externally and the internal “fire wall” requirements applicable where an entity is a registered broker-dealer or affiliated with a broker-dealer will act to make sure that no entity will be able to misuse the data for their own purposes. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that this proposal is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposal is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices related to the listing and trading of Shares of the Fund and to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest because the Exchange would halt trading under certain circumstances under which trading in the Shares of the Fund may be inadvisable. Specifically, trading in the Shares will be subject to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(i), which provides that the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt trading in the Fund. Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the series of Managed Portfolio Shares inadvisable. These may include: (a) the extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and/or the financial instruments composing the portfolio; or (b) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, trading in the Shares will be subject to Rule 8.900-E(d)(2)(C)(ii), which provides that the Exchange would halt trading where the Exchange becomes aware that: (a) the VIIV of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares is not being calculated or disseminated in one second intervals, as required; (b) the net asset value with respect to a series of Managed Portfolio Shares is not disseminated to all market participants at the same time; (c) the holdings of a series of Managed Portfolio Shares are not made available on at least a quarterly basis as required under the 1940 Act; or (d) such holdings are not made available to all market participants at the same time (except as otherwise permitted under the currently applicable exemptive order or no-action relief granted by the Commission or Commission staff to the Investment Company with respect to the series of Managed Portfolio Shares). The Exchange would halt trading in such Shares until such time as the VIIV, the NAV, or the holdings are available, as required.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 20, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to the proposed listing and trading of Shares of the Fund, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in Rule 8.900-E.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Fund's holdings will conform to the permissible investments as set forth in the Exemptive Application and Exemptive Order.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As noted above, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or the regulatory staff of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares and the underlying exchange-traded instruments with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or the regulatory staff of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares and the underlying exchange-traded instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         The Exchange represents that, for initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.10A-3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 11, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>With respect to trading of Shares of the Fund, the ability of market participants to buy and sell Shares at prices near the VIIV is dependent upon their assessment that the VIIV is a reliable, indicative real-time value for the Fund's underlying holdings. Market participants are expected to accept the VIIV as a reliable, indicative real-time value because (1) the VIIV will be calculated and disseminated based on the Fund's actual portfolio holdings, (2) the securities in which the Fund plans to invest are generally highly liquid and actively traded and trade at the same time as the Fund and therefore generally have accurate real time pricing available, and (3) market participants will have a daily opportunity to evaluate whether the VIIV at or near the close of trading is indeed predictive of the actual NAV.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation that the NAV per Share of the Fund will be calculated daily and that the NAV will be made available to all market participants at the same time. Investors can also obtain the Fund's SAI, its shareholder reports, its Form N-CSR (filed twice a year), and its Form N-CEN (filed annually). The Fund's SAI and shareholder reports will be available free upon request from the Fund, and those documents and the Form N-PORT, Form N-CSR, and Form N-CEN may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.sec.gov.</E>
                     In addition, a large amount of information will be publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via the CTA high-speed line. Information regarding the VIIV will be widely disseminated in one second intervals throughout the Core Trading Session by the Reporting Authority and/or one or more major market data vendors. The website for the Fund will include a prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded, and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information, updated on a daily basis. Moreover, prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Bulletin of the special 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88325"/>
                    characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to the VIIV, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares. The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under Rule 8.900-E. The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with its investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     2X or −3X) of any securities benchmark index.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of actively-managed exchange-traded products that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the VIIV and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.</P>
                <P>For the above reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change would permit the listing and trading of an additional actively-managed exchange-traded product, thereby promoting competition among exchange-traded products to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act normally does not become operative for 30 days after the date of its filing. However, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     permits the Commission to designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay so that the proposal may become operative immediately upon filing. The Exchange notes that the Commission has noticed for immediate effectiveness proposed rule changes to permit listing and trading on the Exchange of Managed Portfolio Shares similar to the Fund.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed listing rule for the Fund raises no novel legal or regulatory issues. Thus, the Commission believes that waiver of the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. Accordingly, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change operative upon filing.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         For purposes only of waiving the 30-day operative delay, the Commission has also considered the proposed rule's impact on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEARCA-2024-88 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2024-88. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2024-88 and should be submitted on or before November 29, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88326"/>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12), (59).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25837 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-101498; File No. SR-Phlx-2024-55]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Options 7, Section 9</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>November 1, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on October 18, 2024, Nasdaq PHLX LLC (“Phlx” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Options 7, Section 9.</P>
                <P>While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on January 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/phlx/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to raise its SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee in Options 7, Section 9, B by 10%.</P>
                <P>
                    Today, Phlx assesses $1,250 per port, per month up to a maximum of $42,000 per month for an SQF Port that receives inbound quotes at any time within that month.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With this proposal, Phlx would assess Market Makers $1,375 per port, per month (a 10% increase from $1,250) up to a maximum of $46,200 per month (a 10% increase from $42,000). Also, today, Phlx assesses $500 per port, per month for each of the first 5 SQF Purge Ports and $100 per port, per month for each port thereafter. With this proposal, Phlx would assess Market Makers $550 per port, per month for each of the first 5 SQF Purge Ports (a 10% increase from $500) and $110 per port, per month for each port thereafter (a 10% increase from $100).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An active port shall mean that the port was utilized to submit a quote to the System during a given month. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 9, B. Today, Market Makers are not assessed an active SQF Port Fee for additional ports acquired for ten business days for the purpose of transitioning technology. The member organization is required to provide the Exchange with written notification of the transition and all additional ports, provided at no cost, will be removed at the end of the ten business days. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 9, B.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Phlx proposes to add commas between per port and per month on the Pricing Schedule for the SQF Purge Port Fee.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee increases would enable the Exchange to maintain and improve its market technology and services to remain competitive with its peers. Over the years, customer demand for risk protections and capacity has increased. The Exchange continues to invest in maintaining, improving, and enhancing its port protocols—for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers. Such enhancements include refreshing hardware, upgrading risk protections and information security, and offering customers additional capacity. The Exchange has not increased Phlx's SQF Port Fee since 2015,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and has not increased its SQF Purge Port Fee since 2016 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where inflation has been between roughly 15%-16%, as measured using the metric described below. Nevertheless, the Exchange proposes to increase its SQF Port Fee by 10%, only with respect to inflation that has occurred since 2015, and its SQF Purge Port Fee by 10%, only with respect to inflation that has occurred since 2016. Further, the Exchange also proposes to increase the maximum monthly fee that may be assessed for an SQF Port by 10% so as to align with the increase to the SQF Port Fee.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 74833 (April 29, 2015), 80 FR 25749 (May 5, 2015) (SR-Phlx-2015-36).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 77613 (April 13, 2016), 81 FR 23023 (April 19, 2016) (SR-Phlx-2016-45).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed below, the Exchange proposes to adjust its fees by an industry- and product-specific inflationary measure. It is reasonable and consistent with the Act for the Exchange to recoup its investments, at least in part, by adjusting its fees. Continuing to operate at fees frozen at 2015 and 2016 levels, respectively, impacts the Exchange's ability to enhance its offerings and the interests of market participants and investors.</P>
                <P>
                    The fee increases the Exchange proposes are based on an industry-specific Producer Price Index (“PPI”), which is a tailored measure of inflation.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a general matter, the Producer Price Index is a family of indexes that measures the average change over time in selling prices received by domestic producers of goods and services. PPI measures price change from the perspective of the seller. This contrasts with other metrics, such as the Consumer Price Index (“CPI”), that measure price change from the purchaser's perspective.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     About 10,000 PPIs for individual products and groups of products are tracked and released each month.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     PPIs are available for the output of nearly all industries in the goods-producing sectors of the U.S. economy—mining, manufacturing, agriculture, fishing, and forestry—as well as natural gas, electricity, and construction, among others. The PPI program covers approximately 69 percent of the service sector's output, as measured by revenue reported in the 2017 Economic Census.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/overview.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For purposes of this proposal, the relevant industry-specific PPI is the Hosting, Activer Server Pages, and Other IT Infrastructure Provisioning Services (“Data PPI”) within the Data Processing and Related Services Industry, which is an industry net-output PPI that measures the average 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88327"/>
                    change in selling prices received by companies that provide data processing services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Data Processing and Related Services industry was introduced to the PPI in January 2002 by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) as part of an ongoing effort to expand Producer Price Index coverage of the services sector of the U.S. economy and is identified as NAICS-518210 in the North American Industry Classification System.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the BLS “[t]he primary output of NAICS 518210 is the provision of electronic data processing services. In the broadest sense, computer services companies help their customers efficiently use technology. The processing services market consists of vendors who use their own computer systems—often utilizing proprietary software—to process customers' transactions and data. Companies that offer processing services collect, organize, and store a customer's transactions and other data for record-keeping purposes. Price movements for the NAICS 518210 index are based on changes in the revenue received by companies that provide data processing services. Each month, companies provide net transaction prices for a specified service. The transaction is an actual contract selected by probability, where the price-determining characteristics are held constant while the service is repriced. The prices used in index calculation are the actual prices billed for the selected service contract.” 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/factsheets/producer-price-index-for-the-data-processing-and-related-servicesindustry-naics-518210.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI is the most appropriate subset of the Data Processing and Related services industry to be considered in the context of the proposed rule change to modify the SQF Port Fee and the SQF Purge Port Fee because the Exchange uses its “proprietary software,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     its own proprietary matching engine software, respectively, to receive options quotes on the Exchange's proprietary trading platform.
                </P>
                <P>For purposes of this proposed rule change, with respect to the SQF Port Fee, the Exchange examined the Data PPI value for the period from April 2015 to August 2024. The Data PPI had a starting value of 101.0 in April 2015 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 15.29% increase. For purposes of this proposed rule change, with respect to the SQF Purge Port Fee, the Exchange examined the Data PPI value for the period from April 2016 to August 2024. The Data PPI had a starting value of 100.4 in April 2016 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 15.98% increase. This data indicates that companies who are also in the data storage and processing business have generally increased prices for a specified service covered under NAICS 518210 by an average of 15.29% and 15.98%, respectively, during this period. Based on that percentage change, the Exchange proposes to make a one-time fee increase of only 10%, which reflects an increase covering roughly the entire period since the last price adjustment to the SQF Port Fee and the SQF Purge Port Fee was made. Additionally, the Exchange proposes to increase the maximum monthly fee that may be assessed for an SQF Port by 10% so as to align with the increase to the SQF Port Fee.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes the Data PPI is an appropriate measure for purposes of the proposed rule change on the basis that it is a stable metric with limited volatility, unlike other consumer-side inflation metrics. In fact, the Data PPI has not experienced a greater than 2.16% increase for any one calendar year period since Data PPI was introduced into the PPI in January 2002. The average calendar year change from January 2002 to December 2023 was .62%, with a cumulative increase of 15.67% over this 21-year period. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is considerably less volatile than other inflation metrics such as CPI, which has had individual calendar-year increases of more than 6.5%, and a cumulative increase of over 73% over the same period.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.usinflationcalculator.com/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI, and significant investments into, and enhanced performance of, the Exchange support the reasonableness of the proposed fee increases.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         discussion of SQF Port and SQF Purge Port enhancements. Additionally, other exchanges have filed for increases in certain fees, based in part on comparisons to inflation. See, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 34-100004 (April 22, 2024), 89 FR 32465 (April 26, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-012); and 34-100398 (June 21, 2024), 89 FR 53676 (June 27, 2024) (SR-BOX-2024-16)l; Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-100994 (September 10, 2024), 89 FR 75612 (September 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-79).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As a technical amendment, the Exchange proposes to add the words “active port” in parenthesis at the end of the description of the SQF Port Fee to tie the definition of an active port to the description for the port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This belief is based on two factors. First, the current fees do not properly reflect the quality of the SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, as the SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee has been static in nominal terms, and therefore falling in real terms due to inflation. Second, the Exchange believes that investments made in enhancing the risk protections and capacity of SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports has increased the performance of these ports.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Rule Change Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Exchange has not increased any of the fees included in the proposal since 2015 and 2016, respectively. However, in the years following the last fee increases, the Exchange has made significant investments in upgrades to its SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, enhancing the quality of its services, as measured by, among other things, increased capacity. In other words, Exchange customers have greatly benefitted, while the Exchange's ability to recoup its investments has been hampered. Between 2015 and 2024, the inflation rate is 3.22% per year, on average, producing a cumulative inflation rate of 33.03%.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Also, between 2016 and 2024, the inflation rate is 3.47% per year, on average, producing a cumulative inflation rate of 31.37%.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Using the more targeted inflation number of Data PPI, the cumulative inflation rate was 15.29% between 2015 and 2024, and 15.98% between 2016 and 2024. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is a reasonable metric to base this fee increase on because it is targeted to producer-side increases in the data processing industry, which based on the definition adopted by BLS would include the Exchange's port protocols.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.officialdata.org/us/inflation/2015?amount=1</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.officialdata.org/us/inflation/2015?amount=1</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Notwithstanding inflation, as noted above, the Exchange has not increased 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88328"/>
                    its fees at all for over eight and nine years, respectively, for the subject services. The proposed SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee represent a modest increase from the current SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee. Further, the proposed increase to the maximum monthly fee for an SQF Port aligns with the increase to the SQF Port Fee. The Exchange believes the proposed SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee increases are reasonable in light of the Exchange's continued expenditure in maintaining a robust technology ecosystem. Furthermore, the Exchange continues to invest in maintaining and enhancing its port products—for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers and global investors. Such enhancements include refreshing several aspects of the technology ecosystem including software, hardware, and network while introducing new and innovative products. The goal of the enhancements discussed above, among other things, is to provide more modern connectivity to the match engine. Accordingly, the Exchange continues to expend resources to innovate and modernize its technology so that it may benefit its members in offering SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fees Are Equitably Allocated and Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the proposed fee increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply to all Market Makers uniformly. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed the SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series. The Exchange believes that the proposed fee increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply uniformly to all Market Makers that subscribe to SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports to quote on the Exchange. The Exchange also believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges because Exchange fees have fallen in real terms during the relevant period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Unlike other market participants, Market Makers are subject to market making and quoting obligations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Sections 4 and 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intramarket Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees do not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they would apply to all Market Makers uniformly. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed an SQF Port Fee and an SQF Purge Port Fee because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series. The Exchange believes that the proposed fee increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply uniformly to all Market Makers that subscribe to SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports to quote on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Unlike other market participants, Market Makers are subject to market making and quoting obligations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Sections 4 and 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intermarket Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees do not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition or on other SROs that is not necessary or appropriate. In determining the proposed fees, the Exchange utilized an objective and stable metric with limited volatility. Utilizing Data PPI over a specified period of time is a reasonable means of recouping the Exchange's investment in SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports. The Exchange believes utilizing Data PPI, a tailored measure of inflation, to increase the SQF Port Fee and SQF Purge Port Fee to recoup the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports does not impose a burden on competition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov</E>
                    . Please include file number SR-Phlx-2024-55 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2024-55. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88329"/>
                    Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2024-55 and should be submitted on or before November 29, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25838 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-101499; File No. SR-MRX-2024-42]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Increase the Exchange's SQF Fees in Options 7, Section 6</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>November 1, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on October 18, 2024, Nasdaq MRX, LLC (“MRX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to increase the Exchange's port fees in Options 7, Section 6.</P>
                <P>While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on January 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/mrx/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposed rule change is to increase the Exchange's connectivity fees in Options 7, Section 6 for the Specialized Quote Feed (“SQF”) Ports 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and SQF Purge Ports 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by 4%.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         “Specialized Quote Feed” or “SQF” is an interface that allows Market Makers to connect, send, and receive messages related to quotes, Immediate-or-Cancel Orders, and auction responses to the Exchange. Features include the following: (1) options symbol directory messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         underlying instruments); (2) System event messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         start of trading hours messages and start of opening); (3) trading action messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         halts and resumes); (4) execution messages; (5) quote messages; (6) Immediate-or-Cancel Order messages; (7) risk protection triggers and purge notifications; (8) opening imbalance messages; (9) auction notifications; and (10) auction responses. Market Makers may only enter interest into SQF in their assigned options series. Immediate-or-Cancel Orders entered into SQF are not subject to the Order Price Protection, Market Order Spread Protection, and Size Limitation Protection in Options 3, Section 15(a)(1)(A), (1)(B), and (2)(B) respectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The SQF Purge Interface only receives and notifies of purge requests from the Market Maker. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Options 7, Section 6(i) includes the Exchange's fees that relate to the SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports that Market Makers 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     use to connect to the Exchange. Today, the Exchange assesses all Market Makers an SQF Port fee of $1,250 per port per month and an SQF Purge Port Fee of $1,250 per port per month.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the SQF and the SQF Purge Ports are currently subject to a monthly cap (“SQF Fee Cap”) of $17,500, which is applicable to Market Makers. The Exchange now proposes to increase the foregoing pricing by 4%. As amended, the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees would each become $1,300 per port per month. The amended SQF Fee Cap would likewise increase by 4% to $18,200.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Market Makers” refers to “Competitive Market Makers” and “Primary Market Makers” collectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(21).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Exchange waives one SQF Port fee per Market Maker per month. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 6, note 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed pricing increases would enable the Exchange to maintain and improve its market technology and services to remain competitive with its peers. Over the years, customer demand for risk protections and capacity has increased. The Exchange continues to invest in maintaining, improving, and enhancing its protocols like SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers. Such enhancements include refreshing hardware, upgrading risk protections and information security, and offering customers additional capacity. Nevertheless, the Exchange has not increased the fees for SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, or the SQF Fee Cap, since 2022 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (where inflation has been around 4.3%, as measured using the metric described below). Nevertheless, the Exchange proposes to increase its SQF and SQF Purge Port fees by only 4%. Further, the Exchange proposes to increase the SQF Fee Cap by 4% to align with the foregoing fee increases.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 96824 (February 7, 2023), 88 FR 8975 (February 10, 2023) (SR-MRX-2023-05). As noted in SR-MRX-2023-05, the Exchange initially filed the proposed pricing changes on May 2, 2022 (SR-MRX-2022-04) and subsequently withdrew and replaced multiple times until SR-MRX-2023-05.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed below, the Exchange proposes to adjust its pricing by an industry- and product-specific inflationary measure. It is reasonable and consistent with the Act for the Exchange to recoup its investments, at least in part, by adjusting its pricing. Continuing to operate at pricing frozen at 2022 levels impacts the Exchange's ability to enhance its offerings and the interests of market participants and investors.</P>
                <P>
                    The pricing increases the Exchange proposes are based on an industry-specific Producer Price Index (“PPI”), which is a tailored measure of inflation.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a general matter, the Producer Price Index is a family of indexes that measures the average change over time in selling prices 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88330"/>
                    received by domestic producers of goods and services. PPI measures price change from the perspective of the seller. This contrasts with other metrics, such as the Consumer Price Index (“CPI”), that measure price change from the purchaser's perspective.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     About 10,000 PPIs for individual products and groups of products are tracked and released each month.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     PPIs are available for the output of nearly all industries in the goods-producing sectors of the U.S. economy—mining, manufacturing, agriculture, fishing, and forestry—as well as natural gas, electricity, and construction, among others. The PPI program covers approximately 69 percent of the service sector's output, as measured by revenue reported in the 2017 Economic Census.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/overview.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For purposes of this proposal, the relevant industry-specific PPI is the Hosting, Active Server Pages, and Other IT Infrastructure Provisioning Services (“Data PPI”) within the Data Processing and Related Services Industry, which is an industry net-output PPI that measures the average change in selling prices received by companies that provide data processing services.</P>
                <P>
                    The Data Processing and Related Services Industry was introduced to the PPI in January 2002 by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) as part of an ongoing effort to expand Producer Price Index coverage of the services sector of the U.S. economy and is identified as NAICS—518210 in the North American Industry Classification System.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the BLS “[t]he primary output of NAICS 518210 is the provision of electronic data processing services. In the broadest sense, computer services companies help their customers efficiently use technology. The processing services market consists of vendors who use their own computer systems—often utilizing proprietary software—to process customers' transactions and data. Companies that offer processing services collect, organize, and store a customer's transactions and other data for record-keeping purposes. Price movements for the NAICS 518210 index are based on changes in the revenue received by companies that provide data processing services. Each month, companies provide net transaction prices for a specified service. The transaction is an actual contract selected by probability, where the price-determining characteristics are held constant while the service is repriced. The prices used in index calculation are the actual prices billed for the selected service contract.” 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/factsheets/producer-price-index-for-the-data-processing-and-related-servicesindustry-naics-518210.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI is the most appropriate subset of the Data Processing and Related Services Industry to be considered in the context of the proposed pricing changes because the Exchange uses its “own computer systems” and “proprietary software,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     its own data center and proprietary matching engine software, respectively, to receive options quotes on the Exchange's proprietary trading platform.
                </P>
                <P>For purposes of this proposed rule change, the Exchange examined the Data PPI value for the period from May 2022 to August 2024. The Data PPI had a starting value of 111.688 in May 2022 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 4.3% increase. This data indicates that companies who are also in the data storage and processing business have generally increased prices for a specified service covered under NAICS 518210 by an average of 4.3% during this period. Based on that percentage change, the Exchange proposes to make a one-time fee increase of only 4%, which reflects an increase covering roughly the entire period since the last price adjustments were made to the SQF Port fee, the SQF Purge Port fee, and the related SQF Fee Cap.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes the Data PPI is an appropriate measure for purposes of the proposed rule change on the basis that it is a stable metric with limited volatility, unlike other consumer-side inflation metrics. In fact, the Data PPI has not experienced a greater than 2.16% increase for any one calendar year period since Data PPI was introduced into the PPI in January 2002. The average calendar year change from January 2002 to December 2023 was .62%, with a cumulative increase of 15.67% over this 21-year period. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is considerably less volatile than other inflation metrics such as CPI, which has had individual calendar-year increases of more than 6.5%, and a cumulative increase of over 73% over the same period.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.usinflationcalculator.com/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI, and significant investments into, and enhanced performance of, the Exchange support the reasonableness of the proposed pricing increases.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         discussion of SQF Port and SQF Purge Port enhancements. Additionally, other exchanges have filed for increases in certain fees, based in part on comparisons to inflation. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 34-100004 (April 22, 2024), 89 FR 32465 (April 26, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-012); and 34-100398 (June 21, 2024), 89 FR 53676 (June 27, 2024) (SR-BOX-2024-16)l; Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-100994 (September 10, 2024), 89 FR 75612 (September 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-79).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This belief is based on two factors. First, the current pricing does not properly reflect the quality of the SQF and SQF Purge Ports, as fees for these offerings have been static in nominal terms, and therefore falling in real terms due to inflation. Second, the Exchange believes that investments made in enhancing the risk protections and capacity of SQF and SQF Purge Ports has increased the performance of these offerings.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Rule Change Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Exchange has not increased any of the fees included in the proposal since 2022. However, in the years following the last fee increases, the Exchange has made significant investments in upgrades to its SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, enhancing the quality of its services, as measured by, among other things, increased capacity. In other words, Exchange customers have greatly benefitted, while the Exchange's ability to recoup its investments has been hampered. Between 2022 and 2024, the inflation rate is 3.8% per year, on average, producing a cumulative inflation rate of 7.74%.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Using the more targeted inflation number of Data PPI, the cumulative inflation rate was around 4.3%. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is a reasonable metric to base this fee increase on because it is targeted to producer-side increases in the data processing industry, which based on the definition adopted by BLS would include the Exchange's port offerings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.officialdata.org/us/inflation/2017?amount=1.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Notwithstanding inflation, as noted above, the Exchange has not increased its fees at all for seven years for the SQF and SQF Purge Ports, or the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88331"/>
                    corresponding SQF Fee Cap. The proposed pricing changes represent a modest increase from the current fees and related cap. The Exchange believes the proposed fee increases are reasonable in light of the Exchange's continued expenditure in maintaining a robust technology ecosystem. Furthermore, the Exchange continues to invest in maintaining and enhancing its port products—for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers and global investors. Such enhancements include refreshing several aspects of the technology ecosystem including software, hardware, and network while introducing new and innovative products. The goal of the enhancements discussed above, among other things, is to provide more modern connectivity to the match engine. Accordingly, the Exchange continues to expend resources to innovate and modernize its technology so that it may benefit its members in offering SQF and SQF Purge Ports.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fees Are Equitably Allocated and Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges because Exchange pricing has fallen in real terms during the relevant period. The Exchange also believes that the proposed pricing increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply uniformly to all Market Makers that subscribe to SQF and SQF Purge Ports to quote on the Exchange. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and subject to the related SQF Fee Cap) because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Unlike other market participants, Market Makers are subject to market making and quoting obligations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Sections 4 and 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed pricing changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intra-Market Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing does not put any market participants at a relative disadvantage compared to other market participants. As noted above, the Exchange would apply the proposed 4% increase to the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and related SQF Fee Cap) to all Market Makers uniformly. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and subject to the related SQF Fee Cap) because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange. These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intermarket Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing does not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition or on other SROs that is not necessary or appropriate. In determining the proposed pricing, the Exchange utilized an objective and stable metric with limited volatility. Utilizing Data PPI over a specified period of time is a reasonable means of recouping the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing its port offerings such as the SQF and SQF Purge Ports. The Exchange believes utilizing Data PPI, a tailored measure of inflation, to increase the fees for the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port (and the related SQF Fee Cap) to recoup the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing such offerings would not impose a burden on intermarket competition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-MRX-2024-42 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-MRX-2024-42. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-MRX-2024-42 and should be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88332"/>
                    submitted on or before November 29, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25834 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-101501; File No. SR-GEMX-2024-39]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Increase the Exchange's SQF Fees in Options 7, Section 6.C</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>November 1, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on October 18, 2024, Nasdaq GEMX, LLC (“GEMX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to increase the Exchange's port fees in Options 7, Section 6.C. While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on January 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/gemx/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposed rule change is to increase the Exchange's connectivity fees in Options 7, Section 6.C for the Specialized Quote Feed (“SQF”) Ports 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and SQF Purge Ports 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by 10%.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         “Specialized Quote Feed” or “SQF” is an interface that allows Market Makers to connect, send, and receive messages related to quotes, Immediate-or-Cancel Orders, and auction responses to the Exchange. Features include the following: (1) options symbol directory messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         underlying instruments); (2) System event messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         start of trading hours messages and start of opening); (3) trading action messages (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         halts and resumes); (4) execution messages; (5) quote messages; (6) Immediate-or-Cancel Order messages; (7) risk protection triggers and purge notifications; (8) opening imbalance messages; (9) auction notifications; and (10) auction responses. Market Makers may only enter interest into SQF in their assigned options series. Immediate-or-Cancel Orders entered into SQF are not subject to the Order Price Protection, Market Order Spread Protection, and Size Limitation Protection in Options 3, Section 15(a)(1)(A), (1)(B), and (2)(B) respectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The SQF Purge Interface only receives and notifies of purge requests from the Market Maker. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Supplementary Material .03(c) to Options 3, Section 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Options 7, Section 6.C(i) includes the Exchange's fees that relate to the SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports that Market Makers 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     use to connect to the Exchange. Today, the Exchange assesses all Market Makers an SQF Port fee of $1,250 per port per month and an SQF Purge Port Fee of $1,250 per port per month. In addition, the SQF and the SQF Purge Ports are currently subject to a monthly cap (“SQF Fee Cap”) of $17,500, which is applicable to Market Makers. The Exchange now proposes to increase the foregoing pricing by 10%. As amended, the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees would each become $1,375 per port per month. The amended SQF Fee Cap would likewise increase by 10% to $19,250.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Market Makers” refers to “Competitive Market Makers” and “Primary Market Makers” collectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(21).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed pricing increases would enable the Exchange to maintain and improve its market technology and services to remain competitive with its peers. Over the years, customer demand for risk protections and capacity has increased. The Exchange continues to invest in maintaining, improving, and enhancing its protocols like SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers. Such enhancements include refreshing hardware, upgrading risk protections and information security, and offering customers additional capacity. Nevertheless, the Exchange has not increased the fees for SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, or the SQF Fee Cap, since 2017 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (where inflation has been roughly 15%, as measured using the metric described below).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Nevertheless, the Exchange proposes to increase its SQF and SQF Purge Port fees by only 10%. Further, the Exchange proposes to increase the SQF Fee Cap by 10% to align with the foregoing fee increases.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 80808 (May 30, 2017), 82 FR 25894 (June 5, 2017) (SR-GEMX-2017-20) (adopting the subject fees). The Exchange subsequently increased the monthly cap in October 2017. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 81881 (October 16, 2017), 82 FR 48869 (October 20, 2017) (SR-GEMX-2017-44).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In particular, the Exchange saw an increase of around 14.6%-14.8% in inflation within the specified time periods discussed below.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed below, the Exchange proposes to adjust its pricing by an industry- and product-specific inflationary measure. It is reasonable and consistent with the Act for the Exchange to recoup its investments, at least in part, by adjusting its pricing. Continuing to operate at pricing frozen at 2017 levels impacts the Exchange's ability to enhance its offerings and the interests of market participants and investors.</P>
                <P>
                    The pricing increases the Exchange proposes are based on an industry-specific Producer Price Index (“PPI”), which is a tailored measure of inflation.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a general matter, the Producer Price Index is a family of indexes that measures the average change over time in selling prices received by domestic producers of goods and services. PPI measures price change from the perspective of the seller. This contrasts with other metrics, such as the Consumer Price Index (“CPI”), that measure price change from the purchaser's perspective.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     About 10,000 PPIs for individual products and groups of products are tracked and released each month.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     PPIs are available for the output of nearly all industries in the goods-producing sectors of the U.S. economy—mining, manufacturing, agriculture, fishing, and forestry—as well as natural gas, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88333"/>
                    electricity, and construction, among others. The PPI program covers approximately 69 percent of the service sector's output, as measured by revenue reported in the 2017 Economic Census.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/overview.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For purposes of this proposal, the relevant industry-specific PPI is the Hosting, Active Server Pages, and Other IT Infrastructure Provisioning Services (“Data PPI”) within the Data Processing and Related Services Industry, which is an industry net-output PPI that measures the average change in selling prices received by companies that provide data processing services.</P>
                <P>
                    The Data Processing and Related Services Industry was introduced to the PPI in January 2002 by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) as part of an ongoing effort to expand Producer Price Index coverage of the services sector of the U.S. economy and is identified as NAICS—518210 in the North American Industry Classification System.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the BLS “[t]he primary output of NAICS 518210 is the provision of electronic data processing services. In the broadest sense, computer services companies help their customers efficiently use technology. The processing services market consists of vendors who use their own computer systems—often utilizing proprietary software—to process customers' transactions and data. Companies that offer processing services collect, organize, and store a customer's transactions and other data for record-keeping purposes. Price movements for the NAICS 518210 index are based on changes in the revenue received by companies that provide data processing services. Each month, companies provide net transaction prices for a specified service. The transaction is an actual contract selected by probability, where the price-determining characteristics are held constant while the service is repriced. The prices used in index calculation are the actual prices billed for the selected service contract.” 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://data.bls.gov/timeseries/PCU5182105182105.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/ppi/factsheets/producer-price-index-for-the-data-processing-and-related-servicesindustry-naics-518210.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI is the most appropriate subset of the Data Processing and Related Services Industry to be considered in the context of the proposed pricing changes because the Exchange uses its “own computer systems” and “proprietary software,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     its own data center and proprietary matching engine software, respectively, to receive options quotes on the Exchange's proprietary trading platform.
                </P>
                <P>For purposes of this proposed rule change, the Exchange examined the Data PPI value for the period from May 2017 to August 2024 (when the subject pricing was first adopted), and from October 2017 to August 2024 (when the Exchange increased the fee cap). The Data PPI had a starting value of 101.4 in May 2017 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 14.8% increase. Further, the Data PPI had a starting value of 101.6 in October 2017 and an ending value of 116.445 in August 2024, a 14.6% increase. This data indicates that companies who are also in the data storage and processing business have generally increased prices for a specified service covered under NAICS 518210 by an average of 14.6% (during the period from October 2017 to August 2024) and 14.8% (during the period from May 2017 to August 2024). Based on that percentage change, the Exchange proposes to make a one-time fee increase of only 10%, which reflects an increase covering roughly the entire period since the last price adjustments were made to the SQF Port fee, the SQF Purge Port fee, and the related SQF Fee Cap.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes the Data PPI is an appropriate measure for purposes of the proposed rule change on the basis that it is a stable metric with limited volatility, unlike other consumer-side inflation metrics. In fact, the Data PPI has not experienced a greater than 2.16% increase for any one calendar year period since Data PPI was introduced into the PPI in January 2002. The average calendar year change from January 2002 to December 2023 was .62%, with a cumulative increase of 15.67% over this 21-year period. The Exchange believes the Data PPI is considerably less volatile than other inflation metrics such as CPI, which has had individual calendar-year increases of more than 6.5%, and a cumulative increase of over 73% over the same period.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.usinflationcalculator.com/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the Data PPI, and significant investments into, and enhanced performance of, the Exchange support the reasonableness of the proposed pricing increases.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         discussion of SQF Port and SQF Purge Port enhancements. Additionally, other exchanges have filed for increases in certain fees, based in part on comparisons to inflation. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 34-100004 (April 22, 2024), 89 FR 32465 (April 26, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-012); and 34-100398 (June 21, 2024), 89 FR 53676 (June 27, 2024) (SR-BOX-2024-16)l; Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-100994 (September 10, 2024), 89 FR 75612 (September 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-79).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This belief is based on two factors. First, the current pricing does not properly reflect the quality of the SQF and SQF Purge Ports, as fees for these offerings have been static in nominal terms, and therefore falling in real terms due to inflation. Second, the Exchange believes that investments made in enhancing the risk protections and capacity of SQF and SQF Purge Ports has increased the performance of these offerings.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Rule Change Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Exchange has not increased any of the fees included in the proposal since 2017. However, in the years following the last fee increases, the Exchange has made significant investments in upgrades to its SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports, enhancing the quality of its services, as measured by, among other things, increased capacity. In other words, Exchange customers have greatly benefitted, while the Exchange's ability to recoup its investments has been hampered. Between 2017 and 2024, the inflation rate is 3.66% per year, on average, producing a cumulative inflation rate of 28.63%.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Using the more targeted inflation number of Data PPI, the cumulative inflation rate was roughly 15% (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     14.6% during the period from October 2017 to August 2024 and 14.8% during the period from May 2017 to August 2024). The Exchange believes the Data PPI is a reasonable metric to base this fee increase on because it is targeted to producer-side increases in the data processing industry, which based on the definition adopted by BLS would include the Exchange's port offerings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.officialdata.org/us/inflation/2017?amount=1.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Notwithstanding inflation, as noted above, the Exchange has not increased its fees at all for seven years for the SQF and SQF Purge Ports, or the corresponding SQF Fee Cap. The proposed pricing changes represent a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88334"/>
                    modest increase from the current fees and related cap. The Exchange believes the proposed fee increases are reasonable in light of the Exchange's continued expenditure in maintaining a robust technology ecosystem. Furthermore, the Exchange continues to invest in maintaining and enhancing its port products—for the benefit and often at the behest of its customers and global investors. Such enhancements include refreshing several aspects of the technology ecosystem including software, hardware, and network while introducing new and innovative products. The goal of the enhancements discussed above, among other things, is to provide more modern connectivity to the match engine. Accordingly, the Exchange continues to expend resources to innovate and modernize its technology so that it may benefit its members in offering SQF and SQF Purge Ports.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fees Are Equitably Allocated and Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges because Exchange pricing has fallen in real terms during the relevant period. The Exchange also believes that the proposed pricing increases are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because they would apply uniformly to all Market Makers that subscribe to SQF and SQF Purge Ports to quote on the Exchange. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and subject to the related SQF Fee Cap) because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Unlike other market participants, Market Makers are subject to market making and quoting obligations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 2, Sections 4 and 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed pricing changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intra-Market Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing does not put any market participants at a relative disadvantage compared to other market participants. As noted above, the Exchange would apply the proposed 10% increase to the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and related SQF Fee Cap) to all Market Makers uniformly. Market Makers are the only market participants that are assessed SQF Port and SQF Purge Port fees (and subject to the related SQF Fee Cap) because they are the only market participants that are permitted to quote on the Exchange. These liquidity providers are critical market participants in that they are the only market participants that provide liquidity to the Exchange on a continuous basis. SQF Ports and SQF Purge Ports are only utilized in a Market Maker's assigned options series.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intermarket Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing does not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition or on other SROs that is not necessary or appropriate. In determining the proposed pricing, the Exchange utilized an objective and stable metric with limited volatility. Utilizing Data PPI over a specified period of time is a reasonable means of recouping the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing its port offerings such as the SQF and SQF Purge Ports. The Exchange believes utilizing Data PPI, a tailored measure of inflation, to increase the fees for the SQF Port and SQF Purge Port (and the related SQF Fee Cap) to recoup the Exchange's investment in maintaining and enhancing such offerings would not impose a burden on intermarket competition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-GEMX-2024-39 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-GEMX-2024-39. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-GEMX-2024-39 and should be submitted on or before November 29, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88335"/>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25836 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12576]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Request for Authentications Service</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State has submitted the information collections described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on these collections from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Department will accept comments from the public up to December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to: 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. You must include the DS form number, information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence (if applicable). You may send requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to the following email address: 
                        <E T="03">Passport-Form-Comments@State.gov.</E>
                         You must include the DS form number and information collection title in the email subject line.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Request for Authentications Service.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1405-0254.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal of a currently approved collection.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Originating Office:</E>
                     Bureau of Consular Affairs, Passport Services, Office of Program Management and Operational Support (CA/PPT/S/PMO).
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     DS-4194.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Individuals, Institutions, Government Agencies.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     60,734.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     60,734.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     10 minutes.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Burden Time:</E>
                     10,122 hours.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Information is requested only when an applicant submits the form to obtain a benefit.
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to Obtain a Benefit.
                </FP>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Proposed Collection</HD>
                <P>The Request for Authentications Service is used to request authentications services from the Authentications Office of the U.S. Department of State in the United States. In accordance with 22 CFR part 131, the Office of Authentications provides authentication services for Federal public documents that will be used overseas. These services support individuals, commercial organizations, institutions, and Federal and State government agencies seeking to use certain documents abroad.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>
                    The form can be downloaded from 
                    <E T="03">eforms.state.gov</E>
                     and can be printed for manual signature and submission by mail or hand-delivery.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amanda E. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Managing Director for Passport Support Operations, Bureau of Consular Affairs, Passport Services, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25871 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-06-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12578]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Being Imported for Exhibition—Determinations: “Wall Power! Modern French Tapestry From the Mobilier National, Paris” Exhibition</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects being imported from abroad pursuant to an agreement with their foreign owner or custodian for temporary display in the exhibition “Wall Power! Modern French Tapestry from the Mobilier national, Paris” at The Sterling and Francine Clark Art Institute, Williamstown, Massachusetts, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, are of cultural significance, and, further, that their temporary exhibition or display within the United States as aforementioned is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Reed Liriano, Program Coordinator, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email: 
                        <E T="03">section2459@state.gov</E>
                        ). The mailing address is U.S. Department of State, L/PD, 2200 C Street NW (SA-5), Suite 5H03, Washington, DC 20522-0505.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     22 U.S.C. 6501 note, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Delegation of Authority No. 234 of October 1, 1999, Delegation of Authority No. 236-3 of August 28, 2000, and Delegation of Authority No. 523 of December 22, 2021.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicole L. Elkon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Professional and Cultural Exchanges, Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25839 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>30-Day Notice of Intent To Seek Extension of Approval of Collections: Rail Carrier Financial Reports</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Surface Transportation Board.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88336"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Surface Transportation Board (Board) gives notice of its intent to request from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval without change of the six existing collections described below. The Board previously published a notice about this collection in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (August 5, 2024). That notice allowed for a 60-day public review and comment period. No comments were received.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on these information collections should be submitted by December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments should be identified as “Paperwork Reduction Act Comments, Surface Transportation Board: Rail Carrier Financial Reports.” Written comments for the proposed information collection should be submitted via 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         This information collection can be accessed by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. As an alternative, written comments may be directed to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Michael J. McManus, Surface Transportation Board Desk Officer: via email at 
                        <E T="03">oira_submission@omb.eop.gov;</E>
                         by fax at (202) 395-1743; or by mail to Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Please also direct comments to Chris Oehrle, PRA Officer, Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001 and to 
                        <E T="03">PRA@stb.gov.</E>
                         For further information regarding this collection, contact Pedro Ramirez at (202) 245-0333 or 
                        <E T="03">pedro.ramirez@stb.gov.</E>
                         If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Comments are requested concerning each collection as to (1) whether the particular collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Board, including whether the collection has practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the Board's burden estimates; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, when appropriate. Submitted comments will be included or summarized in the Board's request for OMB approval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collections</HD>
                <P>In this notice, the Board is requesting comments on the following information collections:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 1</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Quarterly Report of Freight Commodity Statistics (Form QCS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Form QCS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     One hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Quarterly, with an annual summation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     35 hours annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection, which is based on information contained in carload waybills used by railroads in the ordinary course of business, reports car loadings and total revenues by commodity code for each commodity that moved on the railroad during the reporting period. See 49 CFR 1248. Information reported on Form QCS is entered into the Agency's Uniform Rail Costing System (URCS). URCS, which was developed by the Board pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 11161-62, is used in rail rate proceedings as a tool to calculate the variable costs of providing a particular rail service in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 10707(d). The Form QCS has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but it contains all of the same information as required. This collection is compiled and published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted form and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Quarterly-and-Annual-Freight-Commodity-Statistics-Public.xlsx</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-Quarterly-and-Annual-Freight-Commodity-Statistics.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for this report has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. The form continues to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in this report is not available from any other source.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 2</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Report of Railroad Employees, Service and Compensation (Wage Forms A and B).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Wage Form A; and Wage Form B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     No more than 3 hours per quarterly report and 4 hours per annual summation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Quarterly, with an annual summation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     No more than 112 hours annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection shows the number of employees, service hours, and compensation, by employee group (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     executive, professional, maintenance-of-way and equipment, and transportation), of the reporting railroads. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     49 CFR 1245. The information is used by the Board to forecast labor costs and measure the efficiency of the reporting railroads. The information is also used by the Board to evaluate proposed regulated transactions that may impact rail employees, including mergers and consolidations, acquisitions of control, purchases, and abandonments. Other Federal agencies and industry groups, including the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB), Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), and Association of American Railroads (AAR), use the information contained in the reports to monitor railroad operations. Certain information from these reports is compiled and published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted forms and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Consolidated-Wage-Forms-ABC.csv</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-Consolidated-Wage-Forms-A-B-C.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for these reports have been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. They continue to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in these reports is not available from any other source.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88337"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 3</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Monthly Report of Number of Employees of Class I Railroads (Wage Form C).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     STB Form C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1.25 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Monthly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     105 hours annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection shows, for each reporting carrier, the average number of employees at mid-month in the six job-classification groups that encompass all railroad employees. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     49 CFR 1246. The information is used by the Board to forecast labor costs and measure the efficiency of the reporting railroads. The information is also used by the Board to evaluate the impact on rail employees of proposed regulated transactions, including mergers and consolidations, acquisitions of control, purchases, and abandonments. Other Federal agencies and industry groups, including the RRB, BLS, and AAR, use the information contained in these reports to monitor railroad operations. Certain information from these reports is compiled and published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted form and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Consolidated-Wage-Forms-ABC.csv</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-Consolidated-Wage-Forms-A-B-C.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for this report has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. The form continues to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in this report is not available from any other source.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 4</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Annual Report of Cars Loaded and Cars Terminated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0011.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Form STB-54.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     Four hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Annual.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     28 hours annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection reports the number of cars loaded and cars terminated on the reporting carrier's line. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     49 CFR 1247. Information in this report is entered into the Board's Uniform Rail Costing System (URCS), which is a cost measurement methodology. URCS, which was developed by the Board pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 11161, is used as a tool in rail rate proceedings, in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 10707(d), to calculate the variable costs associated with providing a particular service. The Board also uses URCS to carry out more effectively other of its regulatory responsibilities, including: acting on railroad requests for authority to engage in Board-regulated financial transactions such as mergers, acquisitions of control, and consolidations, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     49 U.S.C. 11323-11324; analyzing the information that the Board obtains through the annual railroad industry waybill sample, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     49 CFR 1244; measuring off-branch costs in railroad abandonment proceedings, in accordance with 49 CFR 1152.32(n); developing the “rail cost adjustment factors,” in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 10708; and conducting investigations and rulemakings. This collection is compiled and published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted form and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/STB-54-Cars-Loaded-and-Terminated.csv</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-STB-54-Cars-Loaded-and-Terminated.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for this report has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. The form continues to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in this report is not available from any other source.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 5</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Quarterly Report of Revenues, Expenses, and Income—Railroads (Form RE&amp;I).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0013.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Form RE&amp;I.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     Six hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Quarterly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     168 hours annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection is a report of railroad operating revenues, operating expenses, and income items. It is also a profit and loss statement, disclosing net railway operating income on a quarterly and year-to-date basis for current and prior years. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     49 CFR 1243.1. The Board uses the information in this report to ensure competitive, efficient, and safe transportation through general oversight programs that monitor and forecast the financial and operating condition of railroads, and through regulation of railroad rate and service issues and rail restructuring proposals, including railroad mergers, consolidations, acquisitions of control, and abandonments. Information from these reports is used by the Board, other Federal agencies, and industry groups to monitor and assess industry growth and operations, detect changes in carrier financial stability, and identify trends that may affect the national transportation system. Some of the information from these reports is compiled by the Board in our quarterly Selected Earnings Data Report, which is published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted form and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Revenue-Expenses-and-Income.csv</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-Revenue-Expenses-and-Income.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for this report has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. The form continues to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in this report is not available from any other source.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Collection 6</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Quarterly Condensed Balance Sheet—Railroads (Form CBS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2140-0014.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Form CBS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Class I railroads.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Seven.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     Six hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Quarterly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hour Burden:</E>
                     168 hours annually.
                    <PRTPAGE P="88338"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual “Non-Hour Burden” Cost:</E>
                     None identified. Filings are submitted electronically to the Board.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This collection shows the balance, quarterly and cumulative, for the current and prior year of the carrier's assets and liabilities, gross capital expenditures, and revenue tons carried. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     49 CFR 1243.2. The Board uses the information in this report to ensure competitive, efficient, and safe transportation through general oversight programs that monitor and forecast the financial and operating condition of railroads, and through specific regulation of railroad rate and service issues and rail restructuring proposals, including railroad mergers, consolidations, acquisitions of control, and abandonments. Information from these reports is used by the Board, other Federal agencies, and industry groups to assess industry growth and operations, detect changes in carrier financial stability, and identify trends that may affect the national transportation system. Revenue ton-miles, which are reported in these reports, are compiled and published by the Board in its quarterly Selected Earnings Data Report, which is published on the Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/stb/industry/econ_reports.html.</E>
                     The reformatted form and instructions may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Condensed-Balance-Sheet.csv</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">https://www.stb.gov/wp-content/uploads/Instructions-for-Condensed-Balance-Sheet.pdf,</E>
                     respectively. It should be noted that the form for this report has been reformatted in a way that should allow for more efficient submission and agency processing, but the information has not changed. The form continues to contain all of the same data elements. The information contained in this report is not available from any other source.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under the PRA, a federal agency that conducts or sponsors a collection of information must display a currently valid OMB control number. A collection of information, which is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c), includes agency requirements that persons submit reports, keep records, or provide information to the agency, third parties, or the public. Section 3507(b) of the PRA requires, concurrent with an agency's submitting a collection to OMB for approval, a 30-day notice and comment period through publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 1, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kenyatta Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25867 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">TENNESSEE VALLEY AUTHORITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>9 a.m. CT on November 7, 2024.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Curris Center, Murray, Kentucky.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meeting No. 24-04</HD>
                <P>The TVA Board of Directors will hold a public meeting on November 7 at the Curris Center on the campus of Murray State University, 1415 Chestnut Street, Murray, Kentucky. The meeting will be called to order at 9 a.m. CT to consider the agenda items listed below. TVA management will answer questions from the news media following the Board meeting.</P>
                <P>On November 6, at the Curris Center, the public may comment on any agenda item or subject at a Board-hosted public listening session which begins at 2 p.m. CT and will last until 4:00 p.m. Preregistration is required to address the Board.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Approval of Minutes of the August 22, 2024 Board Meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Report of the People and Governance Committee</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. FY24 and FY25 Performance and Compensation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Report of the Audit, Risk, and Cybersecurity Committee</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. Report of the Operations and Nuclear Oversight Committee</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. Report of the External Stakeholders and Regulation Committee</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Greater than 100 MW firm power arrangement with CTC Property LLC (xAI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Report of the Finance, Rates, and Portfolio Committee</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. Information Items</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Natural Gas Transportation Capacity Contract</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Incentive Metrics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Amended TVA Board Practice Capital Projects Approvals</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Report from President and CEO</FP>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>For more information: Please call Ashton Davies, TVA Media Relations at (865) 632-6000, Knoxville, Tennessee. Anyone who wishes to comment on any of the agenda in writing may send their comments to: TVA Board of Directors, Board Agenda Comments, 400 West Summit Hill Drive, Knoxville, Tennessee 37902.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Edward C. Meade,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Agency Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25932 Filed 11-5-24; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8120-08-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Waiver of Launch Collective Risk Limit for a Near-Orbital Trajectory</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of waiver.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice concerns a petition for waiver submitted to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) by Space Exploration Technologies Corporation (SpaceX) to waive the launch collective risk limit of 1 × 10
                        <E T="51">−4</E>
                         expected casualties (E
                        <E T="52">c</E>
                        ) for Starship Super Heavy missions that utilize a near-orbital trajectory. The near-orbital Starship Super Heavy missions have been deemed suborbital such that a single launch collective risk limit of 1 × 10
                        <E T="51">−4</E>
                         E
                        <E T="52">c</E>
                         has been applied to cover the aggregate of the risks from the suborbital launch and suborbital reentry phases of each mission. The SpaceX petition requests an increase to the collective risk limit, to not exceed 2 × 10
                        <E T="51">−4</E>
                         E
                        <E T="52">c</E>
                        , with the condition that neither the suborbital launch nor suborbital reentry risks exceed 1 × 10
                        <E T="51">−4</E>
                         E
                        <E T="52">c</E>
                         individually. The FAA grants the petition for near-orbital Starship Super Heavy missions to allow a risk budget that parallels but remains consistent with an orbital mission profile that has a separate risk limit of 1 × 10
                        <E T="51">−4</E>
                         E
                        <E T="52">c</E>
                         for both the launch and reentry phases.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Issued in Washington, DC, on July 31, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For technical questions concerning this waiver, contact Paul Wilde, Senior Technical Specialist, Commercial Space Transportation—Office of Operational Safety, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-5727; email: 
                        <E T="03">paul.wilde@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 18, 2024, SpaceX submitted a waiver petition to the Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA's) Office of Commercial Space Transportation (AST) requesting relief from 14 CFR 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88339"/>
                    450.101(a)(1)(i) for a unique near-orbital trajectory SpaceX designed for the initial Starship Super Heavy launches from Boca Chica in Texas. SpaceX requested an increase to the collective risk criteria, to not exceed 2 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    , with neither suborbital launch nor suborbital reentry risks exceeding 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    . SpaceX requested that the waiver be effective for Starship Super Heavy launches starting with Flight 4 and beyond that utilize a near-orbital trajectory, where the maximum perigee altitude is less than +130 km and greater than −50 km. Additionally, SpaceX requested a waiver of the 60-day requirement for submission of waiver petitions per § 404.5(a). SpaceX updated its request on May 17, 2024. with additional rationale to support the waiver petition. On June 4, 2024, the FAA notified SpaceX that the waiver request was still under evaluation and there would be no determination prior to the planned launch of Flight 4 on June 6, 2024. SpaceX requested the FAA consider the waiver for the next flight, namely Flight 5. The request to waive the procedural requirements set forth in § 404.5(a) is no longer applicable as SpaceX since requested the waiver to apply starting with Flight 5.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Near-Orbital Trajectory of Starship Super Heavy Missions</HD>
                <P>
                    SpaceX's initial developmental test missions are for launches conducted on a near-orbital trajectory, where the nominal trajectory does not achieve orbital insertion as defined in § 401.7.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                     Therefore, the FAA has considered each mission a suborbital launch that includes a suborbital reentry, and has applied a single launch collective risk limit of 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     in accordance with § 450.101(a)(1)(i). Per § 450.3(b)(3)(iii), for a suborbital launch that includes a suborbital reentry, launch ends after reaching apogee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     criteria identified in § 450.101 apply to flight. SpaceX, in its waiver petition, divides the phases of Starship Super Heavy flight into two distinct phases. First, SpaceX identifies the launch phase 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     to be from ignition of the Super Heavy booster (first stage) to the initial second engine cutoff (SECO-1) of the Starship upper stage. In addition, the launch phase includes stage separation, followed by the Super Heavy booster performing a boostback burn to return to the launch site or a designated landing area offshore. After stage separation, Starship ignites its engines until SECO-1. Due to the shallow perigee of the Starship trajectory after SECO-1, Earth's gravity will cause the Starship to passively enter the Earth's atmosphere in either a controlled or uncontrolled suborbital reentry. For a controlled suborbital reentry, Starship may perform a landing burn prior to ocean splashdown. An uncontrolled suborbital reentry of Starship would almost certainly result in an in-air breakup with debris expected to land within published hazard areas.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     In both scenarios, Starship hazardous debris 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                     would impact the open ocean between Madagascar and Australia. SpaceX identifies the suborbital reentry phase of the Starship flight to be from SECO-1 of the Starship to its final impact or landing because the perigee only decreases in the post-SECO-1 phases of flight.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Waiver Criteria</HD>
                <P>Chapter 509 allows the FAA to waive a license requirement if the waiver (1) will not jeopardize public health and safety, safety of property; (2) will not jeopardize national security and foreign policy interests of the United States; and (3) will be in the public interest. See 51 U.S.C. 50905(b)(3); 14 CFR 404.5(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Section 450.101(a)(1)(i) Waiver Petition</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 450.101(a)(1)(i) requires that the risk to all members of the public, excluding persons in aircraft and neighboring operations personnel, must not exceed 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    . For a suborbital launch, or a suborbital launch with a suborbital reentry,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                     the 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     in § 450.101(a)(1)(i) applies from liftoff through final impact or landing. SpaceX's waiver petition is for its Starship Super Heavy missions from Boca Chica that involve a near-orbital trajectory, where the Starship almost obtains the necessary position and velocity to achieve orbital insertion (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     make it into orbit). Because Starship does not achieve orbital insertion, the FAA considers the near-orbital Starship Super Heavy missions to be suborbital in which a single launch collective risk limit of 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     is applied to cover the sum or aggregate of the risks from the suborbital launch and suborbital reentry phases of each mission. SpaceX seeks relief from the application of a single launch collective risk limit required by § 450.101(a)(1)(i) and requests that the FAA allow for two separate 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     risk limits, one for the suborbital launch phase and one for the suborbital reentry phase, similar to what is allocated to an orbital mission when a vehicle achieves orbital insertion and then reenters from Earth orbit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In making a waiver determination, the FAA must analyze whether the waiver: (1) would jeopardize public health and safety or safety of property; (2) would jeopardize national security and foreign policy interests of the United States; and (3) is in the public interest. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     51 U.S.C. 50905(b)(3); 14 CFR 404.5(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">i. Public Health and Safety and Safety of Property</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA finds that the trajectory proposed by SpaceX is more like an orbital trajectory than a suborbital trajectory. Because suborbital trajectories do not involve separate, licensable reentries, they are afforded one risk budget. By contrast, orbital trajectories with a return result in a separate and licensable reentry which necessitates a risk budget for launch and a risk budget for reentry. For future flights of the Starship Super Heavy that use this trajectory and end in the Indian Ocean, SpaceX has identified a trajectory that would allow the FAA to apply two separate risk budgets without jeopardizing public health and safety. This increase in the collective risk threshold from 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     to 2 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    , with neither launch nor reentry exceeding 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    , exposes the public to overall less risk than that of an orbital mission followed by a separate reentry, given the current Starship flight history. SpaceX demonstrated that utilizing the near-orbital trajectory targeting an Indian Ocean landing, which avoids random reentry risk from failures that may occur while on-orbit and provides near certainty that any hazardous debris would impact locations in the Indian Ocean, will not jeopardize public health and safety. The FAA independently found that the public risk associated with a random reentry of the Starship, at this stage in its development, would be 40 to 50 times higher than the collective risk threshold of 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                    . Forcing Starship engine cut-off to occur just prior to reaching orbital perigee (and thus maintaining a suborbital trajectory) allows SpaceX to predict with high certainty debris impact locations given a failure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For an orbital launch, the criteria in § 450.101(a) apply from liftoff through orbital insertion. For a suborbital launch, or a suborbital launch and reentry, the criteria in § 450.101(a) apply from liftoff through final impact or landing. To determine whether a launch is orbital or suborbital, the FAA determines whether the trajectory is a suborbital trajectory or achieves orbital insertion. The near-orbital trajectory targeting an Indian Ocean landing as proposed by SpaceX does not fully meet the definition of suborbital trajectory per § 401.7, nor does the operation achieve orbital insertion. Specifically, the near orbital trajectory does not fully meet the definition of suborbital 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88340"/>
                    trajectory because under § 401.7, a suborbital trajectory is when the vacuum instantaneous impact point (IIP) of a vehicle's flight path does not leave the surface of the Earth. Starship's nominal IIP leaves the earth for a few seconds. Secondly, the near orbital trajectory is not an orbital trajectory because it does not lead to orbital insertion. Orbital insertion is defined in § 401.7 as the point at which a vehicle achieves a minimum 70-nautical mile perigee based on a computation that accounts for drag. In this case, the Starship Super Heavy does not achieve a 70-nautical mile perigee. Because Starship does not achieve orbital insertion, it conducts a suborbital reentry, which is different from a reentry from Earth orbit that involves a final health check prior to initiating deorbit. The near-orbital trajectory presents a unique circumstance as it relates to the application of the safety criteria outlined in § 450.101.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA finds that granting SpaceX a waiver to § 450.101(a)(1)(i) with the following terms and conditions would not jeopardize public health and safety or safety of property:</P>
                <P>
                    • The risk to all members of the public, excluding persons in aircraft and neighboring operations personnel, must not exceed 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     for the phases of flight from the lift-off of the Super Heavy first stage to the initial SECO-1 of Starship.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • The risk to all members of the public, excluding persons in aircraft and neighboring operations personnel, must not exceed 1 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     for the phases of flight from the initial SECO-1 to final impact or landing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • The risk to all members of the public, excluding persons in aircraft and neighboring operations personnel, must not exceed 2 × 10
                    <E T="51">−4</E>
                     E
                    <E T="52">c</E>
                     for all phases of flight from lift-off through final impact or landing.
                </P>
                <P>• The Starship mission profile utilizes a near-orbital trajectory where maximum perigee is less than positive 130 km and greater than negative 50 km, and the normal trajectory limits predicted debris impacts to broad ocean areas in the Indian Ocean.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">ii. National Security and Foreign Policy Implications</HD>
                <P>The FAA has identified no national security or foreign policy implications associated with granting this waiver.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">iii. Public Interest</HD>
                <P>On June 20, 2024, the FAA received a letter from the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) Human Landing System (HLS) program conveying the importance and criticality of the Starship Super Heavy system and rapid iterations of flight test operations to NASA and its Artemis program. The Starship program, and these test flights, are essential to further the technology required to support the NASA Artemis program and key to returning U.S. Government astronauts to the moon, as reinforced by the letter from NASA. For these reasons, the FAA finds that granting this waiver will be in the public interest.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endnotes</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         § 401.7 states that 
                        <E T="03">“Orbital insertion</E>
                         means the point at which a vehicle achieves a minimum 70-nautical mile perigee based on a computation that accounts for drag.” Seventy nautical miles equals 130 km.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The FAA notes that this is different from the FAA's definition of launch in 14 CFR 401.7, which encompasses certain pre- and post-flight activities when the launch occurs from a U.S. site.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         This is because the loads on the Starship would exceed its structural limits.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         § 401.7 states that “
                        <E T="03">Hazardous debris</E>
                         means any object or substance capable of causing a casualty or loss of functionality to a critical asset. Hazardous debris includes inert debris and explosive debris such as an intact vehicle, vehicle fragments, any detached vehicle component whether intact or in fragments, payload, and any planned jettison bodies.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The FAA introduced suborbital reentry in its experimental permit final rulemaking in 2007 and reaffirmed its position in the 
                        <E T="03">Streamlined Launch and Reentry License Requirements</E>
                         final rule (85 FR 79566, 79583 (2020)). The CSLAA describes suborbital rockets as reentering. 
                        <E T="03">See 51 U.S.C. 50905(b)(4) and 50906.</E>
                         Congress made clear that a suborbital rocket can “reenter” for purposes of licensing or permitting. It is not necessary to reach orbit to be in outer space. Although a suborbital rocket does not reach the velocity necessary to orbit the Earth, the vehicle can reach altitudes sufficient to be considered outer space. 
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>James Hatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Space Policy Division Manager, Commercial Space Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25851 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Improvement of Publication of Helicopter Air Ambulance (HAA) Operations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <P>The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is announcing the availability of Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations data. The Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations data has been posted in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 44731, as amended.</P>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The most recently posted Helicopter Air Ambulance Operations data is for 2023. The FAA will continue to collect, analyze, and make available the HAA data in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 44731(d)(2).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">How to obtain copies:</E>
                         A copy of this publication may be downloaded from: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/afx/afs/afs200.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nolan Crawford, 202-267-8166, Flight Standards Service, AFS-220, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 
                        <E T="03">9-AFS-200-Correspondence@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on October 31, 2024.</DATED>
                        <NAME>James Nolan Crawford,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Air Transportation Division, 135 Flight Operation Section, Aviation Safety Inspector.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25707 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Highway Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FHWA-2019-0013]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Renewal Package From the State of Texas to the Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program and Proposed Second Renewed Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) Assigning Environmental Responsibilities to the State</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed MOU and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice announces that FHWA has received and reviewed a renewal package from the Texas Department of Transportation (TxDOT) requesting participation in the Surface Transportation Project Delivery Program (Program). This Program allows FHWA to assign, and States to assume, responsibilities under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), and all or part of FHWA's responsibilities for environmental review, consultation, or other actions required under any Federal environmental law with respect to one or more Federal highway projects within the State. The FHWA has determined the renewal package to be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88341"/>
                        complete, and developed a draft renewal MOU with TxDOT outlining how the State will implement the Program with FHWA oversight. The public is invited to comment on TxDOT's request, including its renewal package and the proposed renewed MOU, which includes the proposed assignments and assumptions of environmental review, consultation, and other activities.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Please submit comments by December 9, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure that you do not duplicate your docket submissions, please submit them by only one of the following means:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Facsimile (Fax):</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE, West Building Ground Floor Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. e.t., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         You must include the agency name and docket number at the beginning of your comments. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For FHWA:</E>
                         Tom Bruechert by email at 
                        <E T="03">tom.bruechert@dot.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at 512-536-5948. The FHWA Texas Division office's normal business hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. (Central Time), Monday-Friday, except for Federal holidays. 
                        <E T="03">For the State of Texas:</E>
                         Doug Booher by email at 
                        <E T="03">Doug.Booher@txdot.gov</E>
                         or by telephone at 512-466-7435. State business hours are the same as above although State holidays may not completely coincide with Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Access</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit or retrieve comments online through the Federal eRulemaking portal at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     The website is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. Please follow the instructions. Electronic submission and retrieval help and guidelines are available under the help section of the website.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from the Office of the Federal Register's home page at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov</E>
                     and the U.S. Government Publishing Office's web page at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.access.gpo.gov/nara.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 327 of title 23, United States Code (23 U.S.C. 327), allows the Secretary of DOT to assign, and a State to assume, the responsibilities under the NEPA of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and all or part of the responsibilities for environmental review, consultation, or other actions required under certain Federal environmental laws with respect to one or more Federal-aid highway projects within the State. The FHWA is authorized to act on behalf of the Secretary with respect to these matters.
                </P>
                <P>The TxDOT entered the Program on December 16, 2014, after submitting its application to FHWA, obtaining FHWA's approval, and entering into a MOU in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 327 and FHWA's application regulations for the program (23 CFR part 773). On December 1, 2023, after coordination with FHWA, TxDOT submitted the renewal package in accordance with the renewal regulations in 23 CFR 773.115.</P>
                <P>Under the proposed renewal MOU, FHWA would assign to the State, through TxDOT, the responsibility for making decisions on the following types of highway projects:</P>
                <P>1. All Class I, or environmental impact statement projects, both on the State highway system (SHS) and local government projects off the SHS that are funded by FHWA or require FHWA approvals.</P>
                <P>2. All Class II, or categorically excluded projects, both on the SHS and local government projects off the SHS that are funded by FHWA or require FHWA approvals.</P>
                <P>3. All Class III, or environmental assessment projects, both on the SHS and local government projects off the SHS that are funded by FHWA or require FHWA approvals.</P>
                <P>4. Projects funded by other Federal agencies (or projects without any Federal funding) of any Class that also include funding by FHWA or require FHWA approvals. For these projects, TxDOT would not assume the NEPA responsibilities of other Federal agencies.</P>
                <P>5. Projects funded under a discretionary grant program whereby USDOT awards funding directly to a grantee.</P>
                <P>Excluded from assignments are highway projects authorized under 23 U.S.C. 202 and 203, highway projects under 23 U.S.C. 204 unless the project will be designed and constructed by TxDOT, projects that cross State boundaries, and projects that cross or are adjacent to international boundaries.</P>
                <P>The assignment also would give TxDOT the responsibility to conduct the following environmental review, consultation, and other related activities:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Air Quality</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Clean Air Act (CAA), 42 U.S.C. 7401-7671q, with the exception of any conformity determinations</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Noise</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Noise Control Act of 1972, 42 U.S.C. 4901-4918</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Compliance with the noise regulations in 23 CFR part 772</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Wildlife</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Endangered Species Act of 1973, 16 U.S.C. 1531-1544</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Marine Mammal Protection Act, 16 U.S.C. 1361-1423h</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Anadromous Fish Conservation Act, 16 U.S.C. 757a-757f</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act, 16 U.S.C. 661-667d</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Migratory Bird Treaty Act, 16 U.S.C. 703-712</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act of 1976, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 1801-1891d 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     with Essential Fish Habitat requirements at 16 U.S.C. 1855(b)(1)(B)
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Historic and Cultural Resources</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended, 54 U.S.C. 300101, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Archeological Resources Protection Act, 16 U.S.C. 470aa-mm</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Archeological and Historic Preservation Act of 1966, as amended, 54 U.S.C. 312501-312508</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Native American Grave Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3001-3013; 18 U.S.C. 1170</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Social and Economic Impacts</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• American Indian Religious Freedom Act, 42 U.S.C. 1996</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Farmland Protection Policy Act, 7 U.S.C. 4201-4209</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Water Resources and Wetlands</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251-1387 (Section 401, 402, 404, 408, and Section 319)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Coastal Barrier Resources Act, 16 U.S.C. 3501-3510</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Coastal Zone Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1451-1466</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. 300f-300j-26</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • General Bridge Act of 1946, 33 U.S.C. 525-533
                    <PRTPAGE P="88342"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899, 33 U.S.C. 401-406</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Wild and Scenic Rivers Act, 16 U.S.C. 1271-1287</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Emergency Wetlands Resources Act, 16 U.S.C. 3921</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Wetlands Mitigation, 23 U.S.C. 119(g), 133(b)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Flood Disaster Protection Act, 42 U.S.C. 4001-4130</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Parklands and Other Special Land Uses</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Section 4(f), 23 U.S.C. 138 and 49 U.S.C. 303</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• FHWA/FTA Section 4(f) Regulations at 23 CFR 774</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Land and Water Conservation Fund Act, 54 U.S.C. 200302-200310</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">FHWA-Specific</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Planning and Environmental Linkages, 23 U.S.C. 168, with the exception of those FHWA responsibilities associated with 23 U.S.C. 134 and 135.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Programmatic Mitigation Plans, 23 U.S.C. 169 with the exception of those FHWA responsibilities associated with 23 U.S.C. 134 and 135</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Orders (E.O.) Relating to Highway Projects</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 11990, Protection of Wetlands</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 11988, Floodplain Management (except approving design standards and determinations that a significant encroachment is the only practicable alternative under 23 CFR 650.113 and 650.115)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 12898, Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 13807, Establishing Discipline and Accountability in the Environmental Review and Permitting Process for Infrastructure Projects (aka “One Federal Decision”)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 13112, Invasive Species</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 13895, Advancing Racial Equity and Support for Underserved Communities Through the Federal Government</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 13990, Protecting Public Health and Environment and Restoring Science to Tackle the Climate Crisis</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 14008, Tackling the Climate Crisis at Home and Abroad</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• E.O. 14096, Revitalizing Our Nation's Commitment to Environmental Justice.</FP>
                <P>The proposed renewal MOU would allow TxDOT to continue to act in the place of FHWA in carrying out the environmental review-related functions described above, except with respect to government-to-government consultations with federally recognized Indian Tribes. The FHWA will retain responsibility for conducting formal government-to-government consultation with federally recognized Indian Tribes, which is required under some of the listed laws and executive orders. The TxDOT will continue to handle routine consultations with the Tribes and understands that a Tribe has the right to direct consultation with FHWA upon request. The TxDOT also may assist FHWA with formal consultations, with consent of a Tribe, but FHWA remains responsible for the consultation. The TxDOT also will not assume FHWA's responsibilities for conformity determinations required under Section 176 of the CAA (42 U.S.C. 7506) or any responsibility under 23 U.S.C. 134 or 135, or under 49 U.S.C. 5303 or 5304.</P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the proposed renewal MOU and renewal package may be viewed on the docket at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described above, or may be obtained by contacting FHWA or the State at the addresses provided above. A copy also may be viewed on TxDOT's website at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.txdot.gov/inside-txdot/division/environmental/nepa-assignment.html.</E>
                     The FHWA Texas Division, in consultation with FHWA Headquarters, will consider the comments submitted when making its decision on the proposed MOU revision. Any final renewal MOU approved by FHWA may include changes based on comments and consultations relating to the proposed renewal MOU and will be made publicly available.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Number 20.205, Highway Planning and Construction. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities apply to this program.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     23 U.S.C. 327; 42 U.S.C. 4331, 4332; 23 CFR 771.117; 40 CFR 1507.3, 1508.4.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kristin R. White,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Federal Highway Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25890 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NHTSA-2024-0070]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Notice and Request for Comment; Crash Avoidance Warning System Human-Machine Interface (HMI) Research</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments on a request for approval of a new information collection.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) invites public comments on our intention to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for a new information collection. Before a Federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from OMB. Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extensions and reinstatement of previously approved collections. This document describes a collection of information for which NHTSA intends to seek OMB approval titled, “Crash Avoidance Warning System Human-Machine Interface (HMI) Research.”</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by the Docket No. NHTSA-2024-0070 through any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic submissions:</E>
                         Go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail or Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Docket Management, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9322 before coming.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and docket number for this notice. Note that all comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. Please see the Privacy Act heading below.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88343"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act:</E>
                         Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         published on April 11, 2000 (65 FR 19477-78) or you may visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or the street address listed above. Follow the online instructions for accessing the dockets via internet.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For additional information or access to background documents, contact: Alexandria Rossi-Alvarez, Ph.D., Office of Vehicle Safety Research, Applied Crash Avoidance Research Division NSR-120, Vehicle Research &amp; Test Center, 10820 State Route 347, East Liberty, OH 43319; 
                        <E T="03">a.rossi-alvarez@dot.gov;</E>
                         (937) 666-3322.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     providing a 60-day comment period and otherwise consult with members of the public and affected agencies concerning each proposed collection of information. The OMB has promulgated regulations describing what must be included in such a document. Under OMB's regulation (at 5 CFR 1320.8(d)), an agency must ask for public comment on the following: (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) how to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) how to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA asks for public comments on the following proposed collection of information for which the agency is seeking approval from OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Crash Avoidance Warning System Human-Machine Interface (HMI) Research.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     NHTSA Form (2006): Interest Response Form; NHTSA Form (2007): Candidate Screening Questions; NHTSA Form (2008): Appointment Scheduling; NHTSA Form (2009): Participant Informed Consent Form; and NHTSA Form (2010): Post-Drive Questionnaire.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     New information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review Requested:</E>
                     Regular.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Requested Expiration Date of Approval:</E>
                     3 years from date of approval.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of the Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This information collection request (ICR) is to request approval to conduct 6 new voluntary information collections as part of a one-time research study of drivers' interactions with crash avoidance technology with different human-machine interface (HMI) characteristics. NHTSA is seeking to conduct the research effort involving up to 200 licensed drivers without assisted devices between the ages of 25 to 65 from the greater Columbus, Ohio area. The collection of information will consist of (1) Interest Response Form to be administered up to 750 potential research participants, (2) Candidate Screening Questions to be administered up to 375 potential research participants, (3) Appointment Scheduling, (4) Participant Informed Consent Form to be administered to up to 200 research participants, (5) Study Data Collection, and (6) Post-Drive Questionnaire. This research involving collecting information from the public will help support NHTSA's vehicle safety efforts and potential future rulemaking actions.</P>
                <P>Crash avoidance warning systems aid vehicle drivers in avoiding crashes by presenting alerts and warnings to inform drivers of situations in which the system has determined, via sensor information, that a crash is possible or imminent, depending on the situation. These systems communicate the occurrence of such conditions to drivers via different sensory modalities, such as visual or auditory signals or vibration of the seat or steering wheel. This research will seek to improve NHTSA's understanding of how crash avoidance warning system HMI characteristics affect system effectiveness and potential safety impacts.</P>
                <P>
                    The objective of this driving research is to examine driver behavior in using crash avoidance warning systems and assess effects of human-machine interface characteristics on drivers' behavior and driver response in crash-imminent scenarios. The research will involve driver behavior observation while driving on a test track, public roads, or in a simulated environment (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     driving simulator). Data collection may also involve stationary laboratory measurements relating to crash avoidance warning signal characteristics, such as stationary laboratory measurements of individuals' visual angles when gazing at in-vehicle visual signals (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     instrument panel symbols) and displays. Test vehicles will be equipped, as needed, with instrumentation for recording driver eye glance behavior, vehicle control inputs (steering wheel, accelerator pedal, and brake pedal inputs), vehicle position and speed, and turn signal status. During dynamic testing, sensors will determine and record the distances between the test vehicle and surrounding vehicles, as appropriate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Response to this information collection is voluntary and will be conducted in phases corresponding to the different crash avoidance warning system types to be examined (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     forward, lateral, and rear crash avoidance). Research participants will be members of the general public living in the Columbus, OH area, participation will be voluntary, and appropriate monetary compensation (including the hours spent and the mileage traveled) will be provided. Participants will include licensed drivers aged 25 to 65 who are healthy and able to drive without assistive devices. Participants will be recruited using print (newspaper or flyer) or online study recruitment advertisements, and/or mailed invitations to registered Ohio owners of specific vehicle models. The study protocols will be reviewed and approved by the Sterling Institutional Review Board (IRB) before any data collection procedures begin. The research is to be performed one time with no additional requirements or questions once the person has completed the in-person study data collection. The information collected will be available for public consumption upon completion in a report accessible on the National Transportation Library and/or the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Personal information will not be published in the technical reports. Analysis may also be used to inform NHTSA's future safety research and rulemaking efforts.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Analyses will be performed on the collected data documenting participants' driving and eye glance behavior, as well as their responses to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88344"/>
                    crash avoidance alerts and warnings. Vehicle control metrics such as speed, headway, and steering and braking input characteristics may be compared across conditions. Analyses will also be performed on drivers' responses to any crash avoidance warnings presented, such as response time from visual crash avoidance warning signal onset to the time at which the driver's eye glance reaches the visual warning signal and the time at which the driver initiates a crash avoidance response.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of the Need for the Information and Proposed Use of the Information</HD>
                <P>NHTSA was established by the Highway Safety Act of 1970 (23 U.S.C. 401) to carry out a Congressional mandate to reduce deaths, injuries, and economic losses resulting from motor vehicle crashes on the Nation's highways. As part of this mandate, NHTSA through delegation (23 U.S.C. § 403), is authorized to conduct research as a foundation for developing traffic safety programs. As driver assistance technologies advance, they have the potential to dramatically reduce the number of motor vehicle crashes and injuries, as well as the associated economic costs. The safety and effectiveness of the crash avoidance warning systems depend on drivers understanding the capabilities and constraints of the systems, and the meaning of visual and auditory alerts or warnings provided.</P>
                <P>Drivers successfully perceiving and understanding crash avoidance warnings is important for crash avoidance system effectiveness and mitigating crashes. In particular, drivers must comprehend the situation and respond quickly when a crash avoidance warning system indicates an imminent collision is likely. This research aims to assess the effects of crash avoidance warning system HMI characteristics on driver behavior, on driver response in crash-imminent scenarios, and on crash avoidance success. The research will compare various crash avoidance warning system HMI characteristics and examine participants' responses to the alerts and/or warnings.</P>
                <P>The collection of information will consist of (1) Interest Response Form, (2) Candidate Screening Questions, (3) Appointment Scheduling, (4) Participant Informed Consent Form, (5) Study Data Collection, and (6) Post-Drive Questionnaire. The information to be collected will be used for the following purposes:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Interest Response Form</E>
                     will be used to determine individuals' willingness to participate in the research and whether an individual qualifies for participation in this study based on specific information, such as annual mileage driven. Individuals' responses are reviewed to determine whether they meet the age, licensing, and annual driving mileage criteria:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">a. Be aged 25-65 years (inclusive)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">For drivers of light passenger vehicles:</E>
                     Hold a valid U.S. driver's license and drive at least 11,000 miles annually in light passenger vehicles
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">For drivers of heavy trucks:</E>
                     Hold a valid U.S. commercial driver's license and drive at least 11,000 miles annually in a commercial truck
                </FP>
                <P>
                    (2) 
                    <E T="03">Candidate Screening Questions</E>
                     will be primarily used to ensure that participants meet driving record requirements of the contractor's insurance company, are free of recent criminal convictions, meet specific minimum health qualifications, and have reasonable availability to participate in the study. Health screening questions aim to identify candidate participants whose physical and health conditions and driving experience may be deemed generally `average' and that they can understand study documents.
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">a. Have no more than 2 points on current driving record</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">b. Have no criminal convictions in the past 3 years including criminal driving offenses</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">c. Have no uncorrected vision or hearing problems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">d. Be in good general health, able to drive continuously and safely for a period of 2 hours without the need for assistive devices</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">e. Self-report that they are able to read, write, speak, and understand English</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">f. Be willing to drive to NHTSA's Vehicle Research and Test Center and spend up to approximately 3 hours participating in a research study</FP>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">Appointment Scheduling</E>
                     will be used to contact the candidates meeting the criteria and to schedule their study participation appointment. Contact with the selected participants will be by email, text message, or phone to schedule participation as needed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) 
                    <E T="03">Participant Informed Consent Form</E>
                     will be used to describe the purpose, procedures, possible benefits and risks of the study. This form explains what information will be collected, how the information will be used, how it is maintained, who may use it, and secondary research and other uses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) 
                    <E T="03">Study Data Collection</E>
                     will produce data documenting participants' driving and eye glance behavior for later analysis with respect to research questions addressing safety impacts of the crash avoidance warning system HMI characteristics.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) 
                    <E T="03">Post-Drive Questionnaire</E>
                     will be used to understand drivers' opinions regarding, degree of comfort experienced, and perceptions of safety associated with the different crash avoidance warning system HMI characteristics tested.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Research participants will be paid volunteers from the Columbus, OH area who are licensed drivers aged 25-65 years (inclusive), who drive at least 11,000 miles annually, are in good health, and do not require assistive devices to safely operate a vehicle and drive continuously for a period of up to 2 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     Candidate participant recruitment information will be collected in an incremental fashion to permit the determination of which individuals meet the criteria for research participation. All interested candidates (estimate: 750) will complete the Interest Response Form. A subset of individuals (estimate: 375) meeting the criteria for the Interest Response Form will be asked to complete Candidate Screening Questions. Those who complete and are eligible based on the Candidate Screening Questions will be contacted for Appointment Scheduling to be study participants, with a goal of 200 participants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This research will be conducted once in phases corresponding to the different crash avoidance warning system types to be examined (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     forward, lateral, and rear crash avoidance).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     239 hours. The annual estimated burden for the information collection is 239 hours. This is the aggregate of the estimated annual burden for 6 information collections that would be part of the one-time study. The 6 information collections include: (1) Interest Response Form to be administered to up to 250 potential research respondents; (2) Candidate Screening Questions to be administered to up to 125 research participants; (3) Appointment Scheduling to be administered to up to 67 research participants; (4) Participant Informed Consent Form to be administered to up to 67 research participants; (5) Study Data Collection; and (6) Post-Drive 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88345"/>
                    Questionnaire to be administered to up to 67 research participants.
                </P>
                <P>The study will begin with a screening process to identify eligible participants. As stated above, the research team intends to identify 250 eligible participants to account for potential attrition to ensure that the target sample of 67 participants is achieved. Participant recruitment will be accomplished via online and print advertisements, and as needed, mailings to registered Ohio vehicle owners. Individuals interested in participation will respond to the recruitment advertisement by visiting a secure website containing a brief study description. The study description includes a web link that interested candidate participants can follow to begin the screening process. NHTSA estimates that the Interest Response Form takes, on average, 5 minutes to complete. Therefore, estimates the annual burden for Interest Response Form to be 21 hours (5 minutes × 250 respondents).</P>
                <P>Individuals whose responses meet participation requirements will be selected to take the Candidate Screening Questions. The research team intends to identify 125 eligible participants to account for potential attrition to ensure that the target sample of 67 participants is achieved. Candidate participants are emailed a link to the electronically presented question set hosted on a secure website. NHTSA estimates that the Candidate Screening Questions takes, on average, 7 minutes to complete. Therefore, estimates the annual burden for Candidate Screening Questions to be 15 hours (7 minutes × 125 respondents).</P>
                <P>Upon review of response data for the Candidate Screening Questions, candidates meeting the criteria will be contacted to schedule the study participation appointment. The research team intends to identify 67 eligible candidates. NHTSA estimates that the Appointment Scheduling takes, on average, 2 minutes to complete. Therefore, estimates the annual burden for Appointment Scheduling to be 2 hours (2 minutes × 67 respondents).</P>
                <P>Each respondent will begin with a consenting process, which is completed on-site at the testing facility at the beginning of the study session. This consenting process includes an overview of the study and an explanation of the informed consent form. This consenting process is expected to take 35 minutes. Therefore, NHTSA estimates the total burden for obtaining informed consent to be 39 hours (35 minutes × 67 respondents).</P>
                <P>Following consent, the participant will receive instructions on the study protocol. For driving data collection, the participant will be shown the vehicle, seated in the driver seat, and an eye-tracking system calibration will be performed. Driving will then commence while data are recorded to document vehicle performance and driver behavior. For stationary measurements, the individual would be seated in a stationary vehicle and asked to look at and/or listen to different crash avoidance warnings and provide verbal feedback as appropriate. This Study Data Collection will be conducted once and take approximately 130 minutes. Therefore, NHTSA estimates that the total burden for the Study Data Collection to be 145 hours (130 minutes × 67 respondents).</P>
                <P>At the end, participants will complete a Post-Drive Questionnaire, estimated to take approximately 15 minutes. The total burden for the Post-Drive Questionnaire is estimated to be 17 hours (15 minutes × 67 respondents). The total annual burden for the entire study is estimated to be 239 hours.</P>
                <P>
                    The estimated annual burden time and opportunity cost burdens are summarized in the table below. The opportunity cost is calculated per hour based on Bureau of Labor Statistics Jan. 2024 Average Hourly Earnings data for “Total Private,” $34.55 (Accessed February 8, 2024, at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/empsit.t19.htm</E>
                    ). The number of respondents and time to complete each question set are estimated as shown in the table. The time per question set is calculated by multiplying the number of respondents by the time per respondent and then converting from minutes to hours. The hour value for each question set is multiplied by the latest average hour earning estimate from the Bureau of Labor Statistics to obtain an estimated burden cost per question set. NHTSA estimates that the annual opportunity cost is approximately $8,245.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,10,11,10,9,12,10,11">
                    <TTITLE>Table—Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Information collection</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency
                            <LI>of response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per response
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per response
                            <LI>$34.55/hour</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>estimated burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>(rounded)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>opportunity</LI>
                            <LI>costs</LI>
                            <LI>(rounded)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interest Response Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>250</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>250</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2.88</ENT>
                        <ENT>21</ENT>
                        <ENT>$720</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Candidate Screening Questions</ENT>
                        <ENT>125</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>125</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.03</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>504</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Appointment Scheduling</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>77</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Participant Informed Consent Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>20.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>39</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,350</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Study Data Collection</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>130</ENT>
                        <ENT>74.86</ENT>
                        <ENT>145</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,016</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Post-Drive Questionnaire</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>67</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.64</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>579</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Annual Burden</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>239</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,245</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Cost:</E>
                     $2,693.40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    There are no additional costs to respondents beyond the time spent participating in the study, completing the questionnaires and travel costs for the visit to the study site. Respondents for the 
                    <E T="03">Interest Response Form</E>
                     and the 
                    <E T="03">Candidate Screening Questions</E>
                     use their own electronic device to complete the questionnaires. They are not responsible for purchasing additional equipment nor software for this completion. Any email messages or phone calls made for the purposes of 
                    <E T="03">Appointment Scheduling</E>
                     are handled through personal devices as well.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Respondents selected, and who agree to participate in the 
                    <E T="03">Study Data Collection,</E>
                     will need to provide or obtain their own transportation to and from the study site. However, they are reimbursed for hours of participation (estimated 3 hours at $65 hour) and the cost of mileage driven to and from the study site and, therefore, incur no additional costs. The costs are minimal and are expected to be offset by the compensation that will be provided to the research participants. NHTSA estimates that each of the participants will travel on average 30 miles one-way to the research location (approximately 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88346"/>
                    60 miles round trip). Using the IRS standard mileage rate of $0.67 per mile,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     each respondent is expected to incur approximately $40.20 in transportation costs. Therefore, NHTSA estimates that the total costs to all respondents for the one-time study will be approximately $8,040 ($40.20 × 200 respondents). NHTSA estimates the total annual costs based on an average of 67 respondents a year. Accordingly, NHTSA estimates the total annual cost to be $2,693.40 per year ($40.20 × 67 respondents). All equipment required for conduct of the research will be provided by NHTSA. The respondents will be fairly compensated for their participation without being coercive.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         From Internal Revenue Service's 2024 standard mileage rates for self-employed and business. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/tax-professionals/standard-mileage-rates,</E>
                         last accessed May 14, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     The public is invited to comment on any aspects of this information collection, including (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Department's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended; 49 CFR 1.49; and DOT Order 1351.29A.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Cem Hatipoglu,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator, Vehicle Safety Research.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25821 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-59-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PHMSA-2024-0041 (Notice No. 2024-13)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Hazardous Materials: Information Collection Activities</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, PHMSA is publishing a 60-day supplemental notice and providing an additional opportunity for public comment on its development of general investigative questions that may be used by PHMSA's Office of Hazardous Materials Safety (OHMS) field operations personnel when investigating potential general safety issues. These questions are intended to facilitate fact-gathering efforts during general investigations related to PHMSA's safety oversight responsibilities. Answering these questions would be voluntary and not impose any new reporting or recordkeeping requirements on regulated entities. Rather, the goal is to develop a pool of questions that can be tailored as appropriate based on the specific circumstances of a general investigation that is not related to the inspection of an individual company or entity for compliance with the hazardous materials regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by the Docket Number PHMSA-2024-0041 (Notice No. 2024-13) by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management System; U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Routing Symbol M-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         To the Docket Management System; Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and Docket Number (PHMSA-2024-0041) for this notice at the beginning of the comment. To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. All comments received will be posted without change to the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) and will include any personal information you provide.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Requests for a copy of an information collection should be directed to Steven Andrews or Nina Vore, Standards and Rulemaking Division, (202) 366-8553, 
                        <E T="03">ohmspra@dot.gov,</E>
                         Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the dockets to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or DOT's Docket Operations Office (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Confidential Business Information:</E>
                         Confidential Business Information (CBI) is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” PHMSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Steven Andrews or Nina Vore, Standards and Rulemaking Division and addressed to the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or 
                        <E T="03">ohmspra@dot.gov.</E>
                         Any commentary that PHMSA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Steven Andrews or Nina Vore, Standards and Rulemaking Division, (202) 366-8553, 
                        <E T="03">ohmspra@dot.gov,</E>
                         Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">
                    SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
                    <PRTPAGE P="88347"/>
                </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Initial 60-Day Notice</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 12, 2024,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     PHMSA published a 60-day notice to give the public the opportunity to comment on an information collection request seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for a list of general investigation questions. PHMSA received seven (7) sets of comments from six (6) commenters on the 60-day notice. PHMSA is publishing this supplemental 60-day notice to address stakeholder comments (received from the initial 60-day notice), revise certain questions below based on feedback received, and clarify the intent of the information collection request. Specifically, PHMSA received comments from the following entities:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         89 FR 50045 (Jun. 12, 2024)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Commenter name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket No.</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Airline Pilots Association (ALPA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0008.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Council on Safe Transportation of Hazardous Articles (COSTHA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0005.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dangerous Goods Advisory Council (DGAC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0002.</E>
                            <LI>
                                <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0003.</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Household &amp; Commercial Products Association (HCPA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0007.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">International Vessel Operators Dangerous Goods Association (IVODGA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0006.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Smart TD</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/comment/PHMSA-2024-0041-0004.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>ALPA provided comments suggesting that PHMSA should include questions about the adoption of a Safety Management System (SMS) and Safety Risk Assessment (SRA). COSTHA and IVODGA emphasized that some of the proposed questions might be beyond the shipper's operational scope, potentially asking for information outside the shipper's expertise, or lacking in clarity regarding the information sought by PHMSA. COSTHA and IVODGA also provided comments and proposed edits to the individual general investigation questions. DGAC expressed concerns that the general investigation questions lacked specificity and clarity in identifying the information PHMSA aims to collect to address safety issues. However, after receiving clarification from PHMSA on the intent of the information collection request, DGAC expressed willingness to review and comment on a supplemental notice. HCPA stated that PHMSA did not specify the selection criteria for respondents or how they should respond and questioned the relevance of the questions to investigations. HCPA also questioned PHMSA's assertion that there is no `burden cost' associated with this information collection request. Lastly, Smart TD expressed support for a streamlined inspection and standardized investigation process.</P>
                <P>
                    In this 60-day supplemental notice, PHMSA is reaffirming that the questions outlined in this information collection request are intended to be used to engage in voluntary discussions with stakeholders regarding important safety issues that are not related to any specific inspection or enforcement actions. The purpose of this information collection request is to allow PHMSA to engage with our stakeholders on a voluntary basis to discuss potential safety issues across a particular industry sector (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the transportation of hazardous materials by vessel, etc.) or process (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the production of organic peroxides, etc.). Compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) is required even if an information collection request is voluntary. One example of a scenario where PHMSA might use these general investigation questions is when there are unexplained incidents on vessels suspected of involving the transportation of hazardous materials. Having a list of pre-approved questions would enable PHMSA to proactively engage with the shippers associated with those vessels, and still comply with PRA requirements. Information obtained from this outreach could assist PHMSA in identifying potential actions to help safeguard the operators of these vessels.
                </P>
                <P>PHMSA is also clarifying that the questions presented in this information collection request are not intended to be used by field operations staff when conducting routine investigations or inspections of individual companies for compliance with the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR; 49 CFR parts 171 through 180). Questions involving inspections and investigations used to determine compliance with the HMR are not subject to the PRA (see 5 CFR 1320.4). This exception to the PRA excludes information collected in response to, among other things, a federal civil action or “during the conduct of an administrative action, investigation, or audit involving an agency against specific individuals or entities.”</P>
                <P>Finally, in this 60-day supplemental notice PHMSA has reviewed and revised—where appropriate—the questions that are part of this information collection request based on internal review and comments received to the initial 60-day notice. PHMSA is also clarifying the HCPA comment on “burden cost,” explaining that this term refers to the upfront capital costs the public incurs to comply with a Federal information collection request. This includes expenses for equipment, software, or other resources necessary to fulfill the requirements of an information collection request. As the responses to the questions outlined in this information collection request are voluntary and simply involve answering questions presented, there are no upfront capital costs associated with this information collection request. In this 60-day supplemental notice, PHMSA is proposing a maximum number of respondents, responses, and burden hours associated with this information collection request. PHMSA may reach out to respondents via telephone or email to voluntarily request answers to relevant questions mentioned in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Summary of Revised Questions in This 60-Day Supplemental Notice</HD>
                <P>
                    PHMSA received comments from ALPA, COSTHA, HCPA, and IVODGA suggesting revisions to the questions in the initial 60-day notice. ALPA proposed adding air-related questions to the safety section, focusing on Safety Risk Assessment (SRA) and mitigating the risks associated with transporting hazardous materials by air. Both COSTHA and IVODGA provided comments suggesting revisions to the individual questions in the initial 60-day notice. Examples of these revisions included inquiring about the elements of a security plan, clarifying a question about validation processes, and specifying what PHMSA means by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88348"/>
                    “entities.” Lastly, HCPA suggested replacing the word “see” in the list of questions with “ships or receives.”
                </P>
                <P>In response to comments from ALPA, PHMSA has added questions on SRAs and mitigating the risk of transporting hazardous materials by air to this 60-day supplemental notice. PHMSA has also revised questions based on input received from COSTHA and IVODGA to account for multiple incidents, inquire about elements of a security plan, and clarify a question about validating processes. PHMSA has chosen to retain the current terminology for “entities,” as it offers a comprehensive framework that ensures inclusivity and broad applicability. In response to the HCPA comment, PHMSA has in this 60-day supplemental notice replaced the word “see” with “ships or receives” to provide greater clarity to these questions. Additionally, in this 60-day supplemental notice PHMSA has included a question at the end of each section to allow entities being questioned to provide any additional information that may help identify the circumstances of the safety issue. Finally, in this 60-day supplemental notice PHMSA has also revised the registration question to ask about both PHMSA and Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) registration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Supplementary Information</HD>
                <P>The PRA requires Federal agencies to minimize paperwork burden on regulated entities and receive approval from OMB for any information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>The development of these general investigation questions does not directly impose any new information collection requirements on the regulated community. PHMSA is seeking comments on the information collection burden of proposed general questions that agency investigators may use during general safety investigations. These voluntary questions would be designed to gather information about potential safety issues without imposing significant new information collection burdens on the public.</P>
                <P>The use of such general investigation questions would allow the agency to carry out its statutory responsibilities to protect public safety while minimizing the paperwork burden on regulated entities. These questions would not require entities to provide specific reports or maintain additional records, but would simply facilitate the gathering of relevant facts during general safety investigations not associated with determining compliance with the HMR for a specific entity. The agency intends to develop a pool of questions that could be tailored as needed based on the specific circumstances of each general safety investigation. Examples may include questions about general industry operating procedures, training practices, incident reporting, hazard analysis, and other safety-related topics. No new data collection instruments or generalized surveys are proposed at this time.</P>
                <P>This notice outlines PHMSA's intent to develop general investigation questions focused on safety that can be tailored as needed. It clarifies that no new reporting requirements or recordkeeping burdens are being imposed through this process. The notice demonstrates how this effort is meant to facilitate the agency's enforcement responsibilities while minimizing paperwork impacts, which can support compliance with the PRA.</P>
                <P>Section 1320.8(d), title 5, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) requires PHMSA to provide interested members of the public and affected agencies an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping requests. This notice identifies an information collection request PHMSA will be submitting to OMB.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. General Investigation Questions To Be Submitted to OMB for Approval</HD>
                <P>Listed below are the general investigation questions that PHMSA plans to submit to OMB for approval:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Introduction Questions</HD>
                <P>a. What are your typical operations? Can you provide a general overview?</P>
                <P>b. To the best of your knowledge, was a hazardous material involved in your operations?</P>
                <P>c. If yes, please provide the proper shipping name.</P>
                <P>d. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. General Hazardous Materials (Hazmat) Information</HD>
                <P>a. Can you describe the hazardous materials in transportation you normally ship or receive?</P>
                <P>i. How often do you ship or receive them?</P>
                <P>ii. Are you shipping them?</P>
                <P>iii. Are you storing them?</P>
                <P>iv. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <P>b. Are there any specific requirements for the condition of the hazardous material that must be followed before the identified material is transported?</P>
                <P>c. Have these conditions been verified? If so, what was the method used?</P>
                <P>d. Are there modal-specific (rail/air/vessel/highway) requirements for this hazardous material that you follow? If so, what are they?</P>
                <P>e. Do the carriers accepting your hazardous material have any concerns/special accommodations when receiving your hazardous material?</P>
                <P>
                    f. Do shipping agents (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     insurance companies, shippers, freight forwarders, etc.) have specific requirements when accepting your hazardous material?
                </P>
                <P>g. Which hazard class(es) of hazardous materials in transportation do you routinely ship or receive?</P>
                <P>h. Is there any other information related to the hazardous materials that you ship and/or receive that you would like to share?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Hazardous Material Training</HD>
                <P>a. Which employees/departments are trained to be able to handle this hazardous material?</P>
                <P>b. Who conducts this training?</P>
                <P>c. When was the last time training was provided?</P>
                <P>d. How do you determine who needs training?</P>
                <P>e. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Safety</HD>
                <P>a. What have you or your industry done to mitigate risk around the hazardous material involved in the incident?</P>
                <P>b. What solutions have been found to be helpful during hazardous materials incidents?</P>
                <P>c. How would you handle a hazardous material found to be damaged or not properly packaged?</P>
                <P>d. Are there any special requirements in place or instructions when hazardous materials are present?</P>
                <P>e. Do you implement a Safety Management System (SMS) at your facility?</P>
                <P>f. Do you implement a Safety Risk Assessment (SRA) at your facility? For example, for items being transported in the cargo compartment of an aircraft, do you implement the recommendations found in Advisory Circular 120-121 “Safety Risk Management Involving Items in Aircraft Cargo Compartments” published September 1, 2021?</P>
                <P>g. What have you or your industry done to mitigate risk around the hazardous material being shipped?</P>
                <P>h. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Emergencies/Incidents</HD>
                <P>a. Do you have the means to contain the hazardous material if there is an accident or an incident?</P>
                <P>
                    b. What remediation companies are potentially contracted at this location or by this company?
                    <PRTPAGE P="88349"/>
                </P>
                <P>c. Does your operation require a hazmat security plan? If so, what elements of a security plan are implemented?</P>
                <P>d. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Industry Process/SOPs</HD>
                <P>a. What other companies are you utilizing when transporting hazardous materials? Can you offer a point of contact to gather information about this company's transportation of this hazardous material (or materials)?</P>
                <P>b. What are the locations of your hazardous materials operations?</P>
                <P>c. Can you share the Standard Operation Procedures (SOP) for the handling of hazardous materials at your company?</P>
                <P>d. Are you familiar with registration requirements?</P>
                <P>e. Are you required to obtain a PHMSA or Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) registration?</P>
                <P>f. Who signs and prepares shipping papers?</P>
                <P>g. Do you transport any hazardous materials in compliance with an approval or special permit?</P>
                <P>h. Do you have any type of validation process that confirms compliance with the HMR prior to making hazardous material shipments?</P>
                <P>i. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Carriers/Shippers/Testers/Manufacturers</HD>
                <P>a. Do you manufacture any hazardous material packaging?</P>
                <P>b. Are any other entities involved with the preparation, handling, or transportation of hazardous materials?</P>
                <P>c. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Packaging</HD>
                <P>a. Where do you purchase hazardous materials packaging?</P>
                <P>b. Is the product loaded at any specific temperature/pressure?</P>
                <P>c. What types of packaging do you routinely ship or receive for hazardous materials transportation? Including bulk, non-bulk, and/or cylinders.</P>
                <P>d. At what interval are you having the package tested? Who performs this function? Are there records?</P>
                <P>e. How are you closing the packages? Which tools or other equipment are used?</P>
                <P>f. Is there any other information you would like to share on this topic?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>The estimated reporting burdens associated with this information collection are as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number or Responses:</E>
                     1,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     30 minutes. Information will be collected on a voluntary basis to address potential safety issues identified by PHMSA investigators.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Burden Cost:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments to This 60-Day Supplemental Notice</HD>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments submitted in response to this 60-day supplemental notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC on November 4, 2024, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.97.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Alexander Ronald Wolcott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief, Regulatory Review and Reinvention Branch, Office of Hazardous Materials Safety. Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25875 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-60-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Request for Information on the Department of Veterans Affairs Dental Hygienist Standard of Practice</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for information.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is requesting information to assist in developing a national standard of practice for VA Dental Hygienists. VA seeks comments on various topics to help inform VA's development of this national standard of practice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                         Except as provided below, comments received before the close of the comment period will be available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                         for public viewing, inspection, or copying, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post the comments received before the close of the comment period on the following website as soon as possible after they have been received: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                         VA will not post on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                         public comments that make threats to individuals or institutions or suggest that the commenter will take actions to harm the individual. VA encourages individuals not to submit duplicative comments. We will post acceptable comments from multiple unique commenters even if the content is identical or nearly identical to other comments. Any public comment received after the comment period's closing date will not be considered.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Ethan Kalett, Office of Regulations, Appeals and Policy (10BRAP), Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, 202-461-0500. This is not a toll-free number.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>Chapters 73 and 74 of 38 U.S.C. and 38 U.S.C. 303 authorize the Secretary to regulate VA health care professions to make certain that VA's health care system provides safe and effective health care by qualified health care professionals to ensure the well-being of those Veterans who have borne the battle.</P>
                <P>
                    On November 12, 2020, VA published an interim final rule confirming that VA health care professionals may practice their health care profession consistent with the scope and requirements of their VA employment, notwithstanding any State license, registration, certification, or other requirements that unduly interfere with their practice. 38 CFR 17.419; 85 FR 71838. Specifically, this rulemaking confirmed VA's current practice of permitting VA health care professionals to deliver health care services in a State other than the health care professional's State of licensure, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88350"/>
                    registration, certification, or other requirement, and thereby, enhancing beneficiaries' access to critical VA health care services. The rulemaking also confirmed VA's authority to establish national standards of practice for its health care professionals, which would standardize a health care professional's practice in all VA medical facilities, regardless of conflicting State laws, rules, regulations, or other requirements.
                </P>
                <P>The rulemaking explained that a national standard of practice describes the tasks and duties that a VA health care professional practicing in the health care profession may perform and may be permitted to undertake. Having a national standard of practice means that individuals from the same VA health care profession may perform the same type of tasks and duties regardless of the State where they are located or the State license, registration, certification, or other requirement they hold. We emphasized in the rulemaking and reiterate here that VA will determine, on an individual basis, that a health care professional has the proper education, training, and skills to perform the tasks and duties detailed in the national standard of practice, and that they will only be able to perform such tasks and duties after they have been incorporated into the individual's privileges, scope of practice, or functional statement. The rulemaking explicitly did not create any such national standards and directed that all national standards of practice would be subsequently created through policy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Preemption of State Requirements</HD>
                <P>The national standard of practice will preempt any State laws, rules, regulations, or other requirements that are both listed and unlisted in the national standard as conflicting, but that do conflict with the tasks and duties as authorized in VA's national standard of practice. The term State, as applied here, means each of the several States, territories, and possessions of the United States and is consistent with the definition in 38 U.S.C. 101(20). If a State changes their requirements and places new limitations on the tasks and duties it permits in a manner that would be inconsistent with what is authorized under the national standard of practice, the national standard of practice will preempt such limitations and authorize the VA health care professional to continue to practice consistent with the tasks and duties outlined in the national standard of practice.</P>
                <P>In cases where a VA health care professional's license, registration, certification, or other requirement permits a practice that is not included in a national standard of practice, the individual may continue that practice so long as it is permissible under Federal law and VA policy; is not explicitly restricted by the national standard of practice; and is approved by the VA medical facility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Need for National Standards of Practice</HD>
                <P>It is critical that VA, the Nation's largest integrated health care system, develop national standards of practice to ensure, first, that beneficiaries receive the same high-quality care regardless of where they enter the system and, second, that VA health care professionals can efficiently meet the needs of beneficiaries when practicing within the scope of their VA employment. National standards are designed to increase beneficiaries' access to safe and effective health care; thereby, improving health outcomes. The importance of this initiative has been underscored by the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic. The increased need for mobility in VA's workforce, including through VA's Disaster Emergency Medical Personnel System, highlighted the importance of creating uniform national standards of practice to better support VA health care professionals who practice across State lines. Creating national standards of practice also promotes interoperability of medical data between VA and the Department of Defense (DoD), providing a complete picture of a Veteran's health information and improving VA's delivery of health care to the Nation's Veterans. DoD has historically standardized practice for certain health care professionals, and VA has closely partnered with DoD to learn from their experience.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Process To Develop National Standards of Practice</HD>
                <P>
                    As authorized by 38 CFR 17.419, VA is developing national standards of practice through policy. The overarching directive to describe Veterans Health Administration (VHA) policy on national standards of practice is VHA Directive 1900(3), VA National Standards of Practice, August 30, 2023. The directive is accessible on VHA's publications website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/vhapublications.</E>
                     As each individual national standard of practice is finalized, it is published as an appendix to the directive and is accessible at the same website.
                </P>
                <P>To develop these national standards, VA is using a robust, interactive process that adheres to the requirements of Executive Order (E.O.) 13132, Federalism, to preempt conflicting State laws, rules, regulations, or other requirements. For each health care occupation, a workgroup comprised of VA health care professionals in the identified occupation conducts research to identify internal best practices that may not be authorized under every State license, certification, or registration, but would enhance the practice and efficiency of the profession throughout VA. If a best practice is identified that is not currently authorized by every State, the workgroup determines what education, training, and skills are required to perform such tasks and duties. The workgroup then drafts a proposed VA national standard of practice using the data gathered and any internal stakeholder feedback received. The workgroup may consult with internal or external stakeholders at any point throughout the process.</P>
                <P>The process to develop VA national standards of practice includes listening sessions for members of the public, professional associations, and VA employees to provide comments on the variance between State practice acts for specific occupations and what should be included in the national standard of practice for that occupation. The listening session for dental hygienists was held on September 7, 2023. No comments were provided on the dental hygienists standard of practice.</P>
                <P>After the proposed standard is developed, it is first internally reviewed. This includes a review from an interdisciplinary VA workgroup consisting of representatives from the following offices: Quality Management, VA medical facility Chief of Staff, Academic Affiliates, Veterans Integrated Services Network (VISN) Chief Nursing Officer, Ethics, Workforce Management and Consulting, Surgery, Credentialing and Privileging, VISN Chief Medical Officer, and Electronic Health Record Modernization.</P>
                <P>
                    After the internal review, VA provides the proposed national standard of practice to our DoD partners as an opportunity to flag inconsistencies with DoD standards. VA also engages with labor partners informally as part of a pre-decisional collaboration. Consistent with E.O. 13132, VA sends a letter to each State board and certifying organization or registration organization, as appropriate, which includes the proposed national standard and offers the recipient an opportunity to discuss the national standard with VA. After the State boards, certifying organizations, or registration organizations have received notification, the proposed national standard of practice is posted in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     for 60 days to obtain feedback 
                    <PRTPAGE P="88351"/>
                    from the public, professional associations, and any other interested parties. At the same time, the proposed national standard is posted to an internal VA site to obtain feedback from VA employees. Responses received through all vehicles—from State boards, professional associations, unions, VA employees, and any other individual or organization that provides comments through the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    —will be reviewed. VA will make appropriate revisions in light of the comments, including those that present evidence-based practices and alternatives that help VA meet our mission and goals. VA will publish a collective response to all comments at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/standardsofpractice/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The national standard of practice is then finalized, approved, and published in VHA policy. Any tasks or duties included in the national standard will be properly incorporated into individual VA health care professionals' privileges, scope of practice, or functional statement once it has been determined by their VA medical facility that the individual has the proper education, training, and skills to perform the task or duty. The implementation of the national standard of practice may be phased in across all VA medical facilities, with limited exemptions for health care professionals as needed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Format for the Proposed National Standard for Dental Hygienist</HD>
                <P>The format for the proposed national standards of practice when there are State licenses is as follows. The first paragraph provides general information about the profession and what the VA health care professionals can do. For this national standard, Dental Hygienists perform oral prophylaxis and other therapeutic or preventive procedures for periodontal disease, caries control, or other dental problems. We reiterate that the proposed standard of practice does not contain an exhaustive list of every task and duty that each VA health care professional can perform. Rather, it is designed to highlight generally what tasks and duties the health care professionals perform and how they practice within VA.</P>
                <P>
                    The second paragraph references the education and license, or other requirement, needed to practice this profession at VA. Qualification Standards for employment of health care professionals by VA are available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OHRM/QualificationStandards/.</E>
                     VA follows the requirements outlined in its qualification standards even if the requirements conflict with or differ from a State requirement. The national standards of practice do not affect those requirements. For dental hygienists, VA requires an active, current, full, and unrestricted State license, and that the dental hygienists meet credentialing standards in 42 CFR part 75, Standards for the Accreditation of Educational Programs for the Credentialing of Radiologic Personnel. The dental hygienists VA qualification standards are available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OHRM/QualificationStandards/HT38/0682-DentalHygienist.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The second paragraph also notes whether the national standard of practice explicitly excludes individuals who practice under “grandfathering” provisions. Qualification standards may include provisions to permit employees who met all the requirements prior to revisions of the qualification standards to maintain employment at VA even if they no longer meet the new qualification standards. This practice is referred to as grandfathering. VA dental hygienists have grandfathering provisions included within their qualification standards, and VA proposes to have those individuals authorized to follow the dental hygienists national standard of practice. Therefore, there would be no notation regarding grandfathered employees in the national standard of practice as they would be required to adhere to the same standard as would any other VA dental hygienist who meets the current qualification standards.</P>
                <P>The third paragraph establishes what the national standard of practice will be for the occupation in VA. It includes whether the professional can practice all duties covered by their license. For dental hygienists, VA proposes that VA dental hygienists can practice all duties covered by their license and the credentialing standards. VA reviewed State laws and practice acts for dental hygienists in March 2024 and did not identify any conflicts that impact practice of this profession in VA.</P>
                <P>This national standard of practice does not address training because it will not authorize VA dental hygienists to perform any tasks or duties not already authorized under their State license or certification.</P>
                <P>Following public and VA employee comments and revisions, each national standard of practice that is published in policy will also include the date for recertification of the standard of practice and a point of contact for questions or concerns.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed National Standard of Practice for Dental Hygienists</HD>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>All references herein to VA and VHA documents incorporate by reference subsequent VA and VHA documents on the same or similar subject matter.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>1. Dental hygienists perform oral prophylaxis and other therapeutic or preventive procedures for periodontal disease, caries control, or other dental problems.</P>
                <P>
                    2. Dental Hygienists in the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) possess the education, license, and certification required by VA qualification standards, available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.va.gov/OHRM/QualificationStandards/HT38/0682-dentalhygienist.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. VA Dental Hygienists can practice all duties covered by their license, and practice in accordance with the credentialing standards in 42 CFR part 75, Standards for the Accreditation of Educational Programs for the Credentialing of Radiologic Personnel, available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/.</E>
                     VA reviewed State laws and practice acts for Dental Hygienists in March 2024 and did not identify any conflicts that impact practice of this profession in VA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Information</HD>
                <P>1. Is VA's assessment of what your State permits and prohibits accurate?</P>
                <P>2. Are there any areas of variance between State licenses, certification, registration, or other requirement that VA should preempt that are not listed?</P>
                <P>3. Is there anything else you would like to share with us about this VA national standard of practice?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>Denis McDonough, Secretary of Veterans Affairs, approved and signed this document on October 22, 2024, and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Luvenia Potts,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regulation Development Coordinator, Office of Regulation Policy and Management (00REG), Office of General Counsel, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25894 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="88353"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Health and Human Services</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>42 CFR Parts 424, 483, and 484</CFR>
            <TITLE>Medicare Program; Calendar Year (CY) 2025 Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) Rate Update; HH Quality Reporting Program Requirements; HH Value-Based Purchasing Expanded Model Requirements; Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services Rate Update; and Other Medicare Policies; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88354"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>42 CFR Parts 424, 483, and 484</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[CMS-1803-F]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0938-AV28</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Medicare Program; Calendar Year (CY) 2025 Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) Rate Update; HH Quality Reporting Program Requirements; HH Value-Based Purchasing Expanded Model Requirements; Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services Rate Update; and Other Medicare Policies</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule will set forth routine updates to the Medicare home health payment rates; the payment rate for the disposable negative pressure wound therapy (dNPWT) devices; and the intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) items and services payment rate for CY 2025 in accordance with existing statutory and regulatory requirements. In addition, it finalizes changes to the Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HH QRP) requirements and provides an update on potential approaches for integrating health equity in the Expanded Health Value Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model. It also finalizes a new standard for an acceptance-to-service policy in the HH conditions of participation (CoPs). Lastly, it updates provider and supplier enrollment requirements and changes to the long-term care reporting requirements for acute respiratory illnesses.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>These regulations are effective on January 1, 2025.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Brian Slater, (410) 786-5229, for home health and home IVIG payment inquiries.</P>
                        <P>
                            For general information about the Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS), send your inquiry via email to 
                            <E T="03">HomeHealthPolicy@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            For general information about the IVIG Items and Services Payment, send your inquiry via email to 
                            <E T="03">HIT_IVIGpolicy@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            For information about the Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HH QRP), send your inquiry via email to 
                            <E T="03">HHQRPquestions@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            For more information about the expanded Home Health Value-Based Purchasing Model, please visit the Expanded HHVBP Model web page at 
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/innovation-models/expanded-home-health-value-based-purchasing-model.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>Frank Whelan, (410) 786-1302, for Medicare provider and supplier enrollment inquiries.</P>
                        <P>
                            Mary Rossi-Coajou at 
                            <E T="03">mary.rossi-coajou@cms.hhs.gov</E>
                             or Molly Anderson at 
                            <E T="03">molly.anderson@cms.hhs.gov,</E>
                             for more information about the home health conditions of participation (HH CoPs).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Kim Roche at 
                            <E T="03">kim.roche1@cms.hhs.gov</E>
                             or Diane Corning at 
                            <E T="03">diane.corning@cms.hhs.gov</E>
                             for information about long term care facility acute respiratory illness reporting.
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary and Issuance of the Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Issuance of the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Home Health Prospective Payment System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Overview of the Home Health Prospective Payment System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Monitoring the Effects of the Implementation of PDGM</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. CY 2025 Final Rule Payment Adjustments Under the HH PPS</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. CY 2025 Home Health Low Utilization Payment Adjustment (LUPA) Thresholds, Functional Impairment Levels, Comorbidity Sub-Groups, Case-Mix Weights, and Reassignment of Specific ICD-10-CM Codes Under the PDGM</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HH QRP)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Background and Statutory Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Provision of This Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Quality Measures Currently Adopted for the CY 2024 HH QRP</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Proposal To Collect Four New Items as Standardized Patient Assessment Data Elements and Modify One Item Collected as a Standardized Patient Assessment Data Element Beginning With the CY 2027 HH QRP</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Proposal To Update OASIS All-Payer Data Collection</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Form, Manner, and Timing of Data Submission Under the HH QRP</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. HH QRP Quality Measure Concepts Under Consideration for Future Years—Request for Information (RFI)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. The Expanded Home Health Value-Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Request for Information on Future Performance Measure Concepts for the Expanded HHVBP Model</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Future Approaches to Health Equity in the Expanded HHVBP Model</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Social Risk Factors</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Approaches to a Potential Health Equity Adjustment for the Expanded HHVBP Model</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Other Health Equity Measures</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Medicare Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. General Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Scope of Expanded IVIG Benefit</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Home IVIG Administration Items and Services Payment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Home IVIG Items and Services Payment Rate</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Home Health Agency Condition of Participation (CoP) Changes and Long Term Care (LTC) Facility Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Home Health Agency CoP Changes</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Long-Term Care (LTC) Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Provider Enrollment—Provisional Period of Enhanced Oversight</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Provisional Period of Enhanced Oversight (PPEO)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Collection of Information Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Statutory Requirement for the Solicitation of Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Information Collection Requirements (ICRs)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Statement of Need</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Overall Impact</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Detailed Economic Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Regulatory Review Cost Estimation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Alternatives Considered</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Accounting Statements and Tables</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Federalism</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Conclusion</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Waiver Fiscal Responsibility Act Requirements</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary and Issuance of the Final Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose and Legal Authority</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS)</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required under section 1895(b) of the Social Security Act (the Act), this final rule updates the CY 2025 payment rates for home health agencies (HHAs) and the CY 2025 payment rate for disposable negative pressure wound therapy (dNPWT) devices. This rule finalizes a crosswalk for mapping the Outcome and Assessment Information Set-D (OASIS-D) data elements to the equivalent OASIS-E data elements for use in the methodology to analyze the difference between assumed versus actual behavior change on estimated aggregate expenditures and finalizes a permanent adjustment to the CY 2025 home health base payment rate. In addition, this rule finalizes the recalibrated PDGM case-mix weights and updates the low-utilization payment adjustment (LUPA) thresholds, functional impairment levels, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88355"/>
                        comorbidity adjustment subgroups under section 1895(b)(4)(A)(i) and (b)(4)(B) of the Act for 30-day periods of care in CY 2025; finalizes the proposal to adopt the most recent Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Core-Based Statistical Area (CBSA) delineations for the home health wage index; and finalizes an occupational therapy (OT) LUPA add-on factor and updates the physical therapy (PT), speech-language pathology (SLP), and skilled nursing (SN) LUPA add-on factors. Additionally, this rule updates the CY 2025 fixed-dollar loss ratio (FDL) for outlier payments (so that outlier payments as a percentage of estimated total payments are projected not to exceed 2.5 percent, as required by section 1895(b)(5)(A) of the Act).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Home Health (HH) Quality Reporting Program (QRP)</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the statutory authority at section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act, we are finalizing updated policies. We are finalizing a proposal to add four new assessment items and modify one assessment item on the OASIS, update the removal of the suspension of OASIS all payer data collection and summarize public feedback on future HH QRP quality measure (QM) concepts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Expanded Home Health Value-Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the statutory authority at section 1115A of the Act, we are doing the following for the expanded HHVBP Model: (1) providing an update on potential approaches for integrating health equity that are being considered; and (2) summarizing comments we received on a request for information (RFI) related to potential future performance measure concepts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>In section V.D.1. of this rule, we finalize the rate for the CY 2025 IVIG items and services payment under the home intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) benefit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Home Health CoP Changes</HD>
                    <P>In section VI.A. of this final rule, we are finalizing a new standard at § 484.105(i) that will require HHAs to develop, implement, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy that is applied consistently to each prospective patient referred for home health care. As finalized, the policy must address, at minimum, the following criteria related to the HHA's capacity to provide patient care: the anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, the HHA's case load and case mix, the HHA's staffing levels, and the skills and competencies of the HHA staff. We also finalized a policy that HHAs will be required to make specified information available to the public that is reviewed whenever services are changed, and no less often than annually.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Provider and Supplier Enrollment Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act states that the Secretary shall establish procedures to provide for a provisional period of between 30 days and 1 year during which new providers and suppliers—as the Secretary determines appropriate, including categories of providers or suppliers—will be subject to enhanced oversight. We are finalizing our proposal to expand the definition of “new provider or supplier” in § 424.527(a) (solely for purposes of applying a provisional period of enhanced oversight) to include providers and suppliers that are reactivating their Medicare enrollment and billing privileges.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Long-Term Care (LTC) Facility Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <P>The current LTC requirements for reporting COVID-19 related data expire on December 31, 2024, except for reporting COVID-19 resident and staff vaccination status. Given the utility of LTC facility data, we finalized a requirement to replace these requirements with streamlined continued data reporting requirements for certain respiratory illnesses. We are also finalizing a requirement that LTC facilities submit additional, related data elements that could be activated in the event of a future acute respiratory illness public health emergency (PHE). We are not finalizing our proposal to increase data reporting if a significant threat for a PHE for an acute infectious illness exists.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Summary of the Provisions of This Final Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS)</HD>
                    <P>In section II.B.1. of this final rule, we discuss comments related to the monitoring and data analysis on PDGM utilization.</P>
                    <P>In section II.C.1 of this final rule, we finalize a permanent adjustment to the base payment rate under the HH PPS. Additionally, we finalize a crosswalk for mapping the OASIS-D data elements to the equivalent OASIS-E data elements for use in the methodology to analyze the difference between assumed versus actual behavior change on estimated aggregate expenditures.</P>
                    <P>In section II.D. of this final rule, we recalibrate the CY 2025 home health LUPA thresholds, case-mix weights, and co-morbidity subgroups. Additionally, we discuss providers' suggestions regarding the reassignment of specific ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes under the PDGM.</P>
                    <P>In section II.E. of this final rule, we finalize a policy updating the home health wage index using the new labor market delineations from the July 21, 2023, OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 based on data collected from the 2020 Decennial Census. This section also includes the CY 2025 national, standardized 30-day period final payment rate, the final CY 2025 national per-visit payment amounts updated by the home health payment update percentage, and the final OT, PT, SLP, and SN LUPA add-on factors. The final home health payment update percentage for CY 2025 is 2.7 percent. Additionally, this rule finalizes the CY 2025 FDL ratio to ensure that aggregate outlier payments do not exceed 2.5 percent of the total aggregate payments, as required by section 1895(b)(5)(A) of the Act.</P>
                    <P>In section II.F.4. of this final rule, we finalize the CY 2025 payment rate for dNPWT devices.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HH QRP)</HD>
                    <P>In section III. of this final rule, we finalize the collection of four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements in the social determinants of health (SDOH) category and modify one item collected as a standardized patient assessment data element in the SDOH category beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP. The four assessment items finalized for collection are: one Living Situation item, two Food items, and one Utilities item. We also finalize a policy to modify the current Transportation item beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP. We are also proposed an update to the removal of the suspension of OASIS all-payer data collection to change all-payer data collection to begin with the start of care OASIS data collection timepoint instead of discharge timepoint. Lastly, we seek input on future HH QRP measure concepts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Expanded Home Health Value Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model</HD>
                    <P>
                        In section IV. of this final rule, we summarize comments received on an RFI related to future measure concepts for the expanded HHVBP Model. We are also including an update to the RFI, “Future Approaches to Health Equity in the Expanded HHVBP Model,” that was 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88356"/>
                        published in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66874, November 4, 2022) and subsequently updated in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77687, November 13, 2023).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>In section V.D.1. of this final rule, we finalize the CY 2025 IVIG items and services payment rate under the home intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) benefit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Home Health CoP Changes</HD>
                    <P>In section VI.A. of this final rule, we finalized a new standard at § 484.105(d) that will require HHAs to develop, implement, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy that is applied consistently to each prospective patient referred for home health care. We have also finalized a requirement that the policy must address, at minimum, the following criteria related to the HHA's capacity to provide patient care: the anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, the HHA's case load and case mix, the HHA's staffing levels, and the skills and competencies of the HHA staff. We also finalized a requirement that HHAs make specified information available to the public that is reviewed at least annually. In the proposed rule, we sought public comments on other factors that influence the patient referral and intake processes. In this final rule, we summarize comments received.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Provider and Supplier Enrollment Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act states that the Secretary may establish procedures to provide for a provisional period of between 30 days and 1 year during which new providers and suppliers—as the Secretary determines appropriate, including categories of providers or suppliers—will be subject to enhanced oversight. We are finalizing our proposal to expand the definition of “new provider or supplier” (solely for purposes of applying a PPEO) to include providers and suppliers that are reactivating their Medicare enrollment and billing privileges.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Long-Term Care (LTC) Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <P>The current LTC requirements for reporting COVID-19 related data expire on December 31, 2024, except for reporting COVID-19 resident and staff vaccination status. Given the utility of LTC facility data, we finalized to replace these requirements with streamlined continued data reporting requirements for certain respiratory illnesses. We are also finalizing additional, related data elements that could be activated in the event of a future acute respiratory illness PHE. We are not finalizing our proposal to increase data reporting if a significant threat for a PHE for an acute infectious illness exists.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Summary of Costs, Transfers, and Benefits</HD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="335">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="390">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88357"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.001</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Issuance of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule, titled “Medicare Program; Calendar Year (CY) 2025 Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) Rate Update; HH Quality Reporting Program Requirements; HH Value-Based Purchasing Expanded Model Requirements; Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services Rate Update; and Other Medicare Policies,” appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on July 3, 2024 (89 FR 55312) (hereinafter referred to as the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule or July 2024 proposed rule).
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed rule set forth proposed payment and policy changes to the Medicare Home Health prospective payment system for CY 2025, proposed changes regarding other programs and policies, as well as solicited comments.</P>
                    <P>In the sections of the rule that follow, we will present the proposed policies and summarize and respond to the public comments received.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Home Health Prospective Payment System</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of the Home Health Prospective Payment System</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Statutory Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1895(b)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish a Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) for all costs of home health services paid under Medicare. Section 1895(b)(2) of the Act requires that, in defining a prospective payment amount, the Secretary will consider an appropriate unit of service and the number, type, and duration of visits provided within that unit, potential changes in the mix of services provided within that unit and their cost, and a general system design that provides for continued access to quality services. In accordance with the statute, as amended by the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (BBA) (Pub. L. 105-33), we issued a final rule which appeared in the July 3, 2000, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (65 FR 41128) to implement the HH PPS legislation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 5201(c) of the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (DRA) (Pub. L. 109-171, enacted February 8, 2006) added new section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) to the Act, requiring home health agencies (HHAs) to submit data for purposes of measuring health care quality, and linking the quality data submission to the annual applicable home health payment update percentage increase. This data submission requirement is applicable for CY 2007 and each subsequent year. If an HHA does not submit quality data, the home health market basket percentage increase is reduced by 2 percentage points. In the November 9, 2006, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (71 FR 65935), we issued a final rule to implement the pay-for-reporting requirement of the DRA, which was codified at § 484.225(h) and (i) in accordance with the statute. The pay-for-reporting requirement was implemented on January 1, 2007.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 51001(a)(1)(B) of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 (BBA of 2018) (Pub. L. 115-123) amended 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88358"/>
                        section 1895(b) of the Act to require a change to the home health unit of payment to 30-day periods beginning January 1, 2020. Section 51001(a)(2)(A) of the BBA of 2018 added a new subclause (iv) under section 1895(b)(3)(A) of the Act, requiring the Secretary to calculate a standard prospective payment amount (or amounts) for 30-day units of service furnished that end during the 12-month period beginning January 1, 2020, in a budget neutral manner, such that estimated aggregate expenditures under the HH PPS during CY 2020 are equal to the estimated aggregate expenditures that otherwise will have been made under the HH PPS during CY 2020 in the absence of the change to a 30-day unit of service. Section 1895(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act requires that the calculation of the standard prospective payment amount (or amounts) for CY 2020 be made before the application of the annual update to the standard prospective payment amount as required by section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, section 1895(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act requires that in calculating the standard prospective payment amount (or amounts), the Secretary must make assumptions about behavior changes that could occur as a result of the implementation of the 30-day unit of service under section 1895(b)(2)(B) of the Act and case-mix adjustment factors established under section 1895(b)(4)(B) of the Act. Section 1895(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act further requires the Secretary to provide a description of the behavior assumptions made in notice and comment rulemaking. CMS finalized these behavior assumptions in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56461).</P>
                    <P>Section 51001(a)(2)(B) of the BBA of 2018 also added a new subparagraph (D) to section 1895(b)(3) of the Act. Section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act requires the Secretary annually to determine the impact of differences between assumed behavior changes, as described in section 1895(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act, and actual behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures under the HH PPS with respect to years beginning with 2020 and ending with 2026. Section 1895(b)(3)(D)(ii) of the Act requires the Secretary, at a time and in a manner determined appropriate, through notice and comment rulemaking, to provide for one or more permanent increases or decreases to the standard prospective payment amount (or amounts) for applicable years, on a prospective basis, to offset for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures, as determined under section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act. Additionally, section 1895(b)(3)(D)(iii) of the Act requires the Secretary, at a time and in a manner determined appropriate, through notice and comment rulemaking, to provide for one or more temporary increases or decreases to the payment amount for a unit of home health services for applicable years, on a prospective basis, to offset for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures, as determined under section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act. Such a temporary increase or decrease shall apply only with respect to the year for which such temporary increase or decrease is made, and the Secretary shall not take into account such a temporary increase or decrease in computing the payment amount for a unit of home health services for a subsequent year. Finally, section 51001(a)(3) of the BBA of 2018 amends section 1895(b)(4)(B) of the Act by adding a new clause (ii) to require the Secretary to eliminate the use of therapy thresholds in the case-mix system for CY 2020 and subsequent years.</P>
                    <P>Division FF, section 4136 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023 (CAA, 2023) (Pub. L. 117-328) amended section 1834(s)(3)(A) of the Act to require that, beginning with 2024, the separate payment for furnishing negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) be for just the device and not for nursing and therapy services. Payment for nursing and therapy services are to be included as part of payments under the HH PPS. The separate payment for 2024 was required to be equal to the supply price used to determine the relative value for the service under the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule (as of January 1, 2022) for the applicable disposable device updated by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U). The separate payment for 2025 and each subsequent year is to be the payment amount for the previous year updated by the percentage increase in the CPI-U (United States city average) for the 12-month period ending in June of the previous year reduced by the productivity adjustment as described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act for such year. The CAA, 2023 also added section 1834(s)(4) of the Act to require that beginning with 2024, as part of submitting claims for the separate payment, the Secretary shall accept, and process claims submitted using the type of bill that is most commonly used by home health agencies to bill services under a home health plan of care.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Current System for Payment of Home Health Services</HD>
                    <P>For home health periods of care beginning on or after January 1, 2020, Medicare makes payment under the HH PPS on the basis of a national, standardized 30-day period payment rate that is adjusted for case-mix and area wage differences in accordance with section 51001(a)(1)(B) of the BBA of 2018. The national, standardized 30-day period payment rate includes payment for the six home health disciplines (skilled nursing, home health aide, physical therapy, speech-language pathology, occupational therapy, and medical social services). Payment for non-routine supplies (NRS) is also part of the national, standardized 30-day period rate. Durable medical equipment (DME) provided as a home health service, as defined in section 1861(m) of the Act, is paid the fee schedule amount or is paid through the competitive bidding program and such payment is not included in the national, standardized 30-day period payment amount. Additionally, the 30-day period payment rate does not include payment for certain injectable osteoporosis drugs and disposable negative pressure wound therapy (dNPWT) devices, but such drugs and devices must be billed by the HHA while a patient is under a home health plan of care, as the law requires consolidated billing of osteoporosis drugs and dNPWT devices.</P>
                    <P>
                        To better align payment with patient care needs and to better ensure that clinically complex and ill beneficiaries have adequate access to home health care, in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56406), we finalized case-mix methodology refinements through the Patient-Driven Groupings Model (PDGM) for home health periods of care beginning on or after January 1, 2020. The PDGM did not change eligibility or coverage criteria for Medicare home health services, and as long as the individual meets the criteria for home health services as described at 42 CFR 409.42, the individual can receive Medicare home health services, including therapy services. For more information about the role of therapy services under the PDGM, we refer readers to the Medicare Learning Network (MLN) Matters article SE20005 available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/regulations-and-guidanceguidancetransmittals2020-transmittals/se20005.</E>
                         To adjust for case-mix for 30-day periods of care beginning on and after January 1, 2020, the HH PPS uses a 432-category case-mix classification system to assign patients to a home health resource group (HHRG) using patient 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88359"/>
                        characteristics and other clinical information from Medicare claims and the Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) assessment instrument. These 432 HHRGs represent the different payment groups based on five main case-mix categories under the PDGM, as shown in figure 1. Each HHRG has an associated case-mix weight that is used in calculating the payment for a 30-day period of care. For periods of care with visits less than the low-utilization payment adjustment (LUPA) threshold for the HHRG, Medicare pays national per-visit rates based on the discipline(s) providing the services. Medicare also adjusts the national standardized 30-day period payment rate for certain intervening events that are subject to a partial payment adjustment. For certain cases that exceed a specific cost threshold, an outlier adjustment may also be available.
                    </P>
                    <P>Under this case-mix methodology, case-mix weights are generated for each of the different PDGM payment groups by regressing resource use for each of the five categories (admission source, timing, clinical grouping, functional impairment level, and comorbidity adjustment) using a fixed effects model. A detailed description of each of the case-mix variables under the PDGM have been described previously, and we refer readers to the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70303 through 70305).</P>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.002</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Monitoring the Effects of the Implementation of PDGM</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Routine PDGM Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule included analysis of Medicare home health benefit utilization, including overall total 30-day periods of care and average periods of care per HHA user; distribution of the type of visits in a 30-day period of care; the percentage of periods that receive the LUPA; estimated costs; the percentage of 30-day periods of care by clinical group, comorbidity adjustment, admission source, timing, and functional impairment level; and the proportion of 30-day periods of care with and without 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88360"/>
                        any therapy visits, nursing visits, and/or aide/social worker visits. We also included monitoring of home health visits using telecommunications technology and remote patient monitoring, which we began collecting on claims submitted voluntarily beginning January 1, 2023, and which was required beginning July 1, 2023.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Overall, commenters discussed the home health utilization trends presented in the monitoring concurrently with comments regarding access to the benefit and generally stated that they believe a decline in utilization is not related to a reduced need for home health services. These commenters encouraged CMS to develop policies that ensure that the PDGM does not continue to affect access to care as indicated by these declining utilization trends. A commenter also suggested CMS expand data collection to include geographic, racial, ethnic, socio-economic, sexual orientation, and gender identity to highlight disparities in home health care services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We will continue to monitor and analyze home health trends and vulnerabilities within the home health payment system and appreciate the commenter's suggestion for additional monitoring. We respond to comments discussing declining trends in utilization as they relate to access to care in our discussion in section B.1.f. of this final rule, and refer readers to that discussion.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. CY 2025 Final Rule Payment Adjustments Under the HH PPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Finalized Behavior Assumption Adjustments Under the HH PPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Background</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in section II.A.1. of this final rule, starting in CY 2020, the Secretary was required by section 1895(b)(2)(B) of the Act to change the unit of payment under the HH PPS from a 60-day episode of care to a 30-day period of care. CMS was also required to make assumptions about behavior changes that could occur as a result of the implementation of the 30-day unit of payment and the case-mix adjustment factors that eliminated the use of therapy thresholds. In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56455), we finalized three behavior change assumptions which were also described in the CY 2022 and 2023 HH PPS rules (86 FR 35890, 87 FR 37614, and 87 FR 66795 through 66796). In the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period (84 FR 60519), we included these behavioral change assumptions in the calculation of the 30-day budget neutral payment amount for CY 2020, finalizing a negative 4.36 percent behavior change assumption adjustment (“assumed behaviors”). We did not propose any changes for CYs 2021 and 2022 relating to the behavior assumptions finalized in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period, or to the negative 4.36 percent behavior change assumption adjustment, finalized in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66796), we stated, based on our annual monitoring at that time, the three assumed behavior changes did occur as a result of the implementation of the PDGM and that other behaviors, such as changes in the provision of therapy and changes in functional impairment levels also occurred. We also reminded readers that in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period (84 FR 60513), we stated we interpret actual behavior changes to encompass both behavior changes that were previously outlined as assumed by CMS, and other behavior changes not identified at the time the budget-neutral 30-day payment rate for CY 2020 was established. In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66796), we provided supporting evidence that indicated the number of therapy visits declined in CYs 2020 and 2021, as well as a slight decline in therapy visits beginning in CY 2019 after the finalization of the removal of therapy thresholds, but prior to implementation of the PDGM. In section II.B.1. of the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55318), our analysis continued to show overall the actual 30-day periods are similar to the simulated 30-day periods and there continues to be a decline in therapy visits, indicating that HHAs changed their behavior to reduce therapy visits. Although the analysis demonstrates evidence of individual behavior changes (for example, in the volume of visits for LUPAs, therapy sessions, etc.), we use the entirety of the behaviors in order to calculate estimated aggregate expenditures. The law instructs us to ensure that estimated aggregate expenditures under the PDGM are equal to the estimated aggregate expenditures that otherwise will have been made under the prior system.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 4142(a) of the CAA, 2023 required CMS to present, to the extent practicable, a description of the actual behavior changes occurring under the HH PPS from CYs 2020-2026. This subsection of the CAA, 2023 also required CMS to provide datasets underlying the simulated 60-day episodes and discuss and provide time for stakeholders to provide input and ask questions on the payment rate development for CY 2023. CMS complied with these requirements by posting online both the supplemental limited data set (LDS) and descriptive files and the description of actual behavior changes that affected CY 2023 payment rate development. Additionally, on March 29, 2023, CMS conducted a webinar entitled “Medicare Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) Calendar Year (CY) 2023 Behavior Change Recap, 60-Day Episode Construction Overview, and Payment Rate Development.” The webinar was open to the public and discussed the actual behavior changes that occurred upon implementation of the PDGM, our approach used to construct simulated 60-day episodes using 30-day periods, payment rate development for CY 2023, and information on the supplemental data files containing information on the simulated 60-day episodes and actual 30-day periods used in calculating the permanent adjustment to the payment rate. Materials from the webinar, including the presentation and the CY 2023 descriptive statistics from the supplemental LDS files, containing information on the number of simulated 60-day episodes and actual 30-day periods in CY 2021 that were used to construct the permanent adjustment to the payment rate, as well as information such as the number of episodes and periods by case-mix group, case-mix weights, and simulated payments, can be found on the Home Health Patient-Driven Groupings Model web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/medicare-fee-for-service-payment/homehealthpps/hh-pdgm.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Method To Annually Determine the Impact of Differences Between Assumed Behavior Changes and Actual Behavior Changes on Estimated Aggregate Expenditures</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66804), we finalized the methodology to evaluate the impact of the differences between assumed and actual behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77687 through 77688), we provided an overview of the methodology with detailed instructions for each step. The overall methodology as finalized remains the same for evaluating the impact of behavior changes as required by law; however, due to an update of the Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) instrument, we need to update two minor technical parts and in the CY 2025 proposed rule, proposed to add new assumptions in the first step (creating simulated 60-day episodes from 30-day periods). These new 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88361"/>
                        assumptions are described in this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act requires HHAs to report certain quality data. As described in regulation at 42 CFR 484.250(a), this data is required to be reported using the OASIS instrument. Under the prior 153-group system (and the first three years for assessments associated with the PDGM completed prior to CY 2023), HHAs submitted the OASIS-D version. However, OMB approved an updated version of the OASIS instrument, OASIS-E, on November 30, 2022, effective January 1, 2023. Thus, OASIS-E is the current version of the OASIS instrument used in the PDGM. The valid OMB control number for this information collection is 0938-1279.</P>
                    <P>There are 13 items from the OASIS-D used in the 153-group system that are included in the OASIS-E; however, the responses for these items are now only recorded at the start of care (SOC) or resumption of care (ROC) assessments in the OASIS-E and not at all for OASIS-E follow-up assessments as shown in the following figure 2. </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="444">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.003</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Three items in the OASIS-E differ slightly from the OASIS-D by incorporating more specific questions and responses than in the OASIS-D. These three items, as shown in figure 3, ask about therapies (M1030), vision (M1200), and the frequency of pain interfering with activity (M1242). Additionally, these items are only asked at SOC/ROC and not at follow-up in the OASIS-E.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="297">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88362"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.004</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>To continue with our finalized methodology and create simulated 60-day episodes under the 153-group case mix system from 30-day periods under the PDGM, we need to impute the OASIS-D responses when we only have an OASIS-E available. For each of the three items, we considered the clinical relationship between the responses in the OASIS-E items that differ from the OASIS-D items. CMS also considered the response distribution between the OASIS-D and OASIS-E items when creating the mapping of the responses.</P>
                    <P>CMS proposed the following two assumptions to address the changes from the OASIS-D to the OASIS-E to continue to create simulated 60-day episodes from 30-day periods.</P>
                    <P>• If the simulated 60-day episode matches to a SOC or ROC assessment then we proposed to not impute the 13 items. If the simulated 60-day episode matches to a follow-up assessment, then we proposed to look back for the most recent 30-day period that is linked to a SOC or ROC assessment and impute the 13 responses for follow-up using the responses at the most recent SOC or ROC assessment. We proposed that we would limit the look-back period to the beginning of the calendar year that precedes the calendar year for the claim. For example, for a simulated 60-day episode with a follow-up assessment on June 1, 2023, we would look back for a 30-day period linked to a SOC or ROC assessment that began on or after January 1, 2022. If we cannot find a SOC or ROC assessment in that time period, we proposed to exclude the claim from analysis because we would not have sufficient timely data to impute responses.</P>
                    <P>• If the simulated 60-day episode matches to an OASIS-D assessment, then we proposed to use the OASIS-D for responses. If the simulated 60-day episode matches to an OASIS-E assessment, we proposed applying the following mapping for the therapies, vision, and pain items to impute responses as these responses are required for accurate payment calculation under the prior 153-group system. We also proposed applying the look-back period (that is, beginning of the calendar year that precedes the calendar year for the claim) as described in the assumption above, when necessary, when mapping claims.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="412">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88363"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.005</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Note, if an OASIS-E assessment has a response of “no” to all three items (O0110H—IV medication, K0520—Parenteral/IV feeding, and K0520—Feeding Tube), as shown in figure 5, then the mapping for M1030 would be a response of “none of the above”.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="200">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.006</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88364"/>
                    <P>There was one pain item on the OASIS-D (M1242—Frequency of Pain Interfering with patient's activity or movement) used for calculating payments. There are three pain related items on the OASIS-E (J0510—pain effect on sleep, J0520—pain interference with therapy activities, and J0530—pain interference with day-to-day activities) that correspond to the one OASIS-D pain item used for calculating payments. Therefore, we stated that we believed using the response from J0510, J0520, or J0530 that reflects the maximum severity would be the most appropriate for mapping back to the OASIS-D. For example, if J0510 (pain effect on sleep) has a response of “rarely”, J0520 (pain interference with therapy activities) has a response of “frequently”, and J0530 (pain interference with day-to-day activities) has a response of “occasionally”, then we would use the response from J0520 (“frequently”) for mapping as this is the most severe response. Figure 6 shows the proposed mapping based on the maximum severity response for each of the three pain items. </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="215">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.007</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As the overall methodology was finalized in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66804), the two proposed assumptions described previously are simply technical updates based on the updated OASIS instrument to ensure that estimated aggregate expenditures under the PDGM are equal to the estimated aggregate expenditures that otherwise would have been made under the prior system for assessing behavior changes as required by law. We refer readers to the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77687 through 77688) for an overview of the overall methodology with detailed instructions for each step. We received a few comments on the proposed assumptions related to mapping of the OASIS-E items.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter supported the proposed assumptions. Another commenter expressed concerns related to the difference in the versions of questions used for mapping and a potential two-year lookback period. While the commenter did not present an alternative for mapping the three items missing from OASIS-E, the commenter did recommend a narrower lookback period of no more than three months.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenter's thoughtful review and recommendations. We carefully reevaluated the crosswalk and found a three-month lookback period could significantly decrease the number of claims available for analysis, as well as skew the data to potentially more clinically severe patients, for example, this would generally limit the data to those patients who are discharged after an inpatient admission directly to home health care. A significant decrease in the total number of claims or in a particular type of claim (for example, community late) may not fully represent the population of home health patients. However, using an almost two-year look-back period for an assessment may not provide the most updated functional status of a beneficiary for the claim being analyzed, as a patient's functional impairment status may have changed (increased or decreased) in a longer look-back period. Balancing the need for adequate and unbiased data with the need for up-to-date data, we evaluated using a 12-month look-back period and found this timeframe provided the most complete and accurate data possible. It provides a sufficient number of claims while also allowing for the use of more updated assessment data than would have been used in a 24-month look-back period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         After consideration of the public comments and reevaluation of the proposed timeframe, we are finalizing the following assumptions for the OASIS-D to OASIS-E crosswalk:
                    </P>
                    <P>• If the simulated 60-day episode matches to a SOC or ROC assessment then we will not impute the 13 items. If the simulated 60-day episode matches to an OASIS-E follow-up assessment, then we will look back for the most recent 30-day period that is linked to a SOC or ROC assessment and impute the 13 responses for follow-up using the responses at the most recent SOC or ROC assessment. We will limit the look-back period to 12-months. For example, a simulated 60-day episode that began on June 1, 2023, and linked to a follow-up assessment will be limited to a 30-day period that ended on or after June 1, 2022, and linked to a SOC or ROC assessment. If we cannot find a SOC or ROC assessment in that time period, we will exclude the claim from analysis.</P>
                    <P>
                        • If the simulated 60-day episode matches to an OASIS-D assessment, then we will use the OASIS-D for the three items (therapies (M1030), vision (M1200), and the frequency of pain interfering with activity (M1242)) responses. If the simulated 60-day episode matches to an OASIS-E 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88365"/>
                        assessment, we will apply the mapping for the therapies, vision, and pain items as shown in figures 4-6 to impute responses as these responses are required for accurate payment calculation under the prior 153-group system. When necessary, we will also apply the same 12-month look-back period as described in the previous assumption.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Calculating Permanent and Temporary Payment Adjustments</HD>
                    <P>To offset prospectively for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures resulting from the impact of differences between assumed behavior changes and actual behavior changes, in any given year, we calculate a permanent prospective adjustment by calculating the percent change between the actual 30-day base payment rate and the recalculated 30-day base payment rate. This percent change is converted into an adjustment factor and applied in the annual rate update process.</P>
                    <P>To offset retrospectively for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures as a result of the impact of differences between assumed behavior changes and actual behavior changes in any given year, we calculated a temporary prospective adjustment by calculating the dollar amount difference between the estimated aggregate expenditures from all 30-day periods using the recalculated 30-day base payment rate, and the aggregate expenditures for all 30-day periods using the actual 30-day base payment rate for the same year. In other words, when determining the temporary retrospective dollar amount, we used the full dataset of actual 30-day periods using both the actual and recalculated 30-day base payment rates to ensure that the utilization and distribution of claims are the same. In accordance with section 1895(b)(3)(D)(iii) of the Act, the temporary adjustment is to be applied on a prospective basis and shall apply only with respect to the year for which such temporary increase or decrease is made. Therefore, after we determine the dollar amount to be reconciled in any given year, we calculate a temporary adjustment factor to be applied to the base payment rate for that year. The temporary adjustment factor is based on an estimated number of 30-day periods in the next year using historical data trends, and as applicable, we control for a permanent adjustment factor, case-mix weight recalibration neutrality factor, wage index budget neutrality factor, and the home health payment update. The temporary adjustment factor is applied last. We refer readers to the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77689 through 77694) for analysis for CYs 2020 through 2022 claims. Additionally, at the end of this section we provide a summary table for the permanent adjustment and temporary dollar amounts calculated for each year.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters continue to oppose the behavior adjustment methodology finalized in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule and repeated objections discussed in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule and CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, stating that they believe the methodology violates the Social Security Act and performs an unauthorized rebasing of the 30-day payment rate. Commenters again requested that CMS develop and propose a new methodology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The comments received on the methodology for the proposed rule are similar to those received during CY 2023 and CY 2024 rulemaking. We refer readers to our responses to those comments in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66797 through 66804) and CY 2024 final rule (88 FR 77689). In those rules, we responded to commenters' statements that they believe our final methodology was a violation of the Social Security Act, as well as commenters' technical concerns, such as the inclusion of therapy visits as part of our methodology. In this year's proposed rule, we did not propose any changes to the behavior adjustment methodology, as we finalized this methodology to evaluate the impact of the differences of assumed versus actual behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures, which is an ongoing evaluation for all the years in which a payment adjustment is appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. CY 2023 Final Claims Results</HD>
                    <P>We will continue the practice of using the most recent complete home health claims data available at the time of rulemaking. The CY 2023 analysis presented in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule was considered preliminary and as additional data became available from the latter half of CY 2023, we updated our results in this final rule. While the claims data and the permanent and temporary adjustment results in this final rule will be considered complete, any adjustments to future payment rates may be subject to additional considerations such as permanent adjustments taken in previous years.</P>
                    <P>The claims data used in rulemaking is released twice each year in the HH PPS Limited Data Set (LDS) file, one for the proposed and one for the final. Accordingly, the HH PPS LDS file released with this final rule includes two files: the actual CY 2023 30-day periods and the CY 2023 simulated 60-day episodes.</P>
                    <P>
                        We remind readers a data use agreement (DUA) is required to purchase the CY 2025 final HH PPS LDS file. Access will be granted for both the 30-day periods and the simulated 60-day episodes under one DUA. Visit the HH PPS LDS web page for more information.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, the final CY 2025 Home Health Descriptive Statistics from the LDS Files spreadsheet is available on the HH PPS Regulations and Notices web page,
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         does not require a DUA, and is available at no cost to interested parties. The spreadsheet contains information on the number of simulated 60-day episodes and actual 30-day periods in CY 2023 that were used to determine the adjustments. The spreadsheet also provides information such as the number of episodes and periods by case-mix group, case-mix weights, and simulated payments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/research-statistics-data-and-systems/files-for-order/limiteddatasets/home_health_pps_lds.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Medicare-Fee-for-Service-Payment/HomeHealthPPS/Home-Health-Prospective-Payment-System-Regulations-and-Notices.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Applying the Methodology to CY 2023 Data To Determine the CY 2025 Permanent and Temporary Adjustments</HD>
                    <P>Using the methodology finalized in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule to apply for all the years in which an adjustment is appropriate, and described most recently in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77687 through 77688), as well as the two new assumptions related to the OASIS-E mapping, we simulated 60-day episodes using actual CY 2023 30-day periods to determine what the permanent and temporary payment adjustments should be to offset for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures as a result of the impact of differences between assumed behavior changes and actual behavior changes.</P>
                    <P>
                        Using the final CY 2023 dataset, we began with 8,319,064 30-day periods of care and dropped 513,580 30-day periods of care that had a claim occurrence code 50 date after October 31, 2023. We also excluded 866,308 30-day periods of care that had a claim occurrence code 50 date before January 1, 2023, to ensure the 30-day period will not be part of a simulated 60-day episode that began in CY 2022. Applying the additional exclusions and assumptions as described in the finalized methodology (87 FR 66804), an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88366"/>
                        additional 13,508 30-day periods were excluded.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, we excluded 204,597 simulated 60-day episodes of care where no OASIS information was available in the Chronic Conditions Data Warehouse (CCW) Virtual Research Data Center (VRDC), a recent SOC/ROC OASIS was not available, a wage index was not available, or the episode could not be grouped to a Health Insurance Prospective Payment System (HIPPS) code due to a missing primary diagnosis or other reason. Our simulated 60-day episodes of care produced a distribution of two 30-day periods of care (69.0 percent) and single 30-day periods of care (31.0 percent) that was similar to what we found when we simulated two 30-day periods of care for implementation of the PDGM. After all exclusions and assumptions were applied, the final dataset for this final rule included 6,541,678 actual 30-day periods of care and 3,870,602 simulated 60-day episodes of care for CY 2023.</P>
                    <P>Using the final dataset for CY 2023 (6,541,678 actual 30-day periods which made up the 3,870,602 simulated 60-day episodes) we determined the estimated aggregate expenditures under the pre-PDGM HH PPS were lower than the actual estimated aggregate expenditures under the PDGM HH PPS. This indicates that aggregate expenditures under the PDGM were higher than if the 153-group payment system was still in place in CY 2023 and therefore, we determined the CY 2023 30-day base payment rate should have been $1,875.46 based on actual behavior, as shown in table 2. As stated in the CY 2024 final rule (88 FR 77693) we determined for CYs 2020 through CY 2022 a total of −5.779 percent permanent adjustment was needed (after accounting for the −3.925 percent applied to the CY 2023 payment rate). In order to determine behavior changes for only CY 2023, we simulated what the CY 2023 base payment rate would have been if the −5.779 percent adjustment that we determined using CY 2022 claims data had been implemented.</P>
                    <P>Using the recalculated CY 2022 base payment rate of $1,839.10 (88 FR 77693), multiplied by the CY 2023 case-mix weight recalibration neutrality factor (0.9904), the CY 2023 wage index budget neutrality factor (1.0001) and the CY 2023 home health payment update factor (1.040), the CY 2023 base payment rate for assumed behavior would have been $1,894.49. For the CY 2023 annual permanent adjustment, we calculated the percent change between the two payment rates for only CY 2023 (assuming the −5.779 percent adjustment was already taken). For the temporary adjustment we calculated the difference in aggregate expenditures in dollars for all CY 2023 PDGM 30-day claims using the actual payment rate ($2,010.69) and recalculated payment ($1,875.46). This difference is shown as the retrospective dollar amount needed to offset payment in a future year. Our results for the CY 2023 annual (single year) permanent and temporary adjustment calculations using CY 2023 final claims data are shown in table 2.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="200">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.008</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As shown in table 2, a permanent prospective adjustment of −1.004 percent to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate (assuming the−5.779 percent adjustment was already taken) for CY 2023 would be required to offset for such increases in estimated aggregate expenditures in future years. We remind readers, the permanent prospective adjustment of −1.004 percent is for illustrative purposes only and the annual (single year) permanent adjustment cannot be added to previous annual adjustments. To illustrate the annual calculation for CY 2023 claims only:</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="28">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.010</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Section 1895(b)(3)(D) of the Act requires us to annually analyze data from CY 2020 through CY 2026 and offset any increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures at a time and manner determined appropriate. We now have four years of claims data (CYs 2020-2023) under the PDGM, with one of these years including a partial permanent adjustment. Later we provide an illustration of the annual (single year) 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88367"/>
                        permanent adjustments calculated on the discrete year of claims. We remind readers these annual adjustments cannot be added or multiplied together to determine the total permanent adjustment needed for CY 2025 because each individual year requires an assumption that all prior adjustments were taken. We provided an illustrative equation in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55335) using the annual adjustment. We remind readers that equation may result in slightly different results due to the underlying assumptions each year and rounding.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="111">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.009</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Additionally, we determined that our initial estimate of the base payment rate ($2,010.69) resulted in excess expenditures of approximately $971 million in CY 2023. This will require a temporary adjustment, where the dollar amount ($971 million) will be converted to a factor when implemented, to offset for such increases in estimated aggregate expenditures for CY 2023.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. CY 2025 Final Permanent Adjustment and Temporary Adjustment Calculations</HD>
                    <P>In the preceding section we describe how we annually analyzed CY 2023 final claims data to determine the effects of actual behavior change on estimated aggregate expenditures. Again, that analysis included simulations that assumed that the −5.779 percent payment adjustment was already taken. We note that CMS implemented a payment adjustment of−2.890 percent for CY 2024, rather than the −5.779 percent we calculated (88 FR 77697), so the calculations set forth later in this section reflect the remaining adjustments that are still needed.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, the calculation in this section includes any of the remaining adjustments not applied in previous years (that is, CYs 2020 to 2022 claims data), as well as the adjustment needed to account for CY 2023 claims. In calculating the full permanent adjustment needed to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate, we compare estimated aggregate expenditures under the PDGM and the prior system. Unlike the annual adjustments described in table 3, we do not assume the full adjustment from prior years had been taken.</P>
                    <P>As discussed in section II.C.1.d. of this final rule, using the final dataset for CY 2023 (6,541,678 actual 30-day periods which made up the 3,870,602 simulated 60-day episodes) we determined the CY 2023 30-day base payment rate should have been $1,875.46 based on actual behavior, rather than the actual CY 2023 30-day base payment rate ($2,010.69) based on assumed behaviors. The percent change, as shown in table 4, between the actual CY 2023 base payment rate of $2,010.69 (based on assumed behaviors and included a −3.925 percent adjustment applied to the CY 2023 payment rate) and the CY 2023 recalculated base payment rate of $1,875.46 (based on actual behaviors) is the total permanent adjustment need for CYs 2020 through 2023 claims.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="140">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.012</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As shown in table 4, a permanent prospective adjustment of −6.726 percent to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate for CYs 2020 through 2023 will be required to offset for such increases in estimated aggregate expenditures in future years. To illustrate this calculation:</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="28">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.011</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88368"/>
                    <P>As we stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77697), applying a −2.890 percent permanent adjustment to the CY 2024 30-day payment rate will not adjust the rate fully to account for differences in behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures in CYs 2020, 2021, and 2022. Using CY 2023 claims data, as shown in table 5, a permanent prospective adjustment of −6.726 percent to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate will be required to offset for such increases in estimated aggregate expenditures for CYs 2020 through 2023. We remind readers adjustment factors are multiplied in this payment system and therefore, individual numbers (that is, percentages) cannot be added or subtracted together to determine the final adjustment. Therefore, we cannot determine the CY 2025 proposed permanent adjustment, which will include estimated aggregate expenditures in CY 2023, by simply subtracting the −2.890 percent applied in CY 2024 from the total permanent adjustment of −6.726 percent.</P>
                    <P>Instead, we account for the permanent adjustment applied in CY 2024 of −2.890 percent when we calculate the CY 2025 permanent adjustment by solving the following equation (1−0.0289) × (1−x) = (1−0.06726). To illustrate this calculation we used the following approach.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="48">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.014</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>In table 5 we provide the base payment rate for assumed behaviors (what CMS actually paid), the recalculated base payment rate for actual behaviors (what CMS should have paid), the total permanent adjustments calculated from the base payment rates (accounts for any adjustments taken prior), and the permanent adjustment applied.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="264">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.013</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55337), we proposed to apply the full permanent adjustment we (then) calculated of −4.067 percent, noting that we would update this percentage using more complete claims data in the final rule, to satisfy the statutory requirements at section 1895(b)(3)(D) of the Act to offset any increases or decreases on the impact of differences between assumed behavior and actual behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures, reduce the need for any future large permanent adjustments, and help slow the accrual of the temporary payment adjustment amount. Using more complete claims data, and as calculated previously, the permanent adjustment to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate would be a reduction of 3.95 percent.</P>
                    <P>
                        We remind readers that while we have not yet proposed a methodology on how CMS will apply the temporary adjustment on a prospective basis to the base payment rate, we finalized the methodology for determining the temporary adjustment dollar amount in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66804). We stated in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66804), the CY 2024 HH PPS proposed rule (88 FR 43674) and in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55337), that after we determine the total dollar amount to be reconciled, we will calculate a temporary adjustment factor to be applied to the base payment rate for the year in which it is implemented. In other words, the total dollar amount for the temporary adjustment will not change as data analysis in the final rules 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88369"/>
                        are considered complete. In table 6, we provide the temporary adjustment dollar amount for each year and the overall total.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="248">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.015</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We did not propose to take the temporary adjustment in CY 2025. In future rulemaking, we will propose the temporary adjustment dollar amount to be converted to a factor to be applied to the national, standardized base payment rate in a time and manner determined appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that they believe CMS has not provided data, or that they believe the data presented is inaccurate to demonstrate behavior changes, and therefore, they believe any payment adjustment is not supported.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We disagree that we have not provided commenters with the data on which we relied, or that we relied on inaccurate data. We provided our extensive data in the CY 2022 HH PPS proposed rule (86 FR 35880 through 35889), the CY 2023 HH PPS proposed rule (87 FR 37605 through 37614), the CY 2024 HH PPS proposed rule (88 FR 43663 through 43671), and the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55318 through 55327). Additionally, on March 29, 2023, CMS conducted a webinar entitled “Medicare Home Health Prospective Payment System (HH PPS) Calendar Year (CY) 2023 Behavior Change Recap, 60-Day Episode Construction Overview, and Payment Rate Development.” The webinar was open to the public and the materials from the webinar, including the presentation and the data files were published on the CMS website.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As stated previously, CMS also provides twice a year (that is, proposed and final rules) the HH PPS LDS file and the Home Health Descriptive Statistics from the LDS Files. Therefore, CMS has provided this data numerous times through rulemaking and made all data files used in assessing behavior changes and rate setting available for interested parties.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Home Health Patient-Driven Groupings Model web page at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/medicare-fee-for-service-payment/homehealthpps/hh-pdgm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         The majority of commenters opposed the proposed permanent adjustment to the CY 2025 home health rate and requested CMS postpone its application in order to preserve access to home health services and the scope of care available. Commenters stated that they believe CMS dismissed data analysis presented from interested parties showing an increase in referral rejections, which commenters purport is caused by the permanent rate adjustment. These commenters stated that this “on-going pattern of loss of access to care” is directly related to implementation of the PDGM and payment adjustments related to the behavior adjustment analysis and that CMS has an obligation to answer the questions posed through these analyses. The most common themes commenters presented as support for their concern that another permanent adjustment in CY 2025 is exacerbating an unstable home health benefit are negative margins, increasing costs, labor shortages, and increasing referral rejections by HHAs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We diligently review all comments and analysis from interested parties submitted through public comment on proposed rules. Our review of data and comments provided by interested parties, as well as our own internal data and analysis, helps the agency implement appropriate payment policies. This thorough process helps guide agency decision making, as we have discretion to implement regulations and payment adjustments in a time and manner deemed appropriate. Throughout the policy-making process, we monitor the effects the PDGM and Medicare home health payment rates have on access to care, including the number of beneficiaries accessing the benefit as well as the number of providers furnishing services. We carefully analyze our own data extracted through the CCW VRDC, claims review, and examination of cost reports. CMS also monitors the effects of the PDGM on the quality of care provided by HHAs through the home health quality reporting program (HH QRP),
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and we refer readers to section III of this rule for further information about the HH QRP. To the extent commenters suggest 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88370"/>
                        access to care concerns mean we should not make any behavioral adjustments, such concerns cannot override our statutory obligations. As for the suggestion that access to care issues justify delaying implementation of the permanent behavioral adjustments, our analysis has not identified sufficient evidence that delaying the implementation of the permanent adjustment will have a significant effect on access to care or the issues commenters describe as destabilizing the home health benefit. Below, we respond to these concerns and discuss potential influencing factors that may affect the home health industry beyond the permanent behavioral adjustments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We understand that commenters are concerned that the PDGM might have narrowed the gap between the margins providers receive treating patients enrolled in Medicare-FFS and the margins providers receive from patients with other health coverage. However, as we stated in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66807) and the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77695), Medicare does not set payments to cross-subsidize other payers, as we are mindful of our obligation to be responsible stewards of the Medicare Trust Funds. Many commenters stated outright that Medicare should consider all-payor margins when evaluating the accuracy of the Medicare home health payment rate. While CMS analyzes Medicare margins as a financial gauge overall to the soundness of the home health industry, we again note that 42 CFR 413.5 states that “costs attributable to other patients of the institution are not to be borne by the program”—“the program” being Medicare. In other words, when setting payment rates, CMS is not required to consider any shortfalls or deficits created by the payment rates of insurance programs covering other patients.</P>
                    <P>
                        Our analysis of cost reports submitted by HHAs shows that Medicare payment rates exceed costs of care by 32 percent (89 FR 55321). Overall, CMS's data on the cost of providing care (as reported by HHAs on the Home Health Medicare Cost Reports (CMS Form 1728-20, OMB No. 0938-0022)) and the margin analysis presented in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77695), along with data reported by MedPAC, an independent congressional agency,
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         indicate that the cost of providing home health care remains, on average, below the base payment rate and that HHAs in general continue to experience high Medicare margins. We also note that we reviewed an annual outlook survey 
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of 152 home health market participants (72 percent of which were executives, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         page 4) published by Homecare Homebase (HCHB), an electronic health records service provider to home health agencies that report their software serves “all ten of the top ten largest home health agencies.” 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Approximately 85 percent of survey participants reported they expect their organization's overall revenue to stay the same (20 percent) or increase (65 percent) in 2024 compared to 2023 (pg. 7). We understand this survey is only a sample and may not represent every HHA; however, it is important to recognize that many home health executives report an overall positive market outlook despite the permanent adjustment to the home health payment rate implemented in CY 2023.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.medpac.gov/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/Mar24_MedPAC_Report_To_Congress_SEC-2.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://hchb.com/resources/white-papers/survey-2024-hhcn-outlook-survey-and-report/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://hchb.com/faqs/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We acknowledge commenters' concerns regarding staff shortages. Similar to what we stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77696), we recognize there are widespread staffing shortages across the spectrum in healthcare as well as the general labor market. But the statute limits behavioral adjustments to those attributable to the implementation of the PDGM, and commenters do not cite evidence suggesting staffing shortages are attributable to those changes. We primarily account for those challenges in other ways, such as the market basket as explained in section II.C of this final rule. As we stated above and previously, delaying the permanent adjustment now will only lead to larger permanent adjustments in the future, and any temporary savings by HHAs will be offset by larger future temporary adjustments.</P>
                    <P>We also considered the referral analysis industry advocates again submitted using their proprietary data. While we welcome analysis conducted by industry advocates and incorporate insights from the industry's experience and data as appropriate, for reasons including those explained in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77695), we must use Medicare FFS data to set Medicare FFS policy. We appreciate that the industry advocates addressed some of the concerns with their data that we raised last year. However, they did not address whether their proprietary data contains information from other payors, such as Medicare Advantage (MA) plans.</P>
                    <P>It is important to note that neither our nor the industry's analysis of referral rejections studied causation. In other words, an increase of non-acceptance to home health does not necessarily indicate that delaying the payment adjustment would increase referral acceptance. The industry appears to assume that the main reason an HHA would reject a referral is because the HHA cannot afford to provide the services for the referred patient based on the Medicare home health payment rate. As noted above, CMS's analysis of home health costs suggests the payment rate is adequate to provide services to beneficiaries, and any number of reasons exist that could result in a patient not receiving home health services. For instance, not every patient is found to be eligible for home health upon initial assessment and some patients decline home health despite being referred. Additionally, HHAs decide which services they can provide (in addition to skilled nursing) and may not be appropriately staffed to provide the services in the patient's plan of care. For example, a patient may need skilled nursing, physical therapy, and occupational therapy, but the referred HHA is not appropriately staffed with (or contracted with) an occupational therapist. Therefore, even large increases in referral rejections would not necessarily justify delaying the permanent adjustment or substantiate concerns that HHAs cannot afford to accept patients based on the national-standardized payment rates.</P>
                    <P>Nevertheless, based on the industry's suggestion that their data suggests that there has been an increase in referral rejections since we implemented the PDGM, we conducted our own referral analysis using Medicare FFS data, and our findings, as shown in figure 7, differ from the industry's. We acknowledge that there will always be a certain percentage of referral rejections, for example, patient refusal or ineligibility, and our analysis indicates that the rejection rate has been relatively stable with less than a five percent change from CY 2020 to 2023.</P>
                    <P>
                        In conducting our referral analysis, we first determined “referrals” by identifying FFS acute inpatient, inpatient rehabilitation facility (IRF), skilled nursing facility (SNF), and outpatient claims that had a discharge status code indicating home health. While a beneficiary may be counted more than once (for example, multiple inpatient admissions in a year), each claim with a discharge to home health is considered its own referral. Figure 7 illustrates the percentages of claims 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88371"/>
                        with a discharge status code indicating home health services. 
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="293">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.016</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We found from 2018 to 2023 referrals to home health services from acute inpatient claims remained stable, increased for IRF claims, decreased for SNF claims, and increased for outpatient claims.</P>
                    <P>Next, utilizing the same time period (CYs 2018-2023), we excluded any home health claims where the beneficiary did not have an acute inpatient, IRF, SNF, or outpatient claim preceding the home health claim. We specifically looked at acute inpatient, IRF, SNF or outpatient claims because this is the clearest way to determine that the beneficiary was referred to home health based on the discharge status codes. We then analyzed the number of days between the acute inpatient, IRF, SNF, and outpatient claim (with a discharge status code to home health) through date and the home health claim from date. Per 42 CFR 484.55(a)(1) the initial assessment visit must be held within 48 hours of referral, or within 48 hours of the patient's return home, or on the physician or allowed practitioner-ordered start of care date. Therefore, we limited our analysis to a home health claim start date within seven days of the non-home health claim through date. For example, an acute inpatient claim has a through-date of January 31st, and the same beneficiary has a home health claim start date on or before February 7th. Figure 8 illustrates the percentage of acute inpatient, IRF, SNF, and outpatient claims that had a discharge status code to home health and the beneficiary having a home health claim within seven days of discharge from an acute inpatient, IRF, SNF, or outpatient setting.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="313">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88372"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.017</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Our analysis shows on average, beneficiaries with acute inpatient, IRF, SNF, and outpatient claims had a home health claim within seven days of discharge: 79 percent, 86 percent, 75 percent, and 71 percent, respectively from 2018 to 2023. Overall, we found, on average, 80 percent of referrals from acute inpatient, IRF, and SNF claims have a home health claim within seven days of discharge, while outpatient had 71 percent of referrals on average. In our analysis we found an average of 80 percent, 79 percent, and 75 percent acceptance of referrals for 2018 (pre-PDGM), 2020 (PDGM), and 2023 (PDGM) respectively for Medicare FFS beneficiaries.</P>
                    <P>
                        Our analysis shows that there is a 4.2 percent reduction in the referral acceptance rate between 2020 and 2023 which is less than half the approximate 10 percent reduction in the referral acceptance rate the industry found in that same time. We note that we do not expect that all referrals to home health would result in acceptance of those referrals. As mentioned previously, there are several reasons for non-acceptance of a referrals, including patient ineligibility for home health services. The purpose of the referral analysis shown in this final rule is to compare the Medicare FFS referral rejection rate to the industry's analysis of the referral rejection rate using their proprietary data. The industry reported an approximate 77 percent, 75 percent, and 65 percent acceptance of referrals for 2018 (pre-PDGM), 2020 (PDGM), and 2023 (PDGM) respectively for their study population. One reason for the different results could be the different population the industry studied. As described in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55319) there was a total of about 17.1 million unique FFS beneficiaries from 2018 to 2023.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commenters stated that their referral analysis was “based on 25.7 million patients who entered Homecare Homebase from 2018 through the present.” It is unclear why the Homecare Homebase data included an additional 8.6 million patients. One possibility is that that Homecare Homebase's database included patients who were not enrolled in Medicare FFS or used other payors. As explained above, we set Medicare FFS policy based on how it affects Medicare FFS beneficiaries—not how it affects other payors' enrollees.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             Some beneficiaries may be counted across years, and therefore the total may overestimate the total number of beneficiaries between 2018 and 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters also highlighted a decrease in the number of HHAs since the implementation of the PDGM and this decrease may be contributing to the lack of access to care and increased referral rejections.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77696) we stated awareness of changes in the home health industry. We acknowledged that the home health landscape is changing as HHAs continue to be consolidated and bought by private equity firms and the increase of for-profit agencies. For example, in our data we identified a total of 8,674 HHAs that had ownership status available, and 82 percent are for-profit; 15 percent are non-profit, and 3 percent government owned. In their 2024 report, MedPAC describes a continuous decline in the number of HHAs since 2013, while the supply of agencies remained relatively stable after the implementation of PDGM in 2020.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         MedPAC also notes that relative to the FFS Medicare population alone, the supply of agencies increased (to 2.3 HHAs per 10,000 FFS beneficiaries) because the 2022 decline in FFS Medicare beneficiaries was greater than the decline in the number of agencies. Further, our own analysis shows that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88373"/>
                        there is only a 1.7 percent decline in the number of HHAs with at least one claim in 2019 to the number of HHAs with at least one claim in 2023, and the vast majority of Medicare beneficiaries live in counties with a few HHAs with positive margins. While the distribution of HHAs have changed, there is no evidence to support that this is solely attributable to adjustments to the home health payment rates and, again, note that the change in ownership practices could be contributing to the slight decline in the number of HHAs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Medicare Payment Advisory Commission, 
                            <E T="03">Report to the Congress: Medicare Payment Policy,</E>
                             Washington, D.C. (March 2024)—
                            <E T="03">https://www.medpac.gov/wp-content/uploads/2024/03/Mar24_Ch7_MedPAC_Report_To_Congress_SEC.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We have continued to receive concerns from commenters regarding “inappropriate practice patterns,” suggesting again that HHAs may change how they operate in accordance with payment. In response to the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, CMS received many letters from therapists and other home health care practitioners detailing administrative mandates from HHAs limiting how many visits a patient may receive. Further, many of these commenters stated that it was not their salary that would cause them to leave the home health environment, but the strict direction detailing the limits of their practice in order to generate profit for the agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         These comments mirror comments we responded to in last year's HH PPS final rule discussing the potential for the functional impairment levels to create an incentive for HHAs to hand-pick patients based on their predicted case mix grouping. We again emphasize that the plan of care must specify the care and services necessary to meet the patient-specific needs as identified in the comprehensive assessment, including identification of the responsible discipline(s), and the measurable outcomes that the HHA anticipates will occur as a result of implementing and coordinating the plan of care. It is improper for an HHA to influence a practitioner on what should be included in the plan of care based on the HHA's own financial constraints and staffing abilities. As stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77699), we expect the provision of services be made to best meet the patient's care needs and in accordance with the home health CoPs at § 484.60, and that it is not proper for HHAs to under-supply care or services or reduce the number of visits in response to payment, as this would be a violation of the CoPs.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter summed up many of these comments by stating that “rate cuts lead to care cuts.” We acknowledge commenters' concerns that they believe HHAs are dictating practice patterns in response to the implementation of the PDGM. However, Medicare sets payment rates in accordance with statutory requirements, and not HHA's business practices. Moreover, access to care is impacted by many factors. This may include factors as varied as labor conditions, patient mix, industry margins, and competitive pressures. Congress changed the home health prospective payment system in the BBA of 2018 and instructed CMS to further adjust payment rates to account for differences between the behavior changes we predicted in the CY 2019 rule and the actual behavior changes we have observed since the implementation of the PDGM in CY 2020. We are implementing these payment adjustments in a time and manner appropriate in accordance with the law, while mindful of possible disruptions this implementation may cause to the services to which beneficiaries are entitled. Our analysis continues to suggest that the permanent adjustment we are finalizing here to the CY 2025 base payment rate should not materially affect access to the Medicare home health benefit.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We continue to adhere to the methodology finalized in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66804). However, as in previous years, we are committed to remaining responsive to commenter concern regarding on-going permanent rate adjustments. We acknowledge that while we must comply with the statutory requirement that CMS ensure the estimated aggregate expenditures under the PDGM are equal to the estimated aggregate expenditures that would have been made under the prior system, we have the discretion to implement any adjustment in a time and manner determined appropriate. Therefore, in response to commenter concerns, we are finalizing a −1.975 percent (half of the proposed −3.95 percent) permanent adjustment for CY 2025. This approach of applying half of the amount proposed for the permanent adjustment is aligned with the approach finalized in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66808) and the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77697) where CMS finalized half of the remaining permanent adjustment, as indicated by the most recently available claims data. However, again, we note the permanent adjustment to account for actual behavior changes in CYs 2020 through 2023, should be −3.95 percent, which includes the remaining “half” from the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, and the additional adjustment based on CY 2023 data. Therefore, applying a −1.975 percent permanent adjustment to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate would not adjust the rate fully to account for differences in behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures during those years. We will have to account for that difference, and any other potential adjustments needed to the base payment rate, to account for behavior change based on data analysis in future rulemaking. CMS did not propose to adjust the CY 2025 base payment rate using our temporary adjustment authority, as section 1895(b)(3)(D)(iii) of the Act allows any adjustment to be made in a time and manner deemed appropriate by the Secretary. However, we remind readers that without the full permanent adjustment (−3.95 percent) in effect, the total temporary dollar amount will continue to increase until the full permanent adjustment is implemented.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. CY 2025 Home Health Low Utilization Payment Adjustment (LUPA) Thresholds, Functional Impairment Levels, Comorbidity Sub-Groups, Case-Mix Weights, and Reassignment of Specific ICD-10-CM Codes Under the PDGM</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. CY 2025 PDGM LUPA Thresholds</HD>
                    <P>Under the HH PPS, LUPAs are paid when a certain visit threshold for a payment group during a 30-day period of care is not met. In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56492), we finalized a policy setting the LUPA thresholds at the 10th percentile of visits or two visits, whichever is higher, for each payment group. This means the LUPA threshold for each 30-day period of care varies depending on the PDGM payment group to which it is assigned. If the LUPA threshold for the payment group is met under the PDGM, the 30-day period of care will be paid the full 30-day period case-mix adjusted payment amount (subject to any partial payment adjustment or outlier adjustments). If a 30-day period of care does not meet the PDGM LUPA visit threshold, then payment will be made using the per-visit payment amounts as described in section II.E.4.c. of this final rule. For example, if the LUPA visit threshold is four, and a 30-day period of care has four or more visits, it is paid the full 30-day period payment amount; if the period of care has three or fewer visits, payment is made using the per-visit payment amounts.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56492), we finalized our policy that the LUPA thresholds for each PDGM payment group will be reevaluated every year based on the most current utilization 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88374"/>
                        data available at the time of rulemaking. However, as CY 2020 was the first year of the new case-mix adjustment methodology, we stated in the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70305, 70306) that we will maintain the LUPA thresholds that were finalized and shown in table 17 of the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period (84 FR 60522) for CY 2021 payment purposes. We stated that at that time, we did not have sufficient CY 2020 data to reevaluate the LUPA thresholds for CY 2021.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule with comment period (86 FR 62249), we finalized the proposal to recalibrate the PDGM case-mix weights, functional impairment levels, and comorbidity subgroups while maintaining the LUPA thresholds for CY 2022. We stated that because there are several factors that contribute to how the case-mix weight is set for a particular case-mix group (such as the number of visits, length of visits, types of disciplines providing visits, and non-routine supplies) and the case-mix weight is derived by comparing the average resource use for the case-mix group relative to the average resource use across all groups, we believe the COVID-19 PHE will have impacted utilization within all case-mix groups similarly. Therefore, the impact of any reduction in resource use caused by the PHE on the calculation of the case-mix weight will be minimized since the impact will be accounted for both in the numerator and denominator of the formula used to calculate the case-mix weight. However, in contrast, the LUPA thresholds are based on the number of overall visits in a particular case-mix group (the threshold is the 10th percentile of visits or 2 visits, whichever is greater) instead of a relative value (like what is used to generate the case-mix weight) that will control for the impacts of the COVID-19 PHE. We noted that visit patterns and some of the decrease in overall visits in CY 2020 may not be representative of visit patterns in CY 2022. Therefore, to mitigate any potential future and significant short-term variability in the LUPA thresholds due to the COVID-19 PHE, we finalized the proposal to maintain the LUPA thresholds finalized and displayed in table 17 in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period (84 FR 60522) for CY 2022 payment purposes.</P>
                    <P>For CY 2024, we proposed to update the LUPA thresholds using CY 2022 Medicare home health claims (as of March 17, 2023) linked to OASIS assessment data. We believed that CY 2022 data will be more indicative of visit patterns in CY 2024 rather than continuing to use the LUPA thresholds derived from the CY 2018 data pre-PDGM. Therefore, we finalized a policy to update the LUPA thresholds for CY 2024 using data from CY 2022.</P>
                    <P>For CY 2025, we proposed to update the LUPA thresholds using CY 2023 home health claims utilization data (using more complete CY 2023 claims data as of July 11, 2024), in accordance with our policy to annually recalibrate the case-mix weights and update the LUPA thresholds, functional impairment levels and comorbidity subgroups. After reviewing the CY 2023 home health claims utilization data, we determined that LUPA visit patterns in 2023 were similar to visits in 2021 and a total of eight case-mix groups have a decline in their LUPA threshold of a single visit. The proposed LUPA thresholds for the CY 2025 PDGM payment groups with the corresponding Health Insurance Prospective Payment System (HIPPS) codes and the case-mix weights can be found in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55349). We solicited public comment on the proposed updates to the LUPA thresholds for CY 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         All commenters expressed support for the updated LUPA thresholds and recognized that this adjustment helps align payments more closely with evolving care delivery and improves payment accuracy.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the proposal to update the LUPA thresholds for CY 2025 using CY 2023 claims data (as of July 11, 2024). The final LUPA thresholds for the CY 2025 PDGM payment groups with the corresponding Health Insurance Prospective Payment System (HIPPS) codes and the case-mix weights are listed in table 7 and is also available on the HHA Center web page, located at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/enrollment-renewal/providers-suppliers/home-health-agency-center.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. CY 2025 Functional Impairment Levels</HD>
                    <P>Under the PDGM, the functional impairment level is determined by responses to certain OASIS items associated with activities of daily living and risk of hospitalization; that is, responses to OASIS items M1800-M1860 and M1033. A home health period of care receives points based on each of the responses associated with these functional OASIS items, which are then converted into a table of points corresponding to increased resource use. The sum of all these points results in a functional impairment score which is used to group home health periods into a functional level with similar resource use. That is, the higher the points, the more the response is associated with increased resource use, or increased impairment. The three functional impairment levels of low, medium, and high were designed so that approximately one-third of home health periods from each clinical group falls within each level. This means home health periods in the low impairment level have responses for the functional OASIS items that are associated with the lowest resource use, on average. Home health periods in the high impairment level have responses for the functional OASIS items that are associated with the highest resource use on average.</P>
                    <P>
                        For CY 2025, we proposed to use CY 2023 claims data to update the functional points and functional impairment levels by clinical group. The CY 2018 HH PPS proposed rule (82 FR 35320) and the technical report from December 2016, posted on the Home Health PPS Archive web page, located at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/home-health-pps/home-health-pps-archive,</E>
                         provides a more detailed explanation as to the construction of the functional impairment levels using the OASIS items. We proposed to use the same methodology previously finalized to update the functional impairment levels for CY 2025. The final updated OASIS functional points table and the table of functional impairment levels by clinical group for CY 2025 are listed in tables 7 and 8, respectively.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="446">
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.018</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="592">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88376"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.019</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>We solicited public comment on the updates to functional points and the functional impairment levels by clinical group.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters opposed the proposed updates to the CY 2025 functional impairment points and levels. These commenters contend that the assignment of functional impairment levels appears arbitrary and requested that CMS refrain from making additional changes to the functional scoring system that would affect level assignments until the impact of CY 2024 updates is fully understood. Several commenters expressed concerns that the proposed functional impairment levels may not accurately reflect the actual functional status of home health patients, particularly those with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88377"/>
                        complex or higher-acuity conditions. Specifically, they stated that patients with significant needs for assistance with activities of daily living may not be adequately represented within the proposed levels, potentially leading to a misalignment between the resources required to provide care and the associated payment structure. Additionally, commenters noted that the agency's proposed recalibration for CY 2025 does not sufficiently account for what the commenters say is a fact that patients entering home health care post-COVID-19 pandemic are, on average, more impaired than they were prior to the pandemic. Commenters stated that they believe this marks the fourth consecutive year in which changes to functional item scoring have been finalized without fully considering the impacts of the changes implemented in the previous year (that is, CY 2024 changes for CY 2025 rulemaking). Commenters requested that CMS delay finalizing any updates to the functional domain methodology until CY 2026, when post-pandemic data from 2024 can be fully analyzed to assess the appropriateness of further modifications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters' recommendations. However, we maintain that annual recalibration is essential to ensure the most accurate and current assessment of the relationship between resource use and functional points, functional threshold levels, comorbidities, utilization thresholds, and case-mix weights. As such, we do not agree with delaying updates to the functional impairment points and levels for CY 2025. We continue to believe that using the most up-to-date data to revise functional impairment levels is critical to ensuring that all variables used in the case-mix adjustment process align with the actual costs of delivering home health services. We would also like to remind commenters that the functional impairment levels are structured so that approximately one-third of periods within each clinical group are assigned to low, medium, and high categories, ensuring that the case-mix system appropriately reflects differences in functional impairment. This classification of functional impairment into low, medium, and high levels has been a fundamental component of the HH PPS since its implementation. The previous HH PPS grouped home health episodes using functional scores based on functional OASIS items with similar average resource use within the same functional level, with approximately a third of episodes classified as low functional score, a third of episodes classified as medium functional score, and a third of episodes classified as high functional score. Likewise, the PDGM groups home health periods of care using functional impairment scores based on functional OASIS items with similar resource use and has three levels of functional impairment severity: low, medium, and high. However, the PDGM differs from the previous HH PPS functional variable, in that the three functional impairment level thresholds in the PDGM vary between the clinical groups. As such, the PDGM functional impairment structure accounts for patient characteristics within each clinical group that are associated with increased resource use due to functional impairment. This ensures that payment is more accurately aligned with patient characteristics, including beneficiaries who have greater need with activities of daily living (ADLs) and who are more functionally impaired. Regardless of whether patients entering home health are more impaired due to the post-COVID environment or any other influence, the functional levels capture the relationship between functional status as indicated on the OASIS with resource use captured on claims. As such, updating the functional levels would specifically capture any increase in functional impairment and any increase in resource use associated with ADLs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the functional points and functional impairment level updates for CY 2025 as proposed, using updated CY 2023 claims data (as of July 11, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. CY 2025 Comorbidity Subgroups</HD>
                    <P>Thirty-day periods of care receive a comorbidity adjustment category based on the presence of certain secondary diagnoses reported on home health claims. These diagnoses are based on a home-health specific list of clinically and statistically significant secondary diagnosis subgroups with similar resource use, meaning the diagnoses have at least as high as the median resource use and are reported in more than 0.1 percent of 30-day periods of care. Home health 30-day periods of care can receive a comorbidity adjustment under the following circumstances:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">High comorbidity adjustment:</E>
                         There are two or more secondary diagnoses on the home health-specific comorbidity subgroup interaction list that are associated with higher resource use when both are reported together compared to when they are reported separately. That is, the two diagnoses may interact with one another, resulting in higher resource use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Low comorbidity adjustment:</E>
                         There is a reported secondary diagnosis on the home health-specific comorbidity subgroup list that is associated with higher resource use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">No comorbidity adjustment:</E>
                         A 30-day period of care receives no comorbidity adjustment if no secondary diagnoses exist or do not meet the criteria for a low or high comorbidity adjustment.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56406), we stated that we will continue to examine the relationship of reported comorbidities on resource utilization and make the appropriate payment refinements to help ensure that payment is in alignment with the actual costs of providing care. For CY 2025, we proposed to use the same methodology used to establish the comorbidity subgroups to update the comorbidity subgroups using CY 2023 home health data with linked OASIS data.</P>
                    <P>For CY 2025, we proposed to update the comorbidity subgroups to include 22 low comorbidity adjustment subgroups and 97 high comorbidity adjustment interaction subgroups. The proposed CY 2025 low comorbidity adjustment subgroups and the high comorbidity adjustment interaction subgroups including those diagnoses within each of these comorbidity adjustments was included in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55340).</P>
                    <P>We invited comments on the proposed updates to the low comorbidity adjustment subgroups and the high comorbidity adjustment interactions for CY 2025.</P>
                    <P>Using more updated claims data, for CY 2025 there are 22 low comorbidity subgroups, and 94 high comorbidity subgroups as shown in tables 9 and 10.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.020</GID>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.021</GID>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.022</GID>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.023</GID>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.024</GID>
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                        <GID>ER07NO24.025</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88384"/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed support for the proposed low and high comorbidity adjustments, particularly those pertaining to low comorbidity adjustments for diagnoses such as diabetes and endocrine disorders. Commenters stated these adjustments will result in more accurate payment, reflecting the resources required to effectively manage patients with these conditions. Additionally, commenters indicated that the proposed changes to the comorbidity subgroups align with the stated objective of ensuring that payments more accurately reflect the actual costs of providing care.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the COVID-19 diagnosis was excluded from the comorbidity grouping list, despite its continued impact on elderly and high-risk patients. Another commenter also pointed out that 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 1</E>
                         (nutritional anemias) are grouped with 
                        <E T="03">Skin 3</E>
                         (non-pressure ulcers), but not with 
                        <E T="03">Skin 4</E>
                         (pressure ulcers). Furthermore, 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 2</E>
                         (hemolytic, aplastic, and other anemias) are no longer grouped with either 
                        <E T="03">Skin 3</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Skin 4.</E>
                         Commenters raised concerns as to why certain anemias are recognized as having an impact on some ulcer types but not others. They also stated that the same principle should apply to 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 1</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 2,</E>
                         as anemias included in 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 2</E>
                         are likely to result in greater complications, such as compromised strength and skin integrity, than those in 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 1.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate commenters' thorough review of these groupings. As outlined in the CY 2020 final rule with comment period (84 FR 60510) and further detailed in the technical report “Overview of the Home Health Groupings Model”, the Home Health Specific Comorbidity List stems from the principles of patient assessment by providers, as well as the evaluation of body systems and their associated diseases, conditions, and injuries. This framework was used to develop condition categories that identify clinically relevant relationships tied to increased resource use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We acknowledge the complexity and breadth of clinical conditions, comorbidities, and their interactions within the Medicare home health population. However, we remind commenters that only subgroups of diagnoses representing more than 0.1% of periods of care, and demonstrating at least the median resource use, qualify for a low comorbidity adjustment. For example, in reference to the commenter's concern regarding the grouping of 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 1</E>
                         (nutritional anemias) with 
                        <E T="03">Skin</E>
                         3 (non-pressure ulcers), and the exclusion of 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 2</E>
                         (hemolytic, aplastic, and other anemias) from both 
                        <E T="03">Skin 3</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Skin 4</E>
                         groupings, these categorizations are driven by data reflecting resource utilization patterns. If the anemias in 
                        <E T="03">Circulatory 2</E>
                         do not demonstrate the requisite median resource use in relation to specific ulcer types, such as 
                        <E T="03">Skin 4</E>
                         (pressure ulcers), they would not qualify for inclusion in the comorbidity list. This explains why certain anemias appear in the comorbidity list for one ulcer category but not for another despite clinical similarities or the potential for greater clinical complications like compromised strength and skin integrity. This methodology for determining statistical significance was detailed in the CY 2020 final rule with comment period (84 FR 60510). It is based on the understanding that the aggregate number of comorbidities within the population forms the standard for payment purposes. While we expect HHAs to report all secondary diagnoses that impact care planning, nevertheless it is important to note that certain comorbidity subgroups included in the Home Health Specific List may not meet the criteria for a payment adjustment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the updated comorbidity adjustment subgroups and the high comorbidity adjustment interactions using CY 2023 home health data. For CY 2025, the final updated comorbidity adjustment subgroups include 22 low comorbidity adjustment subgroups as identified in table 9 and 94 high comorbidity adjustment interaction subgroups as identified in table 10. The final CY 2025 low comorbidity adjustment subgroups and the high comorbidity adjustment interaction subgroups including those diagnoses within each of these comorbidity adjustments will also be posted on the HHA Center web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Center/Provider-Type/Home-Health-Agency-HHA-Center.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. CY 2025 PDGM Case-Mix Weights</HD>
                    <P>As finalized in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56502), the PDGM places patients into meaningful payment categories based on patient and other characteristics, such as timing, admission source, clinical grouping using the reported principal diagnosis, functional impairment level, and comorbid conditions. The PDGM case-mix methodology results in 432 unique case-mix groups called home health resource groups (HHRGs). We also finalized a policy in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56515) to annually recalibrate the PDGM case-mix weights using a fixed effects model with the most recent and complete utilization data available at the time of annual rulemaking. Annual recalibration of the PDGM case-mix weights ensures that the case-mix weights reflect, as accurately as possible, current home health resource use and changes in utilization patterns. To generate the proposed recalibrated CY 2025 case-mix weights, we used CY 2023 home health claims data with linked OASIS data (as of March 19, 2024). We included the proposed case-mix weights in table 25 of the proposed rule (89 FR 55351). In this final rule, we updated these case-mix weights with claims data as of July 11, 2024, as shown in table 11. These data are the most current and complete data available at the time of rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>The claims data provide visit-level data and data on whether non-routine supplies (NRS) were provided during the period and the total charges of NRS. We determine the case-mix weight for each of the 432 different PDGM payment groups by regressing resource use on a series of indicator variables for each of the categories using a fixed effects model as described in the following steps:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Step 1:</E>
                         Estimate a regression model to assign a functional impairment level to each 30-day period. The regression model estimates the relationship between a 30-day period's resource use and the functional status and risk of hospitalization items included in the PDGM, which are obtained from certain OASIS items. We refer readers to table 25 of the proposed rule for further information on the OASIS items used for the functional impairment level under the PDGM. We measure resource use with the cost-per-minute + NRS approach that uses information from 2022 home health cost reports. We use 2022 home health cost report data because it is the most complete cost report data available at the time of rulemaking. Other variables in the regression model include the 30-day period's admission source, clinical group, and 30-day period timing. We also include home health agency level fixed effects in the regression model. After estimating the regression model using 30-day periods, we divide the coefficients that correspond to the functional status and risk of hospitalization items by 10 and round to the nearest whole number. Those rounded numbers are used to compute a functional score for each 30-day period by summing together the rounded numbers for the functional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88385"/>
                        status and risk of hospitalization items that are applicable to each 30-day period. Next, each 30-day period is assigned to a functional impairment level (low, medium, or high) depending on the 30-day period's total functional score. Each clinical group has a separate set of functional thresholds used to assign 30-day periods into a low, medium or high functional impairment level. We set those thresholds so that we assign roughly a third of 30-day periods within each clinical group to each functional impairment level (low, medium, or high).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Step 2:</E>
                         A second regression model estimates the relationship between a 30-day period's resource use and indicator variables for the presence of any of the comorbidities and comorbidity interactions that were originally examined for inclusion in the PDGM. Like the first regression model, this model also includes home health agency level fixed effects and includes control variables for each 30-day period's admission source, clinical group, timing, and functional impairment level. After we estimate the model, we assign comorbidities to the low comorbidity adjustment if any comorbidities have a coefficient that is statistically significant (p-value of 0.05 or less) and which have a coefficient that is larger than the 50th percentile of positive and statistically significant comorbidity coefficients. If two comorbidities in the model and their interaction term have coefficients that sum together to exceed $150 and the interaction term is statistically significant (p-value of 0.05 or less), we assign the two comorbidities together to the high comorbidity adjustment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Step 3:</E>
                         After Step 2, each 30-day period is assigned to a clinical group, admission source category, episode timing category, functional impairment level, and comorbidity adjustment category. For each combination of those variables (which represent the 432 different payment groups that comprise the PDGM), we then calculate the 10th percentile of visits across all 30-day periods within a particular payment group. If a 30-day period's number of visits is less than the 10th percentile for their payment group, the 30-day period is classified as a Low Utilization Payment Adjustment (LUPA). If a payment group has a 10th percentile of visits that is less than two, we set the LUPA threshold for that payment group to be equal to two. That means if a 30-day period has one visit, it is classified as a LUPA and if it has two or more visits, it is not classified as a LUPA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Step 4:</E>
                         Take all non-LUPA 30-day periods and regress resource use on the 30-day period's clinical group, admission source category, episode timing category, functional impairment level, and comorbidity adjustment category. The regression includes fixed effects at the level of the home health agency. After we estimate the model, the model coefficients are used to predict each 30-day period's resource use. To create the case-mix weight for each 30-day period, the predicted resource use is divided by the overall resource use of the 30-day periods used to estimate the regression.
                    </P>
                    <P>The case-mix weight is then used to adjust the base payment rate to determine each 30-day period's payment. Table 11 shows the coefficients of the payment regression used to generate the weights, and the coefficients divided by average resource use.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88386"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.026</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88387"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.027</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88388"/>
                    <P>
                        The final updated case-mix weights for CY 2025 are listed in table 12 and will also be posted on the HHA Center web page 
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         upon display of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             HHA Center web page: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Center/Provider-Type/Home-Health-Agency-HHA-Center.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88389"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.028</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88390"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.029</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88391"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.030</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="567">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88392"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.031</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88393"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.032</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88394"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.033</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88395"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.034</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88396"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.035</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88397"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.036</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88398"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.037</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88399"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.038</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88400"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.039</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88401"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.040</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88402"/>
                    <P>Changes to the PDGM case-mix weights are implemented in a budget neutral manner by multiplying the CY 2025 national standardized 30-day period payment rate by a case-mix budget neutrality factor. Typically, the case-mix weight budget neutrality factor is also calculated using the most recent, complete home health claims data available. For CY 2025, we will continue the practice of using the most recent complete home health claims data at the time of rulemaking, which is CY 2023 data. The case-mix budget neutrality factor is calculated as the ratio of 30-day base payment rates such that total payments when the CY 2025 PDGM case-mix weights (developed using CY 2023 home health claims data) are applied to CY 2023 utilization (claims) data are equal to total payments when CY 2024 PDGM case-mix weights (developed using CY 2022 home health claims data) are applied to CY 2023 utilization data. This produces a case-mix budget neutrality factor for CY 2025 of 1.0039.</P>
                    <P>We invited public comments on the CY 2025 proposed case-mix weights and proposed case-mix weight budget neutrality factor.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed support for the updated case-mix weights using the most current data available for recalibration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters stated that any recalibration should not be budget neutral. They stated this stance is based on several factors, including the increasing acuity of patients, rising operational expenses, growing demand for home health services, and the ongoing labor shortage. Commenters stated that these factors warrant consideration in ensuring adequate payment to align with the current healthcare environment. Specifically, a commenter disagreed with the downgrading of points for toilet transfers and ambulation. While the commenter acknowledged that budget neutrality drives the reallocation of points when others are increased, they expressed concern that reducing points for ambulation may place less emphasis on this critical task, potentially leading to higher fall rates and, consequently, increased hospitalizations. The commenter also noted that while bathing points were significantly increased, which they stated was beneficial, the commenter stated the increase should not be as substantial, especially given the larger reduction in points for toilet transfers and ambulation. Additionally, some commenters expressed concern that the proposed changes to the case-mix weights contribute to substantial year-to-year payment variances, which may have a significant financial impact on many providers as case-mix weights are driven lower. These commenters noted that this variability in payment could create financial challenges for providers, particularly those already dealing with increasing costs and labor shortages.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While we recognize that commenters have consistently raised concerns regarding the annual recalibration of case mix weights since the policy's initial finalization, we continue to believe that annual recalibration of PDGM case mix weights is essential. This approach promotes accurate weighting of the case mix weights to reflect current home health resource utilization, changes in utilization patterns, and the characteristics of patients currently receiving home health services. Prolonging recalibration beyond an annual schedule could result in greater variation in case mix weights, compared to recalibrating using the most recent utilization data. Therefore, we believe that utilizing calendar year 2023 data to recalibrate the calendar year 2025 case-mix weights is appropriate. We direct commenters to review the calendar year 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment (83 FR 56502) for the finalized case-mix adjustment methodology, as well as the detailed steps taken to determine the case-mix weight for each of the 432 different PDGM payment groups, which are outlined in this final rule. Furthermore, it is important to note that both the recalibration of the PDGM case-mix weights and updates to the HH PPS are implemented in a budget-neutral manner as statutorily required in section 1895(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act, ensuring that changes to case-mix weights, functional impairment levels, comorbidity adjustments, and updated wage data do not impact overall payments in the aggregate.
                    </P>
                    <P>We appreciate the commenters' recognition of our efforts to recalibrate case-mix weights using the most current data available. Regarding concerns about the downgrading of points for toilet transfers and ambulation, we recognize the importance of accurately reflecting the resource needs associated with these tasks. However, the reallocation of points is driven by the need to maintain budget neutrality, and any adjustments are made based on current utilization data and resource allocation. While a few commenters expressed support for the idea of non-budget neutral recalibration, it is important to note that, as statutorily required by section 1895(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act, any adjustments to case-mix weights must be made in a budget neutral manner to ensure that the aggregate level of payments resulting from changes in case-mix weights remains consistent.</P>
                    <P>We also acknowledge the concern that case-mix weight changes may lead to year-to-year payment variances and potential financial challenges for providers. The intent of recalibration is to align payments with actual resource use while maintaining overall budget neutrality. As always, we will continue to evaluate the impact of these adjustments and consider the evolving needs of the home health population.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the recalibrated case-mix weights for CY 2025, updated with claims data as of July 11, 2024. We did not receive any comments on the proposed case-mix weight budget neutrality factor. Therefore, we are finalizing the proposal to implement the changes to the PDGM case-mix weights in a budget neutral manner by applying a case-mix budget neutrality factor to the CY 2025 national, standardized 30-day period payment rate. As stated previously, the final case-mix budget neutrality factor for CY 2025 will be 1.0039.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Reassignment of Specific ICD-10-CM Codes Under the PDGM</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The 2009 final rule “HIPAA Administrative Simplification: Modifications to Medical Data Code Set Standards To Adopt ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS” (74 FR 3328, January 16, 2009), set October 1, 2013, as the compliance date for all covered entities under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) to use the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) and the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) medical data code sets. The ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes are granular and specific and provide HHAs a better opportunity to report codes that best reflect the patient's conditions that support the need for home health services. However, as stated in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56473), because the ICD-10-CM is comprehensive, it also contains many codes that may not support the need for home health services. For example, diagnosis codes that indicate death as the outcome are Medicare covered codes but are not relevant to home health. In addition, diagnosis and procedure coding guidelines may specify the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88403"/>
                        sequence of ICD-10-CM coding conventions. For example, the underlying condition must be listed first (for example, Parkinson's disease must be listed prior to Dementia if both codes were listed on a claim). Therefore, not all the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes are appropriate as principal diagnosis codes for grouping home health periods into clinical groups or to be placed into a comorbidity subgroup when listed as a secondary diagnosis. As such, each ICD-10-CM diagnosis code is assigned, including those diagnosis codes designated as “not assigned” (NA), to a clinical group and comorbidity subgroup within the HH PPS grouper software (HHGS). We reminded readers the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code list is updated each fiscal year with an effective date of October 1st and therefore, the HH PPS is generally subject to a minimum of two HHGS releases, one in October and one in January of each year, to ensure that claims are submitted with the most current code set available. Likewise, there may be new ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes created (for example, codes for emergency use) or a new or revised edit in the Medicare Code Editor (MCE) so an update to the HHGS may occur on the first of each quarter (January, April, July, October). We encourage readers to check the HHGS routinely at these times, as we do not anticipate posting changes to the home health web page.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Methodology for ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code Assignments</HD>
                    <P>Although it is not our intent to review all ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes each year, we recognize that occasionally some ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes may require changes to their assigned clinical group and/or comorbidity subgroup. For example, there may be an update to the MCE unacceptable principal diagnosis list, or we receive public comments from interested parties requesting specific changes. Any addition or removal of a specific diagnosis code to the ICD-10-CM code set (for example, three new diagnosis codes, Z28.310, Z28.311 and Z28.39, for reporting COVID-19 vaccination status were effective April 1, 2022) or minor tweaks to a descriptor of an existing ICD-10-CM diagnosis code generally could be implemented as appropriate and may not be discussed in rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>We rely on the expert opinion of our clinical reviewers (for example, nurse consultants and medical officers) and current ICD-10-CM coding guidelines to determine if the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes under review for reassignment are significantly similar or different to the existing clinical group and/or comorbidity subgroup assignment. As we stated in the CY 2018 HH PPS proposed rule (82 FR 35313), the intent of the clinical groups is to reflect the reported principal diagnosis, clinical relevance, and coding guidelines and conventions. Therefore, for the purposes of assignment of ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes into the PDGM clinical groups we will not conduct additional statistical analysis as such decisions are clinically based and the clinical groups are part of the overall case-mix weights.</P>
                    <P>As we noted in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56486), the home health-specific comorbidity list is based on the principles of patient assessment by body systems and their associated diseases, conditions, and injuries to develop larger categories of conditions that identified clinically relevant relationships associated with increased resource use, meaning the diagnoses have at least as high as the median resource use and are reported in more than 0.1 percent of 30-day periods of care. If specific ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes are to be reassigned to a different comorbidity subgroup (including NA), we will first evaluate the clinical characteristics (as discussed previously for clinical groups) and if the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code does not meet the clinical criteria, then no reassignment will occur. However, if an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code does meet the clinical criteria for a comorbidity subgroup reassignment, then we will evaluate the resource consumption associated with the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes, the current assigned comorbidity subgroup, and the proposed (reassigned) comorbidity subgroup. This analysis is to ensure that any reassignment of an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code (if reported as secondary) in any given year will not significantly alter the overall resource use of a specific comorbidity subgroup. For resource consumption, we use non-LUPA 30-day periods to evaluate the total number of 30-day periods for the comorbidity subgroup(s) and the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code, the average number of visits per 30-day periods for the comorbidity subgroup(s) and the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code, and the average resource use for the comorbidity subgroup(s) and the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code. The average resource use measures the costs associated with visits performed during a home health period and was previously described in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56450).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Request for ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code Reassignments to a PDGM Clinical Group or Comorbidity Subgroup—Renal 3 Comorbidity Subgroup</HD>
                    <P>We received questions from interested parties regarding the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes N30.00- (acute cystitis) and the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code N39.0 (urinary tract infection, site not specified). Specifically, CMS received a request to reassign N30.00 to the same clinical and comorbidity group as N39.0. The ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes N30.00- (acute cystitis) are currently assigned to clinical group J (MMTA—Gastrointestinal tract and Genitourinary system) when listed as a primary diagnosis and not assigned to a comorbidity subgroup when listed as a secondary diagnosis. The ICD-10-CM diagnosis code N39.0 (urinary tract infection, site not specified) is currently assigned to clinical group J (MMTA—Gastrointestinal tract and Genitourinary system) when listed as a primary diagnosis and assigned to the renal 3 comorbidity subgroup when listed as a secondary diagnosis.</P>
                    <P>We reviewed the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes related to cystitis (N30.-) and determined all 14 of the codes are not assigned to a comorbidity subgroup when listed as a secondary diagnosis. Our clinical reviewers advised that cystitis, including N30.00- (acute cystitis), is to report inflammation of the urinary bladder; whereas N39.0 (urinary tract infection, site not specified) is to report the presence of the infectious microorganisms in the urinary tract system. In addition, we evaluated resource consumption related to the comorbidity subgroup renal 3, as well as diagnosis codes N30.00- (acute cystitis) and N39.0 (urinary tract infection, site not specified) and found that acute cystitis on average has a lower resource use than urinary tract infection (UTI). As described earlier, based on clinical review and resources use analysis, the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes N30.00- (acute cystitis) are currently assigned to the most appropriate comorbidity group, not assigned. Therefore, we did not propose a reassignment of N30.00- (acute cystitis) at this time.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received a comment requesting we reassign N30.00- (acute cystitis) to receive the same clinical grouping and comorbidity subgroup as an unspecified UTI. Another commenter stated they believe diagnoses were missing from comorbidity groups, such as sepsis that was not grouped with UTI. Other commenters requested rheumatic mitral value diseases I05.- and aortic rheumatic valve diseases I06.- should be assigned to the comorbidity subgroup 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88404"/>
                        Heart 9 and that F01., Vascular dementia, be reassigned to the behavioral health clinical group.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters diligent review of the ICD-10-CM diagnosis codes and their assigned clinical and comorbidity group. We remind readers that not all diagnosis codes are assigned a clinical group and/or a comorbidity group under the HH PPS payment policy. As we did not propose any reassignments at this time, these comments are considered out of scope for this rule. Additionally, to evaluate clinically and, when needed, statistically, a request for a diagnosis code's clinical group or comorbidity subgroup reassignment, we require the current assignment of the diagnosis code(s), the requested reassignment, and any supporting evidence for the reassignment (for example, similar clinical management and services). As we stated in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66808) if an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code is to be reassigned from one clinical group and/or a comorbidity subgroup to another clinical/comorbidity group, either through a request from the public or internal analysis, as the change may affect payment, it is necessary to propose these changes through notice and comment rulemaking. Lastly, while we attempt to evaluate requests in the order in which they are received, the length of time needed to sufficiently evaluate a request varies. For future requests for ICD-10 code reassignments, readers can send their request(s) to the Home Health Policy mailbox: 
                        <E T="03">HomeHealthPolicy@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. CY 2025 Home Health Payment Rate Updates</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Final CY 2025 Home Health Market Basket Update for HHAs</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act requires that the standard prospective payment amounts for home health be increased by a factor equal to the applicable home health market basket update for those HHAs that submit quality data as required by the Secretary. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77726), we finalized a rebasing of the home health market basket to reflect 2021 cost report data. We also finalized a policy for CY 2024 and subsequent years that the labor-related share will be 74.9 percent, and the non-labor-related share will be 25.1 percent. A detailed description of how we rebased the home health market basket and labor-related share is available in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77726 through 77742).</P>
                    <P>
                        In the CY 2015 HH PPS final rule (79 FR 38384), we finalized our methodology for calculating and applying the multifactor productivity adjustment. As we explained in that rule, section 1895(b)(3)(B)(vi) of the Act, requires that, in CY 2015 (and in subsequent calendar years, except CY 2018 (under section 411(c) of the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015 (MACRA) (Pub. L. 114-10, enacted April 16, 2015)), the market basket percentage under the HH PPS as described in section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act be annually adjusted by changes in economy-wide productivity. Section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act defines the productivity adjustment to be equal to the 10-year moving average of change in annual economy-wide private nonfarm business multifactor productivity (as projected by the Secretary for the 10-year period ending with the applicable fiscal year, calendar year, cost reporting period, or other annual period). The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) publishes the official measures of productivity for the United States economy. We note that previously the productivity measure referenced in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act was published by BLS as private nonfarm business multifactor productivity. Beginning with the November 18, 2021, release of productivity data, BLS replaced the term “multifactor productivity” with “total factor productivity” (TFP). BLS noted that this is a change in terminology only and will not affect the data or methodology. As a result of the BLS name change, the productivity measure referenced in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act is now published by BLS as “private nonfarm business total factor productivity”. We refer readers to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov</E>
                         for the BLS historical published TFP data. A complete description of IHS Global Inc.'s (IGI) TFP projection methodology is available on the CMS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/data-research/statistics-trends-and-reports/medicare-program-rates-statistics/market-basket-research-and-information.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed home health update percentage for CY 2025 was based on the estimated home health market basket percentage increase, specified at section 1895(b)(3)(B)(iii) of the Act, of 3.0 percent (based on IHS Global Inc.'s first quarter 2024 forecast with historical data through fourth quarter 2023). The estimated CY 2025 home health market basket percentage increase of 3.0 percent was then reduced by a productivity adjustment, in accordance with section 1895(b)(3)(B)(vi) of the Act. Based on IGI's first quarter 2024 forecast, the proposed productivity adjustment was estimated to be 0.5 percentage point for CY 2025. Therefore, the proposed productivity-adjusted CY 2025 home health market basket update was 2.5 percent (3.0 percent market basket percentage increase, reduced by a 0.5 percentage point productivity adjustment). Furthermore, we proposed that if more recent data subsequently became available (for example, a more recent estimate of the market basket and/or productivity adjustment), we would use such data, if appropriate, to determine the CY 2025 market basket percentage increase and productivity adjustment in the final rule.</P>
                    <P>For this final rule, based on updated data from IGI's third quarter 2024 forecast with historical data through the second quarter of 2024, the 2021-based home health market basket percentage increase for CY 2025 is 3.2 percent reduced by a 0.5 percentage point productivity adjustment which results in a final CY 2025 update percentage of 2.7 percent.</P>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act requires that the home health percentage update be decreased by 2 percentage points for those HHAs that do not submit quality data as required by the Secretary. For HHAs that do not submit the required quality data for CY 2025, the proposed home health payment update percentage was 0.5 percent (2.5 percent minus 2 percentage points). For this final rule, for HHAs that do not submit the required data for CY 2025, the final home health payment update percentage is 0.7 percent (2.7 percent minus 2 percentage points).</P>
                    <P>We invited public comment on our proposals for the CY 2025 home health market basket percentage increase and productivity adjustment.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters stated that they appreciate the market basket update and that they support the methodology resulting in a proposed positive payment update of 2.5 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters asserted that the proposed update is not enough to account for the increase in costs that home health agencies have faced. Commenters stated that home health agencies continue to face stubborn and rising inflation which they state affects the costs of medical supplies, medications, materials, utilities, transportation, as well increases in labor costs. They note that retention and recruitment of staff remains a priority, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88405"/>
                        but there have been challenges due to personnel shortages and the need to compete with other health care sectors, which continues to apply upward pressure to the cost of labor. Specifically, a commenter stated that their labor costs have increased nearly 12 percent between 2021 and 2024, and that they are projecting significant future cost increases to recruit and retain the workforce necessary to meet rapidly increasing demand.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested CMS examine trends relative to IHS Global Inc.'s forecasts to determine whether more recently available data than used for the final CY 2025 rule would result in a higher market basket update and determine whether additional updates could be made during the course of CY 2025 to provide additional support to home health and other providers.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters stated that since 2021, they believe IGI's forecasted growth for the home health market basket has shown a consistent trend of under-forecasting actual market basket growth. They stated they were cognizant of the fact that forecasts will always be imperfect, but the commenters claimed that in the past, they have been more balanced. However, with what they state are four straight years of under-forecasts, the commenters were concerned that there is a more systemic issue with IGI's forecasting. They stated that missed forecasts have a significant and permanent impact on providers. The commenters claimed that this has resulted in ongoing and permanent underpayments to HHAs that is totaling approximately $700 million annually.</P>
                    <P>The commenters stated that in addition to inaccurate forecasts, the underlying market basket itself may have shortcomings that fail to properly capture growth. They noted that there has been a very large growth in providers' costs in the last several years, and that it is confounding how providers with labor-intensive services could have a change in the actual market basket growth that is 4 percentage points below general inflation as measured by the CPI-U. Commenters urged CMS to re-examine the market basket and forecast methodology, and a commenter urged CMS to provide greater transparency regarding the forecast methodology so that it might benefit from stakeholder input.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters' concerns. We are required to update HH PPS payments by the market basket update adjusted for productivity, as directed by section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act. Specifically, section 1895(b)(3)(B)(iii) of the Act states that the increase factor shall be based on an appropriate percentage increase in a market basket of goods and services included in home health services in the same manner as the market basket percentage increase under section 1886(b)(3)(B)(iii) of the Act is determined and applied to the mix of goods and services comprising inpatient hospital services for the fiscal year or year. There is not currently a mechanism in place to allow for additional updates during the course of CY 2025, as was suggested by the commenter, beyond the percentage increase described here.
                    </P>
                    <P>The home health market basket is a fixed-weight, Laspeyres-type index that measures price changes over time and would not reflect increases in costs associated with changes in the volume or intensity of input goods and services. As such, the home health market basket update would reflect the prospective price pressures described by the commenters (such as wage growth or higher energy prices) but would inherently not reflect other factors that might increase the level of costs, such as the quantity of labor used. We note that cost changes (that is, the product of price and quantities) would only be reflected when the base year weights are updated to a more recent time period.</P>
                    <P>We would also highlight that the market basket percentage increase is a forecast of the price pressures that HHAs are expected to face in 2025. IHS Global Inc. (an Affiliate of S&amp;P Global Inc.) is a nationally recognized economic and financial forecasting firm (a participant in the Blue Chip Economic Indicators®) with which CMS contracts to forecast the components of the market baskets. While this most recent period has been marked by a consistent under forecasting of the market basket forecast, over longer periods the forecasts have generally averaged close to the historical measures. We note that when developing its forecasts of employment cost indices, IHS Global Inc. considers overall labor market conditions (including a rise in contract labor employment due to tight labor market conditions) as well as trends in contract labor wages, which both have an impact on wage pressures for workers employed directly by the HHA. CMS will continue to monitor the methods associated with the market basket forecasts to ensure there are not underlying systematic issues in the forecasting approach.</P>
                    <P>While we did not propose to rebase or revise the home health market basket in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we note that we finalized the 2021-based home health market basket in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77726). At the time of the CY 2024 rulemaking cycle, the 2021 Medicare cost report data was the most comprehensive data source available. While we typically rebase in regular intervals (roughly every four years), we monitor the Medicare cost report data to assess whether rebasing on a more frequent schedule is technically appropriate, and we will continue to do so in the future. In addition, we welcome any suggestions for technical improvements to the home health market basket and note that any changes would be proposed and established through notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        At the time of the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, based on the IHS Global Inc. first quarter 2024 forecast with historical data through the fourth quarter of 2023, the 2021-based home health market basket update was forecasted to be 3.0 percent for CY 2025, reflecting forecasted compensation price growth of 3.4 percent. This reflects an expectation that the growth in compensation costs will ease relative to the 2021-2023 period but remain elevated relative to historical compensation growth rates (which averaged 2.1 percent in the 10-year period from 2011 through 2020). We appreciate the commenter's concern regarding inflationary pressure and the request to use more recent data to determine the CY 2025 home health market basket update. In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we proposed that if more recent data became available, we would use such data, if appropriate, to derive the final CY 2025 home health market basket update for the final rule. For this final rule, we now have an updated forecast of the price proxies underlying the market basket that incorporates more recent historical data and reflects a revised outlook regarding the U.S. economy and expected price inflation for CY 2025. Based on IHS Global Inc.'s third quarter 2024 forecast with historical data through the second quarter of 2024, we are projecting a CY 2025 home health market basket update of 3.2 percent (reflecting forecasted compensation price growth of 3.5 percent) and a productivity adjustment of 0.5 percentage point. Therefore, for CY 2025 a final productivity-adjusted home health market basket update of 2.7 percent (3.2 percent reduced by 0.5 percentage point) will be applicable, compared to the 2.5 percent productivity-adjusted home health market basket update that was proposed.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88406"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters stated that CMS should recognize the financial impact of its forecasting error with respect to the annual Market Basket Index updates from 2021 and 2022 and exercise its authority to implement a one-time adjustment of 5.2 percent to account for the forecasting error. A few commenters suggested alternative forecast error adjustments ranging from approximately 4.4 to 5.7 percent to account for under forecasts in the period from 2021 through 2023.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The home health market basket updates are set prospectively, which means that the update relies on a mix of both historical data for part of the period for which the update is calculated and forecasted data for the remainder. For instance, the CY 2025 market basket update in this final rule reflects historical data through the second quarter of CY 2024 and forecasted data from the third quarter of CY 2024 through the fourth quarter of CY 2025. There is currently no mechanism to adjust for market basket forecast error in the home health payment update. A forecast error for a market basket update is equal to the actual market basket percentage increase for a given year less the forecasted market basket percentage increase. Due to the uncertainty regarding future price trends, forecast errors can be both positive and negative, as has occurred since the implementation of the HH PPS.
                    </P>
                    <P>Over most of this history the forecast errors were smaller in magnitude, with the largest error prior to 2021 being an over forecast of 1.2 percentage points in 2009. More recently the home health market basket has been under forecast, as noted by the commenters, with larger errors occurring for 2021 through 2023. The cumulative forecast error since HH PPS inception (fiscal year 2002 to CY 2023, excluding CY 2018 and CY 2020 when the market basket update was statutorily mandated) is −0.7 percent. The recent forecast errors were largely a function of uncertainty in the overall economy and the health sector specifically due to the nature of the public health emergency and the unforeseen rapidly accelerating inflationary environment.</P>
                    <P>For this final rule, we have incorporated more recent historical data and forecasts to capture the price and wage pressures facing HHAs and believe it is the best available projection of inflation to determine the applicable percentage increase for the HHA payments in CY 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated they are disappointed that CMS has not taken increased workforce safety costs into consideration. They indicated that workforce safety is an area of growing concern for the home health industry at large and it will take significant investments in training, security and equipment to keep home health clinicians safe while working in the home and community. The commenter stated that there is currently no area to report many of these unique environmental and safety costs on the Medicare cost report. The commenter stated that they believe that CMS needs to work with the home health industry to ensure that workplace safety costs and other unique expenditures related to home health are considered when determining the home health payment rate update.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We recognize the importance of ensuring workforce safety. CMS reminds commenters that these costs may be recorded under the Plant Operation &amp; Maintenance cost center, which includes costs associated with “protecting employees, visitors, and HHA property.”
                    </P>
                    <P>As detailed in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77728), costs recorded in the overhead cost centers are used to derive the major cost weights, and thus any significant changes in the volume or intensity of investment since the base year (currently 2021) would be a factor in the cost weights when the home health market basket is next rebased.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         After consideration of public comments, we are finalizing the home health payment update percentage for CY 2025 based on the most recent forecast of the home health market basket percentage increase and productivity adjustment at the time of rulemaking. Based on IHS Global Inc.'s third quarter 2024 forecast with historical data through the second quarter of 2024, we are projecting a CY 2025 home health market basket update of 3.2 percent and a productivity adjustment of 0.5 percentage point. Therefore, we are finalizing for CY 2025 a final productivity-adjusted home health market basket update of 2.7 percent (3.2 percent reduced by 0.5 percentage point).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Adoption of the CBSA Delineations for the HH PPS Wage Index</HD>
                    <P>In general, OMB issues major revisions to statistical areas every 10 years, based on the results of the decennial census. However, OMB occasionally issues minor updates and revisions to statistical areas in the years between the decennial censuses.</P>
                    <P>On February 28, 2013, OMB issued Bulletin No. 13-01, announcing revisions to the delineations of MSAs, Micropolitan Statistical Areas, and CBSAs, and guidance on uses of the delineation of these areas. In the CY 2015 HH PPS final rule (79 FR 66085 through 66087), we adopted OMB's area delineations using a 1-year transition.</P>
                    <P>
                        On August 15, 2017, OMB issued Bulletin No. 17-01 in which it announced that one Micropolitan Statistical Area, Twin Falls, Idaho, now qualifies as a Metropolitan Statistical Area. The new CBSA (46300) comprises the principal city of Twin Falls, Idaho in Jerome County, Idaho and Twin Falls County, Idaho. The CY 2025 HH PPS wage index value for CBSA 46300, Twin Falls, Idaho, will be 0.8519. Bulletin No. 17-01 is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/bulletins/2017/b-17-01.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        On April 10, 2018, OMB issued OMB Bulletin No. 18-03, which superseded the August 15, 2017, OMB Bulletin No. 17-01. On September 14, 2018, OMB issued OMB Bulletin No. 18-04 which superseded the April 10, 2018, OMB Bulletin No. 18-03. These bulletins established revised delineations for Metropolitan Statistical Areas, Micropolitan Statistical Areas, and Combined Statistical Areas, and provided guidance on the use of the delineations of these statistical areas. A copy of OMB Bulletin No. 18-04 may be obtained at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/bls/omb-bulletin-18-04-revised-delineations-of-metropolitan-statistical-areas.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        On March 6, 2020, OMB issued Bulletin No. 20-01, which provided updates to and superseded OMB Bulletin No. 18-04 that was issued on September 14, 2018. The attachments to OMB Bulletin No. 20-01 provided detailed information on the update to statistical areas since September 14, 2018, and were based on the application of the 2010 Standards for Delineating Metropolitan and Micropolitan Statistical Areas to Census Bureau population estimates for July 1, 2017, and July 1, 2018. (For a copy of this bulletin, we refer readers to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2020/03/Bulletin-20-01.pdf.</E>
                        ) In OMB Bulletin No. 20-01, OMB announced one new Micropolitan Statistical Area, one new component of an existing Combined Statistical Area and changes to New England City and Town Area (NECTA) delineations. In the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70298), we stated that if appropriate, we will propose any updates from OMB Bulletin No. 20-01 in future rulemaking. After reviewing OMB Bulletin No. 20-01, we determined that the changes in Bulletin 20-01 encompassed delineation changes that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88407"/>
                        did not affect the Medicare home health wage index for CY 2022. Specifically, the updates consisted of changes to NECTA delineations and the re-designation of a single rural county into a newly created Micropolitan Statistical Area. The Medicare home health wage index does not utilize NECTA definitions, and, as most recently discussed in the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70298) we include hospitals located in Micropolitan Statistical areas in each State's rural wage index. In other words, these OMB updates did not affect any geographic areas for purposes of the HH PPS wage index calculation.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70298), we finalized our proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations with a 5-percent cap on wage index decreases in CY 2021. In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66851 through 66853), we finalized a policy that the CY HH PPS wage index will include a permanent 5-percent cap on wage index decreases for CY 2023 and each subsequent year. Specifically, we finalized for CY 2023 and subsequent years, the application of a permanent 5-percent cap on any decrease to a geographic area's wage index from its wage index in the prior year, regardless of the circumstances causing the decline. That is, we finalized a policy requiring that a geographic area's wage index for CY 2023 will not be less than 95 percent of its final wage index for CY 2022, regardless of whether the geographic area is part of an updated CBSA, and that for subsequent years, a geographic area's wage index will not be less than 95 percent of its wage index calculated in the prior CY. Previously this methodology was applied to all the counties that make up a CBSA or statewide rural area. However, as discussed in section II.E.2. of this final rule, because we proposed to adopt the revised OMB delineations, we also proposed that this methodology would also be applied to individual counties.</P>
                    <P>
                        On July 21, 2023, OMB issued Bulletin No. 23-01, which updates and supersedes OMB Bulletin No. 20-01, issued on March 6, 2020. OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 establishes revised delineations for the MSAs, Micropolitan Statistical Areas, Combined Statistical Areas, and Metropolitan Divisions, collectively referred to as Core Based Statistical Areas (CBSAs). According to OMB, the delineations reflect the 2020 Standards for Delineating Core Based Statistical Areas (CBSAs) (the “2020 Standards”), which appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (86 FR 37770 through 37778) on July 16, 2021, and application of those standards to Census Bureau population and journey-to-work data (for example, 2020 Decennial Census, American Community Survey, and Census Population Estimates Program data). A copy of OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 is available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/07/OMB-Bulletin-23-01.pdf.</E>
                         The July 21, 2023, OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 contains a number of significant changes. For example, there are new CBSAs, urban counties that have become rural, rural counties that have become urban, and existing CBSAs that have been split apart. We believe it is important for the HH PPS wage index to use the latest OMB delineations available in order to maintain a more accurate and up-to-date payment system that reflects the reality of population shifts and labor market conditions. We further believe that using the most current OMB delineations will increase the integrity of the HH PPS wage index by creating a more accurate representation of geographic variation in wage levels. We proposed to implement the new OMB delineations as described in the July 21, 2023, OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 for the HH PPS wage index effective beginning in CY 2025. The proposal was also consistent with the proposals to adopt the revised OMB delineations in the IPPS and other post-acute care payment systems.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Micropolitan Statistical Areas</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in the CY 2006 HH PPS proposed rule (70 FR 40788) and final rule (70 FR 68132), CMS considered how to use the Micropolitan statistical area definitions in the calculation of the wage index. At the time, OMB defined a “Micropolitan Statistical Area” as a CBSA associated with at least one urban cluster that has a population of at least 10,000, but less than 50,000 (75 FR 37252). We referred to these as Micropolitan Areas. After extensive impact analysis, consistent with the treatment of these areas under the IPPS as discussed in the fiscal year (FY) 2005 IPPS final rule (69 FR 49029 through 49032), we determined the best course of action will be to treat Micropolitan Areas as “rural” and include them in the calculation of each state's home health rural wage index (see 70 FR 40788 and 70 FR 68132). Thus, the HH PPS statewide rural wage index is determined using IPPS hospital data from hospitals located in non-Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs). In the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70298), we finalized a policy to continue to treat Micropolitan Areas as “rural” and to include Micropolitan Areas in the calculation of each state's rural wage index.</P>
                    <P>The OMB “2020 Standards” continue to define a “Micropolitan Statistical Area” as a CBSA with at least one urban area that has a population of at least 10,000, but less than 50,000. The Micropolitan Statistical Area comprises the central county or counties containing the core, plus adjacent outlying counties having a high degree of social and economic integration with the central county, or counties as measured through commuting (86 FR 37778). Overall, there are the same number of Micropolitan Areas (542) under the new OMB delineations based on the 2020 Census as there were using the 2010 Census. We note, however, that a number of urban counties have switched status and have joined or become Micropolitan Areas, and some counties that once were part of a Micropolitan Area, and thus were treated as rural, have become urban based on the 2020 Decennial Census data. In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we stated that we believe that the best course of action would be to continue our established policy and include Micropolitan Areas in each state's rural wage index as these areas continue to be defined as having relatively small urban cores (populations of 10,000 to 49,999) (89 FR 55364). Therefore, in conjunction with our proposal to implement the new OMB labor market delineations beginning in CY 2025, and consistent with the treatment of Micropolitan Areas under the IPPS, we also proposed to continue to treat Micropolitan Areas as “rural” and to include Micropolitan Areas in the calculation of each state's rural wage index.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We did not receive any comments on our proposal to continue to treat Micropolitan Areas as rural and to include those areas in the calculation of each State's rural wage index. We are finalizing this policy as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Change to County-Equivalents in the State of Connecticut</HD>
                    <P>
                        In a June 6, 2022, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice (87 FR 34235 through 34240), the Census Bureau announced that it was implementing the State of Connecticut's request to replace the eight counties in the State with nine new “Planning Regions.” Planning regions are included in OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 and now serve as county-equivalents within the CBSA system. We evaluated the change and proposed to adopt the planning regions as county equivalents for wage index purposes. We believe it is necessary to adopt this migration from counties to planning region county-equivalents in order to maintain 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88408"/>
                        consistency with our established policy of adopting the most recent OMB updates. We provided the crosswalk in table 26 of the proposed rule (89 FR 55364) for counties located in Connecticut with the current and proposed Federal Information Processing Series (FIPS) county and county-equivalent codes and CBSA assignments.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="227">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.041</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We did not receive any comments on our proposal to adopt the Connecticut planning regions as county equivalents for wage index purposes. We are finalizing this policy as proposed. The crosswalk in table 13 includes counties located in Connecticut with the current and final FIPS county and county-equivalent codes and CBSA/transition code assignments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Urban Counties That Will Become Rural</HD>
                    <P>In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we inadvertently omitted Windham County, CT from the list of counties that would become rural under the revised OMB statistical area delineations (based upon OMB Bulletin No. 23-01). For this final rule, Windham County has been included. Therefore, there are a total of 54 counties (and county equivalents) that are currently considered urban that will be considered rural beginning in CY 2025. Table 14 lists the 54 counties that will become rural if we finalize our proposal to implement the revised OMB delineations.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88409"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.042</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        We invited public comment on our proposal to redesignate the urban counties in table 14 as rural based on the revised OMB delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88410"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed concern with the proposal to redesignate urban counties as rural based on the revised delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01. A few commenters stated that changes to the wage index that would move some agencies from an urban designation to a rural one would further reduce agency reimbursement at a time when rural agencies are facing increased challenges recruiting and retaining employees. Another commenter stated that utilizing the revised OMB data for the CBSAs results in even more disparity between urban and rural agencies than there was under the prior delineations. This commenter stated that the one-year wage index cap of 5 percent is insufficient to mitigate rate decreases and that many newly classified rural agencies will be severely impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the concerns raised by the commenters. However, we continue to believe it is important for the HH PPS wage index to use the latest OMB delineations available in order to maintain a more accurate and up-to-date payment system that reflects the reality of population shifts and labor market conditions. We note that unlike other payment systems, the appropriate home health wage index value is applied to the labor portion of the HH PPS rates based on the site of service for the beneficiary (defined by section 1861(m) of the Act) and not the agency's location. While some urban counties are becoming rural based on the revised delineations, HHAs are able to serve beneficiaries in more than one county including counties that remain designated as urban. Furthermore, as discussed later in this final rule, we believe that applying the permanent 5-percent cap policy at the county level would mitigate potential negative impacts experienced by HHAs who provide services in counties that have been redesignated as rural. We proposed to apply the permanent 5-percent cap at the county level so that counties that move from a CBSA or statewide rural area with a higher wage index value into a new CBSA or rural area with a lower wage index value will have a CY 2025 wage index that is not less than 95 percent of the county's CY 2024 wage index value under the old delineation, despite moving into a new delineation with a lower wage index. We also proposed that the 5-percent cap would continue to be applied in these counties until a county's current calendar year wage index under the revised delineations is not less than 95 percent of the wage index from the previous calendar year. Therefore, we believe the 5-percent cap applied at the county level is sufficient to mitigate any negative impacts of adopting the revised delineations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         After consideration of public comments, we are finalizing the proposal to redesignate the 54 urban counties listed in table 14 as rural for purposes of the HH PPS wage index beginning in CY 2025.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Rural Counties That Will Become Urban</HD>
                    <P>Under the revised OMB statistical area delineations (based upon OMB Bulletin No. 23-01), a total of 54 counties (and county equivalents) that are currently located in rural areas will be considered located in urban areas under the revised OMB delineations beginning in CY 2025. Table 15 lists the 54 counties that will be urban if we finalize our proposal to implement the revised OMB delineations.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="568">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88411"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.043</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We did not receive public comments on our proposal to redesignate the 54 rural counties listed in table 15 as urban based on the revised OMB delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01. Therefore, we are finalizing the policy as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Urban Counties That Will Move to a Different Urban CBSA Under the Revised OMB Delineations</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to some rural counties becoming urban and some urban counties becoming rural, several urban counties will shift from one urban CBSA to a new or existing urban CBSA under our proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations. In other cases, applying the new OMB delineations will involve a change only in CBSA name or number, while the CBSA will continue to encompass the same constituent counties. For example, CBSA 35154 (New Brunswick-Lakewood, NJ) will experience both a change to its number and its name and become CBSA 29484 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88412"/>
                        (Lakewood-New Brunswick, NJ), while all three of its constituent counties will remain the same. In other cases, only the name of the CBSA will be modified. Table 16 lists CBSAs that will change in name and/or CBSA number only, but the constituent counties will not change (except in instances where an urban county became rural or a rural county became urban, as discussed in the previous section).
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88413"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.044</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In some cases, all urban counties from a CY 2024 CBSA will be moved and subsumed by another CBSA in CY 2025. Table 17 lists the CBSAs that, under our proposal to adopt the revised OMB 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88414"/>
                        statistical area delineations, will be subsumed by another CBSA.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="83">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.045</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>In other cases, if we adopt the new OMB delineations, some counties will shift between existing and new CBSAs, changing the constituent makeup of the CBSAs. In another type of change, some CBSAs have counties that will split off to become part of, or to form entirely new labor market areas. For example, the District of Columbia, DC, Charles County, MD and Prince Georges County, MD will move from CBSA 47894 (Washington-Arlington-Alexandria, DC-VA-MD-WV) into CBSA 47764 (Washington, DC-Md). Calvert County, MD will move from CBSA 47894 (Washington-Arlington-Alexandria, DC-VA-MD-WV) into CBSA 30500 (Lexington Park, MD). The remaining counties that currently make up 47894 (Washington-Arlington-Alexandria, DC-VA-MD-WV) will move into CBSA 11694 (Arlington-Alexandria-Reston, VA-WV). Finally, in some cases, a CBSA will lose counties to another existing CBSA if we adopt the new OMB delineations. For example, Grainger County, TN will move from CBSA 34100 (Morristown, TN) into CBSA 28940 (Knoxville, TN). Table 18 lists the 73 urban counties that will move from one urban CBSA to a new or modified urban CBSA if we adopt the revised OMB delineations.</P>
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                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88416"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.047</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88417"/>
                    <P>A summary of the general comments on our proposals to adopt the revised delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01 appears below:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters, including MedPAC, were generally supportive of the proposals to adopt the revised delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01. A commenter expressed support for the proposal to adopt the new OMB delineations as described in OMB Bulletin 23-01 for the HH PPS wage index effective beginning in CY 2025. This commenter agreed that using the most current OMB delineations would increase the integrity of the HH PPS wage index by creating a more accurate representation of geographic variations in wage levels. Another commenter stated that until a new home health wage index can be implemented, the commenter supports CMS' proposal to continue using OMB's most recent statistical area delineations for the hospital wage index.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter opposed what they describe as the automatic adoption of the revised OMB delineations. This commenter stated that adopting the new delineations by default is in opposition to both OMB guidance and the Metropolitan Areas Protection and Standardization Act of 2021 (MAPs Act). This commenter stated that CMS has not provided any rationale or explanation for why relying on the updated CBSAs is appropriate and that rather than simply adopting the OMB CBSAs by default, CMS must make a fact-specific determination of those CBSAs' suitability for Medicare payment purposes, including whether it would be appropriate to use additional data to modify OMB's delineation to ensure that such changes are appropriate for purposes of defining regional labor markets for home health workers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenter's concerns about adopting CBSA changes. We do not agree with the commenter's assertion that this is “by default” or that CMS has not provided rationale for the proposed adoption of the revised CBSA delineations for CY 2025. The MAPS Act specifically states that “this act limits the automatic application of, and directs the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to provide information about, changes to the standards for designating a core-based statistical area (CBSA) . . .” We believe our proposed rule meets the requirements of the MAPS Act, because we have not automatically applied the revised CBSAs outlined in OMB Bulletin 23-01. Rather, through notice and comment rulemaking, we proposed the adoption of the revised CBSA delineations. Further, we stated our rationale for adopting the revised CBSA delineations, in that we believe it is important for the HH PPS to use, as soon as is reasonably possible, the latest available labor market area delineations to maintain a more accurate and up-to date payment system that reflects the reality of population shifts and labor market conditions. We also stated that we believe that using the most current delineations would increase the integrity of the HH PPS wage index system by creating a more accurate representation of geographic variations in wage levels. With respect to the suggestion that CMS consider whether it would be appropriate to use additional data to ensure that such changes are appropriate for purposes of defining regional labor markets for home health workers, we do not believe use of such additional analysis is necessary. Using the latest available labor market area delineations based on the latest available CBSA delineations established by OMB inherently reflects current population and labor market conditions and as such, results in a more accurate payment system.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed concern with specific redesignations in their areas. A commenter stated that the proposed adoption of the latest OMB delineations for the home health wage index will significantly impact several Florida regions and that high-cost areas such as Miami-Fort Lauderdale-West Palm Beach, Tampa-St. Petersburg-Clearwater, and Orlando-Kissimmee-Sanford are likely to experience notable reductions in their wage index values. This commenter recommended that CMS reconsider the proposed adoption of the new delineations by accounting for the distinctive economic and demographic factors influencing high-cost regions in Florida.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters opposed the delineation change for rural Puerto Rico where there is now a hospital in rural Puerto Rico from which hospital wage data can be derived. These commenters stated the payment calculations to providers will ultimately be reduced by 20.64 percent when using a wage index of 0.2520 vs 0.4047. The commenters stated that providers are unable to operate at a 20 percent reduction, particularly in the face of increasing costs and expressed concern that this reduction will lead to adverse impacts for beneficiaries as the labor market further shrinks and healthcare workers exit the Puerto Rico market for other areas or industries.</P>
                    <P>A commenter opposed the impact of the adoption of the revised delineations in Nassau, Suffolk, and Westchester Counties in New York state. This commenter requested CMS consider the impact of the wage index changes on Core-Based Statistical Areas (CBSAs) with increasing labor costs and the impact of these reductions on hospice, home health, and other home-and community-based providers in relation to institutional care providers</P>
                    <P>Another commenter expressed concern about the impact of county reclassifications on home health agencies serving Dukes and Nantucket Counties in Massachusetts. The commenter stated that as a result of the reclassification of Franklin County, the wage index for Dukes and Nantucket counties has dropped by 10 percent in the last 2 years and would drop an additional 10 percent over the next 2 years and that Medicare beneficiaries on those island communities are already experiencing limited access to home health services. The commenter stated that the proposed 5 percent cut will exacerbate that access problem and recommended CMS reverse the proposed 5 percent cut to the wage index for Dukes and Nantucket Counties to preserve access to home health services in those counties.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the concerns expressed by commenters regarding specific impacts of implementing the revised designations. While we understand these concerns, we believe that implementing the revised OMB delineations will create more accurate representations of labor market areas nationally and result in home health wage index values being more representative of the actual costs of labor in a given area. Although these comments only addressed the negative impact on certain areas, it is important to note that there are many geographic locations and home health providers that will experience positive impacts upon implementation of the revised CBSA designations. We acknowledge there are areas that will experience a decrease in their wage index but believe that the permanent 5-percent cap policy provides an adequate safeguard against any significant payment reductions in CY 2025 while improving the accuracy of the payment adjustment for differences in area wage levels. Therefore, we believe that it is appropriate to implement the new OMB delineations without further delay.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing our proposals to adopt the revised OMB 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88418"/>
                        delineations from OMB Bulletin No. 23-01.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Transition Period</HD>
                    <P>In the past we have provided for transition periods when adopting changes that have significant payment implications, particularly large negative impacts, in order to mitigate the potential impacts of proposed home health policies. For example, we have proposed and finalized budget-neutral transition policies to help mitigate negative impacts on HHAs following the adoption of the new CBSA delineations based on the 2010 Decennial Census data in the CY 2015 HH PPS final rule (79 FR 66032). Specifically, we implemented a 1-year 50/50 blended wage to the new OMB delineations. We applied a blended wage index for 1 year (CY 2015) for all geographic areas that will consist of a 50/50 blend of the wage index values using OMB's old area delineations and the wage index values using OMB's new area delineations. That is, for each county, a blended wage index was calculated equal to 50 percent of the CY 2015 wage index using the old labor market area delineation and 50 percent of the CY 2015 wage index using the new labor market area delineation, which resulted in an average of the two values. Additionally, in the CY 2021 HH PPS final rule (85 FR 70312), we proposed and finalized a transition policy to apply a 5-percent cap on any decrease in a geographic area's wage index value from the wage index value from the prior CY. This transition allowed the effects of our adoption of the revised CBSA delineations from OMB Bulletin 18-04 to be phased in over 2 years, where the estimated reduction in a geographic area's wage index was capped at five percent in CY 2021 (that is, no cap was applied to the reduction in the wage index for the second year (CY 2022)). We explained that we believed a 5-percent cap on the overall decrease in a geographic area's wage index value will be appropriate for CY 2021, as it provided predictability in payment levels from CY 2020 to CY 2021 and additional transparency because it was administratively simpler than our prior one-year 50/50 blended wage index approach.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66851 through 66853), we adopted a permanent 5-percent cap on wage index decreases beginning in CY 2023 and each subsequent year. The policy applies a permanent 5-percent cap on any decrease to a geographic area's wage index from its wage index in the prior year, regardless of the circumstances causing the decline, so that a geographic area's wage index will not be less than 95 percent of its wage index calculated in the prior CY.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we stated that the permanent 5-percent cap on wage index decreases would be sufficient to mitigate any potential negative impact caused by adopting the revised OMB delineations and that no further transition is necessary. Previously, the 5-percent cap had been applied at the CBSA or statewide rural area level, meaning that all the counties that make up the CBSA or rural area received the 5-percent cap. However, for CY 2025, to mitigate any potential negative impact caused by the adoption of the revised delineations, we proposed that in addition to the 5-percent cap being calculated for an entire CBSA or statewide rural, the cap would also be calculated at the county level, so that individual counties moving to a new delineation will not experience more than a five percent decrease in wage index from the previous calendar year. Specifically, we proposed for CY 2025, that the 5-percent cap will also be applied to counties that would move from a CBSA or statewide rural area with a higher wage index value into a new CBSA or rural area with a lower wage index value, so that the county's CY 2025 wage index would not be less than 95 percent of the county's CY 2024 wage index value under the old delineation despite moving into a new delineation with a lower wage index.</P>
                    <P>Due to the way that we proposed to calculate the 5-percent cap for counties that experience an OMB designation change, some CBSAs and statewide rural areas could have more than one wage index value because of the potential for their constituent counties to have different wage index values after the redesignation. Specifically, some counties that change OMB designations will have a wage index value that is different than the wage index value assigned to the other constituent counties that make up the CBSA or statewide rural area that they are moving into because of the application of the 5-percent cap. However, for home health claims processing, each CBSA or statewide rural area can have only one wage index value assigned to that CBSA or statewide rural area.</P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, HHAs that serve beneficiaries in a county that will receive the cap will need to use a number other than the CBSA or statewide rural area number to identify the county's appropriate wage index value on home health claims in CY 2025. We proposed that beginning in CY 2025, counties that have a different wage index value than the CBSA or rural area into which they are designated after the application of the 5-percent cap will use a wage index transition code. These special codes are five digits in length and begin with “50” and the remaining digits are unique for that code. We are using “Xs” to show how the transition codes could be labeled. The 50XXX 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         wage index transition codes will be used only in specific counties; counties located in CBSAs and rural areas that do not correspond to a different transition wage index value will still use the CBSA number. For example, FIPS county 13171 Lamar County, GA is currently part of CBSA 12060 Atlanta-Sandy Springs-Alpharetta. However, for CY 2025 we proposed that Lamar County will be redesignated into the Rural Georgia Code 99911. Because the wage index value of rural Georgia is more than a 5-percent decrease from the wage index value that Lamar County previously received under CBSA 12060, the CY 2025 wage index for Lamar County will be capped at 95 percent of the CY 2024 wage index value for CBSA 12060. Additionally, because rural Georgia can only have one wage index value assigned to code 99911, in order for Lamar County to receive the capped wage index for CY 2025, a transition code will be used on a home health claim instead of rural Georgia code 99911.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             The remaining 3 characters of the code to be determined if finalized.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We also proposed that the 5-percent cap would apply to a county that corresponds to a different wage index value than the wage index value in the CBSA or rural area in which they are designated due to a delineation change until the county's new wage index is more than 95 percent of the wage index from the previous calendar year. Therefore, in order to capture the correct wage index value, an HHA will continue to use the assigned 50XXX transition code for the county until the county's wage index value calculated for that calendar year using the new OMB delineations is not less than 95 percent of the county's capped wage index from the previous calendar year. Thus, in the example mentioned earlier, claims for Lamar County will use the assigned transition code until the wage index in its revised designation of Rural Georgia is equal to or more than 95 percent of its wage index value from the previous calendar year.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final counties that will require a transition code and the corresponding 50XXX codes are shown in table 19 and will also be shown in the CY 2025 HH 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88419"/>
                        PPS wage index file. Table 19 includes a list of counties that have changed designation and must use a transition code beginning in CY 2025. This list is comprised of counties that are redesignated into a new CBSA or rural area and will receive the 5-percent cap on wage index decreases. These counties must use a transition code because the wage index for that county is higher than all other constituent counties that make up the CBSA or rural area (like the earlier example for Lamar County, GA). Additionally, the list also includes counties that move into a new CBSA or rural area and have a different wage index value because the constituent counties that make up the CBSA or rural receive the 5-percent cap for CY 2025 while the county that moves into the CBSA or rural area does not. For example, rural area 99922 rural Massachusetts is comprised of FIPS code 25007 Dukes County, FIPS code 25019 Nantucket County and the redesignated FIPS code 25011 Franklin County. Dukes County and Nantucket County were part of rural area 99922 Massachusetts for CY 2024 and will receive the 5-percent cap because the CY 2025 wage index for rural area 99922 is more than a 5-percent decrease from the CY 2024 wage index for rural area 99922. However, Franklin County was included in CBSA 44140 Springfield, MA, in FY 2024 and the uncapped CY 2025 wage index for rural area 99922 is higher than the CY 2024 wage index for CBSA 44140. In this example, Franklin County, MA, would receive the uncapped wage index for rural Area 99922 while Dukes and Nantucket counties receive the 5-percent capped wage index. Therefore, HHAs that serve beneficiaries in Franklin County, MA, must use the transition code 50012 on home health claims instead of rural area 99922 Rural Massachusetts.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88420"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.048</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88421"/>
                    <P>The following is a summary of the comments on the proposal to use the permanent 5-percent cap applied at the county level as a transition.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters were supportive of the use of the permanent 5-percent cap to mitigate any adverse effects of adopting the revised OMB delineations. MedPAC stated that the Commission supports having a policy to cap and phase in the wage index reductions that a provider can experience in a given year. Another commenter thanked CMS for implementing the 5-percent cap on wage index decreases as a policy to combat ongoing wage index inequities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters recommended other changes to the finalized 5-percent cap policy. MedPAC recommended that the cap should be applied to both increases and decreases in a given year. Several commenters recommended that the cap be lowered to two percent, while a commenter suggested the cap should be no more than three percent. A commenter requested that CMS institute a one-time zero wage index adjustment in all CBSAs where there is a negative adjustment, while another commenter recommended that the 5-percent cap should be implemented in a non-budget neutral manner.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the 5-percent cap is helpful as a general measure to stabilize wage index values from year to year, but that does not negate the need to implement a transition period specific to wage index changes resulting from revised CBSA delineations. This commenter recommended a three-year transition period to allow for a wage index transition consistent with prior updates to the CBSA categorization due to OMB updates.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate commenters recommendations for changes to the finalized cap policy. However, in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we did not propose to make changes to the finalized 5-percent cap policy outside of the proposal to apply the 5-percent cap at the county level. Therefore, these comments are outside the scope of the proposed rule. Any changes to the finalized cap policy beyond the proposal to apply the cap at the county level would need to go through notice and comment rulemaking. We continue to believe that a 5-percent cap would most effectively mitigate any significant decreases in a geographic area's wage index for a calendar year, while still balancing the importance of ensuring that area wage index values accurately reflect relative differences in area wage levels. Furthermore, we believe that the 5-percent cap on wage index decreases provides a degree of predictability in payment changes for providers and allows providers time to adjust to any significant decreases they may face year to year. Therefore, we do not believe that any transition is appropriate at this time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed support for the proposal to apply the 5-percent cap at the county level. This commenter stated that they strongly believe that the wage index for any county or service area should not decrease by more than five percent in any given year and expressed support for the proposal that each Transitional CBSA, in which the included county(s) would have any reduction to their wage index limited to five percent from the previous year, should remain active until such time that the county(s) included would be able to be included in their new CBSA/Service Area when the reduction to their Wage Index would be five percent or less.
                    </P>
                    <P>This commenter also recommended that CMS provide a crosswalk in CSV or Excel format of any/all changes any year in which there are changes such as these, stating that the crosswalk should include the Social Security Administration (SSA) Code, FIPS Code, CBSA Code (and transition code where applicable), and the Wage Index (and transition wage index where applicable) for every unique County or Service Area covered under the Medicare program. Another commenter requested that CMS carefully plan communication to impacted facilities so that they are clear regarding what number to use on home health claims.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support. We acknowledge the importance of providing an accurate crosswalk for the CY 2025 wage index that highlights the changes due to the revised OMB delineations, specifically in counties that will require a transition code. Therefore, we are listing the counties that will require a transition code in CY 2025 in table 19 and we are also including this table in the CY 2025 wage index file. The CY 2025 wage index file provides a crosswalk between the current OMB delineations and the final revised OMB delineations that will be in effect in CY 2025. This file shows each state and county and its corresponding final wage index along with the previous CBSA number, the final CBSA number or alternate identification number, and the final CBSA name. The list of counties that will require a transition code beginning in CY 2025 will also be included in the CY 2025 Home Health Rate Update Change Request that can be located at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/regulations-guidance/transmittals.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing our proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations from OMB Bulletin 23-01, and will also apply the permanent 5-percent cap on wage index decreases at the county level with the use of a transition code, so that counties impacted by the revised designations will receive a 5-percent cap on any decrease in a geographic area's wage index value from the wage index value from the prior calendar year for CY 2025. We are also finalizing our proposal that, beginning in CY 2025, counties that have a different wage index value than the CBSA or rural area into which they are designated due to the application of the 5-percent cap (including redesignated counties that will receive the 5-percent cap and redesignated counties that move into a CBSA or rural area where all other constituent counties receive the 5-percent cap) will use a wage index transition code. These special codes are five digits in length and begin with “50.” The 50XXX wage index transition codes will be used only in specific counties; counties located in CBSAs and rural areas that do not correspond to a different transition wage index value will still use the CBSA number. Finally, we are finalizing the policy that the 5-percent cap will apply to a county that corresponds to a different wage index value than the wage index value in the CBSA or rural area in which they are designated due to a delineation change until the county's new wage index is more than 95 percent of the wage index from the previous calendar year. In order to capture the correct wage index value, the county will continue to use the assigned 50XXX transition code until the county's wage index value calculated for that fiscal year using the new OMB delineations is not less than 95 percent of the county's capped wage index from the previous calendar year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The final wage index file applicable to CY 2025 provides a crosswalk between the CY 2025 wage index using the current OMB delineations and the CY 2025 wage index using the revised OMB delineations that will be in effect in CY 2025. This file shows each state and county and its corresponding final wage index along with the previous CBSA number, the final CBSA number or transition code, and the finalized CBSA name. The final HH PPS wage index file applicable for CY 2025 (January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025) is available on the CMS website at 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://www.cms.gov/medicare/enrollment-
                            <PRTPAGE P="88422"/>
                            renewal/providers-suppliers/home-health-agency-center.
                        </E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Final CY 2025 Home Health Wage Index</HD>
                    <P>Sections 1895(b)(4)(A)(ii) and (b)(4)(C) of the Act require the Secretary to provide appropriate adjustments to the proportion of the payment amount under the HH PPS that account for area wage differences, using adjustment factors that reflect the relative level of wages and wage-related costs applicable to the furnishing of home health services. Since the inception of the HH PPS, we have used inpatient hospital wage data in developing a wage index to be applied to home health payments. We proposed to continue this practice for CY 2025, as it is our belief that, in the absence of home health-specific wage data that accounts for area differences, using inpatient hospital wage data, including any changes made by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) definitions, is appropriate and reasonable for the HH PPS. The appropriate wage index value is applied to the labor portion of the HH PPS rates based on the site of service for the beneficiary (defined by section 1861(m) of the Act as the beneficiary's place of residence).</P>
                    <P>For CY 2025, we proposed to base the HH PPS wage index on the FY 2025 hospital pre-floor, pre-reclassified wage index for hospital cost reporting periods beginning on or after October 1, 2020, and before October 1, 2021 (FY 2021 cost report data), with the revised OMB delineations. The final CY 2025 HH PPS wage index will not take into account any geographic reclassification of hospitals, including those in accordance with section 1886(d)(8)(B) or 1886(d)(10) of the Act but will include the 5-percent cap on wage index decreases.</P>
                    <P>There exist some geographic areas where there are no hospitals, and thus, no hospital wage data on which to base the calculation of the HH PPS wage index. To address those geographic areas in which there are no inpatient hospitals, and thus, no hospital wage data on which to base the calculation of the CY 2025 HH PPS wage index, we proposed to continue to use the same methodology discussed in the CY 2007 HH PPS final rule (71 FR 65884) to address those geographic areas in which there are no inpatient hospitals.</P>
                    <P>For urban areas without inpatient hospitals, we use the average wage index of all urban areas within the State as a reasonable proxy for the wage index for that CBSA. For CY 2025, the only urban area without inpatient hospital wage data is Hinesville, GA (CBSA 25980). Using the average wage index of all urban areas in Georgia as a proxy, we proposed the CY 2025 wage index value for Hinesville, GA, would be 0.8608. With updated data, the final wage index value for Hinesville, GA, will be 0.8824.</P>
                    <P>For rural areas that do not have inpatient hospitals, we proposed to use the average wage index from all contiguous Core Based Statistical Areas (CBSAs) as a reasonable proxy. The term “contiguous” means sharing a border (72 FR 49859). For CY 2025, as part of our proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations discussed further in section III.E.2. of the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we proposed that rural North Dakota would now become a rural area without a hospital from which hospital wage data can be derived. Therefore, in order to calculate the wage index for rural area 99935, North Dakota, we proposed to use as a proxy, the average pre-floor, pre-reclassified hospital wage data from the contiguous CBSAs: CBSA 13900-Bismark, ND, CBSA 22020-Fargo, ND-MN, CBSA 24220-Grand Forks, ND-MN, and CBSA 33500, Minot, ND, which resulted in a proposed CY 2025 HH PPS wage index of 0.8334 for rural North Dakota. For this final rule using updated data, the final wage index value for rural North Dakota will be 0.8503 which is the average pre-floor, pre-reclassified wage index values after the application of the 5-percent cap of the four contiguous counties outlined in table 20.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="136">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.049</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Previously, the only rural area without a hospital from which hospital wage data could be derived was in Puerto Rico. However, for rural Puerto Rico, we did not apply this methodology due to the distinct economic circumstances that exist there (for example, due to the proximity of one another of almost all of Puerto Rico's various urban and non-urban areas, this methodology will produce a wage index for rural Puerto Rico that is higher than that in half of its urban areas). Instead, we used the most recent wage index previously available for that area, which was 0.4047. For CY 2025, due to our proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations discussed previously, there is now a hospital in rural Puerto Rico from which hospital wage data can be derived. Therefore, we proposed that the wage index for rural Puerto Rico would now be based on the hospital wage data for the area instead of the previously available wage index of 0.4047. The unadjusted CY 2025 proposed wage index for rural Puerto Rico was 0.2520. However, because 0.2520 is more than a 5 percent decline in the CY 2024 wage index, the 5-percent cap will be applied. We proposed that the CY 2025 5-percent cap adjusted wage index for rural Puerto Rico would be set equal to 95 percent of the CY 2024 wage index, which resulted in a proposed wage index value of 0.3845. For this final rule, using updated data, the final unadjusted wage index value for rural Puerto Rico is 0.2510. However, because 0.2510 is more than a 5 percent decline in the CY 2024 wage index, the 5-percent cap will be applied. The final CY 2025 5-percent cap adjusted wage index for rural Puerto Rico will be set equal to 95 percent of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88423"/>
                        the CY 2024 wage index, which results in a final wage index value of 0.3845.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, due to the proposal to adopt the revised OMB delineations, Delaware, which was previously an all-urban state, will now have one rural area with a hospital from which hospital wage data can be derived. As such, we proposed that the CY 2025 wage index for rural Delaware would be 1.0429. The final wage index for rural Delaware will be 1.0385.</P>
                    <P>The following is a summary of the comments we received on the CY 2025 HH PPS wage index and our responses:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Most commenters expressed concern with the updates to the home health wage index. Several commenters were particularly opposed to the wage index updates in rural areas. A commenter stated that utilizing hospital wage data to determine the average labor costs for rural home health agencies does not adequately reflect the costs of recruiting and retaining employees in rural settings. Another commenter stated that the current method of adjusting labor costs using the hospital wage index does not accurately account for increased travel costs and lost productivity in serving rural areas. This commenter recommended that the hospital wage index be adjusted based on population density.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate commenters' concerns regarding the wage index values assigned to rural areas. As discussed in the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule (86 FR 62285), we do not believe that a population density adjustment is appropriate at this time. Rural HHAs continually cite the added cost of traveling from one patient to the next. However, urban HHAs cite the added costs associated with needed security measures and traffic congestion. The home health wage index values in rural areas are not necessarily lower than the home health wage index values in urban areas. The home health wage index reflects the wages that inpatient hospitals pay in their local geographic areas. We continue to believe that in the absence of home health specific data, the pre-floor, pre-reclassified hospital wage index is appropriate for the geographic adjustment of home health claims.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters recommended far-reaching revisions and reforms to the HH PPS wage index methodology. MedPAC recommended repealing and replacing the existing HH PPS wage index and phasing in new wage index systems for hospitals and other types of providers that uses all-employer, occupation-level wage data with different occupation weights for the wage index of each provider type; reflects local area level differences in wages between and within metropolitan statistical areas and statewide rural areas; and smooths wage index differences across adjacent local areas. Other commenters recommended discontinuing the use of the pre-floor, pre-reclassified hospital wage index as the basis for the HH PPS wage index and the creation of a home health specific wage index. Several commenters recommended allowing hospital provisions such as the area wage index policy that addresses the disparity in payments between rural and urban acute care hospitals, geographic reclassification, and an outmigration adjustment in the HH PPS wage index. Other commenters recommended that CMS institute a floor policy in the HH PPS. A few commenters recommended that CMS institute a rural floor in the HH PPS like the rural floor provided to hospitals. A few commenters recommended a 0.8000 floor in the HH PPS wage index similar to the hospice floor, while other commenters located in Puerto Rico recommended a floor of 0.6000 in the HH PPS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their recommendations. However, any updates to the home health wage index outside the proposed policies are outside the scope of the proposed rule. Changes to the HH PPS wage index would need to go through notice and comment rulemaking. Furthermore, we continue to believe that the regulations and statutes that govern the HH PPS differ from the hospital and hospice regulations and statutes, such that there would be differences between how these payment systems apply wage index policies including geographic reclassification, outmigration or the rural floor. Section 4410(a) of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 provides that the area wage index applicable to any hospital that is located in an urban area of a state may not be less than the area wage index applicable to hospitals located in rural areas in that State. This rural floor provision is specific to hospitals. The reclassification provision at section 1886(d)(10)(C)(i) of the Act states that the Medicare Geographic Classification Review Board shall consider the application of any subsection (d) hospital requesting the Secretary change the hospital's geographic classification for purposes of payment under the IPPS. This reclassification provision is only applicable to hospitals as defined in section 1886(d) of the Act. In addition, we do not believe that using hospital reclassification data would be appropriate as these data are specific to the requesting hospitals.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, the application of the hospice floor is specific to hospices and does not apply to HHAs. The hospice floor was developed through a negotiated rulemaking advisory committee, under the process established by the Negotiated Rulemaking Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-648). Committee members included representatives of national hospice associations; rural, urban, large, and small hospices; multi-site hospices; consumer groups; and a government representative. The Committee reached consensus on a methodology that resulted in the hospice wage index. We continue to believe the use of the pre-floor and pre- reclassified hospital wage index results in the most appropriate adjustment to the labor portion of the home health payment rates.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final decision:</E>
                         After consideration of public comments, we are finalizing our proposal to use the FY 2025 pre-floor, pre-reclassified hospital wage index as the basis for the CY 2025 HH PPS wage index. The complete final CY 2025 wage index is available on the CMS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Center/Provider-Type/Home-Health-Agency-HHA-Center.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. CY 2025 Home Health Payment Update</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Background</HD>
                    <P>The HH PPS has been in effect since October 1, 2000. As set forth in the July 3, 2000, final rule (65 FR 41128), the base unit of payment under the HH PPS was a national, standardized 60-day episode payment rate. As finalized in the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56406), and as described in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule with comment period (84 FR 60478), the unit of home health payment changed from a 60-day episode to a 30-day period effective for those 30-day periods beginning on or after January 1, 2020.</P>
                    <P>
                        As set forth in § 484.220, we adjust the national, standardized prospective payment rates by a case-mix relative weight and a wage index value based on the site of service for the beneficiary. To provide appropriate adjustments to the proportion of the payment amount under the HH PPS to account for area wage differences, we apply the appropriate wage index value to the labor portion of the HH PPS rates. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77676), we finalized the rebasing of the home health market basket to reflect 2021 Medicare cost report data. We also finalized that for CY 2024 and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88424"/>
                        subsequent years the labor-related share will be 74.9 percent and the non-labor-related share will be 25.1 percent. The following are the steps we take to compute the case-mix and wage-adjusted 30-day period payment amount for CY 2025:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Multiply the national, standardized 30-day period rate by the patient's applicable case-mix weight.</P>
                    <P>• Divide the case-mix adjusted amount into a labor (74.9 percent) and a non-labor portion (25.1 percent).</P>
                    <P>• Multiply the labor portion by the applicable wage index based on the site of service of the beneficiary.</P>
                    <P>• Add the wage-adjusted portion to the non-labor portion, yielding the case-mix and wage adjusted 30-day period payment amount, subject to any additional applicable adjustments.</P>
                    <P>We provide annual updates of the HH PPS rate in accordance with section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act. Section 484.225 sets forth the specific annual percentage update methodology. In accordance with section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act and § 484.225(i), for an HHA that does not submit home health quality data, as specified by the Secretary, the unadjusted national prospective 30-day period rate is equal to the rate for the previous calendar year increased by the applicable home health payment update percentage, minus two percentage points. Any reduction of the percentage change will apply only to the calendar year involved and will not be considered in computing the prospective payment amount for a subsequent calendar year.</P>
                    <P>The final claim that the HHA submits for payment determines the total payment amount for the period and whether we make an applicable adjustment to the 30-day case-mix and wage-adjusted payment amount. The end date of the 30-day period, as reported on the claim, determines which calendar year rates Medicare will use to pay the claim.</P>
                    <P>We may adjust a 30-day case-mix and wage-adjusted payment based on the information submitted on the claim to reflect the following:</P>
                    <P>• A LUPA is provided on a per-visit basis as set forth in §§ 484.205(d)(1) and 484.230.</P>
                    <P>• A partial payment adjustment as set forth in §§ 484.205(d)(2) and 484.235.</P>
                    <P>• An outlier payment as set forth in §§ 484.205(d)(3) and 484.240.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. CY 2025 National, Standardized 30-Day Period Payment Amount</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act requires that the standard prospective payment rate and other applicable amounts be standardized in a manner that eliminates the effects of variations in relative case-mix and area wage adjustments among different home health agencies in a budget-neutral manner. To determine the CY 2025 national, standardized 30-day period payment rate, we will continue our practice of using the most recent, complete utilization data at the time of rulemaking; that is, we are using CY 2023 claims data for CY 2025 payment rate updates. We apply a permanent adjustment factor, a case-mix weights recalibration budget neutrality factor, a wage index budget neutrality factor, and the home health payment update percentage to update the CY 2025 payment rate. As discussed in section II.C.1. of this final rule, we are finalizing the implementation of a permanent adjustment of -1.975 percent to ensure that payments under the PDGM do not exceed what payments would have been under the 153-group payment system as required by law. The final permanent adjustment factor is 0.98025. As discussed previously, to ensure the changes to the PDGM case-mix weights are implemented in a budget neutral manner, we apply a case-mix weight budget neutrality factor to the CY 2025 national, standardized 30-day period payment rate. The final case-mix weight budget neutrality factor for CY 2025 is 1.0039.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, we apply a wage index budget neutrality factor to ensure that wage index updates and revisions are implemented in a budget neutral manner. To calculate the wage index budget neutrality factor, we first determine the payment rate needed for non-LUPA 30-day periods using the CY 2025 wage index (with the final revised delineations and the 5-percent cap) so those total payments are equivalent to the total payments for non-LUPA 30-day periods using the CY 2024 wage index (with the old delineations and the 5-percent cap) and the CY 2024 national standardized 30-day period payment rate adjusted by the case-mix weights recalibration neutrality factor. Then, by dividing the payment rate for non-LUPA 30-day periods using the CY 2025 wage index (with the final revised delineations and a 5-percent cap on wage index decreases) by the payment rate for non-LUPA 30-day periods using the CY 2024 wage index (with the old delineations and a 5-percent cap on wage index decreases), we obtain a wage index budget neutrality factor of 0.9988. We then apply the wage index budget neutrality factor of 0.9988 to the 30-day period payment rate.</P>
                    <P>Next, we update the 30-day period payment rate by the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent. The CY 2025 national standardized 30-day period payment rate is calculated in table 21.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="119">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.050</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The CY 2025 national standardized 30-day period payment rate for an HHA that does not submit the required quality data is updated by the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 0.7 percent (2.7 percent minus 2 percentage points) and is shown in table 22.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="148">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88425"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.051</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. CY 2025 National Per-Visit Rates for 30-Day Periods of Care</HD>
                    <P>The national per-visit rates are used to pay LUPAs and are also used to compute imputed costs in outlier calculations. The per-visit rates are paid by type of visit or home health discipline. The six home health disciplines are as follows:</P>
                    <P>• Home health aide (HH aide).</P>
                    <P>• Medical Social Services (MSS).</P>
                    <P>• Occupational therapy (OT).</P>
                    <P>• Physical therapy (PT).</P>
                    <P>• Skilled nursing (SN).</P>
                    <P>• Speech-language pathology (SLP).</P>
                    <P>To calculate the final CY 2025 national per-visit rates, we started with the CY 2024 national per-visit rates. Then we applied a wage index budget neutrality factor to ensure budget neutrality for LUPA per-visit payments. We calculated the wage index budget neutrality factor by simulating total payments for LUPA 30-day periods of care using the CY 2025 wage index with the new delineations and the 5-percent cap on wage index decreases and comparing it to simulated total payments for LUPA 30-day periods of care using the CY 2024 wage index with the old delineations and the 5-percent cap. By dividing the total payments for LUPA 30-day periods of care using the CY 2025 wage index by the total payments for LUPA 30-day periods of care using the CY 2024 wage index, we obtained a wage index budget neutrality factor of 0.9989. As a reminder, the wage index budget neutrality factors for the national, standardized 30-day period amount and the national LUPA per-visit rates are not equal because they are calculated differently. The wage index budget neutrality factor for the LUPA per-visit payments is calculated by simulating total payments for LUPA 30-day periods while the 30-day period budget neutrality factor is calculated by simulating payments for non- LUPA 30-day periods.</P>
                    <P>The LUPA per-visit rates are not calculated using case-mix weights. Therefore, no case-mix weight budget neutrality factor is needed to ensure budget neutrality for LUPA payments. Additionally, we are not applying the permanent adjustment to the per visit payment rates but only to the case-mix adjusted 30-day payment rate. Lastly, the per-visit rates for each discipline are updated by the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent. The national per-visit rates are adjusted by the wage index based on the site of service of the beneficiary. The per-visit payments for LUPAs are separate from the LUPA add-on payment amount, which is paid for periods that occur as the only period or initial period in a sequence of adjacent periods. The CY 2025 national per-visit rates for HHAs that submit the required quality data are updated by the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent and are shown in table 23.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="191">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.052</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The CY 2025 per-visit payment rates for HHAs that do not submit the required quality data are updated by the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent minus 2 percentage points and are shown in table 24.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="210">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88426"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.053</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We did not receive any comments on the CY 2025 30-day home health payment rates or the per-visit payment rates.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the updates to the CY 2025 national, standardized 30-day period payment rates and the CY 2025 national per-visit payment amounts as proposed, using the updated market basket amount.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. LUPA Add-On Factors</HD>
                    <P>As outlined in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, prior to the implementation of the 30-day unit of payment, LUPA episodes were eligible for a LUPA add-on payment if the episode of care was the first or only episode in a sequence of adjacent episodes. As described in the CY 2008 HH PPS final rule, the average visit lengths in these initial LUPAs are 16 to 18 percent higher than the average visit lengths in initial non-LUPA episodes (72 FR 49848). LUPA episodes that occur as the only episode or as an initial episode in a sequence of adjacent episodes are adjusted by applying an additional amount to the LUPA payment before adjusting for area wage differences.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2014 HH PPS final rule (78 FR 72305), we changed the methodology for calculating the LUPA add-on amount, whereby we finalized the approach of multiplying the per-visit payment amount for the first skilled nursing (SN), physical therapy (PT), or speech language pathology (SLP) visit in LUPA episodes that occur as the only episode or an initial episode in a sequence of adjacent episodes by 1 + the proportional increase in minutes for an initial visit over non-initial visits. Specifically, we updated the analysis using 100 percent of LUPA episodes and a 20 percent sample of non-LUPA first episodes from CY 2012 claims data. At that time, we finalized add on factors: 1.8451 for SN; 1.6700 for PT; and 1.6266 for SLP. In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56440), in addition to finalizing a 30-day unit of payment, we finalized our policy of continuing to multiply the per-visit payment amount for the first SN, PT, or SLP visit in LUPA periods that occur as the only period of care or the initial 30-day period of care in a sequence of adjacent 30-day periods of care by the appropriate add-on factor (using the already established LUPA add-on factors of 1.8451 for SN, 1.6700 for PT, and 1.6266 for SLP) to determine the LUPA add-on payment amount for 30-day periods of care under the PDGM.</P>
                    <P>In an effort to enhance the accuracy and relevance of LUPA add-on factors to reflect current healthcare practices and costs, we proposed updates to the LUPA add-on factors for PT, SN, and SLP, which have not been revised since the CY 2014 HH PPS final rule, during which CY 2012 data was used. We proposed to use the same methodology (as specified in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule) used to establish the LUPA add-on amount for CY 2014, using updated claims data.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, we proposed to update the LUPA add-on factors by using 100 percent of LUPA periods and a 100 percent sample of non-LUPA first periods from CY 2023 claims data. In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55377), using the CY 2023 data available at that time, the proposed updates to the factors were 1.7227 for SN; 1.6247 for PT; and 1.6703 for SLP. We stated that the proposed LUPA add-on factors will be updated based on more complete CY 2023 claims data in the final rule. The updated analysis (as of September 11, 2024) demonstrates that the average excess of minutes for the first visit in LUPA periods that were the only period or an initial LUPA in a sequence of adjacent periods are 29.91 minutes for the first visit if SN, 28.08 minutes for the first visit if PT, and 31.57 minutes for the first visit if SLP. The average minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA episodes are 41.54 minutes for SN, 45.11 minutes for PT, and 47.15 minutes for SLP. To determine the LUPA add-on factors for each discipline in relation to the final LUPA add-on factor updates, we calculate the ratio of the average excess minutes for the first visits in LUPA claims to the average minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA claims. We then add one to these ratios to obtain the final add on factors: 1.7200 for SN; 1.6225 for PT; and 1.6696 for SLP. We solicited comments on the proposals to update the LUPA factors using the CY 2014 methodology and the re-priced LUPA payment amounts. A summary of these comments and our responses are as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         All commenters expressed support for updates to the LUPA add-on factors for skilled nursing, physical therapy and speech language pathology using CY 2023 utilization data using the CY 2014 HH PPS methodology. Specifically, commenters expressed appreciation that CMS still recognizes LUPA per visit payments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed support for CMS' efforts to adjust the LUPA add-on factor but noted that the adjustments remain minimal and are not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88427"/>
                        adequately aligned with inflationary trends.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenter for their comment. The LUPA add-on factors were adjusted in a budget neutral manner, as statutorily required in section 1895(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act, so that aggregate payments do not increase or decrease.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the proposal to update the SN, PT, and SLP LUPA add-on factors. The final LUPA add-on factors are 1.7200 for skilled nursing, 1.6225 for physical therapy, and 1.6696 for speech-language pathology.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Occupational Therapy LUPA Add-On Factor</HD>
                    <P>As outlined in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, in order to implement Division CC, section 115, of the Consolidation Appropriations Act (CAA), 2021, CMS finalized changes to the regulations at §  484.55(a)(2) and (b)(3) that allowed occupational therapists to conduct initial and comprehensive assessments for all Medicare beneficiaries under the home health benefit when the plan of care does not initially include skilled nursing care, but included OT, as well as either PT or SLP (86 FR 62351). This change necessitated the establishment of a LUPA add-on factor for calculating the LUPA add-on payment amount for the first skilled OT visit in LUPA periods that occurs as the only period of care or the initial 30-day period of care in a sequence of adjacent 30-day periods of care. However, at the time of the implementation, as we stated in the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule (86 FR 62289), there was not sufficient data regarding the average excess of minutes for the first visit in LUPA periods when the initial and comprehensive assessments are conducted by occupational therapists. Therefore, we finalized a policy using the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy. We also stated in the CY 2022 final rule that we will use the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy until we have CY 2022 data to establish a more accurate OT add-on factor for the LUPA add-on payment amounts (86 FR 62289). Ultimately, we refrained from using CY 2022 data (and instead utilized the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy for the OT LUPA add-on factor), as we marked the first year that occupational therapists were permitted to conduct the initial assessment. Therefore, we wanted to extend our analysis to ensure we had sufficient data to reflect OT time spent conducting initial assessments to establish a discrete OT LUPA add-on factor (86 FR 62240). Accordingly, we continued analyzing claims data and have opted to utilize CY 2023 data to make the proposal.</P>
                    <P>With sufficient recent claims data available, and to establish equitable compensation for all home health services, CMS proposed to establish a definitive OT-specific LUPA add-on factor and discontinue the temporary use of the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy. For the proposal, we used the same methodology used to establish the LUPA add-on amount for CY 2014, as also described previously for the SN, PT and SLP add-on factors. Specifically, we updated the analysis using 100 percent of LUPA periods and a 100 percent sample of non-LUPA first periods from CY 2023 claims data. The originally proposed analysis showed that the average excess of minutes for the first OT visit in LUPA periods that were the only period or an initial LUPA in a sequence of adjacent periods as 33.40 minutes for the first visit and the average number of minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA periods as 45.97 minutes for OT. However, the proposal was made using the most current and complete data available at the time of rulemaking. We stated that we believe that LUPA add-on factors will be updated based on more complete CY 2023 claims data in the final rule. In doing so, the updated analysis (as of September 11, 2024) shows that the average excess of minutes for the first OT visit in LUPA periods that were the only period or an initial LUPA in a sequence of adjacent periods is 33.28 minutes for the first visit. The average number of minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA periods is 45.98 minutes for OT.</P>
                    <P>To determine the LUPA add-on factors for OT to adequately adjust LUPA payments to account for the excess minutes during the first visit in a LUPA period, we proposed to calculate the ratio of the average excess minutes for the first visits in LUPA claims to the average minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA claims. We proposed to then add one to this ratio to obtain the proposed add on factor: 1.7238 for OT.</P>
                    <P>The following table 25 shows, for all disciplines, the average excess minutes for the first visit in LUPA periods, the average minutes for all non-first visits in non-LUPA episodes, as well as the current LUPA add-on factors, the final LUPA add-on factors (using updated CY 2023 claims data), and the percent change between the current and the final LUPA add-on factors.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="126">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.054</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We solicited comments on the proposed establishment of a definitive OT LUPA add-on factor, use of CY 2023 data to determine the OT LUPA add-on factor, as well as the proposed methodology to determine this OT LUPA add-on factor. A summary of these comments and our responses are as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         All commenters expressed support for establishment of the definitive LUPA add-on factor for occupational therapy using CY 2023 utilization data and the CY 2014 HH PPS methodology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed appreciation for CMS' recognition of the unique needs of OT services through the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88428"/>
                        establishment of a distinct OT LUPA add-on factor. However, they voiced concern that the current add-on factor does not fully address the challenges faced by occupational therapists, particularly in light of payment rate reductions. As such, the commenter recommended that CMS continuously evaluate and adjust the OT add-on factor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenter for their comment. However, the payment rate adjustment was made to the 30-day base payment rate and the OT LUPA add-on factor was established in a budget neutral manner, as statutorily required in section 1895(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act. We will update the LUPA add-on factors as necessary in accordance with applicable regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters raised concerns regarding proposed payment rate reductions specific to occupational therapy services, specifically stating that proposed payment cuts to occupational therapy could significantly reduce access to essential occupational therapy services for Medicare beneficiaries receiving care at home.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters' concern. It appears that many commenters conflated the OT LUPA add-on factor proposal with the proposed permanent adjustment to the national, standardized 30-day payment rate. To clarify, in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule (89 FR 55377) we did not propose any OT-specific payment rate cuts. In fact, with the proposal to establish a definitive OT LUPA add-on factor and discontinue the use of the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy, the add-on factor for OT services has increased by 3.2 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the proposal to discontinue use of the PT LUPA add-on factor as a proxy and establish the definitive LUPA add-on factor for occupational therapy to be used in calculating the LUPA add-on payment amounts. The OT LUPA factor is 1.7238 when occupational therapy is the first skilled visit in a LUPA period that occurs as the only period or an initial period in a sequence of adjacent periods.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Payments for High-Cost Outliers Under the HH PPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Background</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(5) of the Act allows for the provision of an addition or adjustment to the home health payment amount otherwise made in the case of outliers because of unusual variations in the type or amount of medically necessary care. Under the HH PPS and the previous unit of payment (that is, 60-day episodes), outlier payments were made for 60-day episodes whose estimated costs exceed a threshold amount for each HHRG. The episode's estimated cost was established as the sum of the national wage-adjusted per visit payment amounts delivered during the episode. The outlier threshold for each case-mix group or PEP adjustment defined as the 60-day episode payment or PEP adjustment for that group plus a fixed-dollar loss (FDL) amount. For the purposes of the HH PPS, the FDL amount is calculated by multiplying the home health FDL ratio by a case's wage-adjusted national, standardized 60-day episode payment rate, which yields an FDL dollar amount for the case. The outlier threshold amount is the sum of the wage and case-mix adjusted PPS episode amount and wage-adjusted FDL amount. The outlier payment is defined to be a proportion of the wage-adjusted estimated cost that surpasses the wage-adjusted threshold. The proportion of additional costs over the outlier threshold amount paid as outlier payments is referred to as the loss-sharing ratio.</P>
                    <P>As we noted in the CY 2011 HH PPS final rule (75 FR 70397 through 70399), section 3131(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act amended section 1895(b)(3)(C) of the Act to require that the Secretary reduce the HH PPS payment rates such that aggregate HH PPS payments were reduced by 5 percent. In addition, section 3131(b)(2) of the Affordable Care Act amended section 1895(b)(5) of the Act by redesignating the existing language as section 1895(b)(5)(A) of the Act and revised the language to state that the total amount of the additional payments or payment adjustments for outlier episodes could not exceed 2.5 percent of the estimated total HH PPS payments for that year. Section 3131(b)(2)(C) of the Affordable Care Act also added section 1895(b)(5)(B) of the Act, which capped outlier payments as a percent of total payments for each HHA for each year at 10 percent.</P>
                    <P>As such, beginning in CY 2011, we reduced payment rates by 5 percent and targeted up to 2.5 percent of total estimated HH PPS payments to be paid as outliers. To do so, we first returned the 2.5 percent held for the target CY 2010 outlier pool to the national, standardized 60-day episode rates, the national per visit rates, the LUPA add-on payment amount, and the NRS conversion factor for CY 2010. We then reduced the rates by 5 percent as required by section 1895(b)(3)(C) of the Act, as amended by section 3131(b)(1) of the Affordable Care Act. For CY 2011 and subsequent calendar years we targeted up to 2.5 percent of estimated total payments to be paid as outlier payments, and apply a 10-percent agency-level outlier cap.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2017 HH PPS proposed and final rules (81 FR 43737 through 43742 and 81 FR 76702), we described our concerns regarding patterns observed in home health outlier episodes. Specifically, we noted the methodology for calculating home health outlier payments may have created a financial incentive for providers to increase the number of visits during an episode of care in order to surpass the outlier threshold; and simultaneously created a disincentive for providers to treat medically complex beneficiaries who require fewer but longer visits. Given these concerns, in the CY 2017 HH PPS final rule (81 FR 76702), we finalized changes to the methodology used to calculate outlier payments, using a cost-per-unit approach rather than a cost-per-visit approach. This change in methodology allows for more accurate payment for outlier episodes, accounting for both the number of visits during an episode of care and the length of the visits provided. Using this approach, we now convert the national per-visit rates into per 15-minute unit rates. These per 15-minute unit rates are used to calculate the estimated cost of an episode to determine whether the claim will receive an outlier payment and the amount of payment for an episode of care. In conjunction with our finalized policy to change to a cost-per-unit approach to estimate episode costs and determine whether an outlier episode should receive outlier payments, in the CY 2017 HH PPS final rule we also finalized the implementation of a cap on the amount of time per day that will be counted toward the estimation of an episode's costs for outlier calculation purposes (81 FR 76725). Specifically, we limit the amount of time per day (summed across the six disciplines of care) to 8 hours (32 units) per day when estimating the cost of an episode for outlier calculation purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the CY 2017 HH PPS final rule (81 FR 76724), we stated that we did not plan to re-estimate the average minutes per visit by discipline every year. Additionally, the per unit rates used to estimate an episode's cost were updated by the home health update percentage each year, meaning we will start with the national per visit amounts for the same calendar year when calculating the cost-per-unit used to determine the cost of an episode of care (81 FR 76727). We will continue to monitor the visit length by discipline as more recent data 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88429"/>
                        becomes available and may propose to update the rates as needed in the future.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56521), we finalized a policy to maintain the current methodology for payment of high-cost outliers upon implementation of PDGM beginning in CY 2020 and calculated payment for high-cost outliers based upon 30-day period of care. Upon implementation of the PDGM and 30-day unit of payment, we finalized the FDL ratio of 0.56 for 30-day periods of care in CY 2020. Given that CY 2020 was the first year of the PDGM and the change to a 30-day unit of payment, we finalized maintaining the same FDL ratio of 0.56 in CY 2021 as we did not have sufficient CY 2020 data at the time of CY 2021 rulemaking to propose a change to the FDL ratio for CY 2021. In the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule with comment period (86 FR 62292), we estimated that outlier payments will be approximately 1.8 percent of total HH PPS final rule payments if we maintained an FDL of 0.56 in CY 2022. Therefore, in order to pay up to, but no more than, 2.5 percent of total payments as outlier payments we finalized an FDL of 0.40 for CY 2022. In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule (87 FR 66875), using CY 2021 claims utilization data, we finalized an FDL of 0.35 in order to pay up to, but no more than, 2.5 percent of the total payment as outlier payments in CY 2023. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77749), using CY 2022 claims utilization data, we finalized an FDL of 0.27 for CY 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) FDL Ratio for CY 2025</HD>
                    <P>For a given level of outlier payments, there is a trade-off between the values selected for the FDL ratio and the loss-sharing ratio. A high FDL ratio reduces the number of periods that can receive outlier payments but makes it possible to select a higher loss-sharing ratio, and therefore, increase outlier payments for qualifying outlier periods. Alternatively, a lower FDL ratio means that more periods can qualify for outlier payments, but outlier payments per period must be lower.</P>
                    <P>The FDL ratio and the loss-sharing ratio are selected so that the estimated total outlier payments do not exceed the 2.5 percent aggregate level (as required by section 1895(b)(5)(A) of the Act). Historically, we have used a value of 0.80 for the loss-sharing ratio, which, we believe, preserves incentives for agencies to attempt to provide care efficiently for outlier cases. With a loss-sharing ratio of 0.80, Medicare pays 80 percent of the additional estimated costs that exceed the outlier threshold amount. Using CY 2023 claims data (as of March 19, 2024) and given the statutory requirement that total outlier payments do not exceed 2.5 percent of the total payments estimated to be made under the HH PPS, we proposed an FDL ratio of 0.38 for CY 2025 which is higher than the finalized CY 2024 FDL of 0.27. We stated that we would update the FDL, if needed, in the final rule once we have more complete CY 2023 claims data. Therefore, using updated CY 2023 claims data as of (July 11, 2024) the final FDL ratio for CY 2025 is 0.35.</P>
                    <P>A summary of the comments we received on the proposed FDL ratio appears as follows.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter opposed the estimated 0.6 percent decrease to home health payments which is the result of increasing the fixed-dollar loss ratio for outlier payments in CY 2025. The commenter stated that that the 0.6 percent decrease should be eliminated as there is not adequate data to surmise that the cut is justified.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenter for their comment. However, we disagree with the claim that there is not adequate data to justify the 0.6 percent decrease. We are statutorily required to ensure that total outlier payments do not exceed the 2.5 percent aggregate level (as required by section 1895(b)(5)(A) of the Act). In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56521), we finalized a policy to maintain the current methodology for payment of high-cost outliers upon implementation of the PDGM beginning in CY 2020 and calculated payment for high-cost outliers based upon 30-day periods of care. We have used the most recent claims data to calculate the FDL ratio since that time. In the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we stated that we would use the most recent claims data available which is CY 2023 claims data. Using CY 2023 claims data, we found that the FDL ratio would need to be increased from the final CY 2024 FDL of 0.27 to the proposed CY 2025 ratio of 0.38. A higher FDL ratio reduces the number of periods that can receive outlier payments, and as a result there is a slight decrease to total payments. Based on more complete CY 2023 claims data as of (July 11, 2024) the final CY 2025 FDL ratio has been adjusted to 0.35 which results in a 0.4 percent decrease in total payments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the CY 2025 FDL ratio of 0.35, using updated CY 2023 claims data as of July 11, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Annual Rate Update for Disposable Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (dNPWT) Device</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background</HD>
                    <P>Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) is a medical procedure in which a vacuum dressing is used to enhance and promote healing in acute, chronic, and burn wounds. The therapy involves using a sealed wound dressing attached to a pump to create a negative pressure environment in the wound. The therapy can be administered using the conventional NPWT system, classified as durable medical equipment (DME), or can be administered using a disposable device. A disposable NPWT (dNPWT) device is a single-use integrated system that consists of a non-manual vacuum pump, a receptacle for collecting exudate, and wound dressings. Unlike conventional NPWT systems classified as DME, dNPWT devices have preset continuous negative pressure, no intermittent setting, are pocket-sized and easily transportable, and are generally battery-operated with disposable batteries. In order for a beneficiary to receive dNPWT under the home health benefit, the beneficiary must qualify for the home health benefit in accordance with existing eligibility requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Payment Policies for dNPWT Devices</HD>
                    <P>Prior to CY 2024, the separate payment amount for dNPWT included the furnishing of services as well as the dNPWT device. The separate payment amount was set equal to the amount of the payment that will be made under the Medicare Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) using the CPT codes 97607 and 97608. Payment for visits where the sole purpose of a home health visit was to furnish dNPWT was not made under the HH PPS. Therefore, visits performed solely for the purpose of furnishing a new dNPWT device were not reported on the HH PPS claim (type of bill (TOB) 32x), instead HHAs submitted these claims on a TOB 34x. However, if a home health visit included the provision of other home health services in addition to, and separate from, furnishing dNPWT, the HHA submitted both a TOB 32x and TOB 34x—the TOB 32x for other home health services and the TOB 34x for furnishing NPWT using a disposable device.</P>
                    <P>
                        Beginning in CY 2024, Division FF, section 4136 of the CAA, 2023 (Pub. L. 117-328) amended section 1834 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 1395m(s)) and mandated several amendments to the Medicare separate payment for dNPWT. These changes included—
                        <PRTPAGE P="88430"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• For CY 2024, the separate payment amount for an applicable dNPWT device was set equal to the supply price used to determine the relative value for the service under the Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) under section 1848 as of January 1, 2022 (CY 2022), updated by the percent increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending with June of the preceding year reduced by m the productivity adjustment described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act for such year;</P>
                    <P>• For 2025 and each subsequent year, the separate payment amount was to be set equal to the payment amount established for the device in the previous year, updated by the percent increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending with June of the preceding year reduced by the productivity adjustment described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) for such year.</P>
                    <P>• The separate payment amount for applicable devices furnished on or after January 1, 2024, will no longer include payment for nursing or therapy services described in section 1861(m) of the Act so that payment for such nursing or therapy services are now made under the HH PPS, and is no longer separately billable.</P>
                    <P>• Claims for the separate payment amount of an applicable dNPWT device are now accepted and processed on claims submitted using the type of bill (TOB) 32X.</P>
                    <P>In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77676), we finalized our proposal to codify these changes to dNPWT payments mandated by the CAA, 2023. Beginning January 1, 2024, the separate payment for a dNPWT device is made to an HHA for an individual who is under a home health plan of care using Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code A9272. The code HCPCS A9272 is defined as a wound suction, disposable, includes dressing, all accessories and components, any type, each. The HHA reports the HCPCS code A9272 for the device only on the home health TOB 32X. The services related to the application of the device are included in the home health payment and are excluded from the separate payment amount for the device. The CY 2024 single payment amount for a dNPWT device for individuals under a home health plan of care was set equal to $270.09, which equaled the supply price of an applicable device under the Medicare PFS (as of January 1, 2022) of $263.25 updated by the 2.6 percent increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending in June of 2023, minus the productivity adjustment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. CY 2025 Separate Payment Amount for a dNPWT Device</HD>
                    <P>For CY 2025, we proposed that the separate payment amount for a dNPWT device would be set equal to the CY 2024 payment amount of $270.09 updated by the CPI-U for June 2024, minus the productivity adjustment, as mandated by the CAA, 2023. The application of the productivity adjustment may result in a net update that may be less than 0.0 for a year and may result in the separate payment amount for an applicable device for a year being less than such separate payment amount for such device for the preceding year. We noted that the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending in June of 2024 was not available at the time of the proposed rulemaking and stated that the CY 2025 payment amount, as well as the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending in June of 2024, and the corresponding productivity adjustment would be updated in the final rule.</P>
                    <P>For this final rule, the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending in June of 2024 is 3.0 percent and the corresponding productivity adjustment is 0.6 percent based on IHS Global Inc.'s third-quarter 2024 forecast of the CY 2025 productivity adjustment (which reflects the 10-year moving average of changes in annual economy-wide private nonfarm business TFP for the period ending June 30, 2024) Therefore, the final update percentage will be 2.4 percent (3.0 percent reduced by 0.6 percentage point). The final CY 2025 separate payment amount for a dNPWT device will be $276.57, which reflects the CY 2024 payment amount of $270.09 updated by the final update percentage of 2.4 percent.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="96">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.055</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The following is a summary of the public comments and our responses regarding the payment update for the dNPWT device.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended that stakeholders be given the opportunity to comment on the final payment amount for dNPWT in the event there is an issue in the calculation of the rate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenter for their recommendation. However, we stated in the proposed rule that the CPI-U and productivity adjustment were not available in time for the publication of the proposed rule and the rate would be published in the final rule. Although the final rate was not available at the time of the proposed rule, in the CY 2025 HH PPS final rule (89 FR 77751), we finalized the policy of setting the separate payment of a dNPWT device equal to the payment amount established for the device in the previous year, updated by the percentage increase in the CPI-U reduced by the productivity adjustment for the 12-month period ending in June of the previous year. The CY 2025 final rule simply updates the dNPWT device separate payment amount using this finalized policy. As such, we believe there was adequate opportunity for commenters to provide feedback on the calculation of the final CY 2025 rate. If we are alerted to an issue in the calculation of this final rate after publication of this final rule, we would issue a correction notice if necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that while they recognize that changes to the dNPWT device separate payment amount were required by statute, they believe that the payment approach for dNPWT devices is confusing and adds another level of burden for HHAs. This commenter recommended that dNPWT be removed from the HH PPS payment structure entirely and be independently paid through the durable medical equipment (DME) benefit. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88431"/>
                        commenter suggested that making this change would help ensure that Medicare beneficiaries receive appropriate wound care, and providers receive fair and equitable payment for supplies and related services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenter's recommendation. However, this comment is outside the scope of the proposed rule. We are statutorily required to process claims for the separate payment amount of an applicable dNPWT device on claims submitted using the type of bill (TOB) 32X, and the payment rate for dNPWT under the home health benefit is described in statute. Furthermore, dNPWT devices are disposable, thus would not be eligible for payment under the DME benefit. Therefore, the separate payment amount for dNPWT devices will continue to be reported on the home health TOB 32X using HCPCS code A9272 (for the device only). As a reminder, the services related to the application of the device are included in the home health payment and are excluded from the separate payment amount for the device.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing the CY 2025 separate payment amount for the dNPWT device under a home health plan of care of $276.57, which is equal to CY 2024 rate of $270.09 updated by the final update percentage of 2.4 percent. For CY 2026 and subsequent years, if CMS does not intend to propose changes to its established methodology for calculating dNPWT payments, payment rates will be updated using CMS's established methodology via the Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update Change Request and posted on the HHA Center website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/enrollment-renewal/providers-suppliers/home-health-agency-center.</E>
                         For more in-depth information regarding the finalized policies associated with the scope of the payment for dNPWT and conditions for payment, we refer readers to the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77749 through 77752).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Home Health Quality Reporting Program (HH QRP)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background and Statutory Authority</HD>
                    <P>The HH QRP is authorized by section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act. Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v)(II) of the Act requires that, for 2007 and subsequent years, each home health agency (HHA) submit to the Secretary in a form and manner, and at a time, specified by the Secretary, such data that the Secretary determines are appropriate for the measurement of health care quality. To the extent that an HHA does not submit data in accordance with this clause, the Secretary shall reduce the home health market basket percentage increase applicable to the HHA for such year by 2 percentage points. As provided at section 1895(b)(3)(B)(vi) of the Act, depending on the market basket percentage increase applicable for a particular year, as further reduced by the productivity adjustment (except in 2018 and 2020) described in section 1886(b)(3)(B)(xi)(II) of the Act, the reduction of that increase by 2 percentage points for failure to comply with the requirements of the HH QRP may result in the home health market basket percentage increase being less than 0.0 percent for a year, and may result in payment rates under the Home Health PPS for a year being less than payment rates for the preceding year. Section 1890A of the Act requires that the Secretary establish and follow a pre-rulemaking process, in coordination with the consensus-based entity (CBE) with a contract under section 1890 of the Act, to solicit input from certain groups regarding the selection of quality and efficiency measures for the HH QRP. The HH QRP regulations can be found at 42 CFR 484.245 and 484.250.</P>
                    <P>Based on feedback from patients and stakeholders, CMS has launched an effort to update and shorten the Home Health Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HHCAHPS) survey. In 2022, CMS tested a shortened survey across a variety of different types of HHAs. We reviewed the findings of the field test and plan to finalize in the future updates to the survey with the intent to shorten it. Potential updated HHCAHPS measures have been submitted through the Pre-rulemaking Review Process. </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Provision of this Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>In this final rule, we are finalizing the proposal to add four new assessment items and modify one assessment item on the OASIS. Second, we are finalizing an update to the removal of the suspension of OASIS all-payer data collection. Third, we sought information on future HH QRP quality measure concepts. These proposals are further specified in the following sections.</P>
                    <P>For a detailed discussion of the considerations, we historically use for measure selection for the HH QRP quality, resource use, and other measures, we refer readers to the CY 2016 HH PPS final rule (80 FR 68695 through 68696). In the CY 2019 HH PPS final rule with comment period (83 FR 56548 through 56550), we finalized the factors we consider for removing previously adopted HH QRP measures.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Quality Measures Currently Adopted for the CY 2024 HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>The HH QRP currently includes 19 measures for the CY 2024 program year, as described in table 26.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88432"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.056</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88433"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Proposal To Collect Four New Items as Standardized Patient Assessment Data Elements and Modify One Item Collected as a Standardized Patient Assessment Data Element Beginning With the CY 2027 HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>
                        In this final rule, we have added four new items 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to be collected as standardized patient assessment data elements under the social determinants of health (SDOH) category HH QRP: Living Situation (one item); Food (two items); and Utilities (one item). We modified the current “Transportation” item collected as standardized patient assessment data under the SDOH category as described in section III.D.5. of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             Items may also be referred to as “data elements.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Definition of Standardized Patient Assessment Data</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act requires that for CY 2007 and subsequent years, HHAs submit quality data to the Secretary. Section 1899B(a)(1)(C) of the Act requires, in part, the Secretary to modify the post-acute care (PAC) assessment instruments for PAC providers, including HHAs, to submit standardized patient assessment data under the Medicare program. Section 1899B(b)(1)(A) of the Act requires PAC providers to submit standardized patient assessment data under applicable reporting provisions (which, for HHAs, is the HH QRP) for the admission (start and resumption of care) and discharge of an individual (and more frequently as the Secretary deems appropriate). Section 1899B(b)(1)(B) of the Act defines standardized patient assessment data as data required for at least the quality measures described in section 1899B(c)(1) of the Act and that is concerning the following categories: (i) functional status, such as mobility and self-care at admission to a PAC provider and before discharge from a PAC provider; (ii) cognitive function, such as ability to express ideas and to understand, and mental status, such as depression and dementia; (iii) special services, treatments, and interventions, such as need for ventilator use, dialysis, chemotherapy, central line placement, and total parenteral nutrition; (iv) medical conditions and comorbidities, such as diabetes, congestive heart failure, and pressure ulcers; (v) impairments, such as incontinence and an impaired ability to hear, see, or swallow; and (vi) other categories deemed necessary and appropriate by the Secretary.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Social Determinants of Health (SDOH) Collected as Standardized Patient Assessment Data Elements</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1899B(b)(1)(B)(vi) of the Act authorizes the Secretary to collect standardized patient assessment data elements with respect to other categories deemed necessary and appropriate. Accordingly, we finalized the creation of the SDOH category of standardized patient assessment data elements in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule (84 FR 60597 through 60608). SDOH are the socioeconomic, cultural, and environmental circumstances in which individuals live that impact their health.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the World Health Organization research shows that the SDOH can be more important than health care or lifestyle choices in influencing health, accounting for between 30-55% of health outcomes.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is a part of a growing body of research that highlights the importance of SDOH on health outcomes. Subsequent to the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule, we expanded our definition of SDOH: SDOH are the conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.
                        <E T="51">15 16 17</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This expanded definition aligns our definition of SDOH with the definition used by other HHS agencies, including Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health (OASH), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the White House Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP).
                        <E T="51">18 19</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We currently collect seven items in this SDOH category of standardized patient assessment data elements: ethnicity, race, preferred language, interpreter services, health literacy, transportation, and social isolation.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In accordance with our authority under section 1899B(b)(1)(B)(vi) of the Act, we similarly finalized the creation of the SDOH category of standardized patient assessment data elements for skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) in the FY 2020 SNF PPS final rule (84 FR 38805 through 38817), for Inpatient Rehabilitation Facilities (IRFs) in the FY 2020 IRF PPS final rule (84 FR 39149 through 39161), and for Long Term Acute Hospitals (LTCHs) in the FY 2020 LTCH PPS final rule (84 FR 42577 through 42579). We also collect the same seven SDOH items in these PAC providers' respective patient/resident assessment instruments (84 FR 38817, 39161, and 42577, respectively).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE). Second Report to Congress on Social Risk and Medicare's Value-Based Purchasing Programs. June 28, 2020. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/reports/second-report-congress-social-risk-medicares-value-based-purchasing-programs.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             World health Organization. Social determinants of health. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.who.inte/health-topics/social-determinants-of-health#tab=tab_1.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             Using Z Codes: The Social Determinants of Health (SDOH). Data Journey to Better Outcomes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Improving the Collection of Social Determinants of Health (SDOH) Data with ICD-10-CM Z Codes. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/cms-2023-omh-z-code-resource.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             CMS.gov Measures Management System (MMS). CMS Focus on Health Equity. Health Equity Terminology and Quality Measures. 
                            <E T="03">https://mmshub-impl.cms.gov/about-quality/quality-at-CMS/goals/cms-focus-on-health-equity/health-equity-terminology.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Social Determinants of Health (SDOH) and PLACES Data.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             “U.S. Playbook to Address Social Determinants of Health” from the White House Office of Science and Technology Policy (November 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             These SDOH data are also collected for purposes outlined in section 2(d)(2)(B) of the Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transitions Act (IMPACT Act). For a detailed discussion on SDOH data collection under section 2(d)(2)(B) of the IMPACT Act, see the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule (84 FR 60597 through 60608).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Adding access to standardized data relating to SDOH on a national level permits us to conduct periodic analyses, and to assess their appropriateness as risk adjustors or in future quality measures. Our ability to perform these analyses and to make adjustments relies on existing data collection of SDOH items from PAC settings. We adopted these SDOH items using common standards and definitions across the four PAC providers to promote interoperable exchange of longitudinal information among these PAC providers, including HHAs, and other providers. We believe this information may facilitate coordinated care, improve patient focused care planning, and allow for continuity of the discharge planning process from PAC settings.</P>
                    <P>
                        We noted in our CY 2020 HH PPS final rule that each of the items was identified in the 2016 National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NASEM) report as impacting care use, cost, and outcomes for Medicare beneficiaries (84 FR 60598 through 60602). At that time, we acknowledged that other items may also be useful to understand. The SDOH items we proposed to be collected as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category in this rule were also identified in the 2016 NASEM report 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or the 2020 NASEM 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88434"/>
                        report 
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as impacting care use, cost and outcomes for Medicare beneficiaries. These items have the potential to affect treatment preferences and goals of patients and their caregivers. Identification of the SDOH items may also help HHAs be able to offer assistance, by connecting patients and their caregivers with these associated needs to social support programs, as well as inform our understanding of patient complexity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             Social Determinants of Health. Healthy People 2020. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/healthy_people/hp2020.htmFebruary</E>
                             2019.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine. 2020. Leading Health Indicators 2030: Advancing Health, Equity, and Well-Being. Washington, DC: The National Academies Press. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.17226/25682.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Health-related social needs (HRSNs) are the resulting effects of SDOH, which are individual-level, adverse social conditions that negatively impact a person's health or health care.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Examples of HRSN include lack of access to food, housing, or transportation, and these have been associated with poorer health outcomes, greater use of emergency departments and hospitals, and higher health care costs.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Certain HRSNs can lead to unmet social needs that directly influence an individual's physical, psychosocial, and functional status.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is particularly true for food security, housing stability, utilities security, and access to transportation.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Evidence supports the positive impact on health outcomes of interventions aimed at addressing HRSNs.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services. “A Guide to Using the Accountable Health Communities Health-Related Social Needs Screening Tool: Promising Practices and Key Insights.” August 2022. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/priorities/innovation/media/document/ahcm-screeningtool-companion.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             Berkowitz, S.A., T.P. Baggett, and S.T. Edwards, “Addressing Health-Related Social Needs: Value-Based Care or Values-Based Care?” Journal of General Internal Medicine, vol. 34, no. 9, 2019, pp. 1916-1918, 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1007/s11606-019-05087-3.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             Whitman A, De Lew N, Chappel A, Aysola V, Zuckerman R, &amp; Sommers B D. Addressing social determinants of health: Examples of successful evidence-based strategies and current federal efforts. ASPE (Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation) Office of Health Policy. Report HP-2022-12 April 1, 2022. SDOH-Evidence-Review.pdf (
                            <E T="03">hhs.gov</E>
                            ). Accessed 3/1/2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             Hugh Alderwick and Laura M. Gottlieb, “Meanings and Misunderstandings: A Social Determinants of Health Lexicon for Health Care Systems: Milbank Quarterly,” Milbank Memorial Fund, November 18, 2019, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.milbank.org/quarterly/articles/meanings-and-misunderstandings-a-social-determinants-of-health-lexicon-for-health-care-systems/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             Hugh Alderwick and Laura M. Gottlieb, “Meanings and Misunderstandings: A Social Determinants of Health Lexicon for Health Care Systems: Milbank Quarterly,” Milbank Memorial Fund, November 18, 2019, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.milbank.org/quarterly/articles/meanings-and-misunderstandings-a-social-determinants-of-health-lexicon-for-health-care-systems/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Whitman A, De Lew N, Chappel A, Aysola V, Zuckerman R, &amp; Sommers B D. Addressing social determinants of health: Examples of successful evidence-based strategies and current federal efforts. ASPE (Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation) Office of Health Policy. Report HP-2022-12 April 1, 2022. SDOH-Evidence-Review.pdf (hhs.gov). Accessed 5/29/2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We proposed to require HHAs collect and submit four new items in the OASIS as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category because these items will collect information not already captured by the current SDOH items. Specifically, we believe the ongoing identification of SDOH will have three significant benefits. First, promoting SDOH screening could serve as evidence-based building blocks for supporting healthcare providers in actualizing their commitment to address disparities that disproportionately impact underserved communities. Second, SDOH screening advances health equity through identifying potential social needs so that an HHA may address those with the patient, their caregivers, and community partners during the home health episode and discharge planning process, if indicated.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Third, these SDOH items will support ongoing HH QRP initiatives by providing data to stratify HHAs' performance on current and future quality measures to improve care quality across different populations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             American Hospital Association (2020). Health Equity, Diversity &amp; Inclusion Measures for Hospitals and Health System Dashboards. December 2020. Accessed: January 18, 2022. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://ifdhe.aha.org/system/files/media/file/2020/12/ifdhe_inclusion_dashboard.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additional collection of SDOH items will permit us to continue developing the statistical tools necessary to maximize the value of Medicare data and improve the quality of care for all beneficiaries. For example, we recently developed and released the Health Equity Confidential Feedback Reports, which provided data to HHAs on whether differences in quality measure outcomes are present for their patients by dual-enrollment status and race and ethnicity.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We note that advancing health equity by addressing the health disparities that underlie the country's health system is one of our strategic pillars 
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and a Biden-Harris Administration priority.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             In October 2023, we released two new annual Health Equity Confidential Feedback Reports to HHAs: The Discharge to Community (DTC) Health Equity Confidential Feedback Report and the Medicare Spending Per Beneficiary (MSPB) Health Equity Confidential Feedback Report. The PAC Health Equity Confidential Feedback Reports stratified the DTC and MSPB measures by dual-enrollment status and race/ethnicity. For more information on the Health Equity Confidential Feedback Reports, please refer to the Education and Outreach materials available here: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/snf-quality-reporting-program/training.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             Brooks-LaSure, C. (2021). My First 100 Days and Where We Go from Here: A Strategic Vision for CMS. Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/blog/my-first-100-days-and-where-we-go-here-strategic-vision-cms.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             The White House. The Biden-Harris Administration Immediate Priorities. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/priorities/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        3. Proposal To Collect Four New Items as Standardized Patient Assessment Data Elements Beginning January 1, 2027, for the CY 2027 HH QRP Program Year 
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Per the authority for the OASIS assessment instrument under 1891(d)(1), Home Health Conditions of Participation [42 U.S.C. 1395bbb].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We proposed to require that HHAs collect four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category using the OASIS: one item for living situation, as described in section III.D.3.a. of this final rule; two items for food, as described in section III.D.3.b. of this final rule; and one item for utilities, as described in section III.D.3.c of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        We selected the final SDOH items from the Accountable Health Communities (AHC) HRSN Screening Tool developed for the AHC Model. The AHC HRSN Screening Tool is a universal, comprehensive screening for HRSNs that was developed by a technical expert panel (TEP) in July 2016 to discuss opportunities and challenges involved in screening for HRSNs, consider and pare down CMS' list of evidence-based screening questions, and recommend a short list of questions for inclusion in the final tool.
                        <E T="51">34 35</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The TEP agreed to prioritize the inclusion of five SDOH domains as follows: (1) housing instability (for example, homelessness, poor housing quality); (2) food insecurity; (3) transportation difficulties; (4) utility assistance needs; and (5) interpersonal safety concerns (for example, intimate-partner violence, elder abuse, child maltreatment).
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services. “A Guide to Using the Accountable Health Communities Health-Related Social Needs Screening Tool: Promising Practices and Key Insights.” August 2022. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/priorities/innovation/media/document/ahcm-screeningtool-companion.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Billioux, A., K. Verlander, S. Anthony, and D. Alley. 2017. Standardized screening for health-related social needs in clinical settings: The accountable health communities screening tool. Discussion Paper, National Academy of Medicine, Washington, DC. 
                            <E T="03">https://nam.edu/wp-content/uploads/2017/05/Standardized-Screening-for-Health-Related-Social-Needs-in-Clinical-Settings.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             More information about the AHC HRSN Screening Tool is available on the website at 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/Files/worksheets/ahcm-screeningtool.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88435"/>
                    <P>
                        We believe that requiring HHAs to report new items that are currently included in the AHC HRSN Screening Tools will further standardize the screening of SDOH across patient assessment instruments and the various quality reporting programs. For example, our proposal will align, in part, with the requirements of the Hospital Inpatient Quality Reporting (IQR) Program and the Inpatient Psychiatric Facility Quality Reporting (IPFQR) Program. As of January 2024, hospitals are required to report whether they have screened patients for the standardized SDOH categories of housing stability, food security, and access to transportation to meet the Hospital IQR Program requirements.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Beginning January 2025, inpatient psychiatric facilities (IPFs) will also be required to report whether they have screened patients for the same set of SDOH categories.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As we continue to standardize data collection across PAC settings, we believe using common standards and definitions for new items is important to ensure the interoperable exchange of longitudinal information between HHAs and other providers to facilitate coordinated care, continuity in care planning, and the discharge planning process.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, FY2023 IPPS/LTCH PPS final rule (87 FR 49191 
                            <E T="03">through</E>
                             49194).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, FY 2024 Inpatient Psychiatric Prospective Payment System—Rate Update (88 FR 51107 through 51121).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the following section we describe each of the four proposed items in more detail.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Living Situation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Healthy People 2030 prioritizes economic stability as a key SDOH, of which housing stability is a component.
                        <E T="51">39 40</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Lack of housing stability encompasses several challenges, such as having trouble paying rent, overcrowding, moving frequently, or spending the bulk of household income on housing.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These experiences may negatively affect physical health and make it harder to access health care. Lack of housing stability can also lead to homelessness, which is housing deprivation in its most severe form.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On a single night in 2023, roughly 653,100 people, or 20 out of every 10,000 people in the United States, were experiencing homelessness.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rates of chronic disease and premature mortality are higher among the unsheltered homeless relative to the sheltered.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Older adults (aged 65 years and older) have lower rates of experiencing any housing instability compared to younger people (8.8% versus 18.7%), but low-income older adults may be more at risk for housing instability if they lack the resources necessary to secure and/or maintain structurally sound housing.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adults (aged 18-64 years) with disabilities experience challenges to securing stable housing including affordability and accessibility.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that HHAs can use information obtained from the Living Situation assessment item during a patient's initial assessment as well as in discharge planning. For example, HH social workers can work with patients experiencing housing instability to ensure patients are referred to available community resources, such as supportive housing programs. HHAs could work in partnership with community care hubs and community-based organizations to establish new care transition workflows, including referral pathways, contracting mechanisms, data sharing strategies, and implementation training that can track both health and social needs outcomes to ensure unmet needs, such as housing, are successfully addressed through closed loop referrals and follow-up.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHAs could also take action to help alleviate a patient's other related costs of living, like food, by referring patients to community-based organizations that will allow patients' additional resources to be allocated towards housing without sacrificing other needs.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, HHAs could use the information obtained from the Living Situation assessment item to better coordinate with other PAC facilities and agencies during transitions of care, so that referrals to address a patient's housing stability are not lost during vulnerable transition periods.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://health.gov/healthypeople/priority-areas/social-determinants-health.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             Healthy People 2030 is a long-term, evidence-based effort led by the HHS that aims to identify nationwide health improvement priorities and improve the health of all Americans.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Kushel, M.B., Gupta, R., Gee, L., &amp; Haas, J.S. (2006). Housing instability and food insecurity as barriers to health care among low-income Americans. 
                            <E T="03">Journal of General Internal Medicine, 21</E>
                            (1), 71-77. doi: 10.1111/j.1525-1497.2005.00278.x.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Homelessness is defined as “lacking a regular nighttime residence or having a primary nighttime residence that is a temporary shelter or other place not designed for sleeping.” Crowley, S. (2003). The affordable housing crisis: Residential mobility of poor families and school mobility of poor children. Journal of Negro Education, 
                            <E T="03">72</E>
                            (1), 22-38. doi: 10.2307/3211288.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             The 2023 Annual Homeless Assessment Report (AHAR) to Congress. The U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development 2023. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.huduser.gov/portal/sites/default/files/pdf/2023-AHAR-Part-1.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             Richards J, &amp; Kuhn R. Unsheltered homelessness and health: A Literature Review. AJPM focus 2023; 2(1):100043. American Journal of Preventive Medicine. Unsheltered Homelessness and Health: A Literature Review (sciencedirectassets.com). Accessed 3/1/2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             Bhat, Aarti C., David M. Almeida, Andrew Fenelon, and Alexis R. Santos-Lozada. “A longitudinal analysis of the relationship between housing insecurity and physical health among midlife and aging adults in the United States.” SSM-Population Health 18 (2022): 101128.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             Popkin SJ, Hermans A, Oneto AD, Farrell L, Connery M, &amp; Cannington A. 2022. People with Disabilities Living in the US Face Urgent Barriers to Housing: Federal Programs are not Meeting the Housing Needs of Disabled People. Urban Institute. People with Disabilities Living in the US Face Urgent Barriers to Housing_0.pdf (
                            <E T="03">urban.org</E>
                            ). Accessed 5/29/2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             HHS, Call to Action, “Addressing Health Related Social Needs in Communities Across the Nation.” November 2023. 
                            <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/documents/3e2f6140d0087435cc6832bf8cf32618/hhs-call-to-action-health-related-social-needs.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             Henderson, K.A., Manian, N., Rog, D.J., Robison, E., Jorge, E., AlAbdulmunem, M. “Addressing Homelessness Among Older Adults” (Final Report). Washington, DC: Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. October 26, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Due to the potential negative impacts housing instability can have on a patient's health, we proposed to adopt the Living Situation assessment item as a new standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category. This Living Situation assessment item is currently collected in the AHC HRSN Screening Tool 
                        <E T="51">49 50</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and was adapted from the Protocol for Responding to and Assessing Patients' Assets, Risks, and Experiences (PRAPARE) tool.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed Living Situation item asks: “What is your living situation today?” The proposed response options are: (1) I have a steady place to live; (2) I have a place to live today, but I am worried about losing it in the future; (3) I do not have a steady place to live; (4) Patient unable to respond; and (5) Patient declines to respond. A draft of the proposed Living Situation item can be found in the Downloads section of the HH QRP Quality Measures web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-quality-measures.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             More information about the AHC HRSN Screening Tool is available on the website at 
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/Files/worksheets/ahcm-screeningtool.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             The AHC HRSN Screening Tool Living Situation item includes two questions. In an effort to limit HHA burden, we are only proposing the first question.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             National Association of Community Health Centers and Partners, National Association of Community Health Centers, Association of Asian Pacific Community Health Organizations, Association OPC, Institute for Alternative Futures. “PRAPARE.” 2017. 
                            <E T="03">https://prapare.org/the-prapare-screening-tool/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88436"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Food</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), Economic Research Service defines a lack of food security as a household-level economic and social condition of limited or uncertain access to adequate food.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adults who are food insecure may be at an increased risk for a variety of negative health outcomes and health disparities. For example, a study found that food-insecure adults may be at an increased risk for obesity.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nutrition security is also an important component that builds on and complements long standing efforts to advance food security. The USDA defines nutrition security as “consistent and equitable access to healthy, safe, affordable foods essential to optimal health and well-being.” 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While having enough food is one of many predictors for health outcomes, a diet low in nutritious foods is also a factor.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Studies have shown that older adults struggling with food security consume fewer calories and nutrients and have lower overall dietary quality than those who are food secure, which can put them at nutritional risk. Older adults are also at a higher risk of developing malnutrition, which is considered a state of deficit, excess, or imbalance in protein, energy, or other nutrients that adversely impacts an individual's own body form, function, and clinical outcomes. About 50% of older adults are affected by malnutrition, which is further aggravated by a lack of food security and poverty.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that adopting items to collect and analyze information about a patient's food security at home could provide additional insight into their health complexity and help facilitate coordination with other healthcare providers, facilities, and agencies during transitions of care, so that referrals to address a patient's food security are not lost during vulnerable transition periods. For example, an HHA's registered nurse (RN) or other clinically qualified nutrition professional could work with the patient to plan healthy, affordable food choices prior to discharge.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHAs could also refer any patient that indicates lack of food security to government initiatives such as home delivered meals programs provided by Area Agencies on Aging,
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), and food pharmacies (programs to increase access to healthful foods by making them affordable), initiatives that have been associated with lower health care costs and reduced hospitalization and emergency department visits.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             U.S. Department of Agriculture, Economic Research Service (n.d.). 
                            <E T="03">Definitions of food security.</E>
                             Retrieved March 10, 2022, from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ers.usda.gov/topics/food-nutrition-assistance/food-security-in-the-u-s/definitions-of-food-security/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Hernandez, D.C., Reesor, L.M., &amp; Murillo, R. (2017). Food insecurity and adult overweight/obesity: Gender and race/ethnic disparities. 
                            <E T="03">Appetite, 117,</E>
                             373-378.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             Food and Nutrition Security (n.d.). USDA. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/nutrition-security.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             National Center for Health Statistics (2022 September 6). Exercise or Physical Activity. Retrieved from Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/fastats/exercise.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Food Research &amp; Action Center (FRAC). “Hunger is a Health Issue for Older Adults: Food Security, Health, and the Federal Nutrition Programs.” December 2019. 
                            <E T="03">https://frac.org/wp-content/uploads/hunger-is-a-health-issue-for-older-adults-1.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             Schroeder K, Smaldone A. Food Insecurity: A Concept Analysis. Nurse Forum. 2015 Oct-Dec;50(4):274-84. doi: 10.1111/nuf.12118. Epub 2015 Jan 21. PMID: 25612146; PMCID: PMC4510041.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             Administration for Community Living. 
                            <E T="03">Nutrition Services.</E>
                             Last updated 02/02/2024. Accessed 04/19/2024. 
                            <E T="03">https://acl.gov/programs/health-wellness/nutrition-services.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             Tsega M, Lewis C, McCarthy D, Shah T, Coutts K. Review of Evidence for Health-Related Social Needs Interventions. July 2019. The Commonwealth Fund. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.commwealthfund.org/sites/default/files/2019-07/ROI-EVIDENCE-REVIEW-FINAL-VERSION.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We proposed to adopt two new food-related standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category. These proposed items are based on the Food data elements currently collected in the AHC Screening Tool and were adapted from the U.S. Department of Agriculture 18-item Household Food Security Survey (HFSS).
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The first proposed Food item states: “Within the past 12 months, you worried that your food will run out before you got money to buy more.” The second proposed Food item states: “Within the past 12 months, the food you bought just didn't last and you didn't have money to get more.” We propose the same response options for both items: (1) Often true; (2) Sometimes true; (3) Never True; (4) Patient declines to respond; and (5) Patient unable to respond. A draft of the proposed Food items to be adopted as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category can be found in the Downloads section of the HH QRP Quality Measures web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-quality-measures.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             More information about the HFSS tool can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ers.usda.gov/topics/food-nutrition-assistance/food-security-in-the-u-s/survey-tools/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Utilities</HD>
                    <P>
                        A lack of energy (utility) security can be defined as an inability to adequately meet basic household energy needs.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the Department of Energy, one in three households in the U.S. are unable to adequately meet basic household energy needs.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The median energy burden for rural households of older adults is considerably higher than that for households without older adults.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The consequences associated with a lack of utility security are represented by three primary dimensions: economic, physical, and behavioral. Patients with low incomes are disproportionately affected by high energy costs, and they may be forced to prioritize paying for housing and food over utilities. Among older adults, food insecurity and high energy costs together are prevalent.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some patients with low incomes may face limited housing options and be at increased risk of living in lower-quality physical conditions with malfunctioning heating and cooling systems, poor lighting, and outdated plumbing and electrical systems. Finally, patients with a lack of utility security may use concerning behavioral approaches to cope, such as using stoves and space heaters for heat.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, data from the Department of Energy's U.S. Energy Information Administration confirm that a lack of energy security disproportionately affects certain populations, such as low-income and African American households.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The effects of a lack of utility security include vulnerability to environmental exposures such as dampness, mold, and thermal discomfort in the home, which have direct effect on patients' health.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="88437"/>
                        For example, research has shown associations between a lack of energy security and respiratory conditions as well as mental health-related disparities and poor sleep quality in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, children, the socioeconomically disadvantaged, and the medically vulnerable.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe adopting an item to collect information about a patient's utility security upon start or resumption of care in HHAs will facilitate the identification of patients who may not have utility security and who may benefit from engagement efforts. For example, HHAs could use the information on utility security to help connect identified patients in need, such as older adults, to programs that can help pay for home energy (heating/cooling) costs, like the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program (LIHEAP) 
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or receive broadband internet service through the Affordable Connectivity Program.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHAs can also partner with community care hubs and community-based organizations to assist patients in applying for these and other local utility assistance programs, as well as helping them navigate the enrollment process.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Hernández D. Understanding 'energy insecurity' and why it matters to health. Soc Sci Med. 2016 Oct; 167:1-10. doi: 10.1016/j.socscimed.2016.08.029. Epub 2016 Aug 21. PMID: 27592003; PMCID: PMC5114037.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             U.S. Energy Information Administration. “One in Three U.S. Households Faced Challenges in Paying Energy Bills in 2015.” 2017 Oct 13. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.eia.gov/consumption/residential/reports/2015/energybills/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             Simes, Miranda, Farzana Khan, and Diana Hernández. “Energy Insecurity and Social Determinants of Health.” In Handbook of Social Sciences and Global Public Health, pp. 2119-2137. Cham: Springer International Publishing, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             Simes, Miranda, Farzana Khan, and Diana Hernández. “Energy Insecurity and Social Determinants of Health.” In Handbook of Social Sciences and Global Public Health, pp. 2119-2137. Cham: Springer International Publishing, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             Hernández D. “What `Merle' Taught Me About Energy Insecurity and Health.” Health Affairs, VOL.37, NO.3: Advancing Health Equity Narrative Matters. March 2018. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1377/hlthaff.2017.1413.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             U.S. Energy Information Administration. “One in Three U.S. Households Faced Challenges in Paying Energy Bills in 2015.” 2017 Oct 13. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.eia.gov/consumption/residential/reports/2015/energybills/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             Shahrestanaki, S.K., Rafii, F., Najafi Ghezeljeh, T. et al. Patient safety in home health care: a 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            grounded theory study. 
                            <E T="03">BMC Health Serv Res</E>
                             23, 467 (2023). 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1186/s12913-023-09458-9.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             Siegel, Eva Laura, Kathryn Lane, Ariel Yuan, Lauren A. Smalls-Mantey, Jennifer Laird, Carolyn Olson, and Diana Hernández. “Energy Insecurity Indicators Associated With Increased Odds Of Respiratory, Mental Health, And Cardiovascular Conditions: Study examines energy insecurity and health conditions.” Health Affairs 43, no. 2 (2024): 260-268.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program (LIHEAP) | The Administration for Children and Families (hhs.gov) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.acf.hhs.gov/ocs/programs/liheap</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/broadbandbenefit.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             National Council on Aging (NCOA). “How to Make It Easier for Older Adults to Get Energy and Utility Assistance.” Promising Practices Clearinghouse for Professionals. Jan 13, 2022. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncoa.org/article/how-to-make-it-easier-for-older-adults-to-get-energy-and-utility-assistance.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We proposed to adopt a new Utilities item as a new standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category. This proposed item is based on the Utilities item currently collected in the AHC HRSN Screening Tool and was adapted from the Children's Sentinel Nutrition Assessment Program (C-SNAP) survey.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed Utilities item asks: “In the past 12 months, has the electric, gas, oil, or water company threatened to shut off services in your home?” The proposed response options are: (1) Yes; (2) No; (3) Already shut off; (4) Patient unable to respond; and (5) Patient declines to respond. A draft of the proposed Utilities item to be adopted as a standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category can be found in the downloads section of the HH QRP Quality Measures web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-quality-measures.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             This validated survey was developed as a clinical indicator of household energy security among pediatric caregivers. Cook, J.T., D.A. Frank., P.H. Casey, R. Rose-Jacobs, M.M. Black, M. Chilton, S. Ettinger de Cuba, et al. “A Brief Indicator of Household Energy Security: Associations with Food Security, Child Health, and Child Development in US Infants and Toddlers.” Pediatrics, vol. 122, no. 4, 2008, pp. e874-e875. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1542/peds.2008-0286.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Stakeholder Input</HD>
                    <P>We developed our proposal after considering the feedback we received when we proposed the creation of the SDOH category of standardized patient assessment data elements in the CY 2020 HH PPS rule (84 FR 34677 through 34684). Commenters were generally in favor of the concept of collecting SDOH data elements and stated that if implemented appropriately the data could be useful in identifying and addressing health care disparities, as well as refining the risk adjustment of outcome measures. We incorporated this input into the development of the proposal.</P>
                    <P>We invited comment on the proposal to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP: one living situation item; two food items; and one utilities item.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         The majority of commenters supported the proposal. Supportive comments noted the importance and relevance of SDOH to home health and the importance of interoperability. Some commenters noted that their home health agencies are already collecting this information and have established community partnerships to address SDOH.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS appreciate commenters' support for the proposal and agrees that SDOH are important and relevant to home health. CMS also agrees that interoperability is important to measure quality and advance health equity, and thus we propose data elements that are standardized across the PAC settings. CMS appreciates that some home health agencies are already addressing SDOH by collecting information and working with community partners.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters expressed support for the proposal and suggested changes, including expanding the assessment to capture overall financial need, and embedding the American Healthy Communities (AHC) screening tool in the assessment instruments. One commenter suggested that CMS require collection of the information but not specify the tool or instrument to be used.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS appreciates the commenters' suggestions and acknowledge that patients' overall financial need and other data elements from the AHC screening tool are important. However, the proposed data elements have been identified as impacting care use, cost and outcomes for Medicare beneficiaries. These items have the potential to affect treatment preferences and goals of patients and their caregivers. Identification of the SDOH items may also enable HHAs to offer assistance, by connecting patients and their caregivers with these associated needs to social support programs, as well as inform our understanding of the level of patient clinical complexity. We believe the proposed data elements offer the greatest potential benefit without undue burden for patients and HHAs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters that supported the proposal also expressed implementation concerns that vendors be provided enough time to prepare for the changes; that home health agencies be provided time and resources to educate staff on the changes; that OASIS revisions are too frequent and burdensome for agencies; and that implementation of the proposal would be burdensome. Some commenters cautioned that SDOH needs identified must be addressed, and one suggested that CMS should provide additional reimbursement to HHAs for the follow-up required to address identified needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledges and appreciates the commenters' concerns and suggestions. CMS is finalizing the SDOH data elements in this CY2025 final rule with an effective date of January 1, 2027, to ensure that vendors and HHAs have sufficient time to prepare for implementation of data collection. CMS will make training available to HHAs on the changes to the OASIS, consistent with education and training resources for previous revisions to the OASIS instrument. CMS acknowledges that revisions to the OASIS require that providers expend time, effort, and resources to prepare for the changes. CMS is committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every two years. CMS agrees that patients' needs should be addressed by the HHA, consistent with applicable rules and regulations, although we note that the proposal does not specify a requirement for how HHAs may address patients' needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter suggested that CMS consider home health SDOH 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88438"/>
                        data differently than data from the PAC institutional settings, noting that in home health, an HHA staff member often walks into the home where a situation caused by or related to one or more SDOH is already happening and may be at a crisis level. In those situations, HHAs may not have the capacity to remediate identified issues since this would take significantly more time than merely conducting the assessment. The commenter suggested that requirements that HHA staff respond to patient and caregiver crises may trigger obligations such as mandatory reporting to the local adult protective services agency, or requiring that the staff member call county health officials to condemn a patient's current living space even when no housing alternative exists. These requirements would violate the trust the HHA is trying to establish through its services and jeopardize individuals' ability to access needed services for which they are eligible. The commenter suggests that the SDOH data elements not be used as process or outcome measures without additional CMS support for HHAs and recommends that the SDOH data elements be considered an opportunity to gather more information on populations accessing home health services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledges that the home health setting differs from that of the institutional PAC settings. However, we believe that HHAs can benefit from this information to facilitate coordinated care, improve patient focused care planning, and allow for continuity of the discharge planning process. Ultimately, CMS believes that first, screening for SDOH could serve as evidence-based building blocks for supporting healthcare providers in actualizing their commitment to address disparities that disproportionately impact underserved communities. Second, screening for SDOH advances health equity through identifying potential social needs of individuals so the HHA may address those with the patient, their caregivers, and community partners during the home health episode and discharge planning process, if indicated.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Third, these SDOH items will support ongoing HH QRP initiatives by providing data with which to stratify HHAs' performance on current and future quality measures to improve care quality across different populations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             American Hospital Association (2020). Health Equity, Diversity &amp; Inclusion Measures for Hospitals and Health System Dashboards. December 2020. Accessed: January 18, 2022. Available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://ifdhe.aha.org/system/files/media/file/2020/12/ifdhe_inclusion_dashboard.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters that did not support the proposal acknowledged that SDOH information was important, but stated that adding four data elements to the OASIS and modifying a fifth would be burdensome. One commenter noted that revisions to the OASIS are too frequent and recommended that CMS limit revisions to intervals of no less than four years. One commenter suggested that the proposed “living situation” data element duplicates other information that is already collected, and recommended that the look-back for the “utilities” data element be changed from 12 months to three to capture more reliable, valid, and timely information. Another commenter encouraged CMS to consider using SDOH information as part of the risk-adjustment of outcome quality measures. A commenter stated the proposal is not aligned with health-related social needs reporting requirements across the care continuum and that further testing and refinement are needed to ensure the proposed items work as intended in this setting. This commenter noted the proposed data elements are not standardized with those in the Inpatient and Inpatient Psychiatric Facility Quality Reporting Programs, so are not interoperable, and also noted that inpatient psychiatric facilities may use any standardized health-related social needs screening tool. This commenter noted that CMS' evaluation of the AHC HRNS screening tool in the AHC Model showed that screening did not appear to increase beneficiary connection to community resources or health-related social need resolution, and they recommended that CMS conduct further testing and develop clearer implementation guidance before adopting the proposed data elements in the HHQRP. This commenter also requested that CMS articulate its vision for how the health-related social need information collected by the proposed data elements would be used in its quality and payment programs, noting for example that measures holding HHAs accountable for community-based outcomes such as connection to community resources and resolution of health-related social need is outside the scope of covered home health services as defined by Medicare.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. As previously stated, CMS acknowledges that revisions to the OASIS require HHAs' time, effort, and resources, and we are committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every two years. CMS disagrees that the proposed “Living Situation” data element duplicates information that is already collected because it addresses housing insecurity, which is not part of the information captured in the current OASIS. CMS appreciates the suggestion to reduce the look-back period for the “Utilities” data element and will take this into consideration as we review data submitted. CMS acknowledges that the SDOH data elements finalized in this rule are not aligned with those of the inpatient QRPs; however we believe that standardization across the PAC settings is an important step in advancement towards interoperability. CMS believes that the data elements finalized in this rule are not setting-specific, and that the testing conducted in their development has been sufficiently rigorous that we can adopt the data elements into the OASIS and the other PAC instruments with confidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing our proposal to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Modification of the “Transportation” Item Beginning With the CY 2027 HH QRP Program Year</HD>
                    <P>Beginning January 1, 2023, HHAs began collecting seven standardized patient assessment data elements under the SDOH category on the OASIS Version E. One of these items, A1250. “Transportation”, collects data on whether a lack of transportation has kept a patient from getting to and from medical appointments, meetings, work, or from getting things they need for daily living. This item was adopted as a standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule (84 FR 60478). As we discussed in the CY 2020 HH PPS final rule, we continue to believe that access to transportation for ongoing health care and medication access needs, particularly for those with chronic diseases, is essential to successful chronic disease management and the collection of a “Transportation” item will facilitate the connection to programs that can address identified needs.</P>
                    <P>
                        As part of our routine item and measure monitoring work, we continue to assess the implementation of the new SDOH items. We have identified an opportunity to improve the data collection for A1250. “Transportation” by aligning it with the Transportation category collected in our other programs. Specifically, we proposed to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88439"/>
                        modify the current “Transportation” item so that it aligns with a “Transportation” item collected on the AHC HRSN Screening Tool available to the IPFQR and IQR Programs. Data element A1250, “Transportation”, currently collected in the OASIS asks patients: “Has lack of transportation kept you from medical appointments, meetings, work, or from getting things needed for daily living?” The response options are: “(A) Yes, it has kept me from medical appointments or from getting any medications”; “(B) Yes, it has kept me from non-medical meetings, appointments, work, or from getting things that I need”; “(C) No”; “(X) Patient unable to respond”; and “(Y) Patient declines to respond”. By comparison, the “Transportation” item collected in the AHC HRSN Screening Tool asks, “In the past 12 months, has lack of reliable transportation kept you from medical appointments, meetings, work or from getting things needed for daily living?” The two response options are: “(1) Yes”; and “(2) No.” Consistent with the AHC HRSN Screening Tool, we proposed to modify the A1250. “Transportation” item currently collected in the OASIS in two ways: (1) revise the look-back period for when the patient experienced lack of reliable transportation; and (2) simplify the response options.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While the current “Transportation” assessment item uses a look-back period of six to 12 months, we believe use of a 12-month lookback period will reduce ambiguity for both patients and clinicians, and therefore improve the validity of the data collected. Second, we proposed to simplify the response options. Currently, HHAs separately collect information on whether a lack of reliable transportation has kept the patient from medical appointments or from getting medications, and whether a lack of transportation has kept the patient from non-medical meetings, appointments, work, or from getting things they need. Although transportation barriers can directly affect a person's ability to attend medical appointments and obtain medications, a lack of transportation can also affect a person's health in other ways, including accessing goods and services, obtaining adequate food and clothing, and social activities.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed modified “Transportation” item will collect information on whether a lack of reliable transportation has kept the patient from medical appointments, meetings, work 
                        <E T="03">or</E>
                         from getting things needed for daily living, rather than collecting the information separately. As discussed previously, we believe reliable transportation services are fundamental to a person's overall health, and as a result, the burden of collecting this information separately outweighs its potential benefit.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             Victoria Transport Policy Institute (2016 August 25). Basic access and basic mobility: Meeting society's most important transportation needs. Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">http://www.vtpi.org/tdm/tdm103.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For the reasons stated, we proposed to modify the current A1250 “Transportation” based on the “Transportation” item adopted for use in the AHC HRSN Screening Tool and adapted from the PRAPARE tool. The proposed “Transportation” item asks: “In the past 12 months, has a lack of reliable transportation kept you from medical appointments, meetings, work or from getting things needed for daily living?” The proposed response options are: (0) Yes; (1) No; (7) Patient declines to respond; and (8) Patient unable to respond. A draft of the proposed “Transportation” item to be adopted as a standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category can be found on the HH QRP Quality Measures web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-quality-measures/downloads.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>We invited comment on the proposal to modify the current “Transportation” item previously adopted as a standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Most commenters supported the modification of the “Transportation” item to align with the AHC HRSN Screening Tool. Some even suggested adopting more components of the AHC tool to the OASIS assessment tool.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS appreciate commenters' support for the proposal and agrees that the adoption of this AHC item improves consistency with other provider settings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters noted a concern related to the burden required to update the OASIS with the replacement of the current “Transportation” item.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledges there is a change to the OASIS that will be required with the modification of the “Transportation” item but there will be sufficient guidance to clarify the correct completion of the new item. Additionally, the new item does not substantially increase effort in completing the OASIS tool relative to the current “Transportation” item.
                    </P>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing our proposal to modify the current “Transportation” item previously adopted as a standardized patient assessment data element under the SDOH category beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Proposal To Update OASIS All-Payer Data Collection</HD>
                    <P>In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule CMS finalized the end of the temporary suspension of OASIS data collection on non-Medicare/non-Medicaid HHA patients and the requirement for HHAs to submit all-payer OASIS data for purposes of the HH QRP, beginning with the CY 2027 Program Year (87 FR 66862 through 66865). Consistent with the two-quarter phase-in that we typically use when changing data submission items or requirements, HHAs will have an opportunity to begin submitting this data for patients discharged between January 1, 2025, through June 30, 2025, but we will not use that phase-in data to make a compliance determination. We noted that the new all-payer OASIS data reporting will be required beginning with the CY 2027 program year, with data for that program year required for patients discharged between July 1, 2025, and June 30, 2026. For HHAs to operationalize this requirement, CMS determined that further details will be needed to clarify OASIS data collection and submission for non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients. The CY23 final rule referenced discharge as the time point to identify when all-payer data collection will start but did not address the other data collection time points.</P>
                    <P>To clarify expectations around the start of OASIS all-payer data collection we proposed to establish a change from data collection beginning with the OASIS discharge time point to using the start of care (SOC) time point. The SOC is the first assessment that can be submitted for a non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patient, either on or after January 1, 2025, for the phase-in (voluntary) period or on or after July 1, 2025, for the mandatory period. We will use the M0090 “Date Assessment Completed” date of the SOC assessment to identify non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patient assessments in the phase-in and mandatory periods.</P>
                    <P>
                        Using the SOC time point ensures HHA characteristics (for example, Agency's CMS Certification Number (CCN), State and Branch ID#s) and patient-specific information (for example, patient name, State, zip code, Social Security number (SSN), gender, date of birth (DOB), payment source) are collected for each non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patient assessment at the start 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88440"/>
                        of all-payer OASIS data collection. After these are collected and submitted with the SOC assessment, they are resubmitted with each subsequent OASIS submission (that is, ROC, recert, other follow up, transfer, discharge, death at home). Using the SOC time point will ensure that baseline data is available for use in calculating or risk-adjusting quality measures, and in linking to prior OASIS assessments. The data will also be available for matching purposes to support use of the current quality assessments only (QAO) metric used in the annual payment update (APU) calculation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (Pub. L. 108-173; December 8, 2003) finalized the temporary suspension of OASIS requirements for collection of data on non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CY 2023 HH PPS final rule ends this temporary suspension of OASIS data collection for non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients. CMS is providing a voluntary phase-in period for HHAs to begin OASIS data collection and submission for all non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">www.congress.gov/108/statute/STATUTE-117/STATUTE-117-Pg2066.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Prior to January 1, 2025</E>
                        —Per the HH CoPs and OASIS guidance, HHAs are required to collect and submit OASIS assessments for all skilled Medicare and/or Medicaid patients, with some exemptions. OASIS assessment time points include start of care, resumption of care, recertification, other follow-up, transfer, discharge, and death at home. The criteria for patients exempt from OASIS data collection are not changing and will continue to include patients under 18, patients receiving maternity services, and patients receiving only personal care, housekeeping or chore services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">January 1, 2025, through June 30, 2025</E>
                        —For non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients who are not exempt from OASIS data collection, and who begin receiving home health care services with an OASIS SOC M0090 date from January 1, 2025, through June 30, 2025, OASIS data collection and submission are voluntary. When OASIS data collection and submission are started for a non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patient with the SOC OASIS assessment, HHAs may but are not required to complete all subsequent OASIS time point assessments related to the patient's home health stay (that is, resumption of care, recertification, other follow up, transfer, discharge, and death at home) including assessments completed on or after July 1, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Beginning July 1, 2025</E>
                        —For patients with any pay source who are not exempt from OASIS data collection, and who begin receiving home health care services with an OASIS SOC M0090 date on or after July 1, 2025, OASIS data collection and submission to the internet Quality Improvement Evaluation System (iQIES) are required. This includes the SOC OASIS as well as any subsequent OASIS time point assessments relevant to the patient's home health stay (that is, resumption of care, recertification, other follow up, transfer, discharge, and death at home).
                    </P>
                    <P>We invited comment on the proposal to update requirements for OASIS all-payer data collection beginning January 1, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Those who supported the proposal emphasized that a voluntary phase-in and the use of the start of care date to initiate all payer submission would provide consistency with how the policy is implemented. Another commenter noted the resumption of all payer OASIS data collection and submission aligns policies and reporting across post-acute care settings and patient subsets and provides a fuller, more accurate representation of home health quality of care for use in beneficiary health care decision making, policy development, and health services research.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS thanks commenters for providing feedback on the proposal. The goal of implementing all-payer data collection and submission is to facilitate a better understanding of quality of care provided to patients in Medicare-certified home health and post-acute care settings in general, regardless of payor source.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters acknowledged the importance of OASIS all-payer data but expressed concerns about how CMS will use the data in the HHQRP and the HHVBP.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledges concerns about how the data collected with the implementation of all-payer data collection and submission will be utilized. CMS expects to use this data to gain a better understanding of the overall quality of care provided by Medicare-certified providers and the patients they serve, regardless of payor source.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters raised questions about how the all-payer policy would be implemented for patients without any payor source and in other scenarios such as how to complete OASIS for non-Medicare patients already on service, or that transfer to the hospital, or for payer changes. One commenter asked about whether PDGM rules for a 60-day episode and 30-day payment period apply to all payers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS thanks commenters for the questions regarding implementation of all-payer data collection and submission. All-payer data collection and submission is intended for any patient receiving skilled home health care service that would meet requirements for an OASIS assessment. As noted in the proposal, data collection at time points outside of start of care for patients already on home health care service before the implementation of mandatory all-payer data collection and submission will not be required. The implementation of mandatory all-payer data collection and submission is also not intended to impact payment policy.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Another commenter expressed concern about the implications for patient privacy, particularly for patient care funded by non-government payers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledges privacy concerns with the implementation of the all-payer data collection and submission. Data security and patient privacy are priorities for CMS. CMS intends to follow all Federal guidelines related to data security and patient privacy.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters who opposed the proposal most often raised the issue of the burden of implementing the new policy. One commenter noted that deep labor shortages, particularly for nurses and home health aides, would impact availability of staff to meet the expanded data collection requirement. Some raised concerns about the new policy's effect on reimbursement and that completing all required home health admissions could become more difficult.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Related to the concern about burden, as noted when the all-payer data collection policy was first proposed, CMS expects that the six-month voluntary submission period will allow providers the time and experience to effectively implement the new policy. As clinical assessment of all patients is an important standard, CMS anticipates the OASIS assessment will replace other assessment tools currently in place for non-Medicare/Medicaid payor sources.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing our proposal to update requirements for OASIS all-payer data collection beginning January 1, 2025.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88441"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Form, Manner, and Timing of Data Submission Under the HH QRP</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background</HD>
                    <P>We refer readers to the regulatory text at § 484.45 for information regarding the current policies for reporting HH QRP data.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposed Reporting Schedule for the Submission of SDOH Assessment Items Beginning January 1, 2027, With the CY 2027 HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in section III.D.3. of this final rule, we proposed to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements in the SDOH category: one living situation item, two food items, and one utilities item, and to modify the “Transportation” item in section III.D.5. of this rule beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <P>We proposed that HHAs will be required to report these new assessment items using the OASIS beginning with patients admitted on January 1, 2027, for purposes of the CY 2027 HH QRP program year. Starting in CY 2027, HHAs will be required to submit data for the entire calendar year, corresponding to the CY 2028 HH QRP program year with respect to OASIS submission requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also proposed that HHAs that submit the living situation, food, utilities, and transportation items with respect to start or resumption of care will be deemed to have submitted those assessment items with respect to both start or resumption of care and discharge, because it is unlikely that the assessment of those items at start or resumption of care will differ from the assessment of the same item at discharge. A draft of the proposed assessment items is available in the Downloads section of the HH QRP Quality Measures web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-quality-measures.</E>
                         As we noted in section III.D.5 of this final rule, we continue to assess the implementation of the new items in the SDOH category, including A1250. “Transportation”, as part of our routine assessment item and measure monitoring work. We analyzed the data home health agencies reported from January 1, 2023, through September 30, 2023 (Q1 2023-Q3 2023) and found that home health patient responses do not significantly change from admission to discharge. Specifically, the proportion of patients who responded “Yes” to the A1250 “Transportation” item at start of care or resumption of care (8.87 percent) versus at discharge to community (5.71 percent) differed by only 3.16 percentage points during this period. We find these results convincing, and therefore are proposing to require HHAs to submit the proposed item, “Transportation”, at the start and resumption of care only.
                    </P>
                    <P>We invited public comment on our proposal to collect data on the following items in the SDOH category start or resumption of care beginning January 1, 2027 with the CY 2027 HH QRP program year: one Living Situation item as described in section III.D.3.a of this final rule; two Food items, as described in section III.D.3.b of this final rule; one Utilities item as described in section III.D.3.c of this final rule; and one “Transportation” item as described in section III.D.5 of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>A majority of commenters supported the proposal. Supportive comments included that SDOH are important and relevant to home health, and that interoperability is important. Some commenters noted that their home health agencies are already collecting this information and have established community partnerships to address SDOH.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS appreciate commenters' support for the proposal and agrees that SDOH are important and relevant to home health. CMS also agrees that interoperability is important to measure quality and advance health equity, and thus we propose data elements that are standardized across the PAC settings. CMS appreciates that some home health agencies are already addressing SDOH by collecting information and working with community partners.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters that supported the proposal expressed concerns about implementation including that the vendors be provided enough time to prepare for the changes, that home health agencies be provided time and resources to educate staff on the changes, that OASIS revisions are too frequent and burdensome for agencies and that implementation of the proposal would be burdensome. Some commenters cautioned that SDOH needs identified must be addressed, and one suggested that CMS should provide additional reimbursement to HHAs for the follow-up required to address identified needs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         CMS acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. CMS is proposing the SDOH data elements in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule with an effective date to begin collection via the OASIS instrument of January 1, 2027, to ensure that vendors and HHAs have sufficient time to prepare for implementation. CMS will make training available to HHAs on the changes to the OASIS, consistent with education and training resources for previous revisions to the OASIS instrument. CMS acknowledges that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and is committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every two years. CMS agrees that patients' needs should be addressed by the HHA, consistent with applicable rules and regulations, although we note that the proposal does not specify a requirement for how HHAs may address patients' needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters that did not support the proposal acknowledged that SDOH information is important but adding four data elements to the OASIS and modifying a fifth would be burdensome. One commenter noted that revisions to the OASIS are too frequent and recommended that CMS limit revisions to intervals of no less than four years. One commenter suggested that the proposed living situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected and recommended that the look-back for the utilities data element be changed from 12 months to three to capture more reliable, valid, and timely information. Another commenter encouraged CMS to consider using SDOH information as part of the risk-adjusted outcome quality measures. A commenter stated the proposal is not aligned with health-related social needs reporting requirements across the care continuum and that further testing and refinement are needed to ensure the proposed items work as intended in this setting. This commenter noted that CMS' evaluation of the AHC HRNS screening tool in the AHC Model showed that screening did not appear to increase beneficiary connection to community resources or health-related social need resolution, and they recommended CMS conduct further testing and developing clearer implementation guidance before adopting the proposed data elements in the HHQRP.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. As previously stated, CMS acknowledges that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and we are committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every two years. CMS disagrees that the proposed Living Situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected because it addresses housing insecurity, which is not part of the information captured in the current OASIS. CMS 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88442"/>
                        believes that the proposed data elements are not setting-specific, and that the testing conducted in their development has been sufficiently rigorous that we can adopt the data elements into the OASIS and the other PAC instruments with confidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing our proposal to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements in the SDOH category: one living situation item, two food items, and one utilities item, and to modify the “Transportation” item in section III.D.5. of this rule beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. HH QRP Quality Measure Concepts Under Consideration for Future Years—Request for Information (RFI)</HD>
                    <P>We sought input on the importance, relevance, appropriateness, and applicability of each of the following concepts under consideration for future years in the HH QRP: vaccinations, depression, pain management, and substance use disorders. In the CY 2024 HH PPS proposed rule (88FR 43738 through 43740), we published a request for information (RFI) (CY 2024 RFI) on a set of principles for selecting and prioritizing HH QRP measures, identifying measurement gaps, and suitable measures for filling these gaps. Within this rule, we also sought input on data available to develop measures, approaches for data collection, perceived challenges or barriers, and approaches for addressing identified challenges. We refer readers to the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77772 through 77774) for a summary of the public comments we received in response to the RFI.</P>
                    <P>
                        Subsequently, our measure development contractor convened a TEP on December 15, 2023, to obtain input on the future measure concepts that could fill the measurement gaps identified in our CY 2024 RFI.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The TEP discussed the alignment of PAC and Hospice measures with CMS' “Universal Foundation” of quality measures.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Universal Foundation aims to focus provider attention, reduce burden, identify disparities in care, prioritize development of interoperable, digital quality measures, allow for comparisons across programs, and help identify measurement gaps.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             The Post-Acute Care (PAC) and Hospice Quality Reporting Program Cross-Setting TEP summary report will be published in early summer or as soon as technically feasible. IRFs can monitor the Partnership for Quality Measurement website at 
                            <E T="03">https://mmshub.cms.gov/get-involved/technical-expert-panel/updates for updates.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services. Aligning Quality Measures Across CMS—the Universal Foundation. November 17, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/aligning-quality-measures-across-cms-universal-foundation.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of the feedback, we received from interested parties through these activities, we are seeking input on four concepts for the HH QRP. One is a composite of vaccinations,
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which could represent overall immunization status of patients such as the Adult Immunization Status measure 
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in the Universal Foundation. A second concept on which we sought feedback is the concept of depression for the HH QRP, similar to the Clinical Screening for Depression and Follow-up measure 
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in the Universal Foundation. Third, we sought feedback on the concept of pain management. Finally, we seek input on a measure concept relating to substance use disorders, such as the Initiation and Engagement of Substance Use Disorder Treatment measure 
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         included in the Universal Foundation of Quality Measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             A composite measure can summarize multiple measures through the use of one value or piece of information. More information can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality-initiatives-patient-assessment-instruments/mms/downloads/composite-measures.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             CMS Measures Inventory Tool. Adult immunization status measure found at 
                            <E T="03">https://cmit.cms.gov/cmit/#/FamilyView?familyId=26.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             Preventative Care and Screening: Screening for Depression and Follow Up measure found at 
                            <E T="03">https://qpp.cms.gov/docs/QPP_quality_measure_specifications/CQM-Measures/2023_Measure_134_MIPSCQM.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             Initiation and Engagement of Substance Use Disorder Treatment measure found at 
                            <E T="03">https://ecqi.healthit.gov/ecqm/ec/2023/cms0137v11.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While we will not be responding to specific comments in response to the RFI in this final rule, we invited public comment on these four measure concepts and intend to use this input to inform future measure development efforts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Composite Vaccination Concept</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters supported a composite vaccination measure concept, while most commenters did not support this concept. Commenters in support of this measure concept noted that the measure would support increased immunization rates. One commenter noted that a composite vaccination measure would help bring vaccinations to homebound individuals, reducing access barriers, and may encourage home health agencies to have conversations with vaccine-skeptical individuals to share the benefits of vaccinations in general or one specific vaccination. This commenter went on to suggest that a focus on overall vaccination status is necessary for beneficiaries who may have long term health needs, chronic conditions and vulnerability to infection and disease. Lastly, the commenter suggested that a holistic approach is more equitable in that it can ensure individuals from all backgrounds are more likely to get a comprehensive set of vaccines. Several commenters expressed concerns about a composite vaccination concept, despite supporting this as a measure concept. One suggested that CMS revise the way rates are measured and reported so that, for example, a percentage of beneficiaries who are offered a vaccination does not convey a false impression of success. Another commenter suggested that CMS should ensure vaccines and combination products are accessible to providers and beneficiaries, and noted that home health agencies may have issues finding information on beneficiary vaccination status, nurses may not have time to administer vaccines, vaccines are costly to home health agencies, and that transport of vaccines requiring cold-chain and storage may present operational problems for home health staff who must spend hours a day on the road. Among the commenters that did not support a composite vaccination concept, most shared additional details. Most noted that such a measure would be burdensome to home health agencies because patient recall may be unreliable, so the home health agencies who do not have ready access to information about patients' vaccination status would have to conduct extensive review of patient's medical records to find this information. Some commenters referred to the December 2023 Post-Acute Care (PAC) and Hospice Quality Reporting Program Technical Expert Panel, noting that many provider participants did not support a vaccination measure concept. One commenter suggested patients might consider their vaccination status sensitive information and be hesitant to share their status with the home health staff. One commenter noted multiple issues home health agencies might encounter in implementation of such a measure including the expense of vaccines, and of ensuring safe vaccination of homebound patients, and the expense of controls and equipment needed to maintain compliance with controlled temperature chains required for vaccines, and that once a vial is opened the entire vial needs to be used in a specified short time frame that home health providers may not be able to achieve, thus wasting multiple doses. A final concern this commenter expressed was that providers who served populations who believe in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88443"/>
                        vaccination would have an advantage over providers who serve populations with vaccine hesitancy.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Depression Concept</HD>
                    <P>The majority of commenters supported the depression measure concept, with one commenter noting that home health already collects this data, and another commenter noting that patients who need home healthcare may be more likely to develop depression due to their diagnoses, chronic pain or lack of independence, and that identifying risk early and implementing interventions can improve patient outcomes and quality of life. A commenter noted that depression can affect patients' ability to care for themselves and provided the example of evidence-based occupational therapy interventions to directly impact depression such as engaging patients in activities that promote participation in everyday life, which can help build resilience, positive psychological and social functioning and the ability to adapt to change and cope with life challenges.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters did not support the measure concept for depression. One commenter noted that home health clinicians already complete the Patient Health Questionnaire—9 (PHQ-9) and are responsible for follow-up with the provider for patients that screen positive. Several commenters pointed out that home health agencies are limited in options or are not set up to address depression. A few commenters noted in addition that significant resources and infrastructure would be required for home health agencies to address depression, and that home health patients are often discharged before any outcomes from community referrals can be realized. These commenters also suggested that home health would be limited to a referral to the patient's primary care physician for further interventions, noting that home health agencies cannot be expected to provide interventions aimed at directly treating depression, such as pharmacological interventions or other follow-up that involves long-term planning.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Pain Management Concept</HD>
                    <P>Comments in support of a pain management measure concept mentioned the relevance of pain management for home health, and the impact pain has on all aspects of patients' lives. Several commenters noted that CMS retired a pain management measure from the HHQRP in 2020 due to the opioid crisis and suggested that, given this context, clarification about the intent of reintroducing this type of measure would be helpful.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Substance Use Disorders Concept</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed support for the substance use disorder (SUD) measure concept, while most did not support this concept. One commenter shared that their home health agency has been seeing more patients with this condition, noting that generally this population is rejected by home health agencies due to increased risk of hospitalization and the tendency not to make progress quickly. The commenter encouraged CMS to explore collection of SUD information and use of this information for risk-adjusted payments that would support additional home health resources. Most commenters did not support the SUD concept, with most of those who do not support going on to note that management of SUD disorders is out of scope for home health or that home health agencies are not set up to manage SUD, which requires specially trained clinicians. One of these commenters noted that because there is no data source currently available, adding a SUD measure would add burden to home health agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the input provided by commenters. While we will not be responding to specific comments submitted in response to the RFI in this final rule, we intend to use this input to inform future measure development efforts.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. The Expanded Home Health Value-Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
                    <P>As authorized by section 1115A of the Act and finalized in the CY 2016 HH PPS final rule (80 FR 68624), the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation (Innovation Center) implemented the Home Health Value-Based Purchasing (HHVBP) Model (“original Model”) in nine states on January 1, 2016. The design of the original HHVBP Model leveraged the successes and lessons learned from other CMS value-based purchasing programs and demonstrations to shift from volume-based payments to a model designed to promote the delivery of higher quality care to Medicare beneficiaries. The specific goals of the original HHVBP Model were to—</P>
                    <P>• Provide higher incentives for better quality care with greater efficiency;</P>
                    <P>• Study new potential quality and efficiency measures for appropriateness in the home health setting; and</P>
                    <P>• Enhance the current public reporting process.</P>
                    <P>
                        The original HHVBP Model resulted in an average 4.6 percent improvement in HHAs' total performance scores (TPS) and an average annual savings of $141 million to Medicare without evidence of adverse risks.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The evaluation of the original Model also found reductions in unplanned acute care hospitalizations and skilled nursing facility (SNF) stays, resulting in reductions in inpatient and SNF spending. The U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services determined that expansion of the original HHVBP Model will further reduce Medicare spending and improve the quality of care. In October 2020, the CMS Chief Actuary certified that expansion of the HHVBP Model will produce Medicare savings if expanded to all States.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/data-and-reports/2020/hhvbp-thirdann-rpt.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/certificationhome-health-value-based-purchasing-hhvbpmodel.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On January 8, 2021, CMS announced the certification of the HHVBP Model for expansion nationwide, as well as the intent to expand the Model through notice and comment rulemaking.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/newsroom/press-releases/cms-takes-action-improve-home-health-care-seniors-announces-intent-expand-home-health-value-based.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule (86 FR 62292 through 62336), we finalized the decision to expand the HHVBP Model to all Medicare certified HHAs in the 50 States, territories, and District of Columbia beginning January 1, 2022. CY 2022 was a pre-implementation year. The first payment year is CY 2025 based on the first performance year which was CY 2023. Our codified policies for the expanded HHVBP Model can be found in our regulations at 42 CFR part 484, subpart F, §§ 484.300 through 484.375.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Request for Information on Future Performance Measure Concepts for the Expanded HHVBP Model</HD>
                    <P>
                        The expanded HHVBP Model provides an opportunity to examine a broad array of quality measures that address critical gaps in care. A comprehensive review of the Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) experience, conducted by the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE), identified several objectives for HHVBP measures.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The recommended objectives emphasize measuring patient outcomes and functional status; appropriateness of care; and incentives for providers to build infrastructure to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88444"/>
                        facilitate measurement within the quality framework. The study identified the following seven objectives which served as guiding principles for the development of performance measures used in the original HHVBP Model:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Office of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation (ASPE) (2014). Measuring Success in Health Care Value-Based Purchasing Programs. Cheryl L. Damberg et al. on behalf of RAND Health.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Use a broad measure set that captures the complexity of the HHA service provided.</P>
                    <P>• Incorporate the flexibility to include Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation (IMPACT) Act of 2014 measures that are cross-cutting amongst post-acute care settings.</P>
                    <P>• Develop second-generation measures of patient outcomes, health and functional status, shared decision making, and patient activation.</P>
                    <P>• Include a balance of process, outcome, and patient experience measures.</P>
                    <P>• Advance the ability to measure cost and value.</P>
                    <P>• Add measures for appropriateness or overuse.</P>
                    <P>• Promote infrastructure investments.</P>
                    <P>A central driver of the process used to select measures for the original HHVBP Model was incorporating innovative thinking from the field while simultaneously drawing on evidence-based literature and documented best practices. Broadly, measures were selected based on their impact on care delivery and to support the goal of improving health outcomes, quality, safety, efficiency, and experience of care for patients.</P>
                    <P>As we continue to leverage our value-based purchasing initiatives to improve the quality of care furnished across healthcare settings, we are interested in considering new performance measures for inclusion in the expanded HHVBP Model. We specifically request public comments on several specific performance measures as well as general comments on other future model concepts that may be considered for inclusion in the expanded HHVBP Model. These measures are based on input from the HHVBP Technical Expert Panel (TEP), which met in Fall 2023. The TEP included experts from the home health setting specializing in quality assurance, patient advocacy, clinical work, and measure development. The meeting included a discussion of potential measures for inclusion in the expanded HHVBP Model. These include a combination of new measure concepts (for example, family caregiver measure), already developed measures that are not currently in the measure set for the expanded HHVBP Model (for example, Medicare Spending per Beneficiary (MSPB)), and new OASIS-based and claims-based measures.</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Family caregiver measure:</E>
                         Generally, TEP members were very supportive of future development of a family caregiver measure. One TEP member encouraged CMS to “think outside the box” to find ways of including the caregiver's voice in quality reporting. The TEP discussed OASIS items that provide information related to the patient's caregiver status. While acknowledging that the focus of the Medicare home health benefit is the patient, not the caregiver, they recommended that CMS consider the caregiver as a partner and measure caregivers' needs and not just the needs as they relate to the beneficiary. The TEP noted that the caregivers are often the reason patients are even able to be at home (vs. receiving care in the more costly nursing home setting). CMS intends to develop a patient-reported outcome performance measure (PRO-PM) to assess caregiver burden in the Guiding an Improved Dementia Experience (GUIDE) Model that may be a useful example for caregiver measures that may be developed for HHVBP.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Creating one or more measures based on an HHA's ability to meet caregiver needs will permit measurement of changes in caregiver quality-of-life.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             For more details on the GUIDE Model, see the Model web page (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/priorities/innovation/innovation-models/guide</E>
                            ). For more details on the caregiver measures being developed for GUIDE, see the Request for Applications (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/guide-rfa.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Falls with major injury (claims-based):</E>
                         Several TEP members suggested that CMS explore a claims-based measure of falls with major injury. One TEP member noted an Office of Inspector General (OIG) study that found that HHAs failed to report 55 percent of falls leading to major injuries and hospitalizations on their OASIS data.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While it may not be possible to identify all falls from claims data, a claims-based measure may be more accurate, although, as with other claims-based measures, data will only be available for Fee for Service patients. Due to the high rate of non-reporting, the OASIS-based falls measure may not provide accurate information about the incidence of these falls.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://oig.hhs.gov/oei/reports/OEI-05-22-00290.asp.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Medicare Spending per Beneficiary (MSPB):</E>
                         The TEP also discussed potentially adding the MSPB measure to the HHVBP applicable measure set. This cross-setting measure is part of the Home Health Quality Reporting Program and is currently publicly reported on Care Compare. MSPB may be a valid tool for measuring the value of the care that HHAs provide that may be appropriate for use in the expanded HHVBP Model. The measure will provide information on the efficiency of home health providers, as measured by Medicare payments for their patients.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Function measures to complement existing cross-setting Discharge (DC) function measure:</E>
                         Several TEP members raised a concern that the measure does not include the full self-care/activities of daily living elements (for example, bathing, dressing), which they noted as critically important for home health patients and caregivers. Another TEP member indicated that patients often already have capacity to do things like roll and sit up when they enter home health care but may not be able to bathe or get dressed without assistance. The TEP emphasized the importance of functional cognition, which is included in OASIS item GG0100 as part of prior functional status but is not included as part of the current DC function measure.
                    </P>
                    <P>As we continue to explore refinements to the expanded HHVBP Model, we requested comments related to adding the potential performance measures described previously to the HHVBP Measure Set. We also requested comments about other potential performance measures that we should consider for the expanded HHVBP Model.</P>
                    <P>We received the following comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         We received generally positive stakeholder reaction to the request for information on future measure concepts for the expanded HHVBP Model. Commenters also expressed concerns about each of the potential measures.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters were generally supportive of the caregiver burden assessment measure concept, but expressed concerns about how to accurately identify caregivers, how the data would be utilized, and whether the data would be used to determine home care eligibility.</P>
                    <P>Commenters generally supported the proposed measures to complement the DC function measure, particularly focusing on self-care/ADL measures. Commenters suggested that CMS consider using only one set of assessment items to measure function, as using a single set of function items would allow HHAs to focus on coding accuracy and avoid the confusion associated with multiple assessment categories.</P>
                    <P>
                        The MSPB measure received mixed comments. Supporters of this measure believe that it provides information on the efficiency of home health providers and would help identify the costs associated with the delivery of high-
                        <PRTPAGE P="88445"/>
                        quality nursing services. Comments that were critical of the measure stated that the measure's focus on spending rather than quality could create incentives to omit needed care services.
                    </P>
                    <P>The falls with major injury measure received mixed comments. Some commenters noted that it is claims-based but noted that the measure includes only Medicare fee-for-service (FFS) patients. Others stated that falls are outside of a home health agency's control given that home health services are provided on an intermittent basis.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters offered suggestions for other possible measures to include in the expanded HHVBP Model, including advance care planning, access to palliative care services, timely and appropriate referral to hospice, interoperability, the average time between referral and initiation of care, follow-up care coordination, and meaningful measures for patients with chronic conditions that are not expected to improve.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed concerns about burden and duplicative reporting with the QRP measures. One commenter suggested that CMS transition to using data sources that are not easily manipulated, such as claims data and patient experience responses instead of OASIS-based measures.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the comments that we received on the request for information. We are not responding to individual specific comments submitted in response to the RFI in this final rule, but these comments will be reviewed with stakeholders and the HHVBP TEP that provide input when considering changes to the HHVBP applicable measure set. Any changes to the applicable measure set will be made through future rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Future Approaches to Health Equity in the Expanded HHVBP Model</HD>
                    <P>
                        In alignment with the President's Executive orders 
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to support underserved communities, CMS is working to advance health equity by designing, implementing, and operationalizing policies and programs that support health for all the people served by our programs, eliminating avoidable differences in health outcomes experienced by people who are disadvantaged or underserved, and providing the care and support that our enrollees need to thrive. As we continue to leverage our value-based purchasing initiatives to improve the quality of care furnished across healthcare settings, we are interested in exploring the role of health equity in creating better health outcomes for all populations in our programs and models. In the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule, we stated that we are committed to achieving equity in health care outcomes for beneficiaries by supporting providers in quality improvement activities to reduce health disparities, enabling beneficiaries to make more informed decisions, and promoting provider accountability for health care disparities.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             Executive Orders 13985, “Advancing Racial Equity and Support for Underserved Communities Through the Federal Government,” and 14091, “Executive Order on Further Advancing Racial Equity and Support for Underserved Communities Through The Federal Government.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Quality-Initiatives-Patient-Assessment-Instruments/QualityInitiativesGenInfo/Downloads/CMS-Quality-Strategy.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CY 2023 HH PPS rule (87 FR 66874 through 66876) included an RFI, “Future Approaches to Health Equity in the expanded HHVBP Model.” The RFI requested feedback on policy changes that we should consider on the topic of health equity and specific actions the expanded HHVBP Model should take to address healthcare disparities and advance health equity. We specifically requested comments on whether we should consider incorporating adjustments into the expanded HHVBP Model to reflect the varied patient populations that HHAs serve around the country and tie health equity outcomes to the payment adjustments we make based on HHA performance under the Model. One possible approach is to make adjustments at the measure level such as stratification by which additional points are provided to HHAs that provide care to underserved communities (for example, based on dual status or other metrics).
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Payment adjustments could also be incorporated at the scoring level in forms such as modified benchmarks, points adjustments, or modified payment adjustment percentages (for example, peer comparison groups based on whether the HHA includes a high proportion of dual eligible beneficiaries). We requested commenters' views on which of these adjustments, if any, will be most effective for the expanded HHVBP Model. Commenters shared that relevant data collection and appropriate stratification are very important in addressing any health equity gaps. While not suggesting specific approaches, these commenters noted that CMS should consider potential stratification of health outcomes. Stakeholders, including providers, also shared their strategies for addressing health disparities, noting that this was an important commitment for many health provider organizations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             CMS defines an “underserved community” as “individuals who share a particular characteristic—demographic, geographic (urban or rural), or other factor—that results in them being systemically denied full opportunity to participate in aspects of economic, social, and civic life. (Source: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/priorities/innovation/key-concepts/health-equity</E>
                            )
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several previous studies have found that historically underserved communities, including Medicare beneficiaries who are dually enrolled in Medicaid, live in a low-income neighborhood, or are Black, receive lower quality home health care relative to communities not historically underserved.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Previous studies have found that patients from underserved communities have higher rates of hospital readmissions, are more likely to be discharged without functional improvement,
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are less likely to receive care from high-quality HHAs, and have worse patient-reported care experiences. Improving the quality of care for these underserved communities is an important quality improvement goal under the expanded HHVBP Model.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Joynt Maddox, K.E., Chen, L.M., Zuckerman, R., &amp; Epstein, A.M. (2018). Association Between Race, Neighborhood, and Medicaid Enrollment and Outcomes in Medicare Home Health Care. Journal of the American Geriatrics Society, 66(2), 239-246. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/jgs.15082.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             Fashaw-Walters, S.A., Rahman, M., Jarrín, O.F., Gee, G., Mor, V., Nkimbeng, M., &amp; Thomas, K.S. (2023). Getting to the root: Examining within and between home health agency inequities in functional improvement. Health Services Research. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/1475-6773.14194.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Disparities in health care outcomes may result from differences within HHAs (for example, patients from underserved communities within certain HHAs service areas are less likely to have good outcomes, such as functional improvement, discharge to community, and avoiding readmission to a hospital). These disparities may also result from differences across HHAs. That is, patients from underserved communities are less likely than other patients to receive care from good quality HHAs and thus at higher risk of poor outcomes.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The literature is mixed on the sources of these disparities. One study found that differences in readmission rates for underserved communities were primarily within, rather than across, HHAs.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another study found that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88446"/>
                        differences both within and across HHAs contribute to the overall disparities in patients' functional improvement.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This same study found that roughly half of observed individual-level disparities in the use of high-quality home health agencies was attributable to neighborhood-level factors.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Differences in care experience for underserved communities were explained by differences both within and across HHAs, but the within-HHA variations more often accounted for a greater proportion of the differences.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             Fashaw-Walters, S.A., Rahman, M., Gee, G., Mor, V., White, M., &amp; Thomas, K.S. (2022). Out Of Reach: Inequities in the Use of High-Quality Home Health Agencies. Health Affairs (Project Hope), 41(2), 247-255. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1377/hlthaff.2021.01408.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             Joynt Maddox, K.E., Chen, L.M., Zuckerman, R., &amp; Epstein, A.M. (2018). Association Between Race, Neighborhood, and Medicaid Enrollment and Outcomes in Medicare Home Health Care. Journal 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            of the American Geriatrics Society, 66(2), 239-246. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/jgs.15082.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             Fashaw-Walters, S.A., Rahman, M., Jarrín, O.F., Gee, G., Mor, V., Nkimbeng, M., &amp; Thomas, K.S. (2023). Getting to the root: Examining within and between home health agency inequities in functional improvement. Health Services Research. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/1475-6773.14194.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Fashaw-Walters SA, Rahman M, Gee G, Mor V, White M, Thomas KS. Out Of Reach: Inequities In The Use Of High-Quality Home Health Agencies. Health Aff (Millwood). 2022 Feb;41(2):247-255. doi: 10.1377/hlthaff.2021.01408. PMID: 35130066; PMCID: PMC8883595.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             Joynt Maddox, K.E., Chen, L.M., Zuckerman, R. and Epstein, A.M. (2018), Association Between Race, Neighborhood, and Medicaid Enrollment and Outcomes in Medicare Home Health Care. J Am Geriatr Soc, 66: 239-246. 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/jgs.15082.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We have been exploring several potential approaches for integrating health equity concepts into the expanded HHVBP Model. Considerations for evaluating these approaches include the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Effectiveness:</E>
                         Does the approach further the model test? What will its impact on underserved communities be?
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Feasibility:</E>
                         How long will it take to implement the approach? Are the necessary data currently being collected? How many HHAs will be included?
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Reliability:</E>
                         Does the approach allow for reliable measurement of health equity within HHAs?
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Alignment:</E>
                         Is this approach aligned with other Medicare quality and VBP Programs?
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Social Risk Factors</HD>
                    <P>As part of our work developing potential equity measures, we are exploring potential definitions to use for defining historically underserved communities. Building on feedback from other VBP proposals, our analyses have focused on three potential social risk factors dual eligible status (DES), Area Deprivation Index (ADI), and Medicaid as sole payment source that can serve as a proxy to identify the underserved. Note that we also examined low-income subsidy (LIS) as a potential measure of equity but did not include it in further analyses, because the correlation for the DES proportion and the LIS eligibility proportion is above 0.98. We also plan to assess disparities between rural and urban home health providers and patients when analyzing social risk factors, perhaps measuring rurality using the rural-urban commuting area (RUCA) codes, which classify U.S. census tracts using measures of population density, urbanization, and daily commuting.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Approaches to a Potential Health Equity Adjustment for the Expanded HHVBP Model</HD>
                    <P>One of the approaches that we have explored is the Health Equity Adjustment (HEA) that will begin in the Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) VBP starting with the FY 2027 program year. The HEA is calculated using a methodology that considers a SNF's performance on the SNF VBP quality measures and the proportion of the SNF's residents with DES. Under the HEA, SNFs that perform well on the SNF VBP quality measures and serve a higher proportion of residents with DES will earn HEA bonus points are added to normalized sum of all points a SNF is awarded for each measure. That sum is then the final SNF Performance Score. More information on the HEA can be found in the FY 2024 SNF PPS final rule (88 FR 53304).</P>
                    <P>We used the HEA methodology that was finalized for the SNF VBP to simulate how that methodology will impact the expanded HHVBP Model, using the current measure set for the Model and July 2023 Interim Performance Report (IPR) data. A limitation of using the July 2023 IPR data for these analyses is that the TPS for the July 2023 IPRs was mainly based on achievement points—there are no improvement points for the claims-based and HHCAHPS measures (due to lags in the data for these measures) and only small improvement points for the OASIS-based measures. This may distort results of the equity implications of the HEA methodology, but we believe that using the more current data is preferable to using earlier data from prior to the public health emergency. We used data on the proportion of HHA patients who are dually eligible at any point during the performance year. The HEA methodology is fully described in the FY 2024 Skilled Nursing Facility Prospective Payment System final rule (88 FR 53307 through 53316) that included—</P>
                    <P>• Determine number of measures for which HHA is a top tier performer;</P>
                    <P>• Calculate measure performance scaler;</P>
                    <P>• Calculate underserved multiplier;</P>
                    <P>• Calculate HEA Bonus Points; and,</P>
                    <P>• Add HEA Bonus Points to the Normalized Sum of all Points Awarded for Each Measure.</P>
                    <P>Using the original TPS and a TPS measure that includes the HEA bonus points), we simulated payment adjustment amounts with and without the HEA. We examined the change in payment adjustment percentage for HHAs based on their dual eligibility status (for example, decile in terms of percentage of dual eligible patients) and HEA bonus points.</P>
                    <P>Of the 10,218 active HHAs in the July 2023 quarterly monitoring analytic file, 9,591 (93.9 percent) have information on the number of beneficiaries with dual eligible status (DES) that were served by the HHA in the performance year. Of these HHAs, a TPS was calculated for 7,556. Because the HEA operates by adding points to the TPS, it is only possible to calculate a TPS including the HEA for these 7,556 HHAs that had a valid TPS.</P>
                    <P>We found that the average TPS was higher for HHAs in the highest decile in terms of share of beneficiaries with DES than for HHAs in any other decile, before applying the HEA. Applying the HEA primarily increased TPS for these HHAs that were already high performing, which increased the gap in the average payment adjustment for these HHAs and the average payment adjustment for HHAs serving a lower share of beneficiaries with DES. As a result, we concluded that the HEA using DES as the proxy for the underserved, as designed for SNF VBP, may not the best approach for the home health setting. In contrast, the average TPS was higher for HHAs with a relatively low share of beneficiaries living in a neighborhood with a high ADI.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also plan to consider how changes to the definition of the underserved population, as codified in the SNF VBP regulatory text at § 413.338(a) will alter the effects of the HEA. In contrast to the results for dual eligibility, we have found that average TPS was lower for HHAs serving a high share of beneficiaries living in a neighborhood with a high ADI. We also found that HHAs in the highest ADI quintile and highest DES quintile had lower average TPS than other groups. These results suggest that defining the underserved population using ADI or a combination of ADI and DES will alter the effects of the HEA. We are also examining measures of the underserved population that are based on the percentage of patients with Medicaid as the only payment source.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88447"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Other Health Equity Measures</HD>
                    <P>We are also exploring other health equity measures that will more directly focus on certain disparities. These could be structured in several different ways:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Measure(s) for particular underserved communities:</E>
                         Performance on one or more measures for specific underserved communities (for example, based on DES).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Measure(s) based on within-provider differences in performance for underserved communities (for example, based on DES):</E>
                         This type of measure could be based on a single outcome or multiple outcomes (that is, a composite measure).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Measure(s) based on the worst performing group:</E>
                         Calculate performance scores for multiple patient groups and set the measure performance equal to the score for the worst performing group.
                    </P>
                    <P>We have examined the reportability of these other health equity measures and have found that several HHAs will not have a sufficient number of DES beneficiaries for these measures to be calculated. Our analyses of data used for the July 2023 IPRs found that, overall, 25.4 percent of HHAs served fewer than 12 beneficiaries with DES. This suggests that roughly one-fourth of HHAs may not serve enough beneficiaries with DES to calculate a performance measure using only beneficiaries with DES. The percentage of HHAs that served fewer than 12 beneficiaries with DES or fewer than 12 beneficiaries without DES was 36.5 percent. Although the reportability for these measures do exclude some smaller HHAs that serve fewer underserved patients, the reportability level will be closely aligned to the current SNF VBP HEA. As the 25.4 percent proportion that are not reported is not that much more than is currently being excluded on the SNF VBP HEA where SNFs in the bottom 20 percent of proportion duals are excluded. The impact or reportability of a potential HHVBP HEA needs more analysis for future consideration.</P>
                    <P>Looking forward, we recognize that the exact structure of the current SNF VBP HEA may not be the most efficient approach for the unique attributes of care being provided in the home versus care in the SNF. However, CMS is committed to and working towards the establishment of an HHVBP HEA that rewards HHAs that provide high quality care to underserved communities. We will continue to explore the addition of other measures, using other proxies for identifying the underserved and possibly adjusting the scoring mechanism to be more effective at addressing the issue.</P>
                    <P>As a reminder, we stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77790), we will gather at least 2 years of performance data, and study effects of the expanded Model on health equity outcomes before incorporating any potential changes to the expanded Model regarding health equity.</P>
                    <P>We received the following comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Commenters supported our efforts to advance health equity within the expanded HHVBP Model. Additionally, commenters provided specific comments, concerns, and requests related to the expanded HHVBP Model falling into the following themes:
                    </P>
                    <P>While most commenters were supportive of efforts to incorporate health equity into the expanded HHVBP Model, some of the supportive comments also expressed concerns about implementation issues including provider burden of reporting requirements for equity measures. Some commenters expressly supported the adoption of the Health Equity Adjustment (HEA) used in the SNF VBP Program in the expanded HHVBP Model. Other commenters expressed concern that the expanded HHVBP Model may exacerbate HHAs' disincentives to treat some patients. One commenter suggested that we consider ways to incentivize agencies who care for underserved communities and/or chronically complex patients.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the comments that we received and are taking these comments into account, as appropriate, as we continue to work to develop policies, quality measures, and measurement strategies on health equity. We plan to review these comments with the HHVBP TEP to provide input to inform development of health equity quality measures.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Medicare Home Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Items and Services</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Statutory Background</HD>
                    <P>Division FF, section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 added coverage and payment of items and services related to administration of IVIG in a patient's home of a patient with a diagnosed primary immune deficiency disease furnished on or after January 1, 2024. Division FF, section 4134(a) of the CAA, 2023 amended the existing IVIG benefit category at section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act by adding coverage for IVIG administration items and services in a patient's home of a patient with a diagnosed primary immune deficiency disease. This benefit covers items and services related to administration of IVIG in a patient's home of a patient with a diagnosed primary immune deficiency disease. In addition, section 4134(b) of Division FF of the CAA, 2023 amended section 1842(o) of the Act by adding a new paragraph (8) that established the payment for IVIG administration items and services. Under the CAA, 2023 provision, payment for these IVIG administration items and services is required to be a bundled payment separate from the payment for the IVIG product, made to a supplier for all items and services related to administration of IVIG furnished in the home during a calendar day.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Overview</HD>
                    <P>
                        Primary immune deficiency diseases (PIDD) are conditions triggered by genetic defects that cause a lack of and/or impairment in antibody function, resulting in the body's immune system not being able to function in a normal way. Immune globulin (Ig) therapy is used to temporarily replace some of the antibodies (that is, immunoglobulins) that are missing or not functioning properly in people with PIDD.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The goal of Ig therapy is to use Ig obtained from normal donor plasma to maintain a sufficient level of antibodies in the blood of individuals with PIDD to fight off bacteria and viruses. Ig is formulated for both intravenous and subcutaneous administration (SCIg). Clinicians can prescribe either product to the beneficiary with PIDD according to clinical need and preference, and beneficiaries can switch between intravenous and subcutaneous administration of Ig.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Perez EE, Orange JS, Bonilla F, et al. (2017) Update on the use of immunoglobulin in human disease: A review of evidence; Journal Allergy Clin Immunol. 139(3S): S1—S46.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Legislative Summary</HD>
                    <P>Section 642 of the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (Pub. L. 108-173) amended section 1861 of the Act to provide Medicare Part B coverage of the IVIG product for the treatment of PIDD in the home, but not the items and services involved with administration.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 101 of the Medicare IVIG Access and Strengthening Medicare and Repaying Taxpayers Act of 2012 (Medicare IVIG Access Act) (Pub. L. 112-242) mandated the establishment, implementation, and evaluation of a 3-year Medicare Intravenous Immune Globulin (IVIG) Demonstration Project (the Demonstration) under Part B of title 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88448"/>
                        XVIII of the Act. The Demonstration was implemented to evaluate the benefits of providing coverage and payment for items and services needed for the home administration of IVIG for the treatment of PIDD, and to determine if it will improve access to home IVIG therapy for patients with PIDD. The Medicare IVIG Access Act mandated that Medicare establish a per visit payment amount for the items and services necessary for the home administration of IVIG therapy for beneficiaries with specific PIDD diagnoses. The Demonstration did not include Medicare payment for the IVIG product which continues to be paid under Part B in accordance with sections 1842(o) and 1847(A) of the Act. The Demonstration covered and paid a per visit payment amount for the items and services needed for the administration of IVIG in the home. Items may include infusion set and tubing, and services include nursing services to complete an infusion of IVIG lasting on average three to five hours.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             Updated Interim Report to Congress: Evaluation of the Medicare Patient Intravenous Immunoglobulin Demonstration Project, 2022: 
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/data-and-reports/2022/ivig-updatedintrtc.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>On September 28, 2017, Congress passed the Disaster Tax Relief and Airport and Airway Extension Act of 2017 (Pub. L. 115-63). Section 302 of Pub. L. 115-63 extended the Demonstration through December 31, 2020.</P>
                    <P>Division CC, section 104, of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Pub. L. 116-260) further extended the Demonstration for another 3 years through December 31, 2023.</P>
                    <P>Division FF, section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 (Pub. L. 117-328) mandated that CMS establish permanent coverage and payment for items and services related to administration of IVIG in a patient's home of a patient with PIDD. The permanent home IVIG items and services payment is effective for home IVIG administration furnished on or after January 1, 2024. Payment for these items and services is required to be a separate bundled payment made to a supplier for all administration items and services furnished in the home during a calendar day. The statute provides that payment amount may be based on the amount established under the Demonstration. The standard Part B coinsurance and the Part B deductible is required to apply. In addition, that statute states that the separate bundled payment for these IVIG administration items and services does not apply for individuals receiving services under the Medicare home health benefit. The CAA, 2023 provision clarifies that a supplier who furnishes these services meet the requirements of a supplier of medical equipment and supplies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Demonstration Overview</HD>
                    <P>Under the Demonstration, Medicare provided a bundled payment under Part B, that is separate from the IVIG product, for items and services that are necessary to administer IVIG in the home to enrolled beneficiaries who are not otherwise homebound and receiving services under the home health benefit. The Demonstration only applied to situations where the beneficiary required IVIG for the treatment of certain PIDD diagnoses or was receiving SCIg to treat PIDD and wished to switch to IVIG.</P>
                    <P>Services covered under the Demonstration were required to be provided and billed by specialty pharmacies, enrolled as durable medical equipment (DME) suppliers, that provided the Medicare Part B-covered Ig. The covered items and services under the Demonstration were paid as a single bundle and subject to coinsurance and deductible in the same manner as other Part B services. HHAs were not eligible to bill for services covered under the Demonstration but could bill for services related to the administration of IVIG if the patient was receiving services under a home health episode of care, in which case the home health payment covered the items and services.</P>
                    <P>In order to participate in the Demonstration, beneficiaries must have met the following requirements:</P>
                    <P>• Be eligible to have the IVIG paid for at home under Part B FFS.</P>
                    <P>• Have a diagnosis of PIDD.</P>
                    <P>• Not be enrolled in a Medicare Advantage plan.</P>
                    <P>• Cannot be in a home health episode of care on the date of service (in such circumstances, the home health payment covers the services).</P>
                    <P>• Must receive the service in their home or a setting that is “home like”.</P>
                    <P>To participate in the Demonstration, the beneficiary was required to submit an application, signed by their physician.</P>
                    <P>DME suppliers billing for the items and services covered under the Demonstration must have met the following requirements:</P>
                    <P>• Meet all Medicare, as well as other national, state, and local standards and regulations applicable to the provision of services related to home infusion of IVIG.</P>
                    <P>• Be enrolled and current with the National Supplier Clearinghouse.</P>
                    <P>• Be able to bill the DME Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs).</P>
                    <P>CMS implemented a bundled per visit payment amount under the Demonstration, statutorily required to be based on the national per visit low-utilization payment adjustment (LUPA) for skilled nursing services used under the Medicare HH PPS established under section 1895 of the Act. The payment amount was subject to coinsurance and deductible.</P>
                    <P>For billing under the Demonstration, CMS established a “Q” code for services, supplies, and accessories used in the home:</P>
                    <P>• Q2052—(Long Description)—Services, supplies, and accessories used in the home under Medicare Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) Demonstration.</P>
                    <P>• Q2052—(Short Description)—IVIG demo, services/supplies.</P>
                    <P>Suppliers billed Q2052 as a separate claim line on the same claim for the IVIG product.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Scope of Expanded IVIG Benefit</HD>
                    <P>As discussed previously, Division FF, section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 added coverage of items and services related to the administration of IVIG in a patient's home, to the existing IVIG benefit category at section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act, effective January 1, 2024. IVIG is covered in the home under Part B if all the following criteria are met:</P>
                    <P>• It is an approved pooled plasma derivative for the treatment of primary immune deficiency disease.</P>
                    <P>• The patient has a diagnosis of primary immune deficiency disease.</P>
                    <P>• The IVIG is administered in the home.</P>
                    <P>• The treating practitioner has determined that administration of the IVIG in the patient's home is medically appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, as section 4134(a)(1) of the CAA, 2023 adds the items and services (furnished on or after January 1, 2024) related to the administration of IVIG to the benefit category defined under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act (the Social Security Act provision requiring coverage of the IVIG product in the home), the same beneficiary eligibility requirements for the IVIG product apply for the IVIG administration items and services. Subpart B of part 410 of the regulations sets out the medical and other health services requirements under Part B. The regulations at § 410.10 identify the services that are subject to the conditions and limitations specified in subpart B. Section 410.10(y) includes intravenous immune globulin administered in the home for the treatment of primary immune deficiency 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88449"/>
                        diseases. Section 410.12 outlines general basic conditions and limitations for coverage of medical and other health services under Part B, as identified in § 410.10. Section 410.12(a) includes the conditions that must be met for these services to be covered, and include the following:
                    </P>
                    <P>• When the services must be furnished. The services must be furnished while the individual is in a period of entitlement.</P>
                    <P>• By whom the services must be furnished. The services must be furnished by a facility or other entity as specified in §§ 410.14 through 410.69.</P>
                    <P>• Physician certification and recertification requirements. If the services are subject to physician certification requirements, they must be certified as being medically necessary, and as meeting other applicable requirements, in accordance with subpart B of part 424.</P>
                    <P>
                        As the definition of IVIG at section 1861(zz) of the Act now includes the items and services necessary to administer IVIG in the home, in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77793), we finalized the amendment to the regulation at § 410.10(y) to add “items and services”. Furthermore, sub-regulatory guidance documents (that is, IVIG LCD (33610) 
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and IVIG Policy Article (A52509) 
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) provide direction on coding and coverage for the IVIG product at home. Through the Local Coverage Determination (LCD) for Intravenous Immune Globulin (L33610),
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Durable Medical Equipment Medicare administrative contractors (DME MACs) specify the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes for which IVIG derivatives are covered under this benefit. Therefore, a beneficiary must be receiving one of the IVIG derivatives specified under the LCD for IVIG to qualify to receive the items and services covered under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act. Furthermore, for any item (including IVIG) to be covered by Medicare, it must—(1) be eligible for a defined Medicare benefit category; (2) be reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of illness or injury or to improve the functioning of a malformed body member; and (3) meet all other applicable Medicare statutory and regulatory requirements. Policy guidance for the LCD for IVIG 
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         identifies the ICD-10-CM codes that support medical necessity for the provision of IVIG in the home. These diagnosis codes are listed in table 27.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/lcd.aspx?LCDId=33610.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/article.aspx?articleId=52509.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             Local Coverage Determination (LCD): IVIG (L33610) 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/lcd.aspx?LCDId=33610&amp;ContrId=389.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/article.aspx?articleId=52509.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="351">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.057</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with this guidance, a beneficiary must be diagnosed with one of the primary immune deficiencies identified by the ICD-10-CM codes, set out in table 27 and as updated in subregulatory guidance, to qualify to receive the items and services covered under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act. This policy guidance is revised as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88450"/>
                        needed by the DME MACs. And finally, to qualify to receive IVIG in the home, section 1861(zz) of the Act requires that a treating practitioner must have determined that administration of the IVIG in the patient's home is medically appropriate. Accordingly, we updated the subregulatory guidance pursuant to the CAA, 2023 to reflect the expansion of the benefit to the items and services related to the home administration of IVIG. Leveraging the existing regulations and sub-regulatory guidance maintains one set of standards across the entire IVIG benefit (that is, for the product and for the related items and services needed for home administration).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Items and Services Related to the Home Administration of IVIG</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 101(c) of the Medicare IVIG Access Act established coverage for items and services needed for the in-home administration of IVIG for the treatment of primary immunodeficiencies under a Medicare demonstration program. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, we stated that we interpreted section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 to make permanent coverage of the same items and services under the existing IVIG Demonstration to promote continuous and comprehensive coverage for beneficiaries who choose to receive home IVIG therapy (88 FR 77794). Under the Demonstration, the bundled payment for the items and services necessary to administer the drug intravenously in the home included the infusion set and tubing, and nursing services to complete an infusion of IVIG lasting on average three to five hours.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although “items and services” are not explicitly defined under section 4134 of the CAA, 2023, we stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS proposed rule (88 FR 43755) that we believed the items and services covered under the Demonstration are inherently the same items and services that will be covered under the payment added to the benefit category at section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act. We also did not enumerate a list of services that must be included in the separate bundled payment; however, we stated that we anticipated the nursing services will include such professional services as IVIG administration, assessment and site care, and education (88 FR 43755). Moreover, we stated that it is up to the provider to determine the services and supplies that are appropriate and necessary to administer the IVIG for each individual, and this may or may not include the use of a pump. Because IVIG does not have to be administered through a pump (although it can be), external infusion pumps are not covered under the DME benefit for the administration of IVIG. An external infusion pump is only covered under the DME benefit if the infusion pump is necessary to safely administer the drug. The Local Coverage Determination (LCD) for External Infusion Pumps identify the drugs and biologicals that the DME Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) have determined require the use of such pumps and cannot be administered via a disposable elastomeric pump or the gravity drip method.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As such, under the IVIG Demonstration, coverage did not extend to the DME pump, and thereby, is not covered separately under the home IVIG items and services payment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             Updated Interim Report to Congress: Evaluation of the Medicare Patient Intravenous Immunoglobulin Demonstration Project, August 2022 found at: 
                            <E T="03">https://innovation.cms.gov/data-and-reports/2022/ivig-updatedintrtc.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/lcd.aspx?LCDId=33794.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Home IVIG Items and Services and the Relationship to/Interaction With Home Health and Home Infusion Therapy Services</HD>
                    <P>Prior to enactment of the CAA, 2023, IVIG administration items and services were explicitly excluded from coverage under the Part B IVIG benefit. However, if a beneficiary was considered homebound and qualified for the home health benefit, the items and services needed to administer IVIG in the home could be covered as home health services. Section 4134(b) of the CAA, 2023 excludes the IVIG items and services bundled payment in the case of an individual receiving home health services under section 1895 of the Act. Therefore, we clarified in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule that a beneficiary does not have to be considered confined to the home (that is, homebound) in order to be eligible for the home IVIG benefit; however, homebound beneficiaries requiring items and services related to the administration of home IVIG, and who are receiving services under a home health plan of care, may continue to receive services related to the administration of home IVIG as covered home health services (88 FR 77794). We also clarified that the items and services related to the administration of IVIG in the home, and as identified on the home health plan of care, will be included in the payment for the 30-day home health period payment. HHAs must provide home health items and services included on the plan of care either directly or under arrangement and must bill and be paid under the HH PPS for such covered home health services. If an HHA is unable to furnish the items and services related to the administration of IVIG (as indicated in the plan of care) in the home, they are responsible for arranging these services (including arranging for services in an outpatient facility) and are required to bill these services as home health services under the HH PPS (88 FR 77795).</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the home infusion therapy (HIT) services benefit, we reminded readers that Medicare payment for home infusion therapy services is for services furnished in coordination with the furnishing of intravenous and subcutaneous infusion drugs and biologicals specified on the DME LCD for External Infusion Pumps (L33794),
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         with the exception of insulin pump systems and certain drugs and biologicals on a self-administered drug exclusion list (88 FR 77794). For the drugs and biologicals to be covered under the Part B DME benefit they must require infusion through an external infusion pump. If the drug or biological can be infused through a disposable pump or by a gravity drip, it does not meet this criterion. IVIG does not require an external infusion pump for administration purposes and therefore, is explicitly excluded from the DME LCD for External Infusion Pumps. However, subcutaneous immunoglobulin (SCIg) is covered under the DME LCD for External Infusion Pumps, and items and services for administration of SCIg in the home are covered under the HIT services benefit. While a DME supplier and a HIT supplier (or a DME supplier also enrolled as a HIT supplier) could not furnish services related to the administration of immunoglobulin (either IVIG or SCIg) to the same beneficiary on the same day, a beneficiary could potentially receive services under both benefits for services related to the infusion of different drugs. For example, a DME supplier also accredited and enrolled as a HIT supplier, could furnish HIT services to a beneficiary receiving intravenous acyclovir as well as IVIG, and bill both the IVIG items and services benefit and the HIT services benefit on the same date of service. We also recognize that a beneficiary may, on occasion, switch from receiving immunoglobulin subcutaneously to intravenously and vice versa, and as such, utilize both the HIT services and the IVIG items and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88451"/>
                        services benefits within the same month.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             Local Coverage Determination (LCD): External Infusion Pumps (L33794) 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/view/lcd.aspx?LCDId=33794.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Home IVIG Administration Items and Services Payment</HD>
                    <P>Section 101 of the Medicare IVIG Access Act established the authority for a Demonstration providing payment for items and services needed for the in-home administration of IVIG. In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, we stated that we believed the provisions established under that law serve as the basis for the conditions for payment with respect to the requirements that must be met for Medicare payment to be made to suppliers for the items and services covered under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act and clarified that the relevant regulations and subregulatory guidance also apply.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Home IVIG Administration Items and Services Supplier Type</HD>
                    <P>Section 4134(b) of the CAA, 2023 amends section 1842(o) of the Act by adding a new paragraph (8) that establishes a separate bundled payment to the supplier for all items and services related to the administration of such intravenous immune globulin, described in section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act to such individual in the patient's home during a calendar day. Section 4134(c) of the CAA, 2023 amends section 1834(j)(5) of the Act, which are a requirement for supplier of medical equipment and supplies, by adding a new subparagraph (E), clarifying with respect to payment, that items and services related to the administration of intravenous immune globulin furnished on or after January 1, 2024, as described in section 1861(zz) of the Act, are included in the definition of medical equipment and supplies. This means that suppliers that furnish IVIG administration items and services must meet the existing durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS) supplier requirement for payment purposes under this benefit. Suppliers of IVIG administration items and services must enroll as a DMEPOS supplier and comply with the Medicare program's DMEPOS supplier standards (found at 42 CFR 424.57(c)) and DMEPOS quality standards to become accredited for furnishing medical equipment and supplies. Further, to receive payment for home IVIG items and services, the supplier must also meet the requirements under subpart A of part 424 (Conditions for Medicare Payment). The DMEPOS supplier may subcontract with a provider to meet the professional services identified in section V.B.1. of this final rule. All professionals who furnish services directly, under an individual contract, or under arrangement with a DMEPOS supplier to furnish services related to the administration of IVIG in the home, must be legally authorized (licensed, certified, or registered) in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws, and must act only within the scope of their State license or State certification, or registration. A supplier may not contract with any entity that is currently excluded from the Medicare program, any State health care programs or from any other Federal procurement or non-procurement programs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Home IVIG Administration</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act defines benefit coverage of intravenous immune globulin for the treatment of primary immune deficiency diseases 
                        <E T="03">in the home.</E>
                         Under the IVIG Demonstration, beneficiaries are eligible to participate if they receive IVIG services in “their home or a setting that is `home like' ”.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 410.12(b) identifies the supplier types who can furnish the services identified at § 410.10. Section 410.38 provides the conditions for payment for DME suppliers and identifies the institutions that may not qualify as the patient's home. As such, the home administration of IVIG items and services must be furnished in the patient's home, defined as a place of residence used as the home of an individual, including an institution that is used as a home. An institution that is used as a home may not be a hospital, critical access hospital (CAH), or SNF as defined in § 410.38(b).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             Intravenous Immune Globulin Demonstration MLN Fact Sheet: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/mln3191598-intravenous-immune-globulin-demonstration.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Home IVIG Items and Services Payment Rate</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Payment Rate Update for Home IVIG Items and Services for CY 2025</HD>
                    <P>Section 1842(o) of the Act provides the authority for the development of a separate bundled payment for Medicare-covered items and services related to the administration of intravenous immune globulin to an individual in the patient's home during a calendar day, in an amount that the Secretary determines to be appropriate. This section of the Act also states payment may be based on the payment established pursuant to section 101(d) of the Medicare IVIG Access Act. Section 4134(d) of the CAA, 2023 amends section 1833(a)(1) of the Act to provide that, with respect to items and services related to the administration of IVIG furnished on or after January 1, 2024, as described in section 1861(zz) of the Act, the amounts paid shall be the lesser of the 80 percent of the actual charge or the payment amount established under section 1842(o)(8) of the Act.</P>
                    <P>In accordance with section 101(d) of the Medicare IVIG Access Act, the Secretary established a per visit Demonstration payment amount for the items and services needed for the in-home administration of IVIG based on the national per visit low-utilization payment amount (LUPA) under the prospective payment system for home health services established under section 1895 of the Social Security Act. Under the Demonstration, the bundled payment amount for services needed for the home administration of IVIG included infusion services provided by a skilled nurse. Therefore, the bundled payment was based on the LUPA amount for skilled nursing, based on an average 4-hour infusion. The initial payment rate for the first year of the Demonstration, was based on the full skilled nursing LUPA for the first 90 minutes of the infusion and 50 percent of the LUPA for each hour thereafter for an additional 3 hours. Thereafter, the payment rate was annually updated based on the nursing LUPA rate for such year. The service was subject to coinsurance and deductibles similar to other Part B services.</P>
                    <P>
                        We stated in the CY 2024 HH PPS proposed rule (88 FR 43755), we believed payment under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act covers the same items and services covered under the IVIG Demonstration. We also agreed that the professional services needed to safely administer IVIG in the home will be services furnished by a registered nurse (88 FR 43756). Therefore, we stated that setting the CY 2024 payment rate for the home IVIG items and services under section 1861(s)(2)(Z) of the Act, based on the CY 2023 payment amount established under the Demonstration was appropriate. However, we noted the Demonstration used the LUPA rate, which is annually adjusted by the wage index budget neutrality factor, as well as the home health payment rate update percentage, and stated that we believed it was appropriate to update the CY 2023 IVIG services Demonstration rate by only the CY 2024 home health payment rate update percentage. We stated that we will not include the wage index budget neutrality factor, as the IVIG items and services payment rate is not statutorily required to be geographically wage adjusted. Further, although section 1842(o) of the Act states that payment is for the items and services furnished 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88452"/>
                        to an individual in the patient's home during a 
                        <E T="03">calendar day,</E>
                         we stated that, as the statute aligns the payment amount with such amount determined under the Demonstration, we believed the best reading of “calendar day” is “per visit.” Additionally, we stated that we will expect a supplier to furnish only one visit per calendar day (88 FR 43756).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, we established a new subpart R under the regulations at 42 CFR part 414 to incorporate payment provisions for the implementation of the IVIG items and services payment in accordance with section 1842(o) of the Act for home IVIG items and services furnished on or after January 1, 2024. We finalized a policy at § 414.1700(a), that a single payment amount is made for items and services furnished by a DMEPOS supplier 
                        <E T="03">per visit.</E>
                         We finalized a policy at § 414.1700(b), setting the initial payment amount equivalent to the CY 2023 “Services, Supplies, and Accessories Used in the home under the Medicare IVIG Demonstration” payment amount, updated by the CY 2024 home health update percentage of 3.0 percent. We also finalized a policy at § 414.1700(c) to annually update the CY 2025 home IVIG items and services payment rate and subsequent years, by the home health payment rate update percentage for such year. Therefore, in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, we proposed the CY 2025 home IVIG items and services payment rate would be the CY 2024 IVIG items and services payment rate of $420.48 updated by the proposed home health payment update percentage of 2.5 percent ($420.48 * 1.025 = $430.99).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         We received a few comments on the CY 2025 update of the home IVIG items and services payment rate. Overall, commenters remained supportive of CMS's implementation of the home IVIG items and services benefit, including the payment rate increase. However, one commenter stated that the LUPA-based rate calculation for the IVIG items and services payment rate undervalues the nursing and pharmacy services involved in the provision of home-administered IVIG. This commenter stated this rate does not account for costs such as travel time, dedicated one-on-one nursing, and other pharmacy-related expenses that happen remotely. A commenter also requested CMS publish an annual report on the home IVIG items and services benefit, similar to the HIT Monitoring Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The comments regarding the methodology that established the initial home IVIG items and services rate are out of scope of this rule, as this policy was finalized in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule; however, since the implementation of the home IVIG Demonstration Program, CMS has interpreted the services covered under this payment to be nursing services furnished in the patient's home. Indeed, the Medicare IVIG Access Act statutorily required this payment to be based on the national per visit low-utilization payment adjustment (LUPA) for skilled nursing services used under the Medicare HH PPS established under section 1895 of the Act. In addition, section 1842(o)(8) of the Act states that payment may be based on the payment established pursuant to subsection (d) of section 101 of the Medicare IVIG Access and Strengthening Medicare and Repaying Taxpayers Act of 2012. We anticipate including a public monitoring report on the home IVIG items and services benefit on our Home Infusion Therapy (HIT)/IVIG web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/payment/fee-for-service-providers/home-infusion-therapy</E>
                         once we have sufficient data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing the CY 2025 home IVIG items and services payment rate of $431.83 ($420.48 updated by the final home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent ($420.48 * 1.027 = $431.83)). The final home IVIG items and services payment rate will be posted in the Billing and Rates section of the CMS' Home Infusion Therapy (HIT) web page (found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/payment/fee-for-service-providers/home-infusion-therapy</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In subsequent years, if CMS does not intend to propose changes to its established methodology for calculating the IVIG items and services payment, this payment rate will be updated using CMS's established methodology via the Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update Change Request or Technical Direction Letter (TDL) and posted on the CMS HIT/Home IVIG Services web page.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For more in-depth information regarding the finalized policies associated with the scope of the home IVIG items and services payment, we refer readers to the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule (88 FR 77791).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/payment/fee-for-service-providers/home-infusion-therapy.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Home Health Agency Condition of Participation (CoP) Changes and Long Term Care (LTC) Facility Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Home Health Agency CoP Changes</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background and Statutory Authority</HD>
                    <P>CMS has broad statutory authority to establish health and safety standards for most Medicare- and Medicaid-participating provider and supplier types. The Secretary gives CMS the authority to enact regulations that are necessary in the interest of the health and safety of individuals who are furnished services in an institution, while other laws, as outlined later, give CMS the authority to prescribe regulations as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the program. Sections 1861(o) and 1891 of the Act authorize the Secretary to establish the requirements that an HHA must meet to participate in the Medicare Program, and these conditions of participation (CoPs) are set forth in regulations at 42 CFR part 484.</P>
                    <P>The CoPs apply to the HHA as an entity, as well as to the services furnished to each individual patient under the care of the HHA. In accordance with section 1861(o) of the Act, the Secretary is responsible for establishing additional CoPs besides those set out in the statute that are adequate to protect the health and safety of the individuals under HHA care. Section 1891(c)(2) of the Act establishes the requirements for surveying HHAs to determine whether they meet the CoPs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Updates to the Home Health Agency CoPs To Require HHAs To Establish an Acceptance-to-Service Policy (§ 484.105(i))</HD>
                    <P>
                        Admission to HHA services is a critical step in the process of patients receiving timely, appropriate care to meet their needs. In accordance with the requirements of § 484.105(f)(1), each HHA must furnish skilled nursing services and at least one other therapeutic service (physical therapy, speech-language pathology, occupational therapy, medical social services, or home health aide services) on a visiting basis and in a place of residence that is used as a patient's home. As such, the services provided by each HHA vary, creating challenges for individuals seeking to find the right HHA to meet their unique care needs. Likewise, the unique mix of services provided by an HHA also necessitates an HHA-specific approach to accepting referrals for care to ensure that the HHA is capable of meeting the needs of the referred patient, in accordance with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88453"/>
                        requirements of § 484.60. Thus, a timely, appropriate admission process serves both prospective patients seeking care and ensures that HHAs accept for treatment only those patients for whom there is a reasonable expectation of being able to meet the patient's care needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule, researchers have found that timely admission to home health, and in turn the initiation of services are key to good home health patient outcomes. To address concerns regarding the referral and acceptance process and their implications for prospective and current patients, we proposed to add a new standard at § 484.105(i) that would require HHAs to develop, implement, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy that is applied consistently to each prospective patient referred for home health care. We proposed, at § 484.105(i)(1)(i) through (iv), to require that the policy be reviewed annually and address, at minimum, the following criteria related to the HHA's capacity to provide patient care: the anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, the HHA's case load and case mix, the HHA's staffing levels, and the skills and competencies of the HHA staff. These proposed elements were designed to inform an HHA's assessment of its capacity and determine its suitability to meet the anticipated needs of the prospective patient that has been referred for HHA services. We also proposed that the patient acceptance-to-service policy be applied consistently to ensure that HHAs only accept those patients for whom there is a reasonable expectation that the HHA can meet the referred patient's needs.</P>
                    <P>We received a total of 78 comments from individuals, health care professionals, national associations and patient advocacy groups. In the following section, we discuss the public comments received on § 484.105(i) that would require HHAs to develop, implement, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy that is applied consistently to each prospective patient referred for home health care.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters supported the proposal for HHAs to develop, implement, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy, with some observing that acceptance-to-service is an equity issue and that delays in finding appropriate care can worsen outcomes for patients. A commenter supported the clarification that HHAs should not accept patients they cannot serve. However, another commenter recommended that CMS ensure that the proposed acceptance-to-service policy does not result in the denial of access to services because the acceptance-to-service policy erroneously indicates that the HHA is unable to meet a specific patient's needs. A commenter stated that the acceptance-to-service policy would lead to improved workload distribution for HHA staff but expressed concern that HHA administrators may misrepresent the skills of the staff in order to accept more patients.
                    </P>
                    <P>Conversely, other commenters expressed concern regarding the proposed policy, suggesting that the existing requirements already adequately address patient access to home health services and that HHAs would not accept patients to whom they could not reasonably expect to provide care. A commenter shared that HHAs may already use the proposed factors in determining whether to accept patients but that maintaining the information in an appropriate format would add burden. Commenters stated that the proposed CoP would not address the underlying challenges that prevent HHAs from accepting patients, such as staffing challenges, patient complexity, unnecessary work due to referrals being sent to multiple HHAs, care needs that are inappropriate for the home setting, an inability to identify a community practitioner to oversee patient care, and challenges in receiving responses to questions regarding care plans from referring providers. These commenters suggested not finalizing the proposed requirements and proposing different requirements in the future, with one commenter recommending that CMS convene a TEP to better understand the challenges associated with finding appropriate home health care.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters support for these new proposals. While we agree that the existing CoPs already address some essential steps in the acceptance and admission process, we do not agree that these existing requirements fully meet the needs of patients. While we acknowledge the feedback highlighting the varying underlying challenges that may prevent HHAs from accepting patients, as noted by some commenters, delays in finding appropriate care can worsen outcomes for patients and acceptance-to-service may be an equity issue for patients with complex needs. The consistent application of an acceptance-to-service policy to all referrals, when combined with making certain information publicly available, is likely to reduce delays in finding appropriate care while ensuring that clinical factors are used to guide decision making on accepting patients to HHA service, so as to assure that an HHA is prepared to meet each patient's care needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>We also agree with the commenter that the acceptance-to-service policy may lead to a better HHA staff workload distribution as HHAs use a more deliberative, equally applied approach in accepting patients for HHA services. In accordance with the requirements of § 484.105, the HHA must organize, manage, and administer its resources to attain and maintain the highest practicable functional capacity, including providing optimal care to achieve the goals and outcomes identified in the patient's plan of care, for each patient's medical, nursing, and rehabilitative needs. As such, each HHA should already be well versed in understanding staff ability and skills, current workloads and other circumstances that may affect case load. These are well established concepts that we are formalizing within a policy that we expect will be applied equally and consistently when evaluating prospective referred patients. We appreciate the commenter sharing the observation that some HHAs have existing referral policies that reflect some of the requirements included in our proposal and that HHAs are already using these factors in determining whether to accept patients. We note that we also received a comment stating that one HHA accreditation organization already requires HHAs to have a referral policy. Therefore, we believe that many HHAs have existing policies and procedures that will support compliance with these new requirements and minimize the aggregate initial effort necessary to work towards compliance.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that data collection and reporting for such a policy will create additional administrative burden for HHAs. Other commenters expressed general concerns about the potential burdens of developing and maintaining an acceptance-to-service policy, with one suggesting that CMS should reimburse HHAs for the time and effort required to develop and maintain such policies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We understand commenters concerns regarding burden, specifically, the development and maintenance of the policy. However, we believe the benefits to the referred and current patient, in terms of enabling more timely care and better outcomes outweigh the administrative costs of policy development. Furthermore, as noted previously, many commenters have acknowledged existing business practices that support compliance with the policy. We encourage HHAs to leverage their partnerships throughout 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88454"/>
                        the stakeholder community to gain exposure to existing practices that could assist in minimizing facility burden associated with compliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters suggested regarding ways to revise the proposed policy, such as addressing the HHA's ability to provide the required services, criteria to determine the patient's eligibility for care, and procedures for accepting referrals. A commenter also stated that appropriate patient placement with a home health agency is more nuanced than simply tracking staffing numbers and general competencies. The commenter recommended ensuring HHAs include nurse input to determine whether a patient placement within an agency is possible based on patient acuity and care levels.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We agree that appropriate patient placement with a home health agency is complex and that it is important that the HHAs have the appropriate staff input to determine whether a patient placement within an agency is possible based on patient acuity, care levels, and HHA resources. We acknowledge that the skills and clinical knowledge of a nurse may be beneficial to this process. However, we recognize that there are other clinicians, such as rehabilitation therapists, that may be appropriate as well. Therefore, we believe it is best to allow the HHA the flexibility to determine which staff members should be included in this process. We agree that HHAs should also consider including criteria to determine the patient's eligibility for care and procedures for accepting referrals as part of their acceptance-to-service policy to improve their referral acceptance process. While we agree that procedures for accepting patient referrals may fall within the scope of the CoPs, we do not believe that it is necessary to add this regulatory requirement for specific procedures at this time. We will continue to monitor the timeliness of patient access to HHA services and follow-on initial patient assessment activities to determine whether such regulations may be needed in the future.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed concern that CMS did not discuss how HHAs would be evaluated for their compliance with the acceptance-to-service policy. Some of these commenters stated that HHAs would have to begin tracking patients that were referred to their agency but not accepted for service because currently HHAs only have data regarding patients to whom they provide care. In addition, commenters expressed concern that this policy would focus on access instead of quality and safety, and that surveyors would require training to be able to fairly and consistently evaluate compliance. A commenter recommended that CMS collect data regarding patients who are denied service, and that CMS provide oversight and enforcement to prevent HHAs from using capacity as a rationale for declining to provide service to patients with chronic or complex needs. The commenter stated that regulators could review referral and rejection lists, and that by analyzing these lists regulators can identify reasons for rejections and address those underlying reasons.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The proposed and final policies focus on the health and safety of HHA patients by instituting regulatory policies that will reduce avoidable care delays that are known to increase the risk of hospital readmissions. We seek to ensure that eligible patients receive timely care to reduce the likelihood of these readmissions and other negative consequences that may occur when a patient is referred for home health services but does not receive timely care. We expect each HHA to develop its acceptance-to-service policy taking into consideration the criteria outlined in the final CoP. HHAs will be required to include information regarding the HHA's case load and case mix (that is, the volume and complexity of the patients currently receiving care from the HHA), anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, the HHA's current staffing levels, and the skills and competencies of the HHA staff. These elements are designed to inform an HHA's assessment of its capacity and determine its suitability to meet the anticipated needs of the prospective patient that has been referred for HHA services.
                    </P>
                    <P>While all of a prospective patient's needs may not be known at the time of referral, general information regarding the patient's diagnosis and recent hospitalization (as appropriate), and specific orders from the patient's medical provider should provide a reasonable basis for HHAs to anticipate the overall needs of the patient and determine whether, in light of the described factors, the prospective patient is or is not appropriate for the HHA to accept for service. HHAs will be assessed for their compliance with the requirements set forth at § 484.105(i). Section 484.105(i) does not include a requirement to track patients that are not accepted for service nor any other data collection requirements. HHAs are encouraged to track this information to ensure that their services align with the needs of the communities they serve. HHAs may use this data for their quality assessment and performance improvement (QAPI) programs to evaluate the services provided and examine potential areas of growth to best meet the needs of their potential patients. We remind HHAs that they are required to comply with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, and section 1557 of the Affordable Care Act. Furthermore, interpretive guidance for the final policy will be released following the publication of this final rule and will provide additional information regarding oversight and enforcement of the requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters shared that an acceptance-to-service policy for HHAs would inappropriately place the entire responsibility for timely initiation of care on HHAs when this responsibility is shared between referral sources and HHAs. The commenter also stated that there are often communications gaps between patients, referral sources, and HHAs which can lead to wasted time and resources (for example, a patient being referred to two HHAs or an HHA which is not notified when the patient is no longer at home and has been admitted or readmitted for inpatient care).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We agree that HHAs are responsible for their own policies and procedures and share patient care responsibilities with the practitioners that oversee the HHA plan of care. The acceptance-to-service policy includes four minimum requirements related to clinical factors that influence whether an HHA should accept or decline a referral to ensure the health and safety or the referred patient by matching HHA services to patient needs. Within this structure HHAs may tailor their policy to address additional concerns and procedural delays and challenges that they typically face in the referral and acceptance process. It is the responsibility of the HHA to work with its referral sources by educating them on the HHA acceptance-to-service policy and services the HHA offers with the goal to minimize the communication gaps.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter supported the statement that acceptance-to-service should not be based on payment source; conversely, a few other commenters did not support this concept. A commenter expressed that because HHAs lose money providing care for some patients they must have a patient load balanced across payers with higher and lower payment rates. This commenter also 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88455"/>
                        expressed that while an HHA may be a Medicare-certified provider, they may not be in-network for all MA plans, and even those for which they are in network may have lengthy and complicated prior authorization processes. This commenter also expressed concern that the proposal was intended to improve access for patients with Medicaid and stated that this is an inappropriate use of the Medicare CoPs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In accordance with § 484.105, an HHA must organize, manage, and administer its resources to provide optimal care to achieve the goals established in each patient's individualized plan of care. When accepting patients, the primary consideration of all HHAs must be whether the HHA has the resources available to meet the needs of the prospective patient, so as to avoid accepting those patients for whom the HHA does not have a reasonable expectation of being able to meet the patient's needs in their home environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that it is not uncommon for an HHA to accept a patient for whom they cannot provide sufficient care and that the patient's needs may be met by non-profits.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While all of a prospective patient's needs may not be known at the time of referral, general information regarding the patient's diagnosis and recent hospitalization (as appropriate), and specific orders from the patient's medical provider would provide a reasonable basis for HHAs to anticipate the overall needs of the patient and determine whether the prospective patient is or is not appropriate for the HHA to accept for service. At § 484.60, we require HHAs to accept patients for treatment on the reasonable expectation that an HHA can meet the patient's medical, nursing, rehabilitative, and social needs in their place of residence. Therefore, the information the commenter shared reflects a lack of compliance with current regulations. Patients and caregivers may choose to use additional community services to augment the services provided by an HHA, but an HHA may not choose to provide reduced services for the convenience of the HHA when the patient's need for a higher level of services remains unchanged. In accordance with § 484.60, HHAs are responsible for implementing an individualized plan of care that specifies the care and services necessary to meet the patient-specific needs as identified in the comprehensive assessment, and that identifies patient-specific measurable outcomes and goals identified by the HHA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the proposed rule did not provide a clear definition of “timely initiation” which would be important in evaluating acceptance-to-service. This commenter stated that the current definition of “timely initiation of care” is part of the HH QRP based on OASIS data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We agree that this term may be used and defined in other HHA programs that are not part of the CoPs. The specific proposed requirement at § 484.105(i) did not include the term “timely initiation” and it would not be appropriate to define in the CoPs a term that was not used in the CoPs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Rule Action:</E>
                         After consideration of public comments, we are finalizing the acceptance-to-service policy at § 484.105(i)(1) as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Updates to the Home Health CoPs To Require HHAs To Make Information Public on Offered Services and Service Limitations (§ 484.105(i)(2))</HD>
                    <P>Home health agencies have the ability to select the services that they furnish and the geographic areas that they serve. Knowing which areas are served by an HHA and which services an HHA does and does not provide will assist referral sources, patients, and caregivers engaged in a search for home health services in identifying the most suitable HHA. Likewise, each HHA has fluctuating staffing levels and staffing competencies affecting its capacity to deliver patient care and provide its typically offered services. Therefore, at § 484.105(i)(2) we proposed to require that HHAs make public accurate information regarding the services offered by the HHA, such limitations on specialty services, service duration, and service frequency to further inform the search efforts of all referral sources. We also proposed that HHAs review this information at least annually. This will facilitate the search for an HHA to meet a patient's needs, both from clinical referral sources, and from patients and caregivers directly seeking care. The goal is to reduce the delay between the time when a patient is identified as an eligible candidate for home health care and the time when care is initiated by making key information readily available, thus improving identification of HHAs capable of meeting patient needs. Reducing the time delay would improve patient outcomes, as longer delays between referral and the initiation of HHA care are more likely to result in adverse outcomes, including 30-day rehospitalizations.</P>
                    <P>In the following section we discuss the public comments received and our responses on proposed § 484.105(i)(2) which would require HHAs to make public accurate information regarding services offered, service limitations, and service frequency.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed support with recommendations for the proposed requirement for HHAs to make public accurate, current information on the services they offer. These commenters stated that this could expedite connecting beneficiaries to agencies and provide meaningful data about which agencies accept patients with complex and long-term needs. A commenter stated that the proposed requirement will provide useful information about areas where there may be gaps in HHAs that provide specific services or are able to accept complex patients. Likewise, a commenter noted that the proposed regulation promotes public transparency and highlights the importance of timely initiation of care. A commenter recommended that the information be presented in a manner that is user-friendly, and culturally and linguistically appropriate. Another commenter recommended additional information that would be useful for patients in selecting an HHA, including languages in which staff are fluent, a count of staff fluent in each language, and patient to staff ratios.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for their support and for highlighting how this policy will help promote transparency, ensure timely patient admission, and thus initiation of HHA services. We agree with the commenters that making available information about the services offered by the HHA and any limitations on those services may provide public transparency and highlights the importance of timely initiation of care as well as provide useful information about areas where there may be gaps in HHAs that provide specific services. We acknowledge the importance of providing information in an accessible manner. We are providing HHAs with the flexibility to provide information regarding their services in multiple formats (for example, Care Compare). We remind HHAs of their requirement to comply with section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act when developing and publishing this information for the public.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters stated that they did not support the proposed adoption of an acceptance-to-service policy requirement because of concerns that the data could not reasonably be kept up to date and would therefore not be able to meaningfully help patients and referrers identify appropriate HHAs for care needs. Several commenters stated that staffing and ability to accept new referrals changes on a daily basis 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88456"/>
                        and that changing publicly reported information that frequently could be confusing for patients and other providers. Other commenters recommended that CMS establish standards for updating publicly posted information more frequently than the proposed annual review of information. These commenters stated that staffing levels change regularly and suggested timeframes for updates such as monthly or upon a major change in service abilities. For example, a few commenters stated that the requirement to update public information about acceptance-to-service policies on an “annual or as necessary” basis is not sufficiently clear. These commenters recommend that CMS provide more detail on what would qualify for the “as necessary” standard. Other commenters sought additional clarity on how frequently this information should be updated and how the information would be evaluated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We believe that these comments are not related to the acceptance-to-service policy set forth on proposed § 484.105(i)(1), but to the proposed requirement at § 484.105(i)(2) that HHAs would make publicly available information regarding the services they offered, and any limitations related to types of specialty services, service duration, or service frequency. We thank commenters for clarifying how frequently HHA services are updated or changed. While we acknowledge the potential challenges of keeping this information up to date, failing to do so may contribute to delays in patients receiving needed home healthcare that may increase the likelihood of rehospitalization, as well as increase the number of dual eligible patients and other vulnerable populations at risk for poor outcomes. According to one study published in 2021, when the initiation of home health services is significantly delayed (that is, from 8 to 14 days after discharge), the odds of rehospitalization for diabetic patients were four times greater compared to patients receiving home health service initiation within 2 days.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Yet the rate of timely initiation of home health care varies significantly, indicating that the referral and acceptance process is in need of improvement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8197411/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While making this required information publicly available may initially present a new challenge for HHAs, the greater clarity between HHAs, patients and referral sources may improve the HHAs relationships with the community they serve and reduce instances of avoidable confusion and delays. To ensure that the information presented to the public is accurate, we are revising the policy to require HHAs to review publicly facing information as frequently as services are changed, but no less often than annually. We would expect HHAs to update the information regarding their services provided and service limitations if the HHA anticipates it will not have a service available for 3 to 6 months. Changing a service means the HHA has formally altered the services it offers, whether by adding, discontinuing, or temporarily pausing or restricting a service. For example, a change in service may include an employee taking an extended leave of absence (that is, care for a family member, recovery from a serious illness or procedure, maternity leave) or the addition of a new contract employee that provides speech language pathology services, which a HHA may not have provided before.</P>
                    <P>Providing the most up to date information on services provided and service limitations will allow patients, their families, and/or their caregiver(s) to make educated decisions about which HHA will best meet their physical, psychosocial, and rehabilitative needs. HHAs are already required by § 484.105 to document, in writing, the services that they furnish. The governing body is responsible for assuring that this is done as part of their oversight responsibilities set forth in § 484.105(a). As such, we would expect to see evidence of governing body decision making on the services offered, corresponding revisions to the written list, and corresponding updates to its public facing information. After publication of this final rule, CMS will provide additional guidance on enforcement through memoranda and updates to the State Operations Manual (Pub. 100-07), as needed.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the policy may prohibit HHAs from accepting patients that they would be able to serve given their actual staffing, but that their published acceptance-to-service policy would indicate that they could not serve.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The information about services and limitations made publicly available would in no way prohibit an HHA from accepting a referral. Referral acceptance is governed by the HHAs acceptance-to-service policy set forth in § 484.105(i)(1), which requires HHAs to develop and implement a policy based on specified clinical factors to ensure that HHAs only accept those patients for whom they have a reasonable expectation of being able to meet the patient's care needs in their home environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that providing information regarding an HHA's capacity on a public website would not provide meaningful information to patients because home health referrals must be completed by a medical professional and therefore patients and their families would not be able to self-refer to such a provider.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We did not propose, nor are we finalizing, a requirement for HHAs to post information regarding their capacity on a website. Rather, we proposed and are finalizing a requirement that HHAs make publicly available information regarding the services that they offer and limitations on those services, such as offering nursing services but not advanced wound care services as a specialty. The capacity of an HHA to deliver care to a referred patient is accounted for in the internal policy that HHAs will develop and use when making acceptance-to-service decisions. By accounting for the referred patient's anticipated needs and considering the HHA's available resources, HHAs will self-assess their capacity to serve the referred person and ensure their health and safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We do not agree with the suggestion that patients and families are not involved in identifying available HHA care. While the official home health referral is completed by a medical professional, many patients and their family members face the task of seeking out home health care to facilitate the official referral process. If a patient's practitioner decides they need home health care, the patient has the right to participate in choosing the home health agency to meet their care needs. While patients have choice, those choices may be limited based on the services offered by HHAs, limitations on those services, insurance type, and other factors.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Patients and caregivers have recounted conducting their own searches for care, often with great difficulty. This population has unique needs and circumstances needs that may make finding the right HHA challenging, and they may not have access to information needed to target their search for an HHA in an effective and efficient manner. Patients from community-based referral sources tend to be Medicaid recipients, have cognitive impairments, and are more socially vulnerable than patients admitted from acute care. Additionally, they tend to have received 80 or more hours per month of family caregiver assistance prior to their acceptance to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88457"/>
                        HHA services.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Encouraging patients and their family members and/or caregiver(s) to be more active participants in decision making improves patient outcomes.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov</E>
                             &gt; HHQIHHBenefits.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             Social Vulnerability and Medical Complexity Among Medicare Beneficiaries Receiving Home Health Without Prior Hospitalization, Julia G. Burgdorf, Ph.D., Tracy M. Mroz, OTR/L, Ph.D., and Jennifer L. Wolff, Ph.D. Innovation in Aging, 2020, Vol. 4, No. 6, 1-9 doi:10.1093/geroni/igaa049.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.ahrq.gov/health-literacy/professional-training/shared-decision/tool/resource-9.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters did not support a requirement to publicly post information regarding a HHA's acceptance-to-service policies because many HHAs already post these data on their websites. Some commenters also stated that information about services provided is available on the CMS Care Compare website and recommended this as the appropriate location for information about agency services. A commenter recommended linking HHA websites to their information on the Home Health Compare website to improve the ease of finding additional information about these organizations. A commenter stated that CMS posts similar information regarding hospice providers and stated that CMS can track and post these data for HH providers as well.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         To clarify, we are not requiring HHAs to publicly post information regarding an HHAs acceptance-to-service policy. The acceptance-to-service policy is for an agency's internal use and is intended to compliment any current policies and procedures HHAs may use for tracking referrals and assessing the suitability of the referral relative to the HHA's capacity. Instead, HHAs will be required to publicly post information regarding their services offered and the limitations of these services. CMS recognizes that some of the information about services offered may be available on Care Compare. Care Compare is designed to be an easy-to-access, convenient source of information about provider quality.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHAs may use Care Compare to facilitate compliance with this requirement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/medicare/quality/home-health/home-health-star-ratings.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Alternatively, providing information regarding an HHA's service through its website may also facilitate compliance with this requirement. HHAs thus have flexibility in achieving compliance with this requirement to ensure that public facing information regarding services offered by an HHA are available. As previously discussed, we remind HHAs of their requirement to comply with section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act to ensure that publicly facing information is accessible.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that publicly posting information regarding services offered will have minimal benefit because this information will not address individual patient specific circumstances and therefore may still not provide patients information regarding whether the HHA would be able to address their needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The posting of the services provided by an HHA, and any service limitations aims to increase transparency and allow patients and their caregiver(s) to make informed decisions when selecting an HHA, including the ability to speed their search by eliminating those HHAs that do not offer the services the patient needs or whose limitations on services make the HHA an unsuitable match. This allows patients and their family members and/or caregiver(s) to have a better understanding of what HHA may best fulfill their needs and efficiently focus their efforts to achieve a timely admission and initiation of HHA care, thus benefitting the patient's health and safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended that instead of publishing information regarding services provided and capacity, HHAs should be required to disclose any known delays to the services ordered on referral prior to admission.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We are not requiring HHAs to publish information regarding capacity, however, this policy does not prevent HHAs from doing so. Section 484.105(i)(1) requires the HHA address criteria related to their capacity, which includes anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, case load and case mix, staffing levels of the HHA, and skills and competencies of the HHA staff. Requiring HHAs to publish this information may be too burdensome, as these variables may change often. We are requiring HHAs to share information with the public regarding limitations related to specialty services, service duration, or service frequency. In accordance with § 484.60, we would expect HHAs to only accept patients that they are able to meet the medical, rehabilitative, nursing, and social needs of. Additionally, § 484.60(a)(2)(iv) requires the individualized plan of care to include the frequency and duration of visits to be made. As previously discussed, § 484.55(a)(1) requires the initial assessment visit to be held within 48 hours of referral, or within 48 hours of the patient's return home, or on the physician or allowed practitioner-ordered start of care date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Rule Action:</E>
                         After consideration of public comments, we are finalizing the acceptance-to-service policy with revisions. Specifically, we are updating the frequency with which HHAs must review the publicly facing information regarding their services provided and any service limitations to ensure this information is up to date and accurate. Specifically, we are revising § 484.105(i)(2), to require HHAs to review the publicly facing information as frequently as services are changed, but no less often than annually.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Request for Public Comments</HD>
                    <P>In the proposed rule we requested additional feedback of topic areas related to the acceptance-to-service policy. Specifically, we requested comment on alternative ways to address the delay of home health care initiation, barriers for patients with complex needs to find and access HHAs, and other opportunities to improve transparency regarding home health patient acceptance policies to better inform referral sources. We also requested public comment regarding other ways to improve the referral process for referral sources, patients, and HHAs.</P>
                    <P>Many of the commenter's suggestions overlapped with the comments received for the proposed acceptance-to-service policy and the RFI on “Plan of Care Development and Scope of Services.” We categorized the comments into key themes, as follows: alternative ways to address delays, improved referral process, and overall plan of care development/scope of service. A few commenters suggested CMS focus on improving the establishment of the plan of care as part of the referral process. While other commenters suggested CMS engage clinicians to gain greater insight on what is happening in the field and using claims-based measures to gather data, educating hospital discharge planners to improve pre-discharge communications with patients and caregivers, and evaluating the impact of PDGM on HHAs. We appreciate to wide variety of comments received on the question and may use this feedback to inform additional rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Out of Scope</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters recommended increasing the focus on supporting HHAs by requiring that all payer processes for recoupments, vendor holds, undisclosed rate decreases and claim payment denials be made transparent by payer sources who frequently disrupt the financial operations of HHAs.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88458"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The CoPs do not regulate payer processes; therefore, this suggestion is out of scope for the CoPs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters recommended reinforcing the importance of timely initiation of service by adopting an initiation of care measures in the HHVBP program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The HHVBP is not within the scope of the HHA CoPs; therefore, we are not accepting this suggestion.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Long-Term Care (LTC) Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background</HD>
                    <P>Under sections 1866 and 1902 of the Act, providers of services seeking to participate in the Medicare or Medicaid program, respectively, must enter into an agreement with the Secretary or the State Medicaid agency, as appropriate. Long-term care (LTC) facilities seeking to be Medicare and Medicaid providers of services must be certified as meeting Federal participation requirements. LTC facilities include skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) for Medicare and nursing facilities (NFs) for Medicaid. The Federal participation requirements for SNFs, NFs, and dually certified facilities, are set forth in sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act and codified in the implementing regulations at 42 CFR part 483, subpart B.</P>
                    <P>Sections 1819(d)(3) and 1919(d)(3) of the Act explicitly require that LTC facilities develop and maintain an infection control program that is designed, constructed, equipped, and maintained in a manner to protect the health and safety of residents, personnel, and the general public. In addition, sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act explicitly authorize the Secretary to issue any regulations he deems necessary to protect the health and safety of residents. Continuous and systematic collection of data is an essential component of any infection control program, as the data provides information about potential health threats and enables prevention planning to mitigate severe health outcomes. LTC facility residents are vulnerable to infection from SARS-CoV-2 because of chronic health conditions, immunosenesence, and residence in a communal living setting. Vaccination provides protection against infection but does not eliminate the risk of acquiring SARS-CoV-2. Epidemiologic data from the CDC's National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN) indicate that weekly COVID-19 cases continue to follow the general surge patterns of 2020 to 2023, despite the vaccination status of the nursing home population. Additionally, the U.S. population remains at risk of increased infection incidence and adverse outcomes as additional SARS-CoV-2 strains continue to emerge, and immunity induced by COVID-19 vaccines wane. As such, in alignment with the sections 1819(d)(3), 1919(d)(3), 1819(d)(4)(B), and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act, we proposed to establish the ongoing collection of a set of data elements necessary to quickly identify threats to resident health and safety and initiate requisite responses.</P>
                    <P>Infection prevention and control in LTC facilities was especially important during the COVID-19 PHE. Under the explicit instructions of Congress, existing regulations at § 483.80 require facilities to, among other things, establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) designed to provide a safe, sanitary, and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections. The COVID-19 PHE placed enormous strain on the Nation's healthcare systems, requiring LTC facilities nationwide to take extraordinary measures in the face of staff shortages, and the scarcity of personal protective equipment (PPE) and critical supplies. Protecting residents in these circumstances demanded that we have better visibility and data on the spread and impact of COVID-19 in the Nation's LTC facilities. In response, CMS issued an evolving series of requirements to obtain those data through several interim final rules with comment period (IFCs) during the height of the PHE and subsequent final rules to support ongoing efforts to monitor and protect residents against COVID-19. When the CDC started collecting COVID-19 case data on a national scale in LTC facilities we began to understand the epidemiological trends of COVID-19 disease in LTC facility residents. The data highlighted how LTC facilities played a large role in viral transmission and that LTC facility residents were disproportionally impacted by COVID-19 compared to community dwelling adults. Even after the end of the PHE, national data collected in LTC facilities has shown that LTC facility residents continue to be impacted by COVID-19 at higher rates than older adults in the community and are more likely to develop severe outcomes. Continuing to understand trends of COVID-19 and other significant respiratory diseases (for example, RSV, Influenza) in the LTC facility population is critical to understanding the burden of respiratory viruses on the country.</P>
                    <P>First, on May 8, 2020, we issued a IFC titled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs, Basic Health Program, and Exchanges; Additional Policy and Regulatory Revisions in Response to the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency and Delay of Certain Reporting Requirements for the Skilled Nursing Facility Quality Reporting Program” (85 FR 27550), which revised the infection prevention and control requirements for LTC facilities to more effectively respond to the specific challenges posed by the COVID-19 pandemic. Specifically, this May 2020 IFC added provisions to require facilities to electronically report information related to confirmed or suspected COVID-19 cases to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and required facilities to inform residents and their representatives of confirmed or suspected COVID-19 cases in the facility among residents and staff.</P>
                    <P>Second, on September 2, 2020, we issued a IFC titled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), and Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Additional Policy and Regulatory Revisions in Response to the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency” (85 FR 54873). This September 2020 IFC set out provisions regarding testing for COVID-19 in LTC facilities, including documentation requirements and protocols specifying actions to be taken if a resident or staff member tests positive. On May 13, 2021, we issued another IFC titled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; COVID-19 Vaccine Requirements for Long-Term Care (LTC) Facilities and Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities (ICFs-IID) Residents, Clients, and Staff” (86 FR 26306), which further revised the infection control requirements that LTC facilities and intermediate care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities (ICFs-IID) must meet to participate in the Medicare and Medicaid programs. This May 2021 IFC aimed to reduce the spread of SARS-CoV-2 infections, the virus that causes COVID-19, by requiring education about COVID-19 vaccines for LTC facility residents, ICF-IID clients, and staff serving both populations, and by requiring that such vaccines, when available, be offered to all residents, clients, and staff. It also required LTC facilities to report COVID-19 vaccination status of residents and staff to CDC.</P>
                    <P>
                        To retain the data reporting requirements after the end of the PHE, on November 9, 2021, we subsequently published a final rule titled “CY 2022 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88459"/>
                        Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update; Home Health Value-Based Purchasing Model Requirements and Model Expansion; Home Health and Other Quality Reporting Program Requirements; Home Infusion Therapy Services Requirements; Survey and Enforcement Requirements for Hospice Programs; Medicare Provider Enrollment Requirements; and COVID-19 Reporting Requirements for Long-Term Care Facilities” (86 FR 62440, 62421), which finalized the COVID-19 data reporting requirements from the May 2020 and May 2021 IFCs. Specifically, in this November 2021 final rule, we revised the requirements at § 483.80(g)(1)(i) through (ix), to reduce the burden on the LTC facilities by allowing for a reduced frequency of reporting (weekly unless the Secretary specified a lesser frequency) and modified the specific data elements to be reported. The November 2021 final rule stated that until December 31, 2024, facilities would be required to report electronically, in a standardized format specified by the Secretary, information on suspected and confirmed COVID-19 infections among residents and staff, including residents previously treated for COVID-19, total deaths and COVID-19 deaths among residents and staff, personal protective equipment and hand hygiene supplies in the facility, ventilator capacity and supplies available in the facility, resident beds and census, access to COVID-19 testing while the resident is in the facility, and staffing shortages. In addition, on an ongoing basis with no sunset date, facilities are required to report information on resident and staff vaccination status for COVID-19 (86 FR 62421).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, on June 5, 2023, we issued a final rule titled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Policy and Regulatory Changes to the Omnibus COVID-19 Health Care Staff Vaccination Requirements; Additional Policy and Regulatory Changes to the Requirements for LTC Facilities and ICF-IIDs to Provide COVID-19 Vaccine Education and Offer Vaccinations to Residents, Clients, and Staff; Policy and Regulatory Changes to the LTC Facility COVID-19 Testing Requirements” (88 FR 36485).
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This June 2023 final rule removed expired language addressing COVID-19 testing requirements issued in the September 2020 IFC, withdrew requirements mandating COVID-19 vaccinations for staff (see 86 FR 61555 for details regarding the IFC that issued the requirements 
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ), and finalized requirements issued in the May 2021 IFC for facilities to provide education about vaccines and to offer COVID-19 vaccines to residents and staff.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             June 2023 Final Rule. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2023-06-05/pdf/2023-11449.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             COVID-19 Health Care Staff Vaccination Interim Final Rule. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2021/11/05/2021-23831/medicare-and-medicaid-programs-omnibus-covid-19-health-care-staff-vaccination.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. The Benefits of and Ongoing Need for LTC Facility Respiratory Illness and Vaccination Data</HD>
                    <P>
                        There are over 1.3 million older adults aged 65 years and older living in LTC facilities in the United States; and while LTC facility residents make up less than 0.5 percent of the population in the U.S., they were estimated to account for between 23 percent and 40 percent of deaths due to COVID-19 in the first two years of the COVID-19 PHE.
                        <E T="51">116 117</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Older residents are at greater risk for both developing COVID-19 and other respiratory illnesses (for example, influenza, RSV) and for developing a protracted course of disease.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Age-associated changes in immune function (that is, immunosenecense) can increase susceptibility to infection and decrease response to vaccination. Additionally, older adults often have multiple co-morbidities leading to increased morbidity and mortality when coupled with a respiratory tract infection.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The congregate setting of LTC facilities can also increase risk of disease transmission given the proximity of residents. In addition, providing care for residents often involves close-contact activities (for example, dressing, bathing) and the same health care personnel provide care to residents across different rooms and shared spaces. This readily facilitates transmission of respiratory viruses in this setting.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, LTC facility staffing shortages and consistent staff turnover, that are ever-present, but were greatly exacerbated during the COVID-19 PHE, make it even more challenging to provide quality care and to implement infection practices effectively and consistently, demonstrating the need for timely and actionable surveillance.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             Grabowski DC, Mor V. Nursing Home Care in Crisis in the Wake of COVID-19. 
                            <E T="03">JAMA.</E>
                             2020;324(1):23. doi:10.1001/jama.2020.8524.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             Chidambaram P. Over 200,000 Residents and Staff in Long-Term Care Facilities Have Died From COVID-19. 
                            <E T="03">Kaiser Family Foundation.</E>
                             Published online February 3, 2022. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/policy-watch/over-200000-residents-and-staff-in-long-term-care-facilities-have-died-from-covid-19/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             The New York Times. Nearly One-Third of U.S. Coronavirus Deaths Are Linked to Nursing Homes. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2020/us/coronavirus-nursing-homes.html.</E>
                             Published June 1, 2021.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             Vital and Health Statistics, Series 3, Number 47 (cdc.gov) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/series/sr_03/sr03-047.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR), Rates of COVID-19 Among Residents and Staff Members in Nursing Homes—United States, May 25-November 22, 2020 (
                            <E T="03">cdc.gov</E>
                            ) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/70/wr/pdfs/mm7002e2-H.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             Infection prevention and control in nursing homes during COVID-19: An environmental scan—PMC (
                            <E T="03">nih.gov</E>
                            ) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8810224/</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The COVID-19 PHE highlighted the value and potential utility of greater integration between public health and health care, particularly when data are available to direct collaborative actions that support patient, resident, and public health and safety. Data from health care providers, including LTC facilities, remain a key driver to identify and respond to patient, resident, and public health threats, yet health care and public health data systems have long persisted on separate, often poorly compatible tracks.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The COVID-19 PHE also highlighted the importance of taking a broader view of patient and resident safety—one that recognizes patient and resident safety is determined not only by what is happening at the bedside, but also what is happening, in the facility as a whole, in neighboring facilities (for example, individuals moving between hospitals and LTC facilities and health care providers working in multiple facilities), and across the region, State, and county. The value of this broader view was particularly evident from the experience of LTC facilities, where systematic communicable disease and vaccination surveillance had never been integrated.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             Vital and Health Statistics, Series 3, Number 47 (cdc.gov) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/series/sr_03/sr03-047.pdf</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For the first time, during the COVID-19 PHE, the nation had a real-time comprehensive picture of a disease, its vaccine, and its impact in the nearly 16,000 U.S. LTC facilities because of data reported to the CDC's NHSN application. Ultimately, access to this information proved critical to providing resources and supporting coordinated action by facilities, health systems, communities and jurisdictions in responding to the PHE and protecting the health, safety and lives of LTC facility residents. The resources made available during the PHE response helped build resilience in some parts of the health care system, but the pandemic also exacerbated sources of fragility that continue to leave the United States underprepared to respond to surges—even relatively typical ones. COVID-19 and other respiratory illness 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88460"/>
                        case, hospitalization, and vaccination data together provide critical situational awareness for regional and State leadership to inform a national strategy in response to the ongoing public health threat that respiratory illnesses including COVID-19 pose to residents.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the proposed rule, we provided a detailed discussion regarding the data produced by the respiratory illness reporting requirements for LTC facilities and how the insight provided by the data collected positively impacted resident health and safety by guiding actions to reduce the prevalence of respiratory illnesses through enhanced planning, technical assistance, resource allocation, and coordination at the facility, local, State, and Federal levels. We encourage readers to refer to the proposed rule for this detailed discussion (89 FR 55404-55406).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Provisions of the Proposed Regulations and Analysis and Response to Public Comments</HD>
                    <P>In response to the proposed rule, we received 73 total comments from industry commenters, such as national associations, leadership, and facility staff. We received very few comments from advocacy organizations and no comments from anyone identifying themselves as residents or family advocates. In this final rule, we provide a summary of the proposed provisions, a summary of the public comments received, and our responses to them, and an explanation for changes in the policies we are finalizing.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Continuation of Respiratory Illness Reporting for LTC Facilities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Given the value of respiratory illness and vaccination reporting during the COVID-19 PHE in supporting resident health and safety, we considered the continued utility of LTC facility respiratory illness data to monitor and protect residents against respiratory illnesses and the ongoing need for such data in the “new normal” of diverse respiratory disease threats. While the COVID-19 PHE has ended, SARS-CoV-2 continues to circulate throughout the globe and although epidemic waves are less severe than those of 2020 through early 2022, there was no epidemiologic bright line associated with the end of the PHE. While COVID-19 hospital admissions were modestly lower in January 2024 than they were at the July 2022 or December 2022 peaks,
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         adults 65 years and older represented more than half of COVID-19 hospitalizations during October 2023 to December 2023.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, during the 2023-2024 fall/winter respiratory virus season, COVID-19-associated hospitalizations among LTC facility residents peaked at a weekly rate that was more than eight times higher than the peak weekly rate among all U.S. adults aged ≥70 years.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At the same time, other respiratory viruses have also seen a resurgence, and the moderate COVID-19 burden coinciding with resurgent influenza and RSV has led to an overall hospitalization burden larger than observed during severe influenza and RSV seasons prior to the COVID-19 pandemic.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://covid.cdc.gov/covid-data-tracker/#trends_weeklyhospitaladmissions_select_00.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             CDC COVID Data Tracker: Hospital Admissions (
                            <E T="03">https://covid.cdc.gov/covid-data-tracker/#datatracker-home</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             Franklin D, Barbre K, Rowe TA, Reses HE, Massey J, Meng L, Dollard P, Dubendris H, Stillions M, Robinson L, Clerville JW, Jacobs Slifka K, Benin A, Bell JM. COVID-19 vaccination coverage and rates of SARS-CoV-2 infection and COVID-19-associated hospitalization among residents in nursing homes. MMWR Morb Mortal Wkly Rep 2024;73:339-344. DOI: 
                            <E T="03">http://dx.doi.org/10.15585/mmwr.mm7315a3.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             Respiratory Disease Season Outlook (
                            <E T="03">cdc.gov</E>
                            ) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/forecast-outbreak-analytics/about/season-outlook.html</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The elevated risks of respiratory viruses in the post-PHE era present ongoing threats, both direct and indirect, to resident health and safety. As such, we proposed to continue some of the reporting requirements finalized in November 2021 and set to expire in December 2024. Specifically, we proposed to revise the infection prevention and control requirements for LTC facilities to extend reporting in NHSN for a limited subset of the current COVID-19 elements and also require reporting for data related to influenza and RSV.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, we proposed to replace the existing reporting requirements for LTC facilities at §  483.80(g)(1)(i) through (ix) and (g)(2) with new requirements to report information addressing respiratory illnesses. Beginning on January 1, 2025, we proposed to require facilities to electronically report information about COVID-19, influenza, and RSV in a standardized format and frequency specified by the Secretary. We proposed to continue weekly reporting through the CDC's NHSN. To the extent to be determined by the Secretary, through this rulemaking cycle, we proposed that the data elements for which reporting would be required include all of the following:</P>
                    <P>• Facility census (defined as the total number of residents occupying a bed at this facility for at least 24 hours during the week of data collection).</P>
                    <P>• Resident vaccination status for a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV.</P>
                    <P>• Confirmed resident cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV (overall and by vaccination status).</P>
                    <P>• Hospitalized residents with confirmed cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV (overall and by vaccination status).</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed support for our proposal to extend the requirements for respiratory illness reporting in LTC facilities. These commenters stated that sustained data collection and reporting provides valuable information for guiding infection control interventions; keeping LTC facility residents, family members, and staff safe; and directing resources where they are most needed. A commenter specifically expressed support for including other respiratory illnesses in the required NHSN reporting. A commenter stated that understanding health related social needs and demographic information may be helpful in addressing health inequities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for their support of LTC facility acute respiratory illness data reporting to NHSN. The Infection Control requirements at § 483.80 are a comprehensive set of requirements that include an infection prevention and control plan (IPCP) based upon the facility assessment as set forth in § 483.71. Consistent data on COVID-19, influenza, and RSV is essential for infection control efforts to protect the health and safety of residents as well as facility staff. We acknowledge that every LTC facility is different, with different resident populations, varying types of acuity and medical needs, and resource challenges. As such, our goal to minimize the risk of severe illness, hospitalization and death from respiratory viruses is supported by situational awareness that occurs with data that can be analyzed on a regular frequency, easily available and acted upon.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended requirements that LTC facilities include at least one full-time dedicated infection preventionist (IP) to support reporting and a robust IPCP.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the recommendation that LTC facilities use at least one full-time dedicated IP. Existing provisions at § 483.80(b) require facilities to have an IP work at least part-time at the facility. Additionally, if the facility assessment identifies the need for additional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88461"/>
                        resources above the minimum requirement of a part time IP position, then the facility should staff to the appropriate level to care for its resident population. We believe that these existing requirements set forth a feasible and achievable minimum health and safety standard that supports infection prevention and control, while also considering the differences and varying needs of all of the LTC facilities that must comply with these minimum health and safety requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Another commenter supported required respiratory illness data reporting and recommended establishing policies to ensure that resident privacy is protected.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenter's support for acute respiratory illness data reporting as well as the recommendation to ensure that residents' privacy is protected. Existing provisions at § 483.10(h), ”Privacy and Confidentiality,” require LTC facilities to ensure and respect a resident's right to personal privacy and the confidentiality of their personal and medical records. This includes but is not limited to using appropriate administrative, physical and technical safeguards to ensure confidentiality, integrity and security of personal and medical records. Regular training for LTC facility staff on privacy and security best practices is essential. Also, § 483.10(g), “Resident rights”, requires LTC facilities to respect a resident's right to privacy in communications. This includes mail, letters, packages and other materials. The LTC facility must also ensure that residents' have reasonable access and privacy in electronic communications, including email, video communications and internet access for research. Hence, we believe the LTC facility is already required and should have policies to ensure resident privacy of their medical records, including respiratory illness reporting based on these existing requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters recommended that CMS revise the frequency of NHSN reporting to monthly or quarterly or, in some cases, annually to reduce the administrative burden associated with the proposed requirement. A few commenters stated that weekly reporting is a pandemic level frequency for reporting and stated that this is no longer appropriate. Other commenters suggested reporting during peak respiratory virus season (that is, fall and winter). A few commenters suggested that facilities report to NHSN only in the event of an outbreak. A few commenters recommended allowing reporting of snapshot data for the week instead of cumulative data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their feedback. Elevated risks of respiratory viruses in the post-PHE era present ongoing threats and there will be more burdensome respiratory virus seasons and periodic surges for the foreseeable future that threaten the health and safety of LTC facility residents.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response, public health agencies, such as the CDC, have shifted prevention and control strategies from a focus on specific viruses to an approach that addresses the threats presented by the broader respiratory virus season, including focused efforts to mitigate impacts on nursing home residents and staff.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Likewise, we believe it is vital to maintain national surveillance of these emerging and evolving respiratory illnesses as a means of guiding infection control interventions to keep residents safe. To achieve this the most useful data are those that are timely and actionable. It is in the best interests of LTC facility residents to protect them by continuing year-round surveillance to monitor for respiratory viruses. Such surveillance will provide actionable data for LTC facilities, healthcare quality improvement organizations, and public health agencies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             Respiratory Disease Season Outlook (
                            <E T="03">cdc.gov</E>
                            ) (
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/forecast-outbreak-analytics/about/season-outlook.html</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/respiratory-viruses/index.html</E>
                             and data summaries of respiratory virus burden at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/respiratory-viruses/data-research/dashboard/snapshot.html</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/respiratory-viruses/whats-new/track-hospital-capacity.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed requirements are scaled back and streamlined in comparison to the current post COVID-19 PHE requirements. As such, the CDC has combined the respiratory illness reporting fields in NHSN and created one simplified reporting form (a reduction from four forms) to support the data collection. For additional context, this streamlined data collection will eliminate over 30 data fields that LTC facilities will need to address in the NHSN system.</P>
                    <P>Continuing the collection of the minimal necessary data for weekly data reporting to NHSN will maintain a level of situational awareness that will protect resident health and safety, while reducing reporting burden on LTC facilities. Weekly reporting allows for public reporting in real time and on a regularly occurring basis. This ensures that a variety of entities across the local, State, and Federal levels (such as, LTC facilities and associations, CDC, Quality Innovation Network-Quality Improvement Organizations (QIN-QIOs), state and local health departments) can monitor data with a minimal data lag and allow for quicker, direct response efforts to outbreaks among LTC facility residents.</P>
                    <P>Furthermore, we are not collecting only a “snapshot” of data, as suggested, because the required data to be reported has been streamlined to represent the minimum necessary data and there is a need to keep the collection period consistent (Monday through Sunday) to ensure the reliability of the data. Facilities will submit data through the NHSN reporting system once per week, representing cumulative vaccination coverage, new positive tests, and new hospitalizations that occurred during the week of reporting. Therefore, we believe that a weekly reporting frequency at this time is appropriate. However, we note that the requirements we are finalizing allow the Secretary the discretion to revise the frequency of reporting, and we will continue to monitor the utility of the reporting requirements and changing needs for the data collection.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters recommended not finalizing proposals related to continued reporting of respiratory viruses through the NHSN and recommended that CMS allow the existing requirements for NHSN reporting to end on December 31, 2024, as currently provided for at § 483.80(g). Commenters indicated that the continuation of data collection would divert resources from providing direct patient care and other important initiatives, such as quality improvement. Many commenters stated that the proposed reporting requirements are too time consuming and therefore would create administrative burden on LTC facilities that may outweigh the benefits of data reporting. Commenters were concerned that this reporting is resource intensive and would require LTC facilities to increase staffing levels to comply with all the steps of data collection, verification, and submission (including addressing a changing population of staff and residents) and stated that increasing staffing would be difficult because LTC facilities are currently facing staffing challenges. Some commenters specifically highlighted the potential burden on small facilities with minimal staff. A few commenters stated that data collection within the NHSN will not lead to improved care for residents and that the benefits of reporting that were seen during the PHE (including PPE allocations, strike teams, and test kit allocations) are no longer associated with NHSN reporting.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88462"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the feedback from these commenters; however, timely data reported on acute respiratory illnesses is essential to help guide targeted efforts to reduce severe illnesses and deaths among the resident population. A data driven approach will guide infection prevention and control interventions and LTC facility operations that directly relate to resident health and safety. As discussed previously, we want to emphasize that the requirements we are finalizing are scaled back and streamlined in comparison to the current post COVID-19 PHE requirements. For context, the streamlined data collection will reduce the number of NHSN forms from 4 to 1 and eliminate over 30 data fields that LTC facilities will need to address in the system. Therefore, we are finalizing the proposed policy, which will continue the collection of the minimal necessary data needed to maintain a level of situational awareness that we believe will protect resident health and safety in LTC facilities across the country, while reducing reporting burden on those facilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters stated that the proposed reporting requirements would require LTC facilities to report duplicative data through the CDC's NHSN. Commenters stated that relevant COVID-19 reporting has been incorporated into other systems and programs, and other respiratory illnesses are collected through the Minimum Data Set (MDS). Commenters also mentioned that infection data are already reported through other mandatory mechanisms such as reporting surveillance data to local authorities, public health agencies or departments of health as part of infection control requirements, including clusters of respiratory virus symptoms and information about confirmed cases. Commenters stated that because of these other data collection channels, requiring continued reporting through the NHSN would be unnecessary and duplicative, and recommended that CMS and CDC coordinate with public health agencies to access the data. A few commenters also noted that NHSN has separate guidelines for reporting data which are different from the guidelines for reporting the same data via the Minimum Data Set (MDS), which increases administrative reporting burden. A few commenters stated that data submission through MDS is preferable because these data can be linked to resident-specific demographic and socioeconomic data and can be used to inform care plans. Some commenters recommended only requiring LTC facilities to report on items not reported via MDS. A commenter recommended reporting the data through a system similar to internet Quality Improvement and Evaluation System (iQIES) that would automatically pull the data. Lastly, a few commenters also noted that with the release of updated public health guidance in March 2024, CDC began shifting to a more standardized approach toward reporting on the incidence of respiratory viruses and recommended that CMS align nursing home requirements with this guidance. A commenter recommended that CMS convene a task force to study what high value data should continue to be collected from LTC facilities and consider adding to existing reporting platforms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge that differing mechanisms for reporting some of the proposed respiratory data elements exist beyond NHSN, such as reporting through MDS. However, while there is some overlap between NHSN and MDS collections, specifically resident vaccination data, streamlined data regarding acute respiratory illnesses including COVID-19, influenza, and RSV, as we proposed, are not currently captured in MDS. CMS and the CDC are committed to collecting the minimum data fields necessary to inform public health response and protect LTC facility residents. NHSN reporting provides useful data that are timely and actionable in real time on a routine cadence (weekly), unlike the MDS, which is collected at longer intervals that are dictated by reporting requirements unrelated to acute respiratory illnesses. An MDS must be completed for each resident upon admission, and then at regular intervals, typically every 3 months, or whenever there is a significant change in the resident's condition (see § 483.20, “Resident assessment”). The timing of MDS data collection and reporting does not support facility-level acute respiratory illness situational awareness, since minimal data lag is needed to inform response efforts. Technical assistance and resource allocation may be delayed or omitted due to reduced or dated available information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We also acknowledge that varying State health departments may also have reporting requirements for respiratory illness data. However, we believe that there is value in collecting this information at the Federal level. The NHSN data reports are accessed by State health departments to provide actionable data. The CDC monitors downloads of these reports and provides ongoing support to States and facilities with these data, showing that the data are actively being used and are found to be valuable to direct response and vaccination efforts to the LTC facilities that most need support and intervention. For example, publicly available national vaccination data are critical for decision making, targeting outreach for vaccination campaigns efforts, insights into vaccination disparities and for vaccine effectiveness studies.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         NHSN data was used by the CDC and QIOs to contact facilities with high vaccination coverage in order to understand the successful strategies they employed and promote these strategies to other LTC facilities via webinars. Moreover, information from this outreach was used to identify and respond to vaccination barriers by creating tools and resources, such as the Healthcare Provider Toolkit, to help LTC facilities educate their staff, residents, and families to remove barriers to vaccination.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Wong E, Barbre K, Wiegand RE, Reses HE, Dubendris H, Wallace M, Dollard P, Edwards J, Soe M, Meng L, Benin A, Bell JM. Effectiveness of Up-to-Date COVID-19 Vaccination in Preventing SARS-CoV-2 Infection Among Nursing Home Residents—United States, November 20, 2022-January 8, 2023. MMWR Morb Mortal Wkly Rep. 2023 Jun 23;72(25):690-693. doi: 10.15585/mmwr.mm7225a4. PMID: 37347711; PMCID: PMC10328477.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As noted previously, with this final rule we have streamlined data reporting to reduce burden, subsequently the CDC reduced reporting burden by creating a simplified and more efficient reporting form. Respiratory illness reporting fields for COVID-19, influenza and RSV are combined into a single data entry form (previously there were four), providing a significantly simplified and improved user experience. The CDC has invested in enhanced user support, an improved helpdesk ticket response system and training tailored to the LTC community to support the use of NHSN. In addition, there are some projects underway with LTC industry stakeholders to modernize data collection as well as improving interoperability with State Immunization Information Systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters did not support continued respiratory virus reporting through the NHSN because of technical challenges with the NHSN. Several commenters noted that the NHSN system experiences regular technical issues and lags in service that would be made worse by the continued and additional reporting by facilities. These commenters stated that the NHSN is slow and there are lengthy delays even for small amounts of data. These commenters also expressed concern that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88463"/>
                        the NHSN help desk has long wait times and that the process for staff to gain initial access to the system is lengthy. Some commenters stated that there are frequent technical issues with NHSN which could lead facilities to be non-compliant in data reporting through no fault of their own. A few commenters expressed concerns about privacy and sharing sensitive information that could be at risk due to issues such as data breaches and unauthorized access. A commenter stated that by adopting these requirements through the CoPs, CMS creates a risk that facilities may become non-compliant with the CoPs due to NHSN technical issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the comments regarding technical challenges with the NHSN. Through its data modernization efforts, CDC continues to work to strengthen the support available to the LTC community. The CDC publishes regularly scheduled updates and associated trainings, for which they notify the LTC community by email blasts and newsletters. Training webinars are available for replay and can be accessed in the NHSN section of the CDC website.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We understand the commenters' concerns about technical challenges regarding the reporting of the required information. These concerns about noncompliance due to NHSN technical issues could be mitigated with documentation of technical issues and the facility's communication with CDC to get issues corrected. CMS does not expect LTC facilities to be penalized for limitations to compliance that are outside of their control, and this has not been the approach taken by CMS regarding enforcement of the PHE COVID-19 reporting requirements or the current post-PHE reporting requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nhsn/ltc/index.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>However, existing requirements at § 483.10(h)(3) set out the facility's obligation to protect each resident's right to secure and confidential personal and medical records. CMS expects all LTC facilities to protect resident data and information. Data breaches and unauthorized access are important concerns that the facility can mitigate by establishing clear and strict data security policies; limiting physical and electronic access to resident data, regular training on privacy and sharing sensitive information; and using encryption and secure communication protocols. If a data breach or unauthorized access occurs that was or should have been within the LTC facility's control, CMS would evaluate the circumstances for the performance of that individual LTC facility. For example, if a LTC facility allowed access to resident medical records to personnel that had no legitimate reason for access to those records and unauthorized access occurred, CMS might cite the LTC facility. Data breaches can impact any entity, even the Federal Government, and we expect that LTC facilities will take the appropriate actions to correct and limit any damage or injury to residents from any data breach or unauthorized access to their medical or other personal information.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters recommended that HHS invest in the infrastructure needed to make the voluntary sharing of important data on infectious diseases less burdensome. Some of these commenters stated that this would be particularly important for the PAC setting because of the relative lack of interoperable electronic health records (EHRs) across these facilities. A few of these commenters expressed concerns that establishing requirements for participation for respiratory illness data reporting may threaten Medicare participation, facility financial viability, and access to care. Several commenters suggested that CMS should work with state government, local health departments and the provider community to determine how best to share data across entities and what data elements are most valuable in responding to PHEs, thereby reducing redundancy and administrative burden. Many commenters recommended that CMS collaborate with state health agencies to access surveillance data reported by facilities to mitigate the need to report to multiple agencies. A few commenters suggested that NHSN be directed to obtain data from state agencies to reduce duplication of effort. Commenters also stated that reporting requirements vary across agencies and recommended aligning these requirements. A commenter specifically recommended using OSHA's upcoming Infection Disease Standard to standardize data collection for healthcare professionals, a group that the commenter stated was omitted from the proposed reporting requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for their feedback on ways to make reporting less burdensome. The current lack of interoperability of electronic health records (EHRs) in the PAC setting makes it even more important to use the NHSN since it is set up to accept data that is collected, verified and submitted by all the LTC facilities across the country, whether they have an EHR system or not. We appreciate the support for transitioning to, and using, more modern, flexible approaches and networks that support data exchange between and across public health and healthcare institutions to modernize the public health information infrastructure. We also appreciate the suggestion that NHSN should obtain data from State agencies to reduce provider burden, however this suggestion is not viable for many reasons, including the lack of consistent definitions of data elements across States, the fact that all States do not require data submission of all data elements that are being finalized, and that States systems may not be set up to send data to NHSN in the manner that is most valuable for situational awareness.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the omission of data collection for healthcare personnel, we note that we considered the utility of LTC facility respiratory illness data to monitor and protect residents against respiratory illnesses and the ongoing need for such data given the diverse respiratory disease threats. Currently, LTC facilities only report on staff vaccination status quarterly and we did not believe there was enough of a use case to support continued mandatory reporting of staff data. However, we note that at § 483.80(g)(2)(i) we proposed that LTC facilities would need to report on relevant confirmed infections for staff in the event of a PHE. Furthermore, staff vaccination status is currently reported through the SNF Quality Reporting Program (QRP) under the SNF QRP measure “COVID-19 Vaccination Coverage among Healthcare Personnel”.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters asserted that they did not support continued reporting requirements because LTC facilities are the only healthcare setting that is still being required to report this data. Some of these commenters expressed that by only requiring this data for one narrow sample of the population (that is, residents of LTC facilities) CMS would not be able to track infections across the overall population.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for their feedback, however, we note that the assertion is incorrect. CMS finalized proposals for hospitals and CAHs to continue ongoing (that is outside of a PHE) reporting on data related to influenza, COVID-19, and RSV to NHSN. In addition, we finalized proposals for hospital and CAHs to report on additional data categories that could be required during the event of a declared PHE. These proposals were finalized on August 28, 2024, as part of the final rule titled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs and the Children's Health Insurance Program; Hospital Inpatient Prospective Payment Systems for Acute Care Hospitals and the Long 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88464"/>
                        Term Care Hospital Prospective Payment System and Policy Changes and Fiscal Year 2025 Rates; Quality Programs Requirements; and Other Policy Changes” (89 FR 69913).
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The requirements for hospitals and CAHs will be effective on November 1, 2024, and we refer readers to the final rule for more detail.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2024/08/28/2024-17021/medicare-and-medicaid-programs-and-the-childrens-health-insurance-program-hospital-inpatient.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters recommended that CMS align the decision on more detailed demographic data reporting requirements for LTC facilities with the decision finalized for acute inpatient hospitals and CAHs finalized in the FY 2025 inpatient PPS final rule. These commenters stated that the Federal standards for the collection of race and ethnicity are currently being revised, with a compliance deadline of October 2025 for Federal agencies to develop their plans to comply with these new standards and a deadline of March 2029 to come into full compliance. Commenters expressed concern that as these standards are being implemented, CMS could adopt a set of requirements that could swiftly change. A few commenters requested clarification on whether CMS is seeking to collect aggregate or patient-level data. Many commenters also stated that LTC facilities currently use MDS to collect information related to demographics and recommended not duplicating this data collection. These commenters did not support including race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status in the respiratory virus reporting requirements because of concerns that this would increase the time needed for data collection and reporting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank commenters for the information and perspectives on the collection and submission of demographic data. While we are not expanding the collection of demographic data at this time due to the need to further refine this concept and the January 1, 2025, effective date of this reporting requirement, we acknowledge that not collecting this data would represent a gap in epidemiological information. We believe that demographic data plays an important role in informing healthcare decisions that ultimately impact the health and safety of residents. We intend to continue to explore ways to facilitate and strengthen the collection of additional demographic data in the future.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that these proposed requirements were not proposed in the SNF PPS proposed rule. This commenter stated that HH PPS proposed rule is an inappropriate setting for LTC rulemaking and recommended that CMS only adopt policies that affect LTC facilities in rulemaking that applies to those facilities. This commenter also recommended adjusting payment rates for LTC facilities to accommodate the increased burden of reporting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We note that issues related to payment policy are outside the scope of the health and safety standards and LTC requirements for participation. We appreciate the concern that some commenters expressed regarding the use of the home health prospective payment rule as the CMS regulatory vehicle to notify the public of our proposal for LTC acute respiratory illness data reporting. It is typical practice for CMS to leverage differing regulatory vehicles to issue our regulatory priorities, especially as it relates to the issuance of policy updates for the Medicare health and safety standards. For example, the current post-PHE COVID-19 reporting requirements were issued on November 9, 2021, as part of the CY 2022 Home Health Prospective Payment System (PPS) final rule.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The importance of the reporting requirements coupled with the December 2024 expiration of the current post-PHE COVID-19 reporting requirements at § 483.80 necessitated the use of this regulatory vehicle as a viable option to communicate this action. We encourage readers to regularly review OMB's Unified Agenda 
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and to sign up to receive email updates to get the latest information about your choice of CMS topics, but specifically timely information regarding activities and initiatives that may impact LTC facilities. Those interested can find a field at the bottom of CMS.gov to enter their email addresses and sign up for updates.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             86 FR 62240; 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2021/11/09/2021-23993/medicare-and-medicaid-programs-cy-2022-home-health-prospective-payment-system-rate-update-home.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaMain.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Rule Action:</E>
                         We are finalizing our proposal to require ongoing respiratory illness reporting in a modified form as proposed. LTC facilities, in a standardized format and frequency specified by the Secretary, must electronically report information on acute respiratory illnesses, including influenza, SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19, and RSV, facility census (defined as the total number of residents occupying a bed at this facility for at least 24 hours during the week of data collection), resident vaccination status, confirmed resident cases, and hospitalized residents with confirmed cases.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Collection of Additional Data Elements During a PHE</HD>
                    <P>
                        The COVID-19 PHE strained the healthcare system substantially, introducing new safety risks and negatively impacting patient and resident safety in the normal delivery of care. Data from the pandemic showed that the incidence of healthcare-associated infections would increase when COVID-19 hospitalizations were high,
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         a feedback loop between increased stress on hospitals, LTC facilities, illness in the community, and patient and resident health and safety. Degradation in other measures of resident safety, including pressure ulcers and falls, further demonstrate how the strains associated with surge response adversely affect routine safety practices.
                        <E T="51">136 137</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically in LTC facilities, the significant adverse health impacts on residents caused by COVID-19 went far beyond the direct effects of COVD-19 morbidity and mortality.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Given the unprecedented impacts of, and learnings derived from, the COVID-19 PHE, we believe that it is imperative to enhance preparedness and resiliency to improve health system responses to future threats, including pandemics that pose catastrophic risks to resident safety. As such, we proposed to require additional data reporting in the event of an acute respiratory illness PHE, or after the Secretary's determination that a significant threat of one exists.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             Continued increases in the incidence of healthcare-associated infection (HAI) during the second year of the coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic | Infection Control &amp; Hospital Epidemiology | Cambridge Core; 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMp2118285;</E>
                             The impact of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) on healthcare-associated infections in 2020: A summary of data reported to the National Healthcare Safety Network—PubMed (
                            <E T="03">nih.gov</E>
                            ) (
                            <E T="03">https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/34473013/</E>
                            ); Impact of COVID-19 pandemic on central-line-associated bloodstream infections during the early months of 2020, National Healthcare Safety Network—PubMed (nih.gov) (
                            <E T="03">https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/33719981/</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             Falls Risk in Long-Term Care Residents With Cognitive Impairment: Effects of COVID-19 Pandemic—PubMed 
                            <E T="03">(nih.gov)</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/38104633/</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMp2118285.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             The Adverse Effects of the COVID-19 Pandemic on Nursing Home Resident Well-Being—PMC 
                            <E T="03">(nih.gov)</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7980137/</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, we proposed that during a declared national, State, or local PHE for a respiratory infectious disease (or if the Secretary determines a significant 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88465"/>
                        threat for one exists) the Secretary may require facilities to report:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Data up to a daily frequency without additional notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>• Additional or modified data elements relevant to the PHE, including relevant confirmed infections among staff, supply inventory shortages, staffing shortages, and relevant medical countermeasures and therapeutic inventories, usage, or both.</P>
                    <P>• If the Secretary determines that an event is significantly likely to become a PHE for an infectious disease, the Secretary may require LTC facilities to report additional or modified data elements without notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>We invited comments on whether there should be limits to the data the Secretary can require without notice and comment rulemaking during a PHE, such as limits on the duration of additional reporting or the scope of the jurisdiction of reporting (that is, State or local PHEs). We also sought comments on whether and how the Secretary should still seek stakeholder feedback on additional elements during a PHE without notice and comment rulemaking and how HHS should notify LTC facilities of new required infectious disease data. Furthermore, we invited comments on the evidence HHS should provide to demonstrate that—(1) an event is “significantly likely to become a PHE”; or (2) the increased scope of required data will be used to protect resident and community health and safety. We also invited comments on the utility and burden of specifically staffing and supply shortage data we propose to collect during national, State, or local PHE for a respiratory infectious disease (or if the Secretary determines a significant threat for one exists). Based on LTC facilities experience with the COVID-19 PHE, how could HHS collect this data specifically in a way that would be beneficial to LTC facilities?</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters did not support adopting a policy which would allow the Secretary to require reporting without going through notice and comment rulemaking because this would deny an opportunity for those impacted by a rule to offer feedback and advocate for changes. Some commenters also expressed concern that changing requirements during a PHE could lead to unintentional non-compliance. A few commenters expressed concerns about the lack of any legal standard for a “significantly likely” PHE and stated that there is no statutory or other authority allows the Secretary to change mandatory reporting requirements based on a “significantly likely” PHE. These commenters stated that the term PHE has a specific meaning in statute and regulation, and the declaration of a PHE authorizes CMS to exercise significant flexibilities and powers intended to expedite the regulatory process. The commenters expressed concern regarding the precedent of CMS or any other Federal agency using such a vague categorization to circumvent the notice and comment rulemaking process. A commenter stated that the ability to waive notice and comment requirements only applies to voluntary information collections during a declared PHE and therefore, under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) the Director of OMB would be required to review and approve any waiver of notice and comment rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the responses regarding our proposal for reporting respiratory illness data during a PHE. We understand the need for clarity when PHE-related data reporting is required. At the time of a PHE declaration, clarification and guidance from the Secretary will occur so that LTC facilities will know what related data elements are activated for reporting. We expect to use a communication mechanism, such as a Quality Safety and Oversight Memo, that is readily available to the public, nationally accessible, and familiar to stakeholders, to ensure clarity and access to necessary information. Protecting residents during a PHE demands that we have better visibility and data on the spread and impact of an acute respiratory illness in the nation's LTC facilities. A PHE declaration signals that focused and timely actions are needed so that responses are actionable and appropriate. The time it would take for a notice and comment period would delay the reporting and analysis of data and subsequent interventions that promote health and safety in facilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>We recognize the concerns raised regarding the proposal to require increased PHE reporting in the likely event of a PHE. In response to the concerns raised we are withdrawing the proposal that the Secretary may require increased reporting in the event of a likely PHE. We encourage LTC facilities to use their required emergency preparedness plans and policies and procedures (§ 483.73) to promote readiness and actions that could reduce burden during a resource intense time (that is, during a PHE).</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed concern that changing reporting requirements during a PHE or an event significantly likely to become a PHE could lead to excessive administrative burden with limited benefits. Some of these commenters stated that daily reporting would take time away from resident care and infection control efforts. Some commenters stated that reporting data during the COVID-19 PHE did not lead to improved resources (such as distribution of PPE) but that it did lead to facilities being blamed for their challenges in addressing the pandemic. A commenter recommended considering supportive outreach to facilities, such as by QIOs, during future PHEs or events significantly likely to become a PHE.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We thank the commenters for their concerns about increased data reporting during a PHE and the potential administrative burden with limited benefits. The best way targeted support can be provided during a PHE is to be aware of the what the facility needs. A data driven approach will ensure that LTC facilities, local and state health departments, CDC and HHS can identify trends so that mitigation strategies can be implemented quickly, and facilities can improve residents' health and safety and reduce the spread of illness. The CDC reduced reporting burden to facilities by streamlining reporting data entry forms, enhanced user support, has implemented an improved helpdesk ticket response system and increased staffing and training for addressing NHSN user issues. The QIOs can monitor data in almost real time (both the streamlined weekly data and the expanded data requirements during a PHE) with minimal data lag to direct response efforts to outbreaks among nursing home residents. Some examples of interventions made during the COVID PHE include community pharmacy vaccine clinics, vaccine education tools, testing kits and ad campaigns.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Final Decision:</E>
                         We are finalizing as proposed our proposal to require additional reporting during a declared national, State, or local PHE for an acute infectious illness. We have withdrawn our proposal to require additional reporting if the Secretary determines that an event is “significantly likely” to become a PHE for an infectious disease. During a declared national, State, or local PHE for an acute infectious illness the Secretary may require reporting of data elements relevant to confirmed infections for staff, supply inventory shortages, staffing shortages, and relevant medical countermeasures and therapeutic inventories, usage, or both.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88466"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Provider Enrollment—Provisional Period of Enhanced Oversight</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Overview of Medicare Provider Enrollment</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(1)(A) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish a process for the enrollment of providers and suppliers into the Medicare program. The overarching purpose of the enrollment process is to help confirm that providers and suppliers seeking to bill Medicare for services and items furnished to Medicare beneficiaries meet all applicable Federal and State requirements to do so. The process is, to an extent, a “gatekeeper” that prevents unqualified and potentially fraudulent individuals and entities from entering and inappropriately billing Medicare. Since 2006, we have undertaken rulemaking efforts to outline our enrollment procedures. These regulations are generally codified in 42 CFR part 424, subpart P (currently §§ 424.500 through 424.575). They address, among other things, requirements that providers and suppliers must meet to enroll in Medicare.</P>
                    <P>As outlined in § 424.510, one such requirement is that the provider or supplier must complete, sign, and submit to its assigned Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) the appropriate enrollment form, typically the Form CMS-855 (OMB Control No. 0938-0685). The Form CMS-855, which can be submitted via paper or electronically through the internet-based Provider Enrollment, Chain, and Ownership System (PECOS) process (System of Records notice (SORN): 09-70-0532, PECOS), collects important information about the provider or supplier. Such data includes, but is not limited to, general identifying information (for example, legal business name), licensure and/or certification data, ownership information, and practice locations. The application is used for a variety of provider enrollment transactions, including the following:</P>
                    <P>• Initial enrollment—The provider or supplier is—(1) enrolling in Medicare for the first time; (2) enrolling in another Medicare contractor's jurisdiction; or (3) seeking to enroll in Medicare after having previously been enrolled.</P>
                    <P>• Change of ownership—The provider or supplier is reporting a change in its ownership.</P>
                    <P>• Revalidation—The provider or supplier is revalidating its Medicare enrollment information in accordance with § 424.515. (Suppliers of durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS) must revalidate their enrollment every 3 years; all other providers and suppliers must do so every 5 years.)</P>
                    <P>• Reactivation—The provider or supplier is seeking to reactivate its Medicare enrollment and billing privileges after it was deactivated in accordance with § 424.540.</P>
                    <P>• Change of information—The provider or supplier is reporting a change in its existing enrollment information in accordance with § 424.516.</P>
                    <P>After receiving the provider's or supplier's initial enrollment application, CMS or the MAC reviews and confirms the information thereon and determines whether the provider or supplier meets all applicable Medicare requirements. We believe this screening process has greatly assisted CMS in executing its responsibility to prevent Medicare fraud, waste, and abuse.</P>
                    <P>As previously discussed, over the years we have issued various final rules pertaining to provider enrollment. These rules were intended not only to clarify or strengthen certain components of the enrollment process but also to enable us to take action against providers and suppliers: (1) engaging (or potentially engaging) in fraudulent or abusive behavior; (2) presenting a risk of harm to Medicare beneficiaries or the Medicare Trust Funds; or (3) that are otherwise unqualified to furnish Medicare services or items. Consistent with this, and as we discuss in section VII.B. of this final rule, we proposed a change to our existing Medicare provider enrollment regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Legal Authorities</HD>
                    <P>There are two principal categories of legal authorities for the Medicare provider enrollment provision addressed in section VII.B. of this final rule:</P>
                    <P>• Section 1866(j) of the Act furnishes specific authority regarding the enrollment process for providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <P>• Sections 1102 and 1871 of the Act provide general authority for the Secretary to prescribe regulations for the efficient administration of the Medicare program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Provisional Period of Enhanced Oversight (PPEO)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act states that the Secretary shall establish procedures to provide for a provisional period of between 30 days and 1 year during which new providers and suppliers—as the Secretary determines appropriate, including categories of providers or suppliers—will be subject to enhanced oversight. (Per section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act, such oversight can include, but is not limited to, prepayment review and payment caps.) CMS' authority under section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act to impose a PPEO is not restricted to certain provider and supplier types (for example, hospices) but can apply to any provider or supplier type the Secretary determines appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        As authorized by section 1866(j)(3)(B) of the Act, we previously implemented such procedures through subregulatory guidance with respect to newly enrolling HHAs' requests for anticipated payments (RAP).
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         More recently, in July 2023 we began placing new hospices located in Arizona, California, Nevada, and Texas in a provisional period of enhanced oversight. (See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/mln7867599-period-enhanced-oversight-new-hospices-arizona-california-nevada-texas.pdf</E>
                         for more information.)
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             CMS eliminated the use of RAPs for HHAs; beginning January 1, 2022, CMS replaced RAP submissions with a Notice of Admission.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>During the PPEO involving HHA RAPs, CMS received several stakeholder requests for clarification regarding the PPEO's scope. One of these concerned the meaning of the term “new” for purposes of applying a PPEO. While section 1866(j)(3)(B) of the Act states that we may implement procedures by program instruction, we finalized new § 424.527(a) in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule to address this issue. Specifically, new § 424.527(a)(1) through (3) defined a “new” provider or supplier (again, exclusively for purposes of our PPEO authority under section 1866(j)(3) of the Act) as any of the following:</P>
                    <P>• A newly enrolling Medicare provider or supplier. (This includes providers that must enroll as a new provider per the change in majority ownership provisions in § 424.550(b).)</P>
                    <P>• A certified provider or certified supplier undergoing a change of ownership consistent with the principles of 42 CFR 489.18. (This includes providers that qualify under § 424.550(b)(2) for an exception from the change in majority ownership requirements in § 424.550(b)(1) but which are undergoing a change of ownership under 42 CFR 489.18.)</P>
                    <P>
                        • A provider or supplier (including an HHA or hospice) undergoing a 100 percent change of ownership via a change of information request under § 424.516.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88467"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>We included these transactions within this definition because they have historically involved the effective establishment of a new provider or supplier for purposes of Medicare enrollment. For this reason, we have also received recent inquiries as to whether a reactivation should fall within the scope of § 424.527(a).</P>
                    <P>Under § 424.540 and the definition of “deactivate” in § 424.502, a deactivated provider's or supplier's enrollment and billing privileges are “stopped but can be restored upon the submission of updated information.” This restoration, or reactivation, generally involves: (1) the completion of a full Form CMS-855 application; and (2) a CMS or MAC determination as to whether the provider or supplier meets all enrollment requirements. These two steps generally mirror what occurs with the initial and change of ownership applications referenced in § 424.527(a). Although a deactivation does not rise to the level of a revocation of Medicare enrollment and billing privileges under § 424.535—for a revocation bars the provider or supplier from reenrolling in Medicare for a period of 1 to 10 years (with certain exceptions)—a deactivated provider or supplier cannot resume billing Medicare until the requirements for reactivation are met. It has, in effect, been blocked from the Medicare program. Indeed, as with a provider or supplier that voluntarily terminated its Medicare enrollment and now seeks to rejoin the program via an initial, new enrollment application, a reactivating provider, too, is requesting to rejoin the program. Described otherwise, a reactivating provider or supplier is resuming its involvement in the Medicare program after a stoppage (which, at least for practical and operational purposes, amounts to a loss) of Medicare enrollment and billing privileges. From this standpoint, we thus believe that a reactivating provider or supplier is no less “new” (for provider enrollment purposes) than one that is initially enrolling or undergoing a change of ownership.</P>
                    <P>For these and other reasons discussed in the proposed rule, we proposed to add a new paragraph (a)(4) to § 424.527 that includes providers and suppliers that are reactivating their enrollment and billing privileges under § 424.540(b). We elected to address this issue via rulemaking in § 424.527(a)(4). However, we retain the authority under section 1866(j)(3)(B) of the Act to establish and implement PPEO procedures via sub-regulatory guidance.</P>
                    <P>We received approximately 20 comments on our proposal. Summaries thereof and our responses are attached.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters supported our proposed change.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters' support.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that 1 year of additional oversight is a reasonable timeframe for enhanced oversight but should not extend beyond that period unless there is reasonable evidence that non-compliance is occurring. Another commenter stated that CMS should outline in the final rule the methods it uses to determine the length of a PPEO.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While we appreciate these comments, they do not directly pertain to the subject of our PPEO proposal, which is the expansion of the “new provider or supplier” definition to include reactivations. They instead involve the broader operational aspects of the overall PPEO process. Therefore, we respectfully believe they are outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters stated that CMS must furnish clear guidance to providers and suppliers under a PPEO concerning: (1) the PPEO's implementation and activities; (2) timelines for review; (3) appeals processes; (4) provider education; and (5) CMS' criteria for imposing sanctions and penalties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate these comments but respectively believe they are outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter urged CMS to target any PPEO towards providers and suppliers engaging in egregious conduct rather than those furnishing services in good faith.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate this comment but respectively believe it is outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter recommended that PPEOs use pre-claim review for specific claim edits or targeted probe and educate audits to ensure that conditions of payment are met.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate this comment but respectively believe it is outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that CMS should go beyond the application of PPEOs and take further measures to address program integrity issues, especially among home health agencies (HHAs). This could include, for example, greater scrutiny of HHA owners, publication and auditing of ownership data, and closer monitoring of patient care.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate this comment but respectively believe it is outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that provider and supplier claims can be subject to multiple types of CMS reviews at the same time, such as Unified Program Integrity Contractor audits, Comprehensive Error Rate Testing reviews, and now PPEOs. The commenter believed that performing these reviews concurrently is unnecessary and places an undue burden on the affected provider or supplier. The commenter suggested that CMS cease these simultaneous reviews and instead combine them into a single review or, if this is not possible, limit the scope and number of concurrent reviews.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate this comment but respectively believe it is outside the scope of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that CMS should consider the deactivation reason in determining whether a reactivating provider or supplier should be subject to a PPEO. More specifically, the commenter recommended limiting PPEO application to reactivating providers and suppliers that were deactivated for a verifiable instance of non-compliance with enrollment requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We believe the commenter is referencing § 424.540(a)(4), which permits deactivation based on enrollment non-compliance. As we explained at length in the proposed rule, there are deactivation reasons other than § 424.540(a)(4) that involve provider or supplier non-compliance. These include all of the following:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Failing to report a change to the provider's or supplier's enrollment information within the required timeframe (§ 424.540(a)(2)).</P>
                    <P>• Failing to timely respond to a revalidation request (§ 424.540(a)(3)).</P>
                    <P>• Having a non-operational or otherwise invalid practice location (§ 424.540(a)(5)).</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 424.540(a)(1), meanwhile, permits deactivation if the provider or supplier has not billed Medicare for 6 or more consecutive months. A reactivation request after many months of billing inactivity could raise questions as to whether, for instance: (1) the provider or supplier will remain compliant with Medicare enrollment requirements once reactivated; or (2) another party has compromised the provider's or supplier's deactivated billing privileges and seeks to fraudulently bill Medicare via the latter's reactivated enrollment. Indeed, we noted in the proposed rule that we have identified these latter scenarios and believe that using a PPEO to closely monitor reactivated providers or suppliers that had been deactivated under § 424.540(a)(1) would help ensure program integrity.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88468"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed rule also noted the deactivation reasons in § 424.540(a)(6) through (8). These are, respectively: (1) the provider or supplier is deceased; (2) the provider or supplier has voluntarily withdrawn from Medicare; and (3) the provider is the seller in an HHA ownership change under § 424.550(b). In each of these situations, the provider has departed the Medicare program, meaning the provider in effect is no longer compliant with Medicare enrollment requirements since it is not actively enrolled. If a provider that was deactivated under § 424.540(a)(7) or (8) is seeking to reenter the program, therefore, we must ensure the provider is not only compliant with Medicare enrollment requirements but also remains such during the period following its enrollment—hence the importance of the PPEO. A requested reactivation of a provider that was deactivated under § 424.540(a)(6) raises particularly serious concerns, for the requesting party might be attempting to use the deceased provider's identity to enter and fraudulently bill Medicare.</P>
                    <P>In sum, we believe that each reactivation scenario, regardless of the underlying deactivation reason, requires thorough scrutiny of the reactivating provider via the PPEO.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that providers and suppliers that do not appear to be reactivating for inappropriate purposes (for example, fraud) should be exempt from a PPEO. The commenter believed this could include, for instance, providers and suppliers that had been deactivated for 6 consecutive months of Medicare non-billing or for failing to respond to a revalidation request.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We previously explained that when a provider or supplier is reactivating its Medicare enrollment, it is, to some degree, reentering the Medicare program as would a new provider or supplier or one undergoing an ownership change. Given some of the similarities of these three transaction types in terms of CMS scrutiny and screening of their incoming CMS enrollment applications, we believe it is proper to apply a PPEO to all reactivating providers and suppliers irrespective of the deactivation reason. Moreover, part of the PPEO's purpose is to ensure that the reactivating provider or supplier is not reentering Medicare with nefarious objectives. To the extent the commenter is suggesting we do so, we cannot automatically assume the provider or supplier has no intent to engage in fraud, waste, or abuse based solely on the reason for their deactivation. To illustrate, we have noted that a provider or supplier reactivating their enrollment after 6 consecutive months of non-billing may, in fact, be a party that has compromised that provider's or supplier's deactivated billing privileges. PPEO(s) help us confirm that this is not the case, and that the provider or supplier is legitimate and compliant. We thus respectfully decline the commenter's recommended exemption.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter appeared to suggest that instead of applying a PPEO to reactivating providers and suppliers that were deactivated for enrollment non-compliance, CMS could instead require the reactivating provider or supplier to: (1) undergo CMS Medicare Learning Network (MLN)-based training; or (2) participate in a performance improvement plan (PIP).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We respectfully disagree. In our view, neither of the commenter's recommended alternatives furnish the level of CMS scrutiny that a PPEO provides. For example, they would not involve a detailed CMS review of claim accuracy or billing patterns, actions that are possible under a PPEO and help ensure that a reactivated provider or supplier is not engaging in fraud, waste, or abuse. Indeed, preventing such conduct and facilitating program integrity are the central purposes of a PPEO, and we do not believe that training and PIPs, though useful, can by themselves sufficiently fulfill these aims.
                    </P>
                    <P>After considering the comments we received, we are finalizing our proposed change to § 424.527(a)(4) without modification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Collection of Information Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statutory Requirement for the Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide a 60-day notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and solicit public comment before a collection of information requirement is submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. In order to fairly evaluate whether an information collection should be approved by OMB, section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 requires that we solicit comment on the following issues:
                    </P>
                    <P>• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.</P>
                    <P>• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.</P>
                    <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                    <P>• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including automated collection techniques.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Information Collection Requirements (ICRs)</HD>
                    <P>In the CY 2025 HH PPS rule, we solicited public comment on each of these issues for the following sections of this document that contain information collection requirements (ICRs).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICRs for HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in section III.D.3. of this rule, we proposed to collect four additional items as standardized patient assessment data elements and modified one item collected as a standardized patient assessment data element beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP. The four assessment items proposed for collection are (1) Living Situation, (2) Food Runs Out, (3) Food Doesn't Last, and (4) Utilities. We also propose replacing the current Access to Transportation item with a revised Transportation (Access to Transportation) item beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP as outlined in section III.D.5. of this rule. All elements discussed will be collected at the start of care timepoint. We assumed the Living Situation and Utilities data elements require 0.3 minutes each of clinician time to complete. We assumed the Food Runs Out and Food Doesn't Last data elements require 0.15 minutes each of clinician time to complete. We assumed the replacement of the current Access to Transportation item with a revised Transportation will not result in a change in burden. Therefore, we estimated that there will be an increase in clinician burden per OASIS assessment of 0.9 minutes at start of care.</P>
                    <P>As stated in section III.E. of this rule, CMS also proposed an update to the removal of the suspension of OASIS all-payer data collection to change all-payer data collection beginning with the start of care OASIS data collection timepoint instead of discharge timepoint. There is no associated change in burden resulting from this provision as burden for collection of for non-Medicare/non-Medicaid patients at all OASIS data collection timepoints was estimated in the CY 2023 HH PPS final rule.</P>
                    <P>The net effect of these provisions is an increase in four data elements collected at the start of care for the OASIS implemented on January 1, 2027.</P>
                    <P>
                        For purposes of calculating the costs associated with the information collection requirements, we obtained median hourly wages for these from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' May 2023 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88469"/>
                        (
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm</E>
                        ). To account for other indirect costs such as overhead and fringe benefits (100 percent), we have doubled the hourly wage. These amounts are detailed in table 28.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="118">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.058</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The OASIS is completed by RNs or PTs, or very occasionally by occupational therapists (OT) or speech language pathologists (SLP/ST). Data from 2021 show that the SOC/ROC OASIS is completed by RNs (approximately 77.14 percent of the time), PTs (approximately 22.16 percent of the time), and other therapists, including OTs and SLP/STs (approximately 0.7 percent of the time). Based on this analysis, we estimated a weighted clinician average hourly wage of $85.73, inclusive of fringe benefits, using the hourly wage data in table 28 0.7714 × 82.76 + 0.2216 × 95.98 + 0.007 × 89.26 = 85.74. Individual providers determine the staffing resources necessary.</P>
                    <P>For purposes of estimating burden, we compare the item-level burden estimates for the OASIS that will be released on January 1, 2027, to the OASIS-E1 as anticipated for implementation as of January 1, 2025, and finalized in CY2024 HH PPS final rule. The first component needed to calculate burden is the total estimated assessments for each year in question. Table 29 shows the total number of OASIS assessments that HHAs completed in CY 2023 at start of care and resumption of care. It also outlines the estimated assessments that are expected to be collected in 2025 based on a 30 percent increase in completed assessments required for all payer data submission requirements for (CY23 assessment total + CY23 assessment total *0.3 = Estimated CY25 Assessment total based on all payer data collection).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="110">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.059</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The totals from table 29 are used to calculate the hourly burden estimates in table 30 based on the following calculations:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Start of Care</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated time spent per each 2025 OASIS-E1 SOC Assessment/Patient = 56.4 clinician minutes</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">200 data elements × (range of 0.15 to 0.3) minutes per data element = 56.4 minutes of clinical time spent to complete data entry for the OASIS-E1 SOC assessment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 21 data elements counted as 0.15 minutes/data element (3.15 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 9 data elements counted as 0.25 minutes/data element (2.25 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 170 data elements counted as 0.30 minutes/data element (51 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Clinician Estimated hourly burden for all HHAs (11,904) for 2025 OASIS-E1 SOC assessments = 8,099,309 hours</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">56.4 clinician minutes per SOC assessment × 8,616,286 assessments = 485,958,530 minutes/60 minutes per hour = 8,099,309 hours for all HHAs</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated time spent per each 2027 OASIS SOC Assessment/Patient = 57.3 clinician minutes</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">204 data elements × (range of 0.15 to 0.3) minutes per data element = 57.3 minutes of clinical time spent to complete data entry for the OASIS SOC assessment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 23 data elements counted as 0.15 minutes/data element (3.45 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 9 data elements counted as 0.25 minutes/data element (2.25 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 172 data elements counted as 0.30 minutes/data element (51.6 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Clinician Estimated hourly burden for all HHAs (11,904) for 2027 OASIS SOC assessments = 8,228,553 hours</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">57.3 clinician minutes per SOC assessment × 8,616,286 assessments = 493,713,188 minutes/60 minutes per hour = 8,228,553 hours for all HHAs</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Resumption of Care</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated time spent per each 2025 OASIS-E1 ROC Assessment/Patient = 47.1 minutes</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">169 data elements × (range of 0.15 to 0.3) minutes per data element = 47.1 minutes of clinical time spent to complete data entry for the OASIS-E1 ROC assessment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        • 19 data elements counted as 0.15 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88470"/>
                        minute/data element (2.85 minutes)
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 9 data elements counted as 0.25 minute/data element (2.25 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 140 data elements counted as 0.30 minute/data element (42 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Clinician Estimated Hourly Burden for all HHAs for 2025 OASIS-E1 ROC assessments = 823,310 hours</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">47.1 clinician minutes per ROC assessment × 1,184,618 ROC assessments =55,795,508 minutes/60 minutes = 929,925 hours for all HHAs</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated time spent per each 2027 OASIS ROC Assessment/Patient = 48 minutes</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">173 data elements × (range of 0.15 to 0.3) minutes per data element = 48 minutes of clinical time spent to complete data entry for the OASIS ROC assessment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 21 data elements counted as 0.15 minute/data element (3.15 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 9 data elements counted as 0.25 minute/data element (2.25 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• 142 data elements counted as 0.30 minute/data element (42.6 minutes)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Clinician Estimated Hourly Burden for all HHAs for 2027 OASIS ROC assessments = 947,694 hours</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">48 clinician minutes per ROC assessment × 1,184,618 ROC assessments = 56,861,664 minutes/60 minutes = 947,694 hours for all HHAs</FP>
                    <P>Table 30 summarizes the estimated clinician hourly burden for the OASIS that will be implemented in 2027 with the proposed rule's changes of an increase in four data elements at start of care and resumption of care compared to the anticipated 2025 OASIS-E1 burden. This is calculated by multiplying the total number of assessments by the increase in assessment time required. We calculated the 2025 and 2027 burden estimate in minutes and then calculated an hourly burden shown in table 30. We estimated a net increase of 147,013 hours of clinician burden across all HHAs or 12.35 hours (147,013/11,904) for each of the 11,904 active HHAs.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="109">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.060</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 31 summarizes the estimated clinician costs for the 2025 OASIS-E1 and the 2027 OASIS with the net addition of four data elements at start of care using CY 2023 BLS wage inputs. Total clinician cost for 2025 and 2027 is estimated by multiplying total hourly burden for each year as reported in table 31 by the weighted clinician average hourly wage of $85.74. We then calculated the difference in clinician estimated costs between 2027 and 2025. This calculates the estimated increase in costs associated with adding the four data elements at start of care and resumption of care. We estimated an increase in clinician costs $12,604,894.62 between 2027 and 2025 related to the implementation of the proposals outlined in this rule across all HHAs or a $1,058.88 increase ($12,604,894.62/11,904) for each of the 11,904 active HHAs. This increase in burden will begin with the January 1, 2027, OASIS assessments.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="90">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.061</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters that supported the proposal expressed concerns about implementation including that the vendors be provided enough time to prepare for the changes, that home health agencies be provided time and resources to educate staff on the changes, that OASIS revisions are too frequent and burdensome for agencies and that implementation of the proposal would be burdensome. Some commenters cautioned that SDOH needs identified must be addressed, and one suggested that CMS should provide additional reimbursement to HHAs for the follow-up required to address identified needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. We proposed the SDOH data elements in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule with an effective date to begin collection via the OASIS instrument of January 1, 2027, to ensure that vendors and HHAs have sufficient time to prepare for implementation. We will make training available to HHAs on the changes to the OASIS, consistent with education and training resources for previous revisions to the OASIS instrument. We acknowledge that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and we are committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every 2 years. We agree that patients' needs should be addressed by the HHA, consistent with applicable rules and regulations, although we note that the proposal does not specify a requirement 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88471"/>
                        for how HHAs may address patients' needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters that did not support the proposal acknowledged that SDOH information is important but adding four data elements to the OASIS and modifying a fifth would be burdensome. A commenter noted that revisions to the OASIS are too frequent and recommended that CMS limit revisions to intervals of no less than 4 years. Another commenter suggested that the proposed living situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected and recommended that the look-back for the utilities data element be changed from 12 months to three to capture more reliable, valid, and timely information. Another commenter encouraged CMS to consider using SDOH information as part of the risk-adjusted outcome quality measures. A commenter stated the proposal is not aligned with health-related social needs reporting requirements across the care continuum and that further testing and refinement are needed to ensure the proposed items work as intended in this setting. This commenter noted that CMS' evaluation of the AHC HRNS screening tool in the AHC Model showed that screening did not appear to increase beneficiary connection to community resources or health-related social need resolution, and they recommended CMS conduct further testing and developing clearer implementation guidance before adopting the proposed data elements in the HHQRP.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. As previously stated, we acknowledge that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and we are committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every 2 years. We disagree that the proposed Living Situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected because it addresses housing insecurity, which is not part of the information captured in the current OASIS. We believe that the proposed data elements are not setting-specific, and that the testing conducted in their development has been sufficiently rigorous that we can adopt the data elements into the OASIS and the other PAC instruments with confidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments received, we are finalizing our proposal to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements in the SDOH category: one living situation item, two food items, and one utilities item, and to modify the transportation item in section III.C.D. of this rule beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICRs for the Expanded HHVBP Model</HD>
                    <P>The RFI and the health equity update for the expanded HHVBP Model included in section IV. of this rule do not result in an increase in costs to HHAs. Section 1115A(d)(3) of the Act exempts Innovation Center model tests and expansions, which include the expanded HHVBP Model, from the provisions of the PRA. Specifically, this section provides that the provisions of the PRA do not apply to the testing and evaluation of Innovation Center models or to the expansion of such models.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. ICRs Related to Conditions of Participation (CoPs): Organization and Administration of Services (§ 484.105)</HD>
                    <P>In section VI.A. of the rule, we discussed our proposal to add a new standard at § 484.105(i), which would set forth a requirement for HHAs to establish an “acceptance-to-service” policy. This new standard would require the HHA to develop, implement, and maintain through an annual review a patient acceptance-to-service policy that addressed criteria related to the HHA's capacity to provide patient care, including, but not limited to, anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient, case load and case mix of the HHA, staffing levels of the HHA, and competencies and skills of the HHA staff. In addition, we proposed the HHA would have to make public accurate information about the services offered by the HHA and any limitations related to the types of specialty services, service duration, and service frequency. We believe that most HHAs already have a policy related to the admission to service. The burden associated with this requirement is the burden required to develop, implement, and maintain an updated policy that would meet the requirements of this rule, and the burden associated with making specified information available to the public.</P>
                    <P>Section 1861(o)(2) of the Act requires HHAs to have policies established by a group of professional personnel (associated with the agency or organization), including one or more physicians and one or more registered professional nurses. Therefore, we expect the HHA to utilize a physician and nurse to create and update the HHA's policies. We estimated there are 9,565 Medicare-certified HHAs and that the proposed new requirement would take 1 hour each of a physician and a registered nurse's time on a one-time basis, for an HHA to develop an acceptance-to-service policy at a cost of $321.84 per HHA and $3,078,400 for all HHA's. We also estimated the HHA nurse would review the acceptance-to-service policy on an annual basis. This annual review would take 5 minutes for an HHA nurse at a cost of $7.00 per HHA for all HHAs to fulfill this requirement.</P>
                    <P>In addition, we estimated that the proposed requirement would take 15 minutes on a one-time basis for an HHA to the specified information public at a cost of $10.43 per HHA or $99,763 for all HHA's, based on the assumption that the HHA administrative professional will process this task. The average hourly rate for an administrative employee is $41.70, therefore it is $10.43 per HHA, or $99,763 for all HHA's to fulfill the requirement. We also proposed that the HHA administrative professional would review this website annually to assure the continued accuracy of the posted information. This annual review would take 5 minutes at a cost of $3.48 per HHA or $33,286 for all HHA's to fulfill this requirement.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="156">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88472"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.062</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters stated that CMS did not adequately account for the burden of the proposed acceptance-to-service policy in their estimates for compliance that maintaining the proposed policy would take HHAs appreciably more than 5 minutes per year and that the amount that CMS estimated ($9,000 to implement and $30,000 to maintain) would be insurmountable for small agencies. Likewise, a commenter stated that the estimate of $99,763 as a one-time cost for making the information public equates to approximately $9.07 per HHA which is less than the commenter believes this activity will cost. Other commenters stated that they did not support the proposed acceptance-to-service policy because of concerns that data collection and reporting for such a policy will create additional administrative burden for HHAs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the commenters feedback on burden estimates for the development of the proposed acceptance-to-service policy and the requirement to make this information public and update annually. We agree with the commenters feedback and have made adjustments to the burden estimates.
                    </P>
                    <P>To develop the acceptance-to-service policy, we expect the HHA to utilize a physician and nurse to create and update the HHA's policies. We estimated there are 9,565 Medicare-certified HHAs and that the proposed new requirement would take 2 hours each of a physician and a registered nurse's time on a one-time basis, for an HHA to develop an acceptance-to-service policy at a cost of $643.68 per HHA ($82.76 × 2 + $239.08 × 2) and $6,156,799 for all HHA's ($1,583,199 + $4,573,600). We also estimated the HHA nurse would review the acceptance-to-service policy on an annual basis. This annual review would take 30 minutes for an HHA nurse at a cost of $41.38 per HHA ($82.76 × 30/60 minutes) and $395,799.70 for all HHA's ($41.38 × 9,565) to fulfill this requirement.</P>
                    <P>In addition, we estimated that the proposed requirement to make the specified information public would take an HHA 30 minutes on a one-time basis at a cost of $20.85 per HHA or $199,430.25 for all HHA's, based on the assumption that the HHA administrative professional will process this task. The average hourly rate for an administrative employee is $41.70, therefore it is $20.85 per HHA ($41.70 hour × 30/60 minutes) or $199,430.25 for all HHA's ($20.85 × 9,565) to fulfill the requirement. We also proposed that the HHA administrative professional would review information to ensure accuracy as frequently as the services change. We revised the requirement at § 484.105(i)(2) to require HHAs to review public information regarding services offered, service limitations, or service frequency as frequently as the services as changed, but no less often than annually. Therefore, we estimate the average HHA may need to update this service information as frequently as 4 to 6 times per year, but no less than annually to assure the continued accuracy of the posted information. We estimate this review will take 10 minutes per review with an estimated six reviews annually at a cost of $41.70 for an HHA ($41.70 × 10/60 minute = $6.95 × 6 = $41.70) or $398,860.50 for all HHA's (41.70 × 9,565 = $398,860.50) to fulfill this requirement.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="174">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.063</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88473"/>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments we received, we are modifying the final burden estimated for home health agencies to be in compliance with the acceptance-to-service policy.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. ICRs for Provider Enrollment Provisions</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act states that the Secretary shall establish procedures to provide for a provisional period of between 30 days and 1 year during which new providers and suppliers—as the Secretary determines appropriate, including categories of providers or suppliers—will be subject to enhanced oversight. Some of these procedures have been codified in § 424.527. As explained in section VII. of this rule, we proposed to expand the definition of “new provider or supplier” in § 424.527(a) (solely for purposes of applying a provisional period of enhanced oversight) to include providers and suppliers that are reactivating their Medicare enrollment and billing privileges under § 424.540(b). We stated in the proposed rule that we do not anticipate any ICR burden associated with this provision, for we are merely expanding an existing regulatory definition.</P>
                    <P>We did not receive any comments on our ICR estimates and are therefore finalizing them as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. ICRs Related to LTC Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting § 483.80(g)</HD>
                    <P>In section VII.B. of this rule we discussed the final policy related to LTC requirements for acute respiratory illness reporting. At § 483.80(g)(1)(i) through (ix) and (g)(2), we proposed to replace the existing reporting requirements for LTC facilities with new requirements to report information addressing respiratory illnesses. Beginning on January 1, 2025, facilities would be required to electronically report information about COVID-19, influenza, and RSV in a standardized format and frequency specified by the Secretary. To the extent to be determined by the Secretary, through this rulemaking cycle, we proposed that the data elements for required reporting would include—</P>
                    <P>• Facility census;</P>
                    <P>• Resident vaccination status for a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV;</P>
                    <P>• Confirmed, resident cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV (overall and by vaccination status); and</P>
                    <P>• Hospitalized residents with confirmed cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses including but not limited to COVID-19, influenza, and RSV (overall and by vaccination status.).</P>
                    <P>In the absence of a declared national PHE for an acute respiratory illness, we proposed that LTC facilities would continue to report these data on a weekly basis through a format specified by the Secretary and specifically noted that we intend to continue reporting through the CDC's NHSN. We indicated that there may be instances in which the Secretary may determine a need to change reporting frequency, such as during a future PHE, and we would provide appropriate notice and guidance at that time.</P>
                    <P>In addition, during a declared national, State, or local PHE for an acute infectious illness we also proposed that the Secretary may require facilities to report:</P>
                    <P>• Data up to a daily frequency without additional notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>• Additional or modified data elements relevant to the PHE, including relevant confirmed infections among staff, supply inventory shortages, staffing shortages, and relevant medical countermeasures and therapeutics inventories, usage, or both.</P>
                    <P>
                        We noted that since the infection prevention and control program (IPCP) is the responsibility of the infection preventionist (IP), we anticipate that the IP would be responsible for reviewing and updating the policies and procedures for the facility's IPCP to comply with these proposals. We estimated that it would require 2 hours of the IP's time to update the facility's policies and procedures to ensure that they reflect the proposed requirements. In analyzing the ICRs related to the proposal we obtained salary information from the May 2023 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates, BLS at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm.</E>
                         We calculated the estimated hourly rate for an IP using the occupation code for a registered nurse (29-1141) based on the national mean salary increased by 100 percent to account for overhead costs and fringe benefits ($45.42 × 2 = $90.84 (rounded to $91). According to CMS, there are currently 14,926 LTC facilities as of April 2024.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://qcor.cms.gov/active_nh.jsp?which=0&amp;report=active_nh.jsp,</E>
                             report ran 4/24/2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Based on this salary information and facility data, we estimated that total annual burden hours for all LTC facilities to review and update their current policies and procedures would be 29,852 hours (2 hours × 14,926 facilities) at a cost of $2,716,532 (29,852 × $91) or $182 ($91 × 2 hours) per facility annually.</P>
                    <P>In addition, LTC facilities will need to continue locating the required information and electronically reporting in the frequency specified to the NHSN. Currently, the ICR associated with this reporting requirement under OMB control #0938-1363 (Reform of Requirements for Long-Term Care Facilities (CMS-10573)) estimates a total burden cost of $55,972,800 (1 hour × 52 weeks × $69 (IP 2022 salary) × 15,600 LTC facilities as of 2022) based on weekly reporting. We expect that ongoing reporting will require continuous efforts to collect and organize the information necessary to report the data through the NHSN or other system as determined by the Secretary. While the number of required data elements for ongoing reporting have decreased from the current post-COVID-19 PHE reporting requirements set to expire December 2024, we acknowledged that the data elements and reporting frequency could increase or decrease due to what the Secretary deems necessary based on changes in circumstance or given another PHE and these changes would impact this burden estimate. For instance, weekly data reporting could be decreased to bi-weekly reporting or the increased reporting of additional data elements during a PHE could be activated and remain active for less than or more than a year depending on the circumstances. Since we cannot predict with certainty how often the Secretary would require data reporting for a future PHE, we included two burden estimates to cover a range in the frequency of reporting. The lower range is based on weekly reporting and the higher range is based on daily reporting.</P>
                    <P>Based on the assumption of a weekly reporting frequency and 1 hour of the IP's time to locate and electronically report the information, we estimated that total annual burden hours for all LTC facilities to comply would be 776,152 hours (1 hour × 52 weeks × 14,926 facilities) at a cost of $70,629,832 (776,152 total hours × $91) or $4,732 ($91 × 1 hour × 52 weeks) per facility annually.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the assumption of a daily reporting frequency, we estimated that total annual burden hours for all LTC facilities to comply would be 5,447,990 hours (1 hour × 365 days a year × 14,926 facilities) at a cost of $495,767,090 (5,447,990 total hours × $91) or $33,215 ($91 × 1 hour × 365 days a year) per facility annually.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88474"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary, we estimated a total annual burden for all LTC facilities for the proposed ICRs of 806,004 to 5,477,842 hours at an estimated cost of $73,346,364 to $498,483,622 or 54 to 367 hours at an estimated cost of $4,914 to $33,397 per facility annually. The ICR burden currently associated with § 483.80(g) is included under OMB control number 0938-1363; expiration date: April 30, 2026. We will submit the revised information collection request to include these preliminary estimates to OMB for approval under OMB control number 0938-1363 (CMS-10914). We note that any additional ICR burden related to the specific instruments used for reporting and the time necessary to submit/report the data is the National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN) Surveillance in Healthcare Facilities (OMB control number 0920-1317) package.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="110">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.064</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We welcomed public comments on our ICR burden estimates, and on ways that reporting burden can be minimized while still providing adequate data. We also welcomed feedback on any challenges of collecting and reporting these data; ways that CMS could reduce reporting burden for facilities; and alternative reporting mechanisms or quality reporting programs through which CMS could instead effectively and sustainably incentivize reporting. Lastly, we welcomed comments that address system readiness and capacity to collect and report these data.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter did not agree with the assumptions used for estimating the burden of the proposed LTC respiratory illness data reporting requirements. This commenter stated that CMS has underestimated the required time for reporting these data and underestimated the cost by assuming that the activity would be completed by an RN. The commenter stated that this data collection is often done by the IP, the Director of Nursing, or the Nursing Home Administrator, all of whom have higher wage rates than an RN. The commenter noted that the BLS May 2023 National Industry-Specific Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates website, estimates the median hourly wage for a Nursing Home Administrator at $58.82, which raises the cost estimates by almost 50 percent as compared to the hourly wage used by CMS. The commenter also notes that the burden estimates do not account for other staff that may be involved in supporting the IP, the DON, or the Administrator in the data collection. Furthermore, they note that the time to gather and report the data to NHSN is impacted by facility size, number of weekly admissions and discharges, and the outbreak status of the facility. As an example, the commenter shares that a facility with an average census of 57 residents requires 3 hours per week to report to NHSN and a facility with an average census of 76 residents requires 5 hours per week to report to NHSN. They note that these estimates are based on the time currently necessary to comply with the existing COVID-19 data reporting requirements and asserts that the proposed revisions would increase this time based on the expanded data reporting elements. This commenter recommended that CMS not finalize the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We appreciate the feedback shared by this commenter regarding the effort and time currently exercised by varying facilities to comply with the existing COVID-19 data reporting requirements. We disagree with the commenter's assertion that the proposed revisions would increase burden and believe that the streamlined data elements proposed will positively impact data collection and reporting efforts, despite the possibility for changes in the frequency of reporting. The proposal reduced the number of data elements required for ongoing reporting from the current post-COVID-19 PHE reporting requirements set to expire December 2024. Specifically, starting on September 30, 2024, NHSN will have a single reporting form for all nursing home respiratory illness and vaccination data reporting, combining four forms into one, and resulting in a significant reporting burden reduction. Several data elements were removed, so even with the addition of influenza and RSV reporting, this single reporting form and new requirements result in a reduction in the number of data fields by 34 (from 50), and an overall time and burden reduction. In summary, the changes from the current post-PHE COVID-19 reporting to the proposals finalized in this rule include removing—
                    </P>
                    <P>• Staff Pathway (including positive tests among staff)</P>
                    <P>• Staff COVID-19 vaccination (−20 required fields)</P>
                    <P>• Total resident deaths</P>
                    <P>• Resident COVID-19 deaths</P>
                    <P>• Total beds</P>
                    <P>• Resident census</P>
                    <P>• Resident medical contraindications, declinations, and other/unknown vaccination statuses. Under the current forms there are 50 total fields (33 vaccination, 17 Pathways) and under the proposed CoP and revised forms there are 16 total fields (includes the addition of influenza and RSV).</P>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, we provided an explanation of the salary data used to inform our estimates. These requirements are a part of a facility's responsibility to develop and maintain an infection control program and as such, we based on our estimate on the assumption that the main individual conducting these activities would be the IP. Furthermore, to support the estimate we used the national mean salary data for an RN and increased the salary by 100 percent to account for overhead costs and fringe benefits. We acknowledge the commenter's feedback noting that varying staff types, besides the IP, may be responsible for completing the activities necessary to comply with the respiratory illness data reporting requirements. However, as the commenter noted, the IP is likely one of the individuals that may conduct the activities and therefore since we cannot know how often a DON or the administrator may be involved, we 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88475"/>
                        believe our assumption to estimate costs based on the IP, who is a RN, is reasonable. We also note that additional burden related to the specific instruments used for reporting and the time necessary to submit/report the data to the NHSN is account for in the NHSN Surveillance in Healthcare Facilities (OMB control number 0920-1317) package. This package accounts for additional burden related to the IP completing the data entry either manually (25 minutes) or by uploading a CSV file (20 minutes) in NHSN. Together, we believe that the burden associated for complying with the respiratory illness data reporting requirements has been reasonability estimated.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Submission of PRA-Related Comments</HD>
                    <P>We have submitted a copy of this final rule to OMB for its review of the rule's information collection requirements. The requirements are not effective until they have been approved by OMB.</P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of the supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collections, as previously discussed, please visit the CMS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.hhs.gov/PaperworkReductionActof1995,</E>
                         or call the Reports Clearance Office at 410-786-1326.
                    </P>
                    <P>We invited public comments on these potential information collection requirements. We received public comment on the information collection requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statement of Need</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. HH PPS</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(1) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish a HH PPS for all costs of home health services paid under Medicare. In addition, section 1895(b) of the Act requires: (1) the computation of a standard prospective payment amount include all costs for home health services covered and paid for on a reasonable cost basis and that such amounts be initially based on the most recent audited cost report data available to the Secretary; (2) the prospective payment amount under the HH PPS to be an appropriate unit of service based on the number, type, and duration of visits provided within that unit; and (3) the standardized prospective payment amount be adjusted to account for the effects of case-mix and wage levels among HHAs. Section 1895(b)(3)(B) of the Act addresses the annual update to the standard prospective payment amounts by the home health applicable percentage increase. Section 1895(b)(4) of the Act governs the payment computation. Sections 1895(b)(4)(A)(i) and (b)(4)(A)(ii) of the Act requires the standard prospective payment amount be adjusted for case-mix and geographic differences in wage levels. Section 1895(b)(4)(B) of the Act requires the establishment of appropriate case-mix adjustment factors for significant variation in costs among different units of services. Lastly, section 1895(b)(4)(C) of the Act requires the establishment of wage adjustment factors that reflect the relative level of wages, and wage-related costs applicable to home health services furnished in a geographic area compared to the applicable national average level.</P>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(iv) of the Act provides the Secretary with the authority to implement adjustments to the standard prospective payment amount (or amounts) for subsequent years to eliminate the effect of changes in aggregate payments during a previous year or years that were the result of changes in the coding or classification of different units of services that do not reflect real changes in case-mix. Section 1895(b)(5) of the Act provides the Secretary with the option to make changes to the payment amount otherwise paid in the case of outliers because of unusual variations in the type or amount of medically necessary care. Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act requires HHAs to submit data for purposes of measuring health care quality and links the quality data submission to the annual applicable percentage increase.</P>
                    <P>Sections 1895(b)(2) and 1895(b)(3)(A) of the Act, as amended by sections 51001(a)(1) and 51001(a)(2) of the BBA of 2018 respectively, required the Secretary to implement a 30-day unit of service, for 30-day periods beginning on and after January 1, 2020. Section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act, as added by section 51001(a)(2)(B) of the BBA of 2018, requires the Secretary to annually determine the impact of differences between assumed behavior changes, as described in section 1895(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act, and actual behavior changes on estimated aggregate expenditures under the HH PPS with respect to years beginning with 2020 and ending with 2026. Section 1895(b)(3)(D)(ii) of the Act requires the Secretary, at a time and in a manner determined appropriate, through notice and comment rulemaking, to provide for one or more permanent increases or decreases to the standard prospective payment amount (or amounts) for applicable years, on a prospective basis, to offset for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures, as determined under section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act. Additionally, 1895(b)(3)(D)(iii) of the Act requires the Secretary, at a time and in a manner determined appropriate, through notice and comment rulemaking, to provide for one or more temporary increases or decreases to the payment amount for a unit of home health services for applicable years, on a prospective basis, to offset for such increases or decreases in estimated aggregate expenditures, as determined under section 1895(b)(3)(D)(i) of the Act. The HH PPS wage index utilizes the wage adjustment factors used by the Secretary for purposes of sections 1895(b)(4)(A)(ii) and (b)(4)(C) of the Act for hospital wage adjustments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>Section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act authorizes the HH QRP, which requires HHAs to submit data in accordance with the requirements specified by CMS. Failure to submit data required under section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act with respect to a program year will result in the reduction of the annual home health market basket percentage increase otherwise applicable to an HHA for the corresponding calendar year by 2 percentage points.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Expanded HHVBP Model</HD>
                    <P>In the CY 2022 HH PPS final rule (86 FR 62292 through 62336) and codified at 42 CFR part 484, subpart F, we finalized our policy to expand the HHVBP Model to all Medicare certified HHAs in the 50 States, territories, and District of Columbia beginning January 1, 2022. CY 2022 was a pre-implementation year. CY 2023 was the first performance year in which HHAs individual performance on the applicable measures will affect their Medicare payments in CY 2025. In this final rule, we summarized comments that we received on a RFI related to the future measure concepts for the expanded HHVBP Model. The proposed rule also included an update on potential future approaches for integrating health equity that are being considered for the expanded HHVBP Model. This final rule does not make any changes to the expanded HHVBP Model.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Home IVIG Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>
                        Division FF, section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 (Pub. L. 117-328), which amended section 1842(o) of the Act, mandated that CMS establish a permanent, bundled payment for items and services related to administration of IVIG in a patient's home. The permanent, bundled home IVIG items and services payment is effective for home IVIG 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88476"/>
                        infusions furnished on or after January 1, 2024. Payment for these items and services is required to be a separate bundled payment made to a supplier for all items and services furnished in the home during a calendar day. This payment amount may be based on the amount established under the Demonstration. The standard Part B coinsurance and the Part B deductible apply. The separate bundled payment does not apply for individuals receiving services under the Medicare home health benefit. Section 1834(j)(5) of the Act clarifies that a supplier who furnishes these services meet the requirements of a supplier of medical equipment and supplies. The permanent, bundled home IVIG items and services payment is updated by the home health update percentage beginning January 1, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. HHA CoP Changes: Establishing an Acceptance-to-Service Policy</HD>
                    <P>In sections 1861(o) and 1891 of the Act, the Secretary has established in regulations the requirements that an HHA must meet to participate in the Medicare program. These requirements are set forth in regulations at 42 CFR part 484, Home Health Services, and regulations at 42 CFR 440.70(d) specify that HHAs participating in the Medicaid program must also meet the Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoPs). Section 1861(o)(6) of the Act requires that an HHA must meet the CoPs specified in section 1891(a) of the Act, and other CoPs as the Secretary finds necessary in the interest of the health and safety of patients. The CoPs for HHAs protect all individuals under the HHA's care, unless a requirement states that this is specifically limited to Medicare beneficiaries. As explained in section VI.A. of this rule, we are proposed to add a new standard at § 484.105(i) that would require HHAs to develop, consistently apply, and maintain an acceptance-to-service policy, including specified factors, that would govern the process for accepting patients to service. We also proposed that HHAs would be required to make specified information about their services and service limitations available to the public.</P>
                    <P>We received no comments on regulatory impact analysis for the proposal and believe there are no additional costs beyond what we have recognized in the collection of information section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Provider Enrollment Provisions</HD>
                    <P>Section 1866(j)(3)(A) of the Act states that the Secretary shall establish procedures to provide for a provisional period of between 30 days and 1 year during which new providers and suppliers—as the Secretary determines appropriate, including categories of providers or suppliers—will be subject to enhanced oversight. Some of these procedures have been codified in 42 CFR 424.527. As explained in section VII. of this rule, we proposed to expand the definition of “new provider or supplier” in § 424.527(a) (solely for purposes of applying a provisional period of enhanced oversight (PPEO)) to include providers and suppliers that are reactivating their Medicare enrollment and billing privileges under § 424.540(b).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. LTC Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <P>Sections 1819(d)(3) and 1919(d)(3) of the Act explicitly require that LTC facilities develop and maintain an infection control program that is designed, constructed, equipped, and maintained in a manner to protect the health and safety of residents, personnel, and the general public. In addition, sections 1819(d)(4)(B) and 1919(d)(4)(B) of the Act explicitly authorize the Secretary to issue any regulations he deems necessary to protect the health and safety of residents. As such, we are proposed streamlined weekly data reporting requirements for certain respiratory illnesses. We are also proposed additional, related data elements that could be activated in the event of a future acute respiratory illness PHE.</P>
                    <P>We did not receive any comments specifically related to the regulatory impact analysis for these proposed requirements. Comments received on these proposals, including those related to our ICR burden estimates and general burden concerns, can be found earlier in the rule in the Collection of Information section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Overall Impact</HD>
                    <P>We have examined the impacts of this final rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), Executive Order 14094 on Modernizing Regulatory Review (April 6, 2023), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96 354), section 1102(b) of the Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999), and the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)).</P>
                    <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 14094 amends section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 to define a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule: (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more in any 1 year, or adversely affect in a material way the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or Tribal governments or communities; (2) creating a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities.</P>
                    <P>A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for a regulatory action that is significant under section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866. Based on our estimates, OMB'S Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has determined this rulemaking is significant under section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866. Accordingly, we have prepared a regulatory impact analysis that presents the costs and benefits of the rulemaking to the best of our ability. Pursuant to Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (also known as the Congressional Review Act), OIRA has determined that this rule meets the criteria set forth in 5U.S.C.804(2). Therefore, OMB has reviewed this final rule and the Department has provided the following assessment of their impact.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Detailed Economic Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Effects of the Final Policy Changes for the CY 2025 HH PPS</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule updates Medicare payments under the HH PPS for CY 2025. The net transfer impact related to the changes in payments under the HH PPS for CY 2025 is estimated to be $85 million (0.5 percent). The $85 million increase in estimated payments for CY 2025 reflects the effects of the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage of 2.7 percent ($460 million increase), an estimated 1.8 percent decrease that reflects the effects of the permanent adjustment ($305 million decrease), and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88477"/>
                        an estimated 0.4 percent decrease that reflects the effects of an updated FDL ($70 million decrease).
                    </P>
                    <P>We use the latest data and analysis available. However, we do not adjust for future changes in such variables as number of visits or case-mix. This analysis incorporates the latest estimates of growth in service use and payments under the Medicare home health benefit, based primarily on Medicare claims data for periods that ended on or before December 31, 2023. We note that certain events may combine to limit the scope or accuracy of our impact analysis, because such an analysis is future-oriented and, thus, susceptible to errors resulting from other changes in the impact time period assessed. Some examples of such possible events are newly-legislated general Medicare program funding changes made by the Congress or changes specifically related to HHAs. In addition, changes to the Medicare program may continue to be made as a result of new statutory provisions. Although these changes may not be specific to the HH PPS, the nature of the Medicare program is such that the changes may interact, and the complexity of the interaction of these changes could make it difficult to predict accurately the full scope of the impact upon HHAs.</P>
                    <P>Table 35 represents how HHA revenues are likely to be affected by the final policy changes for CY 2025. For this analysis, we used an analytic file with linked CY 2023 OASIS assessments and home health claims data for dates of service that ended on or before December 31, 2023. The first column of table 35 classifies HHAs according to a number of characteristics including provider type, geographic region, and urban and rural locations. The second column shows the number of facilities in the impact analysis. The third column shows the payment effects of the permanent assumption adjustment on all payments. The aggregate impact of the permanent adjustment reflected in the third column does not equal the final −1.975 percent permanent adjustment because the adjustment only applies to the national, standardized 30-day period payments and does not impact payments for 30-day periods which are LUPAs. The fourth column shows the payment effects of the recalibration of the case-mix weights offset by the case-mix weights budget neutrality factor. The fifth column shows the payment effects of updating the CY 2025 wage index (that is, the FY 2025 hospital pre-floor, pre-reclassified wage index for hospital cost reporting periods beginning on or after October 1, 2020, and before October 1, 2021 (FY 2021 cost report data)) with the revised OMB delineations and a 5-percent cap on wage index decreases. The aggregate impact of the changes in the fifth column is zero percent, due to the wage index budget neutrality factor. The sixth column shows the payment impacts of the final update to the LUPA add-on factors. The seventh column shows the payment effects of the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage. The eighth column shows the payment effects of the revised FDL, and the last column shows the combined effects of all the final provisions.</P>
                    <P>Overall, it is projected that aggregate payments in CY 2025 would increase by 0.5 percent which reflects the 1.8 percent decrease from the permanent adjustment, the 2.7 payment update percentage increase, and the 0.4 percent decrease from increasing the FDL. As illustrated in table 35, the combined effects of all changes vary by specific types of providers and by location. We note that some individual HHAs within the same group may experience different impacts on payments than others due to the distributional impact of the CY 2025 wage index, the percentage of total HH PPS payments that were subject to the LUPA or paid as outlier payments, and the degree of Medicare utilization.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88478"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.065</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88479"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.066</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88480"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Effects of the Changes for the HH QRP for CY 2027</HD>
                    <P>Failure to submit HH QRP data required under section 1895(b)(3)(B)(v) of the Act with respect to a program year will result in the reduction of the annual home health market basket percentage increase otherwise applicable to an HHA for the corresponding calendar year by 2 percentage points. For the CY 2023 program year, 820 of the 11,549 active Medicare-certified HHAs, or approximately 7.1 percent, did not receive the full annual percentage increase because they did not meet assessment submission requirements. The 820 HHAs that did not satisfy the reporting requirements of the HH QRP for the CY 2023 program year represent $149 million in home health claims payment dollars during the reporting period out of a total $16.4 billion for all HHAs.</P>
                    <P>We proposed to collect four additional items as standardized patient assessment data elements and modify one item collected as a standardized patient assessment data element beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP. The four assessment items proposed for collection were (1) Living Situation;(2) Food Runs Out; (3) Food Doesn't Last; and (4) Utilities. We also proposed to modify the current Access to Transportation item with a revised Transportation (Access to Transportation) item beginning with the CY 2027 HH QRP. CMS also proposed an update to the removal of the suspension of OASIS all-payer data collection to change all-payer data collection beginning with the start of care OASIS data collection timepoint instead of discharge timepoint. The net effect of these proposals was an increase of four data elements at the start of care time point and a net increase in burden.</P>
                    <P>Section VIII.B.1. of this rule provides a detailed description of the net increase in burden associated with the proposed changes. We proposed that additions of data elements associated with the HH QRP proposals would begin with January 1, 2027, discharges. The cost impact of these proposed changes was estimated to be a net increase of $12,604,89 5 in annualized cost to HHAs, discounted at 2 percent relative to year 2023, over a perpetual time horizon beginning in CY 2027. We described the estimated burden and cost reductions for these measures in section VIII. of this rule. In summary, the implementation of proposed provisions outlined in this rule for the HH QRP is estimated to increase the burden on HHAs by $1,059 per HHA annually, or $12,604,895 for all HHAs annually.</P>
                    <P>Commenters that supported the proposal expressed concerns about implementation including that the vendors be provided enough time to prepare for the changes, that home health agencies be provided time and resources to educate staff on the changes, that OASIS revisions are too frequent and burdensome for agencies and that implementation of the proposal would be burdensome. Some commenters cautioned that SDOH needs identified must be addressed, and one suggested that CMS should provide additional reimbursement to HHAs for the follow-up required to address identified needs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. We proposed the SDOH data elements in the CY 2025 HH PPS proposed rule with an effective date to begin collection via the OASIS instrument of January 1, 2027, to ensure that vendors and HHAs have sufficient time to prepare for implementation. We will make training available to HHAs on the changes to the OASIS, consistent with education and training resources for previous revisions to the OASIS instrument. We acknowledge that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and is committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every 2 years. We agree that patients' needs should be addressed by the HHA, consistent with applicable rules and regulations, although we note that the proposal does not specify a requirement for how HHAs may address patients' needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters that did not support the proposal acknowledged that SDOH information is important but adding four data elements to the OASIS and modifying a fifth would be burdensome. A commenter noted that revisions to the OASIS are too frequent and recommended that CMS limit revisions to intervals of no less than four years. A commenter suggested that the proposed living situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected and recommended that the look-back for the utilities data element be changed from 12 months to 3 months to capture more reliable, valid, and timely information. Another commenter encouraged CMS to consider using SDOH information as part of the risk-adjusted outcome quality measures. A commenter stated the proposal is not aligned with health-related social needs reporting requirements across the care continuum and that further testing and refinement are needed to ensure the proposed items work as intended in this setting. This commenter noted that CMS' evaluation of the AHC HRSN screening tool in the AHC Model showed that screening did not appear to increase beneficiary connection to community resources or health-related social need resolution, and they recommended CMS conduct further testing and developing clearer implementation guidance before adopting the proposed data elements in the HHQRP.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         We acknowledge the commenters' concerns and appreciate their suggestions. As previously stated, we acknowledge that revisions to the OASIS require time and effort and resources for providers to prepare for the changes and we are committed to proposing revisions to the OASIS no more frequently than every 2 years. We disagree that the proposed Living Situation data element is duplicative of information that is already collected because it addresses housing insecurity, which is not part of the information captured in the current OASIS. We believe that the proposed data elements are not setting-specific, and that the testing conducted in their development has been sufficiently rigorous that we can adopt the data elements into the OASIS and the other PAC instruments with confidence.
                    </P>
                    <P>After consideration of the public comments we received, we are finalizing our proposal to adopt four new items as standardized patient assessment data elements in the SDOH category: one living situation item, two food items, and one utilities item, and to modify the transportation item in section III.D.5. of this rule beginning January 1, 2027, with the CY 2027 HH QRP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Effects of the Expanded HH VBP Model</HD>
                    <P>
                        There were no proposed changes to the expanded HHVBP Model for CY 2025. Therefore, we assumed there are no impacts resulting from this provision. Furthermore, the public comments received related to the Request for Information on Future Performance Measure Concepts for the Expanded HHVBP Model and the update on Future Approaches to Health Equity in the Expanded HHVBP Model, included in section IV. of the proposed rule, will be summarized in this final rule and may inform proposals through future rulemaking.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88481"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Impacts of Home IVIG Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>The following analysis applies to the home IVIG items and services payment rate as set forth in section V.D.1. of this final rule as added by section 4134 of the CAA, 2023 and accordingly, describes the impact for CY 2025 only. Table 36 represents the estimated aggregate costs of home IVIG users for CY 2025. We used CY 2023 data to identify beneficiaries actively enrolled in the IVIG demonstration (that is, beneficiaries with Part B claims that contain the Q2052 HCPCS code) to estimate the number of potential CY 2025 active enrollees in the new benefit, which are shown in column 2. In column 3, CY 2023 claims for IVIG visits under the Demonstration were again used to estimate potential utilization under the new benefit in CY 2025. Column 4 shows the final CY 2025 home IVIG items and services rate. The fifth column estimates the total cost to Medicare for CY 2025 ($9,535,238). The increase in estimated costs of covered IVIG items and services for CY 2025 relative to the baseline year in CY 2024 (using updated CY 2023 claims data as of July 26, 2024) is $250,000. Table 36 represents the estimated impacts of the home IVIG items and services payment for CY 2025 by census region.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="108">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.067</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="273">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.068</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. HHA CoP Changes: Establishing an Acceptance-to-Service Policy</HD>
                    <P>We proposed to add a new standard § 484.105(i), which sets forth a requirement for HHAs to establish an acceptance-to-service policy. All costs associated with this policy are located in the section VIII. of this final rule (Collection of Information). There are no transfers associated with this requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Provider Enrollment Provisions</HD>
                    <P>For purposes of applying a PPEO, we proposed to expand the definition of “new provider or supplier” in § 424.527(a) to include providers and suppliers that are reactivating their Medicare enrollment and billing privileges under § 424.540(b). We stated in the proposed rule's regulatory impact section that we were unable to establish an estimate of any potential burden associated with this provision for two main reasons. First, we do not have sufficient data upon which we could formulate a burden projection. Second, we could not predict the scope, extent, and length of any future PPEO or the provider or supplier type(s) to which it may apply. Accordingly, we solicited public comment from stakeholders on the potential burden of our expansion of § 424.527(a).</P>
                    <P>
                        We did not received comments regarding the potential impact of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88482"/>
                        § 424.527(a)'s expansion and are therefore finalizing our assessments as discussed in the previous paragraph.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Effects of the LTC Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting</HD>
                    <P>We proposed to update the requirements related to reporting acute respiratory illnesses for LTC facilities at § 483.80(g). All cost associated with this policy are located in the section IX. of this final rule (Collection of Information). There are no transfers associated with this requirement. We welcomed public comments on our estimates, and on ways that reporting burden can be minimized while still providing adequate data. We also welcomed feedback on any challenges of collecting and reporting these data; ways that CMS could reduce reporting burden for facilities; and alternative reporting mechanisms or quality reporting programs through which CMS could instead effectively and sustainably incentivize reporting. Lastly, we welcomed comments that address system readiness and capacity to collect and report these data.</P>
                    <P>A summary of comments received on the proposed rule can be found in sections VI.B. (Long-Term Care (LTC) Requirements for Acute Respiratory Illness Reporting) and section VIII.B.5. (Collection of Information) of this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Regulatory Review Cost Estimation</HD>
                    <P>
                        If regulations impose administrative costs on private entities, such as the time needed to read and interpret this final rule, we should estimate the cost associated with the regulatory review. Due to the uncertainty involved with accurately quantifying the number of entities that will review the rule, we assume that the total number of unique commenters on this year's proposed rule will be the number of reviewers of this final rule. We acknowledge that this assumption may understate or overstate the costs of reviewing this rule. It is possible that not all commenters reviewed this year's proposed rule in detail, and it is also possible that some reviewers chose not to comment on the proposed rule. For these reasons we thought that the number of commenters would be a fair estimate of the number of reviewers of this rule. We also recognize that different types of entities are in many cases affected by mutually exclusive sections of this rule, and therefore for the purposes of our estimate we assume that each reviewer reads approximately 50 percent of the rule. Using the wage information from the BLS for medical and health service managers (Code 11-9111), we estimate that the cost of reviewing this rule is $106.42 per hour, including overhead and fringe benefits 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm.</E>
                         Assuming an average reading speed, we estimate that it would take approximately 3.49 hours for the staff to review half of this final rule. For each entity that reviews the rule, the estimated cost is $371.41 (3.49 hours × $106.42). Therefore, we estimate that the total cost of reviewing this regulation is $399,637 ($371.41 × 1,076) [1,076 is the number of estimated reviewers, which is based on the total number of unique commenters from this year's proposed rule].
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. HH PPS</HD>
                    <P>For the CY 2025 HH PPS, we considered alternatives to the final provisions articulated in section II.C. of this rule. As described in section II.C.1.b. of this rule, we finalized a mapping of three OASIS items (therapies, vision, and pain) and a lookback period of 12 months in order to impute the responses from the OASIS-E to the OASIS-D to create simulated 60-day episodes from 30-day periods. We considered not mapping the three items (therapies, vision, and pain). Alternatives to the lookback period consisted of our initial proposal of 24 months and a shorter, three-month lookback period. We also considered no lookback period. However, to continue with the previously finalized methodology for assessing behavior changes, which uses certain OASIS items, we finalized the OASIS-E to OASIS-D mapping of the three items and a 12-month lookback period.</P>
                    <P>As described in section II.C.1.g. of this rule, to achieve appropriate payments, we calculated a permanent adjustment by determining what the 30-day base payment amount should have been in CYs 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2023 in order to achieve the same estimated aggregate expenditures as obtained from the simulated 60-day episodes. One alternative to the −1.975 percent permanent adjustment, as finalized in this rule, included taking the full adjustment of −3.95 percent. Another alternative would be to take the remaining permanent adjustment not taken in the CY 2024 HH PPS final rule, which resulted in −2.890 percent. Another alternative would be a phase-in approach, where we could reduce the permanent adjustment by spreading out the CY 2025 permanent adjustment over a specified period of years, rather than halving the adjustment in CY 2025. Another alternative would be to delay the permanent adjustment to a future year. However, we are not taking the −3.95 adjustment as we wish to be responsive to commenter concerns about the on-going permanent adjustments to payment rate. Additionally, we believe that applying the permanent behavior adjustment calculated using CY 2023 claims over a period of several years, or delaying the permanent adjustment, would not be appropriate as it would further impact budget neutrality and likely lead to a compounding effect creating the need for a larger permanent reduction to the payment rate in future years. Therefore, we are finalizing a −1.975 percent (half of the permanent −3.95 percent adjustment) permanent adjustment to the CY 2025 30-day payment rate. As stated previously in this final rule, we did not propose implementing the temporary adjustment to reconcile retrospective overpayments in CYs 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2023.</P>
                    <P>Finally, we considered not finalizing adopting the revised OMB delineations listed in OMB Bulletin 23-01. However, we have historically adopted the latest OMB delineations in subsequent rulemaking after a new OMB Bulletin is released. We continue to believe it is important for the HH PPS wage index to use the latest OMB delineations available in order to maintain a more accurate and up-to-date payment system that reflects the reality of population shifts and labor market conditions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Home IVIG Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>For the CY 2025 HH PPS, we did not consider alternatives to updating the home IVIG items and services payment for CY 2025 because section 1842(o)(8) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish a separate bundled payment to the supplier for all items and services related to the administration of intravenous immune globulin to an individual in the patient's home during a calendar day effective January 1, 2024, and to annually update this rate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Accounting Statements and Tables</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. HH PPS</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/circulars/A4/a-4.pdf</E>
                        ), in table 38, we have prepared an accounting statement showing the classification of the transfers and benefits associated with the CY 2025 HH PPS provisions of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="85">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88483"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.069</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. HH QRP</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required
                        <FTREF/>
                         by OMB Circular A-4 (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/circulars/A4/a-4.pdf</E>
                        ), in table 39, we have prepared an accounting statement showing the classification of the costs associated with the ICRs for the proposed HH QRP provisions in CY 2027.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/sites/sbagov/files/2023-03/Table%20of%20Size%20Standards_Effective%20March%2017%2C%202023.xlsx.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="96">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.070</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>We received no comments on the proposal and therefore are finalizing this provision without modification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Home IVIG Items and Services</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/circulars/A4/a-4.pdf</E>
                        ), in table 40, we have prepared an accounting statement showing the classification of the transfers and benefits associated with the CY 2025 IVIG provisions of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="85">
                        <GID>ER07NO24.071</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                    <P>The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities, if a rule has a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. In addition, HHAs are small entities, as that is the term used in the RFA. Individuals and States are not included in the definition of a small entity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) was adopted in 1997 and is the current standard used by the Federal statistical agencies related to the U.S. business economy. We utilized the NAICS U.S. industry title “Home Health Care Services” and corresponding NAICS code 621610 in determining impacts for small entities. The NAICS code 621610 has a size standard of $19 million 
                        <SU>141</SU>
                         and approximately 96 percent of HHAs are considered small entities. Table 41 shows the number of firms, revenue, and estimated impact per home health care service category.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="264">
                        <PRTPAGE P="88484"/>
                        <GID>ER07NO24.072</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The economic impact assessment is based on estimated Medicare payments (revenues) and HHS's practice in interpreting the RFA is to consider effects economically “significant” on a “substantial” number of small entities only if greater than 5 percent of providers reach a threshold of 3 to 5 percent or more of total revenue or total costs. The majority of HHAs' visits are Medicare paid visits and therefore the majority of HHAs' revenue consists of Medicare payments. We detail the CY 2025 HHA impacts by facility type and area of the country in table 35. Specifically, we estimate that the net impact of the policies in this final rule will only have a significant impact on HHAs in the East South Central Region, which is reflected in the last column in table 35 as a 3.2 percent increase in revenue when comparing CY 2025 payments to estimated CY 2024 payments. The East South Central represents 3.7 percent (357 of 9638) of the number of HHAs. HHAs in all other regions will experience net impacts ranging from −1.5 percent (Pacific Region) to 1.9 percent (West South Central). Furthermore, in section IX.E. of this final rule (Alternatives Considered), we provide a detailed analysis of the alternatives considered for the various provisions in this final rule. As a result, based on our analysis, we conclude that the provisions in this final rule will not result in an estimated total impact of 3 to 5 percent or more on Medicare revenue for greater than 5 percent of HHAs. Therefore, the Secretary certifies that this final rule will not have significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. We received no comments on the overall RFA analysis.</P>
                    <P>This RFA section along with the RIA constitutes our final regulatory flexibility analysis.</P>
                    <P>In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare an RIA if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 604 of RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and has fewer than 100 beds. This final rule is not applicable to hospitals. Therefore, the Secretary has certified that this final rule would not have a significant economic impact on the operations of small rural hospitals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                    <P>Section 202 of UMRA of 1995 UMRA also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2024, that threshold is approximately $183 million. This rule will not impose a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $183 million in any one year.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Federalism</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has federalism implications. We have reviewed this final rule under these criteria of Executive Order 13132 and have determined that it would not impose substantial direct costs on State or local governments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Conclusion</HD>
                    <P>
                        In conclusion, we estimated that the provisions in this rule will result in an estimated net increase in home health payments of 0.5 percent for CY 2025 ($85 million). The $85 million increase in estimated payments for CY 2025 reflects the effects of the final CY 2025 home health payment update percentage increase of 2.7 percent ($460 million increase), a 0.4 percent decrease in payments due to the new higher FDL ratio, which will decrease outlier payments in order to target to pay no more than 2.5 percent of total payments as outlier payments ($70 million decrease), and an estimated 1.8 percent decrease in payments that reflects the effects of the permanent behavior adjustment ($305 million decrease). In addition, the estimated impact of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88485"/>
                        home IVIG items and services payment for CY 2025 is an increase of $250,000.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Waiver Fiscal Responsibility Act Requirements</HD>
                    <P>The Director of OMB has waived the requirements of section 263 of the Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023 (Pub. L. 118-5) pursuant to sections 265(a)(1) and (a)(2) of Public Law 118-5.</P>
                    <P>Chiquita Brooks-LaSure, Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, approved this document on October 17, 2024.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>42 CFR Part 424</CFR>
                        <P>Emergency medical services, Health facilities, Health professions, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>42 CFR Part 483</CFR>
                        <P>Grant programs—health, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Medicaid, Medicare, Nursing homes, Nutrition, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety.</P>
                        <CFR>42 CFR Part 484</CFR>
                        <P>Health facilities, Health professions, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements. </P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services amends 42 CFR chapter IV as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 424-CONDITIONS FOR MEDICARE PAYMENT</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="424">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority for part 424 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395hh.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="424">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Section 424.527 is amended by adding paragraph (a)(4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 424.527 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Provisional period of enhanced oversight.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(4) A provider or supplier reactivating the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment and billing privileges in accordance with § 424.540(b).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 483—REQUIREMENTS FOR STATES AND LONG TERM CARE FACILITIES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="483">
                        <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 483 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 42 U.S.C. 1302, 1320a-7, 1395i, 1395hh and 1396r.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="483">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Section 483.80 is amended by revising paragraph (g) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 483.80 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Infection control.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Respiratory illness reporting</E>
                                —(1) 
                                <E T="03">Ongoing reporting.</E>
                                 The facility must electronically report information on acute respiratory illnesses, including influenza, severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)/coronavirus 2019 (COVID-19), and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The report must be in a standardized format and frequency specified by the Secretary.</P>
                            <P>(ii) To the extent as required by the Secretary, this report must include all of the following data elements:</P>
                            <P>(A) Facility census (defined as the total number of residents occupying a bed at this facility for at least 24 hours during the week of data collection).</P>
                            <P>(B) Resident vaccination status for a limited set of respiratory illnesses, including but not limited to the following:</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Influenza.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) RSV.
                            </P>
                            <P>(C) Confirmed, resident cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses, including but not limited to the following:</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Influenza.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) RSV.
                            </P>
                            <P>(D) Hospitalized residents with confirmed cases of a limited set of respiratory illnesses, including but not limited to the following:</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) Influenza.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) RSV.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Public health emergency (PHE) reporting.</E>
                                 In the event that the Secretary has declared a national, State, or local PHE for an acute infectious illness, the facility must also electronically report all of the following data elements in a standardized format and frequency specified by the Secretary:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) Relevant confirmed infections for staff.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Supply inventory shortages.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Staffing shortages.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Relevant medical countermeasures and therapeutic inventories, usage, or both.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 484—HOME HEALTH SERVICES </HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="484">
                        <AMDPAR>5. The authority citation for part 484 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395hh.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="484">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Section 484.105 is amended by adding paragraph (i) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 484.105 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Condition of participation: Organization and administration of services.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">HHA acceptance-to-service.</E>
                                 An HHA must do both of the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Develop, implement, and maintain through an annual review, a patient acceptance-to-service policy that is applied consistently to each prospective patient referred for home health care, which addresses criteria related to the HHA's capacity to provide patient care, including, but not limited to, all of the following:</P>
                            <P>(i) Anticipated needs of the referred prospective patient.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Case load and case mix of the HHA.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Staffing levels of the HHA.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Skills and competencies of the HHA staff.</P>
                            <P>(2)(i) Make available to the public accurate information regarding the services offered by the HHA and any limitations related to types of specialty services, service duration, or service frequency.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Review the information specified in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section as frequently as the services are changed, but no less often than annually.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Xavier Becerra,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services. </TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-25441 Filed 11-1-24; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="88487"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Homeland Security</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>49 CFR Parts 1500, 1503, 1520, et al.</CFR>
            <TITLE>Enhancing Surface Cyber Risk Management; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88488"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>49 CFR Parts 1500, 1503, 1520, 1570, 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. TSA-2022-0001]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1652-AA74</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Enhancing Surface Cyber Risk Management</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Transportation Security Administration, DHS.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) is proposing to impose cyber risk management (CRM) requirements on certain pipeline and rail owner/operators and a more limited requirement, on certain over-the-road bus (OTRB) owner/operators, to report cybersecurity incidents. With the proposed addition of requirements applicable to pipeline facilities and systems, TSA is also proposing that a requirement to have a Physical Security Coordinator and report significant physical security concerns be extended to the same facilities and systems. Finally, TSA is proposing clarifications and reorganization of other regulatory requirements necessitated by these changes.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Submit comments by February 5, 2025.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Comments on this NPRM:</E>
                             You may submit comments on this NPRM, identified by the TSA docket number to this rulemaking, to the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS), a government-wide, electronic docket management system. To avoid duplication, please use only one of the following methods:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Electronic Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                             Docket Management Facility (M-30), U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001. The Department of Transportation (DOT), which maintains and processes TSA's official regulatory dockets, will scan the submission and post it to FDMS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                             (202) 493-2251.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the 
                            <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                             section for format and other information about comment submissions on the NPRM.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">General Questions:</E>
                             Ashlee Marks, Surface Division, Policy, Plans, and Engagement, TSA-28, Transportation Security Administration, 6595 Springfield Center Drive, Springfield, VA 20598-6028; telephone (571) 227-1039; email: 
                            <E T="03">SurfaceCyberPolicy@tsa.dhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Legal Questions:</E>
                             Traci Klemm, Regulations and Security Standards, Office of Chief Counsel, Transportation Security Administration, 6595 Springfield Center Drive, Springfield, VA 20598-6002; telephone (571) 227-3583, or email to 
                            <E T="03">SurfaceCyberPolicy@tsa.dhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA invites interested persons to participate in this NPRM by submitting written comments, including relevant data. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from this rulemaking action. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section above for information on where to submit comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NPRM-Specific Request for Comments</HD>
                    <P>1. TSA is requesting comments on the impact of regulations and requirements being imposed by other Federal, State, and Local entities, including DHS components, and potential options for regulatory harmonization.</P>
                    <P>2. TSA is requesting comments on whether proposed requirements for supply chain risk management should also include requirements to ensure that any new software purchased for, or to be installed on, Critical Cyber Systems meets CISA's Secure-by-Design and Secure-by-Default principles.</P>
                    <P>3. TSA is requesting comments on existing training and certification programs that could provide low-cost options to meet proposed qualification requirements for Cybersecurity Coordinators. If identified and determined by TSA to be sufficient, TSA could recognize them as examples for owner/operators that would be subject to these requirements.</P>
                    <P>4. TSA is proposing to require owner/operators to have a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP) to annually assess and audit the effectiveness of their TSA-approved Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (COIP). TSA is requesting comments on methodologies owner/operators could use to develop a plan that would meet the required annual minimum for assessments and audits, assessment and auditing capabilities that could be included in the CAP, and other options and resources that could ensure a robust auditing and assessment program that provides frequent and regular reviews of effectiveness of CRM program implementation.</P>
                    <P>5. TSA is requesting comments from pipeline owner/operators on opportunities to streamline compliance and reduce redundancies and duplication of efforts for pipeline facilities regulated under 33 CFR 105.105(a) or 106.105(a).</P>
                    <P>6. TSA is requesting comment on whether accountable executives and Cybersecurity Coordinators, for all covered owner/operators, should be required to undergo a TSA-conducted Security Threat Assessment (STA), which would include a terrorism/other analyses check, an immigration check, and a criminal history records check (CHRC).</P>
                    <P>
                        7. TSA is requesting comment on whether TSA should require all frontline workers (“security-sensitive employees”) in the pipeline industry to also be vetted by TSA. Although TSA is not proposing this requirement, TSA seeks comments on how the vetting would impact their operations and costs, and specifically how many employees the entity has that would likely be considered security-sensitive employees.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Commenters may find it useful to review the functions that TSA considered for determining security-sensitive employees under current Appendix B to 49 CFR part 1580, Appendix B to part 1582, and Appendix B to part 1584.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>8. TSA is requesting comment on the inputs used in the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA), including those related to the Security Directives (SDs), their implementation, and associated costs and benefits. Comments that will provide the most assistance to TSA will reference a specific portion of this proposed rule, explain the reason for any suggestions or recommended changes, and include data, information, or authority that supports such suggestion or recommended change.</P>
                    <P>9. TSA invites all interested parties to submit data and information regarding the potential economic impact on small entities that would result from the adoption of the requirements in the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>10. TSA invites comments on the proposed collection of information and estimates of burden.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Submitting Comments on the NPRM</HD>
                    <P>
                        With each comment, please identify the docket number at the beginning of your comments. You may submit comments and material electronically, by mail, or fax as provided under 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88489"/>
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        , but please submit your comments and material by only one means. If you submit comments by mail or in person, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8.5 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing.
                    </P>
                    <P>If you would like TSA to acknowledge receipt of comments submitted by mail, include with your comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard or envelope on which the docket number appears, and we will mail it to you.</P>
                    <P>
                        All comments, except those that include confidential or SSI 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         will be posted to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and include any personal information you have provided. Should you wish your personally identifiable information redacted prior to filing in the docket, please clearly indicate this request in your submission. TSA will consider all comments that are in the docket on or before the closing date for comments and will consider comments filed late to the extent practicable. The docket is available for public inspection before and after the comment closing date.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             “Sensitive Security Information” or “SSI” is information obtained or developed in the conduct of security activities, the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of privacy, reveal trade secrets or privileged or confidential information, or be detrimental to the security of transportation. The protection of SSI is governed by 49 CFR part 1520.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Submitting Comments on the Proposed Information Collections</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments on the proposed information collections included in this NPRM should be submitted both to TSA, as indicated above, and to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Comments should be identified by the appropriate OMB Control Number(s) or the title of this proposed rule, addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Transportation Security Administration, and sent via electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">dhsdeskofficer@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Handling of Confidential or Proprietary Information and SSI Submitted in Public Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Do not submit comments that include trade secrets, confidential commercial or financial information, or SSI to the public regulatory docket. Please submit such comments separately from other comments on the rulemaking. Comments containing this type of information should be appropriately marked as containing such information and submitted by mail to the address listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section. TSA will take the following actions for all submissions containing SSI:
                    </P>
                    <P>• TSA will not place comments containing SSI in the public docket and will handle them with applicable safeguards and restrictions on access.</P>
                    <P>• TSA will hold documents containing SSI, confidential business information, or trade secrets in a separate file to which the public does not have access.</P>
                    <P>• TSA will place a note in the public docket explaining that commenters have submitted such documents.</P>
                    <P>• TSA may include a redacted version of the comment in the public docket.</P>
                    <P>• TSA will treat requests to examine or copy information that is not in the public docket as any other request under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Freedom of Information Act regulation found in 6 CFR part 5.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reviewing Comments in the Docket</HD>
                    <P>
                        Please be aware that anyone can search the electronic form of all comments in any of our dockets by the name of the individual, association, business entity, labor union, 
                        <E T="03">etc.,</E>
                         who submitted the comment. For more about privacy and the docket, review the Privacy and Security Notice for the FDMS at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/privacy-notice,</E>
                         as well as the System of Records Notice DOT/ALL 14—Federal Docket Management System (73 FR 3316, January 17, 2008) and the System of Records Notice DHS/ALL 044—eRulemaking (85 FR 14226, March 11, 2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may review TSA's electronic public docket at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         In addition, DOT's Docket Management Facility provides a physical facility, staff, equipment, and assistance to the public. To obtain assistance or to review comments in TSA's public docket, you may visit this facility between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays, or call (202) 366-9826. This DOT facility is in the West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140 at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Availability of Rulemaking Document</HD>
                    <P>
                        You can find an electronic copy of this rulemaking using the internet by accessing the Government Publishing Office's web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/app/collection/FR/</E>
                         to view the daily published 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         edition or accessing the Office of the Federal Register's web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                         Copies are also available by contacting the individual identified for “General Questions” in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abbreviations and Terms Used in This Document</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">9/11 Act—Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AAR—Association of American Railroads</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Amtrak—National Railroad Passenger Corporation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">APTA—American Public Transportation Association</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ATSA—Aviation and Transportation Security Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BOS—Back Office Server</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BES—Bulk Electric System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAP—Cybersecurity Assessment Plan</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CEQ—Council on Environmental Quality</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CSF—Cybersecurity Framework 2.0</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CIRCIA—Cyber Incident Reporting for Critical Infrastructure Act of 2022</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CIP—Cybersecurity Implementation Plan</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CIRP—Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CISA—Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COIP—Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CPGs—Cross-Sector Cybersecurity Performance Goals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CRM—Cybersecurity risk management</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DFAR—Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS—Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DoD—Department of Defense</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOE—Department of Energy</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOT—Department of Transportation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">E.O.—Executive Order</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FDMS—Federal Docket Management System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FERC—Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FISMA—Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR—Federal Register</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FRA—Federal Railroad Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FSB—Russian Federal Security Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GPS—Global Positioning System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HSIN—Homeland Security Information Network</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IC—Information Circular</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ICS—Industrial control system</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IRFA—Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IT—Information technology</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MFA—Multi-factor authentication</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NARA—National Archives and Records Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NEPA—National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NERC—National American Electrical Reliability Corporation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NIST—National Institute of Standards and Technology</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM—Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB—Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OT—Operational technology</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OTRB—Over-the-road bus</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PHMSA—Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">POAM—Plan of Action and Milestones</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PTC—Positive Train Control</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PTPR—Public Transportation and Passenger Railroads</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFA—Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIA—Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            SCADA—Supervisory control and data acquisition
                            <PRTPAGE P="88490"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SD—Security Directive</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SDDCTEA—US Army Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command Transportation Engineering Agency</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SOAR—Security orchestration, automation, and response</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SP—Special Publication</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SRP—Secure Regulatory Portal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SSI—Sensitive security information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">STA—Security threat assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">STRACNET—Strategic Rail Corridor Network</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TSA—Transportation Security Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UMRA—Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VADR—Validated Architecture Design Review</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Context</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Pipeline Transportation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Rail Transportation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Freight Railroads</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Passenger Railroads</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Rail Transit</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Cybersecurity Threats</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Threat of Cybersecurity Incidents at the Nexus of IT and OT Systems</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Statutory Authorities</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. TSA Surface-Related SDs and Information Circulars</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. TSA's Assessments, Guidelines, and Regulations Applicable to Pipeline and Rail Systems</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Pipeline Guidelines, Assessments, and Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Regulating Railroads, Public Transportation Systems, and OTRBs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. References</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. National Cybersecurity Strategy</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. NIST Cybersecurity Framework</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. CISA Cross-Sector Cybersecurity Performance Goals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. TSA's Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. General Support and Need for Regulatory Harmonization and Performance-Based Regulation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Core Elements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Training</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Supply Chain</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">e. Third-Party Assessors</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Regulatory Harmonization</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Rule organization</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Cybersecurity Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Physical Security Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. General Procedures for Security Programs, SDs, and Information Circulars</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Relation to Other Rulemakings</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Terms</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Terms</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Cybersecurity Risk Management Program—General</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Introduction</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Applicability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Freight Railroads Subject to CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart D of Part 1580</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Public Transportation Agencies and Passenger Railroads Subject to CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart C of Part 1582</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. OTRB Owner/Operators Subject to Cybersecurity Incident Reporting Requirements in Proposed § 1584.107</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Pipeline Systems and Facilities Subject to Physical Security Requirements in Proposed Subpart B of part 1586 and CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart C of Part 1586</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">e. Determinations of Applicability for Requirements in the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Structure of CRM Program Requirements (Proposed §§ 1580.303, 1582.203, and 1586.203)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Specific CRM Program Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Cybersecurity Evaluation (Proposed §§ 1580.305, 1582.205, and 1586.205)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (Proposed §§ 1580.307, 1582.207, and 1586.207)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. General COIP Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Governance of the CRM Program (Proposed §§ 1580.309, 1580.311, 1582.209, 1582.211, 1586.209, and 1586.211)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Identification of Critical Cyber Systems, Network Architecture, and Interdependencies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Protect Critical Cyber Systems</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">e. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Detect Cybersecurity Incidents (Proposed §§ 1580.321, 1582.221, and 1586.221)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">f. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Respond to, and Recover From, Cybersecurity Incidents</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (Proposed §§ 1580.329, 1582.229, and 1586.229)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Documentation To Establish Compliance (Proposed §§ 1580.331, 1582.231, and 1586.231)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Physical Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. General Procedures for Security Programs, SDs, and Information Circulars</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Procedures for Security Programs (Proposed Revisions to Subpart B of Part 1570)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. SDs and Information Circulars (Proposed Subpart C of Part 1570)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Exhaustion of Administrative Remedies (Proposed § 1570.119)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Severability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Enforcement and Compliance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Summary of Applicability and Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Compliance Deadlines and Documentation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Sensitive Security Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Scope of the Revision to TSA's SSI Regulatory Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Disclosure of SSI Upon the “Need To Know”</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Regulatory Analyses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Economic Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Summary of Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Assessments Required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Cost Sensitivity Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Break-Even Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. OMB A-4 Statement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Alternatives Considered</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Regulatory Flexibility Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. International Trade Impact Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7. Unfunded Mandates Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Federalism (E.O. 13132)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Energy Impact Analysis (E.O. 13211)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Environmental Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Tribal Consultation (E.O. 13175)</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        On May 8, 2021, a Russian-based cybercriminal group, DarkSide, conducted a ransomware attack 
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that forced a major pipeline company to go offline, resulting in a weeklong shutdown of 5,500 miles of petroleum pipelines on the East Coast. Actions taken to protect the Operational Technology (OT) system temporarily disrupted critical supplies of gasoline and other refined petroleum products throughout the East Coast, resulting in a regional emergency declaration.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some news agencies reported pictures of snaking lines of cars at gas stations across the eastern seaboard and panicked Americans filling bags with fuel, fearing not being able to get to work or get their kids to school. TSA subsequently used its emergency authority under 49 U.S.C. 114(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        ) to impose cybersecurity requirements on certain surface transportation entities. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         discussion in section II.B.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of “ransomware” in 6 U.S.C. 650(22).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, ESC-SSC-WSC—Regional Emergency Declaration 2021-002—05-09-2021 (May 9, 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/emergency/esc-ssc-wsc-regional-emergency-declaration-2021-002-05-09-2021</E>
                             (last accessed Aug. 1, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The cyber threat to the country's critical infrastructure has only increased in the time since TSA initially issued SDs to address cybersecurity in surface transportation in 2021. Cyber threats to surface transportation systems continue to proliferate, as both nation-states and criminal cyber groups target critical infrastructure in order to cause operational disruption and economic harm.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cyber attackers have also maliciously targeted other surface transportation modes in the United States, including freight railroads, passenger railroads, and rail transit systems, with multiple cyberattack and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88491"/>
                        cyber espionage campaigns.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cybersecurity incidents, particularly ransomware attacks, are likely to increase in the near and long term, due in part to vulnerabilities identified by threat actors in U.S. networks.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Especially in light of the ongoing Russia-Ukraine conflict, these threats remain elevated and pose a risk to the national and economic security of the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Annual Threat Assessment of the U.S. Intelligence Community, Office of the Director of National Intelligence (2024 Intelligence Community Assessment), 11, 16 (Feb. 5, 2024), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dni.gov/files/ODNI/documents/assessments/ATA-2024-Unclassified-Report.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 23, 2024). Note: Infrastructure references in this 2024 assessment include pipelines.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             These activities include the January 2023 breach of the Washington Metropolitan Area Transit Authority; the January 2023 breach of San Francisco's Bay Area Rapid Transit System; and the April 2021 breach of New York City's Metropolitan Transportation Authority (the nation's largest mass transit agency) by hackers linked to the Chinese government. This threat is ongoing: on February 7, 2024, CISA published an advisory warning of the threat posed by PRC state-sponsored actors. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Cybersecurity Advisory (AA24-038A), 
                            <E T="03">PRC State-Sponsored Actors Compromise and Maintain Persistent Access to U.S. Critical Infrastructure,</E>
                             released by CISA on Feb. 7, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             Alert (AA22-040A), 
                            <E T="03">2021 Trends Show Increased Globalized Threat of Ransomware,</E>
                             released by CISA on February 10, 2022 (as revised).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In its 2023 annual assessment, the Intelligence Community noted that “China almost certainly is capable of launching cyber-attacks that could disrupt critical infrastructure services within the United States, including against oil and gas pipelines, and rail systems.” 
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Notably, “[i]f Beijing believed that a major conflict with the United States were imminent, it almost certainly would consider aggressive cyber operations against U.S. homeland critical infrastructure and military assets worldwide. Such a strike would be designed to deter U.S. military action by impeding U.S. decision-making, inducing societal panic, and interfering with the deployment of U.S. forces.” 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, “Russia maintains its ability to target critical infrastructure . . . in the United States as well as in allied and partner countries” and “Tehran's opportunistic approach to cyber-attacks puts U.S. infrastructure at risk for being targeted.” 
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, “malicious cyber actors have begun testing the capabilities of AI-developed malware and AI-assisted software development—technologies that have the potential to enable larger scale, faster, efficient, and more evasive cyber-attacks—against targets, including pipelines, railways, and other US critical infrastructure.” 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             Annual Threat Assessment of the U.S. Intelligence Community, Office of the Director of National Intelligence (2023) (2023 Intelligence Community Assessment), 10 (Feb. 6, 2023), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dni.gov/files/ODNI/documents/assessments/ATA-2023-Unclassified-Report.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 23, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             2023 Intelligence Community Assessment at 10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             2024 Intelligence Community Assessment at 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             DHS Intelligence and Analysis (I&amp;A), Homeland Threat Assessment 18 (2024), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/sites/default/files/2023-09/23_0913_ia_23-333-ia_u_homeland-threat-assessment-2024_508C_V6_13Sep23.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 23, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While TSA had issued recommendations to strengthen the cybersecurity of pipeline facilities and systems, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         discussion in Section II.B.2. of this NPRM, reliance on voluntary actions may not be sufficient in light of the cyber threat to our national and economic security. As noted in the National Cybersecurity Strategy, “While voluntary approaches to critical infrastructure cybersecurity have produced meaningful improvements, the lack of mandatory requirements has resulted in inadequate and inconsistent outcomes. Today's marketplace insufficiently rewards—and often disadvantages—the owners and operators of critical infrastructure who invest in proactive measures to prevent or mitigate the effects of cyber incidents.” 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             National Cybersecurity Strategy at 8 (March 2023), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/03/National-Cybersecurity-Strategy-2023.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 29, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The requirements proposed in this rule would strengthen cybersecurity and resiliency for the surface transportation sector by mandating reporting of cybersecurity incidents and development of a robust CRM program. This rulemaking builds upon TSA's previously issued requirements and recommendations, the cybersecurity framework (CSF) developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST),
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the Cross-Sector Cybersecurity Performance Goals (CPGs) developed by the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA).
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/CSWP/NIST.CSWP.29.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed May 5, 2024) for more information on the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) 2.0.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.cisa.gov/cross-sector-cybersecurity-performance-goals</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 22, 2023) for more information on the CPGs. A table that aligns the NIST CSF, CPGs, and proposed requirements is available in the docket for this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        This NPRM proposes to require owner/operators 
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of designated freight railroads, passenger railroads, rail transit, and pipeline facilities and/or systems to have a CRM program approved by TSA. The proposed CRM program includes three primary elements. First, owner/operators to whom the proposed rule applies would be required to annually conduct an enterprise-wide cybersecurity evaluation that would identify the current profile of cybersecurity (including physical and logical/virtual controls) compared to the target profile. The target profile must, at a minimum, include the security outcomes identified in the proposed rule and should also consider recommendations in the NIST CSF.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1500.3 for the definition of “owner/operators” as used in this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST CSF, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, those owner/operators would be required to develop a COIP that includes the following information: (a) identification of individuals/positions responsible for the governance of the owner/operator's CRM program, including an accountable executive and Cybersecurity Coordinator(s); (b) identification of Critical Cyber Systems, specific network architecture issues, and baseline communications; (c) detailed measures to protect these Critical Cyber Systems; (d) detailed measures to detect cybersecurity incidents and monitor these Critical Cyber Systems; and (e) measures to address response to, and recovery from, a cybersecurity incident. Although many of these measures for the COIP are limited to Critical Cyber Systems, all owner/operators within the proposed scope of applicability would be required to have a Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP), regardless of whether they identify any Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        Third, owner/operators subject to the proposed rule would be required to have a CAP that includes a schedule for assessments, an annual report of assessment results, and identification of unaddressed vulnerabilities. Owner/operators would also be required to ensure any individuals or companies assigned or hired to evaluate the effectiveness of the owner/operator's CRM program are independent, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         do not have a personal, financial interest in the results of the assessment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As part of this rule, TSA also is proposing to reorganize requirements in subchapter D of 49 CFR chapter XII related to security coordinators, reporting significant security concerns, and security training of security-sensitive employees. TSA would move these requirements from 49 CFR part 1570 and add them to the specific modal requirements in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and a new part 1586, which is applicable to pipeline systems and facilities.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In general, the applicability of proposed requirements related to designation of a cybersecurity coordinator and reporting cybersecurity 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88492"/>
                        incidents align with the current requirements for designation of a (physical) security coordinator and reporting of significant (physical) security concerns under 49 CFR part 1570.201 and 1570.203.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             TSA may make related revisions to organization of a rulemaking that would finalize proposed requirements in the NPRM, Vetting of Certain Surface Transportation Employees, 88 FR 33472 (May 23, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also proposing to distinguish between requirements focused on physical security and those focused on cybersecurity. As part of this reorganization and proposed imposition of new cybersecurity requirements, TSA is proposing that all owner/operators currently required to report significant security concerns to TSA, under current 49 CFR 1570.203,
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         report significant physical security concerns to TSA and report cybersecurity incidents to CISA. TSA is proposing that owner/operators of designated pipeline facilities and systems also report both physical and cybersecurity incidents.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Appendix A to 49 CFR part 1570.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, TSA is proposing to incorporate into subchapter D a new section related to issuance of SDs and Information Circulars (ICs), mirroring language currently applicable in the aviation industry. Adding this section would ensure consistent procedures for issuance of SDs and ICs across all modes of transportation subject to TSA's authorities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA estimates the proposed rule would impact just under 300 surface transportation owner/operators. Using the risk-based criteria for application discussed below, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Section III.C.2., TSA estimates these proposed requirements would apply to 73 of the approximately 620 freight railroads currently operating in the United States; 34 of the approximately 92 public transportation agencies and passenger railroads (PTPR) operating in the United States; 71 OTRB owner/operators who are currently subject to TSA's regulatory requirements to report significant security concerns; and 115 of the approximately 2,105 pipeline facilities and systems subject to safety regulations issued by the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), as codified in 49 CFR part 192 and 49 CFR 195.1.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             The proposed applicability for pipeline facilities and systems specifically excludes U.S. facilities specified in 33 CFR 105.105(a) that are regulated under 33 CFR part 105 or facilities specified in 33 CFR 106.105(a) that are regulated under 33 CFR part 106.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Table 1 identifies TSA's estimates for the overall cost of this proposed rule. This table captures the industry's costs associated with implementing the proposed requirements as well as TSA's costs for overseeing implementation, over a 10-year period of analysis. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section IV of this NPRM and the related Regulatory Impact Analysis for a more detailed breakdown of the estimated costs.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s200,34">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Cost of Final Rule</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated costs
                                <LI>(over 10 years, discounted at 7 percent)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Railroads</ENT>
                            <ENT>$685,776,600</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Passenger Railroads and Rail Transit</ENT>
                            <ENT>881,136,800</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OTRBs</ENT>
                            <ENT>215,900</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipeline Facilities and Systems</ENT>
                            <ENT>580,183,200</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">TSA</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,241,200</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,161,553,800</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,756,600</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The primary benefit of the proposed rule is a potential reduction in the risk of a successful attack or cybersecurity incident and the impact of such incidents as a result of implementing the proposed requirements. Implementation of a CRM program, as described under the proposed rule, could help enhance the security of the regulated population by improving the owner/operator's ability to identify, detect, protect against, respond to, and recover from cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed cybersecurity outcomes this rule would require provide owner/operators with a blueprint for improving defenses against cybersecurity incidents. Industry experience indicates that having a defense-in-depth approach to cybersecurity enhances the ability to prevent and respond to breaches of operational systems and compromises of sensitive information.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA anticipates the proposed rule's requirements, such as enhancing system security, maintaining backups, monitoring systems, and developing a response plan, would strengthen cybersecurity defenses over the long term. For instance, depending on the individual circumstances of a given cyber-attack or cybersecurity incident—
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Well-designed security systems have been credited for limiting damages in recent cyber incident cases: 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             ABC7 New York, Hackers breached several of MTA's computer systems in April (June 2, 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://abc7ny.com/mta-hack-computer-nyc-new-york-city/10734358/</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • A commitment to patch management, system segmentation, and firewalls could limit the resources potential malicious actors would be able to access during an intrusion; 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             outcomes associated with the following CISA CPGs available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/cross-sector-cybersecurity-performance-goals</E>
                             (last accessed June 10, 2024): CISA CPG 1.E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • The presence of backups could allow for system restoration, data recovery, and unhindered system operations; 
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., id.</E>
                             at CISA CPG 2.R.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Continuous monitoring of the network could help to detect and respond to potential threats and limit system degradation 
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., id.</E>
                             at CISA CPGs 2.A, 2.F., 2.G. and 3.A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Having a response plan in place in case of a successful cyber-attack or cybersecurity incident would reduce its impact, build in resiliency, and support rapid resumption of normal operations.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., id.</E>
                             at CISA CPGs 2.O, 2.P, 2.R., 2.S., and 2.T.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        These enhances, in turn, could reduce the chance of negative consequences and service interruptions from cybersecurity incidents to the benefit of owners/operators, passengers, and consumers.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88493"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Context</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Pipeline Transportation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The national pipeline system consists of more than 2.9 million miles of networked pipelines transporting hazardous liquids, natural gas, and other liquids and gases for energy needs and manufacturing.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although most pipeline infrastructure is buried underground, operational elements such as compressors, metering, regulating, pumping stations, aerial crossings, and breakout tanks are typically located above ground. Under operating pressure, the pipeline system is used as a conveyance to deliver resources from one location to another. In addition to portions of the network that are manually operated, the pipeline system includes use of automated industrial control systems (ICS), such as supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems to monitor and manage pipeline operations. These systems use remote sensors, signals, and preprogramed parameters to activate valves and pumps to maintain product flows within tolerances. Pipeline systems supply energy commodities and raw materials across the country to utilities, airports, military sites, and to the nation's industrial and manufacturing sectors. Protecting the vital supply chain infrastructure of pipeline operations is critical to national security and commerce.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             Mileage information is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.phmsa.dot.gov/data-and-statistics/pipeline/annual-report-mileage-summary-statistics</E>
                             (last accessed Nov. 30, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Rail Transportation</HD>
                    <P>The rail transportation sector includes freight railroads, passenger railroads (including inter-city and commuter), and rail transit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Freight Railroads</HD>
                    <P>
                        The national freight rail network is a complex system that includes both physical and cyber infrastructure and consists of more than 620 freight railroads operating across nearly 140,000 rail miles. This sector includes six Class I railroads,
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         local (also known as Short Line) railroads, and regional railroads. The Class I railroads had a calendar year 2021 operating revenues of at least $900 million. These six railroads also account for approximately 68 percent of freight rail mileage, 88 percent of employees, and 94 percent of revenue. Regional railroads and local railroads range in size from operations handling a few carloads monthly to multi-state operators nearly the size of a Class I operation.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As stated by the Association of American Railroads (AAR), the freight rail sector provides “a safe, efficient, and cost-effective transportation network that reliably serves customers and the nation's economy.” 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             For purposes of TSA's regulations, “Class I” means “Class I” as assigned by regulations of the Surface Transportation Board (STB) (49 CFR part 1201; General Instructions 1-1). 
                            <E T="03">See also infra</E>
                             note 123.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.aar.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/08/AAR-Railroad-101-Freight-Railroads-Fact-Sheet.pdf</E>
                             (May 2023 update, last accessed June 3, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Freight railroads are private entities that own and are responsible for their own infrastructure.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         They maintain the locomotives, rolling stock, and fixed assets involved in the transportation of goods and materials across the nation's rail system. As required by Congress, railroads are subject to safety regulations promulgated and enforced by the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA). TSA administers and enforces the rail security regulations in 49 CFR part 1580.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Passenger Railroads</HD>
                    <P>
                        Passenger rail is divided into two categories: inter-city and commuter rail service. Inter-city provides long-distance service, while commuter railroads provide service over shorter distances, usually less than 100 miles. The National Railroad Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) is the sole long-distance inter-city passenger railroad in the contiguous United States. Amtrak, which had a pre-pandemic annual ridership of approximately 31.7 million, operates a nationwide rail network, serving more than 500 destinations in 46 states, the District of Columbia, and three Canadian provinces on more than 21,300 track-miles.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nearly half of all Amtrak trains operate at top speeds of 100 mph or greater. In fiscal year 2023, Amtrak customers took nearly 28.6 million trips, up 24 percent over the previous year.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition to inter-city service, Amtrak is one of the largest operators of contract commuter services in North America, providing services and/or infrastructure access to 13 state and regional authorities.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.apta.com/wp-content/uploads/APTA_Fact-Book-2019_FINAL.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://media.amtrak.com/2023/11/amtrak-fiscal-year-2023-ridership-exceeds-expectations-as-demand-for-passenger-rail-soars/</E>
                             (last accessed July 30, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.amtrak.com/content/dam/projects/dotcom/english/public/documents/corporate/nationalfactsheets/Amtrak-Company-Profile-FY2023-041824.pdf.</E>
                             at 4 (last accessed July 30, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Freight railroads provide the tracks for most passenger rail operations. For example, 71 percent of the track on which Amtrak operates is owned by other railroads. These “host railroads” include large, publicly traded freight rail companies in the U.S. or Canada, State and Local government agencies, and small businesses. Amtrak pays the host railroads for use of their track and other resources as needed.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Amtrak and other passenger rail agencies, however, are not wholly dependent on freight rail infrastructure and corridors for operational feasibility; they sometimes control, operate, and maintain tracks, facilities, construction sites, utilities, and computerized networks essential to their own operations. For example, the Northeast Corridor is an electrified railway line in the Northeast megalopolis of the United States owned primarily by Amtrak. It runs from Boston through New York City, Philadelphia, and Baltimore, with a terminus in Washington, DC. The majority of this corridor, 263 of the 457 route-miles of the main line, are owned and operated by Amtrak.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Amtrak and other passenger railroads also host freight rail operations. In fact, the Northeast Corridor is the busiest railroad in North America, with approximately 2,000 Amtrak, commuter, and freight trains operating over some portion of the Washington-Boston route each day.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As with freight railroads, passenger railroads are subject to safety regulations put forth and enforced by the FRA. TSA administers and enforces passenger rail security regulations in 49 CFR part 1582.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Rail Transit</HD>
                    <P>
                        Public transportation in America is critically important to our way of life, as evidenced by the number of riders on the nation's public transportation systems. According to the American Public Transportation Association (APTA), 2022 Public Transportation Fact Book, there were over 4.49 billion unlinked passenger trips in 2021.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nationwide, 5.0 million Americans commute to work on transit, equivalent to approximately 3.1 percent of workers. In major metropolitan areas, like New York City, over 27 percent of commuters rely on public transportation for their 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88494"/>
                        daily commute.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rail transit is a critical part of this system. According to APTA, 87 percent of trips on transit directly benefit the local economy, including 50 percent of trips to and from work and 37 percent of trips are for shopping and recreational spending.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A successful cyber-attack would have a profound impact on ridership and a negative economic impact nationwide. TSA administers and enforces rail transit security regulations in 49 CFR part 1582.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             APTA, 2023 Public Transportation Fact Book at 3, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.apta.com/wp-content/uploads/APTA-2023-Public-Transportation-Fact-Book.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 30, 2024). Unlinked passenger trips are an industry measure of ridership, with a trip being defined as any time a person boards a transit vehicle, including transfers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 3. Rail transit includes heavy rail systems, often referred to as “subways” or “metros” that do not interact with traffic; light rail and streetcars, often referred to as “surface rail,” that may operate on streets, with or without their own dedicated lanes; and commuter rail services that are higher-speed, higher-capacity trains with less-frequent stops.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Cybersecurity Threats</HD>
                    <P>
                        Threat actors have demonstrated their willingness to engage in cyber intrusions and conduct cybersecurity incidents against critical infrastructure by exploiting vulnerabilities in OT 
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Information Technology (IT) 
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         systems. Pipeline and rail systems, and associated facilities, may be vulnerable to cybersecurity incidents due to legacy ICS that lack updated security controls and the dispersed nature of pipeline and rail networks spanning urban and outlying areas.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             For purposes of this NPRM, TSA defines an “OT system” as “a general term that encompasses several types of control systems, including industrial control systems, supervisory control and data acquisition systems, distributed control systems, and other control system configurations, such as programmable logic controllers, fire control systems, and physical access control systems, often found in the industrial sector and critical infrastructure. Such systems consist of combinations of programmable electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic devices or systems that interact with the physical environment or manage devices that interact with the physical environment.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             For purposes of this NPRM, TSA defines an “IT System” as “any services, equipment, or interconnected systems or subsystems of equipment that are used in the automatic acquisition, storage, analysis, evaluation, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information that fall within the responsibility of owner/operator to operate and/or maintain.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CISA, 
                            <E T="03">Securing Industrial Control Systems: A Unified Initiative (FY 2019-2023)</E>
                             at 4, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Securing_Industrial_Control_Systems_S508C.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Aug. 30, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As pipeline and rail owner/operators have begun to integrate IT and OT systems into their operating environment to further improve safety, enable efficiencies, and/or increase automation, their operations become increasingly vulnerable to new and evolving cyber threats. A successful cyber-intrusion could affect the safe operation and reliability of OT systems, including SCADA systems, process control systems, distributed control systems, safety control systems, measurement systems, and telemetry systems.</P>
                    <P>From a design perspective, some pipeline and rail assets are more attractive to targets for a cybersecurity incident simply because of the transported commodity and the impact an incident would have on national security and commerce. Minor pipeline and rail system disruptions may result in commodity price increases, while prolonged pipeline and rail operational disruptions could lead to widespread energy shortages and disruption of critical supply lines. Short-and long-term disruptions and delays may affect other domestic critical infrastructure and industries, such as our national defense system, that depend on pipeline and rail system commodities, such as our national defense system.</P>
                    <P>
                        The May 2021 DarkSide attack on a major pipeline company is just one of many recent ransomware attacks that have demonstrated the necessity of ensuring that critical infrastructure owner/operators are proactively deploying CRM measures. The Multi-State Information Sharing and Analysis Center observed a 153 percent increase in the number of ransomware attacks reported by State, Local, Tribal, and Territorial governments in the one-year period from 2018 to 2019, including both opportunistic and strategic campaigns.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The need to mitigate the threats facing domestic critical infrastructure, including by enhancing the pipeline and rail industry's current cybersecurity risk management posture, is further highlighted by recent warnings about Russian,
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Chinese,
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Iranian 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         state-sponsored cyber espionage campaigns to develop capabilities to disrupt U.S. critical infrastructure to include the transportation sector.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Failure to take action could have significant implications for national and economic security.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             MS-ISAC Security Primer 2020-0002 (May 2020), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisecurity.org/insights/white-papers/security-primer-ransomware</E>
                             (last accessed June 3, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2023 Intelligence Community Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 9, at 15.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at 10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at 19.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             In addition to the resources available at the cites referenced in the preceding notes, additional information is available on CISA's advisories organized by state-sponsored groups, 
                            <E T="03">i.e., https://www.cisa.gov/topics/cyber-threats-and-advisories/advanced-persistent-threats/china</E>
                             (China Cyber Threat Overview and Advisories); 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/topics/cyber-threats-and-advisories/advanced-persistent-threats/russia</E>
                             (Russian Cyber Threat Overview and Advisories); and 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/topics/cyber-threats-and-advisories/advanced-persistent-threats/iran</E>
                             (Iran Cyber Threat Overview and Advisories). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             FBI Private Industry Bulletin 
                            <E T="03">TRITON Malware Remains Threat to Global Critical Infrastructure Industrial Control Systems</E>
                             (Mar. 24, 2022), available at 
                            <E T="03">docs.house.gov/meetings/JU/JU00/20220329/114533/HHRG-117-JU00-20220329-SD009.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 22, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On March 24, 2022, the U.S. Department of Justice unsealed indictments of three Russian Federal Security Service (FSB) officers and employees of a State Research Center of the Russian Federation Central Scientific Research Institute of Chemistry and Mechanics for their involvement in intrusion campaigns against U.S. and international oil refineries, nuclear facilities, and energy companies. Documents revealed that the Russian FSB conducted a multi-stage campaign in which they gained remote access to U.S. and international Energy Sector networks, deployed ICS-focused malware, and collected and exfiltrated enterprise and ICS-related data.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A recent multi-national cybersecurity advisory noted that “Russian state-sponsored cyber actors have demonstrated capabilities to compromise IT networks; develop mechanisms to maintain long-term, persistent access to IT networks; exfiltrate sensitive data from IT and [OT] networks; and disrupt critical (ICS)/OT functions by deploying destructive malware.” 
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             The superseding indictment is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/us-citizens-and-russian-intelligence-officers-charged-conspiring-use-us-citizens-illegal#:~:text=Among%20other%20illegal%20activities%2C%20the,for%20local%20office%20in%20St.</E>
                             (Department of Justice Press Release, U.S. Citizens and Russian Intelligence Officers Charged with Conspiring to Use U.S. Citizens as Illegal Agents of the Russian Government, Apr. 18, 2023) (last accessed Sept. 25, 2023); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Joint Cybersecurity Advisory, 
                            <E T="03">Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures of Indicted State-Sponsored Russian Cyber Actors Targeting the Energy Sector,</E>
                             Alert AA22-083A (Mar. 24, 2022), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/news-events/cybersecurity-advisories/aa22-083a</E>
                             (last accessed Dec. 29, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Joint Cybersecurity Advisory, 
                            <E T="03">Russian State Sponsored and Criminal Cyber Threat to Critical Infrastructure,</E>
                             Alert AA22-110A (Apr. 20, 2022), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/uscert/ncas/alerts/aa22-110a</E>
                             (last accessed Dec. 29, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The nation's adversaries and strategic competitors will continue to use cyber espionage and cyber-attacks to seek political, economic, and military advantage over the United States and its allies and partners. These recent incidents demonstrate the potentially devastating impact that increasingly sophisticated cybersecurity incidents can have on our nation's critical infrastructure, as well as the direct repercussions felt by U.S. citizens. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88495"/>
                        consequences and threats discussed above demonstrate the necessity of ensuring that critical infrastructure owner/operators are proactively deploying CRM measures.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Threat of Cybersecurity Incidents at the Nexus of IT and OT Systems</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some sectors have taken significant steps to protect either their IT or OT systems, depending on which is considered most critical for their business needs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a commodities sector may focus on OT systems while a financial sector or other business that focuses on data may focus on IT systems). Ransomware attacks targeting critical infrastructure threaten 
                        <E T="03">both</E>
                         IT and OT systems and exploit the connections between these systems. For example, when OT components are connected to IT networks, this connection provides a path for cyber actors to pivot from IT to OT systems.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Given the importance of critical infrastructure to national and economic security, accessible OT systems and their connected assets and control structures are an attractive target for malicious cyber actors seeking to disrupt critical infrastructure for profit or to further other objectives.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As CISA notes, recent cybersecurity incidents demonstrate that intrusions affecting IT systems can also affect critical operational processes even if the intrusion does not directly impact an OT system.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, business operations on the IT system sometimes are used to orchestrate OT system operations. As a result, when there is a compromise of the IT system, there is a risk of unaffected OT systems being impacted by the loss of operational directives and accounting functions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CISA Fact Sheet, 
                            <E T="03">Rising Ransomware Threat to Operational Technology Assets</E>
                             (June 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/CISA_Fact_Sheet-Rising_Ransomware_Threat_to_OT_Assets_508C.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed June 3, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS, the Department of Energy (DOE), the Federal Bureau of Investigation, and the National Security Agency have all urged the private sector to implement a layered, “defense-in-depth” cybersecurity posture. For example, ensuring that OT and IT systems are separate and segregated will help protect against intrusions that can exploit vulnerabilities from one system and move laterally to infect another. A stand-alone, unconnected (“air-gapped”) OT system is safer from outside threats than an OT system connected to one or more enterprise IT systems with external connectivity (no matter how secure the outside connections are thought to be).
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By implementing a layered approach, owner/operators and their network administrators will enhance the defensive cybersecurity posture of their OT and IT systems, reducing the risk of compromise or severe operational degradation if their system is compromised by malicious cyber actors.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             National Security Agency Cybersecurity Advisory, 
                            <E T="03">Stop Malicious Cyber Activity Against Connected Operational Technology</E>
                             (PP-21-0601 | APR 2021 Ver 1.0), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://media.defense.gov/2021/Apr/29/2002630479/-1/-1/1/CSA_STOP-MCA-AGAINST-OT_UOO13672321.PDF</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Joint Cybersecurity Advisory, 
                            <E T="03">Chinese Gas Pipeline Intrusion Campaign, 2011 to 2013</E>
                             (Alert AA21-200A), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/news-events/cybersecurity-advisories/aa21-201a</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 19, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The cyber threat to our nation's critical infrastructure has only increased in the time since TSA's first cybersecurity SD was issued. The surface transportation sector, including the oil and gas pipeline industry, is increasingly dependent on automation and use of connected technology.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cyber threats to surface transportation systems continue to proliferate as both nation-state actors and criminal cyber groups are actively targeting oil and natural gas pipelines with the potential to cause operational disruption and economic harm. Ransomware attacks are likely to increase in the near and long term, due in part to vulnerabilities identified by threat actors in U.S. networks, while nation-state actors continue to target U.S. infrastructure for disruptive cyberattack options in a crisis or conflict.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These threats and their potential consequences to critical transportation systems and infrastructure demonstrate the need for TSA to ensure owner/operators continue to proactively deploy cybersecurity risk management measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             written testimony of Eric Goldstein, Executive Assistant Director for Cybersecurity CISA, Joint Hearing Before the Subcommittee on Cybersecurity, Infrastructure Protection, and Innovation, and the Subcommittee on Transportation and Maritime Security, U.S. House of Representatives Committee on Homeland Security, 
                            <E T="03">Cyber Threats in the Pipeline: Lessons from the Federal Response to the Colonial Pipeline Ransomware Attack</E>
                             (June 15, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2023 Intelligence Community Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 8, for open-source information on the cybersecurity threat. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             2024 Intelligence Community Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Protecting this critical and interconnected sector, and the consumers that rely on it, from the impact of cybersecurity impacts, cannot be accomplished on an ad hoc basis that relies entirely on voluntary action. The pipeline sector is an interconnected system. As noted by the Interstate Natural Gas Association of America, “natural gas transmission systems have numerous interconnection points and market hubs. . . . There are no major interstate pipelines that operate in isolation, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         without interconnection with at least one or more other pipelines.” 
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted by the PHMSA, “[p]ipelines play a vital role in our daily lives. They transport fuels and petrochemical feedstocks that we use in cooking and cleaning, in our daily commutes and travel, in heating our homes and businesses, and in manufacturing hundreds of products we use daily.” 
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             The Interstate Natural Gas Association of America, 
                            <E T="03">The Interstate Natural Gas Transmission System: Scale, Physical Complexity, and Business Model,</E>
                             at 1-2 (Aug. 6, 2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             PHMSA, 
                            <E T="03">Pipeline Basics,</E>
                             available at 
                            <E T="03">https://primis.phmsa.dot.gov/comm/PipelineBasics.htm</E>
                             (last accessed July 29, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, with the nation's rail system, railroads move over 1.5 billion tons of freight annually,
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and a disruption to this movement would have damaging ripple effects across industries, including on international trade. In the rail system, the implementation of positive train control (PTC) systems has resulted in a far more interconnected rail system than previously existed in the Unites States. The interoperability of PTC systems occurs when the “controlling locomotives and/or cab cars of any host railroad and tenant railroad operating on the same PTC-equipped main line are able to communicate with and respond to the PTC system, even when train are moving over property boundaries.” 
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The nation's economic security relies on freight rail owner/operators to transport critical manufacturing materials, food product, lumber, coal, and other materials critical to the supply chain. These railroads also host major passenger and commuter rail lines.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The nature of these systems requires a baseline of cybersecurity risk management across the highest-risk operations to protect these vital resources to national security, including economic security.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.aar.org/data-center/railroads-states/#:~:text=In%20a%20typical%20year%2C%20U.S.,nearly%20140%2C000%20miles%20of%20track</E>
                             (last accessed July 31, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.freightwaves.com/news/u-s-class-i-railroads-inch-towards-full-positive-train-control-implementation, PTC is interoperable on nearly half of the Class I U.S. rail operations</E>
                             (posted Feb. 28, 2020, by Joanna Marsh) (last accessed July 29, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88496"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Statutory Authorities</HD>
                    <P>The security of the nation's transportation systems is vital to the economic health and security of the United States. Ensuring transportation security while promoting the movement of legitimate travelers and commerce is a critical counter-terrorism mission assigned to TSA.</P>
                    <P>
                        Following the attacks of September 11, 2001, Congress created TSA under the Aviation and Transportation Security Act (ATSA) and established the agency's primary federal role to enhance security for all modes of transportation.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The scope of TSA's authority includes assessing security risks,
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         developing security measures to address identified risks,
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and enforcing compliance with these measures.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA has broad regulatory authority to issue, rescind, and revise regulations as necessary to carry out its transportation security functions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Public Law 107-71, 115 Stat. 597 (Nov. 19, 2001). ATSA created TSA as a component of the DOT. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114, which codified section 101 of ATSA. Section 403(2) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002 (HSA), Public Law 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135 (Nov. 25, 2002), transferred all functions related to transportation security, including those of the Secretary of Transportation and the Under Secretary of Transportation for Security, to the Secretary of Homeland Security. Pursuant to DHS Delegation Number 7060.02.1, the Secretary delegated to the Administrator, subject to the Secretary's guidance and control, the authority vested in the Secretary with respect to TSA, including the authority in sec. 403(2) of the HSA. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(d), which specifically gives the Administrator authority over all modes of transportation regulated by the Department of Transportation at the time TSA was established.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f)(1)-(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f)(4), (10), and (11).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f)(7) and (9).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. TSA Surface-Related SDs and Information Circulars</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under 49 U.S.C. 114(l)(2)(A), TSA is authorized to issue emergency regulations or SDs without providing notice or public comment where “the Administrator determines that a regulation or security directive must be issued immediately in order to protect transportation security.” 
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         SDs issued pursuant to the procedures in 49 U.S.C. 114(l)(2) “shall remain effective for a period not to exceed 90 days unless ratified or disapproved by the [Transportation Security Oversight] Board [(TSOB)] or rescinded by the Administrator.” 
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             This provision states: “Notwithstanding any other provision of law or executive order (including an executive order requiring a cost-benefit analysis), if the Administrator [of TSA] determines that a regulation or security directive must be issued immediately in order to protect transportation security, the Administrator shall issue the regulation or security directive without providing notice or an opportunity for comment and without prior approval of the Secretary.” In addition, section 114(d) provides the Administrator authority for security of all modes of transportation; section 114(f) provides specific additional duties and powers to the Administrator; and section 114(m) provides authority for the Administrator to take actions that support other agencies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(l)(2)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA issued SDs in 2021 and 2022 
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in response to the cybersecurity threat to surface transportation systems and associated infrastructure to protect against the significant harm to the national and economic security of the United States that could result from the “degradation, destruction, or malfunction of systems that control this infrastructure.” 
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The most current and previous versions of these SDs are available on TSA's website.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sd-and-ea</E>
                             (last accessed June 10, 2024). TSA issued these SDs under the specific authority of 49 U.S.C. 114(l)(2)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             National Security Memorandum on Improving Cybersecurity for Critical Infrastructure Control Systems (July 28, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 67.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The first pipeline SD (the SD Pipeline-2021-01 series), issued on May 27, 2021, requires several actions to enhance the security of critical pipeline systems 
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         against cybersecurity threats and provided that owners/operators must: (1) designate a primary and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator; (2) report cybersecurity incidents to CISA within 24 hours of identification of a cybersecurity incident; 
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (3) review TSA's pipeline guidelines,
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         assess their current cybersecurity posture, and identify remediation measures to address the vulnerabilities and cybersecurity gaps.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For purposes of the SDs, TSA defined a “cybersecurity incident” as “an event that, without lawful authority, jeopardizes, disrupts or otherwise impacts, or is reasonably likely to jeopardize, disrupt or otherwise impact, the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of computers, information or communications systems or networks, physical or virtual infrastructure controlled by computers or information systems, or information resident on the system.” The reports must (1) identify the affected systems or facilities; and (2) describe the threat, incident, and impact or potential impact on IT and OT systems and operations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             “Critical pipeline systems” are determined by TSA based on risk.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             As originally issued, the directive required notification within 12 hours of identification. In May 2022, TSA revised this requirement to require notification within 24 hours of identification.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section I.F. for more information on TSA's guidelines for the pipeline owner/operators.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             TSA may also use the results of assessments to identify the need to impose additional security measures as appropriate or necessary. TSA and CISA may use the information submitted for vulnerability identification, trend analysis, or to generate anonymized indicators of compromise or other cybersecurity products to prevent other cybersecurity incidents.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The second pipeline SD (the SD Pipeline-2021-02 series), first issued on July 19, 2021, required owner/operators to implement specific mitigation measures to protect against ransomware attacks and other known threats to IT and OT systems and conduct a cybersecurity architecture design review. This SD also required owner/operators to develop and adopt a cybersecurity incident response plan to reduce the risk of operational disruption should their IT and/or OT systems be affected by a cybersecurity incident.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/sd_pipeline_2021-02b-non_ssi_06-06-2022.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed June 10, 2024) for a version of the SD with the prescriptive requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In December 2021, TSA issued SDs to higher-risk freight railroads (the SD 1580-21-01 series) and passenger rail and rail transit owner/operators (the SD 1582-21-01 series), requiring that they also implement the following requirements previously imposed on pipeline systems and facilities: (1) designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator; (2) reporting of cybersecurity incidents to CISA within 24 hours; (3) developing and implementing a cybersecurity incident response plan to reduce the risk of an operational disruption; and (4) completing a cybersecurity vulnerability assessment to identify potential gaps or vulnerabilities in their systems. For owner/operators not specifically covered under the SD 1580-21-01 or 1582-21-01 series, TSA also issued an Information Circular (IC-2021-01), which included a non-binding recommendation for those surface owner/operators not subject to the SDs to voluntarily implement the same measures.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/20211201_surface-ic-2021-01.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Oct. 16, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the year following issuance of the second pipeline SD, TSA determined that its prescriptive requirements limited the ability of owner/operators to adapt the requirements to their operational environment and apply innovative alternative measures and new capabilities. Because of the need to provide greater flexibility, TSA revised this SD series, effective July 27, 2022 (SD Pipeline-2021-02C), to maintain the security objectives in the previous versions of the SD but also provide more flexibility by imposing performance-based, rather than prescriptive, security measures. As revised, the SD allows covered owner/operators to choose how 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88497"/>
                        best to implement security measures for their specific systems and operations while mandating that they achieve critical security outcomes. This approach also affords these owner/operators with the ability to adopt new technologies and security capabilities as they become available, if TSA's mandated security outcomes continue to be met.
                    </P>
                    <P>The current directive, most recently revised in July 2024, specifically requires the covered owner/operators of critical pipeline systems and facilities to take the following actions:</P>
                    <P>• Establish and implement a TSA-approved CIP that describes the specific cybersecurity measures employed to protect Critical Cyber Systems, as defined by the owner/operator, and the schedule for achieving the security outcomes identified by TSA.</P>
                    <P>• Develop and maintain an up-to-date CIRP to reduce the risk of operational disruption, or the risk of other business disruption, as defined in the SD, should the IT and/or OT systems of a gas or liquid pipeline or railroad be affected by a cybersecurity incident. The CIRP must be exercised each year to test at least two objectives of the plan and include personnel responsible for actions in the CIRP.</P>
                    <P>• Develop a CAP that describes how the owner/operator will proactively, regularly, and completely assess the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures in their CIP, and identify and resolve device, network, and/or system vulnerabilities. This plan must be submitted to TSA for approval and an annual report provided to TSA and corporate leadership.</P>
                    <P>The CIP must identify how the owner/operators meet the following primary security outcomes:</P>
                    <P>• Implement network segmentation policies and controls to ensure that the OT system can continue to safely operate in the event that an IT system has been compromised, or vice versa;</P>
                    <P>• Implement access control measures to secure and prevent unauthorized access to critical cyber systems;</P>
                    <P>• Implement continuous monitoring and detection policies and procedures to detect cybersecurity threats and correct anomalies that affect critical cyber system operations; and</P>
                    <P>• Reduce the risk of exploitation of unpatched systems through the application of security patches and updates for operating systems, applications, drivers, and firmware on critical cyber systems in a timely manner using a risk-based methodology.</P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, in addition to developing and implementing a TSA-approved CIP, this directive requires the covered owner/operators to continually assess their cybersecurity posture. These owner/operators must develop and update a CAP and submit an annual plan to TSA that describes their program for the coming year, including details on the processes and techniques that they would be using to assess the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures. Techniques such as penetration testing of IT systems and the use of “red” and “purple” team (adversarial perspective) testing are referenced in the SD. At a minimum, the CAP must include an architectural design review every 2 years. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section III.D.3. of this NPRM for additional discussion regarding the CAP required by the SD.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The scope of the requirements in this directive apply to Critical Cyber Systems. TSA defined a Critical Cyber System to include “any IT or OT system or data that, if compromised or exploited, could result in operational disruption. Critical Cyber Systems include business services that, if compromised or exploited, could result in operational disruption.” 
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             For purposes of this directive, “operational disruption” is defined as “a deviation from or interruption of business critical functions that results from a compromise or loss of data, system availability, system reliability, or control of a TSA-designated critical pipeline and rail system or facility.” “Business critical functions” is defined as the “owner/operator's determination of capacity to support functions necessary to meet operational needs and supply-chain expectations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On October 18, 2022, TSA issued an SD imposing similar performance-based cybersecurity requirements on higher-risk freight railroads and passenger rail owner/operators (SD 1580/82-2022-01).
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This SD was also developed with extensive input from industry stakeholders and federal partners, including CISA and the FRA, to address issues unique to the rail industry. This engagement included providing the industry with a draft to review and comment upon and several meetings, including technical roundtables with cyber experts within the industry, before TSA issued the SD.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/sd-1580-82-2022-01.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Oct. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As TSA issued these directives under the statutory authority in 49 U.S.C. 114(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        )(2) and intended the requirements to be in place for more than 90 days, TSA sought TSOB review and ratification of the use of the agency's emergency authorities. Table 2 provides the ratification dates for each SD.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—TSOB Ratification Dates for TSA's SDs</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">SD series</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Specific SD</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Date of ratification</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                <LI>citation</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SD 1580-21-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580-21-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>December 29, 2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>87 FR 31093 (May 23, 2022).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580-21-01A</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 16, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>88 FR 36921 TBD (June 6, 2023).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580-21-01B</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 22, 2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SD 1582-21-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1582-21-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>December 29, 2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>87 FR 31093 (May 23, 2022).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1582-21-01A</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 16, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>88 FR 36921 TBD (June 6, 2023).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1582-21-01B</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 22, 2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SD 1580/82-2022-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580/82-2022-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 16, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>88 FR 36921 (June 6, 2023).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580/82-2022-01A</ENT>
                            <ENT>November 22, 2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580/82-2022-01B</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Superseded 
                                <SU>78</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD 1580/82-2022-1C</ENT>
                            <ENT>July 29, 2024</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SD Pipeline-2021-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>July 3, 2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>86 FR 38209 (July 20, 2021).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-01A</ENT>
                            <ENT>December 29, 2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>87 FR 31093 (May 23, 2022).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-01B</ENT>
                            <ENT>June 24, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>88 FR 36921 (June 6, 2023).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-01C</ENT>
                            <ENT>June 21, 2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>89 FR 28570 (April 19, 2024).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-01D</ENT>
                            <ENT>June 28, 2024</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SD Pipeline-2021-02</ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-02</ENT>
                            <ENT>August 17, 2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>86 FR 52953 (Sept. 24, 2021).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-02B</ENT>
                            <ENT>January 13, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>87 FR 31093 (May 23, 2022).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-02C</ENT>
                            <ENT>August 19, 2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>88 FR 36921 (June 6, 2023).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipeline-2021-02D</ENT>
                            <ENT>August 24, 2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>89 FR 28570 (April 19, 2024).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88498"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>SD Pipepilne-2021-02E</ENT>
                            <ENT>August 23, 2024</ENT>
                            <ENT>TBD.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        2. TSA's Assessments, Guidelines, and Regulations Applicable to Pipeline and Rail Systems
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             SD 1580/82-2022-01B, issued in May 2024, was superseded by SD 1580/82-2022-01C before ratification by the TSOB.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007 (9/11 Act) 
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires certain actions to enhance surface transportation security. The following two mandates are specifically relevant to this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             Public Law 110-53, 121 Stat. 266 (Aug. 3, 2007).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Pipeline Guidelines, Assessments, and Regulations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1557(a) of the 9/11 Act requires a program to review pipeline operator adoption of guidelines originally issued by the DOT in 2002.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA originally reviewed operators' adoption of the Pipeline Security Information Circular, issued on September 5, 2002, by DOT's Office of Pipeline Safety as the primary federal guideline for industry security. TSA also reviewed operators' adoption of a complementary document, the DOT-issued Pipeline Security Contingency Planning Guidance of June 2002.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                             as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1207(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Recognizing that the Security Circular required updating, TSA initiated a process to amend the federal security guidance. These revised guidelines were first developed in 2010 and 2011 in collaboration with industry and government members of the Pipeline Sector and Government Coordinating Councils and other industry association representatives and included a range of recommended security measures covering all aspects of pipeline operations. Consistent with TSA's general authorities under ATSA and the requirements in section 1557(d) of the 9/11 Act, the advancement of security practices to meet the ever-changing threat environment in both the physical and cyber security realms required that the guidelines be updated again. Using a similar industry and government collaborative approach, TSA updated the Pipeline Security Guidelines in 2018 (Pipeline Guidelines).
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of this update, TSA added Section 7, “Pipeline Cyber Asset Security Measures,” including pipeline cyber asset identification; security measures for pipeline cyber assets; and cybersecurity planning and implementation guidance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Pipeline Security Guidelines (Mar. 2018), with Change 1 (Apr. 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/pipeline_security_guidelines.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 1557(b) also requires reviewing the pipeline security plans and inspection of the most critical facilities for the 100 most critical pipeline operators.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Pipeline Guidelines are used as the standard for TSA's Pipeline Security Program Corporate Security Reviews (CSRs) and Critical Facility Security Reviews (CFSRs) of the most critical pipeline systems. The CSR program has been in effect since 2003, during which time a total of approximately 260 CSRs have been completed industry wide. Approximately 800 CFSRs have been completed since this program's inception in 2009.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 1207(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, section 1557(d) specifically authorizes the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) to issue regulations, as appropriate and following consultation with the Secretary of Transportation on the extent of risk and appropriate mitigation measures, and to issue binding regulations and carry out necessary inspection and enforcement actions.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such regulations would incorporate the 2002 guidelines and contain additional requirements as necessary based upon results of the inspections performed under section 1557(b). This section specifically authorizes assessment of penalties against pipeline facilities and systems for non-compliance.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While TSA has had this authority since 2007, TSA has not determined it was necessary to exercise it until this current rulemaking, which is intended to address the increasing cybersecurity threat to pipeline facilities and systems.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 1207(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             TSA also has specific authority to enforce its security regulations. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f)(7).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, while the guidelines are available to all pipeline facilities and systems, regardless of whether TSA has determined the system is critical, TSA has not determined it is necessary to impose cybersecurity requirements through its emergency authorities on the full scope of pipeline owner/operators to which the guidelines are issued.</P>
                    <P>
                        Although this rulemaking would impose cybersecurity requirements on certain pipeline owners and operators and subject such entities to inspections for compliance, TSA would continue to conduct voluntary security assessments in areas where mandatory requirements do not exist (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the physical security measures recommended in the guidelines) as part of a “structured oversight” approach. This approach assesses and provides feedback on voluntary implementation of cybersecurity recommendations for systems not covered by this proposed rule. These assessments would continue TSA's approach of working with the industry to determine the industry's voluntary adoption and adherence to non-regulatory guidelines, including Security Action Items and other security measures developed jointly with, and agreed to by, industry stakeholders to meet relevant security needs.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of these assessments, TSA provides recommendations to owner/operators and identifies resources to support them in voluntarily enhancing their physical and security baseline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             For additional information on TSA's resources and surface transportation security initiatives, see TSA's website at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/for-industry/resources</E>
                             (last accessed Aug. 30, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Regulating Railroads, Public Transportation Systems, and OTRBs</HD>
                    <P>
                        In 2008, TSA promulgated regulations imposing security requirements on owner/operators of freight railroads, rail transit systems, including passenger rail and commuter rail, heavy rail transit, light rail transit, automated guideway, cable car, inclined plane, funicular, and monorail systems. This regulation, in pertinent part, covers appointment of security coordinators and security-related reporting requirements. For freight railroads, the 2008 rule also imposed requirements for the secure transport of Rail Security-Sensitive Materials.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rail Transportation Security Final Rule (Rail Security Rule), 73 FR 72130 (Nov. 26, 2008).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to measures to enhance pipeline security, the 9/11 Act required other regulations to enhance surface transportation security. On March 23, 2020, consistent with these requirements, TSA published the final rule, “Security Training for Surface 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88499"/>
                        Transportation Employees.” 
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This regulation requires owner/operators of higher-risk freight railroad carriers (as defined in 49 CFR 1580.101), public transportation agencies (including rail mass transit and bus systems and passenger railroad carriers, as defined in 49 CFR 1582.101), and OTRB companies (as defined in 49 CFR 1584.101), to provide TSA-approved security training to employees performing security-sensitive functions. In addition to implementing these provisions, the final rule also expanded the requirement for security coordinators and reporting of significant security concerns to apply to OTRB and bus-only public transportation agencies, and defined Transportation Security-Sensitive Materials.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             85 FR 16456.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs. 1512 and 1531 of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1162 and 1181, respectively, for security coordinator requirements. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             sec. 1501(13) of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1151(13), for requirement to define “Transportation Security Sensitive Materials.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The 9/11 Act also requires regulations for higher-risk public transportation agencies, railroads, and OTRB owner/operators to develop security plans to address specific security issues and vulnerabilities identified during an assessment of specific systems, infrastructure, and capabilities.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA published an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) in December 2016 seeking comment on specific issues related to the 9/11 Act's requirements for a regulation to address vulnerability assessments and security plans.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Through this ANPRM, TSA solicited information on the extent to which owner/operators of freight railroads, PTPR systems, and OTRBs had taken actions consistent with those prescribed by the 9/11 Act for vulnerability assessments and security plans, what resources they used to support these actions, and information on implementation costs. Given the passage of time and different scope of this rulemaking, TSA has established a new docket for this rulemaking and advises commenters on the 2016 ANPRM to submit comments on this NPRM if they wish for their views to be addressed in a final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs. 1405 and 1512 of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1134 and 1162, respectively; 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             section 1531, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1181 (which imposes similar requirements for OTRBs).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             81 FR 91401 (Dec. 16, 2016).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While the requirements in this proposed rule would not address all elements of vulnerability assessments and security plans stipulated in the 9/11 Act, it would address the 9/11 Act's requirements as they relate to the IT and OT systems used by high-risk freight railroads and PTPR systems. For example, the 9/11 Act requires identification and evaluation of critical systems, including information systems,
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         plans for providing redundant and backup systems needed to ensure continued operations in the event of a cybersecurity incident, and identification of the vulnerabilities to these systems.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The vulnerability assessment requirements applicable to higher-risk rail carriers must also identify strengths and weaknesses in (1) programmable electronic devices, computers, or other automated systems used in providing transportation; (2) alarms, cameras, and other protection systems; (3) communications systems and utilities needed for railroad security purposes, including dispatching and notification systems; and (4) other matters determined appropriate by the Secretary.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For security plans, the statute requires regulations that address, among other things, actions to mitigate identified vulnerabilities, the protection of passenger communication systems, emergency response, ensuring redundant and backup systems are in place to ensure continued operation of critical elements of the system in the event of a terrorist attack or other incident, and other actions or procedures as the Secretary determines are appropriate to address the security of the public transportation system or the security of railroad carriers, as appropriate.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The provisions proposed in this NPRM would satisfy such requirements as they relate to cybersecurity in high-risk public transportation agencies and railroads.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs. 1405(a)(3) and 1512(d)(1)(A) of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1134(a)(3), 1162(d)(1)(A), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at secs. 1405(c)(2), 1512(d)(1)(D), and 1512(e)(1)(G), as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1134(c)(2), 1162(d)(1)(D), 1162(e)(1)(G), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at sec. 1512(d), as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1162(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at secs. 1405(c)(2) and 1512(e), as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1134(c)(2), 1162(e), respectively. Only one commenter on the ANPRM specifically addressed the inclusion of IT and OT systems for purposes of vulnerability assessments and security planning. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             TSA-2016-0002-0013, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             under Docket No. TSA-2016-0002. This commenter indicated that, at the time of the comment, the Rail Information Security Committee of the Association of American Railroads focuses on cybersecurity and the “industry's physical and cyber security committees annually conduct risk assessments using “relevant security information” from a variety of resources. As part of this effort, they evaluate specific information technology and communication assets. They also indicated that the industry emphasizes analysis of cyber incidents and sharing information with railroads.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In short, the 9/11 Act provisions described above contain a combination of detailed requirements regarding vulnerability assessments and the content of security plans. Each of these provisions confirms and supplements TSA's authority to impose such requirements as are appropriate or necessary to ensure the security of the transportation system. TSA would issue the proposed rule pursuant to and consistent with its general authorities and the 9/11 Act's requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. References</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. National Cybersecurity Strategy</HD>
                    <P>
                        In March 2023, the Biden-Harris Administration released the National Cybersecurity Strategy.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This strategy includes the following five pillars identified as critical for building and enhancing the collaboration necessary to strengthen the nation's cybersecurity posture to protect infrastructure critical to national security and the economy: (a) defend critical infrastructure; (b) disrupt and dismantle threat actors; (c) shape market forces to drive security and resilience; (d) invest in a resilient future; and (e) forge international partnership to pursued shared goals.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with this strategy, TSA is proposing a performance-based regulation for cybersecurity that builds on the NIST CSF and uses the CISA CPGs as guardrails to ensure prioritization of those measures most critical for establishing a common baseline to reduce known risks to national security and the economy.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The following provides a high-level overview of the NIST CSF and the CISA CPGs. A table that aligns these two documents with the proposed requirements in this NPRM is available in the docket for this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 8-9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. NIST Cybersecurity Framework</HD>
                    <P>
                        Executive Order (E.O.) 13636 of February 12, 2013 (Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity), directed NIST to develop a voluntary framework to reduce cyber risks to critical infrastructure.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This framework, created in collaboration between industry and government, consists of standards, guidelines, and practices to promote the protection of critical infrastructure. The recommendations in the framework are intended to provide a prioritized, flexible, repeatable, and cost-effective approach to manage cybersecurity-related risks. The framework is not a regulatory document in that it is written as recommendations 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88500"/>
                        and is not enforceable. The recommendations are also extensive and may not be applicable to every business or context. NIST is currently in the process of reviewing and revising the Cybersecurity Framework. For purposes of this rulemaking, TSA has relied on Version 1.1 of April 16, 2018.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             Published at 78 FR 11737 (Feb. 19, 2013). The Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2014, Public Law 113-274, 128 Stat. 2971, 2972-73, subsequently formalized the requirements in the E.O. into statutory requirements for NIST.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The NIST CSF is a comprehensive resource for developing a comprehensive cybersecurity program for any business. The framework generally includes the following key steps: (a) understanding the business's current cybersecurity posture by scoping the Organizational Profile; (b) gathering information needed to prepare the Organizational Profile, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         defining a target state, which should be informed by standards and applicable regulations; (c) creating an Organizational Profile that identifies and prioritizes opportunities for improving within the context of continuous and repeatable processes; (d) analyzing the gaps between current state and the Target Profile, and creating an action plan to address any identified gaps, including a Plan of Action and Milestones; and (e) implementing the action plan and updating the Organizational Profile as necessary to keep the organization moving towards the target.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These steps are part of an iterative cycle that should also consider opportunities for documenting and communicating the organization's cybersecurity capabilities and known opportunities for improvement with external stakeholders, including business partners, prospective customers, suppliers, and other third parties.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 13 at 7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        There are currently six core functions to the framework: govern, identify, protect, detect, respond, and recover. NIST recommends that all these functions be addressed concurrently as they all have vital roles related to cybersecurity.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Within each of these functions, there are multiple recommendations. Finally, the framework identifies several framework tiers in ascending order of cybersecurity maturity. The first and lowest tier, “Partial,” recognizes an ad hoc, reactive, and irregular approach to cybersecurity that is driven by case-by-case responses in an environment that fails to identify clear roles and responsibilities for cybersecurity. The next tier, “Risk Informed,” has a cybersecurity program that is approved by management but may not be known organization wide. While there may be an awareness of risk at certain levels within the organization, the company lacks an organization-wide process to manage risks and doesn't fully recognize both dependencies and dependents that could be affected by insufficient cybersecurity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As companies mature in developing and implementing cybersecurity measures, they should be moving to a “Repeatable” tier. In this tier, processes are formally approved and are known and communicated organization wide. There is an organization-wide approach to managing risks, consistent methods are in place for cybersecurity policies, individuals within the company known their roles and responsibilities for cybersecurity, and the company is aware of dependencies and dependents. The top tier, “Adaptive,” applies to companies that have implemented predictive, advanced technologies to address cybersecurity. In this tier, cybersecurity risks inform corporate decisions, and the company understands its role in the larger ecosystem and contributes to a broadening understanding of cybersecurity in its business environment. As part of this understanding, the company has a strong supply chain understanding and program to manage cybersecurity risks within the supply chain based on dependencies and dependents.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. CISA Cross-Sector Cybersecurity Performance Goals</HD>
                    <P>CISA developed the CPGs as directed by the National Security Memorandum on Improving Cybersecurity for Critical Infrastructure Control Systems (signed July 28, 2021). The CISA CPGs can be read as a prioritized subset of the NIST CSF framework that critical infrastructure owners and operators can implement to meaningfully reduce the likelihood and impact of known risks and adversary techniques. As with the NIST CSF, the CISA CPGs are voluntary. Unlike the NIST CSF, the CISA CPGs are not intended to be comprehensive. Aligned with the NIST CSF, the CISA CPGs supplement that framework by supporting businesses in prioritizing cybersecurity measures critical for establishing a baseline of cybersecurity across critical infrastructure that emphasizes measures based on their demonstrated ability to reduce known risks. The prioritization used in the CISA CPGs goes beyond consideration of risks to specific entities and considers the aggregate risk to the nation of cybersecurity incidents on critical sectors. The recommendations in the CISA CPGs align with the six core functions of the NIST CSF identified above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. TSA Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>
                        On November 30, 2022, TSA published an ANPRM to provide an opportunity for interested individuals and organizations, particularly higher-risk pipeline and rail (including freight, passenger, and transit rail) operations, to help TSA develop a comprehensive and forward-looking approach to surface cybersecurity requirements. The ANPRM also solicited input from the industry associations representing these companies, third-party cybersecurity subject matter experts, and insurers and underwriters for cybersecurity risks for these transportation sectors.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Enhancing Surface Cyber Risk Management,</E>
                             87 FR 73527 (Nov. 30, 2022). Through a subsequent notice, TSA extended the comment period from January 17, 2023, to February 1, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             87 FR 78911 (Dec. 23, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA received comments from 35 commenters in response to the ANPRM, with almost 600 specific issues raised by the commenters, which included major trade associations and individuals.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Most comments received fell into a few general categories: (1) general support; (2) emphasis on the need for regulatory harmonization and performance-based regulation; and (3) comments on core elements, particularly comments related to training, supply chain, and third-party assessors. Some comments opposed potential regulation at this time, suggesting that voluntary measures are currently sufficient, and that TSA should wait for other standards (such as the CISA CPGs) to further mature. TSA considered all comments received. The following provides a high-level summary of the comments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             Comments may be viewed in the docket for this rulemaking, TSA-2022-0001, at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             The American Gas Association, American Fuel and Petrochemical Manufacturers, Association of American Railroads, American Short Line and Regional Railroad Association, American Public Transportation Association, Airlines for America, Liquid Energy Pipeline Association, Interstate Natural Gas Association, American Petroleum Institute, and AFL-CIO Transportation Trades Division were among the major trade associations that submitted comments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. General Support and Need for Regulatory Harmonization and Performance-Based Regulation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The industry comments generally supported a regulation that builds upon the previously issued SDs. Many commenter groups complimented TSA's current performance-based directives, which provide owner/operators the flexibility to determine how to implement cybersecurity protocols to achieve the desired outcomes. Furthermore, they emphasized how 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88501"/>
                        adaptive CRM programming would enable regulated parties to—
                    </P>
                    <P>• Assess known and potential system and environment vulnerabilities;</P>
                    <P>• Assess the likelihood and potential operational and financial impacts of a threat actor leveraging vulnerabilities to cause a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                    <P>• Develop a regular cadence of reassessing risk factors and recalculating risk; and</P>
                    <P>• Implement and monitor the effectiveness of appropriate mitigating controls to reduce the probability or impact of an attack.</P>
                    <P>
                        A recurring theme in the ANPRM comments focused on encouraging TSA to use existing standards as a reference (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the NIST CSF, the CISA CPGs, and the North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC) Critical Infrastructure Protection (CIP) standards 
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) and collaborate with other Federal agencies to harmonize cybersecurity requirements. Several respondents recommended that TSA facilitate a cross-government group composed of State and Federal agencies that would meet regularly (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         monthly stakeholder calls or ongoing TSA-led briefings to relevant sector coordinating officials) as well as develop common lexicons between these entities before issuing requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             The NERC CIP standards are reliability standards for operators of the bulk electric system (BES). A small number of companies have both pipeline and BES business units. TSA is aware that when the agency transitioned from prescriptive security requirements in the first iteration of SD Pipeline-2021-02 to the performance-based requirements, some owner/operators subject to both the TSA and NERC requirements incorporated applicable measures into their implementation plans. TSA would continue to provide that flexibility with this proposed rule, to the extent that specific measures meet the performance standards identified in the proposed rule. TSA welcomes comments on any conflicts or divergences that TSA should take account of as part of this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Core Elements</HD>
                    <P>In the ANPRM, TSA sought comment on the following 11 core elements for a CRM program:</P>
                    <P>• Designation of an individual responsible for cybersecurity;</P>
                    <P>• Access controls;</P>
                    <P>• Vulnerability assessments;</P>
                    <P>• Penetration testing, drills, and exercises;</P>
                    <P>• Technical security controls;</P>
                    <P>• Physical security controls;</P>
                    <P>• Incident response planning &amp; operational resilience;</P>
                    <P>• Incident reporting and information sharing;</P>
                    <P>• Personnel training &amp; awareness;</P>
                    <P>• Supply chain/third-party risk management; and</P>
                    <P>• Recordkeeping and documentation.</P>
                    <P>While TSA reviewed all of the comments received, we also note that many of the comments reiterated issues raised in discussions with industry post-issuance of the SDs discussed above. The comments, however, also included three issues of particular interest to TSA as they applied to requirements included in this proposed rule that were not specifically in the SDs: employee cyber training, supply chain/third-party vendors, and third-party assessors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Training</HD>
                    <P>Many comments referenced or addressed workforce cyber training. Commenters acknowledged that security training is a critical component of overall organizational security and compliance. While generally supportive of the requirement, one of the industry commenters recommended against establishing “specific training requirements,” noting that specific training needs should be based on an organization's particular operating environment as well as the costs associated with a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Supply Chain</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Cybersecurity Strategy (March 2023) identifies the criticality of a secure global supply chain for information, communications, and OT products and services.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with this prioritization, DHS identified supply chain and third-party service provider risk management as a core element for DHS cybersecurity regulations. A majority of comments mentioned or addressed supply chain issues. Many commenters discussed their efforts to establish a common understanding with vendors and third parties through cybersecurity contract provisions regarding notifications of product vulnerability, access to security patches, notifications of cybersecurity incidents, etc. One association specifically noted that a number of pipeline operators are working with DHS to develop improved ways to facilitate conversations on security between vendors and operators.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             National Cybersecurity Strategy, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 12, at 32.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Third-Party Assessors</HD>
                    <P>The concept of third-party assessors was the topic of a significant number of comments. In general, commenters opposed requiring owners and operators to conduct assessments using third-party validators. Commenters considered such a requirement to be shifting costs from the government to the regulated parties. Companies within the different surface sub-sectors have varying degrees of capability and capacity to adopt cybersecurity standards. For example, one association indicated that they proactively conduct security control assessments of third parties and include them in response and recovery plans and exercises. Others, however, indicated they lack the capability and resources to use third-party assessors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Regulatory Harmonization</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted by the Office of the National Cyber Director (ONCD) in an August 2023 Request for Information,
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the National Cybersecurity Strategy 
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         calls for establishing cybersecurity regulations to secure critical infrastructure where existing measures are insufficient, harmonizing and streamlining new and existing regulations, and enabling regulated entities to afford to achieve security.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             88 FR 55694 (Aug. 16, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA emphasizes its commitment to regulatory harmonization and streamlining, and notes that this proposed rule, which is grounded in NIST's Framework for Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity, NIST's standards and best practices, and the CISA CPGs, is consistent with such priorities. TSA also acknowledges the ongoing rulemakings of other DHS components, including ongoing rulemakings on cybersecurity in maritime transportation and implementation of CIRCIA. Finally, TSA notes that this proposed rule follows several years of implementation of TSA's SDs. As noted in TSA's information collection requests for the SDs, TSA has not identified any other duplicative requirements for the cybersecurity mitigation measures required by the SDs and received no comments regarding duplication in response to notices published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             OMB Approval No. 1652-0074 (Cybersecurity Measures for Surface Modes), approved through Aug. 31, 2026; and OMB Approval No. 1652-0056 (Pipeline Corporate Security Reviews and Security Directives), approved through Feb. 28, 2026; and OMB Approval No. 1652-0050 (Critical Facility Information of the Top 100 Most Critical Pipelines), approved through Mar. 31, 2026). One commenter noted that TSA's SDs require reporting within 24 hours while the CIRCIA proposed rule requires reporting within 72 hours. This issue is discussed 
                            <E T="03">infra</E>
                             in section III.D.2.f. of this proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA's experience in imposing cybersecurity requirements to date, as well as feedback from the owner/operators subject to those requirements, indicates that complete harmonization 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88502"/>
                        is not possible. Even within the transportation sector, there are modal operational issues, different physical controls by other agencies that support defense-in-depth measures, as well as other factors that must be considered. For example, SD-Pipeline-2021-02 recognizes that the need to provide ready access to industrial control workstations in controls rooms may make a requirement for multi-factor authentication (MFA) inadvisable. TSA allows owner/operators to rely on compensating controls use to meet control room requirements issued by the PHMSA.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, TSA provides an allowance for alternatives to encryption for certain systems used by railroads 
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and recognizes compliance with FRA's requirements to address access to PTC system components in locomotives.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SD-Pipeline-2021-02 at Section III.C.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SD-1580/82-2022-01 at Section III.B.2.b.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at III.C.6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While TSA believes differences in cybersecurity requirements may be intentional based on sector-specific distinctions, TSA welcomes comments on opportunities to harmonize and streamline regulations where feasible and appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Rule Organization</HD>
                    <P>This rule proposes changes to the requirements applicable to owner/operators of freight railroads, PTPR, and OTRBs in subchapter D of title 49 CFR, subtitle B, chapter XII. The rule also proposes to add a new part 1586 to this subchapter, which would impose requirements applicable to owner/operators of specific pipeline facilities and systems.</P>
                    <P>To facilitate implementation of these requirements, TSA is proposing to significantly revise subchapter D. Some of these revisions are technical revisions to consolidate previously imposed procedures or requirements or to align procedures for security programs with TSA's existing processes for aviation. TSA believes consolidating procedural and general requirements in part 1570, while providing consolidated modal-specific requirements in modal-specific parts, would make it easier for owner/operators to identify and implement the proposed requirements. TSA is also proposing revisions to terms in part 1500 that have use in multiple provisions in chapter XII of title 49 and of part 1520 to ensure information required by the revisions to subchapter XII is protected as SSI, as applicable.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Cybersecurity Requirements</HD>
                    <P>The most significant proposed revision to TSA's regulations is the addition of requirements for higher-risk owner/operators of freight railroads, PTPR, and pipeline facilities and systems to have a comprehensive CRM program. These proposed requirements are found in new subpart D of part 1580 (applicable to freight railroads), subpart C of part 1582 (applicable to PTPR), and subpart C of part 1586 (applicable to pipeline facilities and systems). This proposed rule would also add a requirement in subpart B of part 1584 for higher-risk OTRB owner/operators to report cybersecurity incidents but would not impose the comprehensive CRM program requirements on this mode.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Physical Security Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Through this rulemaking, TSA is proposing to distinguish between physical security and cybersecurity. TSA is proposing to move the requirements currently in subchapter D related to designating a security coordinator and reporting significant security concerns. TSA is proposing to move these requirements to revised subparts B within parts 1580, 1582, and 1584, respectively. These revised subparts B would contain security program requirements primarily focused on physical security. TSA also proposes to apply these same requirements to pipeline facilities and systems through the new part 1586. Appendix A to part 1570, which identifies types of significant security concerns to be reported, would be removed from part 1570 and repeated in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586.</P>
                    <P>
                        As incorporated into this proposed subpart, TSA is proposing to clarify that the security coordinator(s) currently required by § 1570.201 must be a U.S. citizen. This requirement is consistent with the 9/11 Act 
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and advances TSA's need to ensure that the agency can rapidly share sensitive information with the owner/operator that may be critical to ensure appropriate actions are taken to address emerging threats. As provided in the 9/11 Act, TSA may waive the citizenship requirement for the security coordinator(s) if the individual successfully completes a STA.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs 1512(e)(2) and 1531(e)(2) of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1162(e)(2) and 1181(e)(2), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, the value of the security coordinator position is significantly impeded if there is not an individual in place who can receive sensitive information. Therefore, TSA is requiring that security coordinators (primary and alternate) must be a U.S. citizen who can receive sensitive information unless waived by TSA. At this time, TSA only anticipates one possible situation where a waiver would be granted; if one of the Security Coordinators is a U.S. citizen (primary or alternate), TSA may grant a waiver for the requirement as applied to the other Security Coordinator. From the agency's perspective, the purpose of the citizenship requirement is to ensure each covered owner/operator has a designated point of contact for receiving critical threat information, including intelligence information that cannot be shared with foreign citizens. TSA is assuming that owner/operators would ensure that if the security coordinator on duty is not cleared to receive certain information, that individual would promptly notify the security coordinator or other appropriate individual who has the required clearances. Both the primary and alternate Security Coordinators would be required to successfully complete an STA before TSA would consider a waiver.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also proposing to move any procedures or requirements applicable to training of security-sensitive employees 
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         currently in 49 CFR 1570.101-1570.111, and 1570.121 to the applicable modal sections. Within the modal requirements, TSA is proposing to consolidate the existing security training requirements into one section for each mode. None of the requirements would be changed as a result of this restructuring. Finally, the title of subpart C of part 1580, which includes chain of custody requirements applicable to the freight rail system, would be changed from “Operations” to “Security of Rail Security Sensitive Materials” without any revisions to the requirements in this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             §§ 1580.3, 1582.3, and 1584.3 for definitions of “security-sensitive employees” as applied to freight railroads, PTPR, and OTRB, respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Physical security encompasses threats to physical infrastructure that could affect the safety and security of people, cargo, and infrastructure. The definition for physical security in this NPRM includes measures that provide for the security of systems and facilities, as well as the persons in areas in or near to operations that could have their safety and security threatened by an attack on physical systems and assets. Examples include rail cars, stations, pipelines, terminals, buses, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                         Cybersecurity is also critical for protecting the safety and security of people, cargo, and infrastructure, but 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88503"/>
                        the actions taken to prevent cybersecurity incidents are intended to protect computers, electronic communications systems and services, wire communications, and electronic communications, including information contained on these systems, services, and capabilities.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             This explanation of cybersecurity is consistent with common understanding as reflected in the NIST Glossary, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://csrc.nist.gov/glossary/term/cybersecurity</E>
                             (last accessed July 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>It is important to recognize that there is not a bright line between physical and cybersecurity. A comprehensive defense-in-depth plan includes both physical and cybersecurity controls to protect IT and OT systems. For example, someone could use physical capabilities to damage an IT or OT system or thwart ineffective physical access controls to a building or floor in order to gain access to a Critical Cyber System. Similarly, physical security controls may be used to augment cybersecurity measures. Although TSA is distinguishing between Physical Security Coordinators and Cybersecurity Coordinators, we encourage these individuals to work together and communicate to ensure a comprehensive approach to both physical and cybersecurity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. General Procedures for Security Programs, SDs, and Information Circulars</HD>
                    <P>
                        Through this rulemaking, TSA is also proposing to revise procedures in part 1570 related to security programs. When TSA promulgated the Security Training for Surface Transportation Employees final rule in 2020,
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the rule text incorporated specific security program requirements. This structure reflected the limited scope of the requirements applicable to multiple modes of transportation. To accommodate the proposed addition of the cybersecurity requirements, TSA proposes to separate security training requirements, as discussed above, into the modal-specific parts and to incorporate general security program requirements that are consistent with the requirements applicable to aviation security programs. These changes, discussed in more detail in section III.F.1. of this preamble, would better ensure consistency across TSA's regulatory requirements. Table 3 provides a distribution table for these changes and those discussed above related to physical security requirements. TSA welcomes comment on the distribution table and whether any of the proposed changes might have unintended effects on existing requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 87.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r200">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—49 CFR Chapter XII, Subchapter D, Distribution Table</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Former section</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">New section</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.107</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(k), 1582.113(k), and 1584.113(k).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.109(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(h); 1582.113(h), and 1582.114(h).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.109(c)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(a)(1).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.109(c)(2) and (3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(a)(2)(i) and (ii).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.109(g)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(a)(2)(iii).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.111(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(i); 1582.113(i); and 1584.113(i).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.111(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(j); 1582.113(j), and 1584.113 (j).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.111(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.111.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.113(b)(e)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.113(c) and (d)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107 (amendment process); and 1580.113(o), 1582.113(o), and 1584.113(o) (physical security training specific requirements).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.113(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.113(g)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(f).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.115(a)-(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(d).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.115(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(e).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.117</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.109 (narrow alternative process for seasonal or infrequent operations); 1570.203 (provides alternate measures for purposes of requirements in Security Directives).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.119</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.107(f).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.121</ENT>
                            <ENT>1570.117 (general requirements); and 1580.113(l) and (m),1582.113(l) and (m), and 1584.113(l) and (m) (physical security training specific requirements).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.201</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.103, 1582.103, and 1584.103.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570.203</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.105. 1582.105, and 1584.105.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Part 1570, appendix A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Part 1580, appendix C; part 1582, appendix C; and part 1584, appendix C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.101</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(a).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.113(b)(1)-(5) and (7-9)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(d).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.113(b)(6)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(e).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.113(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(g).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.115(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.115(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(c).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580.115(c)-(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.113(f).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.101</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(a).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.113(b)(1)-(5) and (7-9)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(d).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.113(b)(6)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(e).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.113(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(g).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.115(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.115(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(c).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582.115(c)-(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1582.113(f).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.113(b)(1)-(5) and (7-9)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(d).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.113(b)(6)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(e).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.113(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(g).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.115(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.115(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(c).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1584.115(c)-(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1584.113(f).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88504"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Relation to Other Rulemakings</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA has other rulemakings that may reference subparts or sections contained in this proposed rule. Specifically, in the Vetting of Certain Transportation Employees NPRM, TSA has proposed to add vetting requirements as Subpart D of part 1580, Subpart C of part 1582, and Subpart C of part 1584.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this rule, we are proposing to add CRM requirements in two of the same subparts, and are proposing to revise other provisions that are cross-referenced in the Vetting of Certain Surface Transportation Employees NPRM.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although the substance of the two proposals do not conflict, the numbering and paragraph designations conflict in some cases. TSA will ensure all subparts and sections are deconflicted and consistent before any rules are finalized.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 17.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Terms</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Terms</HD>
                    <P>Consistent with the proposed rule's organization, TSA includes proposed definitions for terms relevant to several subchapters of TSA regulations, beyond the requirements of subchapter D, in part 1500. Terms relevant to several parts of subchapter D would be added to § 1570.3. Terms uniquely relevant to each mode would be included in the relevant parts (part 1580 (freight), part 1582 (PTPR), part 1584 (OTRB), and part 1586 (pipeline facilities and systems)).</P>
                    <P>Most of the definitions are derived from existing federal regulatory programs, particularly programs administered by DOT. A few definitions are based on industry sources. TSA's purpose is to use definitions with which regulated parties are familiar, to the extent that the definitions are consistent with the purposes of this NPRM. Where no existing definition is appropriate, TSA's subject matter experts developed the definition based upon the generally accepted and known use of terms within each of the modes subject to this proposed regulation. Table 4 provides additional information on the terms that would be added to TSA's regulations.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs54,r75,r200">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Explanation of Proposed Terms and Definitions in Subchapter XII of Title 49</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Part</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Summary of change</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “carbon dioxide”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections regarding pipeline applicability in part 1586. Owner/operators of control rooms within this definition would, under certain criteria, be subject to the requirements in proposed part 1586. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in in 49 CFR 195.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “gas”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used extensively in proposed part 1586 and refers to a commodity that, if transported by pipelines, may require the owner/operator to be subject to the requirements in part 1586. The term is also used in the definition of other terms defined in this proposed rule. The proposed definition aligns with the definition of this term in 49 CFR 192.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “hazardous liquid”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used extensively in proposed part 1586 and refers to a commodity that, if transported by pipelines, may require the owner/operator to be subject to the requirements in part 1586. The term is also used in the definition of other terms defined in this proposed rule. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in in 49 CFR 195.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “liquefied natural gas (LNG)”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used extensively in proposed part 1586 and refers to a commodity that, if transported by pipelines, may require the owner/operator to be subject to the requirements in part 1586. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in 49 CFR 193.2007.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “pipeline or pipeline system”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used extensively in proposed part 1586 and specifically refers to the means of transport of gas and hazardous liquids. Owner/operators of these systems would, under certain applicability criteria, be subject to the requirements in part 1586. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in 49 CFR 192.3, 193.2007, and 195.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “pipeline facility”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used extensively in proposed part 1586 and specifically refers to the facilities used in the transportation of gas and hazardous liquids. Owner/operators of these systems would, under certain applicability criteria, be subject to the requirements in part 1586. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in 49 CFR 192.3, 193.2007, and 195.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose modifying definition of “transportation or transport”</ENT>
                            <ENT>TSA is proposing to update the definition to include the addition of pipeline system and facility operations to TSA's regulations through proposed part 1586.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose modifying definition of “transportation facility”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in part 1520 and requirements (current and proposed) in subchapter D. TSA is proposing to update the definition to include pipeline system and facility operations in proposed part 1586.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose modifying definition of “transportation security equipment and systems”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in part 1520 and requirements (current and proposed) in subchapter D of 49 CFR chapter XII. TSA is proposing to update the definition to include IT and OT authentication, network logging, and to specify that transportation security equipment and systems includes security equipment and systems for the protection and monitoring of both physical and virtual assets.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1500</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term would refer to a controlled vocabulary used in TSA's cybersecurity requirements. In general, the use of a standard lexicon reduces the possibility of misinterpretations when communicating cybersecurity definitions and terminology.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “accountable executive”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections regarding governance of a CRM program. Accountable executive means an individual employed by an owner/operator who is responsible and accountable for the owner/operator's compliance with the requirements of subchapter D, including authority over human resource issues, major financial issues, conduct of the owner/operator's affairs, all operations conducted related to the requirements of subchapter D, and responsibility for all transportation-related security issues.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1570</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “cyber security-sensitive employee”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used to describe employees of owner/operators who TSA proposes must receive cybersecurity-related training. The definition includes any employee who is a privileged user with access to, or privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or any Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “defense connector railroad”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used to identify applicability of CRM requirements and refers to a railroad that has a line of common carrier obligation designated a defense connector line by the US Army Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command Transportation Engineering Agency (SDDCTEA) and the FRA, which connects defense installations or other activities requiring rail service to STRACNET.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1580</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “switching or terminal services”</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                This term is used to identify applicability of CRM requirements and refers to persons primarily engaged in the furnishing of terminal facilities for rail passenger or freight traffic for line-haul service, and in the movement of railroad cars between terminal yards, industrial sidings and other local sites. 
                                <E T="03">See</E>
                                 (
                                <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov/sic-manual/4013</E>
                                ).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88505"/>
                            <ENT I="01">1580</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “train miles”</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                This term is used to identify applicability of CRM requirements. A Train-mile is the movement of a train (which can consist of many cars) the distance of one mile. A Train-mile differs from a vehicle-mile, which is the movement of one car (vehicle) the distance of one mile. A 10-car (vehicle) train traveling one mile would be measured as one Train-mile and 10 vehicle-miles. 
                                <E T="03">See</E>
                                 (
                                <E T="03">https://www.bts.gov/content/railroad-passenger-safety-data</E>
                                ).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1582</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “unlinked passenger trips”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in part 1582 and means the number of people making one-way trips on a public transportation system in a given time period.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1586</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “control room”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections regarding pipeline applicability in part 1586. Owner/operators of control rooms within this definition would, under certain criteria, be subject to the requirements in proposed part 1586. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in 49 CFR 192.3 and 195.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1586</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “high-consequence area”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed part 1586 relating to the applicability of the requirements in that part. The proposed definition has the same meaning as the term is defined in 49 CFR 192.903 and 195.450.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1586</ENT>
                            <ENT>Propose adding definition of “peak shaving facility”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections regarding pipeline applicability in part 1586. Owner/operators of peak shaving facilities would, under certain applicability criteria, be subject to the requirements in part 1586. There is no current federal definition of a “peak shaving facility,” but the term has a commonly accepted interpretation across the industry.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon</HD>
                    <P>TSA has also developed terms specific to cybersecurity requirements for purposes of its SDs and ICs discussed in section II.B.1. of this NPRM. Rather than including these terms in the regulation, TSA is proposing to add “TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon” to the terms in 49 CFR 1500.3. This term would refer to a controlled vocabulary used in TSA's cybersecurity requirements and be available on TSA's public website and any secure websites used to communicate with regulated entities. In general, the use of a standard lexicon reduces the possibility of misinterpretations when communicating cybersecurity definitions and terminology. The definitions provided below are generally consistent with those terms and definitions in the SDs and ICs.</P>
                    <P>As the meaning of cybersecurity terms can change over time based on emerging technology and capabilities, TSA is proposing to maintain these definitions separate from the regulatory text. Any changes to the terms would be interpretive in nature and would be made using the procedures for amendments to security programs described in proposed § 1570.107.</P>
                    <P>This approach also allows flexibility for TSA to align with other Federal agencies as part of broader effort to harmonize cybersecurity terminology and requirements without delaying the ability to proceed with this important rule to establish a strong cybersecurity baseline to protect critical surface operations. Table 5 includes the list and definition of terms that TSA proposes to establish for the first iteration of the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s55,xl100,r100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—Explanation of Proposed Terms and Definitions in TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Term</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Proposed definition</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Authorized representative</ENT>
                            <ENT>TSA is proposing to use a modified definition of an “authorized representative” from the definition in 49 CFR 1500.3. For TSA's cybersecurity requirements, an “authorized representative” is a person who is not a direct employee of the owner/operator but is authorized to act on the owner/operator's behalf to perform measures required by the security program. The term authorized representative includes agents, contractors, and subcontractors. This term does not include Managed Security Service Providers.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections requiring, as necessary and appropriate, identification of individuals of third parties who are responsible for implementation or oversight of the CRM program of cyber activities identified or critical for implementation of cyber activities described in the owner/operators CRM program. Authorized representatives may be empowered to act on behalf of the authorizing official to coordinate and conduct the day-to-day activities associated with managing risk to information systems and organizations. Considering these responsibilities, authorized representatives may be liable for non-compliance separate or in addition to the owner/operator. [Source: NIST.SP.800-37r2].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Business critical functions</ENT>
                            <ENT>Owner/operator's determination of capacity or capabilities to support functions necessary to meet operational needs and supply chain expectations.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections regarding Cybersecurity Incident Response Plans to determine key business functions, resources, infrastructure, and assets to ensure continuity of operations and supply chain expectations. [Source: Transportation Security Template and Assessment Review Toolkit].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Critical Cyber System</ENT>
                            <ENT>Any Information Technology or Operational Technology system used by the owner/operator that, if compromised or exploited, could result in an operational disruption incurred by the owner/operator. Critical Cyber Systems include those business support services that, if compromised or exploited, could result in operational disruption. This term includes systems whose ownership, operation, maintenance, or control is delegated wholly or in part to any other party.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to delineate criticality of any Information Technology or Operational Technology system to prioritize which assets need to be secured first. [Source: NIST IR 8179/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series]. These systems may include programmable electronic devices, computers, or other automated systems which are used in providing transportation; alarms, cameras, and other protection systems; and communication systems, and utilities needed for security purposes, including dispatching systems. [Source: sections 1531(d)(1)(C), 1512(d)(1)(C) of the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, Public Law 110-53 (121 Stat. 266; Aug. 3, 2007)].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CISA</ENT>
                            <ENT>The Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency within the Department of Homeland Security.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections related to reporting of cybersecurity incidents and protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88506"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Cybersecurity Architecture Design Review</ENT>
                            <ENT>A technical assessment based on government and industry-recognized standards, guidelines, and best practices that evaluates systems, networks, and security services to determine if they are designed, built, and operated in a reliable and resilient manner. These reviews must be designed to be applicable to the owner/operator's Information Technology and Operational Technology systems.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to reflect an assessment for owner/operators in developing mitigation strategies to combat cyber intrusion and cybersecurity incidents. CISA offers an assessment called a Validated Architecture Design Review (VADR) while other third-party assessment entities offer a similar assessment based on CISA's VADR methodology or a separate Architecture Design Review methodology. [Source: CISA Cyber Resource Hub/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cybersecurity incident</ENT>
                            <ENT>An occurrence that, without lawful authority, jeopardizes or is reasonably likely to jeopardize the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of computers, information or communications systems or networks, physical or virtual infrastructure controlled by computers or information systems, or information resident on the system. This definition includes an event that is under investigation or evaluation by the owner/operator as a possible cybersecurity incident without final determination of the event's root cause or nature (such as, malicious, suspicious, or benign).</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to detail the elements of a cybersecurity incident in order to accomplish a harmonization of definition across the government. [Source: DHS Lexicon Ed 17 Rev 2/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Information technology system</ENT>
                            <ENT>Any services, equipment, or interconnected systems or subsystems of equipment that are used in the automatic acquisition, storage, analysis, evaluation, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information that fall within the responsibility of an owner/operator subject to TSA's Cybersecurity Requirements to operate and/or maintain.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to describe what Information Technology system entails and align the definition with other Federal agencies. [Source: NIST SP 800-12r1/CISA CPG/DHS Lexicon Ed 17 Rev 2/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Interdependencies</ENT>
                            <ENT>Relationships of reliance within and among Information Technology and Operational Technology systems that must be maintained for those systems to operate and provide services.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to recognize the vital relationship between Information Technology and Operational Technology systems and used to determine the policies and controls that must be in place to secure critical cyber systems. [Source: SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Least privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>Persons and programs operate using the minimum level of access, permissions, and system resources necessary to perform the function.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to emphasize a security principle of granting minimum system resources and authorizations to accomplished assigned tasks. [Source: NIST SP 800-12r1/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Managed Security Service Provider</ENT>
                            <ENT>For purposes of TSA's cybersecurity requirements, a person who is not a direct employee of the owner/operator, but who provides one or more services or capabilities that the owner/operator is using to perform measures required by the TSA. Managed Security Service Providers generally provide a logical service or capability. Managed Security Service Providers are not authorized representatives.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to make a distinction between a managed security service provider and an authorized representative for the purpose of identifying cybersecurity roles and responsibilities. [Source: NIST SP 800-61r2/NIST SP 800-172/Joint EA 23-01 Aviation].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Memorized secret authenticator</ENT>
                            <ENT>A type of authenticator comprised of a character string intended to be memorized by, or memorable to, the subscriber, permitting the subscriber to demonstrate something they know as part of an authentication process.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to describe the makeup and function of a password and its critical role in the authentication process. [Source: NIST SP 800-63-3/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Operational disruption</ENT>
                            <ENT>A deviation from or interruption of business critical functions that results from a compromise or loss of data, system availability, system reliability, or control of systems.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in two contexts. First, it applies to identify reportable cybersecurity incidents. It is also used for purposes of identifying Critical Cyber Systems. The definition is intended to cover a wide range of potential scenarios. For example, while the term does not explicitly reference unauthorized access, presence of malicious software, or a distributed denial of service incident, those events are covered by the scenarios used in the definition. [Source: NIST SP 800-34r1/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Operational technology system</ENT>
                            <ENT>A general term that encompasses several types of control systems, including industrial control systems, supervisory control and data acquisition systems, distributed control systems, and other control system configurations, such as programmable logic controllers, fire control systems, and physical access control systems, often found in the industrial sector and critical infrastructure. Such systems consist of combinations of programmable electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic devices or systems that interact with the physical environment or manage devices that interact with the physical environment.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to describe what Operational Technology system encompasses and align the definition with other Federal agencies. [Source: NIST SP 800-37r2/CISA CPG/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Phishing</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tricking individuals into disclosing sensitive information through deceptive computer-based means such as internet web sites or e-mails using social engineering or counterfeit identifying information.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to expound on a common cybersecurity incident that attempts to acquire sensitive data in which the perpetrator masquerades as a legitimate business or reputable person. [Source: NIST SP 800-150/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88507"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Reportable cybersecurity incident</ENT>
                            <ENT>Incidents involving systems that the owner/operator has responsibility to operate and/or maintain including: a. Unauthorized access of an Information Technology or Operational Technology system; b. Discovery of malicious software that impacts the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an Information Technology or Operational Technology system; c. Activity resulting in a denial of service to any Information Technology or Operational Technology system; and/or d. Any other cybersecurity incident that results in, or has the potential to result in, operational disruption affecting the owner/operator's Information Technology or Operational Technology systems; other aspects of the owner/operator's systems or facilities, critical infrastructure or core government functions; or national security, economic security, or public health and safety.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to inform the criteria for reporting when a cybersecurity incident occurs. [Source: TSA Surface IC/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Capabilities that enable owner/operators to collect inputs monitored by the security operations team. For example, alerts from the security information and event management system and other security technologies, where incident analysis and triage can be performed by leveraging a combination of human and machine power, help define, prioritize and drive standardized incident response activities. These capabilities allow an owner/operator to define incident analysis and response procedures in a digital workflow format.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to highlight capabilities that enable owner/operators to monitor systems and drive standardized incident response. [Source: NIST SP 800-25/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Shared account</ENT>
                            <ENT>An account that is used by multiple individuals with a common authenticator to access systems or data. A shared account is distinct from a group account, which is a collection of user accounts that allows administrators to group similar user accounts together in order to grant them the same rights and permissions. Group accounts do not have common authenticators.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used to describe an account that required oversight/restriction due to unique requirement. [Source: NIST SP 800-53r5 (AC-2)/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Spam</ENT>
                            <ENT>Electronic junk mail or the abuse of electronic messaging systems to indiscriminately send unsolicited bulk messages.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to describe unsolicited bulk emailed messages. [Source: NIST SP 800—12r1].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tor, also known as The Onion Router</ENT>
                            <ENT>Software that allows users to browse the web anonymously by encrypting and routing requests through multiple relay layers or nodes. Tor software obfuscates a user's identity from anyone seeking to monitor online activity (such as nation states, surveillance organizations, information security tools). This deception is possible because the online activity of someone using Tor software appears to originate from the Internet Protocol address of a Tor exit node, as opposed to the address of the user's computer.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed section to describe an open-source software for enabling anonymous internet communication. [Source: SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Trust relationship</ENT>
                            <ENT>An agreed upon relationship between two or more system elements that is governed by criteria for secure interaction, behavior, and outcomes relative to the protection of assets. This term refers to trust relationships between system elements implemented by hardware, firmware, and software.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to recognize policies that govern how entities in differing domains honor each other's authorizations. [Source: NIST SP 800—160v1r1/SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unauthorized access</ENT>
                            <ENT>Access from an unknown source; access by a third party or former employee; an employee accessing systems for which he or she is not authorized. This term may include a non-malicious policy violation such as the use of shared credential by an employee otherwise authorized to access it.</ENT>
                            <ENT>This term is used in proposed sections to describe what Unauthorized Access encompasses. [Source: SD Pipeline-2021-02 series/SD 1580/82-2022-01 series].</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Cybersecurity Risk Management Program—General</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Introduction</HD>
                    <P>
                        The primary purpose of this rulemaking is to mitigate the impacts of cybersecurity incidents on higher-risk surface modes of transportation. This purpose will not be met by simply codifying the requirements in the SDs or assuming that what is currently being done will be sufficient for the future. Cybersecurity is not static; it is an ever-evolving capability to address ever-evolving threats. To ensure critical systems are protected from a cybersecurity incident, this proposed rule includes requirements to establish a CRM program that would ensure cybersecurity maturity as an ongoing and adaptive process. In developing the requirements in this proposed rule, TSA began with those previously imposed by TSA through SDs issued under the authority of 49 U.S.C. 114(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        ), considered the structure and recommendations in the NIST CSF, and focused on the actions prioritized by CISA in the CPGs. Through implementation of these requirements, TSA believes the regulated parties would meet the NIST “Repeatable” Tier, which applies to companies with mature cybersecurity programs that are formally approved and are known and communicated organization-wide, reflect an organization-wide approach to managing risks, have consistent methods in place for cybersecurity policies, ensure individuals within the company know their roles and responsibilities for cybersecurity, and maintain an awareness of the company's dependencies and dependents.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Applicability</HD>
                    <P>
                        The applicability for this proposed rule is modified from the applicability of the current SD requirements. Specifically, the applicability of those SDs for railroads and rail transit systems generally aligns with the applicability for security training in 49 CFR part 1580 and 1582. For pipelines, applicability of the SDs aligns with TSA's designation of the most critical pipeline systems and facilities for purposes of the Pipeline Security Program Corporate Security Reviews and Critical Facility Security Reviews required by section 1557 of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88508"/>
                        9/11 Act.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These applicability determinations were based on the physical security of transportation systems and risks within that context.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 81.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Use of TSA's risk-based determinations for applicability is consistent with the focus of the 9/11 Act's requirements on higher-risk operations. This risk-based focus is reflected in the statutory requirement that focuses security training requirements on frontline employees, not all employees; 
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requiring risk-based tiers where only the highest tier would be required to comply with regulations for vulnerability assessments and security plans; 
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and focusing the pipeline security reviews on the most critical systems and facilities.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To expedite use of TSA's emergency authorities under 49 U.S.C. 114(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        )(2), the agency primarily relied on the risk determinations used for these requirements and reviews to impose the cybersecurity requirements in the SDs discussed in section II.B.1 of this NPRM.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs. 1408(a), 1517(a), and 1534(a) of the 9/11 Act, codified at 6 U.S.C. 1137(a), 1167(a), and 1184(a), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             secs. 1512(a) and 1181(a) of the 9/11 Act, codified at 6 U.S.C. 1162(a) and 1181(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 81.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Since issuance of these SDs, TSA has determined that with respect to permanent regulations, different risk criteria apply when the focus is on cybersecurity. In addition to protecting passengers and the immediate supply chain, risk considerations also include protecting national security, including economic security, and recognizing their dependence on reliable freight rail and pipeline systems. As risk is a construct of threat, vulnerabilities, and consequences, the change from physical to virtual risks involves different types of threats related to motivation and capacity, different vulnerabilities reflecting reliance on IT and OT systems and dependency, and different consequences to passenger safety and the supply chain if a Critical Cyber System is the target of a successful cybersecurity incident. Where cybersecurity incidents in some sectors are primarily focused on loss of data or privacy information, in the transportation sector, a cybersecurity incident has a potential impact on operations affecting passenger safety, the environment, and the supply chain. In other words, cybersecurity incidents could have direct physical consequences. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         discussion in section II.A.4. regarding cybersecurity threats. As noted in the National Cybersecurity Strategy, regulatory agencies are encouraged to ensure “cybersecurity regulations for critical infrastructure . . . prioritize the availability of essential services.” 
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The expanding nature of cyber risks to the transportation sector also requires an assessment of applicability specific to these risks. Consistent with these considerations, TSA is proposing the following applicability criteria for freight railroads, rail transit and passenger railroads, and pipelines facilities and systems.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12, at 8-9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Freight Railroads Subject to CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart D of Part 1580</HD>
                    <P>TSA proposes that the CRM program requirements apply to the freight railroads that transport the greatest amount of cargo or are identified as supporting certain Department of Defense (DoD) operations. TSA estimates 73 freight railroads would meet the following risk-based criteria:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Is a Class I railroad as defined in current 49 CFR 1580.3; 
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             TSA currently defines a Class I railroad by reference to the classifications of the Surface Transportation Board. For regulatory purposes, the Surface Transportation Board categorizes rail carriers into three classes: Class I, Class II, and Class III. The classes are based on the carrier's annual operating revenues. Current thresholds establish Class I carriers as any carrier earning revenue greater than $943.9 million, Class II carriers as those earning revenue between $42.4 million and $943.9 million, and Class III carriers as those earning revenue less than $42.4 million. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR part 1201; General Instructions 1-1. TSA is proposing to revise its definition applicable to class determinations to include Class I, Class II, and Class III freight railroads.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Is a Class II or III railroad that:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Transports one or more of the categories and quantities of Rail Security-Sensitive Materials 
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in a High Threat Urban Area; 
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             49 CFR 1580.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             Appendix A to 49 CFR part 1580.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Provides switching or terminal services to two or more Class I railroads;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Operates an average of at least 400,000 train miles in any of the three years before the effective date of the final rule or in any calendar year after the effective date; 
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             TSA reviewed historical statistics from the FRA to discern a threshold of annual train miles. The 400,000 train-miles threshold provided a clear breakpoint between large, medium, and small railroad operations. 
                            <E T="03">See https://railroads.dot.gov/accident-and-incident-reporting/overview-reports/train-miles-and-passengers</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 27, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Is designated as a Defense Connector Railroad by DoD, as defined in proposed 1580.3; or</P>
                    <P>
                        • Serves as a host railroad to any of the freight railroad operations identified above or a higher-risk passenger rail operation identified in proposed § 1582.201; 
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             49 CFR 1582.101.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This criteria for applicability would capture railroads responsible for approximately 94 percent of the freight transported by rail in the United States, railroads that transport the largest volume of cargo, and railroads that serve as critical connections between Class I railroads or serve as vital links in the Strategic Rail Corridor Network (STRACNET).
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A cybersecurity incident affecting one of these railroads would have the most significant impact on rail transportation, national security, and economic security.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             The Strategic Rail Corridor Network is an interconnected and continuous rail line network consisting of over 36,000 miles of track serving over 120 defense installations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed applicability criteria for CRM program requirements would expand the applicability of the requirements set forth in the SDs to include an additional nine railroads, all of which operate more than an average 400,000 train miles 
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         per year. TSA is proposing this expansion because these railroads represent a population that, were they to experience a degradation of service due to a cybersecurity incident, the effects of that service-degradation would ripple across the nation's rail network and cause significant disruption to the industry's service capacity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             A train-mile is a unit in railroad accounting and refers to the distance of one mile covered by a single train, which may have several cars.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA is not proposing to apply the CRM program requirements to most short line and regional railroads. Although TSA's current regulations in 49 CFR part 1580 apply some requirements to the majority of the Short Line and regional railroads, these are not generally high-cost requirements. Applying the CRM program requirements to these smaller railroads would, however, impose costs with limited corresponding benefits to minimize the consequences that the proposed rule is intended to address as there would not be a significant impact on national security, including economic security, if one of these railroads had operational disruption due to a cybersecurity incident. An expanded scope of applicability could also be beyond TSA's current resources to effectively monitor for compliance. For those operators not determined to be at higher-risk, TSA believes it is more beneficial to continue issuing recommendations and engagements through field inspector outreach, trade association webinars, and other events to encourage railroad owner/operators 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88509"/>
                        not subject to TSA's requirements to take voluntary preventive measures to enhance their cyber security.
                    </P>
                    <P>TSA is not proposing to include rail hazardous materials shippers and receivers in the scope of applicability for CRM requirements. TSA regulates these entities for purposes of “chain of custody” requirements in subpart C of 49 CFR 1580 due to their role at the beginning and end of the line for transporting Rail Security Sensitive Materials (RSSM). Based on their position in the supply chain, the security of these materials necessitates that these entities receive and share critical security information. To meet this need, TSA requires shippers and receivers of RSSM to have Physical Security Coordinators and to report physical incidents affecting these operations that could have an impact on the security of the shipment during transport by a freight railroad. We do not regulate operations within these facilities and do not intend to expand the scope of our requirements through this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, TSA currently requires all freight railroads to have a security coordinator and report significant security concerns focused on physical security.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, TSA is proposing that all freight railroads currently required to have a security coordinator and report significant security concerns, also have designated individual(s) responsible to serve as a Physical Security Coordinator and/or a Cybersecurity Coordinator 
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and report significant physical security concerns to TSA and cybersecurity incidents to CISA. Although the costs of a robust CRM program for the broader scope of freight railroads may not be justified at this time based on known risks, that determination does not mean that cybersecurity should be ignored. All railroads need a point of contact for receiving and processing information on cybersecurity risks, and the U.S. government needs to be promptly advised of any cybersecurity incidents involving these railroads to have a thorough understanding of the current threat environment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             current 49 CFR 1570.201 and 1570.203.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             TSA is not preventing an owner/operator from designating the same individual(s) to serve as the Physical Security Coordinator and Cybersecurity Coordinator (or alternate) if all of the applicable requirements are met. At the same time, TSA recognizes that some owner/operators may want to have different individuals serve in these functions based upon their individual expertise and understanding of operations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Public Transportation Agencies and Passenger Railroads Subject to CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart C of Part 1582</HD>
                    <P>The criteria for applicability of the CRM program requirements for PTPR systems consider both location and passenger volume as primary risk considerations. Based on these considerations, TSA is proposing that the CRM rule apply to those rail transit systems and passenger railroads with the largest daily ridership. A successful cybersecurity incident against one or more of these systems or railroads could have a significant impact on the transportation sector, with consequences to national and economic security.</P>
                    <P>TSA estimates that 34 rail transit and passenger railroads, including Amtrak, would meet the following risk-based criteria:</P>
                    <P>• Is Amtrak (also known as the National Railroad Passenger Corporation) or other a passenger railroad with average daily unlinked passenger trips of 5,000 or greater in any of the three previous years before the effective date of the final rule, or within any single calendar year after the effective date; Is a passenger railroad that hosts a Class I railroad or Amtrak, regardless of ridership volume; or</P>
                    <P>• Is a rail transit system with average daily unlinked passenger trips of 50,000 or more per year in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>TSA is proposing to define “unlinked passenger trips” in § 1582.3 as the number of times an individual boards public transportation as counted each time a vehicle is boarded, not based on travel from origin to destination. For example, a person riding only one vehicle from origin to destination takes one unlinked trip. A person who transfers to a second vehicle while travelling from origin to destination takes two unlinked trips. In some contexts, “unlinked passenger trips” are also referred to as “boardings.” For purposes of this proposed rule, however, TSA is consistently using “unlinked passenger trips.”</P>
                    <P>
                        This scope of applicability would limit the economic burden to the highest consequence operators while still accounting for greater than 90 percent of the total nationwide daily rail ridership volume.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with the 9/11 Act, each of the systems that would be required to develop and implement a CRM program is eligible to receive grant funding under section 1406 of the 9/11 Act, 6 U.S.C. 1135, and has received such funding. Transit bus and smaller transit rail and passenger rail systems would not be included in the applicability of the CRM components of this proposed rulemaking as the smaller ridership of these systems means the operational disruption would not have the same consequences as impacts on larger operations. If one of these systems is taken offline due to a cybersecurity incident, it would be temporarily disruptive, but would be unlikely to have significant impacts on national or economic security, compared to the disruption of the transit system in a major metropolitan area where public transportation is relied on by many commuters. Similarly, transit bus plays a pivotal role in the movement of people in urban areas, but TSA assesses that a cybersecurity incident affecting this mode of transportation is unlikely to result in a significant operational disruption because transit bus systems do not rely heavily on OT systems and likely could continue to operate in the event of a cybersecurity incident. The proposed applicability for this rulemaking does not include the following four systems that currently fall under the security training requirements in part 1582: Connecticut Department of Transportation (Conn DOT), Delaware River Port Authority, Santa Clara Valley Transportation Authority, and Staten Island Railway. These systems are not included because they did not meet the proposed risk-based criteria, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ridership threshold, determined by TSA as relevant to the specific risks this rulemaking is intended to address.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             TSA's proposed applicability reflects analysis of ridership data developed by the APTA. 
                            <E T="03">See https://www.apta.com/research-technical-resources/transit-statistics/ridership-report/ridership-report-archives/</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 27, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Although not subject to all of the CRM program requirements, TSA is proposing that all PTPR owner/operators currently required to have a security coordinator and report significant security concerns, also have designated individual(s) responsible to serve as a Physical Security Coordinator and/or Cybersecurity Coordinator and report significant physical security concerns to TSA and cybersecurity incidents to CISA.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The costs of a robust CRM program may not be justified at this time based on known risks, but that determination does not mean that cybersecurity should be ignored. All PTPR owner/operators need 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88510"/>
                        a point of contact for receiving and processing information on cybersecurity risks, and the U.S. government needs to be promptly advised of any cybersecurity incidents involving these systems to have a thorough understanding of the current threat environment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             text accompanying 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. OTRB Owner/Operators Subject to Cybersecurity Incident Reporting Requirements in Proposed § 1584.107</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA is not proposing that OTRB owner/operators be required to meet all CRM program requirements, but believes it is appropriate for those OTRB owner/operators required to report significant security concerns 
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         be required to report both significant physical security concerns and cybersecurity incidents. TSA estimates that 71 OTRB owner/operators would be subject to this requirement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             49 CFR 1570.203.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Through this rulemaking, TSA is proposing to codify and make permanent the cybersecurity requirements previously imposed through SDs issued to address an immediate threat to transportation security. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         discussion in section II.B. of this NPRM. TSA has not imposed cybersecurity mitigation measures on OTRB owner/operators based on the risk information currently available to the agency and recognition of the costs as related to the benefits. That decision, however, does not mean that there is zero risk for OTRB operations and that they will never be the victim of a cybersecurity incident. TSA has encouraged OTRB owner/operators to identify Cybersecurity Coordinators, report cybersecurity incidents, have a cybersecurity incident response plan, and conduct a vulnerability assessment.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA believes that higher-risk OTRB owner/operators should be vigilant regarding cybersecurity risks and is proposing that the U.S. government be promptly advised of any cybersecurity incidents involving these owner/operators in order to have a thorough understanding of the current threat environment. Requiring this information is consistent with TSA's authority to assess threats, share information, and develop policy.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Information Circular (IC)-2021-01 (effective Dec. 31, 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/20211201_surface-ic-2021-01.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 21, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f)(1)-(3) (authority to receive, assess, and distribute intelligence information related to transportation security; assess threats to transportation; and develop policies, strategies, and plans for dealing with threats to transportation security).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA notes that the 9/11 Act requires TSA to issue regulations to higher-risk OTRB owner/operators to conduct vulnerability assessments and implement TSA-approved security plans that address the security of IT and OT systems.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA has not yet issued such regulations, although it has issued ICs recommending voluntary implementation of specific cybersecurity measures to higher-risk OTRB owner-operators.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA will consider reports of both significant physical security concerns (as required by current § 1570.201 and proposed § 1584.105) and cybersecurity incidents as reported under proposed § 1584.107 for purposes of developing future regulatory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             section II.B.2.b of this NPRM.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Surface-IC-2021-01, Enhancing Surface Transportation Cybersecurity (Dec. 31, 2021), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/20211201_surface-ic-2021-01.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 27, 2023); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             information regarding resources and activities supporting security of highway and motor carriers available on TSA's website at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/for-industry/resources</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 27, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Pipeline Systems and Facilities Subject to Physical Security Requirements in Proposed Subpart B of Part 1586 and CRM Program Requirements in Proposed Subpart C of Part 1586</HD>
                    <P>TSA is proposing to apply the CRM program requirements to the hazardous liquid, natural gas, and liquefied natural gas pipeline systems and facilities that transport the largest volume of these commodities, which would lead to the potential for a sustained disruption in service should a successful cybersecurity incident affect their ability to support national security needs, including economic security. The recommended criteria for determining applicability of the requirements includes three types of pipeline operations: (1) hazardous liquid pipelines; (2) natural and other gas pipelines; and (3) liquefied natural gas (LNG) facilities. In total, the proposed requirements would apply to 115 owner/operators of covered pipeline facilities and systems.</P>
                    <P>First, TSA is proposing to apply the CRM program requirements to owner/operators of hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide pipeline facilities and systems that meet any of the following criteria:</P>
                    <P>• Owns or operates a hazardous liquid pipeline or facility subject to 49 CFR part 195 that—</P>
                    <P>• Annually delivered hazardous liquids in excess of 50 million barrels in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule; or</P>
                    <P>
                        • Is in excess of 200 segment miles of pipeline transporting hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide that could affect a High Consequence Area, as defined by PHMSA.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed 49 CFR part 1586 for a definition of High Consequence Area and a discussion of Terms in subsection D of this section.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Owns or operates a primary control room responsible for multiple hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide systems regulated under 49 CFR part 196 and the total annual delivery for those systems combined is greater than 50 million barrels annually in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Owns or operates a hazardous liquid pipeline or facility subject to 49 CFR part 195 that has a contract with the Defense Logistics Agency to supply hazardous liquids in excess of 70,000 barrels annually.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             TSA coordinated the criteria for 70,000 barrels with the Defense Logistics Agency. This amount conforms to what TSA uses to identify critical pipeline systems (“Top 100”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on pipeline systems and facilities that report annual throughput to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC),
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA estimates these systems and facilities account for approximately 90 percent of the total annual volume transported in the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Operators subject to FERC jurisdiction provide annual throughput (number of barrels delivers out) to FERC on Form 6, 
                            <E T="03">Annual Report of Oil Pipeline Companies.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, TSA is proposing to apply the CRM program requirements to owner/operators of natural gas and other gas pipelines that meet any of the following criteria:</P>
                    <P>• Owns or operates a natural or other gas system subject to 49 CFR part 192 and—</P>
                    <P>• Annually delivered natural or other gas in excess of 275 million dekatherms annually (generally natural gas transmission) in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule;</P>
                    <P>• Annually delivered natural or other gas to 275,000 or more meters (or service points) annually (generally natural gas distribution or local distribution company (LDC)) in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule; or</P>
                    <P>
                        • Has more than 200 segment miles that could affect a High Consequence Area.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88511"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Owns or operates a primary control room responsible for multiple natural gas and other gas pipeline systems regulated under 49 CFR part 192 and the combined total annual delivery for these systems is greater than 275 million dekatherms (generally natural gas transmission) in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>• Provides natural or other gas service to 275,000 or more meters (or service points) annually (generally natural gas distribution or LDC) in any of the three calendar years before the effective date of the final rule, or any single calendar year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA estimates that under these criteria, the requirements of this proposed rule would be applicable to an estimated 66 natural gas transmission and distribution pipeline systems and facilities. These systems and facilities account for approximately 80-90 percent of the total annual volume of natural gas transported in the United States.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             TSA's data is derived from the Pipeline and Gas Journal's Annual 500 Report. For more information on this report, 
                            <E T="03">see https://pgjonline.com/magazine/2022/november-2022-vol-249-no-11/features/annual-500-report-shows-some-decline-few-ranking-surprises</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 27, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Third, TSA is proposing to apply the CRM program requirements to LNG facilities that import natural gas or operate as peak-shaving facilities.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the proposed criteria, the requirements would apply to an estimated two LNG import facilities and seven peak-shaving facilities. Expanding applicability of the proposed rule from the initial SDs for pipeline facilities and systems to include these facilities reflects TSA's ongoing discussions with FERC and evolving understanding of cybersecurity risks. The inclusion of these criteria would not significantly affect the number of pipeline systems and facilities subject to the CRM program requirements as all but one of the covered LNG facilities are operated by pipeline companies subject to the other criteria.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             Peak-shaving refers to LNG facilities supplying supplemental gas supplies to meet the increased demand for natural gas on the coldest days of winter. In 2022, two plants located in the Northeast United States imported LNG.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The SDs issued to pipeline owner/operators used criteria to include all hazardous liquid and natural gas pipeline systems and facilities that had been designated critical by TSA for purposes of the assessments required by the 9/11 Act. The scope of applicability, however, only accounts for approximately 10 percent of the total number of pipeline systems in the United States. At the other end of the spectrum for the possible scope of applicability, TSA determined it would not be appropriate to recommend covering all pipeline operators subject to PHMSA's safety regulations in 49 CFR part 192 and 49 CFR 195.1. This option, which includes approximately 2,105 pipelines, would be unnecessarily expensive for the industry based on the expected benefits and extremely difficult for TSA to appropriately monitor and regulate without additional personnel and funding. The proposed criteria for determining applicability would include the most critical pipeline owner/operators as determined by TSA and is consistent with the statutory requirement to determine critical operators 
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as well as TSA's designation of critical owner/operators required to comply with TSA's SDs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             9/11 Act sec. 1557, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1207(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Determinations of Applicability for Requirements in the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        As with TSA's previously issued requirements for surface transportation owner/operators,
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         owner/operators would be required to use the criteria in 49 CFR parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586 to determine whether their operations are higher-risk and which requirements apply to them. Under § 1570.105(a), owner/operators would be required to notify TSA within 30 days of the effective date of the final rule if they meet the criteria for applicability of the requirements in the rule. TSA also proposes an obligation for owner/operators to be aware of the criteria as applied to their future operations. Under section 1570.105(b), TSA would continue to require owner/operators to notify TSA if their operations change, after the notification date specified in paragraph (a), such that the criteria apply. In this situation, an owner/operator would be required to notify TSA no more than the later of (a) 60-days after the effective date or (b) 60-days before commencing the new operations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             current 49 CFR 1570.105.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This notification requirement is the first compliance deadline that owner/operators must meet under the proposed rule. TSA is aware that the deadlines could cause confusion and concern among owner/operators who are currently required to comply with requirements issued by TSA, such as those issued in 2008 
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 2021,
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that are also in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586. To avoid any confusion over whether notification is required, TSA is proposing to add to § 1570.105(a) an exception that effectively exempts the owner/operator from this requirement if TSA has otherwise notified the owner/operator that the criteria apply. If this notification is received, these owner/operators would not need to provide separate notification regarding applicability determinations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 86.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 87.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To mitigate the likelihood of an owner/operator failing to comply based upon lack of recognition of the applicability for these requirements, TSA also intends to use a variety of communication strategies to notify regulated parties that are likely to meet the applicability criteria. For example, TSA would use email to immediately notify its key stakeholder points of contact regarding publication of a final rule. In addition to these established information sharing mechanisms, TSA also conducts regular calls, workshops, and meetings with major industry partners and trade associations. TSA's surface representatives also work closely with surface-system owner/operators during industry-led security work groups, conferences, roundtables, and other sector-specific government coordination meetings. TSA would use all these mechanisms to notify relevant industry partners of the new requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also proposing to modify § 1570.105 to add paragraph (c), which would make it clear that once an owner/operator meets the criteria for applicability, they must continue to comply with the requirements in the proposed rule. New paragraph (d) provides an avenue for owner/operators to request to be removed from the scope of applicability. For example, if an owner/operator meets the applicability criteria because of a contract to support STRACNET, but a future change removes them from that role, they would continue to be subject to the requirements until they notify TSA of the changed circumstances and receive a written determination from TSA that they are currently exempt from the requirements. TSA is not imposing a specific timeline for making this notification as it would be within the discretion of the individual owner/operator to seek an exemption. As noted above, the owner/operator would continue to be subject to the requirements until TSA makes a final decision that the owner/operator, or a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88512"/>
                        specific activity of the owner/operator, no longer meets the applicability criteria.
                    </P>
                    <P>It is the owner/operator's responsibility to notify TSA, in writing, that their operations have changed and to provide supporting documentation. TSA may also need to request additional documentation to support the assertion that the requirements no longer apply. For example, documentation may include proof that contracts with DoD have been rescinded or that they have been operating 30 percent below the threshold for applicability for three consecutive years. This provision should not be used for non-permanent changes. For example, an owner/operator may have seasonal operations two-months of every year that meet the criteria for applicability. In this situation, the owner/operator should seek alternative measures under proposed § 1570.109.</P>
                    <P>An exemption from TSA under § 1570.105(c) is operation specific. If operations change in the future such that they meet the criteria for applicability, the owner/operator would be required to comply with § 1570.105(a) and notify TSA. This notification must be provided within 90 days before commencement of operations that would meet the criteria for applicability of requirements in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Structure of CRM Program Requirements (Proposed §§ 1580.303, 1582.203, and 1586.203)</HD>
                    <P>This proposed rule requires a CRM program that includes three major components: (a) a cybersecurity evaluation; (b) a COIP; and (c) a CAP. First, the cybersecurity evaluation generally aligns with the assessments required by TSA in the SD Pipeline-2021-01, SD 1580-21-01, and SD 1582-21-01 series. This evaluation is also consistent with the NIST CSF, which recommends that a strong cybersecurity program begins with an understanding of the current profile of cybersecurity that looks at both physical and logical/virtual controls.</P>
                    <P>Second, owner/operators would be required to develop and implement a TSA-approved COIP. This plan aligns with the requirements for a CIP required by the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series. As with the CIP requirements in the SDs, the COIP requirements generally apply to Critical Cyber Systems as identified by the owner/operators. TSA is proposing to incorporate other parts of the SDs, including the Cybersecurity Coordinator, requirement to report cybersecurity incidents, and the CIRP, into the COIP.</P>
                    <P>The COIP requirements, which are organized in to align with the NIST components, focus on the following five areas: (1) governance of the CRM program, (2) identification of Critical Cyber Systems; (3) protecting Critical Cyber Systems; (4) detecting and monitoring Critical Cyber Systems; and (5) and ensuring response and recovery. As discussed above, TSA has added additional requirements emphasized in the CISA CPGs, including cybersecurity training and supply chain risk management requirements, not previously addressed in the SDs.</P>
                    <P>Consistent with the NIST CSF, the proposed requirements for a COIP represent TSA's target cybersecurity outcomes for the owner/operators that would be subject to the proposed rule. While TSA is committed to providing maximum flexibility for owner/operators to develop CRM programs appropriate for their operations, as provided by the SDs, the proposed rule includes additional requirements that push owner/operators to the level of cybersecurity maturity that is repeatable. These requirements include more specificity in the type of information to be included in the COIP. Establishing a minimum baseline of information to be included in COIP is necessary to ensure enforceability from the perspective of a regulator, but also enhances communication to employees to ensure they know their responsibilities under the CRM program and that the program and its policies are understood across the organization.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the proposed requirements for a CRM program include an assessment requirement that aligns with the NIST CSF's taxonomy to achieve maturity by assessing progress toward the target state. The proposed CAP requirements expand upon the requirement for assessments in the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series. Under the proposed rule, owner/operators would continue to be required to have a CAP approved by TSA that includes a biennial cybersecurity architecture design review, other assessment capabilities, and annual review of the effectiveness of at least one-third of all required measures in the COIP, so that 100 percent of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities and all Critical Cyber Systems would to be assessed at least once over 3 years, with a minimum of 30 percent each year. The rule proposes adding additional requirements to ensure independence of auditors and assessors, reporting results to TSA and corporate leadership, and updates to the COIP based on assessment results.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Subsidiaries.</E>
                         Proposed §§ 1580.303(b), 1582.203(b), and 1586.203(b) specifically address the issue of subsidiaries and allow for business with multiple businesses or business units to submit one CRM program for a single corporate entity. Any documents required by the proposed rule, however, would need to clearly identify and distinguish application of the requirements for each business unit. To meet this requirement, TSA would need to be able to review the plan and readily identify how the requirements are being applied to each business unit. In other words, CRM program documents that require TSA to develop a separate analysis to determine how the requirements are applied within each business unit would not be acceptable or approved by TSA as meeting the proposed regulatory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Specific CRM Program Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Cybersecurity Evaluation (Proposed §§ 1580.305, 1582.205, and 1586.205)</HD>
                    <P>The NIST CSF (GV.OC and GV.RM) recognizes the importance of a “current profile” that examines the extent to which the owner/operator is achieving the outcomes in the target profile and identify gaps and potential vulnerabilities. For purposes of the requirements in this proposed rule, TSA would expect owner/operators to use the security outcomes identified in the rule, at a minimum, as a basis for the target profile.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule specifically requires this evaluation to include both physical and logical/virtual security controls. If the evaluation is limited to logical/virtual controls, the owner/operator may not fully recognize the strengths and weakness of physical security controls being used instead of, or to augment, cybersecurity measures. For example, if an owner/operator is relying on controls that limit an individual's access to a building or a floor to offset the impracticability of applying MFA to certain systems, it is important to understand how effective those physical security controls are at meeting the intended purpose. Similarly, understanding available physical security controls can help an owner/operator identify mitigation measures pending ability to fully reach the required target state.</P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, TSA's SDs for pipeline and rail operators included a requirement to conduct a vulnerability 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88513"/>
                        assessment.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under proposed §§ 1580.305(b), 1582.205(b), and 1586.205(b), this vulnerability assessment or other similar assessments may be used to comply with the requirement for the initial cybersecurity evaluation as long as it was completed within no more than one year before submission of the owner/operator's COIP. Under paragraph (c) of these sections, the cybersecurity evaluation must be updated annually. While owner/operators would not be required to submit the evaluation to TSA for approval, they would be required to notify TSA within 7 days of completing the profile and make it available to TSA upon request.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section E. of the SD Pipeline 2021-01 series and section D. of the SD 1580-21-01 and 1582-21-01 series.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (Proposed §§ 1580.307, 1582.207, and 1586.207)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. General COIP Requirements</HD>
                    <P>The COIP required by §§ 1580.307, 1582.207, and 1586.207 is the center of the comprehensive CRM program. As stated in the proposed rule text, TSA would require the COIP to detail the owner/operator's defense-in-depth plan, including physical and logical/virtual security controls, to comply with the requirements specified in subsequent sections. The results of the cybersecurity evaluation should be used at the beginning of the process to inform the development and revisions to the COIP from a broader enterprise-perspective, while the CAP informs revisions to the COIP based on testing the effectiveness of the measures in the COIP as implemented by the owner/operators. The COIP must include specific detail on exactly how the owner/operators meet the requirements for (a) governance; (b) identification of critical cyber systems, network architecture, and interdependencies; (c) procedures, policies, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems; (d) procedures, policies, and capabilities to detect cybersecurity incidents; and (e) procedures, policies, and capabilities to respond to, and recovery from, cybersecurity incidents, which would include reporting cybersecurity incidents and the CIRP. Each of these components of the COIP will be discussed below.</P>
                    <P>As most of the owner/operators that would be subject to this proposed rule's requirements are currently required to comply with TSA's cybersecurity SDs, TSA assumes that the COIP for these owner/operators would include detailed descriptions of what they are currently doing to meet the required security outcomes. To meet the regulatory requirements, these detailed descriptions would need to be more than a summary or a restatement of the regulatory text. If an owner/operator is relying on specific software, the COIP should provide details on the software (name, version, scope of deployment, etc.). If relying on policies or procedures identified in other corporate documents, the owner/operator would need to specifically identify the sections of those documents, describe how they meet the required security outcomes, and incorporate the specific sections by reference into their COIP.</P>
                    <P>
                        To the extent the cybersecurity evaluation or CAP identify areas where the owner/operator is not meeting the required security outcomes, the owner/operator would be required by paragraph (d) of §§ 1580.307, 1582.207, and 1586.207 to include a Plan of Action and Milestones (POAM) in their COIP. Incorporating a POAM in the COIP aligns with the identification of remediation measures in section E.1.c. of SD Pipeline-2021-01 series and section D.2. of SD 1580-21-01 and SD 1582-21-01 series. The proposed POAM requirement also aligns with the NIST CSF, which recommends that organizations determine which actions to take to address gaps identified through assessments to achieve the Target Profile.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The POAM must include the specific measures to be implemented and a detailed timeframe, not to exceed 3 years, to meet all required outcomes, as well as any mitigating measures that will be implemented pending full compliance with all requirements and security outcomes. As part of the COIP, failure to meet the milestones in the POAM could result in a range of enforcement actions.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 13 at 7, 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             TSA's Enforcement Sanction Guidance Policy (last updated Nov. 14, 2022) for more information on TSA's sanction policies, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/enforcement_sanction_guidance_policy.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed June 28, 2023); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             TSA Action Plan Program (effective Aug. 26, 2019), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/sites/default/files/action_plan_program.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed June 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The COIP must be made available to TSA for approval. Once approved by TSA, the COIP is a TSA-approved security program. The proposed rule would require the COIP to be updated to reflect any vulnerabilities or weaknesses identified during the annual cybersecurity evaluation and the CAP, discussed below. In addition, owner/operators would be required to conduct exercises of CIRPs (required by proposed §§ 1580.327, 1582.227, and 1586.227). The results of the exercises must also inform updates to the CIRP as part of the COIP. Whether resulting from these assessments and exercises—or due to other changes in policies, procedures, capabilities, or Critical Cyber Systems—owner/operators would need to comply with the procedural requirements for security programs, discussed below in section III.F. of this NPRM, to revise their COIP.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA recognizes that cybersecurity is ever changing in response to new capabilities and emerging threats. In addition, a detailed defense-in-depth plan is likely to include information that is subject to change for a range of reasons. In section 1570.107(c), TSA provides for this possibility by distinguishing between (1) administrative or clerical changes, (2) substantive but temporary changes, and (3) substantive and permanent changes.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Within the context of the CRM program, substantive and permanent changes include changes to policies, procedures, or measures contained in a TSA-approved COIP, including documents incorporated by reference into the COIP, that relate to how the owner/operator meets the proposed CRM program requirements and are intended to be in place for 60 or more days. Substantive changes to the COIP must be made following the procedures in proposed § 1570.107(b) for amendments to security programs. For example, a limited-time deployment of new equipment as part of a 30-day pilot may not require amending the CIP, but would require an initial notification to TSA and, within seven calendar days, a description of interim measures that are in place to ensure no diminution of security. A decision to permanently replace equipment would likely require additional measures or revisions to the COIP and the owner/operator would need to request an amendment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             discussion in Section III.F.1. regarding security program amendments in general.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA is not proposing to require owner/operators to follow the amendment process for administrative or clerical changes to COIPs, including administrative or clerical changes to documents incorporated by reference. In other words, administrative or clerical changes do not require a request to TSA, notification to TSA, or TSA approval. Administrative or clerical changes are limited to changes to policies, procedures, or measures contained in a TSA-approved COIP, including documents incorporated by reference, that do not relate to how the owner/operator meets the CRM program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88514"/>
                        requirements. Owner/operators would be required to keep a chronological list of all administrative or clerical changes and when they occurred. This list should be consulted by the owner/operator on a regular basis to determine if any changes may have evolved into permanent changes requiring an amendment.
                    </P>
                    <P>The following are examples of substantive changes requiring an amendment:</P>
                    <P>• Changes in policies, procedures, or capabilities made after a determination that a specific policy, procedure, or measure in the COIP is ineffective based on results of the audits and assessments required under the proposed rule;</P>
                    <P>• New or additional capabilities the owner/operator has identified or obtained for meeting the requirements for a CRM program that have not been previously approved by TSA;</P>
                    <P>• Additions, modifications, and deletions to lists of Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                    <P>• Changes to the method of MFA required to access a Critical Cyber System;</P>
                    <P>• Updates to the risk methodology for determining criticality of security patches and updates;</P>
                    <P>• Use of new vendors, companies, or products when they change the process the owner/operator is using to meet a requirement for the CRM program; and</P>
                    <P>• Strategic network architecture changes, such as moving from segmenting OT systems with firewalls to using a one-way diode or moving to a zero-trust architecture from a defense-in-depth architecture.</P>
                    <P>Examples of administrative or clerical changes to COIPs or documents incorporated that do not require the amendment process in § 1570.107(b) could include, but are not limited to the following:</P>
                    <P>• Changes to names of documents (for example, changing “IT Policy—Monitoring” to “IT Policy—Monitoring, Detection and Auditing”);</P>
                    <P>• When only certain parts of a document are incorporated by reference, changes are made to other parts of a document which are not specifically incorporated by reference; and</P>
                    <P>• Changes intended to be in effect for less than 60 calendar days (which would be subject to the process for temporary changes under proposed § 1570.107(c)(2)).</P>
                    <P>TSA would also encourage owner/operators to avoid having to make amendments related to documents incorporated by reference in their COIPs by specifically indicating which sections of the documents are being used to meet the requirements for a CRM program rather than referencing the document in its entirety when only specific portions are relevant.</P>
                    <P>Under §§ 1580.307(e)(1), 1582.207(e)(1), and 1586.207(e)(1), owner/operators must make their COIP available to TSA in a form and manner prescribed by TSA. TSA decided not to propose a specific method in the NPRM due to the need to remain flexible and adaptive to options for submitting documents. Since first imposition of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 series, TSA has been able to move from only one option (submission through a password protected email or uploading to a secure location using the Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN)) to multiple options, including email/HSIN, a secure portal, and local retention. These options address the concerns of the industry to protect highly sensitive information. While not proposing to codify any of these options, the following discusses each option as they currently exist.</P>
                    <P>As noted above, owner/operators were originally required to send their list of Critical Systems, CIP and CAP using email as password-protected attachments or upload to HSIN. TSA subsequently developed other authorized methods for submitting and maintaining CIPs, and documents incorporated by reference into CIPs, CAPs, and CAP reports. Instead of submitting these documents via password-protected email or via HSIN, owner/operators may submit documents to the TSA Secure Regulatory Portal (SRP) or retain them locally for in-person or other review pursuant to TSA-approved methods, which may include virtual review.</P>
                    <P>Use of the SRP is the preferred method for TSA as it minimizes the time and personnel investment for owner/operators while accelerating TSA's ability to review and approve submitted documents while maintaining information security. Owner/operators would be required to use the same method of submission for all of their required documents and must notify TSA of their chosen option. If documents are maintained locally for on-site or virtual review by TSA, the owner/operator must attest to TSA (subject to potential penalties for providing false or misleading information) that they have completed the required actions within the designated timeline. The documents are considered conditionally approved and the owner/operator must begin implementation. TSA considers “implementation” of the CIP to mean that the regulated entity has fully developed its CIP to meet the performance-based measures and has begun to carry out the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the CIP. Therefore, that attested-to and complete CIP may also include timelines for implementation of specific cybersecurity measures that will achieve the performance-based objectives. A CIP maintained on location is not considered to have final approval until reviewed by TSA, revised as required by TSA, and the owner/operator receives notification from TSA that the CIP has received final approval. Only final approval of the CIP triggers the timelines associated with requirements to develop the CAP and CAP report. Regardless of the manner of submission of any document, TSA retains its full inspection authority.</P>
                    <P>TSA has not required any owner/operator to resubmit information previously approved. The required plans and reports submitted to TSA are Federal records and must be retained in accordance with TSA's National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)-approved records schedules. Similarly, documents submitted via the secure portal are also Federal records and must be retained in accordance with same NARA-approved records schedules once TSA reviews them. Finally, documents maintained at an owner/operator's location are not considered Federal records. At this time, TSA intends to continue allowing all of these approved methods for the COIP, CIRP, and CAP.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Governance of the CRM Program (Proposed §§ 1580.309, 1580.311, 1582.209, 1582.211, 1586.209, and 1586.211)</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Accountable executive (paragraph (a) of §§ 1580.309, 1582.209, and 1586.209).</E>
                         Both the NIST CSF and the CISA CPGs stress the importance of establishing governance for a CRM program. CPG 1.B. urges identifying a single leader who “is responsible and accountable for cybersecurity within an organization.” Specifically, the CISA CPGs recommend that organizations have a named role/position/title identified “as responsible and accountable for planning, resourcing, and execution of cybersecurity activities. This role may undertake activities such as managing cybersecurity operations at the senior level, requesting and securing budget resources, or leading strategy development to inform future positioning.” To the extent possible, this individual should not be the Cybersecurity Coordinator or otherwise have responsibility for day-to-day management of the IT or OT system, but 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88515"/>
                        should function at a level between the most senior-executive leadership and the implementation/operations level of the organization.
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CISA has identified this action as one with high impact and low complexity, noting that failure to identify an accountable executive can result in a lack of accountability, investment, or effectiveness of a CRM program.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST CSF, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13, at 1210-11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CISA CPG Checklist, v1.01, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/2023-03/cisa_cpg_checklist_v1.0.1_final.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 22, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>TSA is adopting this recommendation for purposes of this proposed rule by requiring covered owner/operators to identify an accountable executive for the CRM program. Contact and identifying information for the accountable executive must be provided to TSA and incorporated into the COIP.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Identifying positions with cybersecurity responsibilities (paragraph (b) of §§ 1580.309, 1582.209, and 1586.209).</E>
                         The NIST CSF and the CISA CPGs also emphasize the importance of having a clear understanding of cybersecurity roles and responsibilities within the organization and with stakeholders, and establishing a relationship to ensure effective communication on cybersecurity policies and risks.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with these priorities, TSA is proposing to require the COIP to identify positions designated to manage implementation of policies, procedures, and capabilities described in the COIP and coordinate improvements to the CRM program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST CSF GV-RR and CPGs 1.B and 1.C.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, the proposed rule would require identification of any authorized representatives, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, responsible for implementation of any part of the owner/operator's CRM program. Authorized representatives are empowered to act on the owner/operator's behalf to coordinate and conduct activities required by this proposed rule, including specific security measures in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP. Considering these responsibilities, authorized representatives are liable for non-compliance separate from and in addition to the owner/operator. TSA is proposing to require that the corporate or official business information for all authorized representatives must be incorporated into the COIP and be supported with written documentation, such as contractual agreements, between the owner/operator and the authorized representative detailing the scope of responsibilities as related to the measures identified in the COIP. As with other documentation requirements, the owner/operators would need to identify specific provisions applicable to the COIP within any provided documentation.</P>
                    <P>Note that the definition of “authorized representative” in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon excludes entities that functions as “Managed Security Service Providers.” If an owner/operator, or its authorized representative, has delegated or shared responsibility with a Managed Security Service Provider, wholly or in part, for specific security measures, the owner/operator or authorized representatives retains responsibility for ensuring the application of the cybersecurity performance-based measures.</P>
                    <P>The distinction in liability between authorized representatives and Managed Security Service Providers is generally consistent with principles of agency. Managed Security Service Providers are not direct employees of the owner/operator but provide one or more services or capabilities that the owner/operator may use to perform required security measures. Managed Security Service Providers generally provide a logical service that is widely available to anyone who purchases the specific capability or service, such as an internet service provider, a program developer, or IT or OT system monitoring and detection capabilities. The authorized representative is an agent empowered to act on behalf of the owner/operator, such as for day-to-day management of a cybersecurity program.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cybersecurity coordinator (§§ 1580.311, 1582.211, and 1586.211).</E>
                         The proposed rule would codify Section A. of the SD Pipeline-2021-01, SD 1580-21-01 and SD 1582-21-01 series, which requires covered owner/operators to identify a primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator. Security coordinators, in general, are a vital part of transportation security, providing TSA and other government agencies with an identified point of contact with access to company leadership and knowledge of operations, in the event it is necessary to convey extremely time-sensitive information about threats or security procedures to an owner/operator, particularly in situations requiring frequent information updates. Having a designated Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate provides TSA with a contact in a position to understand cybersecurity problems; immediately raise issues with, or transmit information to, the designated accountable executive or other appropriate corporate or system leadership; and recognize when emergency response action is appropriate. To meet this purpose, the designated individuals must be accessible to TSA 24 hours per day, seven days per week.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule does not change the expectation from the SDs that the Cybersecurity Coordinator (primary and alternate) be appointed at the headquarters level. In addition, TSA would carry over the requirement in the SDs for the primary Cybersecurity Coordinator to be a U.S. citizen who is eligible to receive a security clearance. This requirement is necessary to ensure that TSA can rapidly share sensitive information with the owner/operator that may be critical to ensure appropriate actions are taken to address emerging threats. This requirement is also consistent with the SDs and TSA's experience with Physical Security Coordinators. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         discussion in Section III.A.2. As with the SDs, the proposed rule would not require the Cybersecurity Coordinator or alternate to be a dedicated position staffed by an individual who has no other primary or additional duties.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed rule would require the following information for the Cybersecurity Coordinator(s): name, title, telephone number(s), and email address. Any change in this information would have to be provided to TSA within seven days of the change taking effect. As previously noted, this is not a new requirement for owner/operators of railroads, including the rail transit operations of PTPR owner/operators, and pipeline facility and systems currently subject to the SDs. If an owner/operator subject to this proposed rule has provided the required information for primary and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) to TSA in the past, and that information is still current, no further action would be needed to meet this requirement.</P>
                    <P>TSA is expanding the requirements for the primary and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) to ensure they have the knowledge and skills necessary to perform the responsibilities. Cybersecurity is a technical field that requires some degree of knowledge of terms, threats, and the owner/operator's systems in order to be effective.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is specifically requesting comments on existing training and certification programs that could provide low-cost options for meeting these requirements that TSA could review and provide as examples to other owner/operators that would be subject to these requirements.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88516"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Updates to governance information.</E>
                         The proposed rule would require owner/operators to notify TSA when information regarding the accountable executive or Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) changes. While the COIP should be current regarding the identification of the accountable executive or Cybersecurity Coordinator(s), TSA would not require the owner/operator to seek an amendment to their COIP to update this information as the updated information would need to be separately provided to TSA.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Identification of Critical Cyber Systems, Network Architecture, and Interdependencies</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Identifying Critical Cyber Systems (§§ 1580.313, 1582.213, and 1586.213).</E>
                         Both the NIST CSF and the CISA CPGs emphasize the importance of identification of critical assets.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As with the applicability determinations for this proposed rule, TSA is proposing an informed, risk-based decision to cybersecurity requirements. A critical first step in this process is risk informed identification of critical IT and OT systems. TSA included a requirement to identify Critical Cyber Systems in the SD Pipeline-2021-01 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST ID-AM and CPG 1.A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Identifying Critical Cyber Systems, including both IT and OT systems, enables owner/operators to ensure they have adequately identified risks using multiple sources of information and data to identify the threat (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         likelihood of an attack), system vulnerabilities, and consequences should the system be the target of a cybersecurity incident. In general, unless otherwise stated, the cybersecurity measures that would be required for protecting, defending, and responding to cybersecurity incidents are limited to these Critical Cyber Systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>For purposes of this proposed rule, TSA proposes to incorporate into the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon a definition of “Critical Cyber System” that includes any IT or OT system used by the owner/operator that, if compromised or exploited, could result in an operational disruption incurred by the owner/operator, including those business support services that, if compromised or exploited, could result in operational disruption. This term includes systems whose ownership, operation, maintenance, or control is delegated wholly or in part to any other party. The definition of an “operational disruption” includes a deviation from or interruption of business critical functions that results in a compromise or loss of data, system availability, system reliability, or control of systems, or indicates unauthorized access to, or malicious software present on, Critical Cyber System.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to IT and OT systems that are obviously critical to operations, owner/operators should also consider programmable electronic devices, computers, or other automated systems which are used in providing transportation; alarms, cameras, and other protection systems; and communication systems, and utilities needed for security purposes, including dispatching systems.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA believes the scope of systems to be covered is consistent with the direction in the National Cybersecurity Strategy to ensure cybersecurity regulations “meet the needs of national security and public safety, in addition to the security and safety of individuals, regulated entities, and their employees, customers, operations, and data.” 
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             sections 1531(d)(1)(C) and 1512(d)(1)(C) of the 9/11 Act, codified at 6 U.S.C 1181(d)(1)(C) and 1162(d)(1)(C), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12 at 8-9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Paragraph (a) of §§ 1580.313, 1582.213, and 1586.213 requires specific identifying information for Critical Cyber Systems. This information, at a minimum, would need to include specific identifying information for the system and manufacturer/designer name for each Critical Cyber System.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA recognizes that the owner/operator is in the best position to determine the critical IT and OT systems needed to support its business-critical functions for operations and market (supply chain) expectations. There is, however, also the potential that a cybersecurity incident that may seem minor to a specific owner/operator could have more wide-ranging impacts on the supply chain as well impacts on national and economic security. Paragraph (b) would require the owner/operator to include in its COIP the methodology used for identifying Critical Cyber Systems. Looking at systems and processes based on the business services they support may bring more transparency to, and improve the quality of, decision making, thereby improving overall operational resilience. As part of this methodology, TSA expects owner/operators to use information provided to them on particular risks associated with some systems, including intelligence and other information that identifies the likelihood of a system being the subject of a cybersecurity incident based on known threat information. As noted in the NIST CSF, a mature CRM program is one where the “organization understands its role, dependencies, and dependents in the larger ecosystem,” “collaborates and receives information from other entities,” “is aware of the cyber supply chain risks associated with the products and services” it both provides and uses, and “acts formally upon those risks.” 
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST Cybersecurity Framework V1.1. at 10, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/CSWP/NIST.CSWP.04162018.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed May 6, 2024); 
                            <E T="03">see also https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.1302.ipd.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed May 6, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While some systems may pose more risk than others, any system that could result in operational disruption should be considered a Critical Cyber System. The methodology would need to describe these considerations and also consider scenarios for how long critical operations and capabilities could be sustained with identified alternatives if a Critical Cyber System is taken offline due to a cybersecurity incident. Finally, once the initial list of Critical Cyber Systems is identified, the methodology would need to include reviewing IT and OT systems not designated as critical to determine the sustainability and operational impacts if one of these systems is unavailable due to a cybersecurity incident. These considerations by the owner/operator may result in needing to update the list of Critical Cyber Systems. Best practices identified by TSA include considering impacts if a system is offline for a short duration (a 4, 8, 12, 24-hour period), or days, a week, several weeks, or months.</P>
                    <P>
                        It is important to recognize that the availability of backups or “workarounds” should not be considered in determining whether an IT or OT system is a Critical Cyber System. These and other mitigation measures should be considered as part of the COIP as actions that are intended to ensure continuity if a Critical Cyber System is incapacitated. In practice, to the extent an owner/operator has developed backups and other mitigation measures for an IT or OT system, that fact should weigh towards identifying the system as critical, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         were it not critical, there would not be a need for robust mitigation measures in the event the system is unavailable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In §§ 1580.313(e), 1582.213(e), and 1586.213(d), TSA is proposing to incorporate a requirement from the SD for owner/operators to add any IT or OT systems identified by TSA as Critical Cyber Systems even if not identified as critical by the owner/operator. While 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88517"/>
                        TSA is committed to providing flexibility and allowing owner/operators to self-identify their Critical Cyber Systems, the agency is also committed to ensuring a baseline of cybersecurity across specific modes and similarly situated operations. As a result, if TSA notices that an owner/operator has chosen not to identify a system as critical that was identified by other similarly situated owner/operators, TSA would request additional information and, after consultation with the owner/operator, could require the system to be added. In addition, an owner/operator who does not identify any Critical Cyber Systems is not exempt from the requirements for the CRM program. If TSA agrees that the owner/operator does not have any Critical Cyber Systems, the owner/operator would still need to address other applicable requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Positive Train Control.</E>
                         Consistent with these proposed requirements and standards for identification of Critical Cyber Systems, TSA revised the SD 1580/82-2022-01 series in May 2024 with a new requirement for owner/operators who are either required to install and operate PTC under 49 CFR part 236, subpart I, and/or who voluntarily install and operate PTC under CFR part 236, subpart H or I, to include PTC systems as a Critical Cyber System. TSA is proposing to incorporate this requirement in sections 1580.313 and 1582.213.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        PTC helps eliminate the risks of accidents and mishandling of locomotives due to human error by using locomotive-borne devices linked to a central dispatching system, through an integrated network communication channel. PTC systems 
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are designed to prevent train-to-train collisions, over-speed derailments, incursions into established work zones, and movements of trains through switches left in the wrong position.
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             Simply described, PTC systems are comprised of the locomotive onboard computer system, the wayside signals, and the Back Office Server (BOS). Connections are established through cabled cellular communication signals, Wi-Fi, and radio. Some of the data points that are received to control the speed of the locomotive are located through the Global Positioning System (GPS), wayside signal, transponder on or around the track, and monitoring of speed for all locomotives on the same subdivision. Data is compiled from the locomotive into the BOS and is compared to the track image in the PTC system, which can detect violation of movement authority and speed restrictions. The PTC system is an important safety function due to its ability to correct the actions of a train operating outside of the known limits of the system.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRA, Positive Train Control (PTC), 
                            <E T="03">https://railroads.dot.gov/research-development/program-areas/train-control/ptc/positive-train-control-ptc</E>
                             (last accessed Nov. 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The imposition of PTC requirements has also resulted in far more interconnected rail systems than previously existed with the potential for a cybersecurity incident to affect multiple operators.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The criticality of these systems is reflected in the FRA's regulations that require PTC to be used unless the situation falls within one of the limited exceptions provided in their regulations.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA is proposing to require rail owner/operators who use PTC to include specific PTC components as Critical Cyber Systems.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             In March 2023, a nationwide outage of PTC for Amtrak resulted in cancelled and delayed trains in and out of Chicago for multiple days, affecting Amtrak, commuter railroads, and freight railroads. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bob Johnston, 
                            <E T="03">PTC issues cause Amtrak cancellations and delays, Trains.com</E>
                             (last updated Feb. 5, 2024), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.trains.com/trn/news-reviews/news-wire/ptc-issues-cause-amtrak-cancellations-and-delays/</E>
                             (last accessed Aug. 2, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 236.1029. Under 49 CFR 236.1029(b)(6), a train that loses PTC en route, “[w]here the failure or cut-out is a result of a defective onboard PTC apparatus,” may continue “no farther than the next forward designated location for the repair or exchange of onboard PTC apparatuses.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, the FRA's regulations expect PTC to be used unless the situation falls within one of the limited exceptions provided in FRA's regulations. The limited exceptions reflect the criticality of these systems. For example, a train that loses PTC, “[w]here the failure or cut-out is a result of a defective onboard PTC apparatus,” while en route may continue “no farther than the next forward designated location for the repair or exchange of onboard PTC apparatuses.” 
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The fact that railroads may operate without functioning PTC systems only in limited situations demonstrates the critical need for these systems.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             49 CFR 236.1029(b)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRA Information Guide on Positive Train Control, 49 CFR part 236, subpart I (dated Dec. 12, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Losing PTC capability is likely to disrupt operations. PTC provides critical safety functions, protecting the public from possible train derailments, misaligned track switches, and head-on collisions. To achieve the intended safety benefits, the PTC system must consistently maintain a high level of availability. If the PTC system fails en route, the train must operate at reduced speed and stop at the next forward designated location until the PTC apparatuses are fixed or replaced. Accordingly, loss of the PTC system could interrupt the railroad's operations. Additionally, if a PTC system were to be the target of a cyberattack that resulted in a widespread disruption in system communication where the result was an inability to initialize communications with multiple locomotives, then trains would have to be held until the issue was resolved or FRA otherwise authorized continued operations.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As in the SD, the proposed rule incorporates an alternative in lieu of applying access control measures, as required by proposed §§ 1580.317(b) and 1582.217(b), for the PTC hardware and software components installed on freight and passenger locomotives if the owner/operator is complying with the requirements in 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4) (General requirements for locomotives), 49 CFR 236.3 (Locking of signal apparatus housings), or 49 CFR 236.553 (Seal, where required).</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Network architecture.</E>
                         Paragraph (c) would require owner/operators to identify system information and network architecture for each identified Critical Cyber System. In general, the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) align with those in section III.B.1. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series. TSA is proposing to add two additional requirements for purposes of ensuring effective asset identification and management as part of a comprehensive CRM program. First, §§ 1580.313(d)(4), 1582.213(d)(4), and 1586.213(c)(4) would require an owner/operator to identify the baseline of acceptable communications between Critical Cyber Systems and external connections, or between IT and OT systems. This requirement is necessary to ensure the owner/operator can comply with requirements in proposed §§ 1580.323, 1582.223, and 1586.223, which require documenting any communications between IT and OT systems and an external system that deviate from the identified baseline of communications.
                    </P>
                    <P>Sections 1580.313(d)(5), 1582.213(d)(5), and 1586.213(c)(5) would require the owner/operator to identify any operational needs that prevent implementation or delay implementation of the CRM program requirements for Critical Cyber Systems, such as application of security patches and updates, encryption, or MFA.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sections 1580.313(f), 1582.213(f), and 1586.213(e) would provide that any substantive changes to Critical Cyber Systems would require an amendment to the COIP. It is critical for both TSA and the owner/operator to know the COIP has the current list of Critical Cyber Systems. TSA prepares for inspections in advance, and it increases the amount of time inspections take for owner/operators and TSA if the list is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88518"/>
                        not current. In addition, having ready access to this information can help TSA notify owner/operators if specific intelligence or other threat information becomes available relevant to that specific system or capability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Supply chain risk management (§§ 1580.315, 1582.215, and 1586.215).</E>
                         Both the NIST CSF 
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the CISA CPGs 
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         include recommendations related to supply chain risk management. TSA is proposing to incorporate all three recommendations from the CISA CPGs for supply chain risk management into this proposed rule. The requirements would apply to any procurement or contractual documents executed or updated after the effective date of the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             GV.SC. of the NIST CSF.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG 1.G, 1.H, and 1.I.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The SolarWinds supply chain compromise is one of the most well-known examples of a cybersecurity risk associated with services and systems provided by external supply chain providers. Using a backdoor implanted in a software update downloaded by customers using the SolarWinds Orion product, malicious actors were able to retrieve and execute commands that included the ability to transfer files, execute files, profile the system, reboot the machine, and disable system services. The malware masqueraded its network traffic as the Orion Improvement Program-protocol and stored reconnaissance results within legitimate plugin configuration files allowing it to blend in with legitimate SolarWinds activity. The backdoor used multiple obfuscated blocklists to identify forensic and anti-virus tools running as processes, services, and drivers. Victims included government, consulting, technology, telecom and other entities in North America, Europe, Asia and the Middle East.
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Highly Evasive Attacker Leverages SolarWinds Supply Chain to Compromise Multiple Global Victims With SUNBURST Backdoor (Dec. 13, 2020; last updated May 12, 2022) available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.mandiant.com/resources/blog/evasive-attacker-leverages-solarwinds-supply-chain-compromises-with-sunburst-back</E>
                             (last accessed June 12, 2023); 
                            <E T="03">see also https://www.cisa.gov/news-events/news/joint-statement-federal-bureau-investigation-fbi-cybersecurity-and-infrastructure</E>
                             for more resources regarding the SolarWinds supply chain compromise.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Proposed §§ 1580.315(a), 1582.215(a), and 1586.215(a) address these supply chain threats by incorporating the recommendations in CPG 1.G, which encourage organizations to incorporate supply chain incident reporting in their procurement documents and contracts to ensure they can more rapidly learn of, and respond to, known cybersecurity incidents across vendors and service providers. Specifically, CPG 1.G recommends that these documents, such as service-level agreements, “stipulate that vendors and/or service providers notify the procuring customer of security incidents within a risk-informed time frame as determined by the organization.” A risk-informed timeframe is one that is sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of cybersecurity incident.</P>
                    <P>Paragraph (b) incorporates CPG 1.H, which recommends that organizations require these documents to stipulate that vendors and/or service providers notify the procuring customer of confirmed security vulnerabilities in their assets within a risk-informed time frame. This reporting ensures organizations can more rapidly learn about, and respond to, vulnerabilities in assets provided by vendors and service providers.</P>
                    <P>Paragraph (c) incorporates CPG 1.I, which recommends that “procurement documents include cybersecurity requirements and questions, which are evaluated in vendor selection such that, given two offerings of roughly similar cost and function, the more secure offering and/or supplier is preferred.” Implementing this recommendation would reduce risk by ensuring that the most secure products and services are purchased and purchasing priority given to more secure suppliers. In its CPG Checklist, CISA has assessed the complexity of these three actions as low, but with high impact at addressing the known threat.</P>
                    <P>In paragraph (d), TSA is proposing that when a notification of a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability is received, the owner/operator must consider mitigation measures sufficient to address the resulting risk to Critical Cyber Systems. In addition, if any of these measures would result in permanent changes, the owner/operator would need to request to amend its COIP. If the vendor's cybersecurity incident puts the owner/operator's IT or OT systems at more direct and immediate risk, it may also be a reportable cybersecurity incident.</P>
                    <P>
                        In setting cybersecurity regulations for critical infrastructure, the National Cybersecurity Strategy encourages regulators “to drive the adoption of secure-by-design principles.” 
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA is requesting specific comments on whether the supply chain requirements in the final rule should also include ensuring that any software purchased for, or installed on, Critical Cyber Systems meets CISA's Secure-by-Design and Secure-by-Default principles.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12 at 8-9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             For more information on these principles, 
                            <E T="03">see Shifting the Balance of Cybersecurity Risk: Principles and Approaches for Security-by-Design and-Default</E>
                             (Apr. 13, 2023), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/2023-06/principles_approaches_for_security-by-design-default_508c.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Aug.7, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Protect Critical Cyber Systems</HD>
                    <P>Protecting Critical Cyber Systems requires a combination of controls, capabilities, and awareness. Proposed §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 include the requirements for network segmentation, capabilities to control access to or disruption of OT and IT systems, patch management, and ensuring these capabilities have robust logging and back-up requirements. Proposed §§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219 require training to enhance awareness for individuals regarding their role and responsibilities in protecting Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Network segmentation, controlling communications, zone boundaries, and encryption.</E>
                         Proposed paragraphs (a) through (c) of §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 would require owner/operators to incorporate into their COIP the network segmentation policies and controls necessary to address cybersecurity threats. To align with the NIST CSF's “Protect” function, this section includes requirements from both section III.B. and section III.C. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and 1580/82-2022-01 series.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The scope of the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) specifically include security outcomes intended to (a) protect against access to, or disruption of, the OT system if the IT system is compromised or vice versa; (b) ensure IT and OT system-services transit the other only when necessary for validated business or operational purposes; (c) secure and defend zone boundaries to defend against unauthorized communications between zones and prohibiting OT services from traversing the IT system, or vice versa, unless encryption or other controls are in place; (d) and control access to Critical Cyber Systems.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             These requirements generally align with the recommendations in PR-AA of the NIST CSF and CPG 2.C (Unique Credentials), 2.D (Revoking Credentials for Departing Employees), 2.E (Separating User and Privileged accounts), and 2.H (Phishing-Resistant Multifactor Authentication (MFA)), 2.K (Strong and Agile Encryption), 2.0 (Document Device Configurations), 2.P (Document Network Topology), and 2.X (Limit OT Connections to Public internet).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Many historical intrusions demonstrate that adversaries generally compromise a single vulnerable system or host and then move laterally across 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88519"/>
                        a network until reaching an identified target. Implementing segmentation impedes adversaries who have successfully entered the environment from producing cascading consequences and limits their ability to impact the entire process simultaneously, reducing both physical and cyber consequences. Network segmentation is necessary to reasonably ensure that an intrusion is limited to the initially compromised host and does not spread to affect Critical Cyber Systems. Flat or unsegmented networks pose an exigent risk to cybersecurity, as any intrusion-spread can result in a significant impact to systems that support public health and safety. Preventing or controlling such spread mitigates the costs of a successful cybersecurity incident, especially if segmentation averts intruder exposure to critical systems, which could potentially cost billions of dollars in damage. Reducing the costly impacts of ransomware attacks over time may change the economic incentive of the attackers and reduce their frequency in the long-term.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Access control.</E>
                         Proposed paragraph (b) of §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 includes requirements for controlling access to Critical Cyber Systems. These requirements generally align with the recommendations in PR-AA of the NIST CSF and CPG 2.C (Unique Credentials), 2.D (Revoking Credentials for Departing Employees), 2.E (Separating User and Privileged accounts).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         section III.D.2.c.), TSA is proposing a limited exception for application of access control measures required by proposed paragraph (b). In lieu of these requirements, §§ 1580.317(f) and 1582.217(f) would allow owner/operators to rely on the physical security controls used to comply with the FRA's regulations under 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4) (General requirements for locomotives), 49 CFR 236.3 (Locking of signal apparatus housings), 
                        <E T="03">or</E>
                         49 CFR 236.553 (Seal, where required), as applicable. This exception is limited to PTC hardware and software components installed on freight and passenger locomotives. TSA previously provided this exception in revisions to the SD 1580/82-2022-01 series issued in June 2024. To rely on this exception, owner/operators would need to be in full compliance with the FRA regulations noted in the exception and specify in their COIP what physical security measures are being used to prevent unauthorized access to the specific PTC components installed on the locomotive.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Identification and authentication policies.</E>
                         Managing identification and authentication policies are fundamental controls that should be part of a basic cybersecurity program and should already be in place for organizations covered by applicability of the SDs. To the extent that these controls are not in place, this is a vulnerability that could be imminently exploited.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regularly changing passwords is a fundamental cybersecurity practice. Minimizing this known threat vector requires immediate action to mitigate the threat. VADRs conducted by CISA, and other assessments and interviews with asset owners, have identified cases where passwords used in ICS were stolen, the organization was aware they had been compromised, yet the passwords were subsequently left unchanged for multiple years. In the absence of effective controls, adversaries in possession of these passwords could use them at any time to access the ICS. If at any time passwords were previously compromised and are still valid and have not been disabled or other compensating controls provided to prevent adversarial access to the system, those passwords could be used by an adversary to access the system.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Multi-factor authentication.</E>
                         Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requirements, or compensating controls that meet the same security outcomes, are also critical to provide a critical, additional layer of security to protect asset accounts whose credentials have been compromised. Aggressive activity being demonstrated by threat actors against both IT and OT systems stems from identity management abuse, which can be significantly mitigated by using strong access control measures, such as MFA. Accounts using only a username and password are vulnerable to multiple modes of compromise, including password spraying and credential stuffing. Multi-factor authentication effectively protects against these tactics and associated unauthorized access. Implementing this requirement reduces the risk of unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems by employing security access controls that are equal to or greater than the protection offered by the use of MFA. The intent is to employ MFA where appropriate and, where it is not, to ensure strong physical and logical security controls are in place that meet or exceed the protection that MFA affords.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Similar to the PTC exception for rail operations, TSA is proposing to incorporate from the SD Pipeline-2021-02 series a limited exception for MFA that addresses pipeline-specific operational considerations. In its regulations applicable to the safety of pipeline operations, PHMSA imposes requirements specifically applicable to control rooms used to monitor and control all or part of a pipeline facility through a SCADA system.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under PHMSA's regulations, controllers in the control room are responsible for monitoring day-to-day operations of the SCADA system and managing abnormal and emergency situations. In the midst of an emergency or alarm resolution, requiring MFA to access a workstation could have significant ramifications for pipeline safety and security. Based on these considerations, TSA is proposing to carry forward the limited exception from the SD to proposed § 1586.217(b)(2). Under this exception, if an owner/operator is in compliance with PHMSA's requirements, and includes in its COIP details of the adequate, compensating controls it uses to prevent unauthorized physical and logical access to control room industrial control systems within the scope of the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems, it can rely on those measures in lieu of MFA. At a minimum, TSA would expect the COIP to detail physical security controls including segmentation of the workstation from enterprise IT systems and additional compensating controls applied to prevent unauthorized physical and logical access to the workstation(s).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 CFR 192.631 (applicable to transportation of gas) and 49 CFR 195.446 (applicable to hazardous liquids). For purposes of these regulations, a control room is defined as “an operations center staffed by personnel charged with the responsibility for remotely monitoring and controlling a pipeline facility.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 192.2 and 195.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privileged accounts.</E>
                         Most intrusions that occur are identity compromises, and implementing these controls greatly reduces the impact from successful compromises by limiting what can be done with any credentials and making intrusions more visible in the use of these credentials. Controlling access to and closely monitoring user accounts is a foundational control necessary to limit the extent of disruption and damage caused by potential intrusions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Establishing governance over privileged accounts addresses the urgent risk of unauthorized administrative access to life safety systems. Establishing governance over such accounts is a foundational step that should be undertaken to increase the industry baseline for control access. Establishing this baseline of security would significantly reduce the vulnerability of the Critical Cyber Systems because adversaries are currently seeking to exploit entities with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88520"/>
                        weaker access control compared to competitors or the industry standard. Policies such as Just-In-Time Privileged Account Management can mitigate the risk of privileged-account abuse by reducing the amount of time a threat actor has to gain access to privileged accounts before moving laterally through a system and gaining access to sensitive data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Controlling privileged accounts is an important initial step toward implementing “zero trust” policies. Zero trust is a cybersecurity paradigm focused on resource protection and the premise that trust is never granted implicitly but must be continually evaluated.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The purpose of zero trust is to minimize uncertainty in enforcing accurate, least privilege, per-request access decisions for IT and OT systems in the context of assuming that a breach is inevitable or has already likely occurred.
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Unauthorized access to privileged accounts can be used to exercise administrative control of highly critical systems, including those that manage life safety functions. Privileged accounts must be well-governed, including by controlling and closely monitoring their use. 
                        <E T="03">Managing shared accounts.</E>
                         In general, shared accounts are inherently vulnerable to a cybersecurity incident and should never be used. As a result, it is best to require individual user and administrator accounts where technically feasible, with security controls appropriate for the different privilege levels and policies that prohibit sharing accounts. Shared accounts open a security vulnerability and complicate post-incident review of cybersecurity incidents. The vulnerability exists as long as an active password is known by individuals who no longer need access. It is not sufficient to rely on revoked credentials to mitigate the risk when an employee who knows the password no longer needs access to the system. The lack of unique passwords can also be a critical factor in incident response. For example, when accounts are shared among multiple individuals, it may not be feasible to determine which user is responsible for a given action. If a security incident occurs, it can be difficult to identify the source of that incident if it comes from a shared account.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST SP 800-207, Zero Trust Architecture, at 4 (Aug. 2020). Zero trust architecture is an end-to-end approach to enterprise resource and data security that encompasses identity (person and nonperson entities), credentials, access management, operations, endpoints, hosting environments, and the interconnecting infrastructure. The initial focus should be on restricting resources to those with a need to access and grant only the minimum privileges (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             read, write, delete) needed to perform the mission. Document available at 
                            <E T="03">https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-207.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Oct. 16, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While an ideal CRM program would not permit shared accounts, TSA recognizes that, in some control system environments, management may make a risk-based decision to allow shared accounts. If the owner/operator permits shared accounts in limited situations as determined necessary for operations, that decision needs to be managed with appropriate compensating controls, including capabilities such as enterprise password vaults and/or a logging system that allows the owner/operator to determine who has had access to the account and when. This data is critical for a forensic investigation following a cybersecurity incident. The proposed rule would require the owner/operator to include actions to manage the risks of shared accounts in their COIP.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Trust relationships,</E>
                         especially identity trust relationships between systems, are exploited by adversaries to compromise systems. In environments with shared trust between the OT and IT environments, a compromise to an IT system can immediately and directly place the OT system at risk. Severing these identity trusts is a critical safeguard in light of the current threat. If credentials from a shared or trusted store have been previously comprised, any system that trusts those credentials is put in immediate risk.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Patch management.</E>
                         Proposed paragraphs (e) of §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 would require owner/operators to have a patch management strategy that ensures all critical security patches and updates are made consistent with the owner/operator's risk-based methodology for prioritizing patches. These requirements align with section III.E. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and 1580/82-2022-01 series and CPG 1.E (Mitigating Known Vulnerabilities). Unmanaged software can introduce vulnerabilities into a system and, if left unpatched, could lead to a system compromise. Historical intrusions, including those affecting critical infrastructure, demonstrate that adversaries commonly exploit unpatched or legacy assets. A robust patching program ensures that known vulnerabilities are quickly addressed based upon criticality of the underlying asset. A timely patching program is a fundamental attribute of a mature cybersecurity program and is likely already in place for organizations within the applicability of this proposed rule. Proof of concept exploit codes for critical Windows vulnerabilities are often publicly available and seen “in the wild” within hours/days.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Logging.</E>
                         Proposed paragraph(d) of §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 would require owner/operators to ensure logging data is stored in a secured and centralized system and maintained for a duration sufficient to support risk analysis. When a cybersecurity incident occurs, the focus is often on recovery to normal operations, but it is also critical to have strong procedures in place to ensure that critical data is not destroyed that could identify perpetrators and vulnerabilities. Log retention policies enable an organization to determine the scope of an intrusion, protecting the integrity of critical systems and life safety controls.
                    </P>
                    <P>Numerous recent cybersecurity incidents have indicated that organizations with insufficient logs are unable to effectively identify or assess the extent of a cybersecurity incident. In VADRs conducted by CISA, nearly half of all assessments identified issues related to how logs are kept and maintained, including failures to centrally collect logs and failure to have resources and policies necessary to properly analyze and audit logs. Considering the current capabilities of adversaries as identified in the classified intelligence, owner/operators need to be prepared to determine the scope of an incident to ensure the safety and resiliency of their operations in support of national and economic security. Without this information, organizations often cannot determine whether an actor has penetrated control or digital safety systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        These requirements would generally align with the requirements in section III.E. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and 1580/82-2022-01 series. Both the NIST CSF (PR.PS Function) and the CISA CPGs recognize the importance of logging policies.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While CISA recognizes that log collection can be more complex than some of the other requirements, they also note that effectively implementing this control reduces the risk of delayed, insufficient, or incomplete ability to detect and respond to potential cybersecurity incidents.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST PR.PS Function and CPG 2.T (Log Collection) and 2.U (Secure Log Storage).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG Checklist, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 153.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Back-ups.</E>
                         Proposed paragraph (e) of §§ 1580.317, 1582.217, and 1586.217 would require owner/operators to ensure critical systems are backed up. TSA's SDs required owner/operators to have a CIRP that included security and integrity of backed-up data and ensuring 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88521"/>
                        that the backed-up data is free from malicious code before it is used to restore a system. For purposes of this rulemaking, TSA is separating this requirement into two sections. The requirement to secure backups would be under the protection portion of the CRM program, while requirements related to using the backups to restore systems would be under measures addressing response and recovery. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed §§ 1580.327(b)(2), 1582.227(b)(2), and 1586.227(b)(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>These proposed requirements are consistent with CPG 2.R (System Backups) and the NIST CSF (PR.DS Function). The CISA CPGs recognize the importance of having systems that are necessary for operation backed-up on a regular cadence and ensuring they are stored separately from the source system and tested on a recurring basis.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cybersecurity Training.</E>
                         Proposed §§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219 would require owner/operators to provide two levels of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training. First, basic cybersecurity training must be provided to all employees, including contractors, with access to the owner/operator's IT or OT system and additional training to cybersecurity-sensitive employees. Second, employees who meet the definition of a “cybersecurity-sensitive employee” must receive both basic and role-based cybersecurity training. Consistent with requirements for physical security training, TSA is proposing that individuals who do not receive the required training within the required timeframe must not be allowed access to Critical Cyber Systems or an IT or OT system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System. In § 1570.3, TSA is proposing to define “cybersecurity-sensitive employees” as “any employee who is a privileged user with access to, or privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or any Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon.” Under proposed paragraph (b), owner/operators would be required to include in their COIP a curriculum or lesson plan for each course needed to meet the specific curriculum requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed paragraph (c) of proposed §§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219 includes the curriculum requirements for basic cybersecurity training to provide cybersecurity awareness to address best practices, acceptable use, risks associated with their level of privileged access, and awareness of security risks associated with their actions. The requirements in the proposed rule are consistent with CPG 2.I (Basic Cybersecurity Training) and 2.J (OT Cybersecurity Training). All employees should have a basic understanding of the online threat environment. Basic cybersecurity awareness training helps employees understand proper cyber safety, and the security risks associated with their actions. Regular training helps employees recognize their role in cybersecurity and how they serve as an additional “sensor” to detect an incident, regardless of their technical expertise.</P>
                    <P>Proposed paragraph (c) requires the owner/operator to provide cybersecurity-sensitive employees training that specifically addresses their role as a privileged user to prevent and respond to a cybersecurity incident, acceptable uses, and the risks associated with their level of access and use as approved by the owner/operator. This training recognizes that the level of cybersecurity training for someone with access to critical IT systems may be different than the training needed for someone who primarily accesses critical OT systems. In addition, this training must ensure these employees understand and are prepared to execute any actions associated with their positions under the owner/operator's TSA-approved CIRP.</P>
                    <P>The proposed schedule for cybersecurity training is consistent with the CISA CPGs. Under paragraph (d) of proposed §§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219, owner/operators would be required to provide initial cybersecurity training (based and role-based, as applicable) within 60 days after the effective date of TSA's approval of the COIP. For individuals who onboard or become cybersecurity-sensitive employees after the effective date of the COIP, TSA would require training within 10-days of onboarding. Paragraph (e) of these sections would require annual recurrent training.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the CPGs, CISA noted that basic cybersecurity training should be required annually “for all organizational employees and contractors that cover basic security concepts, such as phishing, business email compromise, basic operational security, password security, etc.,” and organizations should “foster an internal culture of security and cyber awareness.” 
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CISA CPGs also recommend that all new employees receive this basic initial cybersecurity training within 10 days of onboarding and recurring training on at least an annual basis.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For individuals with responsibilities for protecting critical systems, such as maintaining or securing OT system, as part of their regular duties, the CISA CPGs recommend additional cybersecurity training on an annual basis.
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the CPG Checklist, CISA identifies these actions as having low complexity and high impact. The CPG Checklist also identifies free services and references that can be used for cybersecurity training.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA's proposed requirements for cybersecurity training align with the CPG recommendations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG 2.I (Basic Cybersecurity Training).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG 2.J (OT Cybersecurity Training).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 153.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Paragraphs (f), (g) and (h) of proposed §§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219 address recognition of prior training and retention of training records. Paragraph (f) specifically allows owner/operators to rely on previously provided cybersecurity training to meet the requirements in the proposed role to the extent they can validate it meets curriculum and schedule requirements in the proposed rule. Paragraphs (g) and (h) include proposed requirements for retention of records and making the record available to employees that are consistent with TSA's current requirements for physical security training of security-sensitive employees (in current 49 CFR 1570.121).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Detect Cybersecurity Incidents (Proposed §§ 1580.321, 1582.221, and 1586.221)</HD>
                    <P>
                        As it is not possible to stop all cybersecurity incidents or attempted incidents, it is critical to have strong capabilities to detect cybersecurity incidents when they occur and have automatic measures in place to mitigate the impact. TSA's cybersecurity SDs included specific requirements to ensure continuous monitoring and detection policies.
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed requirements in §§ 1580.321, 1582.221, and 1586.221 align with the SDs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section III.D. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and 1580/82-2022-01 series.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A key element of initial access for a cyber-intrusion is the execution of malicious software and communications with malicious command-and-control servers. Implementing filters to ensure “allow-listing” of known, good software and blocking malicious domains are essential controls to prevent damaging intrusions from occurring. In the latter case, best practices, such as protective Domain Name System (DNS) resolution, are necessary to proactively block communications with unknown or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88522"/>
                        potentially malicious web domains.
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Detection should not be limited to a single security control but should include continuous monitoring and detection policies that follow the zero trust principle of assumed breach and a defense-in-depth approach to maximize a defender's chance of detecting an attack before it reaches the operational environment. Starting with basic controls, such as allow-list filters, email sandboxing, threat-based detection, and protecting DNS, provides a strong foundation for detection of threat activity from advanced adversaries. The costs of implementing these controls would be offset by the benefits of avoiding even a single successful cybersecurity incident that could result in catastrophic costs. The demands of the ransomware threat actors have also increased, and intelligence information indicates the capabilities of adversaries are becoming more sophisticated. The CISA CPGs note that “[w]ithout the knowledge of relevant threats and ability to detect them, organizations risk that threat actors may exist undetected in their networks for long periods.” 
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST SP 800-81-2, Secure Domain Name System (DNS) Deployment Guide (Sept. 2013).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG 3.A (Detecting Relevant Threats and Tips).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Procedures, Policies, and Capabilities To Respond to, and Recover From, Cybersecurity Incidents</HD>
                    <P>
                        In setting cybersecurity regulations for critical infrastructure, the National Cybersecurity Strategy encourages regulators to ensure that systems are designed to fail safely and recover quickly.
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Having strong procedures, policies, and capabilities to respond to, and recover from, cybersecurity incidents are among the most critical steps owner/operators can take. If a company is the target of one of the most sophisticated adversaries, such as nation-state actors, the issue is when the company will be the target of a cybersecurity incident, not whether they will be targeted. These requirements are related to protection and detection capabilities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 12 at 8-9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident (§§ 1580.323, 1582.223, and 1586.223).</E>
                         The detection capabilities discussed above primarily rely on automated systems that flag or block incidents as they occur. CRM programs also need the capability to analyze traffic and trigger responses if certain thresholds are crossed. For this rulemaking, TSA is proposing to consolidate requirements from section D.2 of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series that address auditing unauthorized access, documenting communications between systems that deviate from the approved baseline of communications, identifying and responding to execution of unauthorized code, and ensuring standardized incident response activities based on this information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Reporting cybersecurity incidents (§§ 1580.325, 1582.225, 1584.107, and 1586.225).</E>
                         TSA's first SD requirements for cybersecurity focused on the need to report cybersecurity incidents to the U.S. government promptly to ensure the government can adequately respond to threats to national security, including economic security.
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Both the NIST CSF (Function RS.CO) and CPG 4.A (Incident Reporting) recognize the importance of reporting cybersecurity incidents. In the CPGs, CISA notes that a failure to provide timely incident reporting affects the ability of CISA and other groups to assist the organization and also gain “critical insight into the broader threat landscape, (such as whether a broader attack is occurring against a specific sector).”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Sections B-D of the SD Pipeline-2021-01, 1580-21-01, and 1582-21-01 series.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>TSA is proposing that the requirement to report cybersecurity incidents apply to all owner/operators required to report significant security concerns under current § 1570.203. This applicability would generally include all owner/operators identified in § 1580.1(a)(1), (a)(4), and (a)(5), rail transit and passenger railroads identified in § 1582.1, higher-risk bus-only transit systems identified in § 1582.101, higher-risk OTRB owner/operators identified in § 1584.101, and the pipeline facilities and systems identified in new § 1586.101(b).</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed requirements for cybersecurity incident reporting mirror those in the current SDs. As under the SDs, TSA would require owner/operators to report cybersecurity incidents to CISA within 24 hours of identification of a cybersecurity incident.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For purposes of the proposed rule, a “cybersecurity incident” is defined as “an event that, without lawful authority, jeopardizes, disrupts or otherwise impacts, or is reasonably likely to jeopardize, disrupt or otherwise impact, the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of computers, information or communications systems or networks, physical or virtual infrastructure controlled by computers or information systems, or information resident on the system.” The reports must, among other things, (1) identify the affected systems or facilities; and (2) describe the threat, incident, and impact or potential impact on IT and OT systems and operations. All information reported under this requirement is SSI protected under 49 CFR part 1520 and would be appropriately protected by CISA and TSA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             As originally issued, the directive required notification within 12 hours of identification. In May 2022, TSA revised this requirement to require notifications within 24 hours of identification.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>At the time TSA issued specific requirements for reporting of cybersecurity incidents in 2021, it determined that CISA should receive all cybersecurity incident reporting in order to obtain the security and analytical benefits of consolidating this information in one system to enhance threat identification and trend analysis. This action is consistent with 49 U.S.C. 114(m), which permits TSA to use the services and capabilities of other agencies and to support them through use of the agency's authorities, as appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is aware that CISA is also required to issue a regulation to require reporting of cyber incidents under the Cyber Incident Reporting for Critical Infrastructure Act of 2022 (CIRCIA).
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although CIRCIA requires CISA to implement new reporting requirements through regulation, CIRCIA's rulemaking requirement does not supersede, abrogate, modify, or otherwise limit any authority to regulate or act with respect to the cybersecurity of an entity vested in any U.S. Government officer or agency.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         “Covered Entities,” as defined by CISA, that are obligated to report “Covered Cyber Incidents” or “Ransom Payments” pursuant to another federal regulatory requirement, directive, or similar mandate could remain obligated to do so. TSA is, however, committed to avoiding redundancy and harmonizing with our government partners on cybersecurity requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Division Y of Public Law 117-103, 136 Stat. 1039 (Mar. 15, 2022), as amended by Public Law 117-263, 136 Stat. 3661 (Dec. 23, 2022), as codified at 6 U.S.C. 681-681g.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             6 U.S.C. 681b(h).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the structure proposed by CISA in its NPRM,
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA does not anticipate the need to make any significant modifications to its reporting requirements. TSA will continue to require reporting to CISA to avoid duplicate reporting. If CISA's final rule includes the proposed requirement for agencies to enter into an agreement with CISA to specifically address duplicative information reporting, TSA believes it is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88523"/>
                        well-positioned for this step based on its current reporting requirements. As CISA is likely to finalize the CIRCIA rule before this rulemaking is finalized, TSA will review the final CIRCIA requirements for reporting cybersecurity incidents and consider changes as necessary and/or appropriate in the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             89 FR 23644 (Apr. 4, 2024) (proposed rule); 89 FR 37141 (May 6, 2024) (comment period extension); 89 FR 47471 (June 3, 2024) (correction).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (§§ 1580.327, 1582.227, and 1586.227).</E>
                         Incident planning and preparedness is critical to mitigating the impacts of a cybersecurity incident on national security, including economic security. The NIST CSF (PR and RC Functions) and CPG 2.S (Incident Response (IR) Plans) and 5.A (Incident Planning and Preparedness) both recognize the importance of having a plan that is tested, validated, and maintained to ensure timely response to, and recovery from, detected cybersecurity events that cause, or could cause, operational disruption. This proposed rule would incorporate the CIRP requirements from section III.F. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 series and section C.1. of the SD 1580-21-01 and 1582-21-01 series. These requirements include having a plan to ensure that each of the following objectives are met: (1) the impacts of a cybersecurity incident that causes, or could cause, operational disruption or significant impacts on business-critical functions are limited and do not spread throughout the system; (2) back-up data is tested before it is used for recovery; (3) measures are in place to ensure isolation of technology to reduce risks; and (4) identification of who, by position, is responsible for implementing measures in the plan. The SDs also require owner/operators to conduct annual exercises of their plans that, at a minimum, test at least two of these objectives each year. The overall objective of the exercise requirement is to ensure that elements of the incident response plan are tested to ensure that they will work and can be properly executed by the responsible person(s).
                    </P>
                    <P>As recommended by CPG 2.S (Incident Response Plans), which aligns with the NIST CSF (Function RS.MA), TSA would continue to require owner/operators to test their plans through exercises and modify the CIRP within 90 days based on the results of the exercises. While the CIRP required by this proposed rule would be incorporated into the COIP made available to TSA for approval, TSA would require that any changes to the CIRP be reported to TSA within 15 days. As these changes are separately reported to TSA, revisions to the CIRP do not require an amendment to the COIP under § 1570.107 of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (Proposed §§ 1580.329, 1582.229, and 1586.229)</HD>
                    <P>As discussed above, the NIST CSF, the CISA CPGs, and TSA's SDs, taken in their totality, recognize the importance of having cybersecurity measures informed both by an initial cybersecurity evaluation that looks at the current profile of the owner/operator's cybersecurity measures against the target profile, and an assessment program that actually tests the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures in the COIP as related to Critical Cyber Systems. In the initial SD issued to pipeline owner/operators, SD Pipeline-2021-01, TSA required owner/operators to have a third-party conduct a cybersecurity architecture design review.</P>
                    <P>
                        In SD Pipeline-2021-02C, issued in July 2022, TSA modified the SD to require owner/operators to have a Cybersecurity Assessment Program that allowed owner/operators to conduct their own biennial cybersecurity architecture design review and also required them to use other assessment capabilities intended to test the effectiveness of their cybersecurity measures. Owner/operators were required to have an annual plan for these assessments and to submit the plan to TSA for review, but not for approval.
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section III.G. of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 series and Section III.F. of SD 1580/82-2022-01 series.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In July and October 2023, TSA modified the pipeline and rail SD series, respectively, to change the name from a Cybersecurity Assessment Program to a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan, which more accurately reflects additional changes made to the requirements. Under the current SD series, owner/operators must submit the CAP to TSA for approval. The CAP must include a specific schedule for the assessments to ensure that at least one-third of the COIP is tested each year at a pace to ensure 100 percent of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the COIP are assessed over any 3-year period as applied to all Critical Cyber Systems. The intent of this requirement is to ensure a continuous process of assessment, avoiding the potential vulnerabilities that could result from failing to only conducting assessments every few years, potentially leaving vulnerabilities undetected for years.</P>
                    <P>This proposed requirement gives owner/operators flexibility in developing their CAP schedule. One approach would be to assess/audit one-third of the policies, procedures, measures and capabilities in the CIP each year for all Critical Cyber Systems. Another acceptable option, however, would be to assess/audit one-third of Critical Cyber Systems each year for all applicable policies, procedures, measures and capabilities in the COIP.</P>
                    <P>Either of these options ensures a schedule where one-third of policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the COIP are assessed each year with 100 percent of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the COIP being assessed/audited every 3 years on 100 percent of the Critical Cyber Systems. Under this requirement, an owner/operator who chooses to assess more than one-third in one year, is still required to assess at least one-third the next year. For example, if the owner/operator assesses 100 percent of their measures in Year 1, at least one-third would need to be assessed again in Year 2 and Year 3 of the cycle.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is specifically requesting comment on methods owner/operators would use to ensure this schedule is met. Smaller companies with fewer Critical Cyber Systems that find it easier to assess 100 percent each year could submit a CAP that includes different types of assessments each year, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         assessing 100 percent each year using different methodologies.
                    </P>
                    <P>To ensure both the owner/operator and TSA have a clear agreement on the planned assessment program and that it will meet the requirements by the end of the three-year period, TSA is proposing to require the CAP to include a mapping sufficient to validate that the required scope of the assessment will be met within the required period. This step is necessary as TSA recognizes that neither all parts of the COIP nor all Critical Cyber Systems are equal, and it may not be possible to identify a bright line of one-third of the COIP being assessed each year. Mapping the scheduled assessments to the COIP and Critical Cyber Systems will enable TSA and the owner/operator to engage in a discussion to ensure the proposed rule's intent, a steady state of meaningful assessments, is built into the owner/operators CRM program and informing future modifications to improve cybersecurity. TSA assumes that the first mapping will be the most burdensome, requiring minor updates in future years to address any changes in the COIP or Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA also agrees with the CISA CPGs' recommendation that, whenever possible, auditors and assessors should be from outside the owner/operator's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88524"/>
                        organization.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At the same time, TSA recognizes that some companies may have in-house capabilities to conduct audits and assessments. Rather than requiring a third-party validator, TSA is requiring that any individual who conducts an audit or assessment must be independent, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         they must not have a vested or other financial interest in the results, in order to ensure the integrity and reliability of results. For example, if an individual conducting an audit is part of a team or group that would receive a bonus if the audit results met a certain threshold, they are not sufficiently independent to be eligible to conduct the audit.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CPG 1.F (Third-Party Validation of Cybersecurity Control Effectiveness).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To support overall governance of the CRM program, the proposed rule would require an annual report of the CAP results. This report must also include the methodologies used. A copy of the report must be provided to corporate leadership and TSA. Under paragraph (f) of §§ 1580.307, 1582.207, and 1586.207, the results of this assessments are to be used for updating the CRM program, as appropriate. TSA is proposing that the report be provided 15 months from the date of TSA's approval of the first CAP and annually thereafter. This timeline allows for full implementation of the CAP (an annual or 12-month plan), and three additional months to develop a report based on the results. The proposed rule text specifically notes that the audits and assessments conducted under this section are vulnerability assessments subject to the SSI protections in 49 CFR part 1520.</P>
                    <P>The procedures discussed for submission of CIPs in section III.D.2.a. also apply to submission of CAPs. As with CIPs, a CAP maintained at the owner/operator's location is not considered to have received final approval until reviewed by TSA, revised as required by TSA and the owner/operator receives notification from TSA that the CAP has received final approval. Only final approval of the CAP triggers the timelines associated with subsequent annual requirements to develop the CAP and CAP report.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Documentation To Establish Compliance (Proposed §§ 1580.331, 1582.231, and 1586.231)</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 114(f) and 49 CFR part 1503, TSA may view, inspect, and copy records, in carrying out TSA's security-related statutory or regulatory authorities, including its authority to enforce security-related laws, regulations, directives, and requirements. At the request of TSA, each owner/operator subject to the requirements of the proposed rule must provide evidence of compliance, including copies of records if requested, sufficient to demonstrate compliance. TSA must be able to build and preserve a sufficient administrative record for each case.</P>
                    <P>For the specific purposes of the CRM program requirements, the proposed rule includes a section on documentation that TSA may ask to review to establish compliance. The list of documentation provided aligns with the lists in section IV.C of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and 1580/82-2022-01 series. While TSA has the authority under 49 U.S.C. 114(f)(7) to review any documents necessary to enforce security-related regulations and requirements (among other purposes), TSA provided this non-exclusive list to provide owner/operators with examples of the types of documents TSA may ask to review in order to support the owner/operator's efforts to establish compliance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Physical Security</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, TSA is reorganizing 49 CFR parts 1570, 1580, 1582, and 1584 through this rulemaking, to distinguish between physical security requirements and cybersecurity requirements. The security measures previously imposed for rail, PTPR, and OTRB—security coordinators, reporting significant security concerns, security training, and chain of custody (for freight railroads)—are primarily intended to address physical security concerns, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         threats to physical infrastructure from improvised explosive devices or physically tampering with equipment. With this rulemaking, cybersecurity requirements would receive dedicated treatment.
                    </P>
                    <P>To help distinguish between physical and cybersecurity, the rule proposes to generally include the physical and cybersecurity requirements in separate subparts applicable to each mode. The requirements for OTRB would continue to be in subpart B of part 1584. TSA would also distinguish between (1) requirements for Physical Security Coordinator(s) and reporting physical security concerns and (2) requirements for Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) and reporting cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                    <P>
                        To clearly establish the distinction between physical security and cybersecurity, TSA is proposing to move the security coordinator requirements in current § 1570.201 and reporting requirements in current § 1570.203 to the modal-specific parts with only one change to the current requirements. As with the Cybersecurity Coordinators required under the CRM program, TSA is specifying that the Physical Security Coordinator(s) be a U.S. citizen unless this requirement is waived by TSA.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA would consider several factors before waiving this requirement. Most importantly, the individual would need to successfully complete an STA. In addition, TSA would need to ensure that at least one of the owner/operator's Physical Security Coordinator(s) (primary or alternate) is a U.S. Citizen who is eligible for a security clearance. This requirement is consistent with current practice and, as previously discussed, necessary to ensure that there is at least one point of contact within every covered entity that TSA can share sensitive information with on a rapid basis. This information could not be shared with non-citizens absent significant coordination at a government-to-government level. The delay caused by this coordination could prevent an owner/operator from receiving critical information on a timely basis needed to protect against actionable intelligence at a classified level.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             This requirement is consistent with sections 1512(e)(2) and 1531(e)(2) of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1162(e)(2) and 1181(e)(2), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As part of this effort, TSA is proposing to move and consolidate all the requirements for security training of security-sensitive employees (currently referenced in §§ 1570.107, 1570.109, 1570.111, 1570.121, 1580.113, 1580.115, 1582.113, 1582.115, and 1584.113, and 1584.115) into one section in each of the modal-specific parts (proposed §§ 1580.113, 1582.113, and 1584.113) rather than the current structure, which has some requirements in part 1570 and some in multiple sections in parts 1580, 1582, and 1584. None of the requirements for security training (procedural or substantive) would be modified through this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, TSA is proposing to require the pipeline facilities and systems within the applicability of the CRM program requirements (proposed § 1586.101(b)) to designate a Physical Security Coordinator and report significant physical security concerns. For almost a decade, TSA's Pipeline Guidelines have encouraged pipeline owner/operators to report security incidents to TSA 
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and provide contact information for security operations or controls centers for pipeline owner/operators in order to facilitate the exchange of information.
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Through 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88525"/>
                        this rulemaking, TSA is proposing to make having a Physical Security Coordinator and reporting significant physical security concerns mandatory for the pipeline owner/operators identified in proposed § 1586.101(b). Expanding these requirements to this critical sector would ensure TSA is able to obtain a complete picture of potential threats, both physical and cyber across this sector and as it relates to other critical infrastructure.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 81, at Appendix B.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Supporting Statement for OMB Control No. 1652-0055, as approved on Dec. 22, 2010, 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=201006-1652-001</E>
                             (last accessed Nov. 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. General Procedures for Security Programs, SDs, and Information Circulars</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Procedures for Security Programs (Proposed Revisions to Subpart B of Part 1570)</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the Security Training for Surface Transportation Employees final rule, TSA established procedures for security programs in 49 CFR part 1570. At that time, the requirements to be included in a security program were primarily related to security training. As part of this rulemaking and the expansion of security program requirements to include a robust CRM program, TSA is proposing to revise the procedures for security programs in part 1570 to align more closely with the well-established procedures applicable to security programs issued for civil aviation under subchapter C of 49 CFR chapter XII. In general, these changes primarily result in reorganizing the requirements currently in §§ 1570.109 through 1570.119.
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, these procedures also address allowances in the 9/11 Act for coordinated development and implementation of vulnerability assessments and security plans, and the requirements in the 9/11 Act related to recognition of existing procedures, protocols, and standards.
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             at Table 3 for distribution of current requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             sections 1405(g), (i) and 1512(j), (l) of the 9/11 Act, as codified at 6 U.S.C. 1134(g), (i) and 1162(j), (l), respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1570.107 includes the procedures for when an owner/operator determines that they need to amend a security program previously approved by TSA. This section is consistent with the procedures for aviation security programs under subchapter C of Chapter XII 
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and would replace current §§ 1570.113 and 1570.117. These procedures ensure a joint understanding between TSA and owner/operators on what the owner/operator is committed to implementing while providing opportunities to modify measures as necessary to address changes in operations, evolving capabilities, and emerging threats. As the COIP is a security program, owner/operators must request an amendment whenever they seek to make substantive changes to their COIPs or to documents incorporated by reference. Current § 1570.113 includes requirements for when owner/operators must request an amendment to their security programs. TSA is proposing to consolidate and streamline these requirements in proposed 1570.107(c).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1542.105, 1544.105, 1548.7, and 1549.7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1570.107(b) includes the general requirements for owner/operators to request an amendment to a TSA-approved security program. Current § 1570.113(e) requires owner/operators to submit a request for an amendment to their programs no later than 65 days after a permanent change takes effect. For purposes of this requirement, a permanent change is any change in effect for 60 or more calendar days.
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The SDs for cybersecurity requirements require a request for an amendment no later than 50 calendar days after the permanent change takes effect, unless TSA allows a longer time period. A permanent change for that purpose is any change intended to be in effect for 45 or more calendar days.
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In TSA's aviation programs, TSA requires requests for amendments 45 days 
                        <E T="03">before</E>
                         they take effect, unless TSA allows a shorter time period.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1570.113(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section VI of the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             49 CFR 1542.105(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, permanent changes would continue to be those intended to be in effect for 60 or more days, but owner/operators would be required to request an amendment at least 45 days 
                        <E T="03">before</E>
                         the change takes effect. This section carries over from current § 1570.113(f), the TSA standard for approval. In general, this standard requires that the policies, procedures, or measures in the proposed amendment provide a commensurate level of security to the previously approved policy, procedure, or measure. As validated by TSA's application of this timeframe in aviation programs, this requirement benefits both the agency and owner/operator by ensuring that TSA agrees with the owner/operator's determination that a modification to previously approved procedures will continue to meet the required security objectives. This agreement, in turn, avoids situations where an owner/operator invests in programs, capabilities, or technology that TSA subsequently disapproves because the modification fails to provide adequate security as required by the regulation.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1570.113(c)(1) specifically excludes administrative or clerical changes from the amendment process. These changes are those that do not affect policies procedures, or measures in the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program. While an amendment is not required, TSA would require owner/operators to maintain a chronological record of these changes for at least one year before the date of the last approved security program. As with all other documentation of compliance, this information be provided to TSA upon request.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1570.113(c)(2) includes an exception for temporary, substantive changes. Temporary, substantive changes are those that would have an impact on approved policies, procedures, or measures, but which are not intended to be in effect for 60 or more days. For temporary, substantive changes, TSA is proposing that owner/operators must notify TSA no more than 24 hours after a temporary, substantive change is made to any policy, procedure, or measure in its TSA-approved security program. Within 7 calendar days of this notification, the owner/operator must, in writing, inform TSA of the interim policies, procedure, or measures it is using to maintain adequate security while the temporary, substantive change is in effect. The owner/operator must include a description of how the interim policy, procedure, or measures provides a commensurate level of security. TSA will notify the owner/operator in writing if the agency does not concur that the interim measure provides a commensurate level of security. If the temporary, substantive change exceeds or is expected to exceed 60 days, then owner/operator must seek an amendment to its security program. This amendment request must be submitted no later than 65 days after the temporary, substantive change initially took effect. These proposed provisions would result in TSA having more visibility into temporary, substantive changes (consistent with TSA's regulatory requirements in the aviation context) while maintaining some of the flexibility contained in current regulations and SDs with respect to non-permanent changes. Proposed § 1570.107(c) also provides more specific detail on the difference between administrative or clerical changes and substantive revisions and the procedures to be followed based on the type of amendment.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88526"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>As specifically applied to the security training programs required by §§ 1580.113, 1582.113, and 1584.113, which are also considered TSA-approved security programs, TSA notes that most revisions to a security training program would be considered substantive and permanent. Training curriculums and programs are usually planned in advance and do not change as rapidly as cybersecurity issues. Within this context, however, TSA would consider changes to the number of employees to be trained within each of the identified functions to be an administrative or clerical change, which would not require an amendment. TSA believes it is more important for the owner/operator to have an accurate and up-to-date awareness of these issues and plan accordingly than to impede this process by imposing an amendment process every time staff levels change. As applied to the CRM program, examples of administrative or clerical, temporary, and permanent changes are discussed more fully in Section III.D.2.a., within the general context of COIP requirements.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1570.107(d) and (e) includes procedures for TSA to amend security programs, which align with what is currently in § 1570.115. This section also proposes to add the process for filing a petition for reconsideration, currently in § 1570.119, as proposed § 1570.107(f).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1570.109 provides an option for owner/operators who may have operations that meet the criteria for applicability, but those operations are infrequent or seasonal. TSA is proposing to add a section that aligns with an option provided to airports in 49 CFR 1542.109. Under this provision, TSA may make a risk-based determination to impose alternative requirements that are appropriate for the scope of the operations rather than the full programmatic requirements.</P>
                    <P>TSA is proposing to add § 1570.115, which provides the procedures for withdrawing approval of a security program. In general, if an owner/operator is not in compliance with regulatory requirements, TSA would work through an enforcement process that has a range of actions including notices and an opportunity to correct and penalties. In some situations, however, TSA may determine that the failure to comply is so contrary to security and the public interest that the agency must withdraw approval of the security program. Section 1570.115 provides the standard and process for withdrawal to ensure due process is provided should this action be necessary.</P>
                    <P>In proposed § 1570.117, TSA would incorporate the general recordkeeping requirements from current § 1570.121. The recordkeeping requirements specific to physical security training have been incorporated into the proposed consolidated physical security training requirements in the modal-specific parts, specifically in proposed §§ 1580.113, 1582.113, and 1584.113.</P>
                    <P>Finally, as part of the general effort to establish comprehensive regulatory regime for surface regulations similar to the regime for aviation, TSA is proposing to revise § 1570.1 to add paragraph (b). This paragraph clarifies that the authority for any function exercised by the Administrator within the subchapter, such as approving an amendment to a security program, may be delegated to other officials by the Administrator. The statement is consistent with current 49 CFR 1540.3, as applied to aviation, and is appropriate as TSA continues to implement its authority and responsibilities for surface transportation security.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. SDs and Information Circulars (Proposed Subpart C of Part 1570)</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also proposing to rename Subpart C—Operations to Subpart C—Threat and Threat Response and add a new § 1570.201 related to the issuance of SDs and ICs.
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This section would provide procedures in TSA's regulations to issue SDs and ICs and make other revisions to align TSA's processes for surface transportation security with those long-established for the aviation sector.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             As discussed above, TSA proposes to move existing sections 1570.201 and .203 to parts 1580, 1582 and 1584.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The surface cybersecurity SDs discussed in section II.B.1. were issued under the authority of 49 U.S.C. 114(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        )(2). Aviation SDs, however, are a creature of APA rulemaking, having been created by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When TSA determines that it must immediately require additional security measures to respond to a threat assessment or to a specific threat against civil aviation, it may issue SDs to certain regulated parties. Regulated parties may request alternative procedures to accomplish the same security goal with different measures.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Unless otherwise determined by the Administrator, SDs contain SSI and thus are not available to the general public.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Review of an SD is available in a U.S. court of appeals.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             54 FR 28984 (July 10, 1989); 58 FR 36802 (July 8, 1993) (aircraft operators); 66 FR 37274 (July 17, 2001) (airport operators). Requirements are now in 49 CFR 1542.303 (airport operators) and 1544.305 (aircraft operators). The FAA's transportation security authority and all rules were given to TSA under ATSA. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(d); section 141 of ATSA (Savings Provision). As a result, Aviation SDs are not issued under 49 U.S.C. 114 (
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            )(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1542.303 (airport operators); 1544.305 (aircraft operators); 1548.19 (indirect air carriers); and 1549.109 (Certifier Cargo Screening Facilities). The foreign air carrier regulations in 49 CFR part 1546 do not provide for SDs. TSA issues emergency amendments (EAs) to their security programs to require additional security measures when needed.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1520.5(b)(2) regarding SDs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Gilmore</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Gonzales,</E>
                             435 F.3d 1125, 1133 (9th Cir. 2006) (which held that SDs are an agency order subject to court of appeals review pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 46110); 
                            <E T="03">see also Corbett</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Transp. Sec. Admin.,</E>
                             19 F4th 478, 480 (D.C. Cir. 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The provisions for SD procedures also address issuance of ICs. ICs are intended to notify owner/operators of specific security concerns and may include recommended measures to address the concern. While a specific regulatory provision is not necessary to issue ICs, referencing them in the regulations provides a distinction between voluntary versus mandatory measures.</P>
                    <P>
                        Through this rulemaking, TSA is proposing to create a similar regulatory provision for SDs and ICs for surface transportation to those applicable in the aviation sector.
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As discussed above, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         section II.B.1 of this NPRM, TSA has used these two types of actions to address cybersecurity of surface transportation. TSA made a risk-based decision that certain entities must implement cybersecurity measures. Those entities were within the scope of applicability for the SDs. TSA also issued ICs to all owner/operators within a certain mode, recommending that they consider voluntarily implementing the measures imposed on the higher-risk owner/operators. ICs are distinguished from more general guidance documents because they are specific to a certain security concern. This addition to TSA's regulations would ensure that any person within the scope of applicability of future SDs or ICs would be able to find the applicable procedures for these actions in TSA's regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1542.303, 1544.305, 1548.19, and 1549.109.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, TSA is proposing revisions to streamline regulatory text for owner/operators to request to implement security measures other than those specifically required by TSA, or to revise previously approved security programs. The current regulations provide for amendments to security programs requested by an owner/operator in current 49 CFR 1570.113, TSA amendments to programs in § 1570.115, and owner/operator 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88527"/>
                        requested alternative procedures in § 1570.117. Under the current regulations, the distinction between an owner/operator amendment and an alternative procedure is not clear as they both authorize the owner/operator to request to implement a measure other than what is required by TSA and require TSA to determine that granting the request would not have a negative impact on security.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also proposing to revise the procedures for amendments to security programs (such as the COIP) required by subchapter D. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         discussion in section II.F.1. As part of this revision, TSA is proposing to move the procedures for requesting alternative measures from current § 1570.117 to § 1570.203, and to limit the alternative procedures measures to SDs. This revision would provide owner/operators with a clearly identified process for requesting to implement alternatives to requirements in an SD. The proposed procedures align with our standard processes for aviation where we require owner/operators to request an amendment to a security program through the security program process, and also allow owner/operators the ability to request an alternative measure or procedure to requirements in an SD. Owner/operators would continue to be able to request amendments to their security programs under proposed § 1570.107(b).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Exhaustion of Administrative Remedies (Proposed § 1570.119)</HD>
                    <P>TSA is proposing to add a new § 1570.119, which would require exhaustion of administrative remedies before challenging final agency orders by TSA related to the requirements in parts 1570, 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586. Under this proposed requirement, an individual could not seek judicial review until TSA has issued its “final agency order.” TSA has identified in proposed subpart B of part 1570 the point at which a TSA decision is a “final agency action.” For purposes of this rulemaking, “final agency order” and “final agency action” have the same meaning.</P>
                    <P>
                        This requirement would apply to (a) denials of approval of a security program or an amendment to a security program, alternative measures to requirements in a security program; (b) imposition of requirements through an SD or TSA-required amendment to a security program; and (3) withdrawal of a security program. For example, if the specific regulatory provision provides for an owner/operator to request a petition for reconsideration of a denial of security program amendment, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         proposed § 1570.107(f), then the owner/operator would need to have a timely petition for reconsideration denied before they would have exhausted the administrative procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The doctrine of exhaustion of administrative remedies is based on the need to conserve judicial resources and ensure that factual issues are resolved by the agency with the expertise and responsibility for administering the program at issue. The doctrine allows agencies to develop a full factual record, correct errors, minimize costs, and create a uniform approach to the issues within its jurisdiction. This process benefits individuals by resolving disputes more quickly and at lower cost through TSA rather than the federal courts. If the individual ultimately seeks review in the Court of Appeals following TSA's final agency order, the court would have a full record on which to base its review, and the issues would be narrowed to those that truly require judicial review.
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This process also allows TSA the opportunity to correct any errors and narrow the issues, which can be achieved through exhausting administrative remedies, before initiating judicial review.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Mohamed Al Seraji</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Gowadia,</E>
                             No. 8:16-cv-01637-JLS-JCG (C.D. Cal. Apr. 28, 2017). In this case, TSA issued a preliminary denial of a TWIC application, and the individual sought review by a U.S. District Court rather than first appealing the decision to TSA. The court dismissed his claim, stating that he must first exhaust the administrative remedies in TSA's redress regulations. The court stated that it needed a more developed factual record to effectively evaluate the case.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For all of the foregoing reasons, TSA is proposing to include in the regulation an explicit requirement for individuals to exhaust administrative remedies before seeking judicial review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Severability</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1570.121 would reflect TSA's intent that the various regulatory provisions be considered severable from each other to the greatest extent possible. For instance, if a court of competent jurisdiction were to hold that the rule or a portion thereof may not be applied to a particular owner or operator or in a particular circumstance, TSA would intend for the court to leave the remainder of the rule in place with respect to all other covered persons and circumstances. The inclusion of a severability clause would not be intended to imply a position on severability in other TSA regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Enforcement and Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA has broad authority to: (1) enforce its rules and requirements; (2) oversee the implementation and ensure the adequacy of security measures; and (3) inspect, maintain, and test security facilities, equipment, and systems for all modes of transportation.
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA's authority over transportation security is comprehensive and supported with specific powers related to the development and enforcement of security-related regulations and other requirements. Within this broad authority, the agency may assess a security risk for any mode of transportation and develop security measures for dealing with this risk.
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If TSA identifies noncompliance with its requirements, TSA may hold the owner/operators responsible for the violation and subject to enforcement action, which may result in civil monetary penalties.
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pursuant to its statutory authority and responsibilities, TSA is the sole Federal agency with authority to enforce its regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             49 U.S.C. 114.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f) and (
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 114(f) and (u).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Through a separate rulemaking, TSA recently consolidated all of its provisions previously found throughout its regulations relating to inspections, including the regulations governing surface transportation entities in current 49 CFR 1570.9.
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result of this revision to TSA's regulations, TSA's inspection requirements are now located in one section, 49 CFR 1503.207, which is the part that specifically focuses on investigative and enforcement procedures applicable to all of TSA's regulatory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Final Rule, Flight Training Security Program, 89 FR 35580 (May 1, 2024). These changes took effect on July 30, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>When appropriate, TSA will coordinate with an owner/operator on inspections. Notice gives the parties to be inspected the opportunity to gather evidence of compliance and to arrange to have the appropriate personnel available to assist TSA. Some inspections, however, can only be effective if TSA's presence is unannounced. TSA must have the flexibility to respond to information, operations, and specific circumstances whenever they exist or develop.</P>
                    <P>
                        Security concerns are different at different times of the day and on different days. Terrorists may seek to take advantage of vulnerabilities whenever they occur. TSA has the authority to assess the security of transportation entities at all times (including nights, weekends, and holidays) and under all operational situations. The nature of any given TSA inspection will depend on the specific circumstances surrounding a particular owner/operator at a given point in time 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88528"/>
                        and will be considered in conjunction with available threat information.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Summary of Applicability and Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Table 6 identifies the current and proposed applicability of all the requirements discussed above.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Summary of Proposed Requirements</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Current subchapter D of 49 CFR chapter XII requirements are indicated with an “X”; proposed requirements are indicated with a “P”]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">SD and IC procedures</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Physical
                                <LI>security</LI>
                                <LI>coordinator</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Reporting significant physical security concerns</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Security
                                <LI>training</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Cybersecurity coordinator</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reporting
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of freight railroads operating on general railroad system</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* PI</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rail hazardous materials shippers</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rail hazardous materials receivers in HTUAs</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators hosting freight or passenger rail operations</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of private rail cars and circus trains</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>** X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>** P</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of passenger railroads operating on the general railroad system, including intercity passenger train service, and commuter train services</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of rail transit systems not part of general railroad system</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of tourist, scenic, historic, and excursion railroads</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>** X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>** P</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of bus transit or commuter bus systems in designated areas</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OTRB owner/operators providing fixed-route service in designated areas</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT>X</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Owner/operators of pipeline facilities and systems</ENT>
                            <ENT>P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                            <ENT>* P</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>* If described in proposed 1580.301, 1582.201, or 1586.101.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>** If notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that operation.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As further discussed below, this proposed rule builds upon the previously issued SDs that many of the affected owner/operators have endeavored to implement. All the requirements in the SDs discussed in section II.B.1 of this NPRM have been carried over into the proposed rule, either in full or with minor alteration. New requirements include cybersecurity incident reporting for the OTRB industry; specific requirements for governance of the owner/operators' CRM programs; supply chain risk management requirements addressed as part of the COIP; and cybersecurity training. TSA is also proposing to include physical security requirements for the covered pipeline industry, but these provisions are not considered part of the CRM program. A summary of key updates is listed below, and a more comprehensive presentation can be found in Appendix A of the Regulatory Impact Analysis available in the docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Evaluation (§§ 1580.305, 1582.205, and 1586.205)—The proposed requirements for a Cybersecurity Evaluation modify the assessments required by the SD Pipeline 2021-01, SD 1580-21-01, and SD 1582-21-01 series by making the requirement more comprehensive, including the development of an enterprise-wide cybersecurity profile that as set forth in the proposed rule must be updated annually. As discussed in section III.D.1, this type of evaluation is consistent with the NIST CSF. The process to develop this profile is substantively similar to the requirements laid out in the applicable SDs. This requirement also addresses certain requirements in the 9/11 Act related to vulnerability assessments.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (COIP) (§§ 1580.303, 1582.203, and 1586.203)—The proposed requirements for a COIP build on the requirement in the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series, which required covered owner/operators to develop a CIP. This requirement also addresses certain requirements in the 9/11 Act related to developing a security plan to address vulnerabilities and ensure security of certain IT and OT systems. The additional requirements in the proposed rule for the COIP are consistent with the transition from the temporary purpose of the SDs' requirements to establishing a permanent, robust, and mature CRM program. The new proposed COIP requirements include requiring owner/operators to have a POAM, which supports prioritization and timely implementation of CRM requirements and involves owner/operators developing a plan to address any shortfalls in being able to meet the requirements of the COIP.</P>
                    <P>• Governance (§§ 1580.309, 1582.209, and 1586.209)—Consistent with TSA's intent to align the requirements in the rulemaking with the NIST CSF, TSA is proposing additional structure around the governance of the CRM program that was not included in the SDs. Establishing strong governance is critical of a viable and mature CRM program because having processes and identifying roles creates a more effective and efficient operation that considers cybersecurity and protects organizational goals. The “governance” requirements include designation of the accountable executive as well as those with cybersecurity responsibilities to have a single leader (by role/position/title) that will act as the person responsible and accountable for planning, resourcing, and execution of cybersecurity activities.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Cybersecurity Coordinator (§§ 1580.311, 1582.211, and 1586.211)—TSA is proposing to incorporate the requirements to designate a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88529"/>
                        Cybersecurity Coordinator first imposed in the SD Pipeline 2021-01, SD 1580-21-01, and SD 1582-21-01 series with a few changes that detail the knowledge and skills of the Cybersecurity Coordinator. Such areas include general cybersecurity guidance and best practices; relevant law and regulations pertaining to cybersecurity; handling of SSI and security-related communications; current cybersecurity threats applicable to the owner/operator's operations and systems as well as having a HSIN account or other TSA-designated communication platform for information sharing. The Cybersecurity Coordinator information must also be added to the owner/operator's COIP. This requirement also addresses certain requirements in the9/11 Act related to security coordinators, as well as recognizing the distinction between physical security and cybersecurity and the possibility that larger organizations may need to have different individuals handling these responsibilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>• Identification of Critical Cyber Systems (§§ 1580.313, 1582.211, and 1586.211)—The proposed rule incorporates the requirement to identify Critical Cyber Systems first imposed in the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series that are substantively the same but contain clarifying language modifications with regards to the specifics of what is involved in the identification process. This requirement also addresses certain requirements in the 9/11 Act related to identification of critical assets and infrastructure.</P>
                    <P>• Supply Chain Risk Management (§§ 1580.315, 1582.215, and 1586.215)—TSA is proposing a new requirement, supply chain risk management, which is not in the SDs to align the CRM program requirements with CISA's CPGs. Under this requirement, the owner/operator must incorporate policies, procedures, and capabilities to address supply chain cyber vulnerabilities into their COIP.</P>
                    <P>• Protection of Critical Cyber Systems (§§ 1580.317, 1582,217, and 1586.217)—These proposed requirements incorporate requirements from the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series involving measures to provide network segmentation, access control, as well as patching and software updates and adds a discussion on procedures related to logging. TSA is not changing the substance but proposing to organize the requirements from the SDs to align with the NIST CSF. This requirement also helps address the 9/11 Act's requirements related to protection of certain IT and OT systems.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Training (§§ 1580.319, 1582.219, and 1586.219)—TSA is proposing a new requirement for cybersecurity training, for basic users as well as role-based cybersecurity training for privileged users. As discussed in Section III. D.2.d., this proposed requirement is consistent with recommendations in CISA's CPGS. This requirement also addresses portions of the 9/11 Act requirements related to requiring security training for certain employees.</P>
                    <P>• Detection of Cybersecurity Incidents (§§ 1580.321, 1582.321, and 1586.321)—TSA is proposing to include requirements from the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series that address detection and monitoring of Critical Cyber Systems. TSA is not changing the substance but proposing to organize the requirements from the SDs to align with the NIST CSF. This proposed requirement also helps address 9/11 Act requirements related to plans to respond to a terrorist attack, which would include a cybersecurity incident caused by a threat actor.</P>
                    <P>• Capabilities to Respond to a Cybersecurity Incident (§§ 1580.323, 1582.223, and 1586.223)—This proposed requirement is included in the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series and involves auditing of unauthorized access to internet domains and communication between OT systems and external systems. TSA is not changing the substance but proposing to organize the requirements from the SDs to align with the NIST CSF. This proposed requirement also helps address 9/11 Act requirements related to plans to respond to a terrorist attack, which would include a cybersecurity incident caused by a threat actor.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Incident Reporting (§§ 1580.325, 1582.225, 1584.107, and 1586.225)—The proposed rule incorporates the requirement to report cybersecurity incidents first imposed in the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series with no changes.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP) (§§ 1580.327, 1582.227, and 1586.227)—The proposed requirement for a CIRP is incorporated from the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580-21-01, and SD 1582-21-01 series. This proposed requirement involves having a plan to respond to cybersecurity incidents. The plan must include exercises. The CIRP requirements in the proposed rule are substantively the same as in the SDs with some language changes. This proposed requirement also helps address 9/11 Act requirements related to plans to respond to a terrorist attack, which would include a cybersecurity incident caused by a threat actor.</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP) (§§ 1580.329, 1582.229, and 1586.229)—This proposed requirement is incorporated from the SD Pipeline-2021-02 and SD 1580/82-2022-01 series with no substantive changes and involves a robust assessment plan that tests the effectiveness of the COIP. As laid out in the applicable SDs, consistent with the NIST CSF, the proposed requirements include providing an annual report of assessment findings to TSA and corporate leadership, which feeds into the iterative cycle of assessments, planning, implementation, testing, and revisions to plans, that is critical to having a meaningful CRM program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Compliance Deadlines and Documentation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Table 7 identifies compliance deadlines and the type of documentation required to meet compliance requirements.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88530"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50,r100,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 7—Compliance Deadlines and Documentation</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Requirement</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Record mechanism</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Deadlines</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Source</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Amendment required for substantive changes</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cybersecurity Evaluation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Owner/operator holds for inspection</ENT>
                            <ENT>Completed no later than 90 days after effective date of final rule or 45 days before commencing new or modified operations (but no more than one year before date of submission of COIP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.305(b), 1582.205(b), and 1586.205(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Must notify TSA within 7 days of completion</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.305(d), 1582.205(d), and 1586.205(d)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Annual updates required.</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.305(c), 1582.205(c), and 1586.205(c)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Submitted to TSA for review and approval</ENT>
                            <ENT>No later than 180 days after effective date of final rule or 45 days before commencing new or modified operations</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.307(e),1582.207(e), and 1586.207(e)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">See</E>
                                 below for individual requirements.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Must be reviewed and updated within 60 days of completed Cybersecurity Evaluation or CAP Report</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.307(f), 1582.207(f), and 1586.207(f)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Identification of accountable executive and individuals/vendors with cybersecurity responsibilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Notification to TSA within 30 days of effective date of final rule and within 7 days of changes to previously submitted information</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.309(a), 1582.209(a), and 1586.209(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No; but notification to TSA if changed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Designation of Cybersecurity Coordinator</ENT>
                            <ENT>Notification to TSA; information included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Notification to TSA within 7 days of effective date of final rule (if not previously provided) and within 7 days of changes to previously submitted information that occur after that date</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.313(d), 1582.213(d), and 1586.213(d)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No; but notification to TSA if changed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Identification of Critical Cyber Systems and Network Architecture </ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP submission</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Supply Chain Risk Management</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP submission</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Description of how protective security outcomes are met</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP submission</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Cybersecurity training</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Initial training within 60 days of approval of COIP or 10 days of onboarding</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.319(d), 1582.219(d), and 1586.219(d)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88531"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Annual training 1 year from employee's last training</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.319(e), 1582.219(e), and 1586.210(e)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Description of how detection and monitoring security outcomes are met</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Cybersecurity Incident Reporting</ENT>
                            <ENT>Notification to CISA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Within 24 hours of identification</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.325(a), 1582.225(a), and 1584.107(a), and 1586.225(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Description of how response security outcomes are met</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">CIRP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP, but notification within 15 days if CIRP previously submitted as part of COIP is modified</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.329(f), 1580.229(f), and 1586.229(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No; but notification to TSA if changed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">POAM</ENT>
                            <ENT>Included in COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>No separate deadline from COIP (target dates cannot extend beyond three years from date of submission of COIP for TSA approval)</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>Yes.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CAP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Submitted to TSA for review and approval</ENT>
                            <ENT>No later than 90 days from approval of COIP</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.329(a), 1582.229(a), and 1586.229(a)</ENT>
                            <ENT>No.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Report submitted 15 months from TSA approval of CAP and annually thereafter</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.329(e), 1582.229(e), and 1586.229(e)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Annual update to CAP, submitted no later than 12 months from date of last TSA-approval of CAP</ENT>
                            <ENT>1580.329(f), 1582.229(f), and 1586.229(f)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Sensitive Security Information</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Scope of the Revision to TSA's SSI Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                    <P>TSA is proposing minor changes to 49 CFR part 1520. These revisions consist of two types of modifications. First, revisions ensure the scope of existing designations of SSI for SDs and information circulars includes the section that would be added through this rulemaking as applicable to surface transportation. Second, TSA identified several areas where the SSI regulations explicitly referencing aviation and maritime should be revised to include surface transportation because similar requirements for surface transportation did not exist when the SSI regulations were promulgated. This proposed rule would address that gap.</P>
                    <P>
                        Note that any security program, security plan, or contingency plan required by 49 CFR subchapter D and vulnerability assessments required by, or submitted to TSA, are designated as SSI under current § 1520.5(b)(1) and (5), respectively. These requirements remain subject to SSI protection except as otherwise provided in writing by TSA in the interest of public safety or in furtherance of transportation security.
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1520.5(c) for TSA determinations that information no longer constitutes SSI.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Disclosure of SSI Upon the “Need To Know”</HD>
                    <P>Each owner/operator subject to the requirements in this proposed rule is a covered person under 49 CFR 1520.7(n) and is, therefore, required to protect SSI from unauthorized disclosure. TSA's SSI requirements do not prohibit owner/operators from sharing SSI with specific vendors that have a “need to know.” Determining whether information can be shared is a two-step consideration. First, is the individual a “covered person” under 49 CFR 1520.7. Under § 1520.7(k), employees and contractors of an owner/operator are “covered persons.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 1520.9 requires all covered persons to protect SSI from unauthorized disclosure. Before sharing information with any person employed by, contracted to, or acting for a covered person, § 1520.9(a)(2) requires the owner/operator to determine that the individual has a need to know the information or record designated as SSI, as described in § 1520.11. If the person has a need to know and the information is shared, that individual is a covered person who is required to protect SSI 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88532"/>
                        from unauthorized disclosure.
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When providing the SSI, the owner/operators must include the SSI protection requirements and ensure the covered person is formally advised of their regulatory requirements to protect the information. The materials provided must maintain their SSI markings and be accompanied with an SSI cover sheet, and SSI must be properly disposed of in accordance with TSA regulations.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1520.7(j), 1520.7(k) and 1520.9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 CFR 1520.9, 1520.13, and 1520.19 for specific restrictions related to restrictions on disclosure, marking, and destruction of SSI, respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Unauthorized disclosure of SSI, by owner/operators or their vendors, is grounds for enforcement action by TSA, including civil penalty actions, under § 1520.17. To support compliance with these requirements, TSA provides resources to regulated entities and other person on proper handling of SSI.
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SSI Best Practices Guide for Non-DHS Employees or contact TSA at (571) 227-3513 or 
                            <E T="03">SSI@tsa.dhs.gov.</E>
                             Additional resources are available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/for-industry/sensitive-security-information</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Economic Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Summary of Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        Changes to federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, E.O. 12866 of September 30, 1993 (Regulatory Planning and Review),
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as supplemented by E.O. 13563 of January 18, 2011 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review),
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and amended by E.O. 14094 of April 6, 2023 (Modernizing Regulatory Review) 
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         directs Federal agencies to propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) 
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires agencies to consider the economic impact of regulatory changes on small entities. Third, the Trade Agreement Act of 1979 
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         prohibits agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Fourth, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) 
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rulemakings that include a federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, Local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more annually ($177 million adjusted for inflation).
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             Published at 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             Published at 76 FR 3821 (Jan. 21, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             Published at 88 FR 21879 (Apr. 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             Public Law 96-354. 94 Stat. 1164 (Sept. 19, 1980), as codified at 5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             Public Law 96-39, 93 Stat. 144 (July 26, 1979), as codified at 19 U.S.C. 2531-2533.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             Public Law 104-4, 109 Stat. 66 (Mar. 22, 1995), as codified at 2 U.S.C. 1181-1538.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             $100 million in 1995 dollars adjusted for inflation to 2022 using the GDP implicit price deflator for the U.S. economy. Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis. “GDP Implicit Price Deflator in United States.” Available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/USAGDPDEFAISMEI#0</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 30, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The security of the nation's transportation systems is vital to the economic health and security of the United States. Surface transportation systems in particular—including public transportation systems, intercity and commuter passenger railroads, freight railroads, intercity buses, hazardous liquid and liquefied natural gas pipelines as well as natural gas pipelines, and related infrastructure—are vital to our economy and essential to national security.
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             Surface Transportation and Rail Security Act of 2007, Report of the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation, S. Rep. No. 110-29, at 2 (quoting Exec. Order No. 13416 (Dec. 5, 2006), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CRPT-110srpt29/html/CRPT-110srpt29.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As discussed previously in this preamble, threat actors have demonstrated their willingness to engage in cyber intrusions and perpetrate cybersecurity incidents against critical infrastructure. As technology evolves, so do cybersecurity threats. A successful attack could result in significant negative consequences with potential cascading impacts across many sectors of the economy and people's lives.</P>
                    <P>
                        Transportation companies have competing priorities with finite resources in which to confront the complexity of building a cybersecurity defense. At the same time, there is a level of uncertainty associated with being impacted by cybersecurity incidents. These competing priorities and level of uncertainty leads to a less than socially optimal level of cybersecurity investment.
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If entities are required to implement the same requirements, there could be fewer free riders or undercutting of cybersecurity investment in favor of profits or due to budgetary constraints. As noted in the National Cybersecurity Strategy,
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Cybersecurity</E>
                             trends: Looking over the horizon (Mar. 10, 2022), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.mckinsey.com/capabilities/risk-and-resilience/our-insights/cybersecurity/cybersecurity-trends-looking-over-the-horizon</E>
                             (last accessed July 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            Today's marketplace insufficiently rewards—and often disadvantages—the owners and operators of critical infrastructure who invest in proactive measures to prevent or mitigate the effects of cybersecurity incidents. Regulation can level the playing field, enabling healthy competition without sacrificing cybersecurity or operational resilience.
                            <SU>226</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                        </P>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>226</SU>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Supra</E>
                                 note 12 at 8-9.
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>Ensuring transportation security while promoting the movement of legitimate travelers and commerce is a critical mission assigned to TSA. TSA believes this proposed rule is consistent with its mission given the heightened risk of a cybersecurity threat and the potential of threat actors targeting the transportation system with the purpose to disrupt the supply chain, jeopardize public safety, undermine confidence in the transportation system, and otherwise affect national and economic security.</P>
                    <P>The primary benefit of this proposed rule is a potential reduction in the risk of successful cybersecurity incidents as well as the impact of such incidents on the public, economy, and national security. The proposed requirements could enhance the security of the regulated population, which would reduce the chance of negative consequences and service interruptions from cybersecurity incidents for surface modes like freight railroad, passenger railroad, and pipelines, thereby benefiting owners/operators, passengers, and consumers. A break-even analysis suggests that the prevention of a few significant cybersecurity incidents or a high-consequence incident in any transportation mode provides benefits in excess to the costs of the proposed rule on those modes.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA estimates the preliminary 10-year total costs of the proposed rule to be about $2.6 billion discounted at a 3 percent discount rate and $2.2 billion discounted at 7 percent discount rate, with preliminary annualized costs of about $307.8 million. These preliminary estimates do not consider current industry practice or compliance with recently issued SDs due of a lack of data on the existing internal security practices of individual companies. As a result, many owner/operators may already employ measures that meet the security outcomes that would be required by this proposed rule and therefore have already incurred costs, which means the cost estimate of this proposed rule could be an overestimate when measured against a no-action baseline. Furthermore, costs of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88533"/>
                        implementing measures to meet the proposed security outcomes may vary greatly across modes and by each owner/operator's unique needs and scale of operation. Consequently, TSA is requesting public comment on current cybersecurity industry practices and how these practices may vary by company. TSA will consider these public comments and any data provided when estimating the cost of the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Assessments Required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563</HD>
                    <P>
                        E.O.s 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Under E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094, agencies must also determine whether a regulatory action is significant.
                        <SU>227</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These requirements were supplemented by E.O. 13563, which emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. In accordance with E.O. 12866, TSA has submitted the proposal to the OMB, which has determined that this proposed rule is a “significant regulatory action” as defined under section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094, its annual effects on the economy would exceed $200 million in any year of the analysis. In conducting these analyses:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section 1(b) of E.O. 14094, revising section 3(f) of E.O. 12866: “Significant regulatory action” means any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) have an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more (adjusted every 3 years by the Administrator of OIRA for changes in gross domestic product); or adversely affects in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, Local, Territorial, or Tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raises legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities or the principles set forth in this Executive order, as specifically authorized in a timely manner by the Administrator of OIRA in each case.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• TSA prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), which estimates that this rulemaking would likely have a regulatory cost that exceeds one percent of revenue for 26 small entities—17 freight rail and nine pipeline owner/operators—of the 103 small entities that TSA found would be impacted by the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>• This rulemaking would not constitute a barrier to international trade.</P>
                    <P>• Under 2 U.S.C. 1503(5), this rulemaking is not subject to UMRA review because it is a regulation necessary for the national security of the United States. As noted in the National Cybersecurity Strategy, this rulemaking is being promulgated because of national security concerns related to the protection of Critical Cyber Systems, the loss or disruption of which could have impacts on national security, including economic security.</P>
                    <P>TSA has prepared an analysis of its estimated costs and benefits, summarized in the following paragraphs, and in the OMB Circular A-4 Accounting Statement. When estimating the cost of a rulemaking, agencies typically estimate future expected costs imposed by a regulation over a period of analysis. For this rulemaking's period of analysis, TSA uses a 10-year period of analysis to estimate the initial and recurring costs to the regulated surface mode owner/operators and new owner/operators that are expected due to industry growth.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA summarizes the undiscounted costs of the proposed rule to be borne by five types of parties: freight rail owner/operators, PTPR owner/operators, OTRB owner/operators, pipeline owner/operators, and TSA. Table 8 shows the breakdown of modal entity populations over the 10-year period of analysis. The population of each industry is important because it acts as a cost multiplier for some of the proposed rule's provisions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         employee training). The population estimates accounts for entity growth, employee growth, and employee turnover dynamics over the period of analysis, which impact the population estimate as well as factor into various costs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         identification of new cybersecurity coordinators with entity growth or employee turnover). It includes entity growth, employee growth, and employee turnover.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="11" OPTS="L2(,0),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,10,10,8,10,10,8,10,8,10,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 8—Population Growth and Turnover for Modal Entities</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Freight rail</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Entities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Employees</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Turnover</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">PTPR</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Entities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Employees</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Turnover</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">OTRB</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Entities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Pipelines</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Entities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Employees</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Growth</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Turnover</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                a = (a
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                −6) ×  (1 + 0.85%) ^ (Y
                                <E T="52">n</E>
                                −1) + 6
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                b = b
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                 × 
                                <LI>(1 + 0.42%) ^</LI>
                                <LI>
                                    (Y
                                    <E T="52">n</E>
                                     − 1)
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>c = b × 4.00%</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                d = d
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                 × 
                                <LI>
                                    (1 + 2.19%) ^ (Y
                                    <E T="52">n</E>
                                    −1)
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                e = e
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                 × (1 + 1.11%) ^ (Y
                                <E T="52">n</E>
                                −1)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>f = e × 12.96%</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                g = g
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                 × (1 + 2.50%) ^ (Y
                                <E T="52">n</E>
                                −1)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>h</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                i = i
                                <E T="52">Y1</E>
                                 × (1 + 0.62%) ^ (Y
                                <E T="52">n</E>
                                −1)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>j = i × 13.67%</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>116,960</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>299,680</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>71</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>39,920</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>117,451</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,698</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>303,006</ENT>
                            <ENT>39,270</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,168</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,491</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>117,945</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,718</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>306,370</ENT>
                            <ENT>39,706</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,417</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,525</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,440</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,738</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>309,771</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,146</ENT>
                            <ENT>76</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,667</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,559</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,937</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,757</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>313,209</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,592</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,919</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,594</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>76</ENT>
                            <ENT>119,437</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,777</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>316,686</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,042</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,173</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,628</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>76</ENT>
                            <ENT>119,939</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,798</ENT>
                            <ENT>39</ENT>
                            <ENT>320,201</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,498</ENT>
                            <ENT>82</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,428</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,663</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>77</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,442</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,818</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>323,755</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>84</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,685</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,698</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,948</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,838</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>327,349</ENT>
                            <ENT>42,424</ENT>
                            <ENT>87</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,944</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,734</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,456</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,858</ENT>
                            <ENT>41</ENT>
                            <ENT>330,982</ENT>
                            <ENT>42,895</ENT>
                            <ENT>89</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>42,204</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,769</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 9 shows the 10-year cost by regulated industry. This information includes industry's costs associated with implementing the proposed requirements. Many of the costs are based on the time to complete identified actions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         submitting accountable executive information). In these instances, TSA calculates an opportunity cost based on the time to complete the task, approximate wage rate of the person thought to complete 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88534"/>
                        the task, and how frequently the task would need to be completed. Other costs are based on expenses incurred (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         cost to store backup data). In both cases, these costs may change over time with a higher initial cost then lower maintenance cost later. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TSA CRM Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) for a more detailed discussion and breakdown of the costs.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,15,15,15,15,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 9—Total Undiscounted Cost of the Proposed Rule by Regulated Industry</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Cost by regulated industry</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Freight rail</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PTPR</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OTRB</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Pipelines</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total regulated
                                <LI>industries cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e = a + b + c + d</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$97,652</ENT>
                            <ENT>$119,996</ENT>
                            <ENT>$188</ENT>
                            <ENT>$85,636</ENT>
                            <ENT>$303,473</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,471</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,633</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,122</ENT>
                            <ENT>297,233</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,622</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,508</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,132</ENT>
                            <ENT>295,268</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,003</ENT>
                            <ENT>123,883</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,232</ENT>
                            <ENT>303,124</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,187</ENT>
                            <ENT>124,814</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>80,265</ENT>
                            <ENT>301,273</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>98,675</ENT>
                            <ENT>127,289</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,509</ENT>
                            <ENT>309,479</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,885</ENT>
                            <ENT>128,279</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,565</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,736</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>100,405</ENT>
                            <ENT>130,821</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>84,833</ENT>
                            <ENT>316,065</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>99,648</ENT>
                            <ENT>131,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,914</ENT>
                            <ENT>314,442</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>102,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>134,484</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>86,207</ENT>
                            <ENT>322,899</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>979,750</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,263,581</ENT>
                            <ENT>248</ENT>
                            <ENT>827,415</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,070,993</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As displayed in Table 10, TSA estimates the 10-year total cost of this proposed rule to be $3.09 billion undiscounted, $2.63 billion discounted at 3 percent, and $2.16 billion discounted at 7 percent. The costs to industry (all four surface modes) comprise approximately 99 percent of the total costs of the proposed rule; and the remaining costs are incurred by TSA. TSA calculated a total cost to each industry based on estimates and assumptions on activities entities would likely engage in to be in compliance with the requirements of the proposed rule. However, due to the scope and performance-based nature of the requirements, TSA recognizes there would be variation in costs to individual covered owner/operators. In response, TSA provides a sensitivity analysis of key cost drivers in section 3.8 of the RIA, which include access control implementation, Critical Cyber System data backups, and cybersecurity training. In addition, there are some areas where there may be unquantified cost. For example, costs related to actual mitigation measures implemented as a result of the proposed rule that are not otherwise captured in TSA's cost estimates. TSA requests comment on any costs that have not been quantified but may occur as a result of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 10—Total Cost of the Proposed Rule</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total regulated industries cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">TSA cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total proposed rule cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 3%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 7%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a (Table 8)</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c = a + b</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$303,473</ENT>
                            <ENT>$4,426</ENT>
                            <ENT>$307,899</ENT>
                            <ENT>$298,932</ENT>
                            <ENT>$287,757</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>297,233</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,408</ENT>
                            <ENT>299,641</ENT>
                            <ENT>282,440</ENT>
                            <ENT>261,718</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>295,268</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,412</ENT>
                            <ENT>297,681</ENT>
                            <ENT>272,420</ENT>
                            <ENT>242,996</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>303,124</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,358</ENT>
                            <ENT>304,482</ENT>
                            <ENT>270,529</ENT>
                            <ENT>232,288</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>301,273</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,363</ENT>
                            <ENT>302,636</ENT>
                            <ENT>261,056</ENT>
                            <ENT>215,775</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>309,479</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,368</ENT>
                            <ENT>310,847</ENT>
                            <ENT>260,329</ENT>
                            <ENT>207,130</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,736</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,372</ENT>
                            <ENT>309,109</ENT>
                            <ENT>251,334</ENT>
                            <ENT>192,497</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>316,065</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,377</ENT>
                            <ENT>317,443</ENT>
                            <ENT>250,592</ENT>
                            <ENT>184,755</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>314,442</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,382</ENT>
                            <ENT>315,825</ENT>
                            <ENT>242,053</ENT>
                            <ENT>171,788</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>322,899</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,387</ENT>
                            <ENT>324,286</ENT>
                            <ENT>241,299</ENT>
                            <ENT>164,851</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,070,993</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,854</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,089,847</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,630,984</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,161,554</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>308,432</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,757</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 11 shows the 10-year costs for the CRM program for the freight rail, PTPR, pipelines, and TSA. TSA estimates the 10-year total cost of the CRM program to be $3.00 billion undiscounted, $2.55 billion discounted at 3 percent, and $2.10 billion discounted at 7 percent. The CRM program is the largest cost provision. These costs include the cybersecurity evaluation (CSE) (which involves an enterprise-wide CSE); the COIP (which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88535"/>
                        includes items related to the Cybersecurity Coordinator, identification of critical cyber systems, supply chain risk management, protection of critical cyber systems, incident response, training, detection of incidents, and the POAM); the CAP (which involves creating and submitting a plan that assesses the effectiveness of the COIP); and recordkeeping and compliance (which relates to those items needed to show compliance with provisions of the proposed rule).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,15,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 11—Total Cost of the CRM Program</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CSE</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">a</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">COIP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">b</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CAP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">c</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Recordkeeping and compliance</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">d</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost of the CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">e = ∑a,b,c,d</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 3%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 7%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,381</ENT>
                            <ENT>$290,796</ENT>
                            <ENT>$3,175</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,005</ENT>
                            <ENT>$296,357</ENT>
                            <ENT>$287,726</ENT>
                            <ENT>$276,970</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,386</ENT>
                            <ENT>280,519</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,212</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,009</ENT>
                            <ENT>291,126</ENT>
                            <ENT>274,414</ENT>
                            <ENT>254,281</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,390</ENT>
                            <ENT>283,494</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,242</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,013</ENT>
                            <ENT>289,139</ENT>
                            <ENT>264,604</ENT>
                            <ENT>236,024</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,395</ENT>
                            <ENT>285,223</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,280</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,017</ENT>
                            <ENT>295,915</ENT>
                            <ENT>262,917</ENT>
                            <ENT>225,752</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,400</ENT>
                            <ENT>288,308</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,312</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,022</ENT>
                            <ENT>294,041</ENT>
                            <ENT>253,642</ENT>
                            <ENT>209,647</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,404</ENT>
                            <ENT>291,443</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,351</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,026</ENT>
                            <ENT>302,224</ENT>
                            <ENT>253,108</ENT>
                            <ENT>201,385</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,409</ENT>
                            <ENT>294,636</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,383</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,030</ENT>
                            <ENT>300,458</ENT>
                            <ENT>244,300</ENT>
                            <ENT>187,110</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,414</ENT>
                            <ENT>297,892</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,423</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,035</ENT>
                            <ENT>308,764</ENT>
                            <ENT>243,741</ENT>
                            <ENT>179,703</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,419</ENT>
                            <ENT>301,202</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,457</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,039</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,117</ENT>
                            <ENT>235,380</ENT>
                            <ENT>167,051</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,424</ENT>
                            <ENT>304,583</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,498</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,043</ENT>
                            <ENT>315,549</ENT>
                            <ENT>234,798</ENT>
                            <ENT>160,409</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,023</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,918,095</ENT>
                            <ENT>58,333</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,240</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,000,691</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,554,629</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,098,332</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>299,480</ENT>
                            <ENT>298,755</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 12 shows the 10-year costs by requirement for the freight rail industry. TSA estimates the 10-year costs to the freight rail industry to be $980 million undiscounted.
                        <SU>228</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             Costs include those related to a Cybersecurity Coordinator, reporting cybersecurity incidents, creating a CRM program (which includes the CSE, COIP, Accountable Executive, CIRP, CAP, and training), familiarization, and the costs of compliance and recordkeeping.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,12,12,15,12,12,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 12—Requirement Costs—Freight Rail</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Familiarization</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CSE</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">COIP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CAP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Record-keeping and compliance</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reporting
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CIRP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g</ENT>
                            <ENT>h = ∑a,b,c,d,e,f,g</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$242</ENT>
                            <ENT>$233</ENT>
                            <ENT>$94,081</ENT>
                            <ENT>$855</ENT>
                            <ENT>$276</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,963</ENT>
                            <ENT>$97,652</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>235</ENT>
                            <ENT>91,019</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,514</ENT>
                            <ENT>279</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,422</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,471</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>237</ENT>
                            <ENT>91,788</ENT>
                            <ENT>881</ENT>
                            <ENT>281</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,433</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,622</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>239</ENT>
                            <ENT>92,494</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,540</ENT>
                            <ENT>283</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,444</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,003</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>241</ENT>
                            <ENT>93,295</ENT>
                            <ENT>908</ENT>
                            <ENT>285</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,455</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,187</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>242</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,108</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,567</ENT>
                            <ENT>287</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,467</ENT>
                            <ENT>98,675</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>244</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,935</ENT>
                            <ENT>935</ENT>
                            <ENT>290</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,478</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,885</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>246</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,779</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,595</ENT>
                            <ENT>292</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,490</ENT>
                            <ENT>100,405</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>248</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,638</ENT>
                            <ENT>963</ENT>
                            <ENT>294</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,501</ENT>
                            <ENT>99,648</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>250</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,515</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,622</ENT>
                            <ENT>297</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,513</ENT>
                            <ENT>102,200</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>260</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,416</ENT>
                            <ENT>941,652</ENT>
                            <ENT>17,381</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,864</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>15,166</ENT>
                            <ENT>979,750</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 13 shows the 10-year cost to the PTPR industry by requirement. TSA estimates the 10-year costs to the PTPR industry to be $1.26 billion undiscounted.
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             Costs include those related to a Cybersecurity Coordinator, reporting cybersecurity incidents, creating a CRM program (which includes the CSE, COIP, Accountable Executive, CIRP, CAP, and training), familiarization, and the costs of compliance and recordkeeping.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88536"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,15,12,15,12,12,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 13—Requirement Costs—PTPR</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Familiarization</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CSE</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">COIP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CAP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Record-keeping
                                <LI>and compliance</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reporting
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CIRP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g</ENT>
                            <ENT>h = ∑a,b,c,d,e,f,g</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$55</ENT>
                            <ENT>$103</ENT>
                            <ENT>$118,493</ENT>
                            <ENT>$389</ENT>
                            <ENT>$84</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$871</ENT>
                            <ENT>$119,996</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>106</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,601</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,164</ENT>
                            <ENT>86</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>675</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,633</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>108</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,197</ENT>
                            <ENT>423</ENT>
                            <ENT>88</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>690</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,508</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>110</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,777</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,199</ENT>
                            <ENT>90</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>704</ENT>
                            <ENT>123,883</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>113</ENT>
                            <ENT>123,429</ENT>
                            <ENT>458</ENT>
                            <ENT>92</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>720</ENT>
                            <ENT>124,814</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>125,106</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,235</ENT>
                            <ENT>94</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>736</ENT>
                            <ENT>127,289</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>118</ENT>
                            <ENT>126,816</ENT>
                            <ENT>495</ENT>
                            <ENT>96</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>752</ENT>
                            <ENT>128,279</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>128,558</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,273</ENT>
                            <ENT>98</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>768</ENT>
                            <ENT>130,821</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>123</ENT>
                            <ENT>130,329</ENT>
                            <ENT>534</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>785</ENT>
                            <ENT>131,874</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>126</ENT>
                            <ENT>132,139</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,312</ENT>
                            <ENT>102</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>802</ENT>
                            <ENT>134,484</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>66</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,141</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,245,446</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,480</ENT>
                            <ENT>931</ENT>
                            <ENT>14</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,503</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,263,581</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 14 shows the 10-year cost by requirement for the OTRB industry. TSA estimates the 10-year costs to the OTRB industry to be $248 thousand undiscounted.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 14—Requirement Costs—OTRB</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Reporting cybersecurity incidents</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Familiarization</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total cost
                                <LI>(undiscounted)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>A</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>e = ∑a,b,c,d</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$187</ENT>
                            <ENT>$188</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>14</ENT>
                            <ENT>234</ENT>
                            <ENT>248</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 15 shows the 10-year cost by requirement for all the requirements for the pipeline industry. TSA is proposing to incorporate the corresponding physical security costs into this rulemaking to align pipeline with the other covered modes (for whom physical security provisions are already required). TSA estimates the 10-year costs to the combined pipeline industry to be $827 million undiscounted.
                        <SU>230</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             Costs include those related to a Physical Security Coordinator, reporting significant physical security concerns, Cybersecurity Coordinator, reporting cybersecurity incidents, creating a CRM program (which includes the CSE, COIP, Accountable Executive, CIRP, CAP, and training), familiarization, and the costs of compliance and recordkeeping.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88537"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="10" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,8,9,9,15,12,8,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 15—Requirement Costs—Pipeline</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>physical</LI>
                                <LI>security costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Familiari-
                                <LI>zation</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CSE</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">COIP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CAP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Record-keeping
                                <LI>and compliance</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reporting
                                <LI>cyber-</LI>
                                <LI>security</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CIRP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total cost
                                <LI>(undiscounted)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g</ENT>
                            <ENT>h</ENT>
                            <ENT>i = ∑a, b,c,d,e,f,g,h</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$37</ENT>
                            <ENT>$912</ENT>
                            <ENT>$973</ENT>
                            <ENT>$74,786</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>$645</ENT>
                            <ENT>$38</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,886</ENT>
                            <ENT>$85,636</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>69,415</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,122</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>70,024</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,132</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>70,525</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,232</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,157</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>80,265</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,801</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,509</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>72,457</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,565</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>73,125</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>84,833</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>73,806</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,914</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>973</ENT>
                            <ENT>74,500</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,959</ENT>
                            <ENT>645</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,072</ENT>
                            <ENT>86,207</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>230</ENT>
                            <ENT>912</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,731</ENT>
                            <ENT>721,596</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,590</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,446</ENT>
                            <ENT>378</ENT>
                            <ENT>61,531</ENT>
                            <ENT>827,415</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 16 shows the 10-year cost by requirement for TSA. TSA estimates the 10-year costs to TSA to be $18.9 million undiscounted.
                        <SU>231</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             Costs include those related to a Physical Security Coordinator, reporting significant physical security concerns, Cybersecurity Coordinator, and the CRM program (which includes the CSE, COIP, Accountable Executive, CIRP, CAP, and training). The TSA burden would be for reviewing the CRM programs, keeping track of key personnel, and ensuring compliance with the program. TSA will incur ongoing costs with the implementation of this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 16—Requirement Costs—TSA</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Physical
                                <LI>security</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CRM program</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CSE</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">COIP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">CAP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">CIRP</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Undiscounted</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e</ENT>
                            <ENT>f = ∑a,b,c,d,e</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$75</ENT>
                            <ENT>$72</ENT>
                            <ENT>$3,436</ENT>
                            <ENT>$572</ENT>
                            <ENT>$272</ENT>
                            <ENT>$4,426</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>72</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,484</ENT>
                            <ENT>576</ENT>
                            <ENT>201</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,408</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>72</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,485</ENT>
                            <ENT>579</ENT>
                            <ENT>201</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,412</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>427</ENT>
                            <ENT>582</ENT>
                            <ENT>201</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,358</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>427</ENT>
                            <ENT>586</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,363</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>428</ENT>
                            <ENT>590</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,368</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>428</ENT>
                            <ENT>593</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,372</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>429</ENT>
                            <ENT>597</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,377</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>429</ENT>
                            <ENT>601</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,382</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                            <ENT>76</ENT>
                            <ENT>430</ENT>
                            <ENT>605</ENT>
                            <ENT>202</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,387</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>750</ENT>
                            <ENT>735</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,401</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,881</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,088</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,854</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Cost Sensitivity Analysis</HD>
                    <P>TSA calculates a total cost for each industry based on estimates and assumptions on activities entities would likely engage in to satisfy requirements of the proposed rule. The majority of the costs are primarily driven by access control implementation, Critical Cyber System data backups, and cybersecurity training. Employee population size, which acts as a multiplication factor, is a key contributing factor for why access control and training result in such a high-cost impact. Baseline training, for instance, has a per employee burden of 1-hour per year, but when multiplied across the population of employees covered, the result is a significant expenditure. In section 3.8 of the RIA, TSA provides a sensitivity analysis that assesses uncertainty within these key cost drivers including how owner/operators may accomplish compliance and to what extent they may already meet the proposed rule requirements through existing actions and thus provide a sense of the possible practical incremental costs of the proposed rule. None of the cost drivers tested under the sensitivity analysis apply to OTRB entities; therefore, TSA did not include OTRB in the sensitivity analysis.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, TSA evaluates cost implications associated with differing assumptions related to MFA being used for access control where 25 percent are assumed to be fully implemented and an additional 25 percent are partially implemented by affected entities, rather than not implemented at all in any affected entities. For Critical Cyber System data backups, TSA assumes 20 percent of entities would fully satisfy the proposed rule's requirement and 50 percent would partially satisfy the proposed rule's requirement. For the last cost driver evaluated, employee training, TSA varies assumed compliance with the necessary level of training from 0 percent across industry in the primary analysis to including 20 percent fully compliant and 50 percent partially compliant. The costs resulting from varying these cost driver assumptions for each mode are depicted below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Table 17 presents freight rail sensitivity analysis costs and compares them to the freight rail costs in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88538"/>
                        primary analysis. Based on the sensitivity assumptions for access control, data backups, and cybersecurity training, the estimated total cost to freight rail is about $655.5 million which is 33 percent ($342.2 million) less than freight rail estimated cost in the primary analysis.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,15,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 17—Freight Rail Sensitivity Costs</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Sensitivity analysis</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Access control</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Critical cyber
                                <LI>system</LI>
                                <LI>backups </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Cybersecurity
                                <LI>training</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                All other
                                <LI>non-cost</LI>
                                <LI>driver costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Total costs
                                <LI>under sensitivity</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total cost
                                <LI>in primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Difference
                                <LI>from primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e = a + b + c + d</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g = e−f</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$33,149</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,665</ENT>
                            <ENT>$4,259</ENT>
                            <ENT>$22,069</ENT>
                            <ENT>$66,142</ENT>
                            <ENT>$97,652</ENT>
                            <ENT>−$31,510</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,289</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,870</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,981</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,989</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,128</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,471</ENT>
                            <ENT>−31,343</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,428</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,081</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,998</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,492</ENT>
                            <ENT>62,999</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,622</ENT>
                            <ENT>−31,624</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,569</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,299</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,015</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,210</ENT>
                            <ENT>65,092</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,003</ENT>
                            <ENT>−31,910</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,710</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,524</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,032</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,718</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,984</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,187</ENT>
                            <ENT>−32,204</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,851</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,756</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,049</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,516</ENT>
                            <ENT>66,172</ENT>
                            <ENT>98,675</ENT>
                            <ENT>−32,503</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,993</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,995</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,066</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,023</ENT>
                            <ENT>65,078</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,885</ENT>
                            <ENT>−32,808</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,136</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,242</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,083</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,825</ENT>
                            <ENT>67,286</ENT>
                            <ENT>100,405</ENT>
                            <ENT>−33,120</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,280</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,495</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,100</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,335</ENT>
                            <ENT>66,210</ENT>
                            <ENT>99,648</ENT>
                            <ENT>−33,438</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,424</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,758</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,117</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,139</ENT>
                            <ENT>68,437</ENT>
                            <ENT>102,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>−33,763</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>337,829</ENT>
                            <ENT>76,684</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,701</ENT>
                            <ENT>200,314</ENT>
                            <ENT>655,528</ENT>
                            <ENT>979,750</ENT>
                            <ENT>−324,221</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 18 presents PTPR sensitivity analysis costs and compares them to the PTPR costs in the primary analysis. Based on the sensitivity assumptions, the total cost under the sensitivity is $783.4 million which is about 38 percent ($480.2 million) less than the total cost under the primary analysis. This larger percentage decrease from the primary analysis when compared to the freight rail and pipeline modes is attributed to the larger employee population within the PTPR industry. As the access control and cybersecurity training costs are calculated on a per employee basis, these requirements make up a greater portion of the overall cost to the PTPR industry, and therefore result in a more significant cost difference within the sensitivity analysis.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,15,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 18—PTPR Sensitivity Cost</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Sensitivity analysis</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Access control</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Critical cyber
                                <LI>system</LI>
                                <LI>backups </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Cybersecurity
                                <LI>training</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                All other
                                <LI>non-cost</LI>
                                <LI>driver costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Total costs
                                <LI>under sensitivity</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total cost
                                <LI>in primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Difference
                                <LI>from primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e = a + b + c + d</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g = e−f</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$55,437</ENT>
                            <ENT>$3,104</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,629</ENT>
                            <ENT>$9,433</ENT>
                            <ENT>$74,603</ENT>
                            <ENT>$119,996</ENT>
                            <ENT>−$45,394</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,053</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,243</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,588</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,936</ENT>
                            <ENT>74,820</ENT>
                            <ENT>120,633</ENT>
                            <ENT>−45,813</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,675</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,391</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,661</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,368</ENT>
                            <ENT>75,095</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,508</ENT>
                            <ENT>−46,412</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>57,304</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,544</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,735</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,279</ENT>
                            <ENT>76,861</ENT>
                            <ENT>123,883</ENT>
                            <ENT>−47,021</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>57,940</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,704</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,810</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,717</ENT>
                            <ENT>77,171</ENT>
                            <ENT>124,814</ENT>
                            <ENT>−47,643</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>58,583</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,872</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,886</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,674</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,014</ENT>
                            <ENT>127,289</ENT>
                            <ENT>−48,274</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>59,233</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,047</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,962</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,119</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,361</ENT>
                            <ENT>128,279</ENT>
                            <ENT>−48,918</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>59,891</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,230</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,040</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,086</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,247</ENT>
                            <ENT>130,821</ENT>
                            <ENT>−49,574</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>60,556</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,421</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,118</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,538</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,632</ENT>
                            <ENT>131,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>−50,242</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>61,228</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,621</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,197</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,515</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,561</ENT>
                            <ENT>134,484</ENT>
                            <ENT>−50,923</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>582,900</ENT>
                            <ENT>38,176</ENT>
                            <ENT>68,626</ENT>
                            <ENT>93,664</ENT>
                            <ENT>783,367</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,263,581</ENT>
                            <ENT>−480,214</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 19 presents pipeline sensitivity analysis costs and compares them to the pipeline costs in the primary analysis. Based on the sensitivity assumptions, the total sensitivity analysis cost to pipeline entities is $621.7 million which is about 25 percent ($205.7) less than the primary analysis estimates. This smaller percentage decrease from the primary analysis when compared to the other modes is attributed to the smaller employee population within the pipeline industry.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88539"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,15,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 19—Pipeline Sensitivity Costs</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Sensitivity analysis</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Access control</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Critical cyber
                                <LI>system</LI>
                                <LI>backups </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Cybersecurity
                                <LI>training</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                All other
                                <LI>non-cost</LI>
                                <LI>driver costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Total costs
                                <LI>under sensitivity</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total cost
                                <LI>in primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Difference
                                <LI>from primary</LI>
                                <LI>analysis</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e = a + b + c + d</ENT>
                            <ENT>f</ENT>
                            <ENT>g = e−f</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$14,201</ENT>
                            <ENT>$10,494</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,902</ENT>
                            <ENT>$38,299</ENT>
                            <ENT>$64,896</ENT>
                            <ENT>$85,636</ENT>
                            <ENT>−$20,740</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,289</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,734</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,476</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,185</ENT>
                            <ENT>61,683</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,122</ENT>
                            <ENT>−19,439</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,377</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,978</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,486</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,585</ENT>
                            <ENT>59,426</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,132</ENT>
                            <ENT>−19,706</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,466</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,229</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,495</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,065</ENT>
                            <ENT>62,255</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,232</ENT>
                            <ENT>−19,977</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,556</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,485</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,504</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,465</ENT>
                            <ENT>60,011</ENT>
                            <ENT>80,265</ENT>
                            <ENT>−20,254</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,646</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,747</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,513</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,065</ENT>
                            <ENT>62,972</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,509</ENT>
                            <ENT>−20,537</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,737</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,015</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,523</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,465</ENT>
                            <ENT>60,741</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,565</ENT>
                            <ENT>−20,824</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,829</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,290</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,532</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,065</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,715</ENT>
                            <ENT>84,833</ENT>
                            <ENT>−21,117</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,920</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,570</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,542</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,465</ENT>
                            <ENT>61,498</ENT>
                            <ENT>82,914</ENT>
                            <ENT>−21,416</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>15,013</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,858</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,551</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,065</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,487</ENT>
                            <ENT>86,207</ENT>
                            <ENT>−21,720</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>146,034</ENT>
                            <ENT>116,401</ENT>
                            <ENT>15,523</ENT>
                            <ENT>343,725</ENT>
                            <ENT>621,684</ENT>
                            <ENT>827,415</ENT>
                            <ENT>−205,731</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 20 presents the total costs using the aforementioned adjusted values from the sensitivity analysis. As shown, the total costs to industry under the sensitivity analysis based on the altered assumptions for the main cost drivers are $2.1 billion. This cost includes the adjusted costs of the three industries included in the sensitivity (freight rail, PTPR, and pipeline) as well as the unadjusted, undiscounted cost to OTRB entities (see Table 9). The difference from the primary analysis presented in Table 10 is $1.0 billion (a 33 percent reduction).</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 20—Total Costs Under the Sensitivity Analysis</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>regulated</LI>
                                <LI>industries</LI>
                                <LI>sensitivity</LI>
                                <LI>analysis cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">TSA sensitivity analysis cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total proposed rule sensitivity analysis cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 3%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discounted
                                <LI>at 7%</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c = ∑a,b</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$205,829</ENT>
                            <ENT>$4,426</ENT>
                            <ENT>$210,256</ENT>
                            <ENT>$204,132</ENT>
                            <ENT>$196,501</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>200,638</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,408</ENT>
                            <ENT>203,046</ENT>
                            <ENT>191,390</ENT>
                            <ENT>177,348</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>197,527</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,412</ENT>
                            <ENT>199,939</ENT>
                            <ENT>182,972</ENT>
                            <ENT>163,210</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>204,215</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,358</ENT>
                            <ENT>205,573</ENT>
                            <ENT>182,649</ENT>
                            <ENT>156,831</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>201,172</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,363</ENT>
                            <ENT>202,535</ENT>
                            <ENT>174,709</ENT>
                            <ENT>144,405</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                            <ENT>208,165</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,368</ENT>
                            <ENT>209,533</ENT>
                            <ENT>175,481</ENT>
                            <ENT>139,621</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">7</ENT>
                            <ENT>205,186</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,372</ENT>
                            <ENT>206,559</ENT>
                            <ENT>167,951</ENT>
                            <ENT>128,634</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                            <ENT>212,254</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,377</ENT>
                            <ENT>213,632</ENT>
                            <ENT>168,643</ENT>
                            <ENT>124,336</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">9</ENT>
                            <ENT>209,347</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,382</ENT>
                            <ENT>210,729</ENT>
                            <ENT>161,506</ENT>
                            <ENT>114,623</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>216,492</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,387</ENT>
                            <ENT>217,879</ENT>
                            <ENT>162,123</ENT>
                            <ENT>110,759</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,060,827</ENT>
                            <ENT>18,854</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,079,681</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,771,556</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,456,266</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>207,968</ENT>
                            <ENT>207,680</ENT>
                            <ENT>207,340</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>TSA requests public comment on the assumptions and estimates presented in the primary cost analysis as well as those within this sensitivity both of which may be used to better inform, update, or improve the overall analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The primary benefit of the proposed rule is a potential reduction in the risk of cybersecurity incidents as well as the impact of any such incident. The CRM program could enhance cybersecurity by reducing vulnerability to cybersecurity incidents by having defense mechanisms in place that increase owner/operator ability to monitor and mitigate threats as well as strengthening response measures in the event of a cybersecurity incident. Specifically, the proposed rule would require designated owner/operators for three of the four modes to identify a Cybersecurity Coordinator and report cybersecurity incidents. Owner/operators of freight railroads, PTPR, and pipeline facilities and systems that meet the applicability criteria would also be required to develop and implement a comprehensive CRM program.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed CRM program includes three primary elements. First, covered owner/operators would be required to regularly conduct an enterprise-wide cybersecurity evaluation that would identify their current cybersecurity profile. Benefits of regular cybersecurity evaluations, such as through the rule's CSE requirement, and monitoring over time, include focusing attention on cybersecurity issues and initiatives, providing a means to assess or evaluate cyber-related threats and mitigation measures' evolution, as well as prioritizing response to address vulnerabilities effectively and informing budgeting and investments decisions for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88540"/>
                        upgrade cycles and long-term improvements.
                        <SU>232</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NIST SP 800-53, Revision 5. Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-53r5.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 25, 2024); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             NIST SP 800-37, Revision 2. Risk Management Framework for Information Systems and Organizations, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-37r2.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed July 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, owner/operators would be required to develop a COIP with requirements that focus on: (a) governance of the CRM program that helps ensure its successful implementation, relevance, and ability to address cybersecurity matters; (b) identification of critical cyber systems to help prioritize and optimize efforts; (c) protecting critical cyber systems that help minimize unnecessary network traffic, control internal network access points for users, shorten network downtime and increase reliable operational uptime, stop threats more quickly, as well as minimize the risks associated with lost data; (d) detecting and monitoring critical cyber systems to help detect incidents sooner and respond to incidents more quickly, potentially reducing the associated impacts; and (e) ensuring response and recovery to help ensure efficient and effective restoration of operational capabilities following an incident. As part of this COIP process to ensuring response and recovery, owner/operators would develop a CIRP that would require an established set of policies and procedures in place to respond to intrusions into their critical cybersecurity systems and maintenance or reconstitution of operations during an incident. Reduction in time and confusion with how they respond to future incidents provides a benefit to owner/operators, passengers/consumers, and society.</P>
                    <P>Third, owner/operators would be required to have a CAP that includes an independent evaluation of the effectiveness of their CRM program and identification of unaddressed vulnerabilities that helps establish greater accountability. Independent evaluation will ensure that the assessments, audits, testing, and other assessment capabilities would not be conducted by individuals who have oversight or responsibility for implementing the owner/operators CRM program and have no vested or other financial interest in the results.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule would also expand the requirement for having a Physical Security Coordinator (currently in 49 CFR 1570.201) and reporting significant physical security concerns (currently in 49 CFR 1570.203) to owner/operators of designated pipeline facilities and systems, which helps delineate clear communication channels by establishing a single point of contact and creates greater awareness of the various types of cybersecurity threats encountered.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule's CRM program requirements could create benefits through the identification, protection, detection, response, and recovery from cybersecurity threats which are discussed more fully in the RIA. Identifying a standardized requirement applicable to owner/operators that meet applicability criteria, would also provide more consistent application of and investments in cybersecurity measures yet offer flexibility by focusing on security outcomes which allows for innovation and the unique operational aspects for each owner/operator. In addition, applicability criteria based on the volume of passengers or goods transported, as opposed to entity size, focuses requirements on owner/operators where there is the greatest potential impact, including small entities that play a critical role or function. Further, the proposed requirements would encourage greater investment and development of cybersecurity measures, potential pooling of resources to address common issues, as well gains in efficiencies over time which would reduce the direct and indirect costs of cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Break-Even Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        TSA uses a break-even analysis to help understand and frame the relationship between the potential benefits of the proposed rule and the costs of implementation.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with OMB Circular No. A-4, “Regulatory Analysis,” this analysis answers the question “How small could the value of the non-qualified benefits be (or how large would the value of the non-quantified costs need to be) before the rule would yield zero net benefits?” 
                        <SU>234</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             When it is not possible to quantify or monetize a majority of the incremental benefits of a regulation, OMB recommends conducting a threshold, or “break-even” analysis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             OMB, “Circular A-4: Regulatory Analysis,” Section B. The Need for Federal Regulatory Action. Sept. 17, 2003. pg. 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A break-even analysis estimates a threshold value for the security benefits of the proposed rule so that the benefits of the rulemaking exactly match its costs. TSA compared potential consequence levels of cybersecurity incidents to the annualized cost (discounted at 7 percent) to industry and TSA from the proposed rule for each mode to estimate how often a cybersecurity incident of that size would need to be averted for the expected benefits to equal estimated costs for that transportation mode.</P>
                    <P>
                        As part of calculating the break-even point of an analysis, TSA uses the full cost of the cybersecurity provisions of the proposed rule (physical security related requirements are not included) to assess the level of benefits or avoided costs required to break even.
                        <SU>235</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applying the simplest version of the conclusion, if the proposed rule prevents annual costs of approximately $307.8 million (at 7 percent) across all impacted surface modes, its benefits will justify its costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             TSA uses the full cost of the CRM program and cybersecurity related costs in this break-even analysis without adjusting for costs industry has incurred as a result of prior industry practices or TSA SDs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>TSA also calculates the prevention of costs necessary for freight rail, PTPR, and pipeline independently using CRM program costs identified in Tables 21, 22, and 23. These tables also present a selection of break-even scenarios of varying magnitudes to illustrate the level of risk reduction necessary for such sized events to break-even. Specifically, they include the annualized cost of the cybersecurity focused provisions of the proposed rule (discounted at 7 percent) along with identified consequence levels or avoided losses. Those values are divided by each other to derive the required risk reduction and frequency of averted cybersecurity incidents to break even with respect to the cost of the CRM program of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Table 21 presents the amount of risk reduction necessary for a range of consequence levels relative to freight rail estimated CRM program costs. TSA uses the AAR's estimate that a complete nationwide shutdown of freight rail transportation could cost the U.S. economy more than $2 billion a day as a basis for potential impact.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on this figure, even if only a fractional amount of the system were incapacitated or operated at reduced capacity it would result in substantial impacts depending on the number of days affected. The CRM rule would reduce the likelihood of the type of systemic disruption that would occur from a wide scale attack through the regulation of the largest and most interconnected owner/operators. If an attacker were to gain access to a freight 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88541"/>
                        rail entity's IT system and further penetrate the OT system, such an attacker could cause rail service interruptions for that entity and potential wider cascading effects, especially if multiple owner/operators were attacked simultaneously. The CRM rule would reduce the likelihood of such an attack occurring through the protections implemented in the COIP, such as network segmentation, access control and patch management. If the attack partially succeeded, the CRM rule would reduce the impact of such an incident due to the requirements to develop plans to detect, respond to and recover from cybersecurity incidents as part of the COIP. TSA shows break-even levels based on $1 billion, $10 billion, and $20 billion consequence levels by comparing the magnitude of the consequences to the annualized cost of the proposed CRM rule discounted at 7 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             AAR, 
                            <E T="03">The Economic Impact of a Railroad Shutdown</E>
                             at 2 (2022), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.aar.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/09/AAR-Rail-Shutdown-Report-September-2022.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed Sept. 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 21—Freight Rail Summary of CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Consequence 
                                <LI>(avoided losses)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required risk 
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required
                                <LI>frequency of</LI>
                                <LI>averted</LI>
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$98.22 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0982</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 10.18 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>10 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0098</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 101.81 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>20 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0049</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 203.62 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 22 presents the amount of risk reduction necessary for a range of consequence levels relative to PTPR estimated CRM program costs. The type of incident and size of the ridership impacted would greatly impact the level of consequence. For instance, shutting down municipal rail services for under a million passengers for a day is different than shutting down and/or delaying services of multiple million for a prolonged period of time. In such cases, the impact may largely represent delays in time and inconvenience while other instances, they may include train derailments or collisions that result in loss of life. If an attacker were to gain access to a transit entity's IT system and without sufficient network segmentation further penetrate the OT system, such an attacker could cause service interruptions for that entity's riders by impacting critical systems that prevent travel or disrupt safety measures that could require trains to operate at reduced speeds or potentially cause them to derail/collide. The CRM rule would reduce the likelihood of such an attack occurring through the protections implemented in the COIP like network segmentation, access control and patch management.
                        <SU>237</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the attack partially succeeded, the CRM rule would reduce the impact of such an incident due to the requirements to develop plans to detect, respond to and recover from cybersecurity incidents as part of the COIP. TSA shows break-even levels based on $1 billion, $2 billion, or $4 billion consequence levels by comparing the magnitude of the consequences to the annualized cost of the proposed CRM rule discounted at 7 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Dragos Year in Review, 2022. There is discussion on the 39 percent fluctuation changes in oil/gas industries (Table 5: Poor Security Perimeters by OT Industry) which is likely correlated to the implementation of the TSA SDs released in response to the ransomware attack on a major pipeline company in 2021.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 22—PTPR Summary of CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Consequence (avoided losses)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Required risk reduction</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required frequency of averted cybersecurity
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$125.74 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.1257</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 7.95 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>2 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00629</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 15.91 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>4 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0314</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 31.81 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 23 presents the amount of risk reduction necessary for a range of consequence levels relative to pipeline estimated CRM program costs. The national pipeline system transports hazardous liquids, natural gas, and other liquids and gases that are used by various other segments of the economy including supplying materials for energy needs and manufacturing. Disrupting the transportation of these materials can have widespread effects that increase in magnitude depending on the pipelines impacted and the disruptions length of time. If an attacker were to gain access to a pipeline entity's IT system and without sufficient network segmentation further penetrate the OT system, such an attacker could cause product delivery interruptions for that entity or a wider set of pipeline network effects by causing damages to extensive portions of pipeline or critical/large junctions. Consistent with the above discussion on rail, the CRM rule would reduce the likelihood of such an attack occurring through the protections implemented in the COIP like network segmentation, access control and patch management.
                        <SU>238</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the attack partially succeeded, the CRM rule would reduce the impact of such an incident due to the requirements to develop plans to detect, respond to and recover from cybersecurity incidents as part of the COIP. Given the expansive impact pipeline products have on various aspects of the economy, TSA assumes a widespread disruption to the system could range from $1 to $2 billion per day. Based on this figure, even if only a fractional amount of the system 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88542"/>
                        were disrupted or operated at reduced capacity, this disruption could result in substantial impacts depending on the number of days affected. TSA shows break-even levels based on $2 billion, $10 billion, and $20 billion of consequence compared to the annualized cost of the proposed CRM rule discounted at 7 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 23—Pipeline Summary of Full CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Consequence 
                                <LI>(avoided losses)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required risk 
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required
                                <LI>frequency of averted </LI>
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$83.667 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$2 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0418</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 23.90 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>10 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0084</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 119.52 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>20 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0042</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 239.04 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>TSA also compares the potential levels of consequence to the estimated costs of the CRM rule under its cost sensitivity assumptions discussed above. For Freight Rail the annualized cost of the rule discounted at 7 percent falls from $98.22 million in the primary proposal to $65.95 million in the sensitivity analysis. Freight Rail risk reduction is reduced by 33 percent in direct proportion to the 33 percent reduction in cost. Consequently, each of the contemplated $1 billion, $10 billion, and $20 billion consequence attacks need to be prevented less frequently for the proposed rule's costs and benefits to balance.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 24—Freight Rail Summary of Sensitivity CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Consequence 
                                <LI>(avoided losses)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required risk 
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required
                                <LI>frequency of averted </LI>
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$65.949 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0659</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 15.16 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>10 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0066</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 151.63 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>20 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0033</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 303.27 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>For the PTPR mode, the annualized cost of the proposed rule discounted at 7 percent falls from $125.74 million in the primary proposal to $78.06 million in the sensitivity analysis. PTPR risk reduction is reduced by 38 percent in direct proportion to the 38 percent reduction in cost. Consequently, each of the contemplated $1 billion, $2 billion, and $4 billion consequence attacks need to be prevented less frequently for the proposed rule's costs and benefits to balance.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 25—PTPR Summary Of Sensitivity CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Consequence 
                                <LI>(avoided losses)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required risk 
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required
                                <LI>frequency of averted </LI>
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$78.063 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0781</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 12.81 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>2 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0390</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 25.62 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>4 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0195</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 51.24 years.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        And finally, for the pipeline mode, the annualized cost of the proposed rule discounted at 7 percent falls from $83.69 million in the primary proposal to $63.22 million in the sensitivity analysis. Pipeline risk reduction is reduced by 25 percent in direct proportion to the 25 percent reduction in cost. Consequently, each of the contemplated $2 billion, $10 billion, and $20 billion consequence attacks need to be prevented less frequently for the proposed rule's costs and benefits to balance.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88543"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="05" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,12,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 26—Pipeline Summary of Sensitivity CRM Program Break-Even Results</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Break-even example</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annualized cost of CRM 
                                <LI>program </LI>
                                <LI>(7% discount rate)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Consequence 
                                <LI>(avoided losses)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required risk 
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Required
                                <LI>frequency of averted </LI>
                                <LI>cybersecurity</LI>
                                <LI>incidents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">a</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">c = a ÷ b</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">d = b ÷ a</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT>$63.222 million</ENT>
                            <ENT>$2 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0316</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 31.63 years</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>10 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0063</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 158.17 years</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20 billion dollar example</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>20 billion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0032</ENT>
                            <ENT>One every 316.35 years</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As devastating as the direct impacts of a successful cybersecurity incident can be in terms of the immediate loss of life and property, avoiding the impacts of the more difficult to measure indirect effects are also substantial benefits of preventing a cybersecurity incident. For instance, should there be a cybersecurity incident impacting a public transit system, potential ripple impacts could include additional hardship on individuals who would then have to find alternate means of transportation. This use of alternate means of transportation would likely lead to increased traffic and commuting times on roadways, which has costs both in terms of additional gasoline and accrued wear and tear at the micro level but also compounded environmental effects at the macro level. A more detailed discussion of the break-even analysis and review of potential consequence with some illustrative examples can be found in Section 4.2 of the RIA.</P>
                    <P>
                        Although the break-even analysis considers each example separately, it is more likely that a combination of preventing all these scenarios and others would provide the benefits from these requirements. Cybersecurity incidents could carry considerable consequences in terms of equipment damages, disruption of services, and even loss of life. The impacts can reach billions of dollars depending on the scope of the incident; therefore, preventing even a small number of such potential incidents can justify the cost of the CRM program.
                        <SU>239</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, considering the potentially high costs of future cybersecurity incidents, including the (unquantifiable but real) risk of high-cost or potentially catastrophic incidents, TSA believes that the benefits of the proposed rule are likely to justify its costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             See break-even analysis section 4.3 in the RIA for details.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. OMB A-4 Statement</HD>
                    <P>The OMB A-4 Accounting Statement presents annualized costs and qualitative benefits of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,13,13,13,13,13,13,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 27—OMB A-4 Accounting Statement</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimates</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Primary</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Low</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">High</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Units</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Year
                                <LI>dollar</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discount rate 
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Period covered 
                                <LI>(years)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Notes</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Benefits</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized (millions/year)</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Quantified</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Qualitative</ENT>
                            <ENT A="05">The requirements proposed in this rule, if finalized, could produce benefits by reducing cybersecurity risk and service interruptions of owner/operators in affected modes and help strengthen systems against cybersecurity incidents. Additionally, benefits would be produced by increasing the security of passengers, crew, and the general public.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Costs</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized (millions/year)</ENT>
                            <ENT>$307.76</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>10 Years</ENT>
                            <ENT>NPRM RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>308.43</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>10 Years</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Quantified</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>None.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Qualitative</ENT>
                            <ENT A="05">Qualitative costs include those related to actual mitigation measures implemented and not otherwise covered as a result of the rule, as well as the cost incurred as a result of the COIP amendment process. Additional administrative costs may also be incurred during the implementation process beyond what TSA has estimated.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Transfers</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Federal Annualized Monetized (millions/year)</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>None.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="25">From/To</ENT>
                            <ENT>From:</ENT>
                            <ENT> </ENT>
                            <ENT> </ENT>
                            <ENT>To:</ENT>
                            <ENT> </ENT>
                            <ENT> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Annualized Monetized (millions/year)</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>None.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                NA
                                <PRTPAGE P="88544"/>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Effects</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">State, Local, and/or Tribal Government</ENT>
                            <ENT A="05">State and Local governments are impacted by the requirements related to passenger rail and rail transit. These modes are primarily owned and operated by State and local governments.</ENT>
                            <ENT>None.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Small Business</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02">Prepared IRFA.</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>NPRM IRFA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wages</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02">None.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Growth</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02">Not Measured.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>In addition to the proposed rule, TSA also considered three alternative regulatory options to the primary alternative reviewed in the analysis. The first alternative is to implement a limited scope of requirements. The second alternative is to reduce the applicability of the rule across the industries being regulated. The third alternative is to add regulatory requirements that mandate vetting, including a terrorism/other analyses check and immigration check for all frontline workers in the pipeline industry, as well as a terrorism/other analyses check, immigration check, and a CHRC for all Cybersecurity Coordinators and accountable executives in all industries.</P>
                    <P>Alternative 1 would limit the rule to the following requirements:</P>
                    <P>• Governance of the CRM program (proposed sections 1580.309, 1582.209, and 1586.209)</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Coordinator (proposed sections 1580.311, 1582.211, and 1586.211)</P>
                    <P>• Identification of Critical Cybersecurity Systems (proposed sections 1580.313, 1582.213, and 1586.213)</P>
                    <P>• Reporting Cybersecurity Incidents (proposed sections 1580.325, 1582.225, and 1586.225)</P>
                    <P>• Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (proposed sections 1580.327, 1582.227, and 1586.227).</P>
                    <P>These requirements identify responsible persons and organizations for an owner/operator's CRM program, identify the cybersecurity systems, require the reporting of cybersecurity incidents to CISA, and require the submission of a CIRP. This alternative includes some of the provisions in TSA's current SDs but does not require owner/operators to implement measures necessary to meet all the proposed security outcomes to protect against ransomware attacks and other known threats to IT and OT systems, nor to conduct a cybersecurity evaluation or have a robust assessment program. Any other security requirements or program implementation would be up to the owner/operator to establish and implement voluntarily for themselves. This alternative would still enable TSA to maintain oversight at a reactionary level, but it would reduce visibility into implementation of any preventative efforts.</P>
                    <P>Alternative 2 would shrink the applicability of the requirements to the largest owner/operators in each of the regulated industries. This alternative would reduce the freight rail applicability to cover a population limited to only Class I rail lines as defined by the Surface Transportation Board, resulting in a scope of just six owner/operators. The PTPR applicability would cover a population limited to just owner/operators who host Class I freight railroads/Amtrak lines or those who have an average daily ridership of 100,000 passengers in any of the previous 3 years or at any time in the future. This covers a current population of 27 owner/operators, down from 34 in the preferred alternative, and would reduce the ridership protected to around 90 percent of daily ridership nationwide. For the regulated pipeline owner/operators, this alternative would change the applicability to the 98 critical owner/operators of hazardous liquid and natural gas pipelines and liquefied natural gas facilities.</P>
                    <P>
                        Alternative 3 would introduce a requirement for accountable executives and Cybersecurity Coordinators, in all covered entities, to receive a Level 3 STA.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, this alternative would require all frontline workers (“security-sensitive employees”) in the pipeline industry to undergo a Level-2 STA, consistent with the proposed requirements for security-sensitive requirements in the Security Vetting of Certain Transportation Workers Rulemaking.
                        <SU>241</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             Under the proposed rule, accountable executives and Cybersecurity Coordinators for all covered entities, would not receive an STA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.regulations.gov/docket/TSA-2023-0001</E>
                             (last accessed July 5, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 28 shows a comparison of the cost of the alternatives considered.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2(,0,),p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 28—Comparison of Costs between Proposed Rule and Alternatives</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Discounted at 7%, thousands]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Regulatory action</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Initial affected 
                                <LI>population </LI>
                                <LI>(number of owner/</LI>
                                <LI>operators)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Ten-year costs</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Industry</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">TSA</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Total</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Annualized costs</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Industry</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">TSA</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Total</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c = Σa,b</ENT>
                            <ENT>d</ENT>
                            <ENT>e</ENT>
                            <ENT>f = Σd,e</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Proposed Rule</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Freight Rail—73
                                <LI>PTPR—34</LI>
                                <LI>OTRB—71</LI>
                                <LI>Pipeline—115</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>$2,147,313</ENT>
                            <ENT>$14,241</ENT>
                            <ENT>$2,161,554</ENT>
                            <ENT>$305,729</ENT>
                            <ENT>$2,028</ENT>
                            <ENT>$307,757</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88545"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Alternative 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Freight Rail—73
                                <LI>PTPR—34</LI>
                                <LI>OTRB—71</LI>
                                <LI>Pipeline—115</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>81,555</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,377</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,932</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,612</ENT>
                            <ENT>338</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,950</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Alternative 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Freight Rail—6
                                <LI>PTPR—27</LI>
                                <LI>OTRB—0</LI>
                                <LI>Pipeline—98</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,419,861</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,264</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,430,125</ENT>
                            <ENT>202,156</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,461</ENT>
                            <ENT>203,618</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Alternative 3</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Freight Rail—73
                                <LI>PTPR—34</LI>
                                <LI>OTRB—71</LI>
                                <LI>Pipeline—115</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>2,160,147</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,241</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,174,389</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,556</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,028</ENT>
                            <ENT>309,584</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Although not the least costly option, TSA presents the proposed rule as its preferred option. Alternative 1 has a smaller up-front cost but is less proactive. Based on the recentness of the SDs, the extent that some companies are already implementing adequate cybersecurity policies consistent with the guidelines described in this rulemaking, and internal TSA data from 2021/2022, the industry was failing to implement preventative measures on its own. As a result, limiting the scope of the requirements, as Alternative 1 does, produces an unacceptable level of risk for TSA. Reducing the scope would remove the requirement from some entities to meet specific cybersecurity performance measures to protect against cybersecurity incidents that could threaten the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data on and traversing IT and OT systems, to conduct a cybersecurity evaluation, and have an assessment plan. These proactive cybersecurity actions, evaluations, and assessments are considered best practices. Reducing the scope of the CRM in this fashion would increase the vulnerability of the covered operators to a host of cybersecurity incidents and impacts the CRM is designed to address.</P>
                    <P>Alternative 2 also has a smaller cost. This alternative, however, might increase the risk to the surface transportation infrastructure as it does not cover many entities TSA considers important. This increased risk reduction is important based on the role these entities and industries play in the supply chain, movement of people and goods, and their respective regional economies. Short line and regional railroads provide interconnectedness among the nation's rail customers and are a critical facet of the overall railroad industry. Leaving these railroads out of the applicability pool may result in critical terminal and switching services in addition to the pickup and delivery portions of the railroad being more vulnerable and susceptible to cybersecurity incidents. Due to the interconnectedness of the nation's rail system, if the connecting railroads are immobilized, cross-county rail service provided by the Class 1 railroads and its ability to move cargo may also be impacted thus having larger cascading effects.</P>
                    <P>For PTPR, the criteria of the preferred alternative apply to the high consequence operators and cover most of the national daily rail ridership. Reducing the scope of the covered entities in Alternative 2 reduces the level of the commuting population protected by the proposed cybersecurity performance measures and thus they are still exposed to a higher level of risk. If a cybersecurity incident affected one of these entities, the damages and consequences could have a cascading effect beyond just the target and into the local and regional communities.</P>
                    <P>A reduction in covered pipeline operators could affect risk mitigation of potential operational disruption which could have widespread impacts. For instance, a cybersecurity incident affecting a control room that operates multiple pipeline systems, or impacting multiple pipelines, could lead to a large cascading impact on pipeline delivery, which could disrupt the accessibility of needed product to the communities reliant on the pipeline product.</P>
                    <P>Alternative 3 is costlier than the proposed rule due to the additional requirements added. However, the primary benefit of this alternative is the potential to reduce insider threats from employees who may wish to do harm, which could be aggravated to the extent the employee has access to sensitive information and/or operations. Accountable executives and Cybersecurity Coordinators for all modes, and the frontline employees and Physical Security Coordinators for the pipeline industry, are not currently required to undergo a terrorism/other analyses check, immigration check, or a CHRC. Requiring these individuals to undergo a terrorism/other analyses check against government databases may enable TSA to identify individuals who may pose a security threat.</P>
                    <P>Although Alternative 3 is not included in the primary analysis at this time, TSA seeks comments from affected stakeholders on how the vetting of Cybersecurity Coordinators, accountable executives, and/or pipeline employees would impact their operations and costs. TSA specifically seeks data regarding how many of the entity's employees the entity has that would be subject to the vetting requirements. Based on comments received, TSA may consider including appropriate vetting requirements in a final rule. TSA notes that it has already proposed the vetting of frontline workers for freight rail and PTPR, and of security coordinators for freight rail, PTPR, and OTRBs in a separate rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Regulatory Flexibility Assessment</HD>
                    <P>The RFA requires agencies to consider the impacts of their rules on small entities. TSA performed an IRFA to analyze the impact to small entities affected by the proposed rule. The following provides a summary of the full RIA, which is available in the docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under the RFA, the term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned, operated, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88546"/>
                        not dominant in their fields,
                        <SU>242</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as well as small governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.
                        <SU>243</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA performed an IRFA of the impacts on small entities from this proposed rule in the first year of the analysis and found that it may affect an estimated 293 U.S. entities (73 corporate-level Class I, II, and III freight railroad owner/operators, 34 PTPR owner/operators, 71 OTRB owner/operators, and 115 pipeline owner/operators). TSA analyzed all the entities that would be affected by the proposed rule and TSA found that 35 percent of them would be considered small. The proposed rule would require small freight rail, PTPR, and pipeline entities to (a) designate a Cybersecurity Coordinator, (b) report cybersecurity incidents to CISA, (c) establish a CRM program, (d) familiarization, (e) compliance, and (f) recordkeeping. Additionally, pipeline owner/operators would have to designate a Physical Security Coordinator and report significant physical security concerns to TSA. OTRB entities would only have to report cybersecurity incidents to CISA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             The definition of a small business varies from industry to industry to properly reflect the relative differences in size between industries. An agency must either use the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) definition for a small business or establish an alternative definition for the industry. TSA has adopted the SBA small business size standards for each relevant industry.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             Individuals and States are not considered “small entities” based on the definitions in the RFA (5 U.S.C. 601).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Regulated entities have different requirements under the proposed rule, depending on their industry. Freight rail, PTPR, and pipeline owner/operators would be required to designate a Cybersecurity Coordinator, report cybersecurity incidents, and have a CRM program approved by TSA and incur costs associated with familiarization, compliance, and recordkeeping requirements. Pipeline owner/operators have additional requirements to designate a Physical Security Coordinator and report significant physical security concerns to TSA. TSA is proposing that OTRB owner/operators must report cybersecurity incidents to CISA, as well as incur familiarization costs. TSA estimates the proposed rule's requirements to cost $486,792 per entity for freight rail owner/operators, $682 per entity for OTRB owner/operators, and $484,848 per entity for pipeline owner/operators in the highest cost year of the proposed rule. TSA did not calculate the cost per entity for PTPR entities in this IRFA as none of the PTPR owner/operators are considered small. Separately, TSA estimates the proposed rule requirements to cost $537 per employee for freight rail entities, and $659 per employee for pipeline owner/operators. The proposed rule has zero cost per employee for OTRB owner/operators, as the proposed requirements covering these entities (cybersecurity incident reporting) are not based on the number of employees and thus do not incur any associated per employee cost. TSA invites all interested parties to submit data and information regarding the potential economic impact on small entities that would result from the adoption of the requirements in the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>TSA estimated the overall impact on small entities due to the proposed rule by adding the number of small entities affected (with revenue data available) in each revenue impact range for each of the four subgroups: freight rail, PTPR, OTRB and pipeline industries. Across the combined 293 covered entities, TSA estimates that 79 (27 percent) are considered small. Of these small entities, TSA found employment and revenue data on 75 entities. The IRFA finds that 11 of the analyzed entities would have an impact greater than one percent of their annual revenue. Table 29 presents the likely distribution of impact for small owner/operators.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 29—Average Cost Impact on Small Entities as a Percentage of Revenue</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Revenue impact range</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Freight rail
                                <LI>(# of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Freight rail
                                <LI>(% of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                OTRB
                                <LI>(# of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                OTRB
                                <LI>(% of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Pipeline
                                <LI>(# of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Pipeline
                                <LI>(% of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>(# of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>(% of affected small entities)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">0% &lt; Impact ≤ 1%</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>68</ENT>
                            <ENT>86.1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1% &lt; Impact ≤ 3%</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3% &lt; Impact ≤ 5%</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>24</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5% &lt; Impact ≤ 10%</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Above 10%</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>17</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>79</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">An Identification, to the Extent Practicable, of All Relevant Federal Rules Which May Duplicate, Overlap, or Conflict With the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted by the ONCD in an August 2023 Request for Information, the National Cybersecurity Strategy calls for establishing cybersecurity regulations to secure critical infrastructure where existing measures are insufficient; harmonizing and streamlining new and existing regulations; and enabling regulated entities to afford to achieve security.
                        <SU>244</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         TSA emphasizes its commitment to regulatory harmonization and streamlining, and notes that this proposed rule, which is grounded in NIST's Framework for Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity, NIST's standards and best practices, and the CISA CPGs, is consistent with such priorities. TSA also acknowledges the ongoing rulemakings of other DHS components, including ongoing rulemakings on cybersecurity in maritime transportation and implementation of CIRCIA. TSA notes potential differences in terminology and policy as compared to those rulemakings; although TSA views such differences as intentional and based on sector-specific distinctions, TSA welcomes comments on opportunities to harmonize and streamline regulations where feasible and appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Request for Information on Cyber Regulatory Harmonization; Request for Information: Opportunities for and Obstacles to Harmonizing Cybersecurity Regulations, 88 FR 55694 (Aug. 16, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For pipeline owner/operators, TSA will coordinate activities under this part with the FERC, and the PHMSA of the DOT with respect to regulation of pipeline systems and facilities that are also licensed or regulated by the FERC or PHMSA, to avoid conflicting requirements and minimize redundancy of compliance activities.</P>
                    <P>
                        TSA is also aware that some pipeline owner/operators may also have other business lines in the energy sector that are subject to regulations issued by DOE, and FERC's cybersecurity standards as issued by the NERC. TSA has committed to reducing the impact on these multi-sector companies by aligning the agency's proposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88547"/>
                        requirements with the NIST CSF, which is also used by the DOE, FERC, and NERC.
                        <SU>245</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NERC CIP-003-8, 
                            <E T="03">Critical Infrastructure Protection Reliability Standards, Cyber Security—Security Management Controls,</E>
                             and CIP-008-6 
                            <E T="03">(Cyber Security—Incident Reporting and Response Planning),</E>
                             available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nerc.com/pa/Stand/Reliability%20Standards/CIP-003-8.pdf</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nerc.com/pa/Stand/Reliability%20Standards/CIP-008-6.pdfva</E>
                             (last accessed July 5, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        TSA is currently participating in a forum of regulatory agencies looking at opportunities for harmonization and reciprocity for cybersecurity requirements. In addition, CISA is required by CIRCIA 
                        <SU>246</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to issue a rule to implement a 72-hour covered cyber incident reporting requirement and 24-hour ransom payment reporting requirement for ransom payments made in connection with a ransomware attack. These requirements would be applicable to covered entities across critical infrastructure sectors, as further defined by CISA through rulemaking. Although this NPRM and CISA's rulemaking could technically create two cyber incident reporting requirements for some entities, TSA does not believe that this is likely to result in any actual duplicative reporting because entities subject to the cybersecurity incident reporting requirements proposed in this NPRM would be required to make their reports to CISA. Currently, TSA has determined CIRCIA does not require TSA to modify its proposed reporting requirements. TSA will, however, re-assess its proposed requirements as CISA's rule is finalized to avoid any unnecessary conflicts or redundancies. TSA is committed to working with CISA to ensure that entities required to report to CISA under both CIRCIA and this proposed rule, if any, can do so in a single report where legally possible. If necessary to do so, CISA and TSA will explore leveraging an exemption in CIRCIA for covered entities that are required to report substantially similar information to another Federal agency within a substantially similar timeframe, where CISA and the Federal agency have an agreement and information sharing mechanism in place. Currently, TSA has determined CIRCIA does not require TSA to modify its proposed reporting requirements. TSA will, however, re-assess its proposed requirements as CISA's rule is finalized to avoid any unnecessary conflicts or redundancies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             Division Y of Public Law 117-103, 136 Stat. 49 (Mar. 15, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A Description of Any Significant Alternatives to the Proposed Rule That Accomplish the Stated Objectives of Applicable Statues and May Minimize Any Significant Economic Impact of the Proposed Rule on Small Entities, Including Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>The first regulatory alternative TSA considered would limit the scope of requirements. This alternative would include provisions requiring the owner/operator to identify responsible persons and organizations for an owner/operator's CRM program, identify the owner/operator's cybersecurity systems, the reporting of cybersecurity incidents to CISA/TSA, and the submission of an incident response plan. Any other security requirements or program implementation would be up to the owner/operator to establish and implement voluntarily for themselves. This alternative would still enable TSA to maintain oversight in a more reactive posture, but it would eliminate visibility of any preventative efforts owner/operators are undertaking and would not ensure the necessary baseline of cybersecurity measures is being consistently implemented across these higher-risk operations.</P>
                    <P>Unlike the proposed rule, Alternative 1 would have no per employee costs, as well as reduce the number of per entity costs. TSA did not evaluate the impact to small entities for PTPR and OTRB owner/operators under this alternative as none of the PTPR owner/operators identified by TSA are considered small under the SBA size standards and OTRB owner/operators would be excluded under the applicability of this alternative.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 30—Total Cost Per Owner Operator Alternative 1</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Requirement</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Unit time
                                <LI>(hours)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Hourly wage rate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Unit cost</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c = b × a</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Freight Rail</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Familiarization</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>$129.88</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,904</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cybersecurity Incident Reporting</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.14</ENT>
                            <ENT>97.22</ENT>
                            <ENT>14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CRM program</ENT>
                            <ENT>87</ENT>
                            <ENT>95.39</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,299</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">CIRP</ENT>
                            <ENT>300</ENT>
                            <ENT>94.36</ENT>
                            <ENT>28,308</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Cost per Entity</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>38,524</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Pipeline</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Familiarization</ENT>
                            <ENT>56</ENT>
                            <ENT>126.67</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,093</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cybersecurity Incident Reporting</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>94.55</ENT>
                            <ENT>329</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CRM program</ENT>
                            <ENT>87</ENT>
                            <ENT>119.38</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,386</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">CIRP</ENT>
                            <ENT>300</ENT>
                            <ENT>89.84</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,953</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Cost per entity</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>44,761</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        This alternative has lower estimated costs than the preferred alternative. TSA did not select it because it provides a reduced level of cybersecurity risk mitigation. TSA believes such mitigation is necessary given the key role these industries play in the supply chain, movement of people and goods, and the economy. This alternative would not require the visibility or accountability aspects of NIST's “detect” or “protect” elements that, when implemented as part of a cyber-risk management program, would help prevent malicious actors from exploiting vulnerabilities as well as ensure the confidentiality, availability, and integrity of their critical systems. Not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88548"/>
                        including protecting critical cyber systems and having capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident reduces the level of protection when compared to the preferred alternative. Furthermore, a cybersecurity incident on any entity covered by the proposed rule, regardless of size, could have cascading impacts on the nation's economy.
                    </P>
                    <P>Dynamic and emerging cybersecurity threats to the nation's rail and hazardous liquid and natural gas pipeline infrastructure require a more proactive approach toward reducing risk related to cybersecurity. In this case, TSA believes risk-based cybersecurity policy is the most effective means to mitigate the effects of potential cybersecurity incidents on critical infrastructure while minimizing costs to both industry and government. Exempting an entity solely based on its SBA-determined size would diminish the risk reduction this rulemaking is designed to achieve by failing to consider other criteria that may signal the critical value of the owner/operator to the transportation system.</P>
                    <P>The second alternative that TSA considered would limit the applicability of the requirements to the largest and most critical owner/operators in each of the regulated industries. This alternative would limit applicability of requirements for freight railroads to Class I Railroads, as defined by the Surface Transportation Board. For PTPR, requirements would be limited to owner/operators that host Class I Freight Rail Lines or those with an average daily ridership of 100,000 passengers in at least one of the last 3 years or in any future year. For pipelines, only the 98 most critical owner/operators of hazardous liquid and natural gas pipelines and liquefied natural gas facilities would be subject to the requirements. Under this more limited applicability, Alternative 2 would cover six Class I freight rail owner/operators, 27 PTPR agencies, and 100 pipeline owner/operators in the tenth year of the proposed rule. OTRB owner/operators would be excluded under this alternative.</P>
                    <P>While Alternative 2 has the same cost per entity as the preferred alternative, this alternative reduces the overall number of entities determined to be small. All freight rail owner/operators determined to be small under the proposed rule would be removed from applicability of the proposed rule under Alternative 2, as none of the Class 1 freight railroads are considered small. OTRB owner/operators would have the same requirements as the proposed rule; however, none of the small OTRB owner/operators have a cost impact greater than one percent of annual revenue under either the proposed rule or this alternative. The number of small pipeline owner/operators would decrease from 23 to 13.</P>
                    <P>From an RFA perspective, this alternative impacts fewer small entities than the proposed rule. However, TSA has determined this alternative produces an unacceptable level of risk given the key role these industries play in the supply chain, movement of people and goods, and the economy. There are owner/operators not covered under these criteria that play a critical role in contributing to the stability and security of the movement of people and goods. An incident to these owner/operators may still result in a ripple effect throughout the economy. TSA believes railroads that transport the largest volume of cargo, and freight railroads that serve as critical connections between Class I railroads or serve as vital links in the STRACNET, are critical to the transportation industry. A cybersecurity incident affecting any of these railroads, regardless of the size of the entity, would have the most significant impact on rail transportation, national security, and economic security. Similarly, pipeline systems and facilities that transport the largest volume of commodities, regardless of entity size, would lead to the potential for a sustained disruption in service should a successful cybersecurity incident affect their ability to support national security needs, including economic security. While TSA acknowledges that Alternative 2 would have reduced impacts on small entities, due to the quantitative (volume) and qualitative (strategic) applicability criteria in the proposed rule, TSA does not believe making applicability exceptions based on SBA size standards is justified.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, TSA performed a sensitivity analysis of three major cost drivers (access control costs, cybersecurity systems data backup costs, and cybersecurity training) to help understand and evaluate the practical impacts of the proposed rule versus the zero-baseline assumption used in the primary analysis. The sensitivity analysis assumes 25 percent of freight rail and pipeline entities are already in full compliance with identified requirements, and 25 percent are in partial compliance. While the assumptions in the IRFA sensitivity analysis would not result in an increased economic impact on small PTPR entities (because no PTPR entities covered by the NPRM are small entities) or affect the cost estimates for OTRB entities (because OTRB doesn't incur any of the costs modified in the sensitivity analysis and none have a cost impact greater than one percent of annual revenue), they would reduce cost impacts on small freight rail and pipeline entities and decrease the number that would incur a cost greater than one percent of annual revenues.
                        <SU>247</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             The primary IRFA analysis estimates 18 freight rail and 10 pipeline entities will have costs greater than one percent of annual revenue. In the IRFA sensitivity analysis, 13 freight rail and 8 pipeline entities will have costs greater than one percent of annual revenue.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. International Trade Impact Assessment</HD>
                    <P>The Trade Agreement Act of 1979 prohibits Federal agencies from establishing any standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. The Trade Agreement Act does not consider legitimate domestic objectives, such as essential security, as unnecessary obstacles. The statute also requires that international standards be considered and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. TSA has assessed the potential effect of this proposed rule and has determined this rulemaking would not have an adverse impact on international trade.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Unfunded Mandates Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        Title II of UMRA 
                        <SU>248</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, Local, and Tribal governments as well as the private sector. Under section 202, UMRA requires Federal agencies to prepare a written statement, including a cost-benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with “Federal mandates” that may result in expenditures by State, Local, and Tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector of $100 million (adjusted for inflation) or more in any year. Before an agency promulgates a rule for which a written statement is required, section 205 
                        <SU>249</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of UMRA generally requires identification and consideration of a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives, and adopting the least costly, most cost-effective, or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule. The provisions of section 205 do not apply when they are inconsistent with applicable law. Moreover, section 205 allows an agency to adopt an alternative other than the least costly, most cost-effective, or least burdensome 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88549"/>
                        alternative if the final rule includes an explanation about why that alternative was not adopted.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 222, as codified at 2 U.S.C. 1532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                             as codified at 2 U.S.C. 1535.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Before establishing any regulatory requirements that may significantly or uniquely affect small governments, including tribal governments, Federal agencies must develop under section 203 
                        <SU>250</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of UMRA a small government agency plan. The plan must provide for notifying potentially affected small governments; enabling officials of affected small governments to have meaningful and timely input in the development of regulatory proposals with significant federal intergovernmental mandates; and informing, educating, and advising small governments on compliance with the regulatory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                             as codified at 2 U.S.C. 1533.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 4 of UMRA 
                        <SU>251</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         includes several types of actions that are excluded from its requirements. Among these exclusions are regulations necessary for the national security. This rule is not subject to UMRA review because it is a regulation necessary for the national security of the United States. As noted in the National Cybersecurity Strategy, this rule is being promulgated because of national security concerns related to the protection of Critical Cyber Systems, the loss or disruption of which could have impacts on national security, including economic security.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                             as codified at 2 U.S.C. 1503.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) 
                        <SU>252</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires that DHS consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. Under the provisions of PRA section 3507(d), DHS must obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information it conducts, sponsors, or requires through regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             44 U.S.C. 3501 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule would call for a collection of information under the PRA. Accordingly, DHS has submitted to OMB the proposed rule and this analysis, including the sections relating to collections of information.
                        <SU>253</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As defined in 5 CFR 1320.3(c), “collection of information” includes reporting, recordkeeping, monitoring, posting, labeling, and other similar actions. This section provides the description of the information collection and of those who must collect the information as well as an estimate of the total annual time burden.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 CFR 1320.11(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We ask for public comment on the proposed collection of information to help us determine, among other things—</P>
                    <P>• How useful the information is;</P>
                    <P>• Whether the information can help us perform our functions better;</P>
                    <P>• How we can improve the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information;</P>
                    <P>• Whether the information is readily available elsewhere;</P>
                    <P>• How accurate our estimate is of the burden of collection;</P>
                    <P>• How valid our methods are for determining the burden of collection; and</P>
                    <P>• How we can minimize the burden of collection.</P>
                    <P>Please see instructions under “Public Participation” for submission of comments on the information collection.</P>
                    <P>As protection provided by the PRA, as amended, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has previously approved an information collection request (ICR) for Pipeline Critical Infrastructure List under OMB Control Number 1652-0050, Pipeline Security Incident Reporting under OMB Control No. 1652-0055, Pipeline Corporate Security Reviews under OMB Control No. 1652-0056, and Cybersecurity Measures for Surface Modes under OMB Control No. 1652-0074. This proposed collection consolidates and replaces all current ICR requirements for CRM of freight rail, passenger rail, and pipeline owner/operators under one OMB control number. Upon approval of the new ICR and publication of a final rule, TSA will amend, or as appropriate rescind, the current ICRs associated with TSA SDs currently in effect. Even though most of the ICRs in the CRM NPRM are currently covered by approved ICRs, TSA is adding a few new requirements requiring information collection that were not previously included in TSA SDs or otherwise in approved ICRs.</P>
                    <P>These new requirements for all rail (freight, passenger, and transit) and pipeline owner/operators subject to the ICR include: (1) submission of a Cybersecurity training program to TSA for approval (reporting); (2) maintaining records of employee cybersecurity training (record keeping); and (3) maintaining records of inclusion of supply chain security measures in the owner/operator's COIP. OTRB owner/operators are currently required to report significant security concerns and would also be required to report cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the CRM NPRM proposes to add a new requirement for pipeline owner/operators to: (1) designate a physical security coordinator and submit the contact information to TSA and (2) report significant physical security concerns to TSA. This additional requirement for pipelines would align with requirements applicable to the other owner/operators covered by the proposed rule. Upon finalization of the CRM rulemaking, TSA will use the information collection to establish compliance with the new regulatory requirements. By implementing these performance-based requirements, TSA would ensure that the 293 higher-risk entities have measures in place to address current cybersecurity risks with the flexibility necessary to address emerging threats and deploy evolving capabilities, and that CISA and TSA are receiving information on cybersecurity threats from all higher-risk surface owner/operators identified by TSA, including 71 OTRB entities not currently subject to the SDs. Accordingly, TSA has submitted all information requirements to OMB for its review.</P>
                    <P>
                        Table 31 shows the information collection and corresponding burden-hours for entities falling under the requirements of the proposed rule. The collections that have been implemented under the SD-related ICRs would continue or be updated under the proposed rule.
                        <SU>254</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             Rail security and rail cybersecurity information collection requirements resulting from the SDs covered under ICR 1652-0051 and 1652-0074. Pipeline security and cybersecurity information collection requirements from the SDs are covered under ICR 1652-0050, 1652-0055, and 1652-0056. For additional information, Table 1-2 in the RIA details the number of covered entities in the SD ICs and include the Published Notice title as well as the effective date.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88550"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 31—PRA Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Collection</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Time per
                                <LI>response</LI>
                                <LI>(hours)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Number of responses</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Year 1</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Year 2</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Year 3</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">3-Year time burden</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Average
                                <LI>annual time</LI>
                                <LI>burden</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Cybersecurity Evaluation (CSE)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,829</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,943</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,170</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,390</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,400</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,800</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Submit COIP</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,783</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,928</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,110</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,370</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>40</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,800</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,600</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Submit POAM</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,531</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,177</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,668</ENT>
                            <ENT>556</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>23</ENT>
                            <ENT>23</ENT>
                            <ENT>23</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,520</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,840</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Accountable Executive Information Submission</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>240</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>45</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>439</ENT>
                            <ENT>146</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Cybersecurity Coordinator Information Submission</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>146</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>320</ENT>
                            <ENT>107</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>68</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>178</ENT>
                            <ENT>59</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>230</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>497</ENT>
                            <ENT>166</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Supply Chain Management</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>2207</ENT>
                            <ENT>736</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,043</ENT>
                            <ENT>348</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>3450</ENT>
                            <ENT>1150</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Physical Security Coordinator Information Submission</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.50</ENT>
                            <ENT>261</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>166</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Report Significant Physical Security Concerns to TSA</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.05</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,908</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,908</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,908</ENT>
                            <ENT>436</ENT>
                            <ENT>145</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Initial Cybersecurity Training Plan Development and Submission</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,977</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,841</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>9,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,067</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Cybersecurity Training Documentation Recordkeeping</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>134,504</ENT>
                            <ENT>135,064</ENT>
                            <ENT>135,626</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,753</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,251</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>344,632</ENT>
                            <ENT>348,472</ENT>
                            <ENT>352,356</ENT>
                            <ENT>17,424</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,808</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>45,908</ENT>
                            <ENT>46,194</ENT>
                            <ENT>46,482</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,310</ENT>
                            <ENT>770</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Report Cybersecurity Incidents to CISA</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OTRB</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>46</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>400</ENT>
                            <ENT>400</ENT>
                            <ENT>400</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>400</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>5,840</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,947</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>2,720</ENT>
                            <ENT>907</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>9,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,067</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">CIRP Annual Exercise Recordkeeping</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,485</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,828</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,510</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,170</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>41,400</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,800</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>44</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,711</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,237</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>44</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,587</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,529</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>44</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>15,180</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,060</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <PRTPAGE P="88551"/>
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">CAP Annual Report of Scheduled Testing (30 percent of CAP tested annually)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,621</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,207</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,128</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,043</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,350</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,450</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Recordkeeping</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Freight Rail</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>441</ENT>
                            <ENT>147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PTPR</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>209</ENT>
                            <ENT>70</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelines</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>115</ENT>
                            <ENT>690</ENT>
                            <ENT>230</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total Number of Responses</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>1,606,559</ENT>
                            <ENT>535,520</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Total Time Burden (hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>363,858</ENT>
                            <ENT>121,286</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism (E.O. 13132)</HD>
                    <P>
                        A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132 of August 4, 1999 (Federalism) 
                        <SU>255</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         if it has substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. TSA has analyzed this proposed rule under Executive Order 13132 and determined that it does not have implications for federalism. TSA welcomes public comments on Executive Order 13132 federalism implications.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             Published at 64 FR 43255 (Aug. 10, 1999).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>D. Energy Impact Analysis (E.O. 13211)</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS analyzed this proposed rule under E.O. 13211 of May 18, 2001 (Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affected Energy Supply, Distribution or Use),
                        <SU>256</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under that E.O. and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Therefore, this rulemaking does not require a Statement of Energy Effects.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             Published at 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environmental Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS reviews proposed actions to determine whether the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) applies to them and, if so, what degree of analysis is required. DHS Management Directive 023-01 Rev. 01 and Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01 Rev. 01 establish the procedures that DHS and its components use to comply with NEPA and the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ)'s regulations for implementing NEPA.
                        <SU>257</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CEQ regulations allow Federal agencies to establish, with CEQ review and concurrence, categories of actions (“categorical exclusions”) which experience has shown do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment and, therefore, do not require preparation of an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             40 CFR 1501.4, 1507.3(e)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The DHS categorical exclusions are listed in Appendix A of the Instruction Manual. Under DHS NEPA implementing procedures, for an action to be categorically excluded, it must satisfy each of the following three conditions: (1) The entire action clearly fits within one or more of the categorical exclusions; (2) the action is not a piece of a larger action; and (3) no extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect.</P>
                    <P>As previously discussed, this proposed rule would promote TSA's surface transportation security mission by establishing performance-based requirements to ensure higher-risk owner/operators have measures in place to address cybersecurity risks with the flexibility necessary to address emerging threats and deploy evolving capabilities. Specifically, this proposed rule would establish minimum cybersecurity requirements in TSA regulations such as account security measures, device security measures, governance and training, risk management, supply chain management, resilience, network segmentation, reporting, and physical security.</P>
                    <P>TSA has determined that this proposed rule clearly fits within categorical exclusion A3 in Appendix A of the Instruction Manual. Categorical exclusion A3 applies to promulgation of rules, issuance of rulings or interpretations, and the development and publication of policies, orders, directives, notices, procedures, manuals, advisory circulars, and other guidance documents of the following nature: (a) Those of a strictly administrative or procedural nature; (b) those that implement, without substantive change, statutory or regulatory requirements; (c) those that implement, without substantive change, procedures, manuals, and other guidance documents; (d) those that interpret or amend an existing regulation without changing its environmental effect; (e) technical guidance on safety and security matters; or (f) guidance for the preparation of security plans.</P>
                    <P>The requirements proposed in this rule are administrative in nature, providing technical guidance and instruction on safety and security matters and the preparation of security plans. TSA has further determined that the changes proposed in this rule would not result in any significant impact on the environment and, therefore, would not result in any “change in environmental effect.” TSA further finds no extraordinary circumstances associated with this proposed rule that may give rise to significant environmental effects necessitating further documentation and analysis. This rule specifically addresses surface transportation cybersecurity as a standalone rule and is not part of a larger action. Accordingly, this action is categorically excluded, and no further NEPA analysis or documentation is required. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Tribal Consultation (E.O. 13175)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS analyzed this proposed rule under E.O. 13175 of November 6, 2000 (Consultation and Coordination with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88552"/>
                        Indian Tribal Governments),
                        <SU>259</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and determined that this rulemaking does not have tribal implications. For example, TSA determined that the applicability of requirements in proposed 49 CFR 1582.225 would not affect any public transportation systems owned or controlled by an Indian tribe, as defined in 24 U.S.C. 479A. Based on this determination, TSA has not specifically consulted with Indian tribal officials. Should TSA make a future determination that there is a risk to tribal owned/operated systems supporting the need for security enhancements, TSA will follow relevant consultation requirements before imposing any regulatory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             Published at 65 FR 67249 (Nov. 9, 2000).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1500</CFR>
                        <P>Air carriers, Air transportation, Aircraft, Airports, Buses, Hazardous materials transportation, Law enforcement officers, Maritime carriers, Natural gas, Pipeline safety, Pipelines, Railroad safety, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Transportation facility, Vessels.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1503</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Investigations, Law enforcement, Penalties.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1520</CFR>
                        <P>Air carriers, Air transportation, Aircraft, Airports, Buses, Law enforcement officer, Maritime carriers, Railroad safety, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Transportation facility, Vessels.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1570</CFR>
                        <P>Buses, Crime, Fraud, Hazardous materials transportation, Motor carriers, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1580</CFR>
                        <P>Hazardous materials transportation, Railroad safety, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1582</CFR>
                        <P>Mass transportation, Railroad safety, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1584</CFR>
                        <P>Buses, Mass transportation, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                        <CFR>49 CFR Part 1586</CFR>
                        <P>Gas, Hazardous materials transportation, Natural gas, Pipelines, Pipeline Safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Transportation Security Administration is proposing to amend 49 CFR parts 1500, 1503, 1520, 1570, 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586 to read as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1500—APPLICABILITY, TERMS, AND ABBREVIATIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Revise the authority citation for part 1500 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 114, 5103, 40113, 44901-44907, 44912-44914, 44916-44918, 44935-44936, 44942, 46105; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1500.3 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Adding the definitions of “Carbon dioxide”, “Gas”, “Hazardous liquid”, “Liquefied natural gas (LNG)”, “Pipeline or pipeline system”, “Pipeline facility”, and “TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon” in alphabetical order; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising the definitions of “Transportation or transport”, “Transportation facility”, and “Transportation security equipment and systems”.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions and revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1500.3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Terms and abbreviations used in this chapter.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Carbon dioxide</E>
                             means a fluid consisting of more than 90 percent carbon dioxide molecules compressed to a supercritical state.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Gas</E>
                             means natural gas, flammable gas, or gas which is toxic or corrosive.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Hazardous liquid</E>
                             means petroleum, petroleum products, anhydrous ammonia, and ethanol or other non-petroleum fuel, including biofuel, which is flammable, toxic, or would be harmful to the environment if released in significant quantities.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Liquefied natural gas (LNG)</E>
                             means natural gas or synthetic gas having methane (CH
                            <E T="52">4</E>
                            ) as its major constituent that has been changed to a liquid.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Pipeline or Pipeline System</E>
                             means all parts of those physical facilities through which gas, hazardous liquid, carbon monoxide, or liquefied natural gas moves in transportation including, but not limited to pipe, line pipe, valves, and other appurtenance attached to pipe and line pipe, compressor units, metering stations, pumping units, regulator stations, metering stations, delivery stations, holders, fabricated assemblies, and breakout tanks as those terms are defined in 49 CFR parts 192, 193, and 195.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Pipeline facility</E>
                             means new or existing piping, pipes, pipelines, rights-of-way, and any equipment, facility, or building used in the treatment or transportation of gas, hazardous liquid, carbon monoxide, or liquefied natural gas, as those terms are defined in 49 CFR parts 192, 193, and 195.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Transportation</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">transport</E>
                             means (1) the movement of property including loading, unloading, and storage; (2) the movement of people, boarding, and disembarking incident to that movement; and (3) the gathering, transmission, or distribution of gas or hazardous liquids by pipeline.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Transportation facility</E>
                             means a location at which transportation cargo, equipment or infrastructure assets are stored, equipment is transferred between conveyances and/or modes of transportation, transportation command and control operations are performed, or maintenance operations are performed. The term also includes, but is not limited to, passenger stations and terminals (including any fixed facility at which passengers are picked-up or discharged), vehicle storage buildings or yards, crew management centers, dispatching centers, fueling centers, telecommunication centers, and facilities used for the gathering, transmission, or distribution of gas or hazardous liquids by pipeline or the storage of gas or hazardous liquids.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Transportation security equipment and systems</E>
                             means items, both integrated into a system and stand-alone, used by owner/operators to enhance capabilities to detect, deter, prevent, or respond to a threat or incident, including, but not limited to, video surveillance, explosives detection, radiological detection, intrusion detection, Information Technology and Operational Technology authentication, network logging, motion detection, and security screening. This includes security equipment and systems for the protection and monitoring of both physical and logical/virtual assets.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon</E>
                             means a list of terms and their meaning applicable to cybersecurity requirements imposed by this chapter and available in a form and manner 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88553"/>
                            determined by TSA. TSA may update and revise the lexicon following the procedures in this chapter for amendments to security programs.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1503—INVESTIGATIVE AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise the authority citation for part 1503 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>6 U.S.C. 1142; 18 U.S.C. 6002; 28 U.S.C. 2461 (note); 49 U.S.C. 114, 20109, 31105, 40113-40114, 40119, 44901-44907, 46101-46107, 46109-46110, 46301, 46305, 46311, 46313-46314; Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, as amended by Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1520-PROTECTION OF SENSITIVE SECURITY INFORMATION</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Revise the authority citation for part 1520 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 114, 40113, 44901-44907, 44912-44914, 44916-44918, 44935-44936, 44942, 46105, 70102-70106, 70117; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 1520.5 by revising paragraphs (b)(2)(i), (b)(3)(i), (b)(4)(i) and (ii), (b)(6)(ii), introductory text of (b)(12), (b)(13), and (b)(14) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1520.5</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Sensitive Security Information.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(2) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) Issued by TSA under 49 CFR 1542.303, 1544.305, 1548.19, 1570.201, or other authority;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(3) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) Information circular issued by TSA under 49 CFR 1542.303, 1544.305, 1548.19, 1570.201, or other authority; and</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(4) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) Any device used by the Federal Government or any other person pursuant to any aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security requirements of Federal law for the detection of any person, and any weapon, explosive, incendiary, or destructive device, item, or substance; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any communications equipment used by the Federal government or any other person in carrying out or complying with any aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security requirements of Federal law.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(6) * * *</P>
                        <P>(ii) In the case of inspections or investigations performed by TSA, this includes the following information as to events that occurred within 12 months of the date of release of the information: the name of the airport or other transportation facility (including remote systems) where a violation occurred, the airport or other transportation facility identifier in the case number, a description of the violation, the regulation allegedly violated, and the identity of any operator in connection with specific locations or specific security procedures. Such information will be released after the relevant 12-month period, except that TSA will not release the specific gate or other location on an airport or other transportation facility where an event occurred, regardless of the amount of time that has passed since its occurrence. During the period within 12 months of the date of release of the information, TSA may release summaries of an operator's, but not an airport operator's, total security violations in a specified time range without identifying specific violations or locations. Summaries may include total enforcement actions, total proposed civil penalty amounts, number of cases opened, number of cases referred to TSA or FAA counsel for legal enforcement action, and number of cases closed.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (12) 
                            <E T="03">Critical transportation infrastructure asset information.</E>
                             Any list identifying systems or assets, whether physical or logical/virtual, so vital to the aviation, maritime, or surface transportation that the incapacity or destruction of such assets would have a debilitating impact on transportation security, if the list is—
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (13) 
                            <E T="03">Systems security information.</E>
                             Any information involving the security of operational or administrative data systems operated by the Federal government that have been identified by the DOT or DHS as critical to aviation, maritime, or surface transportation safety or security, including automated information security procedures and systems, security inspections, and vulnerability information concerning those systems.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (14) 
                            <E T="03">Confidential business information.</E>
                             (i) Solicited or unsolicited proposals received by DHS or DOT, and negotiations arising therefrom, to perform work pursuant to a grant, contract, cooperative agreement, or other transaction, but only to the extent that the subject matter of the proposal relates to aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security measures;
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Trade secret information, including information required or requested by regulation or SD, obtained by DHS or DOT in carrying out aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security responsibilities; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Commercial or financial information, including information required or requested by regulation or SD, obtained by DHS or DOT in carrying out aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security responsibilities, but only if the source of the information does not customarily disclose it to the public.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 1520.7 by revising paragraph (i) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1520.7</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Covered persons.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(i) Each person conducting research and development activities that relate to aviation, maritime, or surface transportation security and are approved, accepted, funded, recommended, or directed by DHS or DOT.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1570—GENERAL RULES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>7. Revise the authority citation for part 1570 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>18 U.S.C. 842, 845; 46 U.S.C. 70105; 49 U.S.C. 114, 5103a, 40113, and 46105; Pub. L. 108-90, 117 Stat. 1156, as amended by Pub. L. 110-329, 122 Stat. 3689; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <AMDPAR>8. Revise § 1570.1 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.1 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             This part applies to any person involved in maritime or surface transportation as specified in this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Delegation of authority.</E>
                             (1) Where the Administrator is named in this subchapter as exercising authority over a function, the authority is exercised by the Administrator or the Deputy Administrator, or any individual formally designated to act as the Administrator or the Deputy Administrator.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Where TSA or the designated official is named in this subchapter as exercising authority over a function, the authority is exercised by the official designated by the Administrator to perform that function.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 1570.3 by adding the definitions “Accountable executive”, “Cybersecurity”, “Cybersecurity-sensitive employee”, and “Physical security” in alphabetical order to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.3 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Terms used in this subchapter.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88554"/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Accountable executive</E>
                             means an individual identified by an owner/operator who has responsibility and accountability for the owner/operator's compliance with the requirements of this subchapter, including authority over human resource issues, major financial issues, conduct of the owner/operator's affairs, all operations conducted related to the requirements of this subchapter, and responsibility for all transportation-related security issues.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Cybersecurity</E>
                             means measures to prevent damage to, protect, and restore Information Technology and Operational Technology systems as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, including protection of data to ensure its availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation. Cybersecurity and physical security are not mutually exclusive concepts.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Cybersecurity-sensitive employee</E>
                             means any employee who is a privileged user with access to, or privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or any Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Physical security</E>
                             means measures to (1) protect the safety and security of persons and property resulting from disruption of operations; (2) prevent damage to, protection of, and restoration of physical assets and operations; and (3) controls to prevent unauthorized access to or disruption of physical and virtual assets and operations. Physical security encompasses the security of systems and facilities, as well as the persons in areas in or near to operations that could have their safety and security threatened by an attack on physical systems and assets. Cybersecurity and physical security are not mutually exclusive concepts.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 1570.7 by adding paragraph (a)(4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.7 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security responsibilities of employees and other persons.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(4) Access information or operational technology systems without complying with the security measures required under this subchapter to control access to or modification to such systems.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>11. Revise subpart B of part 1570 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>1570.101 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.103 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Content.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.105 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Responsibility for determinations.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.107 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Approval and amendments.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.109 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Alternate means of compliance for seasonal or infrequent operations.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.111 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Extensions of time.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.113 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.115 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Withdrawal of approval of a security program.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.117 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping and availability.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1572.119 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1570.121 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Severability.</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The requirements of this subpart address general security program requirements applicable to each owner/operator required to have a security program under parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.103 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Content.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Security program.</E>
                             Except as otherwise approved by TSA, each owner/operator required to have a security program under parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter must include in its security program detailed information describing how it addresses each of the requirements identified in the applicable part.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Index.</E>
                             The owner/operator required to have a security program under parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter must ensure the required security program includes an index organized in the same subject area sequence as the requirements in the applicable part or subpart.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Use of appendices.</E>
                             (1) The owner/operator may comply with the requirement in paragraph (a) of this section by including in its security program any document that contains the information required by the applicable security program required by parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter, including previously developed plans, policies, and/or procedures that support compliance with these requirements.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) These documents may be provided as either an appendix to the security program or as a list of documents, including specific applicable sections, that contain the required information. The owner/operator must include an index of the records and their location organized in the same sequence as the requirements in the applicable parts.</P>
                        <P>(3) The appendix or documents listed in it must be explicitly incorporated by reference and become part of the corresponding section(s) of the security program.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Responsibility for determinations.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Higher-risk operations.</E>
                             Owner/operators of freight railroads, public transportation systems, passenger railroads, over-the-road buses (OTRB), and pipeline system and facilities are required to determine if the applicability criteria identified for security programs or other requirements identified in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter apply to their operations. Unless otherwise notified in writing by TSA, owner/operators must notify TSA of applicability before [DATE 30 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">New or modified operations.</E>
                             If an owner/operator commences new operations or modifies existing operations after [DATE 30 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], that owner/operator is responsible for determining whether the new or modified operations would meet the applicability criteria in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter and must notify TSA no more than the later of [DATE 60 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or 60 calendar days before commencing operations or implementing modifications that would result in meeting the applicability criteria.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Continued applicability.</E>
                             Once an owner/operator becomes subject to the requirements in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter, the requirements continue to apply unless otherwise exempted under the procedures in paragraph (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Permanent changes in operations.</E>
                             If an owner/operator changes operations to the extent that any of the applicability criteria for requirements in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter no longer apply, the owner/operator is responsible for notifying TSA of the change. Notification must be provided in writing and include documentation that operations no longer meet the criteria for applicability. TSA may require additional documentation to support the owner/operator's assertions. If TSA confirms the change in operations, TSA will provide a written, operation and requirement-specific exemption to the owner/operator. If the operations change in the future, the owner/operator must comply with the procedures in paragraph (b) for new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.107 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Approval and amendments.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Initial approval of security program.</E>
                             Unless otherwise authorized by TSA, each owner/operator required 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88555"/>
                            to have a security program under this subchapter must submit its proposed security program to TSA for approval no later than the deadline specified in the applicable requirements. The proposed security program must meet the requirements applicable to its operation, as required by this subchapter. The following procedures apply to security program approvals:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">TSA approval.</E>
                             Within 60 days of receiving the owner/operator's proposed security program required by parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter, the designated official will either approve the program or give the owner/operator written notice to modify the program to comply with the applicable requirements of this subchapter. TSA may request additional information, and the owner/operator must provide the information within the time period TSA prescribes. The 60-day period for TSA approval will begin when the owner/operator provides the additional information. After all required information is received, TSA will notify the owner/operator if it needs an extension of time to approve the program or provide the owner/operator with written notice to modify the program to comply with the applicable requirements of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Notice to modify.</E>
                             (i) If TSA provides the owner/operator with written notice to modify the security program to comply with the applicable requirements of this subchapter, the owner/operator must provide a modified security program to TSA for approval within the timeframe specified by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The owner/operator may either submit a modified security program to the designated official for approval, or petition for reconsideration under paragraph (f) of this section within 30 days of receiving a notice to modify.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Amendment requested by an owner/operator.</E>
                             Once a security program (including any appendices, policies, procedures, or measures incorporated by reference) required by parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 is approved by TSA, the owner/operator must request an amendment for any permanent (intended to be in effect for 60 or more calendar days), substantive changes to its security program. Except as provided in paragraph (c), an owner/operator requesting approval to amend its security program must request an amendment in advance of implementing the proposed change using the following procedures:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The request for an amendment must be filed with the designated official at least 45 days before the date it proposes for the amendment to become effective unless a shorter period is allowed by the designated official.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within 30 days after receiving a proposed amendment, the designated official, in writing, either approves or denies the request to amend.</P>
                        <P>(3) TSA may approve an amendment to a security program if the designated official determines that the interest of the public and transportation security will allow it, and the proposed amendment provides the level of security required under this subchapter. In considering the request for alternative measures, TSA will review all relevant factors including—</P>
                        <P>(i) The risks associated with the type of operation, for example, whether the owner/operator transports hazardous materials or passengers within a high threat urban area, whether the owner/operator transports passengers and the volume of passengers transported, or whether the owner/operator hosts a passenger operation.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any relevant threat information.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Other circumstances concerning potential risk to the public and transportation security.</P>
                        <P>(4) No later than 30 calendar days after receiving a denial, the owner/operator may petition for reconsideration under paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(5) Owner/operators may submit a group proposal for an amendment that is on behalf of it and other owner/operators that co-sign the proposal. The joint proposal may only be submitted by owner/operators subject to the applicable requirements.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Administrative, clerical, and temporary changes to policies, procedures, or measures in a TSA-approved Security Program.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Administrative or clerical changes.</E>
                             (i) An owner/operator is not required to notify TSA of administrative or technical changes to its TSA-approved security program. This exception is limited to changes that do not affect policies, procedures, or measures in the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Owner/operators must keep a chronological record of administrative or clerical changes that indicates the relevant portion of the security program that is being changed and when the change occurred. This information must be maintained for a duration that includes, at a minimum, any changes made during the period of one year before the date of the most recently approved security program.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Temporary changes affecting security matters.</E>
                             (i) The owner/operator must notify TSA in writing no more than 24 hours after any temporary, substantive change to its TSA-approved security program. For purposes of this requirement, a temporary, substantive change is any change that affects policies, procedures, or measures in the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program, that is not intended to be in effect for 60 or more calendar days.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Within seven calendar days of the notification in paragraph (c)(2)(i), the owner/operator must inform TSA, in writing, of each interim policy, procedure, or measure being used to maintain adequate security while the temporary, substantive change is in effect. The owner/operator must include in its written notification a description of how the interim policy, procedure, or measure provides the same level of security as the previously approved policy, procedure, or measure. TSA will notify the owner/operator in writing if TSA does not concur that the interim measures provide a commensurate level of security. TSA may request additional information to make its determination.</P>
                        <P>(iii) If the duration of the temporary, substantive change exceeds or is expected to exceed 60 or more calendar days, the owner/operator must seek an amendment to the security program as required by paragraph (b). The request for an amendment must be submitted no more than 65 days after the temporary, substantive change initially took effect.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Amendment by TSA.</E>
                             In the interest of the public and transportation security, TSA may amend a security program using the following procedures:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The designated official will notify the owner/operator, in writing, of the proposed amendment, fixing a period of not less than 30 calendar days within which the owner/operator may submit written information, views, and arguments on the amendment.</P>
                        <P>(2) After considering all relevant material, the designated official will notify the owner/operator of any amendment adopted or rescind the notice of amendment. If the amendment is adopted, it becomes effective not less than 30 calendar days after the owner/operator receives the notice of amendment, unless the owner/operator submits a petition for reconsideration under paragraph (f) of this section no later than 15 calendar days before the effective date of the amendment. A timely petition for reconsideration stays the effective date of the amendment.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Emergency amendments.</E>
                             If the designated official finds that there is an emergency requiring immediate action to protect transportation security that makes procedures in this section contrary to the public interest, the designated official may issue an 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88556"/>
                            amendment, without the prior notice and comment procedures in paragraph (c) of this section, effective without stay on the date the owner/operator receives notice of it. In such a case, the designated official will incorporate in the notice a brief statement of the reasons and findings for the amendment to be adopted. The owner/operator may file a petition for reconsideration under paragraph (e) of this section within 15 calendar days of the effective date of the emergency amendment; however, this filing does not stay the effective date of the emergency amendment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Petitions for reconsideration.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Process for filing.</E>
                             If an owner/operator seeks to petition for reconsideration of a determination, required modification, denial of a request for an amendment by the owner/operator, denial to rescind a TSA-required amendment, denial of an alternative measure, or issuance of a security directive, the owner/operator must submit the petition, together with any pertinent information, to the Administrator for reconsideration. The petition for reconsideration must be submitted within the timeframe given in the applicable section and include a statement and any supporting documentation explaining why the owner/operator believes TSA's decision or action is incorrect. TSA review of a petition for reconsideration will begin when the owner/operator provides all required information.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">TSA review.</E>
                             Upon review of the petition for reconsideration, the Administrator or designee will dispose of the petition for reconsideration by affirming, modifying, or rescinding its previous decision.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Final agency action.</E>
                             The disposition of a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator is considered a final agency action.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Alternate means of compliance for seasonal or infrequent operations.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>If in TSA's judgment, the overall safety and security of operations for which a security program is required under this subchapter are not diminished, then TSA may approve a security program that provides for the use of alternate measures. Such a program may be considered only for an owner/operator at which operations that meet the criteria for applicability in parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter are determined by TSA to be seasonal or infrequent.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Extensions of time.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>TSA may grant an extension of time for implementing a security program required by this subchapter upon a showing of good cause. The owner/operator must request the extension of time in writing, and TSA must receive the request within a reasonable time before the due date to be extended; an owner/operator may request an extension after the expiration of a due date by sending a written request describing why the failure to meet the due date was excusable. TSA will respond to the request in writing.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Withdrawal of approval of a security program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             This section applies to holders of a security program approved or accepted by TSA under 49 CFR chapter XII, subchapter D.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Withdrawal of security program approval.</E>
                             TSA may withdraw the approval of a security program, if TSA determines continued operation is contrary to security and the public interest, as follows:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Notice of proposed withdrawal of approval.</E>
                             TSA will serve a Notice of Proposed Withdrawal of Approval, which notifies the holder of the security program, in writing, of the facts, charges, and applicable law, regulation, or order that form the basis of the determination.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Security program holder's reply.</E>
                             The holder of the security program may respond to the Notice of Proposed Withdrawal of Approval no later than 15 calendar days after receipt of the withdrawal by providing the designated official, in writing, with any material facts, arguments, applicable law, and regulation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">TSA review.</E>
                             The designated official will consider all information available, including any relevant material or information submitted by the holder of the security program, before either issuing a Withdrawal of Approval of the security program or rescinding the Notice of Proposed Withdrawal of Approval. If TSA issues a Withdrawal of Approval, it becomes effective upon receipt by the holder of the security program, or 15 calendar days after service, whichever occurs first.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Petition for reconsideration.</E>
                             The holder of the security program may petition TSA to reconsider its Withdrawal of Approval by serving a petition for consideration no later than 15 calendar days after the holder of the security program receives the Withdrawal of Approval. The holder of the security program must serve the Petition for Reconsideration on the designated official. Submission of a Petition for Reconsideration will not stay the Withdrawal of Approval. The holder of the security program may request the designated official to stay the Withdrawal of Approval pending review of and decision on the Petition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Administrator's review.</E>
                             The designated official transmits the Petition together with all pertinent information to the Administrator for reconsideration. The Administrator will dispose of the Petition within 15 calendar days of receipt by either directing the designated official to rescind the Withdrawal of Approval or by affirming the Withdrawal of Approval. The decision of the Administrator constitutes a final agency order subject to judicial review in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 46110.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Emergency withdrawal.</E>
                             If TSA finds that there is an emergency with respect to transportation security requiring immediate action that makes the procedures in this section contrary to the public interest, the designated official may issue an Emergency Withdrawal of Approval of a security program without first issuing a Notice of Proposed Withdrawal of Approval. The Emergency Withdrawal would be effective on the date that the holder of the security program receives the emergency withdrawal. In such a case, the designated official will send the holder of the security program a brief statement of the facts, charges, applicable law, regulation, or order that forms the basis for the Emergency Withdrawal. The holder of the security program may submit a Petition for Reconsideration under the procedures in paragraphs (b)(4) through (b)(5) of this section; however, this petition will not stay the effective date of the Emergency Withdrawal.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Service of documents for withdrawal of approval of security program proceedings.</E>
                             Service may be accomplished by personal delivery, certified mail, or express courier. Documents served on the holder of a security program will be served at its official place of business as designated in its security program. Documents served on TSA must be served to the address noted in the Notice of Withdrawal of Approval or Withdrawal of Approval, whichever is applicable.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Certificate of service.</E>
                             An individual may attach a certificate of service to a document tendered for filing. A certificate of service must consist of a statement, dated and signed by the person filing the document, that the document was personally delivered, served by certified mail on a specific date, or served by express courier on a specific date.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Date of service.</E>
                             The date of service is—
                            <PRTPAGE P="88557"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The date of personal delivery;</P>
                        <P>(ii) If served by certified mail, the mailing date shown on the certificate of service, the date shown on the postmark if there is no certificate of service, or other mailing date shown by other evidence if there is no certificate of service or postmark; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) If served by express courier, the service date shown on the certificate of service, or by other evidence if there is no certificate of service.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Extension of time.</E>
                             TSA may grant an extension of time to the limits set forth in this section for good cause shown. A security program holder must submit a request for an extension of time in writing, and TSA must receive it at least 2 days before the due date to be considered. TSA may grant itself an extension of time for good cause.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.117 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping and availability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Retention.</E>
                             In addition to submission of documents as required by parts 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586 of this subchapter, each owner/operator required to have a security program under these parts must—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Maintain and make available to TSA records to establish compliance with the requirements in this subchapter, including all plans, procedures, and other documents (including cited sections of these documents) incorporated by reference into a security program required by parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter.</P>
                        <P>(2) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The records required by paragraph (a) of this section must be retained at the owner/operator's corporate headquarters unless otherwise directed by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Physical and electronic records.</E>
                             (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2), each owner/operator required to retain records under this section may keep them in electronic form. An owner/operator may maintain and transfer records through electronic transmission, storage, and retrieval provided that the electronic system provides for the maintenance of records as originally submitted without corruption, loss of data, or tampering.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The owner/operator must maintain one written copy of the current and complete TSA-approved security program required by the applicable part or subpart of this subchapter, signed by the owner/operator, at its corporate headquarters, plus one written copy of the most recent security program previously approved by TSA.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Availability to TSA.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must make the records available to TSA upon request, including through electronic submission if applicable, for inspection and copying.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Protection of SSI.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must restrict the distribution, disclosure, and availability of Sensitive Security Information, as identified in part 1520 of this chapter, to persons with a need to know. The owner/operator must refer requests for such information by other persons to TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Dissemination to employees.</E>
                             Subject to the restrictions in paragraph (e) of this section, each owner/operator must make copies of the security program, relevant portions of the security program, or implementing instructions available to the employees who are responsible for implementing it, consistent with personnel security access rights, background investigation restrictions, and a demonstrated need to know.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.119</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Persons subject to the requirements in parts 1570, 1580, 1582, 1584, and 1586 of this subchapter must exhaust the administrative remedies set forth in this part before seeking judicial review.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.121</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Severability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Any provision of this subchapter held to be invalid or unenforceable as applied to any person or circumstance shall be construed so as to continue to give the maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, including as applied to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances, unless such holding is that the provision of this subchapter is invalid and unenforceable in all circumstances, in which event the provision shall be severable from the remainder of this subchapter and shall not affect the remainder thereof.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>12. Revise subpart C of part 1570 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Threat and Threat Response</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Sec.</HD>
                            <SECTNO>1570.201</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Security Directives and Information Circulars.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1570.203</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Alternate measures.</SUBJECT>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.201</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security Directives and Information Circulars.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) The requirements in this section apply to each owner/operator identified in §§ 1580.1, 1582.1, 1584.1, and 1586.1 of this subchapter.</P>
                        <P>(b) TSA may issue an Information Circular to notify owner/operators of security concerns. When TSA determines that additional security measures are necessary to respond to a threat assessment or to a specific threat against transportation security, TSA issues a Security Directive setting forth mandatory measures.</P>
                        <P>(c) Each owner/operator must comply with each Security Directive issued to the owner/operator within the time prescribed in the Security Directive.</P>
                        <P>(d) Each owner/operator that receives a Security Directive must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Within the time prescribed in the Security Directive, acknowledge receipt of the Security Directive to TSA as required in the Security Directive.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within the time prescribed in the Security Directive, specify the method by which the measures in the Security Directive have been implemented (or will be implemented, if the Security Directive is not yet effective).</P>
                        <P>(e) In the event that the owner/operator is unable to implement the measures in the Security Directive, the owner/operator must submit proposed alternative measures following the procedures in § 1570.203, and the basis for submitting the alternative measures to TSA for approval. The owner/operator must implement any alternative measures approved by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(f) Each owner/operator that receives a Security Directive may comment on the Security Directive by submitting data, views, or arguments in writing to TSA. TSA may amend the Security Directive based on comments received. Submission of a comment does not delay the effective date of the Security Directive.</P>
                        <P>(g) The owner/operator may file a petition for reconsideration under paragraph (e) of § 1570.107 within 15 days of the effective date of a Security Directive; however, this filing does not stay the effective date of the Security Directive.</P>
                        <P>(h) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(3) of this section, each owner/operator that receives a Security Directive or an Information Circular and each person who receives information from a Security Directive or an Information Circular must:</P>
                        <P>(1) Restrict the availability of the Security Directive or Information Circular, and information contained in either document, to those persons with an operational need-to-know.</P>
                        <P>(2) Refuse to release the Security Directive or Information Circular, and information contained in either document, to persons other than those who have an operational need to know without the prior written consent of TSA.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) The requirements in paragraph (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this section do not apply if the TSA Administrator, or designee, under the authority of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88558"/>
                            § 1520.5(c) of this chapter, determines that a Security Directive or Information Circular does not contain Sensitive Security Information.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1570.203</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Alternative measures.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) If in TSA's judgment, the overall security of transportation provided by an owner/operator subject to the requirements of parts 1580, 1582, 1584, or 1586 of this subchapter are not diminished, TSA may approve alternative measures to requirements in a Security Directive.</P>
                        <P>(b) Each owner/operator requesting alternative measures must file the request for approval in a form and manner prescribed by TSA. The filing of such a request does not affect the owner/operator's responsibility for compliance while the request is being considered.</P>
                        <P>(c) TSA may request additional information, and the owner/operator must provide the information within the period TSA prescribes. Within 30 calendar days after receiving a request for alternative measures and all requested information, TSA will, in writing, either approve or deny the request.</P>
                        <P>(d) If TSA finds that the use of the alternative measures is in the interest of the public and transportation security, it may grant the request subject to any conditions TSA deems necessary. In considering the request for alternative measures, TSA will review all relevant factors, including—</P>
                        <P>(1) The risks associated with the type of operation, for example, whether the owner/operator transports hazardous materials or passengers within a high threat urban area, whether the owner/operator transports passengers and the volume of passengers transported, or whether the owner/operator hosts a passenger operation.</P>
                        <P>(2) Any relevant threat information.</P>
                        <P>(3) Other circumstances concerning potential risk to the public and transportation security.</P>
                        <P>(e) No later than 30 calendar days after receiving a denial, the owner/operator may petition for reconsideration under § 1570.107(f).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Part 1570 [Removed]</HD>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>13. Remove Appendix A to part 1570.</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1580—FREIGHT RAIL TRANSPORTATION SECURITY</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>14. The authority citation for part 1580 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 114; Pub. L. 110-53 (121 Stat. 266, Aug. 3, 2007) secs. 1501 (6 U.S.C. 1151), 1512 (6 U.S.C. 1162) and 1517 (6 U.S.C. 1167).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <AMDPAR>15. Amend § 1580.3 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising the introductory paragraph;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the definition of “Class I”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding the definitions of “Class I, II, or III”, “Component”, “Defense Connector Railroad”, “Positive Train Control”, “Switching or terminal service”, and “Train miles” in alphabetical order.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Terms used in this part.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>In addition to the terms in §§ 1500.3, 1500.5, and 1503.103 of subchapter A and § 1570.3 of subchapter D of this chapter, the following terms apply to this part:</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Class I, Class II, or Class III freight railroad</E>
                             has the same meaning as “Class I,” “Class II,” and “Class III” freight railroads as determined by regulations of the Surface Transportation Board c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Component</E>
                             has the same meaning as “component” as defined in 49 CFR 236.903.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Defense Connector Railroad</E>
                             means a railroad that has a line of common carrier obligation designated a defense connector line by the US Army Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command Transportation Engineering Agency (SDDCTEA) and Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) which connects defense installations or other activities requiring rail service to the Strategic Rail Corridor Network (STRACNET).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Positive train control (PTC)</E>
                             has the same meaning as “positive train control” as defined in 49 CFR 236.1003.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Switching or terminal services</E>
                             means the furnishing or terminal facilities for passenger or freight rail traffic for line-haul service and the movement of railroad cars between terminal yards, industrial sidings, and other local sites. This term does not include movement of a train or part of a train within yard limits by the road locomotive and the placement of locomotives or cars in a train or their removal from a train by the road locomotive while en route to the train's destination.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Train miles</E>
                             means a unit in railroad accounting that refers to the distance of one mile covered by a single train, which may have several cars.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>16. Revise subpart B of part 1580 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs: Physical Security</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Sec.</HD>
                            <SECTNO>1580.101</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.103</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.105</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.107</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.109</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.111</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.113</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.115</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>This subpart includes requirements that are primarily intended to ensure the physical security of freight rail operations. Physical security encompasses the security of individuals, cargo, rail secure areas, rail cars, and transportation facilities, as well as the persons in areas in or near to rail operations that could have their safety and security threatened by an attack on physical systems and assets. Each person identified in § 1580.1 must review the applicability in each section of this subpart to determine whether they are an owner/operator to whom the requirements apply based on their operations and the criteria for applicability.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.103</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, each owner/operator identified in § 1580.1 must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator at the corporate level to function as the administrator for sharing security-related activities and information.</P>
                        <P>(2) An owner/operator identified in § 1580.1(a)(5) (private rail cars and circus trains) must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator, only if notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that type of operation.</P>
                        <P>(b) The primary Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Be accessible to TSA on a 24 hours per day, 7 days per week basis;</P>
                        <P>(2) Serve as the primary contact(s) for intelligence information and security-related activities and communications with TSA. Any individual designated as a Physical Security Coordinator may perform other duties in addition to the duties described in this section; and</P>
                        <P>(3) Coordinate security practices and procedures required by this subchapter internally and with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88559"/>
                            eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>(d) Each owner/operator required to have a Physical Security Coordinator must provide in writing to TSA the names, U.S. citizenship status, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s). Changes in any of the information required by this section must be submitted to TSA within 7 calendar days.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1580.1 must report, within 24 hours of initial discovery, any potential threats and significant physical security concerns involving transportation-related operations in the United States or transportation to, from, or within the United States as soon as possible by the methods prescribed by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(b) Potential threats or significant physical security concerns encompass incidents, suspicious activities, and threat information affecting physical operations including, but not limited to, the categories of reportable events listed in appendix C to this part.</P>
                        <P>(c) Information reported must include the following, as available and applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number or email address.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected freight or passenger train, station, terminal, rail hazardous materials facility, or other transportation facility or infrastructure, including identifying information and current location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Scheduled origination and termination locations for the affected freight or passenger train-including departure and destination city and route.</P>
                        <P>(4) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, including who has been notified and what action has been taken.</P>
                        <P>(5) The names, other available biographical data, and/or descriptions (including vehicle or license plate information) of individuals or motor vehicles known or suspected to be involved in the threat, incident, or activity.</P>
                        <P>(6) The source of any threat information.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.107</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             This section applies to each owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Described in § 1580.1(a)(1) that is a Class I freight railroad.</P>
                        <P>(2) Described in § 1580.1(a)(1) that transports one or more of the categories and quantities of RSSM in an HTUA.</P>
                        <P>(3) Described in § 1580.1(a)(4) that serves as a host railroad to a freight railroad described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) or a passenger operation described in § 1582.101 of this subchapter.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Training required for security-sensitive employees.</E>
                             No owner/operator identified in paragraph (a) of this section may use a security-sensitive employee to perform a function identified in Appendix B to this part, unless that individual has received training as part of a security training program approved by TSA or is under the direct supervision of an employee who has received the training required by this section as applicable to that security-sensitive function. Upon approval, this security training program becomes part of the owner/operators TSA-approved security program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Limits on use of untrained employees.</E>
                             Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a security-sensitive employee may not perform a security-sensitive function for more than 60 calendar days without receiving security training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">General requirements.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to provide security training to its employees under this section must submit its security training program to TSA for approval in a form and manner prescribed by TSA. The security training program must include the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Name of owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>(2) Name, title, telephone number, and email address of the primary individual to be contacted about review of the security training program.</P>
                        <P>(3) Number, by specific job function category identified in Appendix B to this part, of security-sensitive employees trained or to be trained.</P>
                        <P>(4) Implementation schedule that identifies a specific date by which the required initial and recurrent security training will be completed.</P>
                        <P>(5) Location where training program records will be maintained.</P>
                        <P>(6) Plan for ensuring supervision of untrained security-sensitive employees performing functions identified in Appendix B to this part.</P>
                        <P>(7) Plan for notifying employees of changes to security measures that could change information provided in previously provided training.</P>
                        <P>(8) Method(s) for evaluating the effectiveness of the security training program in each area required by paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                             The security training program submitted to TSA for approval must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (j) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training must be submitted and approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Prepare.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees with position- or function-specific responsibilities under the owner/operator's security program has knowledge of how to fulfill those responsibilities in the event of a security threat, breach, or incident to ensure—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Employees with responsibility for transportation security equipment and systems are aware of their responsibilities and can verify the equipment and systems are operating and properly maintained; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Employees with other duties and responsibilities under the company's security plans and/or programs, including those required by Federal law, know their assignments and the steps or resources needed to fulfill them.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Chain of Custody.</E>
                             Each employee who performs any security-related functions under § 1580.205 of this subchapter must be provided training specifically applicable to the functions the employee performs. As applicable, this training must address—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Inspecting rail cars for signs of tampering or compromise, IEDs, suspicious items, and items that do not belong;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Identification of rail cars that contain rail security-sensitive materials, including the owner/operator's procedures for identifying rail security-sensitive material cars on train documents, shipping papers, and in computer train/car management systems; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Procedures for completing transfer of custody documentation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Observe.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-
                            <PRTPAGE P="88560"/>
                            sensitive employees has knowledge of the observational skills necessary to recognize—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Suspicious and/or dangerous items, such as substances, packages, or conditions (for example, characteristics of an Improvised Explosive Device and signs of equipment tampering or sabotage);</P>
                        <P>(ii) Combinations of actions and individual behaviors that appear suspicious and/or dangerous, inappropriate, inconsistent, or out of the ordinary for the employee's work environment, which could indicate a threat to transportation security; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) How a terrorist or someone with malicious intent may attempt to gain sensitive information or take advantage of vulnerabilities.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Assess.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge necessary to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Determine whether the item, individual, behavior, or situation requires a response as a potential terrorist threat based on the respective transportation environment; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Identify appropriate responses based on observations and context.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Respond.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge of how to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Appropriately report a security threat, including knowing how and when to report internally to other employees, supervisors, or management, and externally to Local, State, or Federal agencies according to the owner/operator's security procedures or other relevant plans;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Interact with the public and first responders at the scene of the threat or incident, including communication with passengers on evacuation and any specific procedures for individuals with disabilities and the elderly; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Use any applicable self-defense devices or other protective equipment provided to employees by the owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Relation to other training.</E>
                             Training conducted by owner/operators to comply with other requirements or standards, such as emergency preparedness training required by the Department of Transportation (DOT) (49 CFR part 239) or other training for communicating with emergency responders to arrange the evacuation of passengers, may be combined with, and used to satisfy, elements of the training requirements in this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Submission.</E>
                             If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after June 21, 2021, the training program must be submitted to TSA no later than 90 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Initial security training.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must provide initial security training to security-sensitive employees, using the curriculum approved by TSA and in compliance with the following schedule. (1) For security training programs submitted to TSA for approval after March 22, 2021, if the employee is employed to perform a security-sensitive function on the date TSA approves the program, then initial training must be provided no later than 12 months after the date that TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If performance of a security-sensitive job function is initiated after TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program, then initial training must be provided no later than 60 calendar days after the employee first performs the security-sensitive job function.</P>
                        <P>(3) If the security-sensitive job function is performed intermittently, then initial security training must be provided no later than the 60th calendar day of employment performing a security-sensitive function, aggregated over a consecutive 12-month period.</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Recurrent security training.</E>
                             (1) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, a security-sensitive employee required to receive training must receive the required training at least once every 3 years.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If an owner/operator modifies a security program or security plan for which training is required, the owner/operator must ensure each security-sensitive employee with position- or function-specific responsibilities related to the revised plan or program changes receives training on the revisions within 90 days of implementation of the revised plan or program changes. All other employees must receive training that reflects the changes to the operating security requirements as part of their regularly scheduled recurrent training.</P>
                        <P>(3) The 3-year recurrent training cycle is based on the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial security training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent security training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.</P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition of prior training.</E>
                             Previously provided security training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the function of the individual security-sensitive employee and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (l).</P>
                        <P>
                            (l) 
                            <E T="03">Retention of security training records.</E>
                             The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent security training records for each individual required to receive security training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Includes employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent security training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the security training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (f) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                             The owner/operator must provide records of security training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (n) 
                            <E T="03">Incorporation into security program.</E>
                             Once approved by TSA, the security training program required by this section is part of the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program. The owner/operator must implement and maintain the security training program and comply with timeframes for implementation identified in the security training program. Any modifications or amendments to the program must be made as stipulated in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (o) 
                            <E T="03">Situations requiring owner/operator to revise security training program.</E>
                             The owner/operator must submit a request to amend its security program if, after approval, the owner/operator makes, or intends to make, permanent (to be in effect for 60 or more calendar days) or substantive changes to its security training curriculum, including changes to address:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Determinations that the security training program is ineffective based on the approved method for evaluating effectiveness in the security training program approved by TSA; or</P>
                        <P>(2) Development of recurrent training material for purposes of meeting the requirements in paragraph (j) of this section or other alternative training materials not previously approved by TSA.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="88561"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>17. Revise the heading of subpart C of part 1580 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Security of Rail Security-Sensitive Materials</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <AMDPAR>18. Add subpart D of part 1580 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Cybersecurity Risk Management</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Sec.</HD>
                            <SECTNO>1580.301</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.303</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.305</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.307</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.309</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.311</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.313</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.315</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.317</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.319</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.321</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.323</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.325</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.327</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.329</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1580.331</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.301</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                             This subpart includes requirements to ensure the cybersecurity of freight rail operations and to mitigate the risk of significant harm to the individuals, cargo, and transportation facilities, as well as persons in areas in or near rail operations, that could have their safety and security threatened because of the degradation, destruction, or malfunction of systems that control these systems and infrastructure. In addition, cybersecurity incidents could have significant, similar impacts on the movement of cargo critical to the supply chain, affecting the national and economic security of the United States. The owner/operators identified in § 1580.1 must review the applicability for carrying out a Cybersecurity Risk Management program in paragraph (b) of this section, designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator in § 1580.311, and reporting cybersecurity incidents in § 1580.325 to determine if the requirements apply to their operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             Each owner/operator described in § 1580.1 must adopt and carry out a Cybersecurity Risk Management (CRM) program for any operation that meets any of the following criteria:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Is a Class I freight railroad; or</P>
                        <P>(2) Is a Class II or III railroad, that:</P>
                        <P>(i) Provides switching or terminal services to two or more Class I railroads;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Transports one or more of the categories and quantities of RSSM in an HTUA;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Serves as a host railroad to a freight railroad described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section or a passenger operation described in § 1582.201(b) of this subchapter; or</P>
                        <P>(iv) Operates an average of at least 400,000 train miles in any of the three calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(3) Is designated as a Defense Connector Railroad.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.303</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General content requirements.</E>
                             The CRM program required by this subpart is a comprehensive program that includes the following components:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A cybersecurity evaluation completed and updated as required by § 1580.305;</P>
                        <P>(2) A TSA-approved Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (COIP) that meets the requirements in § 1580.307.</P>
                        <P>(3) A Cybersecurity Assessment Plan that meets the requirements in § 1580.329.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Subsidiaries.</E>
                             If a single CRM program is developed and implemented for multiple business units within a single corporate entity, any documents used to comply or establish compliance with the requirements in this subpart must clearly identify and distinguish application of the requirements to each business unit.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.305</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program must complete an initial and recurrent cybersecurity evaluation sufficient to determine the owner/operator's current enterprise-wide cybersecurity profile of logical/virtual and physical security controls when evaluated against the CRM program requirements in this subpart, using a form provided by TSA or other tools approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Timing.</E>
                             The initial cybersecurity evaluation must be completed no later than [DATE 90 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], but no more than one year before the date of submission of the owner/operator's Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan required by § 1580.307. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the initial cybersecurity evaluation must be submitted to TSA no later than 45 calendar days after commencing the new or modified operations triggering applicability.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Annual updates.</E>
                             The evaluation required by paragraph (a) of this section must be updated annually, no later than one year from the anniversary date of the previously completed evaluation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Notification.</E>
                             The owner/operator must notify TSA within 7 days of completing the evaluation and annual updates required by this section. A copy of the evaluation must be provided to TSA upon request.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Sensitive Security Information.</E>
                             This evaluation is a vulnerability assessment as defined in § 1500.3 of this subchapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.307</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must adopt a COIP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">General Content.</E>
                             The COIP must include the following corporate information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The name and corporate address of the owner/operator;</P>
                        <P>(2) Written attestation by the owner/operator's accountable executive that the COIP has been reviewed and approved by senior management; and</P>
                        <P>(3) Identification of specific operations that meet the applicability criteria.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific Content.</E>
                             The COIP must detail the owner/operator's defense-in-depth plan, including physical and logical/virtual security controls, to comply with the requirements and security outcomes specified in the following sections:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Governance.</E>
                             The requirements for governance of the CRM program in § 1580.309 and the designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator in § 1580.311.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Identification of Critical Cyber Systems, Network Architecture, and Interdependencies.</E>
                             The requirements to identify Critical Cyber Systems and network architecture in § 1580.313 and supply chain risk management in § 1580.315.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                             The requirements for protection of Critical Cyber Systems in § 1580.317 and training of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88562"/>
                            cybersecurity-sensitive employees in § 1580.319.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to detect cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                             The requirements for detecting cybersecurity incidents in § 1580.321.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to respond to, and recover from, cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                             The requirements for responding to cybersecurity incidents in § 1580.323, reporting cybersecurity incidents in § 1580.325, and the Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan in § 1580.327.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Plan of Action and Milestones.</E>
                             (1) To the extent an owner/operator does not meet every requirement and security outcome identified in paragraph (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section, the COIP must include a plan of action and milestones (POAM).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The POAM must include:</P>
                        <P>(i) Policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities that owner/operator will develop or obtain, as applicable, to ensure all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart are met;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Physical and logical/virtual security controls that the owner/operator will implement to mitigate the risks associated with not fully complying with requirements or security outcomes in this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) A detailed timeframe for full compliance with all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart, not to exceed 3 years from the date of submission to TSA of the COIP required by this section.</P>
                        <P>(3) The POAM must be updated as necessary to address any deficiencies identified during the evaluation required by § 1580.305 or as a result of an assessment conducted under § 1580.329 that will not be immediately addressed through an update to the COIP.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Approval and implementation.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Submission deadlines.</E>
                             The COIP must be made available to TSA, in a form and manner prescribed by TSA, no later than [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the COIP must be made available to TSA no later than 45 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Effective date.</E>
                             After considering all relevant materials and any additional information required by TSA, TSA will notify the owner/operator's accountable executive of TSA's decision to approve the owner/operator's COIP. The COIP becomes effective 30 days after the owner/operator is notified whether its COIP is approved.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">TSA-approved security program.</E>
                             Once approved by TSA, the COIP, any appendices, and any policies or procedures incorporated by reference, are a part of a TSA-approved security program, subject to the protections in part 1520 of this chapter and the procedures applicable to security programs in subpart B of part 1570 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Status Report and Updates.</E>
                             The CRM program must be reviewed and updated by the owner/operator within 60 days of the evaluations or assessments required by §§ 1580.305 or 1580.329, as necessary to address any identified vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the procedures, policies, or capabilities identified in the CRM program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Revisions.</E>
                             Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, any substantive modifications or amendments to the COIP must be made in accordance with the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.309</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Accountable Executive.</E>
                             (1) No later than [DATE 30 DAYS FROM EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the owner/operator must provide to TSA the names, titles, business telephone numbers, and business email addresses of the owner/operator's accountable executive, who is the primary individual to be contacted with regard to the owner/operator's CRM program. If any of the information required by this paragraph changes, the owner/operator must provide the updated information to TSA within 7 days of the change.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The accountable executive must be an individual who has the authority and knowledge necessary for the development, implementation, and managerial oversight of the TSA-approved CRM program, including cybersecurity administration, risk assessments, inspections and control procedures, and coordinating communications with the owner/operator's leadership and staff on implementation and sustainment of the CRM program. To the extent possible, the accountable executive should not be the Cybersecurity Coordinator or an individual responsible for management of Information or Operational Technology system or systems' administration.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">COIP.</E>
                             The COIP must also include:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identification of positions designated by the owner/operator to manage implementation of policies, procedures, and capabilities described in the COIP and coordinate improvements to the CRM program.</P>
                        <P>(2) Corporate-level identification of any authorized representatives, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, who are responsible for any or all of the CRM program or cybersecurity measures identified in the CRM program, and written documentation (such as contractual agreements) clearly identifying the roles and responsibilities of the authorized representative under the CRM program.</P>
                        <P>(3) The information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Process.</E>
                             Updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.311</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, each owner/operator identified in paragraphs § 1580.1(a)(1), (a)(4), and (a)(5) must designate employees at the corporate level to serve as the primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator with responsibility for sharing critical cybersecurity information.</P>
                        <P>(2) Each owner/operator identified in § 1580.1(a)(5) must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator, only if notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that type of operation.</P>
                        <P>(b) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Serve as the primary contact for cyber-related intelligence information and cybersecurity-related activities and communications with TSA and the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA);</P>
                        <P>(2) Have the following knowledge and skills, through current certifications or equivalent job experience:</P>
                        <P>(i) General cybersecurity guidance and best practices;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Relevant law and regulations pertaining to cybersecurity;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Handling of Sensitive Security Information and security-related communications; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) Current cybersecurity threats applicable to the owner/operator's operations and systems.</P>
                        <P>(3) Be accessible to TSA and CISA 24 hours per day, 7 days per week;</P>
                        <P>(4) Have a Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN) account or other TSA-designated communication platform for information sharing relevant to the requirements in this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) Work with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88563"/>
                            agencies in addressing cybersecurity threats or responding to cybersecurity incidents.
                        </P>
                        <P>(c) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(d) Owner/operators must provide in writing to TSA the names, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) required by paragraph (a) of this section no later than [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], or within 7 days of the commencement of new operations, or change in any of the information required by this section that occur after [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(e) In addition to providing the information to TSA as required by paragraph (d), any owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must also include the information required by paragraph (d) in the COIP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA of this information, and any changes to this information, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.313</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Identifying information.</E>
                             The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP a list of Critical Cyber Systems, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, that provides, at a minimum, the following identifying information for each Critical Cyber System:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identifier (system name or commercial name), and</P>
                        <P>(2) System manufacturer/designer name.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Identification methodology.</E>
                             The owner/operator must include a description of the methodology and information used to identify Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum, includes the following information as used to identify critical systems:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Standards and factors, including system interdependencies with critical functions, used to identify Information Technology and Operational Technology systems that could be vulnerable to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                        <P>(2) Sources and data, such as known threat information relevant to the system, that informed decisions regarding the likelihood of the system being subject to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                        <P>(3) Potential operational impacts of a cybersecurity incident, including scenarios that identify potential supply chain impacts and how long critical operations and capabilities could be sustained with identified alternatives if a system is offline; and</P>
                        <P>(4) Sustainability and operational impacts if an Information or Operational Technology system not identified as a Critical Cyber System becomes unavailable due to a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Positive Train Control (PTC) Systems.</E>
                             Owner/operators who are either required to install and operate PTC under 49 CFR part 236, subpart I, and/or voluntarily install and operate PTC under CFR part 236, subpart H or I, must include PTC systems as a Critical Cyber System.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">System information and network architecture.</E>
                             For all Critical Cyber Systems, the owner/operator must provide the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Information and Operational Technology system interdependencies for Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(2) All external connections to Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(3) Zone boundaries for Critical Cyber Systems, including a description of how Information and Operational Technology systems are defined and organized into logical/virtual zones based on criticality, consequence, and operational necessity;</P>
                        <P>(4) Baseline of acceptable communications between Critical Cyber Systems and external connections or between Information and Operational Technology systems; and</P>
                        <P>(5) Operational needs that prevent or delay implementation of the requirements in this subpart, such as application of security patches and updates, encryption of communications traversing Information and Operational Technology systems, and multi-factor authentication.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Additional systems.</E>
                             If notified by TSA, the owner/operator must include additional Critical Cyber Systems identified by TSA not previously identified by the owner/operator.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Changes in Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                             Any substantive changes to Critical Cyber Systems require an amendment to the COIP subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.315</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities to address supply chain cybersecurity vulnerabilities that include requiring—</P>
                        <P>(a) All procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, executed or updated after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] include a requirement for the vendor or service provider to notify the owner/operator of the following:</P>
                        <P>(1) Cybersecurity incidents affecting the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(2) Confirmed security vulnerabilities affecting the goods, services, or capabilities provided by the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of security vulnerability.</P>
                        <P>(b) Procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, incorporate an evaluation by the owner/operator or qualified third-party of the cybersecurity measures implemented by vendors or service providers of goods, services, or capabilities that will be connected to, installed on, or used by the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>(c) When provided two offerings of roughly similar cost and function, giving preference to the offering that provides the greater level of cybersecurity necessary to protect against, or effectively respond to, cybersecurity incidents affecting the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>(d) Upon notification of a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, immediate consideration of mitigation measures sufficient to address the resulting risk to Critical Cyber Systems and, as applicable, revision to the COIP in accordance with § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.317</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, controls and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems that meet security performance objectives in the following areas—</P>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Network segmentation.</E>
                             Network segmentation measures that protect against access to, or disruption of, the Operational Technology system if the Information Technology system is compromised or vice versa. These measures must be sufficient to—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) Ensure Information and Operational Technology system-services transit the other only when necessary 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88564"/>
                            for validated business or operational purposes;
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Secure and defend zone boundaries with security controls—</P>
                        <P>(i) To defend against unauthorized communications between zones; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) To prohibit Operational Technology system services from traversing the Information Technology system, and vice-versa, unless the content is encrypted at a level sufficient to secure and protect integrity of data and prevent corruption or compromise while in transit. If encryption is not technologically feasible, ensure content is otherwise secured and protected using compensating controls that provide the same level of security as encryption for data in transit.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Access control.</E>
                             Access control measures for Critical Cyber Systems, including for local and remote access, that secure and defend against unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems. Except as provided in paragraph (f), these measures must, at a minimum, incorporate the following policies, procedures, and controls:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identification and authentication requirements designed to prevent unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems, to include:</P>
                        <P>(i) A policy for memorized secret authenticator resets that includes criteria for passwords and when resets must occur, including procedures to ensure implementation of these requirements, such as password lockouts; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Documented and defined logical/virtual and physical security controls for components of Critical Cyber Systems that will not be subject to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(2) Multi-factor authentication, or other logical/virtual and physical security controls to supplement memorized secret authenticators (such as passwords) to provide risk mitigation commensurate to multi-factor authentication. If an owner/operator does not apply multi-factor authentication for access to Operational Technology components or assets, the owner/operator must specify what compensating controls are used to manage access.</P>
                        <P>(3) Management of access rights based on the principles of least privilege and separation of duties. Where not technically feasible to apply these principles, the policies and procedures must describe compensating controls that the owner/operator applies.</P>
                        <P>(4) Policies and procedures limit availability and use of shared accounts to those that are critical for operations, and then only if absolutely necessary. When the owner/operator uses shared accounts for operational purposes, the policies and procedures must ensure:</P>
                        <P>(i) Access to shared accounts is limited through account management that uses principles of least privilege and separation of duties;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any individual who no longer needs access does not have knowledge of the memorized secret authenticator necessary to access the shared account; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Logs are maintained sufficient to enable positive user identification of access to shared accounts to enable forensic investigation following a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(5) Regularly updated schedule for review of existing domain trust relationships to ensure their necessity and established and enforced policies to manage these relationships.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Patch management.</E>
                             Measures that reduce the risk of exploitation of unpatched systems through the application of security patches and updates for operating systems, applications, drivers, and firmware on Critical Cyber Systems consistent with the owner/operator's risk-based methodology. These measures must include:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A patch management strategy that ensures all critical security patches and updates on Critical Cyber Systems are current. This strategy must include:</P>
                        <P>(i) The risk methodology for categorizing and determining criticality of patches and updates, and an implementation timeline based on categorization and criticality; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Prioritization of all security patches and updates on CISA's Known Exploited Vulnerabilities Catalog.</P>
                        <P>(2) In instances where the owner/operator cannot apply patches and updates on specific Operational Technology systems without causing a severe degradation of operational capability to meet business critical functions, the owner/operator must provide an explanation for why the actions cannot be taken and a description and timeline of additional mitigations that address the risk created by not installing the patch or update within the recommended timeframe.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Logging policies.</E>
                             Logging policies sufficient to ensure logging data is—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Stored in a secure and centralized system, such as a security information and event management tool or database on a segmented network that can only be accessed or modified by authorized and authenticated users; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Maintained for a duration sufficient to allow for investigation of cybersecurity incidents as supported by a risk analysis and applicable standards or regulatory guidelines.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Secure back-ups.</E>
                             Policies that ensure all Critical Cyber Systems are backed-up on a regular basis consistent with operational need for the information, the back-ups are securely stored separate from the system, and policies that require testing the integrity of back-ups to ensure that the data is free of known malicious code when the back-ups are made.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Exception for PTC hardware and software components installed on locomotive.</E>
                             (1) For hardware and software components of a PTC system installed on a locomotive, owner/operators in compliance with requirements in 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4) (General requirements for locomotives), 49 CFR 236.3 (Locking of signal apparatus housings), and 49 CFR 256.553 (Seal, where required), may rely on the physical security measures used to comply with these requirements, as applicable, in lieu of implementing the requirements in paragraph (b).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If relying on the exception in paragraph (f)(1), the owner/operator must list the applicable PTC system as a Critical Cyber System; maintain compliance with the requirements specified in 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4), 49 CFR 236.3, and 49 CFR 256.553, as applicable; and include in the COIP a description of the physical security measures used to prevent unauthorized access to the identified PTC components.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.319</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Training required.</E>
                             (1) Owner/operators required to have a CRM program under this subchapter must provide basic cybersecurity training to all employees, with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) No owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this subpart may permit a cybersecurity-sensitive employee to access, or have privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or an Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System, unless that individual has received basic and role-based cybersecurity training.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                             The cybersecurity training program must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88565"/>
                            review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (e) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training will need to be submitted and approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Basic cybersecurity training.</E>
                             All employees and contractors with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems, must receive basic cybersecurity training that includes cybersecurity awareness to address best practices, acceptable use, risks associated with their level of privileged access, and awareness of security risks associated with their actions. This training must address the following topics:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Social engineering, including phishing;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Password best practices;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Remote work security basics;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Safe internet and social media use;</P>
                        <P>(v) Mobile device (wireless) vulnerabilities and network security;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Data management and information security, including protecting business email, confidential information, trade secrets, and privacy; and</P>
                        <P>(vii) How and to whom to report suspected inappropriate or suspicious activity involving Information or Operational Technology systems, including mobile devices provided by or connected to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Role-based cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Cybersecurity-sensitive employees must be provided cybersecurity training that specifically addresses their role as a privileged user to prevent and respond to a cybersecurity incident, acceptable uses, and the risks associated with their level of access and use as approved by the owner/operator. This training must address the following topics as applicable to the specific role:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Security measures and requirements in the COIP including how the requirements affect account and access management, server and application management, and system architecture development and assessment;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Recognition and detection of cybersecurity threats, types of cybersecurity incidents, and techniques used to circumvent cybersecurity measures;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Incident handling, including procedures for reporting a cybersecurity incident to the Cybersecurity Coordinator and understanding their roles and responsibilities during a cybersecurity incident and implementation of the owner/operator's Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan required by § 1580.327;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Requirements and sources for staying aware of changing cybersecurity threats and countermeasures; and</P>
                        <P>(v) Operational Technology-specific cybersecurity training for all personnel whose duties include access to Operational Technology systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Initial cybersecurity training.</E>
                             (1) Each owner/operator must provide initial cybersecurity training (basic and role-based, as applicable) to employees and contractors, using the curriculum approved by TSA no later than 60 days after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP required by this subpart.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) For individuals who onboard or become cybersecurity-sensitive employees after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP who did not receive training within the period identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the individual must receive the applicable cybersecurity training no later than 10 days after onboarding.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Recurrent cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Employees and contractors must receive annual recurrent cybersecurity training no later than the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial cybersecurity training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent cybersecurity training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition of prior or established cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Previously provided cybersecurity training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the role of the individual employee, and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Retention of cybersecurity training records.</E>
                             The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training records for each individual required to receive cybersecurity training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Includes the employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the cybersecurity training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                             The owner/operator must provide records of cybersecurity training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.321</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities sufficient to detect and respond to cybersecurity threats to, and anomalies on, Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                        <P>(a) Defend against malicious email, such as spam and phishing emails, to preclude or mitigate against adverse impacts to operations;</P>
                        <P>(b) Block ingress and egress communications with known or suspected malicious internet Protocol addresses;</P>
                        <P>(c) Control impact of known or suspected malicious web domains or web applications, such as by preventing users and devices from accessing malicious websites;</P>
                        <P>(d) Block and defend against unauthorized code, including macro scripts, from executing;</P>
                        <P>(e) Monitor and/or block connections from known or suspected malicious command and control servers (such as Tor exit nodes, and other anonymization services); and</P>
                        <P>(f) Ensure continuous collection and analysis of data for potential intrusions and anomalous behavior on Critical Cyber Systems and other Information and Operational Technology systems that directly connect with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.323</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP capabilities to respond to cybersecurity incidents affecting Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                        <P>(a) Audit unauthorized access to internet domains and addresses;</P>
                        <P>(b) Document and audit any communications between the Operational Technology system and an internal or external system that deviates from the owner/operator's identified baseline of communications;</P>
                        <P>(c) Identify and respond to execution of unauthorized code, including macro scripts; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) Define, prioritize, and drive standardized incident response 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88566"/>
                            activities, such as Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.325</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Unless otherwise directed by TSA, each owner/operator identified in § 1580.1(a)(1), (a)(4), and (a)(5) must notify CISA of any Reportable Cybersecurity Incidents, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours after a Reportable Cybersecurity Incident is identified.</P>
                        <P>(b) Reports required by this section must be made by the methods prescribed by TSA. All reported information will be protected in a manner appropriate for the sensitivity and criticality of the information.</P>
                        <P>(c) The report to CISA must include the following information, as available to the reporting owner/operator at the time of the report:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number and email address. The report must also explicitly specify that the information is being reported in order to satisfy the reporting requirements in Transportation Security Regulations.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected rail system(s) or facilities, including identifying information and location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, to include:</P>
                        <P>(i) Earliest known date of compromise;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Date of detection;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information about who has been notified and what action has been taken;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Any relevant information observed or collected by the owner/operators, such as malicious internet Protocol addresses, malicious domains, malware hashes and/or samples, or the abuse of legitimate software or accounts; and</P>
                        <P>(v) Any known threat information, to include information about the source of the threat or cybersecurity incident, if available.</P>
                        <P>(4) A description of the incident's impact or potential impact on Information or Operational Technology systems and operations. This information must also include an assessment of actual or imminent adverse impacts to service operations, operational delays, and/or data theft that have or are likely to be incurred, as well as any other information that would be informative in understanding the impact or potential impact of the cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(5) A description of all responses that are planned or under consideration, to include, for example, a reversion to manual operations of train movement and control, if applicable.</P>
                        <P>(6) Any additional information not specifically required by this section, but which is critical to an understanding of the threat and owner/operator's response to a reportable cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(d) If all the required information is not available at the time of reporting, owner/operators must submit an initial report within the specified timeframe and supplement as additional information becomes available.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.327</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP an up-to-date Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP) for the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems to reduce the impacts of a cybersecurity incident that causes, or could cause, operational disruption or significant impacts on business-critical functions.</P>
                        <P>(b) The CIRP must provide specific measures sufficient to ensure the following objectives, as applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) Promptly identifying, isolating, and segregating the infected systems from uninfected systems, networks, and devices using measures that prioritize:</P>
                        <P>(i) Limiting the spread of autonomous malware;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Denying continued access by a threat actor to systems;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Determining extent of compromise; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) Preserving evidence and data.</P>
                        <P>(2) Only data stored and secured as required by § 1580.317(e) is used to restore systems and that all stored backup data is scanned with host security software to ensure the data is free of malicious artifacts before being used for restoration.</P>
                        <P>(3) Established capability and governance for implementing mitigation measures or manual controls that ensure that the Operational Technology system can be isolated when a cybersecurity incident in the Information Technology system creates risk to the safety and reliability of the Operational Technology system.</P>
                        <P>(c) The CIRP must identify who (by position) is responsible for implementing the specific measures in the plan and any necessary resources needed to implement the measures.</P>
                        <P>(d) The owner/operator must conduct an exercise to test the effectiveness of the CIRP no less than annually. The exercise conducted under this paragraph must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Test at least two objectives of the owner/operator's CIRP required by paragraph (b) of this section, no less than annually; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Include the employees identified (by position) in paragraph (c) as active participants in the exercise.</P>
                        <P>(e) Within no more than 90 days after the date of the exercise required by paragraph (d), the owner/operator must update the CIRP as appropriate to address any issues identified during the exercise.</P>
                        <P>(f) The owner/operator must notify TSA within 15 days of any changes to the CIRP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.329</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement for a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</E>
                             No later than 90 days from TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, the owner/operator must submit to TSA a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP) sufficient to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Proactively assess the effectiveness of all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP as applied to all Critical Cyber Systems; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identify and resolve device, network, and/or system vulnerabilities associated with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Contents of the CAP.</E>
                             At a minimum, the CAP must describe in detail:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The plan to assess the effectiveness of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP and applied to all Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(2) Schedule and scope of an architectural design review within 12 months either before or after TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, to be repeated at least once every 2 years thereafter. The architectural design review required by this paragraph must include verification and validation of network traffic, a system log review, and analysis to identify cybersecurity vulnerabilities related to network design, configuration, and interconnectivity to internal and external systems;</P>
                        <P>(3) Other assessment capabilities designed to identify vulnerabilities to Critical Cyber Systems based on evolving threat information and adversarial capabilities, such as penetration testing of Information Technology systems, including the use of “red” and “purple” team (adversarial perspective) testing.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific Schedule.</E>
                             (1) In addition to specifying the schedule for the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88567"/>
                            architectural design review required by paragraph (b)(2), the CAP must include a schedule for conducting the assessments required by paragraph (b) sufficient to ensure at least one-third of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the TSA-approved COIP are assessed each year, with 100 percent of the COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems assessed over a 3-year period.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The schedule required by this paragraph must map the planned assessments to the COIP and Critical Cyber System to document the plan will ensure all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems will be assessed within the timeframes required by paragraph (c)(1).</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Independence of assessors and auditors.</E>
                             Owner/operators must ensure that the assessments, audits, testing, and other capabilities to assess the effectiveness of its TSA-approved COIP are not conducted by individuals who have oversight or responsibility for implementing the owner/operator's CRM program and have no vested or other financial interest in the results of the CAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Annual submission of report.</E>
                             The owner/operator must ensure a report of the results of assessments conducted in accordance with the CAP is provided to corporate leadership and individuals designated under § 1580.309(a) and (b)(1) of this subpart, and submitted to TSA, no later than 15 months from the date of approval of the initial CAP and annually thereafter. The required report must indicate—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Which assessment method(s) were used to determine if the policies, procedures, and capabilities described by the owner/operator in its COIP are effective; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Results of the assessment methodologies.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Annual update of the CAP.</E>
                             The owner/operator must review and annually update the CAP to address any changes to policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities in the COIP or assessment capabilities required by paragraph (b). The updated CAP must be submitted to TSA for approval no later than 12 months from the date of TSA's approval of the current CAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Sensitive Security Information.</E>
                             Assessments conducted under this section are vulnerability assessments as defined in § 1500.3 of this chapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this chapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1580.331</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>For the purposes of the requirements in this subpart, upon TSA's request, the owner/operator must provide for inspection or copying the following types of information to establish compliance:</P>
                        <P>(a) Hardware/software asset inventory, including supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems;</P>
                        <P>(b) Firewall rules;</P>
                        <P>(c) Network diagrams, switch and router configurations, architecture diagrams, publicly routable internet protocol addresses, and Virtual Local Area Networks;</P>
                        <P>(d) Policy, procedural, and other documents that informed the development, and documented implementation of, the owner/operator's CRM program;</P>
                        <P>(e) Data providing a “snapshot” of activity on and between Information and Operational Technology systems such as:</P>
                        <P>(1) Log files;</P>
                        <P>(2) A capture of network traffic (such as packet capture (PCAP)), for a scope and period directed by TSA, not less than 24 hours and not to exceed 48 hours;</P>
                        <P>(3) “East-West Traffic” of Information Technology systems, sites, and environments within the scope of this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>(4) “North-South Traffic” between Information and Operational Technology systems, and the perimeter boundaries between them; and</P>
                        <P>(f) Any other records or documents necessary to determine compliance with this subpart.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>19. Revise appendix B to part 1580 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Part 1580—Security-Sensitive Functions for Freight Rail</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>This table identifies security-sensitive job functions for owner/operators regulated under this part. All employees performing security-sensitive functions are “security-sensitive employees” for purposes of this rule and must be trained in accordance with this part.</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,xl75,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Categories</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Security-sensitive job functions for freight rail</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Examples of job titles applicable to these functions *</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">A. Operating a vehicle </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who operate or directly control the movements of locomotives or other self-powered rail vehicles.
                                    <LI>2. Train conductor, trainman, brakeman, or utility employee or performs acceptance inspections, couples and uncouples rail cars, applies handbrakes, or similar functions.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        3. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “train employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(5) and 21103.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Engineer, conductor.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">B. Inspecting and maintaining vehicles</ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who inspect or repair rail cars and locomotives.</ENT>
                                <ENT>Carman, car repairman, car inspector, engineer, conductor.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">C. Inspecting or maintaining building or transportation infrastructure </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who—
                                    <LI>a. Maintain, install, or inspect communications and signal equipment.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Maintain, install, or inspect track and structures, including, but not limited to, bridges, trestles, and tunnels.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        2. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “signal employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(3) and 21104.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Signalman, signal maintainer, trackman, gang foreman, bridge and building laborer, roadmaster, bridge, and building inspector/operator.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="88568"/>
                                <ENT I="01">D. Controlling dispatch or movement of a vehicle </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who—
                                    <LI>a. Dispatch, direct, or control the movement of trains.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Operate or supervise the operations of moveable bridges.</LI>
                                    <LI>c. Supervise the activities of train crews, car movements, and switching operations in a yard or terminal.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        2. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “dispatching service employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(2) and 21105.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Yardmaster, dispatcher, block operator, bridge operator.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">E. Providing security of the owner/operator's equipment and property </ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who provide for the security of the railroad carrier's equipment and property, including acting as a railroad police officer (as that term is defined in 49 CFR 207.2).</ENT>
                                <ENT>Police officer, special agent; patrolman; watchman; guard.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">F. Loading or unloading cargo or baggage </ENT>
                                <ENT>Includes, but is not limited to, employees that load or unload hazardous materials.</ENT>
                                <ENT>Service track employee.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">G. Interacting with travelling public (on board a vehicle or within a transportation facility) </ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees of a freight railroad operating in passenger service.</ENT>
                                <ENT>Conductor, engineer, agent.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">H. Complying with security programs or measures, including those required by Federal law </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who serve as security coordinators designated in §§ 1580.103 or 1580.311 of this subchapter, as well as any designated alternates or secondary security coordinators.
                                    <LI>2. Employees who—</LI>
                                    <LI>a. Conduct training and testing of employees when the training or testing is required by TSA's security regulations.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Perform inspections or operations required by § 1580.205 of this subchapter.</LI>
                                    <LI>c. Manage or direct implementation of security plan requirements.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Security coordinator, accountable executive train master, assistant train master, roadmaster, division roadmaster.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>* These job titles are provided solely as a resource to help understand the functions described; whether an employee must be trained is based upon the function, not the job title.</TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <AMDPAR>20. Add appendix C to part 1580 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix C to Part 1580—Reporting of Significant Physical Security Concerns</HD>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r150">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Breach, Attempted Intrusion, and/or Interference </ENT>
                            <ENT>Unauthorized personnel attempting to or actually entering a restricted area or secure site relating to a transportation facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part. This includes individuals entering or attempting to enter by impersonation of authorized personnel (for example, police/security, janitor, vehicle owner/operator). Activity that could interfere with the ability of employees to perform duties to the extent that security is threatened.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Misrepresentation </ENT>
                            <ENT>Presenting false, or misusing, insignia, documents, and/or identification, to misrepresent one's affiliation with an owner/operator subject to this part to cover possible illicit activity that may pose a risk to transportation security.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Theft, Loss, and/or Diversion</ENT>
                            <ENT>Stealing or diverting identification media or badges, uniforms, vehicles, keys, tools capable of compromising track integrity, portable derails, technology, or classified or sensitive security information documents which are proprietary to the facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sabotage, Tampering, and/or Vandalism </ENT>
                            <ENT>Damaging, manipulating, or defeating safety and security appliances in connection with a facility, infrastructure, conveyance, or routing mechanism, resulting in the compromised use or the temporary or permanent loss of use of the facility, infrastructure, conveyance or routing mechanism. Placing or attaching a foreign object to a rail car(s).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Expressed or Implied Threat </ENT>
                            <ENT>Communicating a spoken or written threat to damage or compromise a facility/infrastructure/conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part (for example, a bomb threat or active shooter).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Eliciting Information </ENT>
                            <ENT>Questioning that may pose a risk to transportation or national security, such as asking one or more employees of an owner/operator subject to this part about particular facets of a facility's conveyance's purpose, operations, or security procedures.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Testing or Probing of Security</ENT>
                            <ENT>Deliberate interactions with employees of an owner/operator subject to this part or challenges to facilities or systems owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part that reveal physical, personnel, or security capabilities or sensitive information.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88569"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Photography </ENT>
                            <ENT>Taking photographs or video of facilities, conveyances, or infrastructure owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include taking photographs or video of infrequently used access points, personnel performing security functions (for example, patrols, badge/vehicle checking), or security-related equipment (for example, perimeter fencing, security cameras).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Observation or Surveillance </ENT>
                            <ENT>Demonstrating unusual interest in facilities or loitering near conveyances, railcar routing appliances or any potentially critical infrastructure owned or operated by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include observation through binoculars, taking notes, or attempting to measure distances.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Materials Acquisition and/or Storage </ENT>
                            <ENT>Acquisition and/or storage by an employee of an owner/operator subject to this part of materials such as cell phones, pagers, fuel, chemicals, toxic materials, and/or timers that may pose a risk to transportation or national security (for example, storage of chemicals not needed by an employee for the performance of his or her job duties).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Weapons Discovery, Discharge, or Seizure</ENT>
                            <ENT>Weapons or explosives in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that may present a risk to transportation or national security (for example, discovery of weapons inconsistent with the type or quantity traditionally used by company security personnel).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Suspicious Items or Activity</ENT>
                            <ENT>Discovery or observation of suspicious items, activity or behavior in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that results in the disruption or termination of operations (for example, halting the operation of a conveyance while law enforcement personnel investigate a suspicious bag, briefcase, or package).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1582—PUBLIC TRANSPORTATION AND PASSENGER RAILROAD SECURITY</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>21. Revise the authority citation for part 1582 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 114; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>22. Amend § 1582.3 by adding the definition of “Unlinked passenger trips” in alphabetical order.</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Terms used in this part.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Unlinked passenger trips</E>
                             means the number of times passengers board public transportation vehicles based on counting passengers each time they board vehicles, no matter how many vehicles they use to travel from their origin to their destination and regardless of whether they pay a fare, use a pass or transfer, ride for free, or pay in some other way.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>23. Revise subpart B of part 1582 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs: Physical Security</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>1582.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.103</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.107</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>This subpart includes requirements that are primarily intended to ensure the physical security of public transportation and passenger railroads. Physical security encompasses the security of individuals, buses, rail cars, and transportation facilities, as well as the persons in areas in or near to operations that could have their safety and security threatened by an attack on physical systems and assets. Owner/operators identified in § 1582.1 must review the applicability in each section in this subpart to determine if any of the requirements apply to their operations.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.103</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) (1) Except as provided in (a)(2) and (3) of this paragraph, each owner/operator identified in § 1582.1 must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator at the corporate level to function as the administrator for sharing security-related activities and information.</P>
                        <P>(2) An owner/operator identified in § 1582.1(a)(2) that owns or operates a bus-only operation must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator only if the owner/operator is identified in appendix A to part 1582 of this subchapter or is notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that operation.</P>
                        <P>(3) An owner/operator identified in § 1582.1(a)(4) (tourist, scenic, historic, or excursion rail operations) must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator, only if notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that type of operation.</P>
                        <P>(b) The primary Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Be accessible to TSA on a 24 hours per day, 7 days per week basis; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Serve as the primary contact(s) for intelligence information and security-related activities and communications with TSA. Any individual designated as a Physical Security Coordinator may perform other duties in addition to the duties described in this section); and</P>
                        <P>(3) Coordinate security practices and procedures required by this subchapter internally and with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies.</P>
                        <P>(c) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(d) Each owner/operator required to have a Physical Security Coordinator must provide in writing to TSA the names, U.S. citizenship status, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s). Changes in any of the information required by this section must be submitted to TSA within 7 calendar days.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1582.1 must report, within 24 hours of initial discovery, any potential threats and significant physical security concerns involving transportation-
                            <PRTPAGE P="88570"/>
                            related operations in the United States or transportation to, from, or within the United States as soon as possible by the methods prescribed by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) Potential threats or significant physical security concerns encompass incidents, suspicious activities, and threat information affecting physical operations including, but not limited to, the categories of reportable events listed in appendix C to this part.</P>
                        <P>(c) Information reported must include the following, as available and applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number or email address.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected freight or passenger train, bus, conveyance, station, terminal, rail hazardous materials facility, or other transportation facility or infrastructure, including identifying information and current location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Scheduled origination and termination locations for the affected passenger train or bus—including departure and destination station, city, and route, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(4) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, including who has been notified and what action has been taken.</P>
                        <P>(5) The names, other available biographical data, and/or descriptions (including vehicle or license plate information) of individuals or motor vehicles known or suspected to be involved in the threat, incident, or activity.</P>
                        <P>(6) The source of any threat information.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.107</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             This section applies to the following:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Amtrak (also known as the National Railroad Passenger Corporation).</P>
                        <P>(2) Each owner/operator identified in Appendix A to this part.</P>
                        <P>(3) Each owner/operator described in § 1582.1(a)(1) through (3) that serves as a host railroad to a freight operation described in § 1580.113(a) of this subchapter or to a passenger train operation described in paragraphs (1) or (2) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Training required for security-sensitive employees.</E>
                             No owner/operator identified in paragraph (a) of this section may use a security-sensitive employee to perform a function identified in Appendix B to this part, unless that individual has received training as part of a security training program approved by TSA or is under the direct supervision of an employee who has received the training required by this section as applicable to that security-sensitive function. Upon approval, this security training program becomes part of the owner/operators TSA-approved security program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Limits on use of untrained employees.</E>
                             Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a security-sensitive employee may not perform a security-sensitive function for more than 60 calendar days without receiving security training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">General requirements.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to provide security training to its employees under this section must submit their security training program to TSA for approval in a form and manner prescribed by TSA. The security training program must include the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Name of owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>(2) Name, title, telephone number, and email address of the primary individual to be contacted with regard to review of the security training program.</P>
                        <P>(3) Number, by specific job function category identified in Appendix B to this part, of security-sensitive employees trained or to be trained.</P>
                        <P>(4) Implementation schedule that identifies a specific date by which the required initial and recurrent security training will be completed.</P>
                        <P>(5) Location where training program records will be maintained.</P>
                        <P>(6) Plan for ensuring supervision of untrained security-sensitive employees performing functions identified in Appendix B to this part.</P>
                        <P>(7) Plan for notifying employees of changes to security measures that could change information provided in previously provided training.</P>
                        <P>(8) Method(s) for evaluating the effectiveness of the security training program in each area required by paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                             The security training program submitted to TSA for approval must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (j) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training will need to be submitted and approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Prepare.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees with position- or function-specific responsibilities under the owner/operator's security program have knowledge of how to fulfill those responsibilities in the event of a security threat, breach, or incident to ensure—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Employees with responsibility for transportation security equipment and systems are aware of their responsibilities and can verify the equipment and systems are operating and properly maintained; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Employees with other duties and responsibilities under the company's security plans and/or programs, including those required by Federal law, know their assignments and the steps or resources needed to fulfill them.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Observe.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge of the observational skills necessary to recognize—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Suspicious and/or dangerous items, such as substances, packages, or conditions (for example, characteristics of an Improvised Explosive Device and signs of equipment tampering or sabotage);</P>
                        <P>(ii) Combinations of actions and individual behaviors that appear suspicious and/or dangerous, inappropriate, inconsistent, or out of the ordinary for the employee's work environment, which could indicate a threat to transportation security; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) How a terrorist or someone with malicious intent may attempt to gain sensitive information or take advantage of vulnerabilities.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Assess.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge necessary to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Determine whether the item, individual, behavior, or situation requires a response as a potential terrorist threat based on the respective transportation environment; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Identify appropriate responses based on observations and context.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Respond.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge of how to—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) Appropriately report a security threat, including knowing how and when to report internally to other employees, supervisors, or management, and externally to Local, State, or Federal agencies according to the owner/operator's security procedures or other relevant plans;
                            <PRTPAGE P="88571"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Interact with the public and first responders at the scene of the threat or incident, including communication with passengers on evacuation and any specific procedures for individuals with disabilities and the elderly; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Use any applicable self-defense devices or other protective equipment provided to employees by the owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Relation to other training.</E>
                             Training conducted by owner/operators to comply with other requirements or standards, such as emergency preparedness training required by the Department of Transportation (DOT) (49 CFR part 239) or other training for communicating with emergency responders to arrange the evacuation of passengers, may be combined with and used to satisfy elements of the training requirements in this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Submission.</E>
                             If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after June 21, 2021, the training program must be submitted to TSA no later than 90 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Initial security training.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must provide initial security training to security-sensitive employees, using the curriculum approved by TSA and in compliance with the following schedule.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) For security training programs submitted to TSA for approval after March 22, 2021, if the employee is employed to perform a security-sensitive function on the date TSA approves the program, then initial training must be provided no later than 12 months after the date that TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program.</P>
                        <P>(2) If performance of a security-sensitive job function is initiated after TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program, then initial training must be provided no later than 60 calendar days after the employee first performs the security-sensitive job function.</P>
                        <P>(3) If the security-sensitive job function is performed intermittently, then initial security training must be provided no later than the 60th calendar day of employment performing a security-sensitive function, aggregated over a consecutive 12-month period.</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Recurrent security training.</E>
                             (1) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, a security-sensitive employee required to receive training must receive the required training at least once every 3 years.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If an owner/operator modifies a security program or security plan for which training is required, the owner/operator must ensure each security-sensitive employee with position- or function-specific responsibilities related to the revised plan or program changes receives training on the revisions within 90 days of implementation of the revised plan or program changes. All other employees must receive training that reflects the changes to the operating security requirements as part of their regularly scheduled recurrent training.</P>
                        <P>(3) The 3-year recurrent training cycle is based on the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial security training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent security training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.</P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition of prior training.</E>
                             Previously provided security training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the function of the individual security-sensitive employee, and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (l).</P>
                        <P>
                            (l) 
                            <E T="03">Retention of security training records.</E>
                             The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent security training records for each individual required to receive security training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Includes employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent security training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the security training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                             The owner/operator must provide records of security training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (n) 
                            <E T="03">Incorporation into security program.</E>
                             Once approved by TSA, the security training program required by this section is part of the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program. The owner/operator must implement and maintain the security training program and comply with timeframes for implementation identified in the security training program. Any modifications or amendments to the program must be made as stipulated in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (o) 
                            <E T="03">Situations requiring owner/operator to revise security training program.</E>
                             The owner/operator must submit a request to amend its security program if, after approval, the owner/operator makes, or intends to make, permanent (to be in effect for 60 or more calendar days) or substantive changes to its security training curriculum, including changes to address:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Determinations that the security training program is ineffective based on the approved method for evaluating effectiveness in the security training program approved by TSA; or</P>
                        <P>(2) Development of recurrent training material for purposes of meeting the requirements in paragraph (j) of this section or other alternative training materials not previously approved by TSA.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>24. Add subpart C of part 1582 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Cybersecurity Risk Management</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>1582.201 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.203 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.205 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.207 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.209 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.211 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.213 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.215 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.217 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.219 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.221 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.223</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.225</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.227</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.229</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1582.231</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.201</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                             This subpart includes requirements to ensure the cybersecurity of public transportation and passenger railroads to mitigate the risk of significant harm to individuals and transportation facilities, as well as persons in areas in or near rail operations, that could have their safety and security threatened as a result of the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88572"/>
                            degradation, destruction, or malfunction of systems that control these systems and infrastructure. In addition, cybersecurity incidents could have significant impacts on national and economic security of the United States by impeding the movement of people who rely on public transportation for commuting or intercity rail operations. The owner/operators identified in § 1582.1 must review the applicability for carrying out a Cybersecurity Risk Management program in paragraph (b) of this section, designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator in § 1582.211, and reporting cybersecurity requirements in § 1582.225 to determine if the requirements apply to their operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             Each owner/operator described in § 1582.1 must adopt and carry out a Cybersecurity Risk Management (CRM) program for each operation that meets any of the following criteria:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Is a passenger railroad carrier with average daily unlinked passenger trips of 5,000 or greater in any of the three calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(2) Is a passenger railroad carrier described in § 1582.1(a)(1) through (3) that serves as a host railroad to a class I railroad or Amtrak, regardless of ridership volume.</P>
                        <P>(3) Is a rail transit system described in § 1582.1(a)(3) with average daily unlinked passenger trips of 50,000 or greater in any of the three calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.203</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General content requirements.</E>
                             The CRM program required by this subpart is a comprehensive program that includes the following components:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A cybersecurity evaluation completed and updated as required by § 1582.205;</P>
                        <P>(2) A TSA-approved Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (COIP) that meets the requirements in § 1582.207.</P>
                        <P>(3) A Cybersecurity Assessment Plan that meets the requirements in § 1582.229.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Subsidiaries.</E>
                             If a single CRM program is developed and implemented for multiple business units within a single corporate entity, any documents used to comply or establish compliance with the requirements in this subpart must clearly identify and distinguish application of the requirements to each business unit.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.205</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program must complete an initial and recurrent cybersecurity evaluation sufficient to determine the owner/operator's current enterprise-wide cybersecurity profile of logical/virtual and physical security controls when evaluated against the CRM program requirements in this subpart, using a form provided by TSA or other tools approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Timing.</E>
                             The initial cybersecurity evaluation must be completed no later than [DATE 90 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], but no more than one year before the date of submission of the owner/operator's Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan required by § 1582.207 of this subpart. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the initial cybersecurity evaluation must be submitted to TSA no later than 45 calendar days after commencing the new or modified operations triggering applicability.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Annual updates.</E>
                             The evaluation required by paragraph (a) of this section must be updated annually, no later than one year from the anniversary date of the previously completed evaluation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Notification.</E>
                             The owner/operator must notify TSA within 7 days of completing the evaluation and annual updates required by this section. A copy of the evaluation must be provided to TSA upon request.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Sensitive Security Information.</E>
                             This evaluation is a vulnerability assessment as defined in § 1500.3 of this chapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this chapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.207</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must adopt a COIP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">General Content.</E>
                             The COIP must include the following corporate information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The name and corporate address of the owner/operator;</P>
                        <P>(2) Written attestation by the owner/operator's accountable executive that the COIP has been reviewed and approved by senior management; and</P>
                        <P>(3) Identification of specific operations that meet the applicability criteria.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific Content.</E>
                             The COIP must detail the owner/operator's defense-in-depth plan, including physical and logical/virtual security controls, to comply with the requirements and security outcomes specified in the following sections:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Governance.</E>
                             The requirements for governance of the CRM program in § 1582.209 and the designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator in § 1582.211.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Identification of Critical Cyber Systems, Network Architecture, and Interdependencies.</E>
                             The requirements to identify Critical Cyber Systems and network architecture in § 1582.213 and supply chain risk management in § 1582.215.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                             The requirements for protection of Critical Cyber Systems in § 1582.217 and training of cybersecurity-sensitive employees in § 1582.219.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to detect cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                             The requirements for detecting cybersecurity incidents in § 1582.221.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to respond to, and recover from, cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                             The requirements for responding to cybersecurity incidents in § 1582.223, reporting cybersecurity incidents in § 1582.225, and the Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan in § 1582.227.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Plan of Action and Milestones.</E>
                             (1) To the extent an owner/operator does not meet every requirement and security outcome identified in paragraph (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section, the COIP must include a plan of action and milestones (POAM).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The POAM must include:</P>
                        <P>(i) Policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities that owner/operator will develop or obtain, as applicable, to ensure all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart are met;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Physical and logical/virtual security controls that the owner/operator will implement to mitigate the risks associated with not fully complying with requirements or security outcomes in this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) A detailed timeframe for full compliance with all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart, not to exceed 3 years from the date of submission to TSA of the COIP required by this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) The POAM must be updated as necessary to address any deficiencies identified during the evaluation required by § 1582.205 or because of an assessment conducted under § 1582.229 that will not be immediately addressed through an update to the COIP.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88573"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Approval and implementation.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Submission deadlines.</E>
                             The COIP must be made available to TSA, in a form and manner prescribed by TSA, no later than [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the COIP must be made available to TSA no later than 45 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Effective date.</E>
                             After considering all relevant materials and any additional information required by TSA, TSA will notify the owner/operator's accountable executive of TSA's decision to approve the owner/operator's COIP. The COIP becomes effective 30 days after the owner/operator is notified whether its COIP is approved.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">TSA-approved security program.</E>
                             Once approved by TSA, the COIP, any appendices, and any policies or procedures incorporated by reference, are a part of a TSA-approved security program, subject to the protections in part 1520 of this chapter and the procedures applicable to security programs in subpart B of part 1570 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Status Report and Updates.</E>
                             The CRM program must be reviewed and updated by the owner/operator within 60 days of the evaluations or assessments required by §§ 1582.205 or 1582.229, as necessary to address any identified vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the procedures, policies, or capabilities identified in the CRM program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Revisions.</E>
                             Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, any substantive modifications or amendments to the COIP must be made in accordance with the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.209 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Accountable Executive.</E>
                             (1) No later than [DATE 30 DAYS FROM EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the owner/operator must provide to TSA the names, titles, business telephone numbers, and business email addresses of the owner/operator's accountable executive and the primary individual to be contacted about the owner/operator's CRM program. If any of the information required by this section changes, the owner/operator must provide the updated information to TSA within seven days of the change.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The accountable executive must be an individual who has the authority and knowledge necessary for the development, implementation, and managerial oversight of the TSA-approved CRM program, including cybersecurity administration, risk assessments, inspections and control procedures, and coordinating communications with the owner/operator's leadership and staff on implementation and sustainment of the CRM program. To the extent possible, the accountable executive should not be the Cybersecurity Coordinator or an individual responsible for management of Information or Operational Technology system or systems' administration.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">COIP.</E>
                             The COIP must also include:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identification of positions designated by the owner/operator to manage implementation of policies, procedures, and capabilities described in the COIP and coordinate improvements to the CRM program.</P>
                        <P>(2) Corporate-level identification of any authorized representatives, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, who are responsible for any or all the CRM program or cybersecurity measures identified in the CRM program, and written documentation (such as contractual agreements) clearly identifying the roles and responsibilities of the authorized representative under the CRM program.</P>
                        <P>(3) The information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Process.</E>
                             Updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.211 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2), each owner/operator identified in paragraphs § 1582.103(a) must designate employees at the corporate level to serve as the primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator with responsibility for sharing critical cybersecurity information.</P>
                        <P>(2) Each owner/operator identified in § 1582.103(a)(3) must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator only if notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that type of operation.</P>
                        <P>(b) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Serve as the primary contact for cyber-related intelligence information and cybersecurity-related activities and communications with TSA and the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA);</P>
                        <P>(2) Have the following knowledge and skills, through current certifications or equivalent job experience:</P>
                        <P>(i) General cybersecurity guidance and best practices;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Relevant law and regulations pertaining to cybersecurity;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Handling of Sensitive Security Information and security-related communications; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) Current cybersecurity threats applicable to the owner/operator's operations and systems.</P>
                        <P>(3) Be accessible to TSA and CISA 24 hours per day, seven days per week;</P>
                        <P>(4) Have a Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN) account or other TSA-designated communication platform for information sharing relevant to the requirements in this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>(5) Work with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies in addressing cybersecurity threats or responding to cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                        <P>(c) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(d) Owner/operators must provide in writing to TSA the names, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) required by paragraph (a) no later than [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], or within 7 days of the commencement of new operations, or change in any of the information required by this section that occur after [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(e) In addition to providing the information to TSA as required by paragraph (d), any owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must also include the information required by paragraphs (d) of this section in the COIP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA of this information, and any changes to this information, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.213 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Identifying information.</E>
                             The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP a list of Critical Cyber Systems, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, that provides, at a minimum, the following identifying information for each Critical Cyber System:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identifier (system name or commercial name); and</P>
                        <P>(2) System manufacturer/designer name.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Identification methodology.</E>
                             The owner/operator must include a 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88574"/>
                            description of the methodology and information used to identify Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum, includes the following information as used to identify critical systems:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Standards and factors, including system interdependencies with critical functions, used to identify Information Technology and Operational Technology systems that could be vulnerable to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                        <P>(2) Sources and data, such as known threat information relevant to the system, that informed decisions regarding the likelihood of the system being subject to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                        <P>(3) Potential operational impacts of a cybersecurity incident, including scenarios that identify potential supply chain impacts and how long critical operations and capabilities could be sustained with identified alternatives if a system is offline; and</P>
                        <P>(4) Sustainability and operational impacts if an Information or Operational Technology system not identified as a Critical Cyber System becomes unavailable due to a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Positive Train Control (PTC) Systems.</E>
                             Owner/operators who are either required to install and operate PTC under 49 CFR part 236, subpart I, and/or voluntarily install and operate PTC under CFR part 236, subpart H or I, must include PTC systems as a Critical Cyber System.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">System information and network architecture.</E>
                             For all Critical Cyber Systems, the owner/operator must provide the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Information and Operational Technology system interdependencies for Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(2) All external connections to Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(3) Zone boundaries for Critical Cyber Systems, including a description of how Information and Operational Technology systems are defined and organized into logical/virtual zones based on criticality, consequence, and operational necessity;</P>
                        <P>(4) Baseline of acceptable communications between Critical Cyber Systems and external connections or between Information and Operational Technology systems; and</P>
                        <P>(5) Operational needs that prevent or delay implementation of the requirements in this subpart, such as application of security patches and updates, encryption of communications traversing Information and Operational Technology systems, and multi-factor authentication.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Additional systems.</E>
                             If notified by TSA, the owner/operator must include additional Critical Cyber Systems identified by TSA not previously identified by the owner/operator.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Changes in Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                             Any substantive changes to Critical Cyber Systems require an amendment to the Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.215</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities to address supply chain cybersecurity vulnerabilities that include requiring—</P>
                        <P>(a) All procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, executed or updated after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], include a requirement for the vendor or service provider to notify the owner/operator of the following:</P>
                        <P>(1) Cybersecurity incidents affecting the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(2) Confirmed security vulnerabilities affecting the goods, services, or capabilities provided by the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of security vulnerability.</P>
                        <P>(b) Procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, incorporate an evaluation by the owner/operator or qualified third-party of the cybersecurity measures implemented by vendors or service providers of goods, services, or capabilities that will be connected to, installed on, or used by the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>(c) When provided two offerings of roughly similar cost and function, giving preference to the offering that provides the greater level of cybersecurity necessary to protect against, or effectively respond to, cybersecurity incidents affecting the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>(d) Upon notification of a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, immediate consideration of mitigation measures sufficient to address the resulting risk to Critical Cyber Systems and, as applicable, revision to the COIP in accordance with § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.217</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, controls, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems that meet security performance objectives in the following areas—</P>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Network segmentation.</E>
                             Network segmentation measures that protect against access to, or disruption of, the Operational Technology system if the Information Technology system is compromised or vice versa. These measures must be sufficient to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Ensure Information and Operational Technology system-services transit the other only when necessary for validated business or operational purposes;</P>
                        <P>(2) Secure and defend zone boundaries with security controls—</P>
                        <P>(i) To defend against unauthorized communications between zones; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) To prohibit Operational Technology system services from traversing the Information Technology system, and vice-versa, unless the content is encrypted at a level sufficient to secure and protect integrity of data and prevent corruption or compromise while in transit. If encryption is not technologically feasible, ensure content is otherwise secured and protected using compensating controls that provide the same level of security as encryption for data in transit.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Access control.</E>
                             Access control measures for Critical Cyber Systems, including for local and remote access, that secure and defend against unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems. Except as provided in paragraph (f), these measures must, at a minimum, incorporate the following policies, procedures, and controls:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Identification and authentication requirements designed to prevent unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems that include:</P>
                        <P>(i) A policy for memorized secret authenticator resets that includes criteria for passwords and when resets must occur, including procedures to ensure implementation of these requirements, such as password lockouts; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Documented and defined logical/virtual and physical security controls for components of Critical Cyber Systems that will not be subject to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Multi-factor authentication, or other logical/virtual and physical security controls to supplement memorized secret authenticators (such as passwords) to provide risk mitigation commensurate to multi-factor 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88575"/>
                            authentication. If an owner/operator does not apply multi-factor authentication for access to Operational Technology components or assets, the owner/operator must specify what compensating controls are used to manage access.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Management of access rights based on the principles of least privilege and separation of duties. Where not technically feasible to apply these principles, the policies and procedures must describe compensating controls that the owner/operator applies.</P>
                        <P>(4) Policies and procedures limit availability and use of shared accounts to those that are critical for operations, and then only if necessary. When the owner/operator uses shared accounts for operational purposes, the policies and procedures must ensure:</P>
                        <P>(i) Access to shared accounts is limited through account management that uses principles of least privilege and separation of duties;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any individual who no longer needs access does not have knowledge of the memorized secret authenticator necessary to access the shared account; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Logs are maintained sufficient to enable positive user identification of access to shared accounts to enable forensic investigation following a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(5) Regularly updated schedule for review of existing domain trust relationships to ensure their necessity and established and enforced policies to manage these relationships.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Patch management.</E>
                             Measures that reduce the risk of exploitation of unpatched systems through the application of security patches and updates for operating systems, applications, drivers, and firmware on Critical Cyber Systems consistent with the owner/operator's risk-based methodology. These measures must include:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A patch management strategy that ensures all critical security patches and updates on Critical Cyber Systems are current. This strategy must include:</P>
                        <P>(i) The risk methodology for categorizing and determining criticality of patches and updates, and an implementation timeline based on categorization and criticality; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Prioritization of all security patches and updates on CISA's Known Exploited Vulnerabilities Catalog.</P>
                        <P>(2) In instances where the owner/operator cannot apply patches and updates on specific Operational Technology systems without causing a severe degradation of operational capability to meet business critical functions, the owner/operator must provide an explanation for why the actions cannot be taken and a description and timeline of additional mitigations that address the risk created by not installing the patch or update within the recommended timeframe.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Logging policies.</E>
                             Logging policies sufficient to ensure logging data is—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Stored in a secure and centralized system, such as a security information and event management tool or database on a segmented network that can only be accessed or modified by authorized and authenticated users; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Maintained for a duration sufficient to allow for investigation of cybersecurity incidents as supported by a risk analysis and applicable standards or regulatory guidelines.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Secure back-ups.</E>
                             Policies that ensure all Critical Cyber Systems are backed-up on a regular basis consistent with operational need for the information, the back-ups are securely stored separate from the system, and policies require testing the integrity of back-ups to ensure that the data is free of known malicious code when the back-ups are made.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Exception for PTC hardware and software components installed on locomotive.</E>
                             (1) For hardware and software components of a PTC system installed on a locomotive, owner/operators in compliance with requirements in 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4) (General requirements for locomotives), 49 CFR 236.3 (Locking of signal apparatus housings), and 49 CFR 256.553 (Seal, where required), may rely on the physical security measures used to comply with these requirements, as applicable, in lieu of implementing the requirements in paragraph (b).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If relying on the exception in paragraph (f)(1), the owner/operator must list the applicable PTC system as a Critical Cyber System; maintain compliance with the requirements specified in 49 CFR 232.105(h)(1-4), 49 CFR 236.3, and 49 CFR 256.553, as applicable; and include in the COIP a description of the physical security measures used to prevent unauthorized access to the identified PTC components.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.219</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Training required.</E>
                             (1) Owner/operators required to have a CRM program under this subpart must provide basic cybersecurity training to all employees with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) No owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this subpart may permit a cybersecurity-sensitive employee to access, or have privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or an Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System, unless that individual has received basic and role-based cybersecurity training.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                             The cybersecurity training program must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (e) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training will need to be submitted and approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Basic cybersecurity training.</E>
                             All employees and contractors with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems, must receive basic cybersecurity training that includes cybersecurity awareness to address best practices, acceptable use, risks associated with their level of privileged access, and awareness of security risks associated with their actions. This training must address the following topics:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Social engineering, including phishing;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Password best practices;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Remote work security basics;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Safe internet and social media use;</P>
                        <P>(v) Mobile device (wireless) vulnerabilities and network security;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Data management and information security, including protecting business email, confidential information, trade secrets, and privacy; and</P>
                        <P>(vii) How and to whom to report suspected inappropriate or suspicious activity involving Information or Operational Technology systems, including mobile devices provided by or connected to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Role-based cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Cybersecurity-sensitive employees must be provided cybersecurity training that specifically addresses their role as a privileged user to prevent and respond to a cybersecurity incident, acceptable uses, and the risks associated with their level of access and use as approved by the owner/operator. This training must address the following topics as applicable to the specific role:
                            <PRTPAGE P="88576"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Security measures and requirements in the COIP including how the requirements affect account and access management, server and application management, and system architecture development and assessment;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Recognition and detection of cybersecurity threats, types of cybersecurity incidents, and techniques used to circumvent cybersecurity measures;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Incident handling, including procedures for reporting a cybersecurity incident to the Cybersecurity Coordinator and understanding their roles and responsibilities during a cybersecurity incident and implementation of the owner/operator's Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan required by § 1582.227;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Requirements and sources for staying aware of changing cybersecurity threats and countermeasures;</P>
                        <P>(v) Operational Technology-specific cybersecurity training for all personnel whose duties include access to Operational Technology systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Initial cybersecurity training.</E>
                             (1) Each owner/operator must provide initial cybersecurity training (basic and role-based, as applicable) to employees and contractors, using the curriculum approved by TSA no later than 60 days after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP required by this subpart.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) For individuals who onboard or become cybersecurity-sensitive employees after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP who did not receive training within the period identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the individual must receive the applicable cybersecurity training no later than 10 days after onboarding.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Recurrent cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Employees and contractors must receive annual recurrent cybersecurity training no later than the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial cybersecurity training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent cybersecurity training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition of prior or established cybersecurity training.</E>
                             Previously provided cybersecurity training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the role of the individual employee, and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Retention of cybersecurity training records.</E>
                             The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training records for each individual required to receive cybersecurity training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Includes employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the cybersecurity training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                             The owner/operator must provide records of cybersecurity training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.221</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities sufficient to detect and respond to cybersecurity threats to, and anomalies on, Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                        <P>(a) Defend against malicious email, such as spam and phishing emails, to preclude or mitigate against adverse impacts to operations;</P>
                        <P>(b) Block ingress and egress communications with known or suspected malicious internet Protocol addresses;</P>
                        <P>(c) Control impact of known or suspected malicious web domains or web applications, such as by preventing users and devices from accessing malicious websites;</P>
                        <P>(d) Block and defend against unauthorized code, including macro scripts, from executing;</P>
                        <P>(e) Monitor and/or block connections from known or suspected malicious command and control servers (such as Tor exit nodes, and other anonymization services); and</P>
                        <P>(f) Ensure continuous collection and analysis of data for potential intrusions and anomalous behavior on Critical Cyber Systems and other Information and Operational Technology systems that directly connect with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.223</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP capabilities to respond to cybersecurity incidents affecting Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                        <P>(a) Audit unauthorized access to internet domains and addresses;</P>
                        <P>(b) Document and audit any communications between the Operational Technology system and an internal or external system that deviates from the owner/operator's identified baseline of communications;</P>
                        <P>(c) Identify and respond to execution of unauthorized code, including macro scripts; and</P>
                        <P>(d) Define, prioritize, and drive standardized incident response activities, such as Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR).</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.225</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or otherwise directed by TSA, each owner/operator identified in § 1582.1 must notify CISA of any Reportable Cybersecurity Incidents, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours after a Reportable Cybersecurity Incident is identified.</P>
                        <P>(2) An owner/operator identified in § 1582.1(a)(2) that owns or operates a bus-only operation must notify CISA of Reportable Cybersecurity Incidents under paragraph (a)(1) only if the owner/operator is identified in appendix A to part 1582 of this subchapter or is notified by TSA in writing that a threat exists concerning that operation.</P>
                        <P>(b) Reports required by this section must be made by the methods prescribed by TSA. All reported information will be protected in a manner appropriate for the sensitivity and criticality of the information.</P>
                        <P>(c) The report to CISA must include the following information, as available to the reporting owner/operator at the time of the report:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number and email address. The report must also explicitly specify that the information is being reported to satisfy the reporting requirements in Transportation Security Regulations.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected conveyance, system(s) or facilities, including identifying information and location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, to include:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) Earliest known date of compromise;
                            <PRTPAGE P="88577"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Date of detection;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information about who has been notified and what action has been taken;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Any relevant information observed or collected by the owner/operators, such as malicious internet Protocol addresses, malicious domains, malware hashes and/or samples, or the abuse of legitimate software or accounts; and</P>
                        <P>(v) Any known threat information, to include information about the source of the threat or cybersecurity incident, if available.</P>
                        <P>(4) A description of the incident's impact or potential impact on Information or Operational Technology systems and operations. This information must also include an assessment of actual or imminent adverse impacts to service operations, operational delays, and/or data theft that have or are likely to be incurred, as well as any other information that would be informative in understanding the impact or potential impact of the cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(5) A description of all responses that are planned or under consideration, to include, for example, a reversion to manual operations of train movement and control, if applicable.</P>
                        <P>(6) Any additional information not specifically required by this section, but which is critical to an understanding of the threat and owner/operator's response to a reportable cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(d) If all the required information is not available at the time of reporting, owner/operators must submit an initial report within the specified timeframe and supplement as additional information becomes available.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.227</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP an up-to-date Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP) for the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems to reduce the impacts of a cybersecurity incident that causes, or could cause, operational disruption or significant impacts on business-critical functions.</P>
                        <P>(b) The CIRP must provide specific measures sufficient to ensure the following objectives, as applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) Promptly identifying, isolating, and segregating the infected systems from uninfected systems, networks, and devices using measures that prioritize:</P>
                        <P>(i) Limiting the spread of autonomous malware;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Denying continued access by a threat actor to systems;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Determining extent of compromise; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) Preserving evidence and data.</P>
                        <P>(2) Only data stored and secured as required by § 1582.217(e) is used to restore systems and that all stored backup data is scanned with host security software to ensure the data is free of malicious artifacts before being used for restoration.</P>
                        <P>(3) Established capability and governance for implementing mitigation measures or manual controls that ensure that the Operational Technology system can be isolated when a cybersecurity incident in the Information Technology system creates risk to the safety and reliability of the Operational Technology system.</P>
                        <P>(c) The CIRP must identify who (by position) is responsible for implementing the specific measures in the plan and any necessary resources needed to implement the measures.</P>
                        <P>(d) The owner/operator must conduct an exercise to test the effectiveness of the CIRP no less than annually. The exercise conducted under this paragraph must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Test at least two objectives of the owner/operator's CIRP required by paragraph (b) of this section, no less than annually; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Include the employees identified (by position) in paragraph (c) as active participants in the exercise.</P>
                        <P>(e) Within no more than 90 days after the date of the exercise required by paragraph (d), the owner/operator must update the CIRP as appropriate to address any issues identified during the exercise.</P>
                        <P>(f) The owner/operator must notify TSA within 15 days of any changes to the CIRP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.229</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement for a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</E>
                             No later than 90 days from TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, the owner/operator must submit to TSA a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP) sufficient to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Proactively assess the effectiveness of all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP as applied to all Critical Cyber Systems; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identify and resolve device, network, and/or system vulnerabilities associated with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Contents of the CAP.</E>
                             At a minimum, the CAP must describe in detail:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The plan to assess the effectiveness of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP as applied to all Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                        <P>(2) Schedule and scope of an architectural design review within 12 months either before or after TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, to be repeated at least once every 2 years thereafter. The architectural design review required by this paragraph must include verification and validation of network traffic, a system log review, and analysis to identify cybersecurity vulnerabilities related to network design, configuration, and interconnectivity to internal and external systems;</P>
                        <P>(3) Other assessment capabilities designed to identify vulnerabilities to Critical Cyber Systems based on evolving threat information and adversarial capabilities, such as penetration testing of Information Technology systems, including the use of “red” and “purple” team (adversarial perspective) testing.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Specific Schedule.</E>
                             (1) In addition to specifying the schedule for the architectural design review required by paragraph (b)(2), the CAP must include a schedule for conducting the assessments required by paragraph (b) sufficient to ensure at least one-third of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the TSA-approved COIP are assessed each year, with 100 percent of the COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems assessed over a 3-year period.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The scheduled required by this paragraph must map the planned assessments to the COIP and Critical Cyber System to document the plan will ensure all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems will be assessed within the timeframes required by paragraph (c)(1).</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Independence of assessors and auditors.</E>
                             Owner/operators must ensure that the assessments, audits, testing, and other capabilities to assess the effectiveness of its TSA-approved COIP are not conducted by individuals who have oversight or responsibility for implementing the owner/operators CRM program and have no vested or other financial interest in the results of the CAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Annual submission of report.</E>
                             The owner/operator must ensure a report of the results of assessments conducted in accordance with the CAP is provided to corporate leadership and individuals designated under § 1582.209(a) and (b)(1) of this subpart, and submitted to TSA, no later than 15 months from the date of approval of the initial CAP and 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88578"/>
                            annually thereafter. The required report must indicate—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Which assessment method(s) were used to determine if the policies, procedures, and capabilities described by the owner/operator in its COIP are effective; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Results of the individual assessment methodologies.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Annual update of the CAP.</E>
                             The owner/operator must review and annually update the CAP to address any changes to policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities in the COIP or assessment capabilities required by paragraph (b). The updated CAP must be submitted to TSA for approval no later than 12 months from the date of TSA's approval of the current CAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>(g) Assessments conducted under this section are vulnerability assessments as defined in 1500.3 of his chapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this chapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1582.231</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>For the purposes of the requirements in this subpart, upon TSA's request, the owner/operator must provide for inspection or copying the following types of information to establish compliance:</P>
                        <P>(a) Hardware/software asset inventory, including supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems;</P>
                        <P>(b) Firewall rules;</P>
                        <P>(c) Network diagrams, switch and router configurations, architecture diagrams, publicly routable internet protocol addresses, and Virtual Local Area Networks;</P>
                        <P>(d) Policy, procedural, and other documents that informed the development, and documented implementation of, the owner/operator's CRM program;</P>
                        <P>(e) Data providing a “snapshot” of activity on and between Information and Operational Technology systems such as:</P>
                        <P>(1) Log files;</P>
                        <P>(2) A capture of network traffic (such as packet capture (PCAP)), for a scope and period directed by TSA, not less than 24 hours and not to exceed 48 hours;</P>
                        <P>(3) “East-West Traffic” of Information Technology systems, sites, and environments within the scope of this subpart; and</P>
                        <P>(4) “North-South Traffic” between Information and Operational Technology systems, and the perimeter boundaries between them; and</P>
                        <P>(f) Any other records or documents necessary to determine compliance with this subpart.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>25. Revise appendix B to part 1582 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Part 1582—Security-Sensitive Job Functions for Public Transportation and Passenger Railroads</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>This table identifies security-sensitive job functions for owner/operators regulated under this part. All employees performing security-sensitive functions are “security-sensitive employees” for purposes of this rule and must be trained in accordance with this part.</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r250">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Categories</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Security-sensitive job functions for
                                    <LI>public transportation and passenger railroads (PTPR)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">A. Operating a vehicle</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who—
                                    <LI>a. Operate or control the movements of trains, other rail vehicles, or transit buses.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Act as train conductor, trainman, brakeman, or utility employee or performs acceptance inspections, couples and uncouples rail cars, applies handbrakes, or similar functions.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        2. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “train employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(5) and 21103.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">B. Inspecting and maintaining vehicles </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Perform activities related to the diagnosis, inspection, maintenance, adjustment, repair, or overhaul of electrical or mechanical equipment relating to vehicles, including functions performed by mechanics and automotive technicians.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Provide cleaning services to vehicles owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this subchapter.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">C. Inspecting or maintaining building or transportation infrastructure </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Maintain, install, or inspect communication systems and signal equipment related to the delivery of transportation services.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Maintain, install, or inspect track and structures, including, but not limited to, bridges, trestles, and tunnels.</LI>
                                    <LI>3. Provide cleaning services to stations and terminals owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this subchapter that are accessible to the general public or passengers.</LI>
                                    <LI>4. Provide maintenance services to stations, terminals, yards, tunnels, bridges, and operation control centers owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this subchapter.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        5. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “signal employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(4) and 21104.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">D. Controlling dispatch or movement of a vehicle </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Dispatch, report, transport, receive or deliver orders pertaining to specific vehicles, coordination of transportation schedules, tracking of vehicles and equipment.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Manage day-to-day management delivery of transportation services and the prevention of, response to, and redress of service disruptions.</LI>
                                    <LI>3. Supervise the activities of train crews, car movements, and switching operations in a yard or terminal.</LI>
                                    <LI>4. Dispatch, direct, or control the movement of trains or buses.</LI>
                                    <LI>5. Operate or supervise the operations of moveable bridges.</LI>
                                    <LI>
                                        6. Employees covered under the Federal hours of service laws as “dispatching service employees.” 
                                        <E T="03">See</E>
                                         49 U.S.C. 21101(2) and 21105.
                                    </LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">E. Providing security of the owner/operator's equipment and property </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Provide for the security of PTPR equipment and property, including acting as a police officer.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Patrol and inspect property of an owner/operator regulated under subchapter to protect the property, personnel, passengers and/or cargo.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">F. Loading or unloading cargo or baggage </ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who load, or oversee loading of, property tendered by or on behalf of a passenger on or off of a portion of a train that will be inaccessible to the passenger while the train is in operation.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="88579"/>
                                <ENT I="01">G. Interacting with travelling public (on board a vehicle or within a transportation facility) </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who provide services to passengers on-board a train or bus, including collecting tickets or cash for fares, providing information, and other similar services. Including:
                                    <LI>1. On-board food or beverage employees.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Functions on behalf of an owner/operator regulated under this subchapter that require regular interaction with travelling public within a transportation facility, such as ticket agents.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">H. Complying with security programs or measures, including those required by Federal law </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who serve as security coordinators designated in §§ 1582.103 and 1582.211 of this subchapter, as well as any designated alternates or secondary security coordinators.
                                    <LI>2. Employees who—</LI>
                                    <LI>a. Conduct training and testing of employees when the training or testing is required by TSA's security regulations.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Manage or direct implementation of security plan requirements.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <AMDPAR>26. Add appendix C to part 1582 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix C to Part 1582—Reporting of Significant Physical Security Concerns</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r250">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Breach, Attempted Intrusion, and/or Interference </ENT>
                                <ENT>Unauthorized personnel attempting to or actually entering a restricted area or secure site relating to a transportation facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part. This includes individuals entering or attempting to enter by impersonation of authorized personnel (for example, police/security, janitor, vehicle owner/operator). Activity that could interfere with the ability of employees to perform duties to the extent that security is threatened.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Misrepresentation </ENT>
                                <ENT>Presenting false, or misusing, insignia, documents, and/or identification, to misrepresent one's affiliation with an owner/operator subject to this part to cover possible illicit activity that may pose a risk to transportation security.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Theft, Loss, and/or Diversion</ENT>
                                <ENT>Stealing or diverting identification media or badges, uniforms, vehicles, keys, tools capable of compromising track integrity, portable derails, technology, or classified or sensitive security information documents which are proprietary to the facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sabotage, Tampering, and/or Vandalism </ENT>
                                <ENT>Damaging, manipulating, or defeating safety and security appliances in connection with a facility, infrastructure, conveyance, or routing mechanism, resulting in the compromised use or the temporary or permanent loss of use of the facility, infrastructure, conveyance or routing mechanism. Placing or attaching a foreign object to a rail car or transit vehicle(s).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Expressed or Implied Threat</ENT>
                                <ENT>Communicating a spoken or written threat to damage or compromise a facility/infrastructure/conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part (for example, a bomb threat or active shooter).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Eliciting Information </ENT>
                                <ENT>Questioning that may pose a risk to transportation or national security, such as asking one or more employees of an owner/operator subject to this part about particular facets of a facility's conveyance's purpose, operations, or security procedures.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Testing or Probing of Security</ENT>
                                <ENT>Deliberate interactions with employees of an owner/operator subject to this part or challenges to facilities or systems owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part that reveal physical, personnel, or security capabilities or sensitive information.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Photography </ENT>
                                <ENT>Taking photographs or video of facilities, conveyances, or infrastructure owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include taking photographs or video of infrequently used access points, personnel performing security functions (for example, patrols, badge/vehicle checking), or security-related equipment (for example, perimeter fencing, security cameras).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Observation or Surveillance</ENT>
                                <ENT>Demonstrating unusual interest in facilities or loitering near conveyances, railcar routing appliances or any potentially critical infrastructure owned or operated by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include observation through binoculars, taking notes, or attempting to measure distances.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Materials Acquisition and/or Storage </ENT>
                                <ENT>Acquisition and/or storage by an employee of an owner/operator subject to this part of materials such as cell phones, pagers, fuel, chemicals, toxic materials, and/or timers that may pose a risk to transportation or national security (for example, storage of chemicals not needed by an employee for the performance of his or her job duties).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Weapons Discovery, Discharge, or Seizure</ENT>
                                <ENT>Weapons or explosives in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that may present a risk to transportation or national security (for example, discovery of weapons inconsistent with the type or quantity traditionally used by company security personnel).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Suspicious Items or Activity</ENT>
                                <ENT>Discovery or observation of suspicious items, activity or behavior in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that results in the disruption or termination of operations (for example, halting the operation of a conveyance while law enforcement personnel investigate a suspicious bag, briefcase, or package).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1584—HIGHWAY AND MOTOR CARRIER SECURITY</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>27. Revise the authority citation for part 1584 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 114; Pub. L. 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>28. Revise subpart B of part 1584 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs: General</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECTNO>1584.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.103</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>
                            Physical Security Coordinator.
                            <PRTPAGE P="88580"/>
                        </SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.107</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1584.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The requirements of this subpart apply to each OTRB owner/operator providing fixed-route service that originates, travels through, or ends in a geographic location identified in appendix A to this part.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.103</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1584.101 must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator at the corporate level to function as the administrator for sharing security-related activities and information.</P>
                        <P>(b) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                        <P>(1) Be accessible to TSA on a 24 hours per day, seven days per week basis;</P>
                        <P>(2) Serve as the primary contact(s) for intelligence information and security-related activities and communications with TSA. Any individual designated as a Physical Security Coordinator may perform other duties in addition to the duties described in this section); and</P>
                        <P>(3) Coordinate security practices and procedures required by this subchapter internally and with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies.</P>
                        <P>(c) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(d) Each owner/operator required to have a Physical Security Coordinator must provide in writing to TSA the names, U.S. citizenship status, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Physical Security Coordinator and alternate Physical Security Coordinator(s). Changes in any of the information required by this section must be submitted to TSA within seven calendar days.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.105</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1584.101 must report, within 24 hours of initial discovery, any potential threats and significant physical security concerns involving transportation-related operations in the United States or transportation to, from, or within the United States as soon as possible by the methods prescribed by TSA.</P>
                        <P>(b) Potential threats or significant physical security concerns encompass incidents, suspicious activities, and threat information including, but not limited to, the categories of reportable events listed in appendix C to this part.</P>
                        <P>(c) Information reported must include the following, as available and applicable:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number or email address.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected conveyance, station, terminal, or other transportation facility or infrastructure, including identifying information and current location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Scheduled origination and termination locations for the affected bus—including departure and destination station, city, and route, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(4) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, including who has been notified and what action has been taken.</P>
                        <P>(5) The names, other available biographical data, and/or descriptions (including vehicle or license plate information) of individuals or motor vehicles known or suspected to be involved in the threat, incident, or activity.</P>
                        <P>(6) The source of any threat information.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.107</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting Cybersecurity Incidents.</E>
                             Unless otherwise directed by TSA, each owner/operator identified in § 1584.101 must notify CISA of any Reportable Cybersecurity Incidents, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours after a Reportable Cybersecurity Incident is identified.
                        </P>
                        <P>(b) Reports required by this section must be made by the methods prescribed by TSA. All reported information will be protected in a manner appropriate for the sensitivity and criticality of the information.</P>
                        <P>(c) The report to CISA must include the following information, as available to the reporting owner/operator at the time of the report:</P>
                        <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number and email address. The report must also explicitly specify that the information is being reported to satisfy the reporting requirements in Transportation Security Regulations.</P>
                        <P>(2) The affected conveyance, system(s) or facilities, including identifying information and location.</P>
                        <P>(3) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, to include:</P>
                        <P>(i) Earliest known date of compromise;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Date of detection;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information about who has been notified and what action has been taken;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Any relevant information observed or collected by the owner/operator, such as malicious internet Protocol addresses, malicious domains, malware hashes and/or samples, or the abuse of legitimate software or accounts; and</P>
                        <P>(v) Any known threat information, to include information about the source of the threat or cybersecurity incident, if available.</P>
                        <P>(4) A description of the incident's impact or potential impact on Information or Operational Technology systems and operations. This information must also include an assessment of actual or imminent adverse impacts to service operations, operational delays, and/or data theft that have or are likely to be incurred, as well as any other information that would be informative in understanding the impact or potential impact of the cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(5) A description of all responses that are planned or under consideration.</P>
                        <P>(6) Any additional information not specifically required by this section, but which is critical to an understanding of the threat and owner/operator's response to a reportable cybersecurity incident.</P>
                        <P>(d) If all the required information is not available at the time of reporting, owner/operators must submit an initial report within the specified timeframe and supplement as additional information becomes available.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.109</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.111</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.113</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Security training program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                             This section applies to each owner/operator identified in § 1584.101.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Training required for security-sensitive employees.</E>
                             No owner/operator identified in paragraph (a) of this section may use a security-sensitive employee to perform a function identified in Appendix B to this part, unless that individual has received training as part of a security training program approved by TSA or is under the direct supervision of an employee who has received the training required by this section as applicable to that security-sensitive function. Upon approval, this security training program becomes part of the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Limits on use of untrained employees.</E>
                             Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a security-sensitive 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88581"/>
                            employee may not perform a security-sensitive function for more than 60 calendar days without receiving security training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">General requirements.</E>
                             Each owner/operator required to provide security training to its employees under this section must submit their security training program to TSA for approval in a form and manner prescribed by TSA. The security training program must include the following information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Name of owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>(2) Name, title, telephone number, and email address of the primary individual to be contacted with regard to review of the security training program.</P>
                        <P>(3) Number, by specific job function category identified in Appendix B to this part, of security-sensitive employees trained or to be trained.</P>
                        <P>(4) Implementation schedule that identifies a specific date by which the required initial and recurrent security training will be completed.</P>
                        <P>(5) Location where training program records will be maintained.</P>
                        <P>(6) Plan for ensuring supervision of untrained security-sensitive employees performing functions identified in Appendix B to this part.</P>
                        <P>(7) Plan for notifying employees of changes to security measures that could change information provided in previously provided training.</P>
                        <P>(8) Method(s) for evaluating the effectiveness of the security training program in each area required by paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                             The security training program submitted to TSA for approval must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (j) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training will need to be submitted and approved by TSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Prepare.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees with position- or function-specific responsibilities under the owner/operator's security program have knowledge of how to fulfill those responsibilities in the event of a security threat, breach, or incident to ensure—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Employees with responsibility for transportation security equipment and systems are aware of their responsibilities and can verify the equipment and systems are operating and properly maintained; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Employees with other duties and responsibilities under the company's security plans and/or programs, including those required by Federal law, know their assignments and the steps or resources needed to fulfill them.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Observe.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge of the observational skills necessary to recognize—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Suspicious and/or dangerous items, such as substances, packages, or conditions (for example, characteristics of an Improvised Explosive Device and signs of equipment tampering or sabotage);</P>
                        <P>(ii) Combinations of actions and individual behaviors that appear suspicious and/or dangerous, inappropriate, inconsistent, or out of the ordinary for the employee's work environment, which could indicate a threat to transportation security; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) How a terrorist or someone with malicious intent may attempt to gain sensitive information or take advantage of vulnerabilities.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Assess.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge necessary to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Determine whether the item, individual, behavior, or situation requires a response as a potential terrorist threat based on the respective transportation environment; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Identify appropriate responses based on observations and context.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Respond.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must ensure that each of its security-sensitive employees has knowledge of how to—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Appropriately report a security threat, including knowing how and when to report internally to other employees, supervisors, or management, and externally to Local, State, or Federal agencies according to the owner/operator's security procedures or other relevant plans;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Interact with the public and first responders at the scene of the threat or incident, including communication with passengers on evacuation and any specific procedures for individuals with disabilities and the elderly; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Use any applicable self-defense devices or other protective equipment provided to employees by the owner/operator.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Relation to other training.</E>
                             Training conducted by owner/operators to comply with other requirements or standards, such as training for communicating with emergency responders to arrange the evacuation of passengers, may be combined with, and used to satisfy, elements of the training requirements in this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Submission.</E>
                             If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after June 21, 2021, the training program must be submitted to TSA no later than 90 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Initial security training.</E>
                             Each owner/operator must provide initial security training to security-sensitive employees, using the curriculum approved by TSA and in compliance with the following schedule.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) For security training programs submitted to TSA for approval after March 22, 2021, if the employee is employed to perform a security-sensitive function on the date TSA approves the program, then initial training must be provided no later than twelve months after the date that TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program.</P>
                        <P>(2) If performance of a security-sensitive job function is initiated after TSA approves the owner/operator's security training program, then initial training must be provided no later than 60 calendar days after the employee first performs the security-sensitive job function.</P>
                        <P>(3) If the security-sensitive job function is performed intermittently, then initial security training must be provided no later than the 60th calendar day of employment performing a security-sensitive function, aggregated over a consecutive 12-month period.</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Recurrent security training.</E>
                             (1) Except as provided in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, a security-sensitive employee required to receive training must receive the required training at least once every 3 years.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If an owner/operator modifies a security program or security plan for which training is required, the owner/operator must ensure each security-sensitive employee with position- or function-specific responsibilities related to the revised plan or program changes receives training on the revisions within 90 days of implementation of the revised plan or program changes. All other employees must receive training that reflects the changes to the operating security requirements as part of their regularly scheduled recurrent training.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) The 3-year recurrent training cycle is based on the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial security training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent security training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is 
                            <PRTPAGE P="88582"/>
                            considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition of prior training.</E>
                             Previously provided security training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the function of the individual security-sensitive employee, and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (l).</P>
                        <P>
                            (l) 
                            <E T="03">Retention of security training records.</E>
                             The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent security training records for each individual required to receive security training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Includes employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent security training; and</P>
                        <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the security training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (e) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                             The owner/operator must provide records of security training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (n) 
                            <E T="03">Incorporation into security program.</E>
                             Once approved by TSA, the security training program required by this section is part of the owner/operator's TSA-approved security program. The owner/operator must implement and maintain the security training program and comply with timeframes for implementation identified in the security training program. Any modifications or amendments to the program must be made as stipulated in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (o) 
                            <E T="03">Situations requiring owner/operator to revise security training program.</E>
                             The owner/operator must submit a request to amend its security program if, after approval, the owner/operator makes, or intends to make, permanent (to be in effect for 60 or more calendar days) or substantive changes to its security training curriculum, including changes to address:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Determinations that the security training program is ineffective based on the approved method for evaluating effectiveness in the security training program approved by TSA; or</P>
                        <P>(2) Development of recurrent training material for purposes of meeting the requirements in paragraph (j) of this section or other alternative training materials not previously approved by TSA.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1584.115</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>29. Revise appendix B to part 1584 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Part 1584—Security-Sensitive Job Functions for Over-the-Road Buses</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>This table identifies security-sensitive job functions for owner/operators regulated under this part. All employees performing security-sensitive functions are “security-sensitive employees” for purposes of this rule and must be trained in accordance with this part.</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r250">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Categories</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Security-sensitive job functions for over-the-road buses</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">A. Operating a vehicle</ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who have a CDL and operate an OTRB.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">B. Inspecting and maintaining  vehicles </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Perform activities related to the diagnosis, inspection, maintenance, adjustment, repair, or overhaul of electrical or mechanical equipment relating to vehicles, including functions performed by mechanics and automotive technicians.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Does not include cleaning or janitorial activities.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">C. Inspecting or maintaining building or transportation infrastructure </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Provide cleaning services to areas of facilities owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this subchapter that are accessible to the general public or passengers.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Provide cleaning services to vehicles owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this part (does not include vehicle maintenance).</LI>
                                    <LI>3. Provide general building maintenance services to buildings owned, operated, or controlled by an owner/operator regulated under this part.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">D. Controlling dispatch or movement of a vehicle </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Dispatch, report, transport, receive or deliver orders pertaining to specific vehicles, coordination of transportation schedules, tracking of vehicles and equipment.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Manage day-to-day delivery of transportation services and the prevention of, response to, and redress of disruptions to these services.</LI>
                                    <LI>3. Perform tasks requiring access to or knowledge of specific route information.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">E. Providing security of the owner/operator's equipment and property</ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who patrol and inspect property of an owner/operator regulated under this part to protect the property, personnel, passengers and/or cargo.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">F. Loading or unloading cargo or baggage </ENT>
                                <ENT>Employees who load, or oversee loading of, property tendered by or on behalf of a passenger on or off of a portion of a bus that will be inaccessible to the passenger while the vehicle is in operation.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">G. Interacting with travelling public (on board a vehicle or within a transportation facility)</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Employees who—
                                    <LI>1. Provide services to passengers on-board a bus, including collecting tickets or cash for fares, providing information, and other similar services.</LI>
                                    <LI>2. Includes food or beverage employees, tour guides, and functions on behalf of an owner/operator regulated under this part that require regular interaction with travelling public within a transportation facility, such as ticket agents.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">H. Complying with security programs or measures, including those required by Federal law </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    1. Employees who serve as security coordinators designated in § 1584.103 of this subchapter, as well as any designated alternates or secondary security coordinators.
                                    <LI>2. Employees who—</LI>
                                    <LI>a. Conduct training and testing of employees when the training or testing is required by TSA's security regulations.</LI>
                                    <LI>b. Manage or direct implementation of security plan requirements.</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88583"/>
                    <AMDPAR>30. Add appendix C to part 1584 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix C to Part 1584—Reporting of Significant Physical Security Concerns</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r250">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Breach, Attempted Intrusion, and/or Interference </ENT>
                                <ENT>Unauthorized personnel attempting to or actually entering a restricted area or secure site relating to a transportation facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part. This includes individuals entering or attempting to enter by impersonation of authorized personnel (for example, police/security, janitor, vehicle owner/operator). Activity that could interfere with the ability of employees to perform duties to the extent that security is threatened.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Misrepresentation </ENT>
                                <ENT>Presenting false, or misusing, insignia, documents, and/or identification, to misrepresent one's affiliation with an owner/operator subject to this part to cover possible illicit activity that may pose a risk to transportation security.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Theft, Loss, and/or Diversion</ENT>
                                <ENT>Stealing or diverting identification media or badges, uniforms, vehicles, keys, tools capable of compromising operating systems, technology, or classified or sensitive security information documents which are proprietary to the facility or conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sabotage, Tampering, and/or Vandalism </ENT>
                                <ENT>Damaging, manipulating, or defeating safety and security appliances in connection with a facility, infrastructure, conveyance, or routing mechanism, resulting in the compromised use or the temporary or permanent loss of use of the facility, infrastructure, conveyance or routing mechanism. Placing or attaching a foreign object to a conveyance.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Expressed or Implied Threat.</ENT>
                                <ENT>Communicating a spoken or written threat to damage or compromise a facility/infrastructure/conveyance owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part (for example, a bomb threat or active shooter).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Eliciting Information </ENT>
                                <ENT>Questioning that may pose a risk to transportation or national security, such as asking one or more employees of an owner/operator subject to this part about particular facets of a facility's conveyance's purpose, operations, or security procedures.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Testing or Probing of Security</ENT>
                                <ENT>Deliberate interactions with employees of an owner/operator subject to this part or challenges to facilities or systems owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part that reveal physical, personnel, or security capabilities or sensitive information.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Photography </ENT>
                                <ENT>Taking photographs or video of facilities, conveyances, or infrastructure owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include taking photographs or video of infrequently used access points, personnel performing security functions (for example, patrols, badge/vehicle checking), or security-related equipment (for example, perimeter fencing, security cameras).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Observation or Surveillance</ENT>
                                <ENT>Demonstrating unusual interest in facilities or loitering near conveyances, railcar routing appliances or any potentially critical infrastructure owned or operated by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include observation through binoculars, taking notes, or attempting to measure distances.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Materials Acquisition and/or Storage </ENT>
                                <ENT>Acquisition and/or storage by an employee of an owner/operator subject to this part of materials such as cell phones, pagers, fuel, chemicals, toxic materials, and/or timers that may pose a risk to transportation or national security (for example, storage of chemicals not needed by an employee for the performance of his or her job duties).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Weapons Discovery, Discharge, or Seizure</ENT>
                                <ENT>Weapons or explosives in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that may present a risk to transportation or national security (for example, discovery of weapons inconsistent with the type or quantity traditionally used by company security personnel).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Suspicious Items or Activity </ENT>
                                <ENT>Discovery or observation of suspicious items, activity or behavior in or around a facility, conveyance, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that results in the disruption or termination of operations (for example, halting the operation of a conveyance while law enforcement personnel investigate a suspicious bag, briefcase, or package).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <AMDPAR>31. Add part 1586 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1586—PIPELINE FACILITIES AND SYSTEMS SECURITY</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>1586.1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Terms used in this part.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.5</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Harmonization of Federal regulation.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs: Physical Security</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>1586.101</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope and Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.103</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.105</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Cybersecurity Risk Management</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>1586.201</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.203</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.205</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.207</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.209</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.211</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.213</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.215</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.217</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.219</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.221</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.223</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.225</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.227</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.229</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1586.231</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Part 1586—Reporting of Significant Physical Security Concerns</HD>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 49 U.S.C. 114; Public Law 110-53, 121 Stat. 266.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    This part includes requirements for the following persons. Specific sections in this part provide detailed applicability and requirements.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88584"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(a) Each person that owns or operates a hazardous liquid pipeline or system that is regulated under 49 CFR part 195; operates a primary control room responsible for multiple systems; or has a contract with the Defense Logistics Agency to supply hazardous liquids.</P>
                                <P>(b) Each person that owns or operates a natural and other gas pipeline system that is regulated under 49 CFR part 192; operates a primary control room responsible for multiple systems; or provides natural gas service to service points.</P>
                                <P>(c) Each person that owns or operates a liquefied natural gas facility that is regulated under 49 CFR part 193.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Terms used in this part.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>In addition to the terms in §§ 1500.3, 1500.5, and 1503.103 of this chapter, the following terms apply to this part.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Control Room</E>
                                     means an operations center staffed by personnel charged with responsibility for remotely monitoring and controlling a pipeline facility.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">High Consequence Area</E>
                                     has the same meaning as “high-consequence area” as defined in 49 CFR 192.903 and 49 CFR 195.450, as applicable.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Industrial control system (ICS)</E>
                                     means an information system used to control industrial processes such as manufacturing, product handling, production, and distribution. Industrial control systems include supervisory control and data acquisition systems used to control geographically dispersed assets, as well as distributed control systems and smaller control systems using programmable logic controllers to control localized processes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peak-shaving facility</E>
                                     means a pipeline facility that stores liquefied natural gas to meet demand spikes.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.5</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Harmonization of Federal regulation.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>TSA will coordinate activities under this part with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), and the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) of the Department of Transportation with respect to regulation of pipeline systems and facilities that are also licensed or regulated by the FERC or PHMSA, to avoid conflicting requirements and minimize redundancy of compliance activities.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Security Programs: Physical Security</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.101</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope and Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                                     This subpart includes requirements that are primarily intended to ensure the physical security of pipeline facilities and systems. Physical security encompasses the security of systems and facilities, as well as the persons in areas in or near to operations that could have their safety and security threatened by an attack on physical systems and assets. Owner/operators identified in § 1586.1 must review the applicability in each section in this subpart to determine if any of the requirements apply to their operations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                                     Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this subpart includes requirements for each owner/operator that meets any of the following criteria:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Owns or operates a hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide pipeline or system regulated under 49 CFR part 195 and meets any of the following criteria:</P>
                                <P>(i) Delivers hazardous liquids or carbon dioxide more than 50 million barrels in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) Has more than 200 segment miles of pipeline transporting hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide that could affect a High Consequence Area.</P>
                                <P>(2) Owns or operates a primary control room responsible for multiple hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide systems regulated under 49 CFR part 196 and the total annual combined delivery for these systems is greater than 50 million barrels in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                                <P>(3) Owns or operates a hazardous liquid or carbon dioxide pipeline or system regulated under 49 CFR part 195 that has a contract with the Defense Logistics Agency to supply hazardous liquids more than 70,000 barrels annually.</P>
                                <P>(4) Owns or operates a natural and other gas pipeline system that is regulated under 49 CFR part 192 and meets any of the following criteria:</P>
                                <P>(i) Delivered natural or other gas more than 275 million dekatherms annually in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE];</P>
                                <P>(ii) Delivered natural or other gas to 275,000 or more meters (or service points) annually in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]; or</P>
                                <P>(iii) Transmits natural or other gas more than 200 segment miles through a High Consequence Area.</P>
                                <P>(5) Operates a primary control room responsible for multiple natural or other gas pipeline systems regulated under 49 CFR part 192 systems and the combined total annual delivery or transmission for these systems is greater than 275 million dekatherms, in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                                <P>(6) Owns or operates a natural or other gas pipeline system regulated under 49 CFR part 192 that provides natural gas service to 275,000 or more meters (or service points) annually in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                                <P>(7) Each person that owns or operates a liquefied natural gas facility that is regulated under 49 CFR part 193 and—</P>
                                <P>(i) Imported natural gas in any of the 3 calendar years before [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] or any single calendar year after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) Operates as a “peak-shaving facility.”</P>
                                <P>(c) The requirements in this part do not apply to U.S. facilities specified in 33 CFR 105.105(a) that are regulated under 33 CFR part 105 or facilities specified in 33 CFR 106.105(a) that are regulated under 33 CFR part 106.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.103</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Physical Security Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1586.101(b) must designate and use a primary and at least one alternate Physical Security Coordinator at the corporate level to function as the administrator for sharing security-related activities and information.</P>
                                <P>(b) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                                <P>(1) Be accessible to TSA on a 24 hours per day, 7 days per week basis;</P>
                                <P>(2) Serve as the primary contact(s) for intelligence information and security-related activities and communications with TSA. Any individual designated as a Physical Security Coordinator may perform other duties in addition to the duties described in this section); and</P>
                                <P>(3) Coordinate security practices and procedures required by this subchapter internally and with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Physical Security Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) Each owner/operator required to have a Physical Security Coordinator must provide in writing to TSA the names, U.S. citizenship status, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Physical 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88585"/>
                                    Security Coordinator and alternate Physical Security Coordinator(s). Changes in any of the information required by this section must be submitted to TSA within 7 calendar days.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.105</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reporting of significant physical security concerns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in § 1586.101(b) must report, within 24 hours of initial discovery, any potential threats and significant physical security concerns involving transportation-related operations in the United States or transportation to, from, or within the United States as soon as possible by the methods prescribed by TSA.</P>
                                <P>(b) Potential threats or significant physical security concerns encompass incidents, suspicious activities, and threat information including, but not limited to, the categories of reportable events listed in appendix A to this part.</P>
                                <P>(c) Information reported must include the following, as available and applicable:</P>
                                <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number or email address.</P>
                                <P>(2) The affected system or facility, including identifying information and current location.</P>
                                <P>(3) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, including who has been notified and what action has been taken.</P>
                                <P>(4) The names, other available biographical data, and/or descriptions (including vehicle or license plate information) of individuals or motor vehicles known or suspected to be involved in the threat, incident, or activity.</P>
                                <P>(5) The source of any threat information.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Cybersecurity Risk Management</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.201</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                                     This subpart includes requirements to ensure the cybersecurity of gas hazardous liquid, carbon monoxide, and liquefied natural gas pipelines, pipeline systems, and facilities to mitigate the risk of significant harm significant harm to transportation facilities, as well as persons in areas in or near pipeline facilities and systems, that could have their safety and security threatened as a result of the degradation, destruction, or malfunction of systems that control these systems and infrastructure. In addition, cybersecurity incidents could have significant, similar impacts on the supply chain, affecting the national and economic security of the United States.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                                     Each owner/operator described in § 1586.101(b) must adopt and carry out a Cybersecurity Risk Management (CRM) program.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.203</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Form, content, and availability of Cybersecurity Risk Management program.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">General content requirements.</E>
                                     The CRM program required by this subpart is a comprehensive program that includes the following components:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A cybersecurity evaluation completed and updated as required by § 1586.205;</P>
                                <P>(2) A TSA-approved Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan (COIP) that meets the requirements in § 1586.207.</P>
                                <P>(3) A Cybersecurity Assessment Plan that meets the requirements in § 1586.229.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Subsidiaries.</E>
                                     If a single CRM program is developed and implemented for multiple business units within a single corporate entity, any documents used to comply or establish compliance with the requirements in this subpart must clearly identify and distinguish application of the requirements to each business unit.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.205</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity evaluation.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                                     Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program must complete an initial and recurrent cybersecurity evaluation sufficient to determine the owner/operator's current enterprise-wide cybersecurity profile of logical/virtual and physical security controls when evaluated against the CRM program requirements in this subpart, using a form provided by TSA or other tools approved by TSA.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Timing.</E>
                                     The initial cybersecurity evaluation must be completed no later than [DATE 90 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], but no more than one year before the date of submission of the owner/operators Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan required by § 1586.207. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the initial cybersecurity evaluation must be submitted to TSA no later than 45 calendar days after commencing the new or modified operations triggering applicability.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual updates.</E>
                                     The evaluation required by paragraph (a) of this section must be updated annually, no later than one year from the anniversary date of the previously completed evaluation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Notification.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must notify TSA within 7 days of completing the evaluation and annual updates required by this section. A copy of the evaluation must be provided to TSA upon request.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Sensitive Security Information.</E>
                                     This evaluation is a vulnerability assessment as defined in § 1500.3 of this chapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this chapter.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.207</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Requirement.</E>
                                     Each owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must adopt a COIP.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">General Content.</E>
                                     The COIP must include the following corporate information:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) The name and corporate address of the owner/operator;</P>
                                <P>(2) Written attestation by the owner/operator's accountable executive that the COIP has been reviewed and approved by senior management; and</P>
                                <P>(3) Identification of specific operations that meet the applicability criteria.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Specific Content.</E>
                                     The COIP must detail the owner/operator's defense-in-depth plan, including physical and logical/virtual security controls, to comply with the requirements and security outcomes specified in the following sections:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Governance.</E>
                                     The requirements for governance of the CRM program in § 1586.209 and the designation of a Cybersecurity Coordinator under § 1586.211.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Identification of Critical Cyber Systems, Network Architecture, and Interdependencies.</E>
                                     The requirements to identify Critical Cyber Systems and network architecture in § 1586.213 and supply chain risk management in § 1586.215.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                                     The requirements for protection of Critical Cyber Systems in § 1586.217 and training of cybersecurity-sensitive employees in § 1586.219.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to detect cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                                     The requirements for detecting cybersecurity incidents in § 1586.221.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Procedures, policies, and capabilities to respond to, and recover from, cybersecurity incidents.</E>
                                     The requirements for responding to cybersecurity incidents in § 1586.223, reporting cybersecurity incidents in § 1586.225, and the Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan in § 1586.227.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Plan of Action and Milestones.</E>
                                     (1) To the extent an owner/operator does not meet every requirement and security 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88586"/>
                                    outcome identified in paragraph (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section, the COIP must include a plan of action and milestones (POAM).
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) The POAM must include:</P>
                                <P>(i) Policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities that owner/operator will develop or obtain, as applicable, to ensure all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart are met;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Physical and logical/virtual security controls that the owner/operator will implement to mitigate the risks associated with not fully complying with requirements or security outcomes in this subpart; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) A detailed timeframe for full compliance with all requirements and security outcomes in this subpart, not to exceed three years from the date of submission to TSA of the COIP required by this section.</P>
                                <P>(3) The POAM must be updated as necessary to address any deficiencies identified during the evaluation required by § 1586.205 or as a result of an assessment conducted under § 1586.229 that will not be immediately addressed through an update to the COIP.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Approval and implementation.</E>
                                     (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Submission deadlines.</E>
                                     The COIP must be made available to TSA, in a form and manner prescribed by TSA, no later than [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE]. If commencing or modifying operations subject to these requirements after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the COIP must be made available to TSA no later than 45 calendar days before commencing new or modified operations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Effective date.</E>
                                     After considering all relevant materials and any additional information required by TSA, TSA will notify the owner/operator's accountable executive of TSA's decision to approve the owner/operator's COIP. The COIP becomes effective 30 days after the owner/operator is notified whether its COIP is approved.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">TSA-approved security program.</E>
                                     Once approved by TSA, the COIP, any appendices, and any policies or procedures incorporated by reference, are a TSA-approved security program, subject to the protections in part 1520 of this chapter and the procedures applicable to security programs in subpart B of part 1570 of this subchapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Status Report and Updates.</E>
                                     The CRM program must be reviewed and updated by the owner/operator within 60 days of the evaluations or assessments required by §§ 1586.205 or 1586.229, as necessary to address any identified vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the procedures, policies, or capabilities identified in the CRM program.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">Revisions.</E>
                                     Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, any substantive modifications or amendments to the COIP must be made in accordance with the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.209</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Governance of the CRM program.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Accountable Executive.</E>
                                     (1) No later than [DATE 30 DAYS FROM EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], the owner/operator must provide to TSA the names, titles, business telephone numbers, and business email addresses of the owner/operator's accountable executive and the primary individual to be contacted about the owner/operator's CRM program. If any of the information required by this paragraph changes, the owner/operator must provide the updated information to TSA within 7 days of the change.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) The accountable executive must be an individual who has the authority and knowledge necessary for the development, implementation, and managerial oversight of the TSA-approved CRM program, including cybersecurity administration, risk assessments, inspections and control procedures, and coordinating communications with the owner/operator's leadership and staff on implementation and sustainment of the CRM program. To the extent possible, the accountable executive should not be the Cybersecurity Coordinator or an individual responsible for management of Information or Operational Technology system or systems' administration.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">COIP.</E>
                                     The COIP must also include:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Identification of positions designated by the owner/operator to manage implementation of policies, procedures, and capabilities described in the COIP and coordinate improvements to the CRM program.</P>
                                <P>(2) Corporate-level identification of any authorized representatives, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, who are responsible for any or all the CRM program or cybersecurity measures identified in the CRM program, and written documentation (such as contractual agreements) clearly identifying the roles and responsibilities of the authorized representative under the CRM program.</P>
                                <P>(3) The information required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Process.</E>
                                     Updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.211</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Coordinator.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Each owner/operator identified in paragraphs § 1586.101(b) must designate employees at the corporate level to serve as the primary and at least one alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator with responsibility for sharing critical cybersecurity information.</P>
                                <P>(b) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must—</P>
                                <P>(1) Serve as the primary contact for cyber-related intelligence information and cybersecurity-related activities and communications with TSA and the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA);</P>
                                <P>(2) Have the following knowledge and skills, through current certifications or equivalent job experience:</P>
                                <P>(i) General cybersecurity guidance and best practices;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Relevant law and regulations pertaining to cybersecurity;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Handling of Sensitive Security Information and security-related communications; and</P>
                                <P>(iv) Current cybersecurity threats applicable to the owner/operator's operations and systems.</P>
                                <P>(3) Be accessible to TSA and CISA 24 hours per day, 7 days per week;</P>
                                <P>(4) Have a Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN) account or other TSA-designated communication platform for information sharing relevant to the requirements in this subpart; and</P>
                                <P>(5) Work with appropriate law enforcement and emergency response agencies in addressing cybersecurity threats or responding to cybersecurity incidents.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate(s) must be a U.S. citizen eligible for a security clearance, unless otherwise waived by TSA.</P>
                                <P>(d) Owner/operators must provide in writing to TSA the names, titles, business phone number(s), and business email address(es) of the Cybersecurity Coordinator and alternate Cybersecurity Coordinator(s) required by paragraph (a) of this section no later than [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], or within seven days of the commencement of new operations, or change in any of the information required by this section that occur after [DATE 7 DAYS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].</P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) In addition to providing the information to TSA as required by paragraph (d), any owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this part must also include the information required by paragraphs (d) 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88587"/>
                                    of this section in the COIP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA of this information, and any changes to this information, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.213</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Identification of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Identifying information.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP a list of Critical Cyber Systems, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, that provides, at a minimum, the following identifying information for each Critical Cyber System:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Identifier (system name or commercial name); and</P>
                                <P>(2) System manufacturer/designer name.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Identification methodology.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must include a description of the methodology and information used to identify Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum, includes the following information as used to identify critical systems:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Standards and factors, including system interdependencies with critical functions, used to identify Information Technology and Operational Technology systems that could be vulnerable to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                                <P>(2) Sources and data, such as known threat information relevant to the system, that informed decisions regarding the likelihood of the system being subject to a cybersecurity incident;</P>
                                <P>(3) Potential operational impacts of a cybersecurity incident, including scenarios that identify potential supply chain impacts and how long critical operations and capabilities could be sustained with identified alternatives if a system is offline; and</P>
                                <P>(4) Sustainability and operational impacts if an Information or Operational Technology system not identified as a Critical Cyber System becomes unavailable due to a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">System information and network architecture.</E>
                                     For all Critical Cyber Systems, the owner/operator must provide the following information:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Information and Operational Technology system interdependencies for Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                                <P>(2) All external connections to Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                                <P>(3) Zone boundaries for Critical Cyber Systems, including a description of how Information and Operational Technology systems are defined and organized into logical/virtual zones based on criticality, consequence, and operational necessity;</P>
                                <P>(4) Baseline of acceptable communications between Critical Cyber Systems and external connections or between Information and Operational Technology systems; and</P>
                                <P>(5) Operational needs that prevent or delay implementation of the requirements in this subpart, such as application of security patches and updates, encryption of communications traversing Information and Operational Technology systems, and multi-factor authentication.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Additional systems.</E>
                                     If notified by TSA, the owner/operator must include additional Critical Cyber Systems identified by TSA not previously identified by the owner/operator.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Changes in Critical Cyber Systems.</E>
                                     Any substantive changes to Critical Cyber Systems require an amendment to the Cybersecurity Operational Implementation Plan subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.215</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Supply chain risk management.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities to address supply chain cybersecurity vulnerabilities that include requiring—</P>
                                <P>(a) All procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, executed, or updated after [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE], include a requirement for the vendor or service provider to notify the owner/operator of the following:</P>
                                <P>(1) Cybersecurity incidents affecting the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of cybersecurity incident.</P>
                                <P>(2) Confirmed security vulnerabilities affecting the goods, services, or capabilities provided by the vendor or service provider within a specified timeframe sufficient for the owner/operator to identify and address any potential risks to their Critical Cyber Systems based on the scope and type of security vulnerability.</P>
                                <P>(b) Procurement documents and contracts, including service-level agreements, incorporate an evaluation by the owner/operator or qualified third-party of the cybersecurity measures implemented by vendors or service providers of goods, services, or capabilities that will be connected to, installed on, or used by the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                                <P>(c) When provided two offerings of roughly similar cost and function, giving preference to the offering that provides the greater level of cybersecurity necessary to protect against, or effectively respond to, cybersecurity incidents affecting the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                                <P>(d) Upon notification of a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, immediate consideration of mitigation measures sufficient to address the resulting risk to Critical Cyber Systems and, as applicable, revision to the COIP in accordance with § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.217</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Protection of Critical Cyber Systems.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, controls, and capabilities to protect Critical Cyber Systems that meet security performance objectives in the following areas—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Network segmentation.</E>
                                     Network segmentation measures that protect against access to, or disruption of, the Operational Technology system if the Information Technology system is compromised or vice versa. These measures must be sufficient to—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Ensure Information and Operational Technology system-services transit the other only when necessary for validated business or operational purposes;</P>
                                <P>(2) Secure and defend zone boundaries with security controls—</P>
                                <P>(i) To defend against unauthorized communications between zones; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) To prohibit Operational Technology system services from traversing the Information Technology system, and vice-versa, unless the content is encrypted at a level sufficient to secure and protect integrity of data and prevent corruption or compromise while in transit. If encryption is not technologically feasible, ensure content is otherwise secured and protected using compensating controls that provide the same level of security as encryption for data in transit.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Access control.</E>
                                     Access control measures for Critical Cyber Systems, including for local and remote access, that secure and defend against unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems. These measures must, at a minimum, incorporate the following policies, procedures, and controls:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Identification and authentication requirements designed to prevent unauthorized access to Critical Cyber Systems that include:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A policy for memorized secret authenticator resets that includes criteria for passwords and when resets 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88588"/>
                                    must occur, including procedures to ensure implementation of these requirements, such as password lockouts; and
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Documented and defined logical/virtual and physical security controls for components of Critical Cyber Systems that will not be subject to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii), multi-factor authentication, or other logical/virtual and physical security controls to supplement memorized secret authenticators (such as passwords) to provide risk mitigation commensurate to multi-factor authentication.</P>
                                <P>(ii) An owner/operator in compliance with the requirements in 49 CFR 192.631 and 195.446, as applicable, may rely on the physical security measures as applied to the control room in lieu of applying multi-factor authentication to specific industrial control system workstations in the covered control room, as applicable, in lieu of implementing the requirements in paragraph (b)(2)(i). If relying on this exception, the owner/operator must identify the applicable system as a Critical Cyber System; maintain compliance with the requirements in 49 CFR 192.631 and 195.446, as applicable; and include in the COIP a description of the physical security measures and other compensating controls used to prevent access to industrial control system workstations.</P>
                                <P>(3) Management of access rights based on the principles of least privilege and separation of duties. Where not technically feasible to apply these principles, the policies and procedures must describe compensating controls that the owner/operator applies.</P>
                                <P>(4) Policies and procedures limit availability and use of shared accounts to those that are critical for operations, and then only if necessary. When the owner/operator uses shared accounts for operational purposes, the policies and procedures must ensure:</P>
                                <P>(i) Access to shared accounts is limited through account management that uses principles of least privilege and separation of duties;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Any individual who no longer needs access does not have knowledge of the memorized secret authenticator necessary to access the shared account; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Logs are maintained sufficient to enable positive user identification of access to shared accounts to enable forensic investigation following a cybersecurity incident.</P>
                                <P>(5) Regularly updated schedule for review of existing domain trust relationships to ensure their necessity and established and enforced policies to manage these relationships.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Patch management.</E>
                                     Measures that reduce the risk of exploitation of unpatched systems through the application of security patches and updates for operating systems, applications, drivers, and firmware on Critical Cyber Systems consistent with the owner/operator's risk-based methodology. These measures must include:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A patch management strategy that ensures all critical security patches and updates on Critical Cyber Systems are current. This strategy must include:</P>
                                <P>(i) The risk methodology for categorizing and determining criticality of patches and updates, and an implementation timeline based on categorization and criticality; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) Prioritization of all security patches and updates on CISA's Known Exploited Vulnerabilities Catalog.</P>
                                <P>(2) In instances where the owner/operator cannot apply patches and updates on specific Operational Technology systems without causing a severe degradation of operational capability to meet business critical functions, the owner/operator must provide an explanation for why the actions cannot be taken and a description and timeline of additional mitigations that address the risk created by not installing the patch or update within the recommended timeframe.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Logging policies.</E>
                                     Logging policies sufficient to ensure logging data is—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Stored in a secure and centralized system, such as a security information and event management tool or database on a segmented network that can only be accessed or modified by authorized and authenticated users; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Maintained for a duration sufficient to allow for investigation of cybersecurity incidents as supported by a risk analysis and applicable standards or regulatory guidelines.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Secure back-ups.</E>
                                     Policies that ensure all Critical Cyber Systems are backed-up on a regular basis consistent with operational need for the information, the back-ups are securely stored separate from the system, and policies require testing the integrity of back-ups to ensure that the data is free of known malicious code when the back-ups are made.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.219</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity training and knowledge.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Training required.</E>
                                     (1) Owner/operators required to have a CRM program under this subpart must provide basic cybersecurity training to all employees with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) No owner/operator required to have a CRM program under this subpart may permit a cybersecurity-sensitive employee to access, or have privileges to access, a Critical Cyber System or an Information or Operational Technology system that is interdependent with a Critical Cyber System, unless that individual has received basic and role-based cybersecurity training.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">General curriculum requirements.</E>
                                     The cybersecurity training program must include a curriculum or lesson plan, including learning objectives and method of delivery (such as instructor-led or computer-based training) for each course used to meet the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. TSA may request additional information regarding the curriculum during the review and approval process. If recurrent training under paragraph (e) of this section is not the same as initial training, a curriculum or lesson plan for the recurrent training will need to be submitted and approved by TSA.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Specific curriculum requirements.</E>
                                     (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Basic cybersecurity training.</E>
                                     All employees and contractors with access to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems, must receive basic cybersecurity training that includes cybersecurity awareness to address best practices, acceptable use, risks associated with their level of privileged access, and awareness of security risks associated with their actions. This training must address the following topics:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) Social engineering, including phishing;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Password best practices;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Remote work security basics;</P>
                                <P>(iv) Safe internet and social media use;</P>
                                <P>(v) Mobile device (wireless) vulnerabilities and network security;</P>
                                <P>(vi) Data management and information security, including protecting business email, confidential information, trade secrets, and privacy; and</P>
                                <P>(vii) How and to whom to report suspected inappropriate or suspicious activity involving Information or Operational Technology systems, including mobile devices provided by or connected to the owner/operator's Information or Operational Technology systems.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Role-based cybersecurity training.</E>
                                     Cybersecurity-sensitive employees must be provided cybersecurity training that specifically addresses their role as a privileged user to prevent and respond to a cybersecurity incident, acceptable uses, and the risks associated with their 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88589"/>
                                    level of access and use as approved by the owner/operator. This training must address the following topics as applicable to the specific role:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) Security measures and requirements in the COIP including how the requirements affect account and access management, server and application management, and system architecture development and assessment;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Recognition and detection of cybersecurity threats, types of cybersecurity incidents, and techniques used to circumvent cybersecurity measures;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Incident handling, including procedures for reporting a cybersecurity incident to the Cybersecurity Coordinator and understanding their roles and responsibilities during a cybersecurity incident and implementation of the owner/operator's Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan required by § 1586.227;</P>
                                <P>(iv) Requirements and sources for staying aware of changing cybersecurity threats and countermeasures;</P>
                                <P>(v) Operational Technology-specific cybersecurity training for all personnel whose duties include access to Operational Technology systems.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Initial cybersecurity training.</E>
                                     (1) Each owner/operator must provide initial cybersecurity training (basic and role-based, as applicable) to employees and contractors, using the curriculum approved by TSA no later than 60 days after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP required by this subpart.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) For individuals who onboard or become cybersecurity-sensitive employees after the effective date of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP who did not receive training within the period identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the individual must receive the applicable cybersecurity training no later than 10 days after onboarding.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Recurrent cybersecurity training.</E>
                                     Employees and contractors must receive annual recurrent cybersecurity training no later than the anniversary calendar month of the employee's initial cybersecurity training. If the owner/operator provides the recurrent cybersecurity training in the month of, the month before, or the month after it is due, the employee is considered to have taken the training in the month it is due.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Recognition of prior or established cybersecurity training.</E>
                                     Previously provided cybersecurity training may be credited towards satisfying the requirements of this section provided the owner/operator—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Obtains a complete record of such training and validates the training meets requirements of this section as it relates to the role of the individual employee, and the training was provided within the schedule required for recurrent training; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Retains a record of such training in compliance with the requirements in paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">Retention of cybersecurity training records.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must retain records of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training records for each individual required to receive cybersecurity training under this section for no less than 5 years from the date of training that, at a minimum—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Includes employee's full name, job title or function, date of hire, and date of initial and recurrent cybersecurity training; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Identifies the date, course name, course length, and list of topics addressed for the cybersecurity training most recently provided in each of the areas required under paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (h) 
                                    <E T="03">Availability of records to employees.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must provide records of cybersecurity training to current and former employees upon request and at no charge as necessary to provide proof of training.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.221</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Detection of cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP policies, procedures, and capabilities sufficient to detect and respond to cybersecurity threats to, and anomalies on, Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                                <P>(a) Defend against malicious email, such as spam and phishing emails, to preclude or mitigate against adverse impacts to operations;</P>
                                <P>(b) Block ingress and egress communications with known or suspected malicious internet Protocol addresses;</P>
                                <P>(c) Control impact of known or suspected malicious web domains or web applications, such as by preventing users and devices from accessing malicious websites;</P>
                                <P>(d) Block and defend against unauthorized code, including macro scripts, from executing;</P>
                                <P>(e) Monitor and/or block connections from known or suspected malicious command and control servers (such as Tor exit nodes, and other anonymization services); and</P>
                                <P>(f) Ensure continuous collection and analysis of data for potential intrusions and anomalous behavior on Critical Cyber Systems and other Information and Operational Technology systems that directly connect with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.223</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Capabilities to respond to a cybersecurity incident.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP capabilities to respond to cybersecurity incidents affecting Critical Cyber Systems that, at a minimum—</P>
                                <P>(a) Audit unauthorized access to internet domains and addresses;</P>
                                <P>(b) Document and audit any communications between the Operational Technology system and an internal or external system that deviates from the owner/operator's identified baseline of communications;</P>
                                <P>(c) Identify and respond to execution of unauthorized code, including macro scripts; and</P>
                                <P>(d) Define, prioritize, and drive standardized incident response activities, such as Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR).</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.225</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reporting cybersecurity incidents.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Unless otherwise directed by TSA, each owner/operator identified in § 1586.101(b) must notify CISA of any Reportable Cybersecurity Incidents, as defined in the TSA Cybersecurity Lexicon, as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours after a Reportable Cybersecurity Incident is identified.</P>
                                <P>(b) Reports required by this section must be made by the methods prescribed by TSA. All reported information will be protected in a manner appropriate for the sensitivity and criticality of the information.</P>
                                <P>(c) The report to CISA must include the following information, as available to the reporting owner/operator at the time of the report:</P>
                                <P>(1) The name of the reporting individual and contact information, including a telephone number and email address. The report must also explicitly specify that the information is being reported to satisfy the reporting requirements in Transportation Security Regulations.</P>
                                <P>(2) The affected pipeline system(s) or facilities, including identifying information and location.</P>
                                <P>(3) Description of the threat, incident, or activity, to include:</P>
                                <P>(i) Earliest known date of compromise;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Date of detection;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Information about who has been notified and what action has been taken;</P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) Any relevant information observed or collected by the owner/operators, such as malicious internet Protocol addresses, malicious domains, 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88590"/>
                                    malware hashes and/or samples, or the abuse of legitimate software or accounts; and
                                </P>
                                <P>(v) Any known threat information, to include information about the source of the threat or cybersecurity incident, if available.</P>
                                <P>(4) A description of the incident's impact or potential impact on Information or Operational Technology systems and operations. This information must also include an assessment of actual or imminent adverse impacts to service operations, operational delays, and/or data theft that have or are likely to be incurred, as well as any other information that would be informative in understanding the impact or potential impact of the cybersecurity incident.</P>
                                <P>(5) A description of all responses that are planned or under consideration, to include, for example, a reversion to manual operations and control, if applicable.</P>
                                <P>(6) Any additional information not specifically required by this section, but which is critical to an understanding of the threat and owner/operator's response to a reportable cybersecurity incident.</P>
                                <P>(d) If all the required information is not available at the time of reporting, owner/operators must submit an initial report within the specified timeframe and supplement as additional information becomes available.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.227</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) The owner/operator must incorporate into its COIP an up-to-date Cybersecurity Incident Response Plan (CIRP) for the owner/operator's Critical Cyber Systems to reduce the impacts of a cybersecurity incident that causes, or could cause, operational disruption or significant impacts on business-critical functions.</P>
                                <P>(b) The CIRP must provide specific measures sufficient to ensure the following objectives, as applicable:</P>
                                <P>(1) Promptly identifying, isolating, and segregating the infected systems from uninfected systems, networks, and devices using measures that prioritize:</P>
                                <P>(i) Limiting the spread of autonomous malware;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Denying continued access by a threat actor to systems;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Determining extent of compromise; and</P>
                                <P>(iv) Preserving evidence and data.</P>
                                <P>(2) Only data stored and secured as required by § 1586.217(e) is used to restore systems and that all stored backup data is scanned with host security software to ensure the data is free of malicious artifacts before being used for restoration.</P>
                                <P>(3) Established capability and governance for implementing mitigation measures or manual controls that ensure that the Operational Technology system can be isolated when a cybersecurity incident in the Information Technology system creates risk to the safety and reliability of the Operational Technology system.</P>
                                <P>(c) The CIRP must identify who (by position) is responsible for implementing the specific measures in the plan and any necessary resources needed to implement the measures.</P>
                                <P>(d) The owner/operator must conduct an exercise to test the effectiveness of the CIRP no less than annually. The exercise conducted under this paragraph must—</P>
                                <P>(1) Test at least two objectives of the owner/operator's CIRP required by paragraph (b) of this section, no less than annually; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Include the employees identified (by position) in paragraph (c) as active participants in the exercise.</P>
                                <P>(e) Within no more than 90 days after the date of the exercise required by paragraph (d), the owner/operator must update the CIRP as appropriate to address any issues identified during the exercise.</P>
                                <P>(f) The owner/operator must notify TSA within 15 days of any changes to the CIRP. As the owner/operator must separately notify TSA, updating the COIP to align with information provided to TSA under this section does not require an amendment subject to the procedures in § 1570.107 of this subchapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.229</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Requirement for a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan.</E>
                                     No later than 90 days from TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, the owner/operator must submit to TSA a Cybersecurity Assessment Plan (CAP) sufficient to—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Proactively assess the effectiveness of all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP as applied to all Critical Cyber Systems; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Identify and resolve device, network, and/or system vulnerabilities associated with Critical Cyber Systems.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Contents of the CAP.</E>
                                     At a minimum, the CAP must describe in detail:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) The plan to assess the effectiveness of the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP as all applied to all Critical Cyber Systems;</P>
                                <P>(2) Schedule and scope of an architectural design review within 12 months either before or after TSA's approval of the owner/operator's COIP, to be repeated at least once every 2 years thereafter. The architectural design review required by this paragraph must include verification and validation of network traffic, a system log review, and analysis to identify cybersecurity vulnerabilities related to network design, configuration, and interconnectivity to internal and external systems;</P>
                                <P>(3) Other assessment capabilities designed to identify vulnerabilities to Critical Cyber Systems based on evolving threat information and adversarial capabilities, such as penetration testing of Information Technology systems, including the use of “red” and “purple” team (adversarial perspective) testing.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Specific Schedule.</E>
                                     (1) In addition to specifying the schedule for the architectural design review required by paragraph (b)(2), the CAP must include a schedule for conducting the assessments required by paragraph (b) sufficient to ensure at least one-third of the policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the TSA-approved COIP are assessed each year, with 100 percent of the COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems assessed over a 3-year period.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) The scheduled required by this paragraph must map the planned assessments to the COIP and Critical Cyber System to document the plan will ensure all policies, procedures, measures, and capabilities in the owner/operator's TSA-approved COIP and all Critical Cyber Systems will be assessed within the timeframes required by paragraph (c)(1).</P>
                                <P>
                                    F(d) 
                                    <E T="03">Independence of assessors and auditors.</E>
                                     Owner/operators must ensure that the assessments, audits, testing, and other capabilities to assess the effectiveness of its TSA-approved COIP are not conducted by individuals who have oversight or responsibility for implementing the owner/operator's F program and have no vested or other financial interest in the results of the CAP.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual submission of report.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must ensure a report of the results of assessments conducted in accordance with the CAP is provided to corporate leadership and individuals designated under § 1586.209(a) and (b)(1), and submitted to TSA, no later than 15 months from the date of approval of the initial CAP and annually thereafter. The required report must indicate—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) Which assessment method(s) were used to determine if the policies, procedures, and capabilities described by the owner/operator in its COIP are effective; and
                                    <PRTPAGE P="88591"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) Results of the individual assessment methodologies.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual update of the CAP.</E>
                                     The owner/operator must review and annually update the CAP to address any changes to policies, procedures, measures, or capabilities in the COIP or assessment capabilities required by paragraph (b). The updated CAP must be submitted to TSA for approval no later than 12 months from the date of TSA's approval of the current CAP.
                                </P>
                                <P>(g) Assessments conducted under this section are vulnerability assessments as defined in § 1500.3 of this chapter and must be protected as Sensitive Security Information under § 1520.5(b)(5) of this chapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1586.231</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Documentation to establish compliance.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For the purposes of the requirements in this subpart, upon TSA's request, the owner/operator must provide for inspection or copying the following types of information to establish compliance:</P>
                                <P>(a) Hardware/software asset inventory, including supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems;</P>
                                <P>(b) Firewall rules;</P>
                                <P>(c) Network diagrams, switch and router configurations, architecture diagrams, publicly routable internet protocol addresses, and Virtual Local Area Networks;</P>
                                <P>(d) Policy, procedural, and other documents that informed the development, and documented implementation of, the owner/operator's CRM program;</P>
                                <P>(e) Data providing a “snapshot” of activity on and between Information and Operational Technology systems such as:</P>
                                <P>(1) Log files;</P>
                                <P>(2) A capture of network traffic (such as packet capture (PCAP)), for a scope and period directed by TSA, not less than 24 hours and not to exceed 48 hours;</P>
                                <P>(3) “East-West Traffic” of Information Technology systems, sites, and environments within the scope of this subpart; and</P>
                                <P>(4) “North-South Traffic” between Information and Operational Technology systems, and the perimeter boundaries between them; and</P>
                                <P>(f) Any other records or documents necessary to determine compliance with this subpart.</P>
                                <APPENDIX>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A to Part 1586—Reporting of Significant Physical Security Concerns</HD>
                                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r150">
                                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                        <BOXHD>
                                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                                            <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                                        </BOXHD>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Breach, Attempted Intrusion, and/or Interference </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Unauthorized personnel attempting to or actually entering a restricted area or secure site relating to a pipeline facility or pipeline system owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part. This includes individuals entering or attempting to enter by impersonation of authorized personnel (for example, police/security, janitor, vehicle owner/operator). Activity that could interfere with the ability of employees to perform duties to the extent that security is threatened.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Misrepresentation </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Presenting false, or misusing, insignia, documents, and/or identification, to misrepresent one's affiliation with an owner/operator subject to this part to cover possible illicit activity that may pose a risk to transportation security.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Theft, Loss, and/or Diversion</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Stealing or diverting identification media or badges, uniforms, vehicles, keys, tools capable of compromising operating systems, technology, or classified or sensitive security information documents which are proprietary to the pipeline facility or system owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Sabotage, Tampering, and/or Vandalism </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Damaging, manipulating, or defeating safety and security appliances in connection with a pipeline facility, infrastructure, or systems resulting in the compromised use or the temporary or permanent loss of use of the pipeline facility, infrastructure, or system.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Expressed or Implied Threat</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Communicating a spoken or written threat to damage or compromise a pipeline facility/infrastructure/system owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part (for example, a bomb threat or active shooter).</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Eliciting Information </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Questioning that may pose a risk to transportation or national security, such as asking one or more employees of an owner/operator subject to this part about particular facets of a facility's or system's purpose, operations, or security procedures.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Testing or Probing of Security</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Deliberate interactions with employees of an owner/operator subject to this part or challenges to pipeline facilities or systems owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part that reveal physical, personnel, or security capabilities or sensitive information.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Photography </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Taking photographs or video of pipeline facilities, systems, or infrastructure owned, operated, or used by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include taking photographs or video of infrequently used access points, personnel performing security functions (for example, patrols, badge/vehicle checking), or security-related equipment (for example, perimeter fencing, security cameras).</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Observation or Surveillance</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Demonstrating unusual interest in pipeline facilities or systems or loitering near facilities or systems or other potentially critical infrastructure owned or operated by an owner/operator subject to this part in a manner that may pose a risk to transportation or national security. Examples include observation through binoculars, taking notes, or attempting to measure distances.</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Materials Acquisition and/or Storage </ENT>
                                            <ENT>Acquisition and/or storage by an employee of an owner/operator subject to this part of materials such as cell phones, pagers, fuel, chemicals, toxic materials, and/or timers that may pose a risk to transportation or national security (for example, storage of chemicals not needed by an employee for the performance of his or her job duties).</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <ENT I="01">Weapons Discovery, Discharge, or Seizure</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Weapons or explosives in or around a pipeline facility, system, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that may present a risk to transportation or national security (for example, discovery of weapons inconsistent with the type or quantity traditionally used by company security personnel).</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                        <ROW>
                                            <PRTPAGE P="88592"/>
                                            <ENT I="01">Suspicious Items or Activity</ENT>
                                            <ENT>Discovery or observation of suspicious items, activity or behavior in or around a pipeline facility, system, or infrastructure of an owner/operator subject to this part that results in the disruption or termination of operations (for example, halting operations while law enforcement personnel investigate a suspicious item, bag, package, etc.).</ENT>
                                        </ROW>
                                    </GPOTABLE>
                                    <SIG>
                                        <DATED>Dated: October 20, 2024.</DATED>
                                        <NAME>David P. Pekoske, </NAME>
                                        <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                                    </SIG>
                                </APPENDIX>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </PART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-24704 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-05-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>216</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, November 7, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="88593"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Commodity Futures Trading Commission</AGENCY>
            <CFR>17 CFR Parts 37, 38, and 40</CFR>
            <TITLE>Provisions Common to Registered Entities; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88594"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMODITY FUTURES TRADING COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>17 CFR Parts 37, 38, and 40</CFR>
                    <RIN>RIN 3038-AF28</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Provisions Common to Registered Entities</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Commodity Futures Trading Commission.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission”) is adopting amendments to the Commission's regulations under the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA” or “Act”) that govern how registered entities submit self-certifications, and requests for approval, of their rules, rule amendments, and new products for trading and clearing, as well as the Commission's review and processing of such submissions. The amendments are intended to clarify, simplify and enhance the utility of those regulations for registered entities, market participants and the Commission.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>The effective date for this final rule is December 9, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Rachel Kaplan, Senior Special Counsel, 
                            <E T="03">rkaplan@cftc.gov,</E>
                             202-418-6233, Steven Benton, Industry Economist, 
                            <E T="03">sbenton@cftc.gov,</E>
                             202-418-5617, and Nancy Markowitz, Deputy Director, 
                            <E T="03">nmarkowitz@cftc.gov,</E>
                             202-418-5453, Division of Market Oversight, and Eileen Chotiner, Senior Compliance Analyst, 
                            <E T="03">echotiner@cftc.gov,</E>
                             202-418-5467, Division of Clearing and Risk, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1151 21st Street NW, Washington, DC 20581.
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Related Matters</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Cost Benefit Considerations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Antitrust Considerations</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        Part 40 of the Commission's regulations 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         implements section 5c(c) of the CEA and sets forth provisions that are common to registered entities, including designated contract markets (“DCMs”), derivatives clearing organizations (“DCOs”), swap execution facilities (“SEFs”) and swap data repositories (“SDRs”).
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Part 40 establishes requirements and procedures for registered entities to submit their rules and products to the Commission prior to implementing rules, listing products for trading, or accepting products for clearing. Part 40 generally provides two means for registered entities to submit products, rules, and rule amendments (which include product amendments) to the Commission. Typically, a registered entity elects to use the self-certification process through which the registered entity certifies that the product, rule or rule amendment complies with the CEA and the Commission regulations.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Alternatively, a registered entity may seek Commission approval of the product, rule or rule amendment.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Commission regulations referred to in this release are found at 17 CFR chapter I (2024), and are accessible on the Commission's website at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/LawRegulation/CommodityExchangeAct/index.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Section 1a(40) of the CEA defines the term registered entity to include DCMs, DCOs, SEFs and SDRs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5c(c)(1), §§ 40.2 and 40.6. 
                            <E T="03">But see, e.g.,</E>
                             § 40.4 (requiring that a DCM submit for Commission approval any rule that would materially change a term or condition of a contract for future delivery in an agricultural commodity enumerated in CEA Section 1a(9) or of an option on such contract or commodity).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5c(c)(4), §§ 40.3 and 40.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The part 40 regulations also set forth the Commission's procedures for review (including approval or non-approval) of product and rule submissions. The part 40 regulations set forth certain information that must be made publicly available in connection with an application to become designated as a DCM, or registered as a SEF, DCO or SDR and when registered entities file new products, new rules and rule amendments.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, the regulations include special certification provisions for certain rules submitted by systemically important DCOs (“SIDCOs”).
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.8. Regulation § 40.8 is not the subject of this rulemaking. Regulations 40.11 and 40.12 (which relate to the Commission's review of certain event contracts and the staying of certification and tolling of review period pending jurisdictional determination, respectively) are also not the subject of this rulemaking. A private citizen suggested changes to §§ 40.11 and 40.12. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Ravnitzky at 2-3. The Commission cannot consider herein changes to §§ 40.11 and 40.12 as §§ 40.11 and 40.12 are not the subject of this rulemaking and no changes were proposed to §§ 40.11 or 40.12 in the NPRM for notice and public comment.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        With two exceptions, the Commission last amended the part 40 regulations in 2011,
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in connection with implementing various amendments made to the CEA by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”). In September 2023, based on the Commission's experience applying the part 40 regulations over the ensuing years, the Commission issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (the “NPRM”) in which it proposed amendments to the part 40 regulations.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission proposed the amendments to the part 40 regulations in the NPRM to clarify, simplify and enhance the utility of the part 40 regulations for registered entities, market participants and the Commission.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             Provisions Common to Registered Entities, 76 FR 44776 (July 27, 2011) (the “2011 Final Rule”). In 2021, the Commission made targeted, conforming amendments to § 40.1(j)(1)(vii) and (j)(2)(vii) (the portion of the definition of “terms and conditions” that relates to position limits) to conform this text to reflect the position limits amendments adopted by the Commission at that time. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Position Limits for Derivatives, 86 FR 3236 (January 14, 2021). Additionally, in 2015, the Commission removed from § 40.8 and appendix D to part 40 all references to electronic trading facilities on which significant price discovery contracts are traded or executed to reflect the fact that the Dodd-Frank Act eliminated these facilities from the CEA. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Repeal of the Exempt Commercial Market and Exempt Board of Trade Exemptions, 80 FR 59575 (October 2, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             Provisions Common to Registered Entities, 88 FR 61432 (September 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             As discussed below in note 19, the Commission is also making two conforming, non-substantive changes to update the citations referencing the § 40.1 definition of emergency mentioned in appendix B to part 37 and appendix B to part 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The comment period for the NPRM ended on November 6, 2023.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the NPRM, the Commission received nine comment letters that expressed a wide range of views on the proposed revisions to part 40. The letters collectively represented eight DCMs; 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         two SEFs; 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         one SDR; 
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         seven DCOs; 
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         one non-profit; 
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         two trade 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88595"/>
                        associations; 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         one private citizen; 
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and one venture capital firm.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             The comment file for responses to the NPRM is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://comments.cftc.gov/PublicComments/CommentList.aspx?id=7430.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             Cboe Global Markets, Inc. (“Cboe”) commented on behalf of its two DCMs—Cboe Futures Exchange, LLC and Cboe Digital Exchange, LLC. CME Group Inc. (“CME Group”) commented on behalf of its four DCMs—Chicago Mercantile Exchange Inc. (“CME”), Board of Trade of the City of Chicago, Inc., New York Mercantile Exchange, Inc. and Commodity Exchange, Inc. (collectively, the “CME Group Exchanges”). The Intercontinental Exchange Inc. (“ICE”) commented on behalf of its DCM—ICE Futures U.S. LMX Labs, LLC, which does business as Coinbase Derivatives (“Coinbase”) commented as a DCM.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             Cboe commented on behalf of its SEF—Cboe SEF, LLC. ICE commented on behalf of its SEF—Ice Swap Trade.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             ICE commented on behalf of its SDR—Ice Trade Vault.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Cboe commented on behalf of its DCO—Cboe Clear Digital, LLC. CME Group commented on behalf of CME in its capacity as a DCO (also known as “CME Clearing”). Eurex Clearing AG (“Eurex”) commented as a DCO. ICE commented on behalf of its four DCOs—ICE Clear Credit, ICE Clear U.S., ICE Clear Europe, and ICE NGX.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             Better Markets.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             The Futures Industry Association (“FIA”) and the International Swap Derivatives Association (“ISDA”) submitted a joint letter.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             Mr. Michael Ravnitzky.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             Andreessen Horowitz (“a16z”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is making revisions and additions to §§ 40.1 through 40.7, 40.10 and appendices D and E to part 40 to clarify, simplify and enhance the utility of the part 40 regulations for registered entities, market participants and the Commission. This release will address the comments received on each of the relevant regulations and appendices below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Amendments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. § 40.1—Definitions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Formatting Change to § 40.1</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the defined terms in § 40.1 are arranged in alphabetical order, with lettered headers. The Commission is adopting the amendments proposed to remove the lettered headers from § 40.1 and to instead arrange the defined terms in § 40.1 solely in alphabetical order,
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         resulting in the Commission having to make fewer conforming changes in the future to § 40.1 and other regulations when adding or removing defined terms.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             The Commission also is making two conforming changes that are necessitated by this change to § 40.1. Specifically, the Commission is updating the references to the definition of emergency located in the guidance section regarding Emergency Authority of appendix B for each of parts 37 and 38 such that they reference § 40.1 rather than § 40.1(h). No substance is intended to be changed by these amendments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             The Office of the Federal Register prefers the solely alphabetical approach to definitions sections. 
                            <E T="03">See Document Drafting Handbook, Office of the Federal Register at</E>
                             2-27 (Revision 1.4, January 7, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Non-Substantive Amendments to the Definition of “Business Day”</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is adopting the proposed non-substantive changes to the definition of the term “business day” in § 40.1(a). Currently, the definition of the term “business day” in § 40.1(a) uses the term “business hour” and defines the term “business hour” to mean “any hour between 8:15 a.m. and 4:45 p.m.” With the exception of § 40.1(a), the term “business hour” is not used in part 40. To enhance the readability of the definition of “business day,” the Commission is deleting the definition of the term “business hour” and all references to the term “business hour” that currently appear in the definition of “business day” in § 40.1(a). As amended, the term “business day” means “the intraday period of time starting at 8:15 a.m. and ending at 4:45 p.m. Eastern Standard Time or Eastern Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect in Washington, DC, on all days except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays in Washington, DC.” 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By way of example, both prior to this amendment and as amended, the Commission must receive a § 40.2 self-certification submission before 8:15 a.m. on a business day in order for the DCM or SEF to be able to list the product starting at 8:15 a.m. on the following business day.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             The Commission is not making any substantive changes to the definition of “Business day.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.2(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Amendments to the Definitions of Dormant Entities</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is amending as proposed the definitions of the terms “dormant designated contract market,” “dormant derivatives clearing organization,” “dormant swap data repository,” and “dormant swap execution facility” in § 40.1. These amendments relate to the calculation of the duration of inactivity of a registered entity that will result in the registered entity being deemed dormant. As noted in the NPRM, the definitions in § 40.1(c) through (f) were inconsistent and, in some cases, unclear as to how the applicable time periods were to be determined. Specifically, the Commission is amending the regulations as proposed to consistently state the time periods in days—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         365 calendar days instead of 12 months, and 1,095 calendar days rather than 36 months.
                    </P>
                    <P>The amendments establish consistency of the regulatory text across the sections with respect to the calculation of the duration of inactivity and simplify the calculation of how long a registered entity has been inactive thereby reducing the potential that market participants may interpret the regulatory language differently. The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Removal of the Terms “Dormant Contract or Dormant Product” and “Dormant Rule,” and Related Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.1(b) defines the term “dormant contract or dormant product,” and § 40.1(g) defines the term “dormant rule.” If a contract or product of a DCM or SEF is dormant pursuant to §§ 40.1(b), 40.2(a) prohibits the DCM or SEF from listing the contract or product until the DCM or SEF either self certifies that the contract or product to be listed complies with the CEA and Commission regulations pursuant to § 40.2(a) or obtains Commission approval of the contract or product pursuant to § 40.3. Likewise, if a rule of a registered entity is dormant pursuant to §§ 40.1(g), 40.6(a) prohibits the registered entity from implementing the rule until the registered entity either certifies that the rule complies with the CEA and Commission regulations in accordance with § 40.6(a) or obtains Commission approval of the rule pursuant to § 40.5.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission proposed to remove the terms “dormant contract or dormant product” and “dormant rule” from § 40.1, and the requirements relating to dormant products and dormant rules from §§ 40.2 and 40.6.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission noted in the NPRM that at the time the Commission adopted the dormant contract definition and the applicable requirements, contract markets were generally required to obtain Commission approval of any new products prior to listing the products.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also noted that the CEA no longer requires approval of each contract or product listed by an exchange.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rather, a DCM or SEF may list a product after self-certifying that the product to be listed complies with the CEA and Commission regulations in accordance with § 40.2. Given this flexibility, DCMs and SEFs typically use the self-certification process in § 40.6(a) to delist a contract that does not have any open interest before the contract could be considered dormant. Monitoring the dormancy status of products is an inefficient and unnecessary use of Commission resources.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             This release uses “dormant contract” and “dormant product” interchangeably.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             NPRM at 61433.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             Section 113 of the Commodity Futures Modernization Act of 2000 [Appendix E of Pub. L. 106-554, 114 Stat. 2763] added Section 5c(c) to the CEA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission received comments from Cboe and CME Group in support of the proposal to remove the dormant product definition. Cboe and CME Group commented that the removal of the dormant product definition would result in little, if any, market integrity or safety concerns as the DCM or SEF listing the product has a continuing obligation to ensure that the product complies with the CEA and applicable Commission regulations.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe and CME Group also noted that removing the dormant product definition would have the benefit of reducing, or potentially reducing, compliance costs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88596"/>
                        for market participants and oversight costs for the Commission.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe further commented in support of removing the dormant rule definition and noted that such removal will not result in any reduction in market integrity or safety and will reduce compliance costs for market participants and oversight costs for the Commission.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             Cboe at 2; CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Cboe at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While the removal of the term “dormant product” will enable a contract that has not been traded for an extended period of time to remain listed, the Commission believes any new trading of the contract will likely not pose concerns regarding market integrity or safety because the DCM or SEF listing the contract has a continuing obligation to ensure that the contract complies with the CEA and Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The removal of the term “dormant rule” will enable a registered entity to implement a rule more than one year after the rule is certified by the registered entity as complying with the CEA and Commission regulations in accordance with § 40.6, or approved by the Commission in accordance with § 40.5. The Commission believes the implementation of a rule more than one year after it was certified or approved likely will not pose concerns regarding market integrity or safety because the registered entity implementing the rule has a continuing obligation to ensure that the rule complies with the CEA and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission believes that monitoring the dormancy status of rules is an inefficient and unnecessary use of Commission resources.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA sections 5(d)(1) and 5h(f)(1) and §§ 38.100(a) and 37.100(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA sections 5(d)(1) and 5h(f)(1) and §§ 38.100(a) and 37.100(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission considered all comments received and believes that deleting the definitions would result in little, if any, reduction in market integrity or safety while potentially reducing compliance costs for market participants and oversight costs for the Commission. Accordingly, the Commission is removing the definitions of “dormant contract or dormant product” and “dormant rule,” and all references to “dormant contract or dormant product” and “dormant rule” in the regulations. The Commission will retain its definitions of dormant registered entities, and the rules of a dormant DCM, dormant SEF, dormant DCO, or dormant SDR would still need to be approved in connection with the entity being reinstated as a DCM, SEF, DCO or SDR, respectively.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Also, all products of a registered entity that becomes dormant (including products previously listed for trading or offered for clearing) would still need to be approved or self-certified in order to be listed for trading by the reinstated DCM or SEF or offered for clearing by the reinstated DCO.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             §§ 38.4(a)(2), 37.4(d), and 49.8(b). Similarly, in adopting changes to § 39.4(a) in 2020, the Commission stated that “[its] issuance of an order of registration as a DCO constitutes an approval of the applicant's rules that were submitted as part of the application.” 85 FR 4852, Jan. 27, 2020.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             §§ 38.4(b), 37.4(d), 40.2, and 40.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Amendment to the Definitions of “rule” and “Terms and Conditions”</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission proposed to add “margin methodology” to the definition of “rule” in § 40.1. Prior to 2011, the definition of rule in § 40.1 included a restriction on Commission review of rules relating to margin levels, based on section 8a(7) of the CEA.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         After section 736 of the Dodd-Frank Act amended section 8a(7) of the CEA to remove the restriction on Commission review of rules relating to margin levels, the Commission removed the restriction from the definition of “rule.” Although DCOs have been submitting margin-related rule changes to the Commission since 2011, in order to address any perceived ambiguity regarding whether DCOs are required to do so, the Commission proposed to revise the definition of “rule” to include an explicit reference to margin methodology.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             As noted in the NPRM, prior to the enactment of the CFMA in 2000, section 5a(a)(12)(A) of the CEA required that all changes to contract terms and conditions be submitted to the Commission for approval “except those rules relating to the setting of levels of margin.” The CFMA removed Section 5a(a)(12)(A) and adopted new Section 5c(c), allowing registered entities to amend their rules by self-certification. The new provision did not retain any reference to the exclusion of margin rules. However, Section 8a(7) of the CEA was not amended by the CFMA except to replace “contract market” with “registered entity”, and retained the provision that allowed the Commission to alter or supplement the rules of a DCO, except for rules related to “the setting of levels of margin,” thereby creating uncertainty as to whether registered entities could adopt or change margin rules without certifying those rules to the Commission. Because there was no indication that Congress intended to alter the status of rules relating to the setting of margin levels, the Commission had resolved this ambiguity by excluding the setting of margin levels, with limited exceptions, from the definition of “rule” in § 40.1(h), as in effect prior to the July 2011 amendments to part 40. Section 8a(7)(D) of the CEA, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act, provides that the Commission is authorized to alter or supplement rules of a DCO, including rules with respect to margin requirements, provided that the rules: (i) are limited to protecting the financial integrity of the [DCO]; (ii) are designed for risk management purposes to protect the financial integrity of transactions; and (iii) do not set specific margin amounts. The Commission eliminated the exclusion of the setting of margin levels from the definition of “rule” in its 2011 Final Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        ISDA and FIA supported the inclusion of “margin methodology” in the definition of “rule,” and noted the change would provide further clarity to DCOs with respect to submission of proposed changes relating specifically to margin methodology.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CME Group also supported the addition, noting that its margin methodologies are filed as rules and it would be prudent to apply this practice uniformly across all DCOs.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ICE opposed the addition. ICE argued a margin methodology is not the same as a margin-related rule and the reference to “margin methodology” could broaden the scope of the definition of “rule” and place additional reporting burdens on DCOs to submit documents that are not “rules.” 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ICE stated that the Commission has not established a proper basis for requiring such documents to be filed.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             ICE at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             ICE at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is adopting as proposed the amendment to add “margin methodology” to the definition of “rule.” The addition of “margin methodology” is not an expansion of the definition of “rule,” but a clarification that a margin methodology, which establishes a DCO's policies and procedures for the setting of margin levels, is a “stated policy” of the DCO, and a “stated policy” is already included in the definition of “rule.” The fact that DCOs have been submitting such margin-related rules, including margin methodologies, since 2011 demonstrates that the interpretation of the definition to include margin methodology was understood by registered DCOs generally.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission proposed to amend the definition “terms and conditions” by removing the following two items from the scope of the definition such that the items to be removed will no longer be treated as terms and conditions, and adding the items to the categories of rules that may be implemented without certification pursuant to the notification processes in § 40.6(d). With respect to a contract for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap), the Commission proposed to remove “payment or collection of commodity option premiums or margins” from § 40.1(j)(1)(xi)). With respect to a swap, the Commission proposed to remove 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88597"/>
                        “payment or collection of option premiums or margins” from § 40.1(j)(2)(xi)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CME Group supported the proposed amendment to § 40.1(j)(1)(xi) and the corresponding change to § 40.6(d)(2).
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CME Group commented that this pair of changes will lower the burden on registered entities while still providing sufficient notice to the Commission.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission received no comments objecting to the proposed deletions from § 40.1 or to the corresponding additions to § 40.6(d)(2).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is adopting these changes as proposed. The Commission continues to believe that registered entities should be able to submit rules or rule amendments governing the payment or collection of these premiums or margins through weekly notices to the Commission pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2) as this will lower the burden for registered entities and still provide sufficient notice to the Commission given the fact that these rules and rule amendments are general in substance.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             The Commission notes that these rules and rule amendments do not include details regarding the models used to calculate the premiums or margins.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. § 40.2—Listing Products for Trading by Certification</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments to the Cover Sheet Requirement and the Filing Format and Manner Requirements in §§ 40.2(a)(3)(i), 40.3(a)(2), 40.5(a)(2) and 40.6(a)(7)(i), and Appendix D</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed to remove the requirement to submit a cover sheet when filing a product submission or a rule submission (along with related references) from §§ 40.2(a)(3)(i), 40.3(a)(2), 40.5(a)(2) and 40.6(a)(7)(i), and appendix D to part 40. Given the development and evolution of the Commission's online portal for the filing of rule and product submissions (and the fact that the cover sheet information required by Appendix D is now entered by registered entities via the portal and processed and stored in the Commission's online systems), the cover sheet itself is now unnecessary. The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             ICE requested an alternative process to enable them to submit a single filing that would cover multiple new contracts. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             ICE at 3. The reason that each contract must be submitted through a separate filing is not a regulatory requirement, but rather a technical limitation and is thus not addressed herein. The Commission acknowledges that a private citizen suggested: (i) that more information be provided regarding the portal to ensure registered entities and market participants know how to use the portal; (ii) the Commission provide templates for registered entities and market participants to use as models for their part 40 submissions; and (iii) the Commission ensure the portal is user-friendly, reliable and secure. Ravnitzky at 1. The Commission clarifies that only registered entities (and not market participants) submit filings pursuant to Part 40 through the portal and that no changes are being made to the portal through this rulemaking. If registered entities have questions about using the portal, Commission staff remain available to answer their questions. The content required to be included in a submission is addressed in the relevant section of Part 40.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Commission is revising §§ 40.2(a)(3)(i), 40.3(a)(2), 40.5(a)(2) and 40.6(a)(7)(i), and appendix D, each as proposed, to remove the cover sheet requirement and related references. As revised, appendix D will continue to specify the information that must be entered by a registered entity as part of the filing process, and the Commission will continue to use such information as part of its processing and review of submissions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the Commission proposed to amend appendix D to require a SEF or DCM when submitting a new product to indicate whether the product to be listed is a “referenced contract” as such term is defined in § 150.1 and as is described in appendix C to part 150. By way of background, the Commission's amendments to part 150 of the Commission's regulations (position limits) that became effective on March 15, 2021 introduced the term “referenced contract” and incorporated the term “referenced contract” into the definition of “terms and conditions” in part 40.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result, before listing a new contract for trading, a DCM or SEF must determine whether a new contract to be listed is a referenced contract pursuant to part 150.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To facilitate market participants' compliance with position limits, Commission staff maintain an accessible workbook of all referenced contracts that are currently listed on DCMs and SEFs. The proposed amendment would better enable Commission staff to consider whether new contracts to be listed should be added to the workbook in a timely, efficient manner and to review such submissions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             86 FR 3236, 3307 (January 14, 2021) Position Limits for Derivatives (adding the definition of “referenced contract” to § 150.1 and incorporating the term referenced contract into §§ 40.1(j)(1)(vii) and (j)(2)(vii). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Appendix C to Part 150-Guidance Regarding the Definition of Referenced Contract. Generally, the term “referenced contract” as used for purposes of Federal position limits in part 150 and as defined in § 150.1 means either a futures contract or an option on a futures contract whose settlement price is determined by reference, directly or indirectly, to the price of one of 25 physically-settled core referenced futures contracts enumerated in § 150.2, or a swap that qualifies as an “economically equivalent swap” (as such term is defined in § 150.1) to any of the 25 physically-settled core referenced futures contracts enumerated in § 150.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             §§ 40.1(j)(1)(vii) and (j)(2)(vii), 40.2 and 40.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        CME Group stated it supports this proposed amendment, noting that CME Group Exchanges identify products as referenced contracts when submitting new products, and it would be prudent for this to be a uniform practice across all DCMs and SEFs.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission believes that the identification of new products as referenced contracts as part of the filing process will enable the Commission to more efficiently process and review submissions of new contracts that are referenced contracts. The Commission is adopting the amendment as proposed to require a SEF or DCM when submitting a new product to indicate whether the product to be listed is a “referenced contract.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, as a related matter, the Commission is amending as proposed §§ 40.2(a)(1), 40.3(a)(1), 40.5(a)(1) and 40.6(a)(1) to remove the reference to the “Secretary of” the Commission. The Commission also proposed to delegate the Commission's authority to specify the format and manner of filing under these regulations to the Directors of the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Division of Market Oversight by adding proposed § 40.7(e). CME Group supported this delegation, noting that their DCMs, DCO and SEF collectively submit hundreds of filings each calendar year and that they are confident that the division heads will endeavor to make the filing formats as uniform as possible.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         No other comments were received on the proposed changes described in this paragraph. The Commission is delegating the authority to specify the format and manner of filing under §§ 40.2(a)(1), 40.3(a)(1), 40.5(a)(1) and 40.6(a)(1) to the Directors of the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Division of Market Oversight by adopting § 40.7(e) as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(ii)</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the NPRM, both § 40.2(a)(3)(ii) and § 40.3(a)(3) describe a requirement to submit as part of a self-certification or a voluntary submission for Commission approval, respectively, the rules that set forth a contract's terms and conditions. The two provisions use similar, but slightly different, language.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Given that the two 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88598"/>
                        provisions use slightly different words, but are both intended to require that the DCM or SEF include a copy of the rules that set forth the contract's terms and conditions when submitting a self-certification or a voluntary submission for Commission approval, respectively, the Commission is amending the text of § 40.2(a)(3)(ii) as proposed to mirror the text used in § 40.3(a)(3). With this amendment, both provisions will use the same language for consistency and will avoid any potential misreading that the prior differences in language between the two provisions were intended to signify a difference in substance. The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.2(a)(3)(ii) requires the self-certification to include “a copy of the product's rules including all rules related to its terms and conditions.” Regulation § 40.3(a)(3) says substantively the same thing, but using different words (requiring the voluntary submission for 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            Commission approval of a product to include “a copy of the rules that set forth the contract's terms and conditions”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(v)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 5c(c)(1) of the Act and § 40.2(a)(2)(iv) require a DCM or SEF that elects to list a new contract or other instrument for trading through the self-certification process to provide to the Commission a written certification that the new contract or instrument complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder prior to listing the product for trading. Regulation § 40.2(a)(3)(v) requires the DCM or SEF to submit a concise explanation and analysis of the product and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Regulation § 40.2(a)(3)(v) further requires that the concise explanation and analysis must (1) be accompanied by supporting documentation, or (2) incorporate the information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources. Additionally, § 40.2(a)(2)(vi) requires the DCM or SEF to certify that it posted on its website a notice of the pending product certification and a copy of the product submission.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             When reviewing a DCM's product self-certification submitted pursuant to § 40.2, Commission staff typically look to understand how the product complies with §§ 38.200 and 38.201 in connection with DCM Core Principle 3; §§ 38.250 through 38.258 in connection with DCM Core Principle 4; § 38.300 and 301, §§ 150.2 and 150.5 in connection with DCM Core Principle 5; §§ 38.400 and 38.401 in connection with DCM Core Principle 7; and §§ 38.450 and 451 in connection with DCM Core Principle 8. Generally, a DCM will address the majority of these core principle obligations and Commission regulations (such as the DCM's rules that establish surveillance, compliance and enforcement practices and procedures that apply to the trading and activity on all of the DCM's products as required by §§ 38.250 and 38.251) by concisely referencing rules that the DCM already has implemented that will apply to the trading of the new product. For core principle obligations and Commission regulations that require compliance that is tailored to reflect the product's characteristics and its underlying commodity, Commission staff typically look at how a product complies with §§ 38.200 and 38.201 in connection with DCM Core Principle 3; § 38.252 (for physical-delivery contracts) or § 38.253 (for cash-settled contracts) in connection with DCM Core Principle 4; and §§ 38.300, 38.301, 150.2 and 150.5 (position limits and accountability) in connection with DCM Core Principle 5. To the extent a product's characteristics require additional tailored compliance (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             protections of markets and market participants from abusive practices in compliance with DCM Core Principle 12 and §§ 38.650 and 38.651, and adopting price limits or trading halts to limit periods of extreme price volatility in the contract in compliance with DCM Core Principle 4 and § 38.255), Commission staff will look to understand how the product will comply in light of the product's unique characteristics. When reviewing a SEF's product self-certification submitted pursuant to 40.2, Commission staff typically look to understand how the product complies with §§ 37.300 and 37.301 in connection with SEF Core Principle 3; §§ 37.400 through 37.408 in connection with SEF Core Principle 4; §§ 37.600, 37.601, 150.2 and 150.5 in connection with SEF Core Principle 6; and §§ 37.900 and 37.901 in connection with SEF Core Principle 9. Generally, a SEF will address the majority of these core principle obligations and Commission regulations (such as the SEF's rules that establish surveillance, compliance and enforcement practices and procedures that apply to the trading and activity on all of the SEF's products as required by §§ 37.400 and 37.401) by concisely referencing rules that the SEF already has implemented that will apply to the trading of the new product. For core principle obligations and Commission regulations that require compliance that is tailored to reflect the product's characteristics and its underlying commodity, Commission staff typically look at how a product complies with § 38.300 and 38.301 in connection with SEF Core Principle 3, 37.402 (for physical-delivery swaps) or 37.403 (for cash-settled swaps) in connection to SEF Core Principle 4, §§ 37.600 and 37.601, 150.2 and 150.5 (position limits and accountability) in connection with SEF Core Principle 6. To the extent a product's characteristics require additional tailored compliance (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             adopting price limits or trading halts to limit periods of extreme price volatility in the contract in compliance with SEF Core Principle 4 and § 37.405), Commission staff will look to understand how the product will comply in light of the product's unique characteristics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             As noted in § 40.2(a)(2)(vi), the DCM or SEF may redact information that it seeks to keep confidential from the documents published on its website, but must be republished consistent with any determination made pursuant to § 40.8(c)(4). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             DCM Core Principle 4 and § 38.401 that require a DCM, among other things, to have procedures, arrangements and resources for disclosing to the Commission, market participants, and the public dissemination of information pertaining to new product listings, new rules, rule amendments or other changes to previously-disclosed information on the DCM's website.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the NPRM and as further discussed below, staff has observed a trend of new product certifications that do not include sufficient information on the underlying commodity, particularly for contracts on new commodities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rare earth metals). To ensure that a DCM or SEF's certification submission includes certain basic explanation and analysis concerning the product and its compliance with the Act and Commissions regulations thereunder, including the applicable core principles, the Commission proposed the following changes to § 40.2(a)(3)(v).
                    </P>
                    <P>Specifically, the Commission proposed to amend the text to include references to the “terms and conditions” of the product and to “the underlying commodity” to reiterate the Commission's intent that § 40.2(a)(3)(v) requires an explanation and analysis of the product's underlying commodity, as well as both the product's terms and conditions, and the product's compliance with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder. The Commission also proposed to add the words “that is complete with respect to” the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder to ensure that, although the explanation be concise, it nevertheless has to analyze and explain the underlying commodity and how and why the contract's terms and conditions comply with the applicable core principles. This is not intended to expand or otherwise alter the scope of the explanation or analysis required in the current regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters supported the proposed amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(v), and some commenters objected. Specifically, ISDA and FIA supported the proposed amendments, stating that they welcome the additional requirements for registered entities to provide “complete” information regarding a new product's terms and conditions under § 40.2.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ISDA and FIA noted they have observed the emergence of new asset classes over the last decade such as cryptocurrency products supporting the evolution of digital assets or environmental and carbon products to support the green transition, and that it is critical that CFTC staff have access to all relevant information in its review of new product submissions.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Better Markets also commented in support of the proposed amendments, calling them (including the requirement to include additional details about the product's underlying commodity) a much-needed enhancement.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets stated the amendments “acknowledge a recurring issue faced by Commission staff—the absence of sufficient information in product 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88599"/>
                        submissions to fulfill the Commission's regulatory obligations.” 
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets characterized the amendments as requiring registered entities to provide “a comprehensive explanation of a new product's terms and conditions” . . . that is “exhaustive in nature, covering the product's terms and conditions and, critically, its adherence to the applicable provisions of the CEA, including the core principles and the Commission's regulations.” 
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets further stated that by “mandating comprehensive information about new products, including their underlying commodities, these amendments bolster market integrity, protect the interests of market participants, and ensure that the Commission can effectively and thoroughly evaluate compliance.” 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             Better Markets at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             Better Markets at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Better Markets at 2-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             Better Markets at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A16z requested that the Commission provide guidance on how market participants can simultaneously satisfy the requirements to be “complete” while also being “concise”.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that the word “complete” should not be included in the product certification provisions, and, if it is included, Cboe requests, at a minimum, that the Commission clarify that the standard of completeness will be applied in a sensible and reasonable manner.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that product certifications should focus on key points, as reflected by the inclusion of the word “concise” in the current and proposed regulatory language which describes the explanation and analysis that is required to be included. Cboe stated that it is important that the application of the product certification provisions focuses on requiring a concise description of what is relevant with respect to the applicable product in determining what information should be included instead of completeness for the sake of completeness which can lead to the inclusion of unneeded and irrelevant information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             A16z at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Cboe suggested the Commission can achieve the same outcome of requiring pertinent information to be included in product certification filings by using the word “of” instead of the phrase “that is complete with respect to.” Cboe stated it believes that the inclusion of the word “complete” can lead to the possibility that this standard will be applied in a prescriptive, inconsistent, and unreasonable manner (which would in turn undermine the utility of the product certification process for registered entities, market participants, and the Commission; delay the ability to implement products and rule enhancements that benefit the market; and inhibit innovation and competition). Cboe further stated the concept of completeness is inherently ambiguous and could be applied in a rigid, onerous, arbitrary, and/or subjective manner.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Coinbase opposed the proposed amendments to § 40.2(a)(3) and stated they “believe the proposed completeness standard “lacks clarity and would significantly alter the existing process for certification under Regulation § 40.2.” 
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase stated that the proposed revision is “unnecessarily burdensome in what it would require a DCM to provide to evidence compliance with the CEA and Commission regulations” and is thus “contrary to the policies embedded in CEA section 5c(c) that, prior to certification, the burden of evaluating a contract for compliance is with the DCM (not the Commission).” 
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase stated that CEA section 5c mandates that the Commission rely upon a DCM's “judgment as to the level of information and analysis to include in a product certification to explain and analyze concisely the new product, including an explanation of the terms and conditions of the contract or the spot market for the underlying commodity where they DCM considers appropriate.” 
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase further stated that the standard could “significantly expand a DCM's regulatory costs for preparing certified product filings” 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and could “cause other adverse consequences including, but not limited to, unnecessarily limiting and delaying the availability of a process for listing of derivatives contracts quickly after expending the time, effort and diligence to develop the product in the highly competitive global derivatives market.” 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase further noted that the proposed amendment “would leave little daylight between what a DCM would submit in a certified filing compared to a new product filed voluntarily for CFTC review and approval under CFTC Regulation § 40.3.” 
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Coinbase at 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             Coinbase at 8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Coinbase stated that the NPRM provides “only modest justification” and “does not cite any concerns that DCMs are abusing the certification procedure by certifying non-compliant products.” 
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase further noted that the changes are not in response to any statutory amendments, and that staff have not articulated any significant market failure or rationale that necessitates changes beyond those incorporated as a result of the 2011 amendments to part 40.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase noted it generally accepts the Commission's position that it is appropriate to impose some standard on a registered entity to explain in the filing the basis for its compliance with the CEA and CFTC regulations, but Coinbase believes the Commission should not move away from the standards adopted in 2011.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             Coinbase at 7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             Coinbase at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6. Coinbase also stated that “[a]s required by statute, the Commission should continue to rely upon a DCM's judgment as to the level of information and analysis to include in a product certification to explain and analyze concisely the new product, including an explanation of the terms and conditions of the contract or the spot market for the underlying commodity where the DCM considers appropriate.” For a discussion of the difference between what must be submitted under §§ 40.2(a)(3)(v) and 40.3(a)(4), see the discussion below in section II.C.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission has considered the comments received in response to the proposed amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(v). In response to the comment that the statute mandates that the Commission rely upon a DCM's “judgment as to the level of information and analysis to include in a product certification to explain and analyze concisely the new product,” 
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission notes that while a DCM has reasonable discretion in establishing the manner in which the DCM complies with § 40.2(a)(3)(v),
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the DCM is nonetheless required to provide the information, explanation and analysis required by § 40.2(a)(3)(v) when self-certifying a product pursuant to § 40.2. For those DCMs and SEFs that submit written certifications that satisfy the current standards when filing § 40.2 submissions, the changes being made to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) should not expand their regulatory costs for preparing certified product filings.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             Coinbase at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5(d)(1)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Relatedly, and in response to the request for additional justification for the amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(v), the Commission is expanding upon the statement in the NPRM that staff have observed a trend of new product certifications that do not include sufficient information on the underlying commodity, particularly for contracts on new commodities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rare earth metals). The Commission has experienced numerous instances of registered entities certifying that their product complies with the Act and applicable regulations and submitting only cursory supporting analyses, evidence or documentation, which is not consistent with the current 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88600"/>
                        requirement in § 40.2(a)(3)(v).
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When the Commission requested additional information, the Commission has on numerous occasions experienced delays in receiving certain requested information, suggesting that supporting analyses had not been prepared by registered entities prior to certifying compliance.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             Coinbase's letter quoted a statement made by Commission staff in 2018 in Advisory 18-14 that “the existing self-certification process has worked well. Typically, exchanges reach out to Commission staff in advance of launching a new contract . . . [a] lengthy engagement is not unusual for products that may implicate complex issues.” Coinbase at 7. The Commission notes that while the Commission continues to believe it is helpful for both the registered entity and the Commission when exchanges reach out prior to self-certifying new products under § 40.2, it is not required by law and it does not always happen. Additionally, even when registered entities elect to engage informally with staff prior to submitting § 40.2 filings, separate and apart from such engagement, the § 40.2 filings must stand independently, provide the Commission with a concise explanation and analysis with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder, and explain to the Commission and the public how and why the new contract is in compliance. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             DCM Core Principle 4 and § 38.401 that require, among other things, that a DCM have procedures, arrangements and resources for disclosing to the Commission, market participants, and the public information pertaining to new product listings, new rules, rule amendments or other changes to previously-disclosed information on the DCM's website.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             The Commission has experienced this challenge before. In 2011, when the Commission adopted the “concise explanation and analysis” requirement that applies today, the Commission provided the following insight into why it adopted this requirement then—stating that the Commission has encountered numerous instances in which registered entities provided only cursory supporting analyses for their product submissions or, in certain cases, failed to document the evidentiary basis for their certifications altogether. The Commission also has experienced undue delays in receiving certain requested information, suggesting that supporting analyses had not been prepared by the registered entities as of the time of request. Without prompt receipt of supporting information, the staff must expend significant resources and time to replicate existing analyses or to otherwise independently establish a product's compliance with applicable law. In addition, the staff frequently has found it necessary to contact registered entities for additional guidance on product submissions. To address these problems, final § 40.2(a)(3)(v) facilitates the staff's review of new products subsequent to certification while discouraging unsupported certification of products in the first instance. 2011 Final Rule at 44780.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        By adding the word “complete” to § 40.2, the Commission is not intending to create a standard that is comparable to a new product filed voluntarily for CFTC review and approval under § 40.3. That is, when a DCM or SEF voluntarily submits a product for Commission review and approval pursuant to § 40.3, the Commission is tasked with reviewing the information submitted for the product and using that information to determine whether the product would violate the Act or the Commission's regulations.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By contrast, when a DCM or SEF elects to submit a product pursuant to § 40.2, the DCM or SEF must certify that the product complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.3(a) and (b). As noted below in section II.C.1, when a DCM, SEF or DCO is requesting that the Commission review the product for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.3, the Commission needs more information for § 40.3 submissions than for § 40.2 submissions—hence the inclusion of the word “concise” in § 40.2 and the omission of the word “concise” in § 40.3. Specifically, pursuant to § 40.3, the Commission needs to receive complete information regarding the product's terms and conditions, the commodity underlying the product, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act (including core principles) and the Commission's regulations to understand and assess whether the terms and conditions of the product comply with the Act (including core principles) and the Commission's regulations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             By contrast, for § 40.2 self-certification submissions, the DCM or SEF needs to submit concise information regarding the product and the commodity underlying the product that explains the terms and conditions of the product (as defined in § 40.1) and how the DCM or SEF views the terms and conditions of the product as compliant with the Act and the Commission's regulations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The products offered for trading by registered entities vary widely, and the applicable statutory and regulatory requirements that apply to any particular product thus also vary widely. Each registered entity should be familiar with the statutory and regulatory requirements that apply for a particular product, and therefore should be able to determine what information is reasonable and appropriate for the submission to demonstrate compliance with these requirements when preparing a § 40.2 submission.</P>
                    <P>
                        Prior to the DCM or SEF self-certifying that a product complies with the Act and Commission regulations thereunder, the DCM or SEF must complete its diligence on the product and its terms and conditions, on the underlying commodity, and on ensuring the product complies with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM or SEF must have also established proper risk management and supervisory oversight prior to listing the product for trading, such as the adoption of price limits or trading halt provisions when deemed necessary by the DCM or SEF to limit the impact of periods of extreme price volatility.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM or SEF relies upon its own diligence, risk management and supervisory oversight when it self-certifies that the product complies with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA sections 5 and 5h, and parts 37 and 38 of the Commission's regulations. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             note 47.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             When a DCM or SEF deems it necessary to adopt price limit or trading halt provisions for its new product to limit the impact of periods of extreme price volatility in the contract, Commission staff typically look for an explanation of the price limit or trading halt provisions to understand how the DCM will comply with § 38.255 in connection with DCM Core Principle 4, or how the SEF will comply with § 37.405 in connection with SEF Core Principle 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             This means that a DCM should have completed research on the underlying commodity (including delivery points if physically delivered commodity and underlying cash price series if cash settled) and how the contract complies with the core principles. All this should be completed as part of developing the contract prior to listing. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             note 47.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Currently, and as amended herein, DCMs and SEFs must provide a written certification that the product to be listed complies with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM or SEF must include a concise explanation and analysis of the underlying commodity, the terms and conditions of the contract and the compliance of the contract with applicable provisions of the Act, including applicable core principles and Commission regulations.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cursory or conclusory explanations will not suffice.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.2(a)(3)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.2(a)(3)(v). The DCM or SEF must also either include the documentation the DCM or SEF relied upon to establish its basis for compliance with applicable law, or incorporate the information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.2(a)(3)(v).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2011 Final Rule at 44780. When adopting the requirement that a DCM provide a “concise explanation and analysis” pursuant to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) to self-certify a new product, the Commission described the required “concise explanation and analysis” of the certified product—and its compliance with applicable law in the 2011 Final Rule—as “necessary for the Commission's review of a new product certification.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is thus adding the word “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) to confirm that it is essential that the DCM or SEF include a concise explanation and analysis (including the supporting information and citations or together with the accompanying documentation) that explains how and why the contract's terms and conditions comply with the applicable core principles and regulations, including how the terms and conditions reflect the cash market of the underlying commodity. This is a fact-specific endeavor that is dependent on the circumstances surrounding the contract and the underlying commodity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Given the tremendous breadth and variability of products and contracts that can be listed on CFTC regulated markets, it is not possible for the Commission to state definitively all of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88601"/>
                        the core principles and regulations that are relevant for each particular contract. However, the Commission notes that for any contract to be listed for trading on a DCM or a SEF, it is relevant for the DCM or SEF to analyze how the contract is not readily susceptible to manipulation in compliance with DCM Core Principle 3 or SEF Core Principle 3, respectively.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For any contract to be listed for trading on a DCM or a SEF, it is also relevant for the DCM or SEF to analyze how the contract complies with DCM Core Principle 5 or SEF Core Principle 6, respectively,
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which relate to the adoption by the DCM or SEF of position limits or position accountability for speculators, as is necessary and appropriate, to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or congestion (especially during trading in the delivery month) in the contract.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             CEA sections 5(d)(3) and 5h(f)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             CEA sections 5(d)(5) and 5h(f)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to comments, the Commission reiterates it does not view the amended provision as altering what is intended to be the existing standard or process of complying with § 40.2(a)(3)(v). The Commission clarifies in response to a comment received 
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that the “complete” explanation and analysis required by § 40.2(a)(3)(v) is intended to be concise and is not intended to be exhaustive in nature.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also does not believe that the requirements in the amended provision to provide evidence of compliance with the CEA and Commission regulations are unnecessarily burdensome.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Better Markets at 2-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             The Commission retains the authority in § 40.2(b) to obtain additional evidence, information or data that may be beneficial to the Commission in conducting a due diligence assessment of the filing and the registered entity's compliance with any applicable requirements of the Act or the Commission's regulations or policies thereunder.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.2 (a)(3)(v) already requires that the explanation and analysis be accompanied by the documentation relied upon to establish the basis for compliance with applicable law, or incorporate information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources. For a discussion of costs, see the Cost Benefit Considerations section below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, the Commission notes that, as proposed in the NPRM and as adopted herein, § 40.2(a)(3)(v) retains the word “concise.” In response to the request that the Commission provide guidance regarding how a DCM or SEF would satisfy the “complete” requirement while also being “concise,” the Commission notes that the explanation and analysis required under amended § 40.2(a)(3)(v) should explain and analyze the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and how the product complies with applicable law and is not necessarily required to be lengthy in order to be “complete.” Moreover, the explanation and analysis incorporates information that should already be reviewed or collected by registered entities. To the extent that registered entities may be unclear about how to apply these standards in a given submission, they are invited to engage with staff in advance of self-certifying the product.</P>
                    <P>
                        When a DCM or SEF files a product self-certification submission with the Commission pursuant to §§ 40.2, 40.2(a)(3)(vi) requires the DCM or SEF to post a copy of its § 40.2 submission on its website, including a copy of the rules that set forth the contract's terms and conditions as required by § 40.2(a)(3)(ii) as well as the concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the contract's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder as required by § 40.2(a)(3)(v).
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By including this information in the § 40.2 submission, the DCM or SEF makes the information accessible to market participants and the public. Access to the information enables market participants to make educated choices when selecting products to trade and platforms on which to trade these products.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             DCM Core Principle 7 (Availability of General Information) and implementing §§ 38.400(a) and 38.401.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Guidance on Compliance With §§ 40.2 and 40.3</HD>
                    <P>
                        In appendix C of part 38, the Commission offers general guidance that a DCM or SEF can use to demonstrate that a contract the DCM or SEF certifies or submits for voluntary Commission approval (pursuant to § 40.2(a) or § 40.3, respectively) is not readily susceptible to manipulation.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, staff has offered guidance to help DCMs and SEFs understand how DCMs and SEFs might elect to demonstrate compliance with the part 40 regulations when listing contracts on novel commodities (such as the guidance regarding digital commodities in CFTC Staff Advisory No. 18-14) for trading. Recently, the Commission proposed non-binding Commission Guidance Regarding the Listing of Voluntary Carbon Credit Derivative Contracts.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             17 CFR part 38, appendix C. Guidance set forth in appendix B to part 38 states that a DCM may use the appendix C Guidance as guidance in meeting DCM Core Principle 3 for new product listings. 17 CFR part 38, appendix B, Core Principle 3 Guidance. For a discussion of the differences between §§ 40.2(a) and 40.3, see below at section II.C.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             Commission Guidance Regarding the Listing of Voluntary Carbon Credit Derivative Contracts; Request for Comment, 88 FR 89410 (December 27, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission included two specific product examples (one in each of two common categories of contracts) regarding the explanation and analysis that should be provided—one for a physically-settled futures contract on copper and another for a cash-settled futures contract on a stock index price series.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The examples are intended to show how a DCM or SEF may use the guidance provided in appendix C to part 38 to develop the concise explanation and analysis to submit with a product self-certification filing. A16z supported the inclusion of the two examples provided in the NPRM,
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and requested the Commission add an example focused on a digital asset.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z suggested that the Commission explicitly state it will not treat the self-certification of digital assets products and rules differently from other commodities.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z stated that the NPRM appears to reject CFTC Staff Advisory 18-14 (“Advisory 18-14”) because the NPRM identifies activities that would be sufficient to meet the proposed rules for self-certification, but would not meet Advisory 18-14.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe commented that appendix C to part 38 is guidance and should continue to apply as guidance.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             NPRM at 61436.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             No other comments were received in response to the two specific product examples provided in the NPRM.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             A16z at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             A16z at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             Specifically, A16z stated that an entity complying with appendix C to part 38 would satisfy the proposed completeness standard, but Advisory 18-14 addresses more than appendix C (such as an information sharing agreement with any underlying spot markets). A16z at 2-4. A16z suggested the Commission make explicit that the Commission is not adopting 18-14. A16z at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Cboe at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to these comments, the Commission notes that part 40 and the amendments adopted in this Final Rule are designed to apply across the many different types of products that are traded on DCMs and SEFs, cleared by DCOs and reported to SDRs. A product's compliance, and demonstration of compliance, is a fact and circumstances specific analysis. Regardless of the underlying asset class of a product being listed for trading, when a DCM or SEF submits a new derivatives product via certification, the terms and conditions of the product should be designed to reflect the relevant commodity characteristics used by market 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88602"/>
                        participants transacting in the cash market for that commodity as well as cash-market practices for pricing and delivering that commodity, as applicable.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             definition of terms and conditions in § 40.1, CEA sections 5(d)(3) and 5h(f)(3). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             explanation of Core Principle 3 in appendix C to part 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Appendix C to part 38 is intended to assist registered entities in developing new products (including due diligence, compliance, and documentation thereof). The guidance is not altered by the amendments adopted in this Final Rule. The Commission agrees that Appendix C to part 38 is and remains guidance. The Commission is including below the two illustrative examples provided in the NPRM that show what information a DCM or SEF should include in the explanation and analysis portion of its self-certification for a product it intends to list for trading pursuant to § 40.2. While the Commission will not at this time provide additional examples for other asset classes generally in this Final Rule, the Commission notes that the examples provided are intended to serve as representative samples of what information an exchange should include in a self-certification. However, the Commission notes that each product is unique and may raise novel issues that require additional analysis or explanation not provided in the examples below. In this sense, digital assets will not be treated differently than the other commodities writ large, because the diversity of other commodities already requires a case by case determination of what an exchange should include in a self-certification. Staff remain available to answer any questions as DCMs and SEFs contemplate novel products and are uncertain of their compliance obligations.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             Including new examples could create a logical outgrowth problem under the Administrative Procedures Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A DCM or SEF would satisfy the first sentence of § 40.2(a)(3)(v) with respect to Core Principle 3 by concisely explaining how the concepts described in appendix C to part 38 are addressed for the contract.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Appendix C to part 38 provides guidance on the quality standards that should be defined for the underlying commodity in the contract's terms and conditions for a futures contract.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The quality standards used should reflect those used in transactions in the commodity in normal cash marketing channels and comply with those industry established standards.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             For a product a DCM or SEF elects to submit for Commission review and approval, the DCM or SEF would satisfy the first sentence of § 40.3(a)(4) with respect to Core Principle 3 by explaining how the concepts described in appendix C to part 38 are addressed for the contract. As noted above, more information is needed for a 40.3 filing in order for the Commission to make an independent assessment to decide whether to approve the product than is required to understand the compliance diligence completed by a DCM or SEF in connection with their 40.2 self-certification filing of a new product.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) for physically-settled contracts and paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) for cash-settled contracts.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To improve the understanding of the level of detail expected by the Commission, the discussion below addresses two common categories of contracts and provides two specific product examples that illustrate what would meet the standard articulated in § 40.2(a)(3)(v) of “a concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Generally, as noted above, when listing a cash settled or physically settled contract on a commodity, the contract must comply with, among any other relevant provisions, DCM Core Principles 3 and 5,
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         SEF Core Principles 3 and 6,
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and part 150. To be a complete and concise explanation and analysis of compliance with those requirements, the explanation and analysis the DCM or SEF submits describing the characteristics of the contract's underlying commodity pursuant to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) should include characteristics such as the deliverable commodity's grade, quality and deliverable supply, as applicable, as well as the other applicable contract characteristics described in appendix C to part 38. Appendix C to part 38 provides guidance on the quality standards that should be defined for the underlying commodity in the contract's terms and conditions for a physically-settled futures contract.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The quality standards used should reflect those used in transactions in the commodity in normal cash marketing channels and comply with those industry established standards.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             CEA section 5(d)(3) and (5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             CEA section 5h(f)(3) and (6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             Appendix C also provides that regardless of the type of commodity underlying the contract, the DCM or SEF's explanation and analysis should describe the cash market for the underlying commodity and how the contract's terms and conditions: reflect the cash market transactions in the underlying commodity; meet the risk management needs of prospective users; and promote price discovery of the underlying commodity. Appendix C to part 38, paragraph (a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a specific example for a physically-settled futures contract, when listing a physically settled futures contract on copper, the DCM should specify the acceptable standard of copper that is eligible for delivery on the physically-settled futures contract.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Today, an acceptable quality standard for copper in the cash market is Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathodes (full plate or cut) that conforms to the latest chemical and physical specifications adopted by the American Society for Testing and Materials for Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathodes (B115-00 or its latest revision). If a DCM lists a physically settled futures contract on Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathodes, the only quality of copper allowed for delivery at the settlement of the futures contract would be copper of the quality that meets this industry-set standard, and as a result, the price of the futures contract would reflect the price of only this kind of copper. Moreover, for a physically-settled futures contract on Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathodes, the DCM should provide its analysis of the estimated deliverable supply of the copper meeting the contract specifications located at the delivery facilities identified by the DCM for the contract, along with the DCM's explanation and analysis explaining how the estimated deliverable supply was used to set an exchange-set speculative position limit in accordance with DCM Core Principle 5 and § 150.5.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A). When listing a cash settled futures contract on copper, the DCM should specify the acceptable standard of copper that underlies the cash price series or the physically-settled futures referenced price used for cash settlement purposes. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 150.5(b)(1), part 38, § 38.201 Additional sources for compliance. Appendix C to part 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Throughout the life of the futures contract up until the time of expiration, copper located in a DCM-approved warehouse of the quality specified in the contract would be eligible to be warranted by the warehouse for delivery on the contract. The price of the physical copper (Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathode) to which the futures contract settles and the price of the physically settled futures contract on Grade 1 Electrolytic Copper Cathode should match—or converge—at the expiration date. The convergence demonstrates that the futures contract accurately reflects the cash price of the underlying commodity and compliance with DCM Core Principle 3 (that the contract is not readily susceptible to manipulation).
                        <PRTPAGE P="88603"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, when listing a cash-settled contract based on an excluded commodity, the explanation and analysis the DCM or SEF submits describing the characteristics of the contract's underlying commodity should include characteristics such as the rate, index methodology, and pricing source, as applicable, as well as other applicable characteristics described in Appendix C to part 38.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Appendix C to part 38 provides guidance on the cash settlement price calculation for a cash-settled futures contract.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Appendix C provides that the cash-settlement price series used by a DCM or SEF to settle a cash-settled contract should be reflective of the underlying cash-market of the commodity, and that price series should be publicly available, timely and reliable.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM or SEF should include this information in its explanation of how the product complies with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraphs (a) and (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             For example, when listing a cash settled futures contract on the S&amp;P 500 Index, the DCM's contract specifications should describe the index and its methodology.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Appendix C to part 38, paragraphs (a) and (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a specific product example for a cash-settled excluded commodity, when listing a cash-settled futures contract on a stock index price series, such as the S&amp;P 500 (a stock index of large capitalization stocks listed on U.S. stock exchanges), the DCM should specify how the cash settlement price based on the S&amp;P 500 Index is reflective of the underlying cash-market, and how that price series is reliable, publicly available and timely.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM should describe how the S&amp;P 500 Index price series is reflective of the underlying cash market of domestic large capitalization stocks by describing the methodology for constructing and maintaining the S&amp;P 500 Index.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM should describe how the S&amp;P 500 Index is considered by industry as an accurate and reliable index of large capitalization stocks by describing how the index is used as a benchmark for measuring the movements of the U.S. stock exchanges.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The DCM should describe how frequently the index is calculated and where it is disseminated to the marketplace to describe how the index is publicly available and timely.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, for a cash-settled futures contract on the S&amp;P 500, the DCM should provide its analysis of trading in S&amp;P 500 futures or similar index futures and explain how this analysis was used to set an exchange-set position limit or position accountability level in accordance with DCM Core Principle 5 and § 150.5.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA Sections 5(d)(3), §§ 38.200 and 201, and appendix C to part 38, paragraphs (c)(3)(iv) and (v).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5(d)(3), §§ 38.200 and 201, and appendix C to part 38, paragraph (a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5(d)(3), §§ 38.200 and 201, and appendix C to part 38, paragraph (a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA section 5(d)(3), §§ 38.200 and 201, and appendix C to part 38, paragraph (a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 150.5(b)(1), part 38, § 38.201 Additional sources for compliance. Appendix C to part 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While this rulemaking does not provide an example specifically for contracts on digital assets, the examples above for cash-settled contracts and physically-settled contracts are applicable for contracts on digital assets that are cash-settled or physically-settled, just as the examples provide guidance on contracts on agricultural, energy, metals, and financial commodities that are cash-settled or physically-settled. Appendix C to part 38 provides guidance on the relevant characteristics of the underlying commodity and contract terms and conditions that should be considered when the DCM or SEF is explaining how and why a contract is not readily susceptible to manipulation in compliance with Core Principle 3. Appendix C to part 38 also provides guidance on the estimated deliverable supply on the underlying commodity that should be considered when the DCM or SEF is explaining how and why a contract complies with DCM Core Principle 5 or SEF Core Principle 6 (Position Limits or Accountability).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Differences Between §§ 40.2 and 40.6</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the comments noted above regarding § 40.2, Better Markets commented that the NPRM “doesn't adequately address the discrepancy in the way the Commission reviews self-certified products in CFTC Regulation § 40.2 as compared to the way it reviews self-certification of rules in CFTC Regulation § 40.6.” 
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets requested a 10-business day review for products certified under § 40.2 (and noted in support of this request that the U.S Securities and Exchange Commission adopted a 10-business day period for products to be listed on security-based swap execution facilities), and to expand the stay in § 40.2(c) 
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to mirror § 40.6(c)(1) 
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and allow the Commission to postpone the certification of a product when that product introduces novel or complex issues necessitating extended analysis or is accompanied by inadequate explanation.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             Better Markets at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             Pursuant to § 40.2(c), the Commission “may stay the listing of a contract [certified pursuant to § 40.2(a)] during the pendency of Commission proceedings for filing a false certification or during the pendency of a petition to alter or amend the contract terms and conditions pursuant to Section 8a(7) of the Act.” The analogous stay language for rules is set forth in § 40.6(c)(4). Pursuant to § 40.6(c)(4), the Commission “may stay the effectiveness of an implemented rule during the pendency of Commission proceedings for filing a false certification or during the pendency of a petition to alter or amend the rule pursuant to section 8a(7) of the Act.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.6(c)(1) states in relevant part that the Commission “may stay the certification of a new rule or rule amendment submitted pursuant to [40.6(a)] . . . on the grounds that the rule or rule amendment presents novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, the rule or rule amendment is accompanied by an inadequate explanation or the rule or rule amendment is potentially inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations thereunder.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             Better Markets at 5-7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        By contrast, Coinbase stated that the Commission lacks statutory authority to reject or stay a self-certified submission for a product and suggested the proposed change to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) would create procedural confusion by incorrectly implying the Commission has this authority if it determines the registered entity did not satisfy the proposed prescriptive standard.
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase and A16z pointed to the differences in statutory text that apply to self-certified products and self-certified rules.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z urged the Commission to reconsider its “rationale and authority for more extensive product self-certifications” given the differences in statutory documentation requirements between product and rule self-certifications.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             Coinbase at 2 and 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             A16z further noted that “5c(c) has extensive provisions for the Commission to review and stay certifications of rules, but it has no similar provisions for products . . . If these statutory differences do not suggest that the CFTC lacks the authority to require extensive disclosures as part of the “written certification” of a product, at a minimum they suggest that a product self-certification should be materially more limited than a rule self-certification.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             A16z at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to those comments, the Commission notes that CEA section 5c(c)(2) and (3) provide for a 10 business day review period for rules and rule amendments that are self-certified and a process to stay the certification of a rule or rule amendment that has novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, an inadequate explanation by the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88604"/>
                        submitting registered entity, or a potential inconsistency with the CEA or Commission regulations.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By contrast, the CEA does not provide for a 10 business day review period or an analogous stay process for products that are self-certified. Consistent with these statutory differences, for self-certified products, the Commission did not propose in the NPRM, and is not adopting, either a 10-business day review period or a stay process analogous to § 40.6(c)(1).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             A private citizen stated that the NPRM does not define what constitutes a novel or complex issue, or how the Commission would determine if a submission is inconsistent with the CEA or the Commission's regulations, and suggested that the Commission better define what constitutes a novel or complex issue, and how the Commission would determine if a submission is inconsistent with the CEA or the Commission's regulations. Ravnitzky at 1-2. Given that the Commission did not propose amendments to these standards, the Commission is not positioned to address them herein.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In response to the comment suggesting that the Commission reconsider its “rationale and authority for more extensive product self-certifications given the differences in statutory documentation requirements for product self-certification versus rule self-certifications” and the comment stating that the statutory differences suggest that a product self-certification should be materially more limited than a rule self-certification, the Commission notes that it is rational that the Commission needs more documentation or information at the time a new product filing is initially submitted pursuant to § 40.2 and all the terms and conditions of the new product are established than at the time a filing is submitted to amend the terms or conditions of an existing product pursuant to § 40.6. As discussed above, the second sentence of existing § 40.2(a)(3)(v) requires that the explanation and analysis submitted to support a product self-certification “either be accompanied by the documentation relied upon to establish the basis for compliance with applicable law, or incorporate information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources.” The Commission notes it did not propose, and is not adopting, any amendments to the second sentence in § 40.2(a)(3)(v).</P>
                    <P>
                        By contrast, § 40.6(a)(7)(v) does not include this documentation requirement. In the 2011 Final Rule, the Commission stated that it elected not to adopt a documentation requirement in § 40.6(a)(7)(v) for initial rule submissions because section 5c(c) of the Act provides staff with ten business days to review new rules and rule amendments and, if necessary, authorizes staff to prevent them from becoming effective until staff receives adequate information from the submitting entity.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted therein, the Commission's staff may request additional information at any time during the applicable rule review period pursuant to existing § 40.6(a)(8). The Commission further stated that registered entities therefore should have sufficient incentives to provide adequate explanations of new submissions under § 40.6 without the provision of actual documentation.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             2011 Final Rule at 44782.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             2011 Final Rule at 44782.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. § 40.3—Voluntary Submission of New Products for Commission Review and Approval</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments to § 40.3(a)(4)</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.3(a)(4) requires that when a DCM, SEF or DCO voluntarily submits a new product for Commission review and approval prior to its listing for trading or accepting the product for clearing, the DCM, SEF or DCO must send the Commission “an explanation and analysis of the product and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.” As noted in the NPRM, staff relies primarily on the explanation and analysis provided pursuant to this requirement to analyze the compliance of a product submitted for review and approval by the Commission, including the explanation and analysis of the commodity underlying the product.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission proposed to amend § 40.3(a)(4) to clarify that the regulation requires an explanation and analysis “that is complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity and the product's compliance with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.” 
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted in the NPRM, this amendment is intended to ensure the Commission receives adequate information regarding the product and the commodity underlying the product to analyze the compliance of the product's terms and conditions with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             While the Commission is amending the regulation to include the word “complete,” the Commission notes that the `explanation and analysis' requirement in § 40.3(a)(4) does not include the qualifier that the submission be 'concise' for the same reasons discussed below in footnote 144.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        ISDA and FIA supported the additional requirements for registered entities to provide “complete” information regarding a new product's terms and conditions under § 40.3.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ISDA and FIA stated that it is critical that CFTC staff have access to all relevant information in its review of new product submissions, including for new asset classes such as cryptocurrency products supporting the evolution of digital assets or environmental and carbon products to support the green transition.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A16z suggested the final rule would benefit from a more fulsome explanation of the requirements necessary to satisfy the completeness standard under § 40.3, or alternatively, further clarification regarding what factors could make a submission incomplete under § 40.3 (and what additional activity, burden, and costs are necessary to comply with the new rule to help stakeholders understand what additional information, if any, the Commission requires).
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z requested that the Commission provide an example of how the new language in § 40.3(a)(4) applies to digital assets.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             A16z at 7. A16z referenced note 47 in the NPRM and stated that “We are left only with a statement that the Commission requires “a more detailed explanation” without any further exposition about what additional details are required.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             A16z at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to the request for a more fulsome explanation, the Commission notes by way of background that when a DCM, SEF or DCO voluntarily requests that the Commission approve a new product pursuant to CEA section 5c(c) and § 40.3, the standard of review that the Commission applies in reviewing the product is set forth in § 40.3(b). Regulation § 40.3(b) states that “[t]he Commission shall approve a new product unless the terms and conditions of the product violate the Act or the Commission's regulations.” 
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted above and in the NPRM, the amendment to § 40.3(a)(4) is intended to ensure the Commission receives adequate information regarding the product and the commodity underlying the product to analyze whether the terms and conditions of the product submitted for voluntary Commission review and approval violate the CEA or Commission regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CEA section 5c(c)(5)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Because the DCM, SEF or DCO is requesting that the Commission review the product for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.3, the Commission needs more information for § 40.3 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88605"/>
                        submissions than for § 40.2 submissions—hence the inclusion of the word “concise” in § 40.2 and the omission of the word “concise” in § 40.3. Specifically, pursuant to § 40.3, the Commission needs to receive complete information regarding the product's terms and conditions, the commodity underlying the product, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act (including core principles) and the Commission's regulations to understand and assess whether the terms and conditions of the product comply with the Act (including core principles) and the Commission's regulations.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The products offered for trading and clearing by registered entities vary widely, and the applicable statutory and regulatory requirements that apply to any particular product thus also vary widely. Each registered entity should be familiar with the statutory and regulatory requirements that apply for a particular product, and therefore should be able to determine what information is reasonable and appropriate for the submission to demonstrate compliance with these requirements.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             By contrast, as discussed above, for § 40.2 self-certification submissions, the Commission needs to receive a concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             As registered entities contemplate selecting to submit new products for voluntary Commission review and approval pursuant to § 40.3 in the future, Staff remain available to review drafts of the § 40.3 filings and to offer feedback on what, if any, additional information would be required in order for a submission to be “complete.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to the request for a digital asset example, the Commission notes it will not at this time provide guidance specifically for digital assets, but that registered entities are always welcome to reach out to staff if they have any questions regarding how the regulations apply to products they are contemplating.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Including new examples could create a logical outgrowth problem under the Administrative Procedures Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is adopting the amendments to § 40.3(a)(4) as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Amendments to § 40.3(a)(10)</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.3(a)(10) provides that when a DCM, SEF or DCO voluntarily submits a contract for Commission approval, Commission staff may request additional evidence, information or data demonstrating that the contract meets, initially or on a continuing basis, the requirements of the Act, or other requirement for designation or registration under the Act, or the Commission's regulations or policies thereunder. As noted in the NPRM, § 40.3(a)(10) required the registered entity to provide the requested information by the open of business two business days after the date Commission staff made such request, or at the conclusion of such extended period agreed to by Commission staff after timely receipt of a written request from the registered entity.</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the Commission proposed to remove the two business day deadline from § 40.3(a)(10) and replace it with “the time specified by the Commission staff” to reflect the fact that the two business day deadline is often not practical and that the amount of time a DCM, SEF or DCO needs to respond depends on the nature and scope of the requested information. The Commission received no comments on this proposed amendment and is amending § 40.3(a)(10) as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Amendments to §§ 40.3(c), 40.3(d) and 40.3(f)</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is reorganizing and amending paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 40.3, which address the Commission's review and determination (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         approval or non-approval) of products submitted for Commission approval. More specifically, to enhance the readability of § 40.3(c), the Commission is reorganizing § 40.3 as proposed so that all of the provisions that may affect the length of the review period of a product submitted for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.3 appear together in § 40.3(c).
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is reorganizing § 40.3(d) as proposed to address the Commission's determination, including: approval through the passage of the applicable review period; and non-approval.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             The Commission proposed and is adopting these changes to enhance readability and address some confusion regarding the § 40.3 process. The Commission also proposed, and is adopting, changes to reorganize § 40.5 to enhance readability and, in general, proposed, and is adopting, parallel structural changes to §§ 40.3 and 40.5 for consistency.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As noted in the NPRM, § 40.3(c) provides that all products submitted for Commission approval under § 40.3(c) shall be deemed approved by the Commission 45 days after receipt by the Commission, or at the conclusion of an extended period as provided under § 40.3(d), “unless notified otherwise within the applicable period;” provided that the conditions set forth in § 40.3(c)(1) and (2) are satisfied. The Commission is moving the notification language from the introductory paragraph of § 40.3(c) to § 40.3(d)(1). The Commission is replacing the phrase “unless notified otherwise within the applicable period” (which provides a vague reference to the notification involved) with the phrase “unless the Commission issues a notice of non-approval to the registered entity under paragraph (d)(2) of this section within the applicable review period.”</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the Commission proposed to amend the condition in § 40.3(c)(2) (which the Commission is moving to § 40.3(c)(4)) that must be met for the deemed approval to be effective. The condition in § 40.3(c)(2) requires that the submitting entity does not amend the terms or conditions of the product or supplement the request for approval, except as requested by the Commission or for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions, during that period. Any voluntary, substantive amendment by the submitting entity will be treated as a new submission under this section.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the NPRM, the Commission proposed to revise this condition such that any substantive amendment or supplementation by the submitting entity, including an amendment or supplementation requested by the Commission, would be treated as a new submission under § 40.3.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             As noted in the NPRM, one example of a substantive amendment would be changes in the delivery grade or characteristics of the underlying commodity for a physically settled contract that may affect estimated deliverable supply and thus position limits for the contract. Another example would be a change in the price reference series of a new cash-settled contract that settles to a Price Reporting Agency source (“PRA”). Most PRAs have various series on the same commodity that differ from each other depending on characteristics such as geographical location of commodity transaction or commodity quality characteristics. PRA methodologies for the same commodity can differ between PRAs. If an amendment changes a PRA as the source, the underlying methodology for the price series would need to be examined to determine if it is not readily susceptible to manipulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission received two comment letters responding to proposed § 40.3(c)(4). CME Group opposed the proposed amendment, noting that the “Commission presumably understands the basis for its requested change or changes so it should not need an additional . . . 45-day review period . . . to review the changes it has asked for.” 
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase disagreed with the review period restarting “under circumstances when [the Commission] has also determined that the DCM's original filing satisfies the requirements of Regulation § 40.3(a).” 
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             CME Group at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             Coinbase at 10. Coinbase further stated that “Presumably, Commission staff will have carefully reviewed and analyzed the original complete submission before asking the DCM to take such 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            action and this is no compelling reason why it should need a new 45-day window to complete its review of a submission with which it should already be familiar. If the new product raises novel or complex issues, the Commission has clear authority under the rule to extend the review period up to an additional 45 days . . . and to extend the review period further if the DCM agrees. Building in an arbitrary extension mechanism that could ensnare a DCM in a chain of potentially endless restarts of the clock flies in the face of the timing certainty that CEA section 5c(c)(4) is designed to provide to DCMs. The justification offered . . . does not warrant this dramatic change to Regulation § 40.3.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88606"/>
                    <P>
                        The Commission considered the comments received on the proposed amendments to § 40.3(c)(4) and is revising the amendments to § 40.3(c)(4) such that the review period will not be restarted as a result of a DCM, SEF or DCO making an amendment or supplement in response to a Commission request. Specifically, as revised and adopted, § 40.3(c)(4) will provide that “[a]ny amendment or supplementation made by the registered entity to the submission will be treated as the filing of a new submission under this section and be subject to the initial 45-day review period in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless the amendment or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is made for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions.” 
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As revised and adopted, § 40.3(c)(4) is not substantively different than current § 40.3(c)(2).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             To effectuate this change, the Commission is removing the sentence currently in § 40.3(c)(2) that states “Any voluntary, substantive amendment by the submitting entity will be treated as a new submission under this section.” This sentence is redundant and its removal makes § 40.3(c)(4) more consistent with the analogous provision for rules submitted for Commission approval (§ 40.5(c)(4)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission also proposed to amend § 40.3(d)(1) (which the Commission proposed to move to § 40.3(c)(2)) to provide that the Commission may extend the initial 45 day review period for a product approval request for up to an additional 45 days if the submission is incomplete or the requestor does not respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner. As noted in the NPRM, the Commission has the authority to extend its review of a request for rule approval under § 40.5 if the submission is incomplete or the requestor does not respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner,
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the Commission believes having the same ability to extend reviews of voluntary requests for product approval under § 40.3 will better enable the Commission to review those products. The Commission received no comments on this proposed amendment, and is adopting the amendment as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 40.5(d)(1) (which is being moved to § 40.5(c)(2)). Under both current § 40.5(d)(1) and final § 40.5(c)(2), the timely manner standard is dependent upon the facts and circumstances. The Commission proposed, and is adopting, the same timely manner standard for § 40.3(d)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is adopting § 40.3(c)(5) as proposed to extend the review period under § 40.3(c)(1) when the review period would end on a day that is not a business day to instead end on the next business day.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, the Commission is moving text from § 40.3(d)(1) to § 40.3(c)(2) and revising the text to permit an additional extension of 
                        <E T="03">up to</E>
                         45 days. By way of background, § 40.3(d)(1) provided that the Commission may extend the review period for an additional 45 days if the product raises novel or complex issues that require additional time for analysis. Under current § 40.3(c) and (d)(1), the initial 45-day review period and the 45-day extended review period could not exceed the 90 days permitted by section 5c(c)(4)(C) of the CEA,
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         absent agreement by the requestor to a further extension.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To ensure that the total review period will not extend beyond 90 days after the request is submitted under the amended regulations, the Commission is changing as proposed the extended review period from “[a]n additional 45 days” under § 40.3(d)(1) to “up to an additional 45 days” in amended § 40.3(c)(2).
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             The Commission is revising the header of § 40.3(c) from “Forty-five day review” to “Commission review” to reflect the fact that the review period may be extended beyond forty-five days due to adjustments so that the review period ends on a business day.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Section 5c(c)(4)(C) of the Act reads in pertinent part that “the Commission shall take final action on the request not later than 90 days after submission of the request, unless the person submitting the request agrees to an extension of the time limitation established under this paragraph.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             Because an extension to which a registered entity may agree under final § 40.3(c)(3) is not required to be a specified number of days, Commission staff can ensure that the extended period ends on a business day.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             For example, if the end of the initial 45-day review period would fall on a Saturday, it would be extended by § 40.3(c)(5) to Monday, the next business day, for a total of 47 days. Any additional extension under § 40.3(c)(2) could not exceed 43 days (47 + 43 = 90).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission also is making explicit in § 40.3(c)(3) as proposed that the Commission may at any time extend its review period for any period of time (including beyond the 90-day review period), provided that it does so with the written agreement of the registered entity.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.3(d)(2) provided the Commission with authority to extend the review period with the written agreement of the registered entity. The amendment in § 40.3(c)(3) is intended to ensure it is clear that the authority also applies during any extended review period.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, the Commission is redesignating § 40.3(f)(1) as § 40.3(e)(1) and making the proposed amendments to this provision. Regulation § 40.3(f)(1) provided that “[n]otification to a registered entity under paragraph (e) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a product does not prejudice the entity from subsequently submitting a revised version of the product for Commission approval or from submitting the product as initially proposed pursuant to a supplemented submission.” The Commission is amending the text by replacing the word “prejudice” with “prevent”, replacing the words “pursuant to” with “in”, adding the phrase “the revised or supplemented submission will be reviewed without prejudice” at the end, and inserting two commas to help avoid any confusion as to the effect of the non-approval. Also, the changes to the section will improve consistency with §§ 40.5(e)(1) and 40.6(c)(5)(i). The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the Commission is redesignating § 40.3(f)(2) as § 40.3(e)(2) and adopting the proposed amendments to this provision. Specifically, § 40.3(f)(2) provided that notification to a registered entity under paragraph (e) of this section of the Commission's refusal to approve a product shall be presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify under § 40.2 that the same, or substantially the same, product does not violate the Act or the Commission's regulations thereunder. The Commission is amending the text as proposed by replacing the words “refusal” with “determination not”, and replacing the words “does not violate the Act” with “complies with the Act.” The Commission believes these amendments will have the effect of increasing clarity and provide consistency with §§ 40.2(a)(3)(iv) and 40.5(f)(2) (which the Commission is renumbering as § 40.5(e)(2)). The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. § 40.4—Amendments to Terms or Conditions of Enumerated Agricultural Products</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Clarification Regarding Scope of § 40.4 and Materiality Under § 40.4</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.4(a) requires a DCM to submit rule changes that would materially change a term or condition of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in section 1a(9) of the CEA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88607"/>
                        with open interest for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5. The Commission notes that § 40.4(a) applies strictly to rules that materially change a product's economic terms and conditions, and does not apply to other rules. To ensure this requirement is clear, the Commission is adding the word “product's” to the text of § 40.4(a) to modify “term or condition” as used therein and replacing the words “should not be submitted under this section” in § 40.4(b) with the words “are not required by this section to be submitted for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5,” each as proposed. The Commission did not receive any comments responding to any of the amendments proposed to § 40.4.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        By way of background, as noted in the NPRM, when a registered entity submits a change to any terms or conditions of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in section 1a(9) of the CEA with open interest, the DCM's assessment of materiality affects whether the registered entity must submit the change for Commission approval under § 40.5 (as is required for material changes). A DCM may file a change that falls within any of the four types of discrete changes enumerated in § 40.4(b)(1) through (4) through self-certification pursuant to § 40.6(a) or notice filing pursuant to § 40.6(d), as applicable.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For any other rule that the DCM believes to be non-material, § 40.4(b)(5) sets forth a process for the DCM to implement the change through self-certification pursuant to § 40.6(a). In order for a DCM to self-certify the change, § 40.4(b)(5) requires the DCM to make a non-materiality filing and explain why it considers the rule change to be “non-material.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             Regulations 40.4(b)(1) through (4) state that the changes covered therein are not material. Thus, a DCM filing a change under § 40.4(b)(1) through (4) is not required to file a non-materiality explanation. In addition to the § 40.6(a) self-certification process and the § 40.6(d)(2) notice filing process (which the Commission is re-designating as § 40.6(d)), if applicable, a DCM may also place a non-material rule change into effect without certification or notice to the Commission if the conditions enumerated in § 40.6(d)(3) (which the Commission is re-designating as § 40.6(e)) are satisfied.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To assist a DCM in assessing and explaining whether a change to the terms and conditions of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in section 1a(9) of the CEA that has open interest is a material change (and thus must be filed under § 40.5 pursuant to § 40.4(a)) or is non-material (and thus can be implemented through the § 40.6(a) self-certification process, the § 40.6(d) notice process or the § 40.6(e) process (as applicable), all in accordance with § 40.4(b)(5)), the Commission is adding an appendix E to part 40 as proposed and including therein the criteria that the Commission generally considers as evidence that an enumerated agricultural product rule change is non-material under § 40.4(b)(5) as proposed. Specifically, appendix E to part 40 provides that a non-material change: should not affect a reasonable trader's decision to enter into, or maintain, a position; should not affect a reasonable trader's decision to make or take delivery on the contract or to exercise an option on the contract; and should not have an effect on the value of existing positions, including, but not limited to, a change affecting the price of the contract due to a change in the commodity quality characteristics of the existing contract, a change to the size of the existing contract, or a change to a cost of effecting delivery for the existing contract. The Commission did not receive any comments responding to the proposal of new appendix E to part 40.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Additional Amendments to § 40.4(b)</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is adopting the proposed amendments to § 40.4(b)(1) through (5) to enhance the readability, consistency and clarity of this regulatory text. Specifically, the Commission is clarifying that the intent of § 40.4(b) is to convey that the rules and rule amendments identified as non-material are not required to be submitted for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5. The Commission is replacing the word “changes” in each of § 40.4(b)(1) through (4) with “rules or rule amendments” so that the text of paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) use the same language as the text used in the introductory paragraph of § 40.4(b). Additionally, the Commission is replacing the word “if” in each of § 40.4(b)(1), (3) and (4) with the words “provided that they are” to clarify (and avoid confusion) that the implementation specified in the applicable paragraph (§ 40.4(b)(1), (3) and (4)) is a condition that must be satisfied in order to rely upon § 40.4(b)(1), (3) or (4), as applicable. None of these amendments is intended to alter the substance of § 40.4.</P>
                    <P>The Commission is removing the reference to “changes in no cancellation ranges” in § 40.4(b)(3) as proposed. As discussed below in section II.F.4, the Commission is amending § 40.6(d) to allow a registered entity to file rules and rule amendments governing changes in no cancellation ranges pursuant to the notification procedures of § 40.6(d). By filing rules and rule amendments governing no cancellation ranges pursuant § 40.6(d), such rules and rule amendments would be non-material pursuant to § 40.4(b)(1), making the current language “changes in no cancellation ranges” in § 40.4(b)(3) redundant and unnecessary.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, to enhance readability of § 40.4(b)(5), the Commission is moving from § 40.4(b)(5)(iii) to § 40.4(b)(5)(i) the text requiring that a rule or rule amendment filed under § 40.4(b)(5) be submitted pursuant to the procedures of § 40.6(a), and is deleting redundant text in § 40.4(b)(5)(iii). The Commission is adding text to § 40.4(b)(5)(ii) to provide that when a DCM provides an explanation as to why it considers the rule “non-material,” the DCM shall, if applicable, include a previously approved rule or rule amendment that is, in substance, the same as the subject non-material rule or rule amendment. The Commission believes the copy of the previously approved rule or rule amendment will provide market participants with context and background that will be helpful information in understanding the subject rule or rule amendment and why it is non-material.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. § 40.5—Voluntary Submission of Rules for Commission Review and Approval</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Reorganization and Clarification of § 40.5</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is reorganizing and clarifying § 40.5, which addresses the submission by registered entities of requests for Commission approval of new rules and rule amendments and the Commission's review of such rules and rule amendments. As amended, paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 40.5 remain largely unchanged, with the exception of the conforming amendments previously discussed 
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the two changes discussed below. FIA and ISDA stated that they are generally supportive of all the clarifications, enhancements and reorganizations of § 40.5.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             The amendments include the removal of references to a cover sheet, dormant rules, and submission to the Secretary of the Commission.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission proposed to clarify that § 40.5(a)(5) requires an explanation and analysis “that is complete with respect to” the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles and the Commission's regulations thereunder for the same reasons the language regarding completeness was proposed in §§ 40.2(a)(3)(v), 40.3(a)(4), and 40.6(a)(7)(v). As noted in note 47 of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88608"/>
                        NPRM, the “explanation and analysis” requirement in § 40.5(a)(5), like the “explanation and analysis” requirement in § 40.3(a)(4), does not include the qualifier that the submission be “concise.” 
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z suggested that more explanation is required regarding what additional information is needed for the explanation and analysis to be “complete” in the absence of the concise language.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A16z referenced note 47 in the NPRM and suggested further explanation is required than the statement that the Commission requires “a more detailed explanation.” 
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NPRM at 61439. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             the 2011 Final Rule at 44782 (stating “The Commission notes that the ‘explanation and analysis’ requirement in final § 40.5(a)(5) does not include the qualifier that the submission be ‘concise.’ The Commission requires registered entities to provide a more detailed explanation and analysis of rules voluntarily submitted for Commission approval under the provisions of § 40.5.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             A16z at 7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In response to the request for additional explanation, the Commission notes by way of background that pursuant to CEA section 5c(c)(5)(A) and § 40.5(b), the Commission shall approve a new rule or rule amendment of a registered entity that the registered entity submits for Commission approval pursuant to CEA section 5c(c)(4) and in accordance with § 40.5 unless the rule or rule amendment is inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations. For the Commission to review a new rule or rule amendment of a registered entity for voluntary approval pursuant to this standard, the Commission needs to understand the rule or rule amendment and the operation, purpose, and effect of the rule or rule amendment. As noted above and in the NPRM, the amendment to § 40.5(a)(5) is intended to ensure the Commission receives adequate information regarding the rule or rule amendment to analyze whether the rule or rule amendment submitted for voluntary Commission review and approval is inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations.</P>
                    <P>Because the registered entity is requesting that the Commission review the rule or rule amendment for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.5, the Commission needs more information for § 40.5 submissions than for § 40.6 submissions—hence the inclusion of the word “concise” in § 40.6 and the omission of the word “concise” in § 40.5. Specifically, pursuant to § 40.5, the Commission needs to receive an explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder, to understand and assess whether the rule is inconsistent with the CEA or the Commission's regulations. The rules and rule amendments implemented by registered entities vary widely, and the statutory and regulatory requirements that apply to any particular rule or rule amendment thus also vary widely. Each registered entity should be familiar with the statutory and regulatory requirements that apply for a particular rule or rule amendment, and therefore should be able to determine what information is reasonable and appropriate for the submission to demonstrate compliance with these requirements. The Commission is amending § 40.5(a)(5) as proposed to clarify that this regulation requires an explanation and analysis “that is complete with respect to” the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.5(a)(6) provides that the registered entity shall certify that it posted a notice on its website of the pending rule with the Commission. To clarify that the reference to the “pending rule” in § 40.5(a)(6) is intended to refer to the request of the registered entity for approval by the Commission of the new rule or rule amendment, the Commission is amending the text of § 40.5(a)(6) as proposed by replacing the words “pending rule with the Commission” with the words “a notice of its request for Commission approval of the new rule or rule amendment.” The amended language will also use language that is consistent with § 40.3(a)(9).
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         No comments were received in response to the proposed amendments to § 40.5(a)(6).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             The Commission also is eliminating the word “which” from the second sentence of § 40.5(a)(6) to improve clarity and readability.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission proposed to amend § 40.5(c) and (d), which address the Commission's review and determination (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         approval or non-approval) of new rules and rule amendments. To enhance readability, the Commission is reorganizing § 40.5 so that all of the provisions that may affect the length of the review period of a rule submitted for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.5 appear together in § 40.5(c)—with the exception of expedited approval (which is moving to § 40.5(d)(2)).
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is adding § 40.5(c)(6), as proposed, to extend the review period under § 40.5(c)(1) 
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         when the review period would end on a day that is not a business day to instead end on the next business day.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is moving the text from § 40.5(d)(1) to § 40.5(c)(2)) and revising the text to permit an additional extension of 
                        <E T="03">up to</E>
                         45 days. No comments were received in response to any of the proposed amendments to § 40.5(c) or (d).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             The Commission is making these changes to enhance readability and address some confusion regarding the § 40.5 process. Changes to § 40.5(d)(2) are discussed below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             Because an extension to which a registered entity may agree under § 40.5(c)(3) is not required to be a specified number of days, Commission staff can ensure that the extended period ends on a business day.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             The Commission is revising the header of § 40.5(c) from “Forty-five- day review” to “Commission review” to reflect the fact that, pursuant to § 40.5(c)(6), the review period may be extended beyond forty-five days due to adjustments so that the review period ends on a business day.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>By way of background, § 40.5(d)(1) (which the Commission is moving to § 40.5(c)(2)) provides that the Commission may extend the review period for an additional 45 days if the proposed rule raises novel or complex issues that require additional time for review or is of major economic significance, the submission is incomplete or the requestor does not respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner. Under § 40.5(c) and (d)(1), the initial 45-day review period and the 45-day extended review period could not exceed the 90 days permitted by section 5c(c)(4)(C) of the CEA, absent agreement to a further extension by the registered entity that requested the review. To ensure that the total review period will not extend beyond 90 days after the request is submitted under the amended regulations, the Commission is adopting the proposed change to the extended review period under § 40.5(c)(2), from “an additional 45 days” to “up to an additional 45 days.” For example, if the end of the initial 45-day review period would fall on a Saturday, and is extended by § 40.5(c)(6) to Monday, the next business day, for a total of 47 days, any additional extension under § 40.5(c)(2) could not exceed 43 days (47 + 43 = 90).</P>
                    <P>
                        The other changes the Commission is adopting to the regulatory text in § 40.5(c) are non-substantive and are not intended to alter the length of time the Commission has to review a rule submitted for Commission approval under § 40.5(a).
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of these non-
                        <PRTPAGE P="88609"/>
                        substantive amendments, the Commission is making explicit in § 40.5(c)(3) that the Commission may at any time extend its review period for any period of time, provided that it does so with the written agreement of the registered entity.
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             The Commission is adding descriptive language into § 40.5(c)(5) to provide the reader with 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            context to better understand the interaction of the provisions in §§ 40.4(b)(5) and 40.5(c)(5). The descriptive language added to § 40.5(c)(5) is consistent with current § 40.5(c)(2). For a discussion of the materiality determination under § 40.4(b)(5), see Section II.D above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.5(d)(2) provides the Commission authority to extend the review period with the written agreement of the registered entity. The amendment in § 40.5(c)(3) will ensure it is clear that the authority also applies during any extended review period.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is reorganizing § 40.5(d) to address the Commission's determination with respect to a proposed rule or rule amendment, including: approval through the passage of the applicable review period; expedited approval; and non-approval. The Commission is renumbering § 40.5(g), which addresses expedited approval of a proposed rule or rule amendment, as § 40.5(d)(2) and amending it to remove the limitations that expedited approval may be used only for “changes to” a proposed rule or a rule amendment, and the changes to the proposed rule or rule amendment may only be approved through expedited approval if they are consistent with “standards approved or established by the Commission.” The Commission is also removing the condition that “the Commission may, at any time, alter or revoke the applicability of such a notice to any particular product or rule amendment.” 
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission believes that the quoted text that these amendments will remove is not necessary or could be misconstrued in connection with the ability of the Commission to approve proposed rules and rule amendments that are consistent with the CEA and Commission regulations on an expedited basis.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is also renumbering § 40.5(f), which addresses the impact of non-approval, as § 40.5(e). No comments were received in response to any of proposed § 40.5(e).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             The Commission is unaware of ever using this condition.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             The Commission is also replacing the word “under” with “in compliance with” in § 40.5(d)(1) to clarify that consideration for approval is contingent upon complying with the requirements of § 40.5(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The text of § 40.5(f)(1), which the Commission is renumbering as § 40.5(e)(1), provides that “[n]otification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(3) of this section does not prevent the registered entity from subsequently submitting a revised version of a proposed rule or rule amendment for Commission review and approval, or from submitting the new rule or rule amendment as initially proposed in a supplemented submission; the revised submission will be reviewed without prejudice.” The revisions or supplements under current § 40.5(f)(1) and new § 40.5(e)(1) must provide a substantive basis to treat the revised rule or supplemented submission differently from the previously submitted rule. To clarify that “[n]otification to a registered entity” means a notification of non-approval by the Commission, the Commission is amending this text by adding the words “of the Commission's determination not to approve a new rule or rule amendment”. The Commission also is adding the words “or supplemented” to the text to clarify that supplemented submissions are “reviewed without prejudice.” 
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission believes this will help avoid potential confusion and make the section more consistent with final § 40.5(e)(2) (which was previously § 40.5(f)(2)).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             The Commission additionally is non-substantively amending § 40.5(f)(1) to include two new commas. The Commission believes this will improve readability and reduce the risk of confusion.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.5(f)(2), which the Commission is renumbering as § 40.5(e)(2), provides that notification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(3) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a proposed rule or rule amendment is presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify the same, or substantially the same, proposed rule or rule amendment under § 40.6(a). To clarify that certification under § 40.6(a) is referring to the certification that the rule or rule amendment complies with the CEA and the Commission's regulations, the Commission is amending the text to add “complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder” and to move “under § 40.6(a)” to earlier in the text. The Commission believes these changes will enhance clarity and improve context.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             These changes also make this language consistent with the corresponding language in §§ 40.3 and 40.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. § 40.6—Self-Certification of Rules</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments to 40.6(a)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.6(a) sets forth the submission requirements for rule certifications under CEA section 5c(c)(1). The Commission is adopting various non-substantive amendments to § 40.6(a) as proposed. The non-substantive amendments include: revising the introductory text of § 40.6(a), including the header, to better reflect the content of the regulation; moving the requirements for delisting of products that do not have any open interest from the introductory text to a new § 40.6(a)(9); and revising the header and ordering of § 40.6(a)(6) to better reflect its purposes.
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also is removing references to dormant rules, the submission cover sheet, and the Secretary of the Commission, as previously discussed, and is correcting the reference to the statutory definition of the term “commodity” in § 40.6(a)(5) from “section 1a(4) of the Act” to “section 1a(9) of the Act.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             The Commission also is amending § 40.6(a)(6)(ii) by adding the words “or may be submitted pursuant to § 40.5” to clarify that new rules or rule amendments that establish standards for responding to an emergency may be either certified pursuant to § 40.6(a) or submitted for Commission approval pursuant to § 40.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FIA and ISDA stated that they are generally supportive of all the clarifications, enhancements and reorganizations of § 40.6 regarding the Commission's review and approval of new rules and amendments submitted by DCOs.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission proposed to replace the word “of” in § 40.6(a)(7)(v) with the words “that is complete with respect to” such that this condition, as amended, reads as follows: “A concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.”</P>
                    <P>
                        As the Commission articulated in 2011, like the explanation and analysis required for new product submissions that are self-certified under § 40.2, the explanation and analysis of certified rules or rule amendments “should be a clear and informative—but not necessarily lengthy—discussion of the submission, the factors leading to the adoption of the rule or rule amendment, and the expected impact of the rule or rule amendment on the public and market participants.” 
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similar to the discussion above in section II.B.3 regarding the explanation and analysis that must accompany new contract submissions under § 40.2, the Commission has found that some new rule submissions, while being concise, have not provided adequate information to enable the Commission to complete its analysis of the compliance of the rules or rule amendments with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88610"/>
                        applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations.
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission proposed to add the words “that is complete with respect to” to § 40.6(a)(7)(v) to ensure that, although the explanation be concise, it nevertheless must address the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             2011 Final Rule at 44782-44783.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NPRM at 61440.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to the proposed amendments to § 40.6(a)(7)(v), A16z requested that the Commission provide guidance on how market participants can simultaneously satisfy the requirements to be “complete” while also being “concise”.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that the word “complete” should not be included, and if it is, Cboe requests at a minimum that the Commission clarify that the standard of completeness will be applied in a sensible and reasonable manner.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that rule certifications should focus on key points, as reflected by the inclusion of the word “concise” in the current and proposed regulatory language which describes the explanation and analysis that is required to be included.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that it is important that the application of the rule certification provisions focuses on requiring a concise description of what is relevant with respect to the applicable rule in determining what information should be included instead of completeness for the sake of completeness which can lead to the inclusion of unneeded and irrelevant information.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             A16z at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             Cboe at 2-3. Cboe suggested the Commission can achieve the same outcome of requiring pertinent information to be included in rule certification filings by using the word “of” instead of the phrase “that is complete with respect to.” Cboe stated it believes that the inclusion of the word “complete” can lead to the possibility that this standard will be applied in a prescriptive, inconsistent, and unreasonable manner (which would in turn undermine the utility of the rule certification process for registered entities, market participants, and the Commission; delay the ability to implement rule enhancements that benefit the market; and inhibit innovation and competition). Cboe further stated that the concept of completeness is inherently ambiguous and could be applied in a rigid, onerous, arbitrary, and/or subjective manner.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             Cboe at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission has considered the comments received in response to the proposed amendments to § 40.6(a)(7)(v). The Commission notes that prior to a registered entity self-certifying that a rule or rule amendment complies with the Act and Commission regulations thereunder, the registered entity must complete its diligence on the rule or rule amendment to ensure the rule or rule amendment complies with the applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The registered entity relies upon its own diligence when it self-certifies that the rule or rule amendment complies with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder. The submitted explanation and analysis is necessary for the Commission's review of a rule certification and should allow the Commission to understand the operation, purpose, and effect of the rule or rule amendment and how the registered entity views the rule or rule amendment as compliant with the Act and Commission regulations thereunder.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CEA sections 5, 5b, 5h and 21, and parts 37, 38, 39 and 49 of the Commission's regulations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In response to the request that the Commission provide guidance regarding how a registered entity would satisfy the “complete” requirement while also being “concise,” the Commission notes that as it articulated in the 2011 Final Rule, “[a] “concise explanation and analysis” should be a clear and informative—but not necessarily lengthy—description of the product or rule and its implications for compliance with applicable law.” 
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As revised to include “complete,” the Commission continues to believe that the concise explanation and analysis required under amended § 40.6(a)(7)(v) should be a clear and informative description of the rule and its compliance with applicable law and is not necessarily required to be lengthy in order to be “complete.” The registered entity must include explanation and analysis of the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder. Cursory or conclusory explanations will not suffice.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             2011 Final Rule at 44787.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is thus adding the word “complete” to § 40.6(a)(7)(v) as proposed to confirm that it is essential that the registered entity include a concise explanation and analysis of the operation, purpose, and effect of the rule or rule amendment and how and why the rule or rule amendment complies with the applicable core principles and regulations. The term “complete” is intended to denote the scope of the explanation and analysis. A complete explanation and analysis in scope will cover all core principles and the Commission's regulations thereunder that are relevant to the specific rule or rule amendment. The core principles and regulations that apply to a particular rule or rule amendment vary depending on the facts and circumstances surrounding the rule or rule amendment.</P>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the NPRM, the introductory text to § 40.6(a) includes a provision that was intended to enable a registered entity to delist, or withdraw a certification of, a product that does not have any open interest immediately upon a submission provided that the submission complied with the submission and certification requirements in § 40.6(a)(1), (2) and (7).
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because the introductory provision has not been well understood, the Commission proposed to clarify it by moving it and adding an explicit statement into the regulatory text. The Commission received no comments on these proposed changes and is adopting these changes as proposed. Specifically, new § 40.6(a)(9) explicitly states that a new rule or a rule amendment that delists, or withdraws the certification of, a product that does not have any open interest may become effective immediately upon the filing of the submission, provided that the submission is made in compliance with § 40.6(a)(1), (2) and (7).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             NPRM at 61440 (quoting the 2011 Final Rule at 44783 as stating that the Commission, in consideration of comments from both CME and OCX, has determined to amend § 40.6(a) to make rules delisting or withdrawing the certification of products effective upon submission to the Commission. The Commission agrees that such submissions should be exempt from the 10-business-day review period in order to avoid complicating the delisting of the product by providing market participants an opportunity to enter into contracts between the time period of submission and the effective date of the rule.).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Amendments to § 40.6(b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.6(b) sets forth the Commission's review period for a rule certification under § 40.6(a). The regulation provides the Commission with a 10-business day review period after which the rule is deemed certified, unless the rule is stayed by the Commission during the review period. The Commission proposed to amend § 40.6(b) to provide that any substantive amendment or supplementation of the rule submission will be deemed a new submission and restart the 10-business day review period, unless the amendment or supplementation is made for correction of typographical errors, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88611"/>
                        renumbering or other non-substantive revisions. Under proposed § 40.6(b), a substantive amendment or supplementation of a rule submission made in response to a Commission request would be deemed a new submission.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CME Group and ICE commented on proposed § 40.6(b) and stated that the review period should not be restarted for amendments requested by the Commission.
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CME Group noted that the “Commission presumably understands the basis for its requested change or changes so it should not need an additional . . . 10-day review period . . . to review the changes it has asked for.” 
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, ICE requested § 40.6(b) be amended to provide for no restarting of the review period for amendments or supplemental filings made with the consent of Commission Staff.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             CME Group at 3-4; ICE at 2-3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             CME Group at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             ICE at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission considered the comments received on the proposed amendments to § 40.6(b) and is revising the amendments to § 40.6(b) to provide that the review period will not be restarted for amendments or supplements requested by the Commission. Specifically, as revised and adopted, § 40.6(b) will provide that any amendment or supplementation made by the registered entity to the submission will be treated as the filing of a new submission under this section and be subject to the initial 10-business day review period in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless the amendment or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is made for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions. The Commission notes that it retains the authority to stay a certification of a new rule or rule amendment submitted pursuant to § 40.6(a) if, among other reasons, the certification is accompanied by an inadequate explanation, or is potentially inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations thereunder.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Amendments to § 40.6(c)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.6(c), together with sections 5c(c)(2) and (3) of the Act, set forth the Commission's procedures for staying a submission pursuant to § 40.6(a). The Commission is adding the phrase “and can be implemented” to § 40.6(c)(3) as proposed in order to make clear that upon the expiration of a stay (without Commission objection), the registered entity may opt to implement the rule at a later time.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             The Commission also is changing the reference in § 40.6(c)(3) from “proposed certification” to “certification.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is amending § 40.6 by adding a new § 40.6(c)(5) as proposed to address the effect of a Commission objection to a rule submitted pursuant to § 40.6(a). The provision is based on the similar provision in § 40.5(f) (which is being moved to § 40.5(e)). Regulation § 40.6(c)(5)(ii) as amended provides that a Commission objection to a rule certification pursuant to § 40.6(c)(3) is presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify that the same, or substantially the same, rule complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations. As adopted, § 40.6(c)(5)(i) provides that a Commission objection does not, however, prevent the registered entity from subsequently submitting a revised or supplemented version of the proposed rule or rule amendment for review and approval or for certification. The revisions or supplements under new § 40.6(c)(5)(i) must provide a substantive basis to treat the revised rule differently from the previously submitted rule. The Commission received no comments in response to the proposed changes to § 40.6(c).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Amendments to § 40.6(d)</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.6(d)(2) sets forth various categories of rules that may be implemented by a registered entity without certification, provided that the registered entity complies with the weekly notification requirements in § 40.6(d)(1). The Commission proposed to add the following new categories of rules to § 40.6(d)(2): updates to email addresses or other contact information that market participants use to submit block trades; amendments to existing trading months; with respect to a contract for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap), payment or collection of commodity options premiums or margins and changes to no cancellation ranges; and with respect to a swap, payment or collection of option premiums or margins. The Commission believes that these categories are not substantive for compliance purposes and to the extent rules are addressing these categories, such rules need not be subject to self-certification and Commission review requirements of § 40.6(a).</P>
                    <P>
                        ICE and CME Group stated that they support the amendments proposed to § 40.6(d)(2).
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that it is unclear regarding what is meant by the requirement to submit weekly notifications of rule amendments for an amendment to existing trading months in connection with proposed § 40.6(d)(2)(ix).
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe stated that “If this provision is referencing an amendment to a DCM's or SEF's rule provisions regarding its contract listing parameters, Cboe agrees that these amendments should be able to be made through a weekly notification of rule amendments.” 
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to Cboe's comment, the Commission notes that an amendment to existing trading months in connection with § 40.6(d)(2)(ix) (as proposed and as amended) includes an addition or removal of contract month listings, provided that they are within the exchange's existing listing rule.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             CME Group at 3; ICE at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             Cboe at 3-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             Cboe at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             For example, if a DCM has a quarterly listing cycle of three years for a contract (March, June, September and December), the DCM could elect to add the nearest two serial listing months on a rolling basis where an additional serial month is listed once a preceding serial month expires (
                            <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                             April and May in between March and June; then July and August in between June and September). However, the DCM could not expand the quarterly listing cycle beyond the nearest three years through § 40.6(d)(2)(ix).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As discussed above in section II.A.5, the Commission believes that registered entities should be able to submit rules or rule amendments governing the payment or collection of commodity options premiums or margins and option premiums or margins (which are currently within the definition of terms and conditions in § 40.1) through weekly notices to the Commission pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2)(xiii) as these rules or rule amendments are generally operational rather than economic in nature and this change will lower the burden for registered entities and still provide sufficient notice to the Commission. The Commission also believes that registered entities should be able to submit rules or rule amendments that change no cancellation ranges or amend existing trading months through weekly notices to the Commission pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2) as this will lower the burden for registered entities to implement such changes and still provide sufficient notice to the Commission. The Commission is adopting the amendments to § 40.6(d)(2) as proposed.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.6(d)(3) set forth various categories of rules that may be implemented without certification or notice to the Commission. The Commission is renumbering § 40.6(d)(3) as § 40.6(e) and making corresponding 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88612"/>
                        non-substantive numbering changes to the paragraphs of the regulation.
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is amending § 40.6(d)(3)(ii)(v)(E)
                        <E T="03">(1)</E>
                         (which is redesiganted as § 40.6(e)(2)(v)(A)) to add the words “per contract” so that it reads “Are less than $1.00 per contract; or” to be consistent with the corresponding provision in § 40.6(d)(2)(v)(A).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             The Commission believes the current numbering is inconsistent with the introductory text of § 40.6(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission also requested comment on whether there are other categories of rules that should be added to § 40.6(d)(2) or (3). ICE requested the Commission also amend § 40.6(d)(2) to allow a DCM to promptly implement changes to price and volatility control mechanism levels in response to prevailing market conditions through the § 40.6(d)(2) weekly notice process.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ICE specifically listed the following metrics it would like to be able to change through weekly notices to promptly address disorderly market conditions or mitigate disruptions: maximum order size, reasonability limit levels, price bands, circuit breaker trigger levels, and the duration of a market pause in periods of heightened market volatility.
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because these suggested additions have not been included in a proposal on which the public has had the opportunity to provide comment, the Commission cannot consider adopting them here, but the Commission may consider proposing them in a future rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             ICE at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Cboe requested that the Commission clarify that DCMs and SEFs may list additional contract listings for a product subsequent to the initial contract listings for that product without any rule submission to the Commission, provided that the additional contract listings are within the parameters of the contract previously established through a rule or product submission to the Commission.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe suggested the Commission effectuate this change by expanding the scope of new § 40.6(e)(2)(viii) to include the subsequent listing of trading months which are within the currently established cycle of trading months.
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because these suggested additions have not been included in a proposal on which the public has had the opportunity to provide comment, the Commission cannot consider adopting them here, but the Commission may consider proposing them in a future rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Cboe</E>
                             at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The Commission clarifies that it did not propose any substantive changes to § 40.6(d)(3)(ii)(H)—which is being redesignated as § 40.6(e)(2)(viii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Eurex Clearing recommended that the Commission expand the categories of rules covered by § 40.6(d)(3) to include rules and rule changes that are unrelated to the DCO's activities that are subject to the Commission's oversight.
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This proposed category would cover a DCO rule or rule change that: (i) applies to any product class for which it provides clearing services that is outside the scope of the DCO's order of registration with the Commission; (ii) does not affect any product class cleared within the scope of the DCO's order of registration with the Commission; and (iii) does not affect the DCO's general operations.
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because this suggested addition has not been included in a proposal on which the public has had the opportunity to provide comment, the Commission cannot consider adopting it here, but the Commission may consider proposing it in a future rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             Eurex at 2-3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. § 40.7—Delegations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments to § 40.7</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.7 sets forth delegations of the Commission's authority to take various actions under the provisions of part 40. In the NPRM, the Commission proposed to amend § 40.7 to enhance the regulation's clarity and utility and to add three new delegations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is amending the text of § 40.7(a)(5) as proposed, which delegates the Commission's authority to determine if a proposed rule is material under § 40.4(b)(5). The amendments streamline and simplify the text of the regulation by eliminating text that is not relevant to the delegation and an inconsistent reference to § 40.6(d).
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.7(a)(5) provides that if the Commission determines that a rule submitted by a DCM pursuant to § 40.4(b)(5) is not material, the rule “may be reported pursuant to the provisions of § 40.6(d).” However, § 40.4(b)(5) itself provides that if a rule is deemed not material pursuant to the regulation, it may be filed pursuant to § 40.6(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is amending § 40.7(b)(3) as proposed by adding the words “or relate to” to clarify that this delegation includes authority to approve rules or rule amendments of a registered entity that relate to, but do not establish or amend, speculative limits or position accountability provisions.
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             The delegation is not intended to and does not affect any substantive authority including, for example, the Commission's authority to bring an enforcement action based on a person's violation of a registered entity's position limit rules pursuant to CEA section 4a(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission proposed to delegate under proposed § 40.7(a)(1)(iv) and (v) the authority in proposed §§ 40.3(c)(3) and 40.5(c)(3) to extend the applicable review period set forth in §§ 40.3(c) and 40.5(c), respectively, for the period of time agreed to in writing by the registered entity. The Commission did not receive any comments on the proposed amendments to §§ 40.3(c)(3) and 40.5(c)(3). The Commission has determined not to adopt the two delegations proposed as § 40.7(a)(1)(iv) and (v) at this time.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, as discussed above, the Commission is adopting § 40.7(e) to delegate the Commission's authority to specify the format and manner of filing under these regulations to the Directors of the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Division of Market Oversight, as proposed. CME Group commented in support of this delegation, noting that their DCMs, DCO and SEF collectively submit hundreds of filings each calendar year and that they are confident that the heads of the Divisions will endeavor to make the filing formats as uniform as possible.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Given that technology is used for the Commission to receive submissions from the registered entities under these regulations and the speed at which technology evolves, the Commission believes it is useful for staff to have the ability to specify the format and manner of filings under these regulations to facilitate the regulations remaining current with technological advances that registered entities and the Commission may use in the future.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             CME Group at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. § 40.10—Special Certification Procedures for Submission of Rules by SIDCOs</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Definition of “Materiality” in § 40.10</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation § 40.10(a), which implements section 806(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act, requires a SIDCO to provide notice to the Commission not less than 60 days in advance of any proposed change to its rules, procedures, or operations that could “materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” by the SIDCO. “Materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” is further defined in § 40.10(b). The Commission proposed to revise this definition to provide greater specificity regarding the types of changes that would require advance notice under § 40.10(a), including, but not limited to, material changes to the SIDCO's default management plan or default rules or procedures under §§ 39.16 or 39.35, program of risk analysis and oversight 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88613"/>
                        required under § 39.18, or recovery and wind down plans required under § 39.39; the adoption of a new or materially revised margin methodology; the establishment of a cross-margining program or similar arrangement with another clearing organization; and material changes to its approach to the stress testing required under §§ 39.13(h)(3), 39.36(a), or 39.36(c).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FIA and ISDA supported the revised definition, noting that the non-exhaustive list provides useful guidance to SIDCOs as to when proposed changes require advance notice.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission did not receive any comments opposing the change.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission is adopting the amendment to § 40.10(b) as proposed. As the Commission noted in the NPRM, the “may include, but are not limited to” language means that the examples listed in the new definition are not exhaustive, and a proposed change that is not specifically mentioned nevertheless may be subject to advance notice if it meets the standard in § 40.10(a).</P>
                    <P>
                        FIA and ISDA also noted that the Commission should provide a public comment period under § 40.10 when a SIDCO submits a rule for Commission review that the Commission believes raises novel or complex issues.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FIA and ISDA noted this would align the § 40.10 process for SIDCOs with the self-certification process for all registered entities in § 40.6. The Commission notes that the statutory bases for these processes are different; § 40.6(c) codifies the requirement in section 5c(c)(3)(C) of the CEA for public comment when the Commission determines to stay a rule certification, while § 40.10 codifies section 806(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act, which does not provide for public comment. Further, the change that FIA and ISDA suggest would be outside the scope of this final rule. The Commission notes that even if Commission regulations do not require a public comment period, the Commission may still request public comment if the Commission determines it is appropriate, as it has done in the past.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             FIA/ISDA at 1-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             “CFTC Seeks Public Comment on Proposed Changes to Chicago Mercantile Exchange Inc. Rules Regarding Direct Funding Participants,” at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/PressRoom/PressReleases/7661-17.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. SIDCO Submission Under § 40.10 of Rules Otherwise Required To Be Submitted Under § 40.5</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is adopting as proposed new § 40.10(i), which requires that where any provision of the Commission's regulations requires a DCO to file rules for approval under § 40.5, a SIDCO would be required instead to file those rules under § 40.10, if the rules could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the SIDCO. Without this change, a requirement for DCOs to file rules pursuant to § 40.5 could be misinterpreted as relieving a SIDCO from having to file those same rules pursuant to § 40.10, or as creating a duplicative requirement for SIDCOs to submit rules under both §§ 40.5 and 40.10. The Commission did not receive any comments on this aspect of the proposal.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Technical Corrections to § 40.10</HD>
                    <P>The Commission proposed to revise the first sentence of § 40.10(a), which references “[a] registered [DCO] that has been designated by the Financial Stability Oversight Council as a systemically important [DCO],” to refer to the definition of “systemically important derivatives clearing organization” in § 39.2. The Commission also proposed to revise § 40.10(d) and (h)(3) to remove references to “the purposes of the Dodd-Frank Act” that are no longer necessary. The Commission did not receive any comments on these proposed changes. The Commission is adopting these technical amendments as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Technical Correction to Authority Section of Part 40</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is removing as proposed the reference to section 7a of the CEA, which was repealed by the Dodd-Frank Act,
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         from the authority section for part 40.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             Public Law 111-203, title VII, section 734(a), July 21, 2010, 124 Stat. 1718 (2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Related Matters</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires agencies to consider whether the rules they issue will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if so, provide a regulatory flexibility analysis with respect to such impact.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission has previously established certain definitions of “small entities” to be used by the Commission in evaluating the impact of its regulations on small entities in accordance with the RFA.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The amendments to part 40 set forth herein impact DCMs, DCOs, SEFs and SDRs. The Commission has previously determined that DCMs,
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DCOs,
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         SEFs,
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and SDRs 
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are not small entities for purposes of the RFA. Therefore, the Chairman, on behalf of the Commission, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), hereby certifies that the amended rules will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             Policy Statement and Establishment of “Small Entities” for purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 47 FR 18618 (Apr. 30, 1982).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 18618, 18619.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             New Regulatory Framework for Clearing Organizations, 66 FR 45604, 45609 (Aug. 29, 2001).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             Core Principles and Other Requirements for Swap Execution Facilities, 78 FR 33476, 33548 (June 4, 2013).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             Swap Data Repositories, 75 FR 80898, 80926 (Dec. 23, 2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) imposes certain requirements on Federal agencies, including the Commission, in connection with their conducting or sponsoring any “collection of information,” as defined by the PRA. Under the PRA, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number from the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”). The PRA is intended, in part, to minimize the paperwork burden created for individuals, businesses, and other persons as a result of the collection of information by Federal agencies, and to ensure the greatest possible benefit and utility of information created, collected, maintained, used, shared, and disseminated by or for the Federal Government. The PRA applies to all information, regardless of form or format, whenever the Federal Government is obtaining, causing to be obtained, or soliciting information, and includes required disclosure to third parties or the public, of facts or opinions, when the information collection calls for answers to identical questions posed to, or identical reporting or recordkeeping requirements imposed on, ten or more persons.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rulemaking modifies an existing collection of information previously approved by OMB, for which the Commission has received OMB control number 3038-0093, part 40, Provisions Common to Registered Entities (OMB Collection 3038-0093) (“part 40 Information Collection”).” 
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The responses to this collection are mandatory. The Commission is revising 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88614"/>
                        its total burden estimates for this clearance to reflect the final rulemaking. The part 40 Information Collection encompasses the reporting burdens associated with §§ 40.2 and 40.3 (product submissions); §§ 40.5 and 40.6 (rule submissions); and § 40.10 (SIDCO submissions).
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission received two comments on its burden analysis under the PRA in the proposal.
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These comments and the Commission's response are discussed below.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             For the previously approved estimates for OMB Collection 3038-0093, see ICR Reference No. 202312-3038-001, (conclusion date Feb. 9, 2024), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202312-3038-001.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             A16z at 7-8; Coinbase at 8. The A16z comment noted an apparent inconsistency between the CBC and PRA analyses in the NPRM, in that the PRA recognized a cost associated with the completeness requirement for product and rule submissions under part 40, but the CBC did not. As discussed in note 74 of the NPRM, the amendments clarify the Commission's expectations for the content of submissions, which some registered entities had not been meeting in their recent filings. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NPRM at 61443 n.74. Although the Commission views the amendments as clarifying filing requirements rather than new requirements, for practical PRA purposes, the amendments will increase some registered entities' reporting burden compared to their current inadequate filing practices. However, relative to the baseline of what registered entities already 
                            <E T="03">should</E>
                             be doing, the burden has not changed. The A16z comment regarding the relationship between the PRA burden estimate and the CBC cost estimate is also addressed in the CBC analysis in section III.C.4(c)(ii) and III.C.4(e)(ii) below. Because A16z did not make any specific comments about the PRA estimates, but only noted an apparent inconsistency with the CBC, the Commission has not made any changes to its PRA estimates in response to the A16z comment.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Burden Estimates</HD>
                    <P>The amendments to §§ 40.2(a)(3)(v), 40.3(a)(4), 40.5(a)(5), and 40.6(a)(7)(v) require registered entities to provide complete information.</P>
                    <P>
                        For the amendments addressing §§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.5, and 40.6, the Commission is retaining its PRA burden estimates discussed in the NPRM. As discussed in the NPRM, the Commission anticipates that these amendments are likely to modestly increase the reporting burden for registered entities, although some registered entities are already providing the information required under the final rule.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             Some registered entities have been providing the required level of detail in their part 40 filings. They will not experience an increased burden as compared to their current practices. For PRA purposes however, the Commission's burden estimates are spread across all reporting entities covered by part 40.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Commission estimates the revised information collection burdens for the part 40 Information Collection associated with the final rule as follows:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Product Submissions (§§ 40.2 and 40.3)</HD>
                    <P>Under §§ 40.2 and 40.3 as finalized, product submissions will be required include complete information. While this is not intended to expand or otherwise alter the scope of the explanation or analysis required in the current regulation, the Commission conservatively estimates some reporting entities may expend some additional time to ensure the completeness of their submissions. The number of respondents remains 70. The Commission estimates that the amendments to §§ 40.2(a)(3)(v) and 40.3(a)(4) may add an additional average 1 hour of burden (for a new total of 22 hours). As set out in the previously approved part 40 Information Collection, the Commission estimates that reporting entities are likely to submit on average an aggregate of 848 reports annually.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that the proposed revision to § 40.2 “could significantly expand a DCM's regulatory costs for preparing certified product filings.” 
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although this commenter did not expressly reference the Commission's PRA burden estimates, the Commission is addressing this comment here as part of its PRA burden analysis. As stated above in section II.B.3 above, the Commission does not anticipate that the new requirement for “complete” § 40.2 submissions will constitute a significant expansion in regulatory costs because the registered entities, through their due diligence, will have already collected the information that they will now provide in their § 40.2 filings. Additionally, the new submissions do not necessarily need to be lengthy. Thus, the Commission continues to estimate an increase of one burden hour per product filing, averaged across all filers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             Coinbase at 8, 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, the aggregate annual estimate for the reporting burden associated with product submissions (§§ 40.2 and 40.3), as amended by the final rules, is as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         70.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of reports per respondent:</E>
                         12.
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             The 3-year average of total responses for §§ 40.2 and 40.3 submissions combined was 848 responses, calculated by taking the annual total submissions received under §§ 40.2 and 40.3 combined from all entities and averaging them for the years of 2020, 2021 and 2022. The estimated number of reports per respondent is calculated as 848 responses divided by 70 respondents (848 responses/70 respondents = 12 responses per respondent).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Average number of hours per report:</E>
                         22.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             The aggregate number of hours per report for §§ 40.2 and 40.3 adds 1 hour to the existing burden estimate of 21 hours, for a total of 22.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated gross annual reporting burden (hours):</E>
                         18,480.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             The estimated gross annual reporting burden (hours) is calculated by multiplying the estimated number of respondents times the estimated number of reports per respondent times the average number of hours per report (70 respondents × 12 reports per respondent × 22 hours per report = 18,480 hours).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Rule Submissions (§§ 40.5 and 40.6)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under § 40.6 as finalized, rule submissions will be required to include complete information to enable the Commission to perform its analysis of the submissions. While this is not intended to expand or otherwise alter the scope of the explanation or analysis required in the current regulation, the Commission conservatively estimates some reporting entities may expend some additional time to ensure the completeness of their submissions. The number of respondents remains 70. Although the final rulemaking only increases reporting burden for § 40.6 submissions,
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission averages §§ 40.5 and 40.6 for PRA purposes. Based on an updated review of recent submission data from 2020-2022, the Commission estimates that respondents submit on average 1,412 reports per year. Further, the Commission estimates that each respondent will spend approximately 2.5 hours to prepare and submit the required reports. Accordingly, the aggregate annual estimate for the reporting burden is as follows:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             While the amendments require that § 40.5 submissions provide an explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment, § 40.5 submissions are very infrequent (an average of 5 per year over the past 3 years) and most submissions already provide considerable detail. Accordingly, the Commission anticipates that the requirement that such submissions be “complete” will not result in a measurable increase in filing burdens associated with § 40.5 submissions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         70.
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             The estimated number of 70 respondents includes 16 active DCMs, 23 registered SEFs, 15 registered DCOs, 5 provisionally registered SDRs, plus pending applications for those entities.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of reports per respondent:</E>
                         20.
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             As noted above, the amendment increases the burden only for § 40.6 filings (and not for § 40.5 filings). However, the Commission aggregates §§ 40.5 and 40.6 for PRA purposes. The 3-year average of total responses for §§ 40.5 and 40.6 submissions combined was 1,412 responses, calculated by taking the annual total submissions received under §§ 40.5 and 40.6 combined from all entities and averaging them for the years of 2020, 2021 and 2022. The estimated number of reports per respondent is calculated as 1,412 responses 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            divided by 70 respondents (1,412 responses/70 respondents = 20 responses per respondent).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="88615"/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Average number of hours per report:</E>
                         2.5.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             The aggregate number of hours per report for §§ 40.5 and 40.6 adds 0.5 hours to the existing burden of 2 hours per report, for a total of 2.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated gross annual reporting burden (hours):</E>
                         3,500.
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             The estimated gross annual reporting burden (hours) is calculated by multiplying the estimated number of respondents times the estimated number of reports per respondent times the average number of hours per report (70 respondents × 20 reports per respondent × 2.5 hours per report = 3,500 hours).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">SIDCO Submissions (§ 40.10)</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is retaining its existing burden estimates for SIDCO submissions under § 40.10 because the burden for SIDCO submissions is unaffected by the amendments. Section 40.10(a) requires a SIDCO to provide notice to the Commission not less than 60 days in advance of any proposed change to its rules, procedures, or operations that could “materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” by the SIDCO. The Commission is revising the definition of “materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” in § 40.10(b), but does not anticipate that this clarification will alter submission requirements for SIDCO filers, increase the burdens associated with such filings, or affect the frequency or number of such filings. Accordingly, the Commission is retaining the burden estimates adopted under § 40.10, as approved by OMB during the most recent renewal of OMB Collection 3038-0093.
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n.197. As set out in the NPRM and the PRA renewal, the estimated gross annual reporting burden for SIDCO submissions under § 40.10 is 100 hours, which is calculated by multiplying the estimated number of respondents times the estimated number of reports per respondent times the average number of hours per report (2 respondents × 1 report per respondent per year × 50 hours per report = 100 hours per year).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission believes that the other changes to reporting in the final rule will not increase the burden on the registered entities, and in some cases, may reduce reporting burden. The Commission anticipates that the following changes will not result in any increase in reporting burden:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Dormancy (§ 40.1).</E>
                         Registered entities are no longer required to make submissions to revive dormant rules or products under §§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.5, or 40.6, other than when required to do so in connection with reinstating a dormant registered entity's registration or designation. Accordingly, the change does not add any burden on registered entities, but may reduce burdens.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Margin methodology rules (§§ 40.1, 40.5, 40.6, 40.10).</E>
                         This provision adds “margin methodology” to the definition of “rule” and thus requires the corresponding rule submissions. However, registered entities already have been submitting margin-related rule changes under the current requirements. The change only clarifies existing filing requirements and does not add new reporting burdens.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Terms and conditions; weekly notification (§§ 40.1, 40.2, and 40.6(d)(2)).</E>
                         The changes to the definition of “terms and conditions” remove certain categories of information, such as payments and collections of certain margins and premiums that registered entities must submit to the Commission as part of their rule submissions under § 40.6(a). Instead, the information will be filed as rules under the less burdensome weekly notification requirements of § 40.6(d)(2). Contact information for block trades and amendments to “no cancellation ranges” will also be added to the less-burdensome weekly notification category under § 40.6(d)(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cover sheet (§§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.5, 40.6 and appendix D).</E>
                         The final rulemaking will remove the requirement for filers to submit a cover sheet. The Commission's electronic portal now collects the required information and generates a cover-sheet automatically, allowing the cover-sheet requirement to be removed and reducing burden to the registered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time period for submitting additional materials for product approvals (§ 40.3(a)(10)).</E>
                         The final rule will provide Commission staff greater flexibility to set deadlines for submission of any additional information requested by the Commission for voluntary product approval by registered entities. Currently, the regulation requires an initial two-business-day limit after the Commission requests the information. The greater staff discretion to set more flexible deadlines may reduce the need for registered entities to submit extension requests, thereby reducing their burden.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Non-materiality criteria (§ 40.4(b)(5)).</E>
                         This provision will provide guidance to registered entities about the non-materiality determination required for certain products. It will not change the submission requirements, but rather help registered entities understand Commission requirements for their submissions. The Commission anticipates that these clarifications are likely to reduce burden for reporting entities by providing more specificity about submission requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Materiality; submission of related rules (§ 40.4(b)(5)(ii)).</E>
                         The final rulemaking requires that non-materiality submissions include a copy of a previously approved rule or rule amendment that is, in substance, the same as the subject non-material rule or rule amendment that supports non-materiality. This could impose additional research, information collection, and filing burdens. However, according to Commission data, fewer than one non-materiality submission is made annually. Accordingly, the Commission anticipates that this requirement is unlikely to impose any material increase in reporting burden for covered entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Resubmission (§ 40.6(c)(5)(ii)).</E>
                         This provision describes how an objection by the Commission to a registered entity's certification of a proposed rule or rule amendment would affect any future filings by the registered entity of the proposed rule or rule amendment to which the Commission objected. Because objections are infrequent, the Commission anticipates that the burden of this provision is unlikely to result in increased burden for reporting entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Materiality standard (§ 40.10(b)).</E>
                         Under the amendments, the definition “materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” for SIDCO rule submissions will be revised to provide more useful guidance to registered entities. This change will not affect the reporting burden.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SIDCO submission under § 40.10 of rules otherwise required to be submitted under § 40.5.</E>
                         This amendment will clarify filing requirements, but will not result in a substantive change to filing obligations. The Commission also anticipates that this clarification may reduce burden by eliminating mistaken duplicate filings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">“Referenced contract” data element (Appendix D).</E>
                         Submissions for new products will include a new structured data element in the online portal indicating whether the product is a “referenced contract.” This information will be the same as the “reference contract” determination set out in § 150.1 and appendix C to part 150. Accordingly, this is a non-substantive revision that will have de minimis impact on reporting burden.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Cost Benefit Considerations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. CEA Section 15(a)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its actions before issuing regulations under the CEA.
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By its terms, section 15(a) does not require the Commission to quantify the costs and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88616"/>
                        benefits of a new rule or to determine whether the benefits of the adopted rule outweigh its costs. Rather, section 15(a) requires the Commission to “consider the costs and benefits” of a subject rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             7 U.S.C. 19(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 15(a) further specifies that the costs and benefits of the Commission's regulations shall be evaluated in light of five broad areas of market and public concern: (1) protection of market participants and the public; (2) efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of futures markets; (3) price discovery; (4) sound risk management practices; and (5) other public interest considerations. Collectively, these five factors are referred to herein as section 15(a) factors and they are addressed below. In conducting its analysis, the Commission may, in its discretion, give greater weight to any one of the five enumerated areas of concern and may determine that, notwithstanding its costs, a particular rule is necessary or appropriate to protect the public interest or to effectuate any of the provisions or to accomplish any of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                    <P>In this release, the Commission is adopting amendments that may impose costs. Some of the amendments, however, are format, organizational, and non-substantive changes, which will have no costs. The Commission has endeavored to assess the expected costs and benefits of the amendments in quantitative terms, including PRA related costs, where possible. In situations where the Commission is unable to quantify the costs and benefits, the Commission identifies and considers the costs and benefits of the applicable amendments in qualitative terms.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory and Regulatory Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        Part 40 of the Commission's regulations implements section 5c(c) of the CEA and requirements and procedures for registered entities, including DCMs, DCOs, SEFs, SDRs, and SIDCOs, to submit their rules and products to the Commission prior to implementing rules, listing products for trading, or accepting products for clearing. Part 40 generally provides two means for registered entities to submit rules and products to the Commission. There is a self-certification process and a Commission-approval process.
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             §§ 40.2 through 40.6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        With two exceptions, the Commission last amended the part 40 regulations in 2011.
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         After years of experience with registered entities following the processes set forth in the part 40 regulations, the Commission is adopting amendments to clarify, simplify, and enhance the utility of the part 40 regulations for registered entities and the Commission. Changes include amendments to: § 40.1 to simplify the determination of whether a registered entity is deemed dormant and to remove the terms “dormant rule” and “dormant contract or dormant product”; §§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.4, 40.5 and 40.6 and appendix D to part 40 to reflect the development, evolution and use of the Commission's online portal for the filing of rule and product submissions; §§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.5 and 40.6 to confirm that the registered entity must include a complete explanation and analysis when submitting its product or rule filing; add a new appendix E to part 40 to provide guidance regarding criteria the Commission considers as evidence that an enumerated agricultural product rule is non-material; §§ 40.5 and 40.6 to reorganize and enhance the regulations' utility; and § 40.7 to delegate certain authorities of the Commission to the Director of the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Director of the Division of Market Oversight. The Commission also is amending § 40.10 to provide meaningful guidance to SIDCOs regarding filing instructions for rules that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the SIDCO.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2011 Final Rule; Repeal of the Exempt Commercial Market and Exempt Board of Trade Exemptions, 80 FR 59575 (October 2, 2015); and Position Limits for Derivatives, 86 FR 3236 (January 14, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Baseline</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission identified and considered the benefits and costs of the proposed amendments relative to a baseline standard of those generated by the current statutory and regulatory framework, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the status quo. The baseline for the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits of this rulemaking is the existing statutory and regulatory framework applicable to DCMs, DCOs, SDRs, and SEFs, in 17 CFR part 40. Current part 40 provides substantive and procedural regulatory requirements for the submission of registered entities' self-certifications, and requests for approval, of new products for trading and clearing and of new rules and rule amendments. Current part 40 also establishes guidelines for the Commission's review and processing of registered entities' submissions. Current part 40 regulations explain what information must be made publicly available in relation to the application to become a DCM, DCO, SDR, or SEF, and when registered entities file submissions for new products, new rules and rule amendments. There are also special requirements for certain rules submitted by SIDCOs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission notes that this cost-benefit consideration is based on its understanding that the derivatives market regulated by the Commission functions internationally with: (1) transactions that involve U.S. entities occurring across different international jurisdictions; (2) some entities organized outside of the United States that are registered with the Commission; and (3) some entities that typically operate both within and outside the United States and that follow substantially similar business practices wherever located. Where the Commission does not specifically refer to matters of location, the discussion of costs and benefits below refers to the effects of the regulations on all relevant derivatives activity, whether based on their actual occurrence in the United States or on their connection with, or effect on U.S. commerce.
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             7 U.S.C. 2(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Amendments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Amendments to § 40.1 Regarding Dormant Registered Entities, Products, Contracts, and Rules</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is amending its regulations to simplify the calculation of how long a registered entity is inactive and when the period of inactivity results in a DCM, DCO, SDR or SEF being deemed dormant. The amendments to the definitions currently located in § 40.1(c) through (f) will conform the wording of these sections across the different types of registered entities such that any registered entity would be considered dormant if it is inactive for a period of 365 calendar days, provided that a DCM, DCO or SEF will not become dormant during the 1,095 calendar days following the entity's initial and original order of designation or registration, as applicable. The amendments replace the current regulatory text that measures time periods in months with language that measures the equivalent time in calendar days and the amendments provide for consistent, clear start and end dates for measuring inactivity in connection with dormancy status.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the Commission is removing from § 40.1 the definitions and related requirements for the following terms: “dormant contract or dormant product,” and “dormant rule,” respectively. As amended, the rules of a dormant DCM, dormant SEF, dormant DCO, or dormant SDR will still need to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88617"/>
                        be approved and the products will still need to be self-certified or approved in connection with the entity being reinstated as a DCM, SEF, DCO or SDR, respectively, but a DCM, SEF, DCO or SDR that is not dormant will no longer need to certify, or seek approval, of a particular rule or product that was already approved or certified solely due to a lack of implementation of the rule or inactivity of the particular product.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that the changes to the part 40 dormancy regulations will benefit registered entities by helping registrants interpret dormancy period requirements consistently across the relevant registration types and more readily identify when dormancy applies. Additionally, there is a cost-savings because the removal of the terms “dormant contract or dormant product,” and “dormant rule” and the associated requirements will remove the administrative and compliance burdens of tracking whether a product or rule has become dormant and the potential costs of recertifying (or obtaining approval of) a dormant contract, product, or rule.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also believes that the amendments to the dormancy regulations are beneficial because it is unlikely that the changes will present concerns regarding market integrity or safety. As explained above, a registered entity implementing a contract, product, or rule has a continuing obligation to ensure that the rule complies with the CEA and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Cboe at 2 (“Additionally, deleting the concepts of a dormant product and rule will reduce compliance costs for market participants and oversight costs for the Commission.”)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that registered entities will not incur any increased costs related to the amendments to the current dormancy regulations in part 40. Regarding the potential for a cost related to the reduction of market oversight, based on experience with dormant products and rules to date, the Commission believes that deleting the definitions will result in little, if any, cost to regulatory oversight because the Commission has observed that registrants typically manage products with no trading activity or inactive rules and the Commission is not aware of any market disruptions resulting from the inactivity of products or rules.
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Cboe at 2 (stating “In light of the benefits to be derived from eliminating the concepts of a dormant contract or product and dormant rule and that doing so will not result in any reduction in market integrity or safety, the Commission should remove these concepts from Commission regulations.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Amendments to the Definitions of Rule and Terms and Conditions in § 40.1</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is amending the definition of the term “rule” in § 40.1(i) by including “margin methodology” in the list of specific items that are considered a “rule,” thereby making explicit what is already understood by current DCOs as implicitly included in the definition and codifying the current practice of DCOs submitting margin methodologies as rules to the Commission. The Commission also is amending the definition of the term “terms and conditions” in current § 40.1(j) by removing from the list of terms that are considered “terms and conditions” payments or collections of certain premiums or margins from current § 40.1(j)(1)(xi) and (j)(2)(xi). The Commission is adding the payments or collections of such premiums or margins, as well as changes to the no cancellation ranges, to the categories of rules that may be submitted without certification in a weekly notice filing pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The § 40.6(d) process permits a registered entity to implement a rule immediately and without self-certification provided that the entity files a summary notification within a week of the rule amendment. The Commission believes that by adding margin methodology to the list of items considered a rule, the Commission is making it clear what type of information is considered a rule and codifying a current practice. The amendments to the definition of “terms and conditions” will reduce compliance burdens for registered entities for rule amendments that address payments or collections of certain premiums or margins and changes to the no cancellation ranges as these could be filed through a weekly notification pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2), which is a less burdensome, less costly process than through the current process of filing under § 40.6(a).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>The Commission believes that the amendment to the definition of “rule” to state explicitly that “margin methodology” is included in the definition will make the term consistent with the current DCO practice and understanding of implicit requirements and therefore will not place any additional cost or burden on registered entities that submit rules to the Commission under part 40.</P>
                    <P>The Commission does not expect registered entities to incur any additional costs or burdens related to the changes to the definition of “terms and conditions” because the amendments reduce the number of items of information registered entities must submit to the Commission under § 40.6(a).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Amendments to §§ 40.2 and 40.3 Regarding Instructions for Self-Certification and Approval of Products</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is amending §§ 40.2 and 40.3 to update Commission processes and filing instructions for registered entities' submission of products to the Commission. Amendments to §§ 40.2(a)(1) and 40.3(a)(1) will remove references to the Commission Secretary. To reflect the fact that registered entities now file submissions through the Commission's portal and a cover sheet is no longer necessary, changes to §§ 40.2(a)(3) and 40.3(a)(2) remove the references to a cover sheet and replace them with a requirement directing registered entities to provide the information required by appendix D to part 40.</P>
                    <P>Changes to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) specify that a registered entity's concise explanation and analysis of a product must be complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with the CEA and associated regulations. Changes to § 40.3(a)(4) state that a registered entity's explanation and analysis of a product must be complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with the CEA and associated regulations.</P>
                    <P>The amendments to § 40.3(a)(10) eliminate the two-business day deadline for registered entities to respond to Commission staff requests for additional information with respect to product approval requests under § 40.3 and grant Commission staff authority to set response deadlines.</P>
                    <P>
                        Amendments to § 40.3(c) concern the length of the review period. The amendments to § 40.3(c) will permit the Commission to extend for an additional 45 days if the submission is incomplete or if the registered entity doesn't respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner. The Commission also is amending § 40.3(c)(5) to provide that if an initial 45-day review period ends on a non-business day, such review is extended to the next business day.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88618"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes the removal of the reference to the Secretary in the regulations is beneficial because the deletion modernizes the regulation and makes it consistent with current practices and technologies. For example, submitting entities no longer send submissions to the Commission's Secretary because they upload documents to the Commission's portal. The Commission believes that the elimination of the cover sheet requirement under §§ 40.2 and 40.3 removes redundancy because the online portal requires registered entities to input the same information that is required on the coversheet. The amendments to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) should help achieve improved regulatory effectiveness of the self-certification processes by resulting in all (rather than just some) registered entities explaining how and why their products comply with the Act and Commission's regulations, thereby enabling the Commission to more effectively complete its analysis of compliance and allowing market participants to understand the products being listed for trading.
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission believes that amending § 40.3(a)(10) to eliminate the two business day deadline for responding to Commission request for additional information and granting Commission staff the authority to set a deadline based on the nature of the requested information may provide more flexibility to registered entities to respond and better enable the Commission to manage its resources and conduct more effective oversight over registered entities. The changes to § 40.3(c)(2) that the Commission may extend the initial 45-day review period for up to an additional 45 days if the submission is incomplete or if the registered entity doesn't respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner will also encourage registered entities to be precise and consult with Commission staff regarding any questions when preparing § 40.3 submissions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             In the NPRM, the Commission misplaced the following comment in the “Costs” section: “In general, the proposed amendments to §§ 40.2 and 40.3 will provide greater specificity, leaving less room for regulatory ambiguity, improve the quality of submissions, and reduce any administrative costs register entities might incur when determining what information must be submitted to the Commission for a product self-certification or product approval request.” NPRM at 61447-448. The Commission recognizes that the location of the sentence in the NPRM's “Cost” section might have caused confusion and should have been placed in the benefits discussion. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             a16z at 8 (noting that “it is not clear how this point is a cost of the Proposed Rules. . . .”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that, relative to the existing §§ 40.2 and 40.3, amending §§ 40.2 and 40.3 to expressly articulate that registered entities must provide a “complete” analysis regarding their product submissions will not measurably increase compliance costs. As mentioned above, after the Commission amended part 40 in 2011, registered entities submitted explanations and analyses when self-certifying products that were sufficient, meaning that the explanations and analyses demonstrated to the Commission that the products complied with the CEA and associated regulations. Over time, however, the Commission observed a trend of receiving new product certifications that were incomplete. Accordingly, while the Commission foresees no cognizable costs relative to the baseline, it does acknowledge that, as a practical matter, registered entities that have in the past failed to file complete analyses of their products, will likely have increased burdens related to preparing complete § 40.2 self-certification submissions moving forward.
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The amendments to § 40.3 enabling the Commission to extend the 45-day review period as a result of the submission being incomplete or the entity not responding completely to Commission questions in a timely manner may cause registered entities to incur costs related to the offering of products submitted for voluntary Commission approval if the extended review period affects product-launch dates.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             a16z suggested that the Commission reevaluate its position on the costs and benefits associated with the Commission`s instruction to registered entities to file “complete” analyses, after noting an apparent discrepancy in the NPRM between the PRA estimates and the cost-benefit discussion of the same amendments. a16z at 7-8. The Commission acknowledges tension between the NPRM's respective PRA and CBC analyses. To address this, the Commission clarifies that while the explicit addition of “completeness” to §§ 40.2 and 40.3 is not intended to expand or otherwise alter the scope of the explanation or analysis required in the current regulation—therefore not engendering additional costs relative to the baseline—as a practical matter, some reporting entities now may expend additional time to ensure their submissions' compliance. More specifically, registered entities that provided incomplete information under the current provision will likely incur modest costs of one hour per filing associated with the new amendment to ensure their submissions are “complete” pursuant to §§ 40.2 and 40.3, as also set out in the PRA section. For a discussion on PRA burden estimates, see section III.B, herein. Another commenter, Coinbase, asserts that “expanded information and analysis requirements on registered entities for certified product filings will impose significant, unnecessary regulatory costs on DCMs. It can be time consuming and costly to prepare lengthy, detailed filings. . . .” Coinbase at 8. As explained in section II.B.3. above, the Commission believes that a complete explanation is clear and informative, but not necessarily lengthy; and the information to be provided leverages due diligence conducted by the registered entity prior to certification.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Amendments to § 40.4 and Appendix E to Part 40, Regarding Terms or Conditions for Enumerated Agricultural Products</HD>
                    <P>Regulation § 40.4 requires DCMs to submit a rule or rule amendment for Commission approval if the rule or rule amendment affects a contract on an enumerated agricultural product and would materially change a term or condition of the contract for a delivery month with open interest. The Commission is adding appendix E to part 40 to provide guidance to DCMs regarding criteria that the Commission considers as evidence that an enumerated agricultural product rule change is non-material. The Commission also is amending § 40.4(b)(5)(ii) to provide that when a DCM explains why it considers a rule “non-material” pursuant to § 40.4(b)(5), the DCM will, if applicable, include a copy of a previously approved rule or rule amendment that is, in substance, the same as the non-material rule or rule amendment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The Commission believes that appendix E to part 40 will aid DCMs in determining whether a change to terms and conditions is material. Specifically, the guidance offered in appendix E should reduce uncertainties and enable DCMs to more efficiently determine whether a change is material. Additionally, by directing DCMs to include a copy of a previously approved rule or rule amendment with submissions to the Commission pursuant to § 40.4(b)(5)(ii), the Commission believes this effort will provide market participants with context and background that will help them understand the current rule or rule amendment and why it is non-material.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission anticipates appendix E to part 40 might cause DCMs to incur a one-time compliance cost related to understanding Appendix E's guidance for assessing whether a rule is material. The Commission believes that DCMs will incur costs related to researching and collecting previously approved rules or rule amendments for submissions to the Commission.
                        <PRTPAGE P="88619"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Amendments to §§ 40.5, 40.6, and 40.10 Regarding Filing Instructions for Rules</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is updating processes and outlining submission procedures for a registered entity to voluntarily submit its rules for Commission approval and for a registered entity to self-certify that its rules comply with the Act and Commission regulations. Amendments to §§ 40.5(a)(1) and 40.6(a)(1) remove references to the Commission Secretary. Amendments to §§ 40.5(a)(2) and 40.6(a)(7)(i) remove the references to the cover sheet and replace these with references to the “information required by Appendix D” to part 40.</P>
                    <P>The amendments to §§ 40.5(a)(5) and 40.6(a)(7) describe the scope of the explanation and analysis that registered entities must submit by adding that the explanation and analysis needs to also be “complete” and explain the rule or rule amendment, its operation, purpose and effect and how and why it complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder. The Commission is moving certain language from the introductory paragraph of § 40.6(a) to become § 40.6(a)(9) and to state more clearly therein that a new rule or a rule amendment that delists, or withdraws the certification of, a product that does not have any open interest may become effective immediately upon the filing of the submission, provided that the submission is made in compliance with § 40.6(a)(1), (2) and (7). In addition, the amendments in § 40.6(b)(2) provide that if a registered entity amends or supplements its initial rule submission under § 40.6(a), the Commission will treat the amendment as a new submission and restart the Commission's 10-day review period, unless the amendments or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is for non-substantive revisions.</P>
                    <P>The amendments in § 40.6(c)(5) make it clear that if the Commission stays and ultimately objects to a rule certification, the registered entity may re-submit a revised version or a supplemented submission with a substantive basis for treating the revised rule differently and that the revised or supplemented submission will be reviewed without prejudice. In addition, the objection by the Commission will be treated as presumptive evidence that the registered entity may not truthfully certify that the same proposed rule or substantially the same rule complies with CEA and the Commission's regulations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The amendments to § 40.6(d)(2) expand the categories of rules that may be implemented without a certification to include a number of new categories of rules. The new categories include rule amendments updating email addresses or contact information that market participants use to submit block trades; rules amending existing trading months; rules changing the price ranges within which a trade will not be cancelled; and rules governing the payment or collection of option premiums or margins.
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Registered entities may implement rules within these categories by notifying the Commission of the rule changes on a weekly basis pursuant to § 40.6(d)(2). The amendments to § 40.6(d)(2) align with the Commission's removal of a subset of the same categories of rules from the definition of “terms and conditions” in § 40.1.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             Regulation § 40.6(d)(2)(xi) will allow registered entities to submit rules to allow updates of email addresses and contact information that market participants use to submit block trades. Regulation § 40.6(d)(2)(xii) will allow registered entities to submit rules that make changes to no cancellation ranges on contracts for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap). Regulation § 40.6(d)(2)(xiii) will allow registered entities to submit rules that set or amend the payment or collection of commodity options premiums or margins for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap). Regulation § 40.6(d)(2)(xiii) will allow registered entities to submit rules that set or amend the payments or collections of option premiums or margins for a swap.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For SIDCOs certifying rules that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the SIDCO, the Commission is revising the definition in § 40.10(b) to specify that changes that require advance notice under § 40.10 may include, but are not limited to, material changes to the SIDCO's default management plan or default rules or procedures under § 39.16 or 39.35, program of risk analysis and oversight required under § 39.18, or recovery and wind down plans required under § 39.39; the adoption of a new or materially revised margin methodology; the establishment of a cross-margining program or similar arrangement with another clearing organization; and material changes to its approach to the stress testing required under § 39.13(h)(3), 39.36(a), or 39.36(c). Finally, the Commission is amending § 40.10 to expressly state that where any provision of the Commission's regulations requires a DCO to file rules for approval under § 40.5, a SIDCO will be required instead to file those rules under § 40.10, if the rules could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the SIDCO.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The Commission believes the removal of the reference to the Secretary modernizes the regulation and makes it consistent with current practices and technologies. Submitting entities no longer send submissions to the Secretary with a cover sheet because they instead file submissions through uploading documents to, and entering information into, the Commission's portal. The Commission also believes that the elimination of the cover sheet requirement in the text of §§ 40.5 and 40.6 removes redundancy because the online portal requires registered entities to input into the online portal the same information that is required on the cover sheet.</P>
                    <P>The Commission believes the amendments to § 40.5(a)(5) requiring complete submissions and § 40.6(a)(7) stating that a registered entity must provide a concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of a certified rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder should reinforce the need for registered entities' filings to demonstrate such compliance. The amendments to § 40.6(a)(7) should help achieve improved regulatory effectiveness of the rule self-certification processes by resulting in all (rather than just some) registered entities demonstrating how and why their rules comply with the Act and Commission's regulations, thereby enabling the Commission to more effectively complete its analysis of compliance. The amendment to § 40.6(a)(9) will benefit registered entities by providing certainty that a registered entity may immediately delist, or withdraw a certification of, a product that does not have any open interest upon making a § 40.6(a) submission.</P>
                    <P>
                        The amendments to § 40.6(b)(2) that provide that the review period of a rule restarts under circumstances that are enumerated therein should encourage registered entities to be thorough when filing their initial submissions. The amendments to § 40.6(c)(5) provide clarity regarding the impact of an objection by the Commission to a registered entity's certification of a rule or rule amendment on the grounds that the rule or rule amendment is inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations. Specifically, under the amendment, if a registered entity wishes to resubmit through self-
                        <PRTPAGE P="88620"/>
                        certification a rule or rule amendment that the Commission objected to on the grounds that the proposed rule or rule amendment is inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations, the registered entity must first substantively change or supplement the proposed rule or rule amendment to address the Commission's objection.
                    </P>
                    <P>The amendments to § 40.6(d)(2) to add new categories of rules that may be implemented through a weekly notification to the Commission will enable registered entities to more quickly implement rules that fall within these new categories as the registered entity may implement these rules immediately and file a weekly notification of any rule amendments within a week of making such amendments. The process of drafting a weekly notification is less involved than the process of submitting rules pursuant to § 40.6(a). Amendments to § 40.10(b) should aid SIDCOs in making determinations regarding the type of rules that must be submitted to the Commission under § 40.10. Addition of § 40.10(i) also should eliminate potentially duplicative regulatory filings under current § 40.5, and, as a result, SIDCOs will benefit from not having to dedicate administrative efforts two times for similar submissions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that, relative to the existing §§ 40.5(a) and 40.6(a)(7)(v), amending §§ 40.5(a) and 40.6(a)(7)(v) to expressly articulate that registered entities submit “complete” rule analysis to the Commission concerning proposed rule changes will not measurably increase compliance costs.
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As mentioned above, there are registered entities that have filed submissions and met the requirements under the rules in effect prior to these amendments. It is unlikely that these registered entities will incur costs as a result of the changes to the § 40.6 rule-filing instructions. However, some registered entities' § 40.6(a)(7) submission have been deficient, lacking a sufficient explanation of rule or rule amendment, its operation, purpose and effect or how and why it complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, while the Commission foresees no cognizable costs relative to the baseline, it does acknowledge that, as a practical matter, registered entities that previously have filed deficient § 40.6(a)(7)(v) submissions will likely incur some costs, such as reporting burdens, related to preparing the preparation of material with complete information regarding the compliance of rules or rule amendments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             As discussed in the Paperwork Reduction Act discussion above, § 40.5 submissions are infrequent, and most submitters already provide considerable detail about their submissions. Consequently, the Commission does not anticipate that the addition of the term “complete” in § 40.5 will practically impact submitters.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             As explained in the Paperwork Reduction Act discussion, above, the Commission acknowledges a tension between the NPRM's respective PRA and CBC analyses. To address this, the Commission clarifies that while the explicit addition of “completeness” to § 40.6 (as well as § 40.5) is not intended to expand or otherwise alter the scope of the explanation or analysis required in the current regulation—therefore not engendering additional costs relative to the baseline—as a practical matter some reporting entities now may expend additional time to ensure their § 40.6 submissions' compliance. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             a16z at 8 (noting that the NPRM's PRA section identified an additional burden but the CBC section did not). More specifically, as set out in the PRA analysis in section III.B above, registered entities that provided incomplete information under the current § 40.6 will likely incur modest costs of 0.5 hour per filing.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission does not believe that there are costs associated with amendments to § 40.5(d). The Commission does not believe that there are costs associated with amendments to § 40.6(b)(2) or 40.6(c)(5). The Commission believes that the changes to § 40.10 will not place additional costs or burdens on SIDCOs because they identify the types of submissions that SIDCOs must file under § 40.10 and eliminate potential duplication in regulatory filings.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Amendments to § 40.7 Regarding Delegation of Authority</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is amending § 40.7 to enhance the utility and clarity of the regulation and add one new delegation. As discussed above, the Commission is adding § 40.7(e) to delegate the Commission's authority to specify the format and manner of filing under these regulations to the Directors of the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Division of Market Oversight.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The Commission believes that delegating authority to the Divisions to specify format and manner of filing in § 40.7(e) enhances efficiency.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>The Commission expects that there will be no costs incurred by registered entities by the amendments amending the authorities delegated to Commission staff under part 40.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Amendments to Appendix D to Part 40</HD>
                    <P>
                        With the development and use of the Commission's online portal for the filing of rule and product submissions, the Commission is amending appendix D to part 40 that sets forth instructions to registered entities on what information must be submitted together with part 40 filings. The Commission also is adding a new requirement that DCMs and SEFs indicate when listing a new product whether the new product meets the definition of “referenced contract” as defined in § 150.1 and described in appendix C to part 150 that is titled “Guidance Regarding the Definition of Reference Contract.” 
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             Refer to n.40 for a discussion on Part 150.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The Commission believes that the amendments to appendix D to part 40 will provide several benefits. First, the changes describe and modernize instructions. The text is consistent with the current technological practice where registered entities upload product and rule submissions using the Commission's online portal. Second, the amendment to appendix D to part 40 will require DCMs and SEFs to indicate as part of filing the submission whether a new product to be listed meets the definition of a referenced contract, thereby alerting Commission staff when contracts that may need to be added to the Staff Workbook are being listed and enable the Commission to process and review the submission more efficiently.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs</HD>
                    <P>The Commission expects that there will be negligible, if any, costs incurred by registered entities with respect to the amendments to modernize Appendix D as registered entities are already submitting the covered rules and products using the portal. With regards to the amendment that DCMs and SEFs indicate whether a new product to be listed meets the definition of referenced contract, the Commission notes that DCMs and SEFs will incur costs to make these indications. These costs, however, will be negligible because DCMs and SEFs are already making the analytical determinations as to whether contracts are referenced contracts to meet their obligations under part 150 of the Commission's regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Section 15(a) Factors</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the discussion above, the Commission has evaluated the costs and benefits of the amendments to 17 CFR part 40 in light of the following five broad areas of market and public concern identified in section 15(a) of the CEA: protection of market participants and the public; efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of futures markets; price discovery; 
                        <PRTPAGE P="88621"/>
                        sound risk management practices; and other public interest considerations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Protection of market participants and the public:</E>
                         The Commission believes that the changes to §§ 40.2, 40.3, 40.5 and 40.6, regarding the requirement for complete explanations and analysis for product and rule submissions will help protect market participants and the public by encouraging registered entities to submit complete and informative filings for product and rule changes thereby explaining the new product, rule or rule amendment and how and why the new product, rule or rule amendment complies with the CEA and the Commission's regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of futures markets:</E>
                         The improvements to the regulations providing for “complete” products and rules submissions better ensure that the Commission can provide adequate oversight with minimal disruption to market efficiency. The Commission has not identified any effect of the regulations on innovation and competition.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Price discovery:</E>
                         The Commission has not identified any effect of the regulations on price discovery.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Sound risk management practices:</E>
                         The Commission has not identified any other effect of the regulations on sound risk management practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Other public interest considerations:</E>
                         The Commission has not identified any effect of the regulations on other public interest considerations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Antitrust Considerations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 15(b) of the CEA requires the Commission to “take into consideration the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws and endeavor to take the least anticompetitive means of achieving the purposes of this Act, in issuing any order or adopting any Commission rule or regulation (including any exemption under section 4(c) or 4c(b)), or in requiring or approving any bylaw, rule, or regulation of a contract market or registered futures association established pursuant to section 17 of this Act.” 
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             7 U.S.C. 19(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws is generally to protect competition. The Commission has considered whether the amendments to part 40 are likely to have anticompetitive effects, and if so, whether the amendments reflect the least anticompetitive means of achieving the purposes of this Act.
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In doing so, the Commission considered the comments received addressing competition.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             CEA Section 3(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission received three comment letters that identified potential effects on competition in connection with the proposed addition of “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) and one of these letters identified potential effects on competition in connection with the proposed addition of “complete” to § 40.6(a)(6)(v).
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets stated that part 40 ensures that innovation takes place within the boundaries of market integrity, transparency and the protection of market participants, and provides a framework for the Commission to engage with market participants, assess innovations, and make informed decisions that contribute to the overall health and competitiveness of the derivatives markets.
                        <SU>226</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Better Markets stated that the proposed addition of “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3) would bolster market integrity, protect the interests of market participants and ensure the Commission can effectively and thoroughly evaluate compliance.
                        <SU>227</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Coinbase cautioned that adding “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3) as proposed could unnecessarily limit and delay the availability of a process to list contracts on its DCM after expending the time, effort and diligence to develop the product in the highly competitive global derivatives market.
                        <SU>228</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Cboe commented that if the proposed addition of the word “complete” to §§ 40.2(a)(3) and 40.6(a)(v) were applied in a prescriptive, inconsistent and unreasonable manner, it would, among other things, inhibit innovation and competition.
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             No other amendments proposed in the NPRM elicited comments addressing competition.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             Better Markets at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             Better Markets at 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             Coinbase at 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             Cboe at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission agrees with Better Markets' view that the proposed part 40 amendments—including, importantly, the addition of “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3)—support the overall health and competitiveness of derivatives markets. The proposed addition of “complete” should result in a better understanding of the product by the Commission and market participants, that in turn should promote innovation and competition. Further, the Commission does not construe Coinbase's or Cboe's generalized warnings to raise compelling anticompetitive concerns; neither comment asserts that, or articulates a realistic theory as to how, the addition of “complete” to § 40.2(a)(3)(v) or 40.6(a)(6)(v), would likely be anticompetitive—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         cause price increases or inhibit innovation—in a properly defined relevant antitrust market to any consequential degree.
                    </P>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Commission does not anticipate that the amendments to part 40 of its regulations would promote or result in anti-competitive consequences or behavior. Further, even accepting, for argument's sake, that the requirement that a DCM or SEF submit a concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the contract's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations could hamper innovation to some unspecified degree, the Commission considers this requirement minimal, warranted, necessary and the least anticompetitive means to realize its critical core interests in market integrity, transparency, and protection of market integrity. Similarly, even accepting, for argument's sake, that the requirement that a registered entity submit a concise explanation and analysis of a rule to be self-certified that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations could hamper innovation to some unspecified degree, the Commission considers this requirement minimal, warranted, necessary and the least anticompetitive means to realize its critical core interests in market integrity, transparency, and protection of market integrity.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 37</CFR>
                        <P>Banks, banking, Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swaps.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 38</CFR>
                        <P>Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 40</CFR>
                        <P>Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission amends 17 CFR chapter I as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 37—SWAP EXECUTION FACILITIES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="37">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 37 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <PRTPAGE P="88622"/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 6c, 7, 7a-2, 7b-3, and 12a, as amended by Titles VII and VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="37">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend appendix B by revising the first sentence of paragraph (a)(1) under “Core Principle 8 of Section 5h of the Act—Emergency Authority” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Part 37—Guidance on, and Acceptable Practices in, Compliance With Core Principles</HD>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Core Principle 8 of Section 5h of the Act—Emergency Authority</HD>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) A swap execution facility should have rules that authorize it to take certain actions in the event of an emergency, as defined in § 40.1 of this chapter. * * *</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 38—DESIGNATED CONTRACT MARKETS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="38">
                        <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 38 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 6, 6a, 6c, 6d, 6e, 6f, 6g, 6i, 6j, 6k, 6l, 6m, 6n, 7, 7a-2, 7b, 7b-1, 7b-3, 8, 9, 15, and 21, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="38">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Amend appendix B by revising the third sentence of paragraph (C)(a) under “Core Principle 6 of Section 5(d) of the Act” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Part 38—Guidance on, and Acceptable Practices in, Compliance With Core Principles</HD>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>Core Principle 6 of Section 5(d) of the Act: * * *</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(C) * * *</P>
                            <P>(a) * * * To address perceived market threats, the designated contract market should have rules that allow it to take certain actions in the event of an emergency, as defined in § 40.1 of this chapter, including: imposing or modifying position limits, price limits, and intraday market restrictions; imposing special margin requirements; ordering the liquidation or transfer of open positions in any contract; ordering the fixing of a settlement price; extending or shortening the expiration date or the trading hours; suspending or curtailing trading in any contract; transferring customer contracts and the margin or altering any contract's settlement terms or conditions; and, where applicable, providing for the carrying out of such actions through its agreements with its third-party provider of clearing or regulatory services. * * *</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 40—PROVISIONS COMMON TO REGISTERED ENTITIES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>5. The authority citation for part 40 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P> 7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 12, as amended by Titles VII and VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 40.1 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.1</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>As used in this part:</P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Business day</E>
                                 means the intraday period of time starting at 8:15 a.m. and ending at 4:45 p.m. Eastern Standard Time or Eastern Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect in Washington, DC, on all days except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays in Washington, DC.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Dormant designated contract market</E>
                                 means any designated contract market on which no trading has occurred for a period of 365 days; 
                                <E T="03">provided, however,</E>
                                 no designated contract market shall be considered dormant if its initial and original Commission order of designation was issued within the preceding 1,095 days.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Dormant derivatives clearing organization</E>
                                 means any derivatives clearing organization registered pursuant to section 5b of the Act that has not accepted for clearing any agreement, contract or transaction that is required or permitted to be cleared by a derivatives clearing organization under sections 5b(a) and 5b(b) of the Act, respectively, for a period of 365 days; 
                                <E T="03">provided, however,</E>
                                 no derivatives clearing organization shall be considered dormant if its initial and original Commission order of registration was issued within the preceding 1,095 days.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Dormant swap data repository</E>
                                 means any registered swap data repository on which no data has resided for a period of 365 days.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Dormant swap execution facility</E>
                                 means any swap execution facility on which no trading has occurred for a period of 365 days; 
                                <E T="03">provided, however,</E>
                                 no swap execution facility shall be considered dormant if its initial and original Commission order of registration was issued within the preceding 1,095 days.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Emergency</E>
                                 means any occurrence or circumstance that, in the opinion of the governing board of a registered entity, or a person or persons duly authorized to issue such an opinion on behalf of the governing board of a registered entity under circumstances and pursuant to procedures that are specified by rule, requires immediate action and threatens or may threaten such things as the fair and orderly trading in, or the liquidation of or delivery pursuant to, any agreements, contracts, swaps or transactions or the timely collection and payment of funds in connection with clearing and settlement by a derivatives clearing organization, including:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Any manipulative or attempted manipulative activity;</P>
                            <P>(2) Any actual, attempted, or threatened corner, squeeze, congestion, or undue concentration of positions;</P>
                            <P>(3) Any circumstances which may materially affect the performance of agreements, contracts, swaps or transactions, including failure of the payment system or the bankruptcy or insolvency of any participant;</P>
                            <P>(4) Any action taken by any governmental body, or any other registered entity, board of trade, market or facility which may have a direct impact on trading or clearing and settlement; and</P>
                            <P>(5) Any other circumstance which may have a severe, adverse effect upon the functioning of a registered entity.</P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Rule</E>
                                 means any constitutional provision, article of incorporation, bylaw, rule, regulation, resolution, interpretation, stated policy, advisory, terms and conditions, trading protocol, margin methodology, agreement or instrument corresponding thereto, including those that authorize a response or establish standards for responding to a specific emergency, and any amendment or addition thereto or repeal thereof, made or issued by a registered entity or by the governing board thereof or any committee thereof, in whatever form adopted.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Terms and conditions</E>
                                 means any definition of the trading unit or the specific commodity underlying a contract for the future delivery of a commodity or commodity option contract, description of the payments to be exchanged under a swap, specification of cash settlement or delivery standards and procedures, and establishment of buyers' and sellers' rights and obligations under the swap or contract. Terms and conditions include provisions relating to the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) For a contract for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap):</P>
                            <P>(i) Quality and other standards that define the commodity or instrument underlying the contract;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Quantity standards or other provisions related to contract size;</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) Any applicable premiums or discounts for delivery of nonpar products; 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88623"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(iv) Trading hours, trading months and the listing of contracts;</P>
                            <P>(v) The pricing basis, minimum price fluctuations, and maximum price fluctuations;</P>
                            <P>(vi) Any price limits, no cancellation ranges, trading halts, or circuit breaker provisions, and procedures for the establishment of daily settlement prices;</P>
                            <P>(vii) Speculative position limits, position accountability standards, and position reporting requirements, including an indication as to whether the contract meets the definition of a referenced contract as defined in § 150.1 of this chapter, and if so, the name of either the core referenced futures contract or other referenced contract upon which the new referenced contract submitted under this part is based.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Delivery points and locational price differentials;</P>
                            <P>(ix) Delivery standards and procedures, including fees related to delivery or the delivery process; alternatives to delivery and applicable penalties or sanctions for failure to perform;</P>
                            <P>(x) If cash settled; the definition, composition, calculation and revision of the cash settlement price or index;</P>
                            <P>(xi) [Reserved];</P>
                            <P>(xii) Option exercise price, if it is constant, and method for calculating the exercise price, if it is variable;</P>
                            <P>(xiii) Threshold prices for an option contract, the existence of which is contingent upon those prices; and</P>
                            <P>(xiv) Any restrictions or requirements for exercising an option; and</P>
                            <P>(2) For a swap:</P>
                            <P>(i) Identification of the major group, category, type or class in which the swap falls (such as an interest rate, commodity, credit or equity swap) and of any further sub-group, category, type or class that further describes the swap;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Notional amounts, quantity standards, or other unit size characteristics;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Any applicable premiums or discounts for delivery of nonpar products;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Trading hours and the listing of swaps;</P>
                            <P>(v) Pricing basis for establishing the payment obligations under, and mark-to-market value of, the swap including, as applicable, the accrual start dates, termination or maturity dates, and, for each leg of the swap, the initial cash flow components, spreads, and points, and the relevant indexes, prices, rates, coupons, or other price reference measures;</P>
                            <P>(vi) Any price limits, trading halts, or circuit breaker provisions, and procedures for the establishment of daily settlement prices;</P>
                            <P>(vii) Speculative position limits, position accountability standards, and position reporting requirements, including an indication as to whether the contract meets the definition of economically equivalent swap as defined in § 150.1 of this chapter, and, if so, the name of either the core referenced futures contract or referenced contract, as applicable, to which the swap submitted under this part is economically equivalent.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Payment and reset frequency, day count conventions, business calendars, and accrual features;</P>
                            <P>(ix) If physical delivery applies, delivery standards and procedures, including fees related to delivery or the delivery process, alternatives to delivery and applicable penalties or sanctions for failure to perform;</P>
                            <P>(x) If cash settled, the definition, composition, calculation and revision of the cash settlement price, and the settlement currency;</P>
                            <P>(xi) [Reserved]</P>
                            <P>(xii) Option exercise price, if it is constant, and method for calculating the exercise price, if it is variable;</P>
                            <P>(xiii) Threshold prices for an option, the existence of which is contingent upon those prices;</P>
                            <P>(xiv) Any restrictions or requirements for exercising an option; and</P>
                            <P>(xv) Life cycle events.</P>
                            <P>6. Amend § 40.2 by revising paragraphs (a) introductory text, (a)(1), (a)(3)(i), (ii), (v), and (vi), and (d) to read as follows:</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.2</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Listing products for trading by certification.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) A designated contract market or a swap execution facility must comply with the submission requirements of this section prior to listing a product for trading that has not been approved under § 40.3. A submission shall comply with the following conditions:</P>
                            <P>(1) The designated contract market or the swap execution facility has filed its submission electronically in a format and manner specified by the Commission;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(3) * * *</P>
                            <P>(i) The information required by appendix D to this part;</P>
                            <P>(ii) A copy of the rules that set forth the contract's terms and conditions;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(v) A concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder. This explanation and analysis shall either be accompanied by the documentation relied upon to establish the basis for compliance with applicable law, or incorporate information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources;</P>
                            <P>(vi) A certification that the registered entity posted a notice of a pending product certification with the Commission and a copy of the submission, concurrent with the filing of a submission with the Commission, on the registered entity's website. Information that the registered entity seeks to keep confidential may be redacted from the documents published on the registered entity's website but must be republished consistent with any determination made pursuant to § 40.8(c)(4); and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Class certification of swaps.</E>
                                 (1) A designated contract market or swap execution facility may list or facilitate trading in any swap or number of swaps based upon an “excluded commodity,” as defined in section 1a(19)(i) of the Act, not including any security, security index, and currency other than the United States Dollar and a “major foreign currency,” as defined in § 15.03(a) of this chapter, or an “excluded commodity,” as defined in section 1a(19)(ii)-(iv) of the Act, provided the designated contract market or swap execution facility certifies, under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) and (a)(3)(i), (iv), and (vi) of this section, the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) Each particular swap within the certified class of swaps is based upon an excluded commodity specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Each particular swap within the certified class of swaps is based upon an excluded commodity with an identical pricing source, formula, procedure, and methodology for calculating reference prices and payment obligations;</P>
                            <P>(iii) The pricing source, formula, procedure, and methodology for calculating reference prices and payment obligations in each particular swap within the certified class of swaps is identical to a pricing source, formula, procedure, and methodology for calculating reference prices and payment obligations in a product previously submitted to the Commission and certified or approved pursuant to this section or § 40.3; and</P>
                            <P>(iv) Each particular swap within the certified class of swaps is based upon an excluded commodity involving an identical currency or identical currencies.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) The Commission may in its discretion require a registered entity to 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88624"/>
                                withdraw its certification under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and to submit each individual swap or certain individual swaps within the submission for Commission review pursuant to this section or § 40.3.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 40.3 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a) introductory text, (a)(1), (2), (4), (9), and (10), (c), and (d);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Removing paragraph (e);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Redesignating paragraph (f) as paragraph (e); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.3</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Voluntary submission of new products for Commission review and approval.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Request for approval.</E>
                                 Pursuant to section 5c(c) of the Act, a designated contract market, a swap execution facility, or a derivatives clearing organization may request that the Commission approve a new product prior to listing the product for trading or accepting the product for clearing, or if a product was initially submitted under § 40.2 or § 39.5 of this chapter, subsequent to listing the product for trading or accepting the product for clearing. A submission requesting approval shall:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Be filed electronically in a format and manner specified by the Commission;</P>
                            <P>(2) Include the information required by appendix D to this part;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(4) Include an explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the product's terms and conditions, the underlying commodity, and the product's compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder. This explanation and analysis shall either be accompanied by the documentation relied upon to establish the basis for compliance with the applicable law, or incorporate information contained in such documentation, with appropriate citations to data sources;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(9) Certify that the registered entity posted a notice of its request for Commission approval of the new product and a copy of the submission, concurrent with the filing of a submission with the Commission, on the registered entity's website. Information the registered entity seeks to keep confidential may be redacted from the documents published on the registered entity's website but must be republished consistent with any determination made pursuant to § 40.8(c)(4); and</P>
                            <P>(10) Include, if requested by Commission staff, additional evidence, information or data demonstrating that the contract meets, initially or on a continuing basis, the requirements of the Act, or other requirement for designation or registration under the Act, or the Commission's regulations or policies thereunder. The registered entity shall submit the requested information by the time specified by Commission staff, or at the conclusion of any extended period agreed to by Commission staff after timely receipt of a written request from the registered entity.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Commission review.</E>
                                 (1) All products submitted for Commission approval pursuant to, and in compliance with the submission requirements of, paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to review by the Commission for a period of 45 days after receipt by the Commission.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) The Commission may extend the initial 45-day review period for up to an additional 45 days if the product raises novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, the submission is incomplete or the requestor does not respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner, in which case the Commission shall notify the submitting registered entity within the initial 45-day review period and shall briefly describe the nature of the specific issues for which additional time for review shall be required.</P>
                            <P>(3) At any time during its review of a proposed product under this section, the Commission may extend the review period for any period of time to which the registered entity agrees in writing.</P>
                            <P>(4) Any amendment or supplementation made by the registered entity to the submission will be treated as the filing of a new submission under this section and be subject to the initial 45-day review period in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless the amendment or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is made for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions.</P>
                            <P>(5) If the review period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section would end on a day that is not a business day, such review period shall instead be extended to end on the next business day.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Commission Determination</E>
                                —(1) 
                                <E T="03">Approval.</E>
                                 Any product submitted for Commission approval in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed approved by the Commission under section 5c(c) of the Act at the conclusion of the applicable review period under paragraph (c) of this section, unless the Commission issues a notice of non-approval to the registered entity under paragraph (d)(2) of this section within the applicable review period.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Notice of non-approval.</E>
                                 Any time during its review under this section, the Commission may notify the registered entity that it will not, or is unable to, approve the new product. This notification will briefly specify the nature of the issues raised and the specific provision of the Act or the Commission's regulations, including the form or content requirements of this section, with which the new product is inconsistent or appears to be inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Effect of non-approval.</E>
                                 (1) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(2) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a product does not prevent the entity from subsequently submitting a revised version of the product for Commission approval, or from submitting the product as initially proposed, in a supplemented submission; the revised or supplemented submission will be reviewed without prejudice.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(2) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a product shall be presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify under § 40.2 that the same, or substantially the same, product complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Revise § 40.4 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.4</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Amendments to terms or conditions of enumerated agricultural products.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of this part, a designated contract market must submit for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5, prior to its implementation, any rule that, for a delivery month having open interest, would materially change a product's term or condition, as defined in § 40.1, of a contract for future delivery in an agricultural commodity enumerated in section 1a(9) of the Act, or of an option on such a contract or commodity.</P>
                            <P>(b) The following rules or rule amendments are not material and are not required by this section to be submitted for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5:</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Rules or rule amendments that are enumerated in § 40.6(d)(2) may be 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88625"/>
                                implemented without prior approval or certification, provided that they are implemented pursuant to the notification procedures of § 40.6(d);
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Rules or rule amendments that are enumerated in § 40.6(e)(2) may be implemented without prior approval or certification or notification as permitted pursuant to § 40.6(e);</P>
                            <P>(3) Rules or rule amendments governing trading hours may be implemented without prior approval, provided that they are implemented pursuant to the procedures of sect; 40.6(a);</P>
                            <P>(4) Rules or rule amendments that are required to comply with a binding order of a court of competent jurisdiction, or a rule, regulation or order of the Commission or of another Federal regulatory authority, may be implemented without prior approval, provided that they are implemented pursuant to the procedures of § 40.6(a); or</P>
                            <P>(5) Any rule or rule amendment:</P>
                            <P>(i) The text of which has been submitted pursuant to the procedures of paragraph (b)(5) of this section and § 40.6(a) at least ten business days prior to its implementation and that has been labeled “Non-Material Agricultural Rule Change;”</P>
                            <P>(ii) For which the designated contract market has provided an explanation as to why it considers the rule “non-material,” and any other information that may be beneficial to the Commission in analyzing the merits of the entity's claim of non-materiality including, if applicable, a copy of a previously approved rule or rule amendment that is, in substance, the same as the non-material rule or rule amendment; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) With respect to which the Commission has not notified the contract market during the review period that the rule appears to require or does require prior approval under this section.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 40.5 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a) introductory text, (a)(1), (2), (5), (6), and (9), and (c)(1);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Removing paragraph (c)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Redesignating paragraph (d)(1) as paragraph (c)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (c)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. Redesignating paragraph (d)(2) as paragraph (c)(3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (c)(3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. Adding paragraphs (c)(4) through (6);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. Revising paragraphs (d) introductory text and (d)(1);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Redesignating paragraph (g) as paragraph (d)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>j. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (d)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>k. Redesignating paragraph (e) as paragraph (d)(3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>l. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (d)(3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>m. Redesignating paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) as paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) respectively; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>n. Revising newly redesignated paragraphs (e)(1) and (2).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Voluntary submission of rules for Commission review and approval.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Request for approval of rules.</E>
                                 Pursuant to section 5c(c) of the Act, a registered entity may request that the Commission approve a new rule or rule amendment prior to implementation of the rule, or if the rule or rule amendment was initially submitted under § 40.2 or 40.6, subsequent to implementation of the rule. A request for approval shall:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Be filed electronically in a format and manner specified by the Commission;</P>
                            <P>(2) Include the information required by appendix D to this part;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(5) Provide an explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder, including, as applicable, a description of the anticipated benefits to market participants or others, any potential anticompetitive effects on market participants or others, and how the rule fits into the registered entity's framework of self-regulation;</P>
                            <P>(6) Certify that the registered entity posted a notice of its request for Commission approval of the new rule or rule amendment and a copy of the submission, concurrent with the filing of a submission with the Commission, on the registered entity's website. Information the registered entity seeks to keep confidential may be redacted from the documents published on the registered entity's website but must be republished consistent with any determination made pursuant to § 40.8(c)(4);</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(9) Identify any Commission regulation that the Commission may need to amend, or sections of the Act or the Commission's regulations that the Commission may need to interpret, in order to approve the new rule or rule amendment. To the extent that such an amendment or interpretation is necessary to accommodate a new rule or rule amendment, the submission should include a reasoned analysis supporting the amendment to the Commission's regulation or the interpretation; and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) Any rule submitted for Commission approval pursuant to, and in compliance with the submission requirements of, paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to review by the Commission for a period of 45 days after receipt by the Commission.</P>
                            <P>(2) The Commission may extend the initial 45-day review period for up to an additional 45 days if the proposed rule raises novel or complex issues that require additional time for review or is of major economic significance, the submission is incomplete or the requestor does not respond completely to Commission questions in a timely manner, in which case the Commission shall notify the submitting registered entity within the initial 45-day review period and shall briefly describe the nature of the specific issues for which additional time for review shall be required.</P>
                            <P>(3) At any time during its review of a proposed rule under this section, the Commission may extend the review period for any period of time to which the registered entity agrees in writing.</P>
                            <P>(4) Any amendment or supplementation made by the registered entity to the submission will be treated as the filing of a new submission under this section and be subject to the initial 45-day review period in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless the amendment or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is made for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions.</P>
                            <P>(5) If a rule or rule amendment that is submitted for Commission approval under paragraph (a) of this section is also submitted and labeled as a “Non-Material Agricultural Rule Change” in accordance with § 40.4(b)(5), the Commission shall commence the 45-day review period in paragraph (c)(1) of this section ten business days after receiving the submission.</P>
                            <P>(6) If the review period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section would end on a day that is not a business day, such review period shall instead be extended to end on the next business day.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Commission determination</E>
                                —(1) 
                                <E T="03">Approval.</E>
                                 Any rule submitted for 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88626"/>
                                Commission approval in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed approved by the Commission under section 5c(c) of the Act at the conclusion of the applicable review period under paragraph (c) of this section, unless the Commission issues a notice of non-approval to the registered entity under paragraph (d)(3) of this section within the applicable review period.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Expedited approval.</E>
                                 Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, a proposed rule or rule amendment, including changes to terms and conditions of a product that are consistent with the Act and Commission regulations, may be approved by the Commission at such time and under such conditions as the Commission shall specify in a written notification.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Notice of non-approval.</E>
                                 Any time during its review under this section, the Commission may notify the registered entity that it will not, or is unable to, approve the new rule or rule amendment. This notification will briefly specify the nature of the issues raised and the specific provision of the Act or the Commission's regulations, including the form or content requirements of this section, with which the new rule or rule amendment is inconsistent or appears to be inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Effect of non-approval.</E>
                                 (1) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(3) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a new rule or rule amendment does not prevent the registered entity from subsequently submitting a revised version of the proposed rule or rule amendment for Commission review and approval, or from submitting the new rule or rule amendment as initially proposed, in a supplemented submission; the revised or supplemented submission will be reviewed without prejudice.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (d)(3) of this section of the Commission's determination not to approve a proposed rule or rule amendment of a registered entity shall be presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify under § 40.6 that the same, or substantially the same, proposed rule or rule amendment complies with the Act and 17 CFR chapter I.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 40.6 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a) introductory text and (a)(1), (2), and (5) through (8);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (a)(9);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising paragraph (b);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising paragraphs (c)(2) and (3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. Adding paragraph (c)(5);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. Revising paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2)(iii), (iv), and (ix);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. Adding paragraphs (d)(2)(xi) through (xiii);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. Redesignating paragraph (d)(3) as paragraph (e); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The additions and revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.6</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Self-certification of rules.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Submission requirements.</E>
                                 A registered entity shall comply with the certification and submission requirements of this section prior to implementing any rule that has not obtained Commission approval under § 40.5, or that is submitted under § 40.10, except as otherwise provided by § 40.10(a). A submission shall comply with the following conditions:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The registered entity has filed its submission electronically in a format and manner specified by the Commission.</P>
                            <P>(2) The registered entity has provided a certification that the registered entity posted a notice of pending certification with the Commission and a copy of the submission, concurrent with the filing of a submission with the Commission, on the registered entity's website. Information that the registered entity seeks to keep confidential may be redacted from the documents published on the registered entity's website but it must be republished consistent with any determination made pursuant to § 40.8(c)(4).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(5) The rule or rule amendment is not a rule or rule amendment of a designated contract market that materially changes a term or condition of a contract for future delivery of an agricultural commodity enumerated in section 1a(9) of the Act or an option on such a contract or commodity in a delivery month having open interest.</P>
                            <P>(6) Rule certifications implemented in response to an emergency.</P>
                            <P>(i) Rules or rule amendments implemented under procedures of the governing board to respond to an emergency as defined in § 40.1, shall, if practicable, be filed with the Commission prior to the implementation or, if not practicable, be filed with the Commission at the earliest possible time after implementation, but in no event more than twenty-four hours after implementation. Such rules shall be subject to the review and stay provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) New rules or rule amendments that establish standards for responding to an emergency must be submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or may be submitted pursuant to § 40.5.</P>
                            <P>(7) The rule submission shall include:</P>
                            <P>(i) The information required by appendix D to this part (“Emergency Rule Certification” should be noted in the Description section in the case of a rule or rule amendment that responds to an emergency);</P>
                            <P>(ii) The text of the rule (in the case of a rule amendment, deletions and additions must be indicated);</P>
                            <P>(iii) The date of intended implementation;</P>
                            <P>(iv) A certification by the registered entity that the rule complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder;</P>
                            <P>(v) A concise explanation and analysis that is complete with respect to the operation, purpose, and effect of the proposed rule or rule amendment and its compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, including core principles, and the Commission's regulations thereunder;</P>
                            <P>(vi) A brief explanation of any substantive opposing views expressed to the registered entity by governing board or committee members, members of the entity or market participants, that were not incorporated into the rule, or a statement that no such opposing views were expressed; and</P>
                            <P>(vii) As appropriate, a request for confidential treatment pursuant to the procedures provided in § 40.8;</P>
                            <P>(8) The registered entity shall provide, if requested by Commission staff, additional evidence, information or data that may be beneficial to the Commission in conducting a due diligence assessment of the filing and the registered entity's compliance with any of the requirements of the Act or the Commission's regulations or policies thereunder; and</P>
                            <P>(9) Notwithstanding the 10 business day filing requirement of paragraphs (a)(3) and (b)(1) of this section, a registered entity may file a submission and certification of a new rule or a rule amendment that delists, or withdraws the certification of, a product that has no open interest and may make the delisting or withdrawal of the product with no open interest effective immediately upon filing the submission, provided that the submission is made in compliance with paragraphs (a)(1), (2) and (7) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Review by the Commission.</E>
                                 (1) The Commission shall have 10 business days to review the new rule or rule amendment before the new rule or rule amendment is deemed certified and can 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88627"/>
                                be made effective, unless the Commission notifies the registered entity during the 10-business day review period that it intends to issue a stay of the certification under paragraph (c) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Any amendment or supplementation made by the registered entity to the submission will be treated as the filing of a new submission under this section and be subject to the initial 10-business day review period in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless the amendment or supplementation is requested by the Commission or is made for correction of typographical errors, renumbering or other non-substantive revisions.</P>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Public comment.</E>
                                 The Commission shall provide a 30-day comment period within the 90-day period in which the stay is in effect as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The Commission shall publish a notice of the 30-day comment period on the Commission website. Comments from the public shall be submitted as specified in that notice.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Expiration of a stay of certification of new rule or rule amendment.</E>
                                 A new rule or rule amendment subject to a stay pursuant to this paragraph (c)(3) shall become effective and can be implemented, pursuant to the certification, at the expiration of the 90-day review period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section unless the Commission withdraws the stay prior to that time, or the Commission notifies the registered entity during the 90-day time period that it objects to the certification on the grounds that the proposed rule or rule amendment is inconsistent with the Act or 17 CFR chapter I.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (5) 
                                <E T="03">Effect of objection.</E>
                                 (i) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (c) of this section of the Commission's objection to a certification by a registered entity on the grounds that the proposed rule or rule amendment is inconsistent with the Act or the Commission's regulations does not prevent the registered entity from subsequently submitting a revised version of the proposed rule or rule amendment for certification or Commission review and approval, or from submitting the new rule or rule amendment as initially proposed, in a supplemented submission; the revised or supplemented submission will be reviewed without prejudice.
                            </P>
                            <P>(ii) Notification to a registered entity under paragraph (c) of this section of the Commission's objection to a certification by a registered entity shall be presumptive evidence that the entity may not truthfully certify under this part that the same, or substantially the same, proposed rule or rule amendment complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder.</P>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) The registered entity provides to the Commission at least weekly a summary notice of all rule amendments made effective pursuant to this paragraph (d)(1) during the preceding week. Such notice must be labeled “Weekly Notification of Rule Amendments” and need not be filed for weeks during which no such actions have been taken. One copy of each such submission shall be furnished electronically in a format and manner specified by the Commission; and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) 
                                <E T="03">Index products.</E>
                                 Routine changes in the composition, computation, or method of selection of component entities of an index (other than routine changes to securities indexes to the extent that such changes are not described in paragraph (e)(2)(vi) of this section) referenced and defined in the product's terms, that do not affect the pricing basis of the index, which are made by an independent third party whose business relates to the collection or dissemination of price information and which was not formed solely for the purpose of compiling an index for use in connection with a futures or option product;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iv) 
                                <E T="03">Option contract terms.</E>
                                 Changes to option contract rules, which may qualify for implementation without notice pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(vii) of this section, relating to the strike price listing procedures, strike price intervals, and the listing of strike prices on a discretionary basis;
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (ix) 
                                <E T="03">Trading months.</E>
                                 The initial listing of trading months, or an amendment to existing trading months, which may qualify for implementation without notice pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(viii) of this section, within the currently established cycle of trading months;
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (xi) 
                                <E T="03">Contact information.</E>
                                 Updates of email addresses or other contact information that market participants use to submit block trades;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (xii) 
                                <E T="03">Changes to no cancellation ranges.</E>
                                 For a contract for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap), changes to no cancellation ranges (which are the price ranges within which a trade will not be cancelled); or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (xiii) 
                                <E T="03">Option premiums or margins.</E>
                                 For a contract for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract or an option on a commodity (other than a swap), payment or collection of commodity options premiums or margins; or for a swap, payment or collection of option premiums or margins.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Notification of rule amendments not required.</E>
                                 Notwithstanding the rule certification requirements of section 5c(c)(1) of the Act and paragraph (a) of this section, a registered entity may place the following rules or rule amendments into effect without certification or notice to the Commission if the following conditions are met:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The registered entity maintains documentation regarding all changes to rules; and</P>
                            <P>(2) The rule governs:</P>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Transfer of membership or ownership.</E>
                                 Procedures and forms for the purchase, sale or transfer of membership or ownership, but not including qualifications for membership or ownership, any right or obligation of membership or ownership or dues or assessments;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 
                                <E T="03">Administrative procedures.</E>
                                 The organization and administrative procedures of a registered entity governing bodies such as a Board of Directors, Officers and Committees, but not voting requirements, Board of Directors or Committee composition requirements or procedures, decision making procedures, use or disclosure of material non-public information gained through the performance of official duties, or requirements relating to conflicts of interest;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) 
                                <E T="03">Administration.</E>
                                 The routine, daily administration, direction and control of employees, requirements relating to gratuity and similar funds, but not guaranty, reserves, or similar funds; declaration of holidays, and changes to facilities housing the market, trading floor or trading area;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iv) 
                                <E T="03">Standards of decorum.</E>
                                 Standards of decorum or attire or similar provisions relating to admission to the floor, badges, or visitors, but not the establishment of penalties for violations of such rules; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (v) 
                                <E T="03">Fees.</E>
                                 Fees or fee changes, other than fees or fee changes associated with market making or trading incentive programs, that:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (A) Are less than $1.00 per contract; or
                                <PRTPAGE P="88628"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) Relate to matters such as dues, badges, telecommunication services, booth space, real time quotations, historical information, publications, software licenses or other matters that are administrative in nature.</P>
                            <P>
                                (vi) 
                                <E T="03">Securities indexes.</E>
                                 Routine changes to the composition, computation or method of security selection of an index that is referenced and defined in the product's rules, and which is made by an independent third party.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (vii) 
                                <E T="03">Option contract terms.</E>
                                 For registered entities that are in compliance with the daily reporting requirements of § 16.01 of this chapter, changes to option contract rules relating to the strike price listing procedures, strike price intervals, and the listing of strike prices on a discretionary basis.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (viii) 
                                <E T="03">Trading months.</E>
                                 For registered entities that are in compliance with the daily reporting requirements of § 16.01 of this chapter, the initial listing of trading months which are within the currently established cycle of trading months.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>11. Amend § 40.7 by revising paragraphs (a)(5) and (b)(3) and adding paragraph (e) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.7</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Delegations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(5) The Commission hereby delegates to the Director of the Division of Market Oversight, to be exercised by the Director or by such employees of the Commission that the Director may designate from time to time, with the concurrence of the General Counsel or the General Counsel's delegate, the authority to determine whether a rule or rule amendment submitted by a designated contract market is material under § 40.4(b)(5), and to notify the designated contract market of such determination.</P>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) Establish or amend or relate to speculative limits or position accountability provisions that are in compliance with the requirements of the Act and17 CFR chapter I;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) The Commission hereby delegates, until it orders otherwise, to the Director of the Division of Clearing and Risk and, separately, to the Director of the Division of Market Oversight, to be exercised by either Director, as appropriate, or by such employees of the Commission that either Director may designate from time to time, the authority to specify the format and manner to be used by a registered entity when filing a submission pursuant to this part.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 40.10 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a) introductory text, (b), (d) introductory text, and (h)(3); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (i).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 40.10</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Special certification procedures for submission of rules by systemically important derivatives clearing organizations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Advance notice.</E>
                                 A systemically important derivatives clearing organization, as defined in § 39.2 of this chapter, shall provide notice to the Commission not less than 60 days in advance of any proposed change to its rules, procedures, or operations that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the systemically important derivatives clearing organization. A notice submitted under this section shall be subject to the filing requirements of § 40.6(a)(1) and the website publication requirements of § 40.6(a)(2).
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Changes requiring advance notice.</E>
                                 Changes to a systemically important derivatives clearing organization's rules, procedures, or operations that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the systemically important derivatives clearing organization may include, but are not limited to: material changes to its default management plan or default rules or procedures required under § 39.16 or 39.35 of this chapter, program of risk analysis and oversight required under § 39.18 of this chapter, or recovery and wind down plans required under § 39.39 of this chapter; the adoption of a new or materially revised margin methodology; the establishment of a cross-margining program or similar arrangement with another clearing organization; and material changes to its approach to the stress testing required under § 39.13(h)(3) or 39.36(a) or (c) of this chapter. If a systemically important derivatives clearing organization determines that a proposed change could not materially affect the nature or level of risks it presents and therefore does not file an advance notice, the Commission may determine otherwise and require the systemically important derivatives clearing organization to withdraw the proposed change and provide notice pursuant to this section.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Notice of objection.</E>
                                 A systemically important derivatives clearing organization shall not implement a change to which the Commission has an objection on the grounds that the proposed change is not consistent with the Act or 17 CFR chapter I, or any applicable rules, orders, or standards prescribed under section 805(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act. The Commission will notify the systemically important derivatives clearing organization in writing of any objection regarding the proposed change within 60 days from the later of:
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(h) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) The Commission may require modification or rescission of the emergency change if it finds that the change is not consistent with the Act or 17 CFR chapter I, or any applicable rules, orders, or standards prescribed under section 805(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act.</P>
                            <P>(i) Where in §§ 39.3(g), 39.4(f), 39.13(i), and 39.15(b)(2) of this chapter a derivatives clearing organization is required to submit rules for approval pursuant to § 40.5, a systemically important derivatives clearing organization instead shall submit such rules pursuant to this section if the rules could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the systemically important derivatives clearing organization.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>13. Revise appendix D to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix D to Part 40—Submission Instructions for Rules and Products</HD>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <P>(a) Rule and product submissions shall be submitted electronically to the Commission by a registered entity in a format and manner specified by the Commission, and shall include all of the following information:</P>
                            <P>
                                1. 
                                <E T="03">Date</E>
                                —The date of the filing.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                2. 
                                <E T="03">Organization</E>
                                —The name of the organization filing the submission (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 CBOT).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                3. 
                                <E T="03">Type of Registered Entity</E>
                                —An indication as to whether the rule or product is being submitted by a designated contract market (DCM), derivatives clearing organization (DCO), swap execution facility (SEF), or swap data repository (SDR).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                4. 
                                <E T="03">Type of Filing</E>
                                —An indication as to whether the filing is a new rule, rule amendment or new product and the section of this part under which the filing is submitted. For a new product to be listed by a DCM or a SEF, an indication whether the new product meets the definition of referenced contract as such term is defined in § 150.1 of this chapter and is described in appendix C to part 150 of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                5. 
                                <E T="03">Rule Numbers</E>
                                —For rule filings, the rule number(s) being adopted or modified in the case of rule amendment filings.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                6. 
                                <E T="03">Description</E>
                                —For rule or rule amendment filings, a description of the new rule or rule amendment, including a discussion of its expected impact on the registered entity, market participants, and the overall market. The narrative should describe the substance of the submission with enough 
                                <PRTPAGE P="88629"/>
                                specificity to characterize all material aspects of the filing.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                7. 
                                <E T="03">Identifier Code (optional)</E>
                                —A registered entity Identifier Code, if applicable. Such codes are commonly generated by registered entities to provide an identifier that is unique to each filing (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 NYMEX Submission 03-116).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Other Requirements</E>
                                —A submission shall comply with all applicable filing requirements for proposed rules, rule amendments, or products. The entry of the information required by paragraph (a) of this appendix does not obviate the registered entity's responsibility to comply with applicable filing requirements (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 rules submitted for Commission approval under § 40.5 must be accompanied by an explanation of the purpose and effect of the proposed rule along with a description of any substantive opposing views).
                            </P>
                            <P>(c) An indication of “confidential treatment requested” does not obviate the submitter's responsibility to comply with all applicable requirements for requesting confidential treatment in § 40.8 and, where appropriate, § 145.9 of this chapter, and will not substitute for notice or full compliance with such requirements.</P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="17" PART="40">
                        <AMDPAR>14. Add appendix E to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix E to Part 40—Guidance on Compliance With the Materiality Assessment in § 40.4</HD>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <P>This appendix provides guidance on complying with the requirement in § 40.4(a) that a DCM must submit rule changes that would materially change a term or condition of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in section 1a(9) of the CEA with open interest for Commission approval under the procedures of § 40.5. Section 40.4(a) applies strictly to rules that materially change a product's economic terms and conditions, and does not apply to other rules. Guidance is set forth below to assist a DCM in assessing whether a change to the terms and conditions is material pursuant to § 40.4(a) and in explaining why it considers a rule to be non-material when § 40.4(b)(5) is applicable. The guidance below can be used to demonstrate to the Commission compliance with the requirement in § 40.4(b)(5)(ii) that the DCM explain why it considers a rule to be non-material when applicable.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD2">Materiality of a Change of a Term or Condition</HD>
                            <P>Any change that is enumerated by the Commission in § 40.4(b)(1) through (4) is not material for purposes of § 40.4(a) and may be submitted under the applicable § 40.6 provision that is specified in the applicable § 40.4(b). For any other rule that the DCM believes to be non-material, § 40.4(b)(5) sets forth a process for the DCM to implement the change through self-certification pursuant to § 40.6(a).</P>
                            <P>In order for a DCM to self-certify a change to a term or condition of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in CEA section 1a(9) with open interest that the DCM believes to be non-material, § 40.4(b)(5) requires the DCM to make a non-materiality filing and explain why it considers the rule change to be “non-material.” To assist an exchange in assessing and explaining whether a change to the terms and conditions is non-material pursuant to § 40.4(b)(5), paragraphs (1) through (4) of the following paragraph are the criteria that the Commission generally considers as evidence that an enumerated agricultural product rule change is non-material under § 40.4(a) pursuant to § 40.4(b)(5). A DCM may address these criteria in its assessment and explanation to demonstrate compliance with § 40.4(b)(5).</P>
                            <P>The Commission considers a change to the terms and conditions of a contract on an agricultural product enumerated in CEA section 1a(9) that has open interest as a non-material change if:</P>
                            <P>(1) The change should not affect a reasonable trader's decision to enter into, or maintain, a position;</P>
                            <P>(2) The change should not affect a reasonable trader's decision to make or take delivery on the contract or to exercise an option on the contract; and</P>
                            <P>(3) The change should not have an effect on the value of existing positions, including, but not limited to, a change affecting the price of the contract due to a change in the commodity quality characteristics of the existing contract, a change to the size of the existing contract, or a change to a cost of effecting delivery for the existing contract.</P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on October 17, 2024, by the Commission.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Robert Sidman,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                        <P>The following appendices will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendices to Provisions Common to Registered Entities—Commission Voting Summary and Commissioner's Statements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix 1—Commission Voting Summary</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>On this matter, Chairman Behnam, Commissioners Johnson, Goldsmith Romero, and Pham voted in the affirmative. Commissioner Mersinger voted in the negative.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix 2—Statement of Commissioner Kristin N. Johnson</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>I support making our rules clearer and ensuring that our rules enable the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Commission) to effectively address innovations regarding products, platforms, and technologies.</P>
                        <P>Today, the Commission issues final amendments to provisions common to registered entities set forth in Part 40 of the Commission's regulations (the Final Rule).</P>
                        <P>Part 40 implements Section 5c(c) of the Commodity Exchange Act (CEA or Act) and applies to designated contract markets (DCMs), derivatives clearing organizations (DCOs), Swap Execution Facilities (SEFs), and swap data repositories (SDRs). Notably, Part 40 includes the procedures by which registered entities list new products and implement new rules, along with standards for review and approval of the same by the Commission.</P>
                        <P>
                            As of the date of the proposed rulemaking,
                            <SU>1</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                             Part 40 had not been amended comprehensively for a decade.
                            <SU>2</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                             Over the last ten years, our markets and the market structures that characterize our markets have experienced significant technological advancements. Regulation must adapt to address emerging developments.
                        </P>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 88 FR 61432 (Sept. 6, 2023).
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 Kristin N. Johnson, Commissioner, Statement in Support of Proposed Amendments to Provisions Common to Registered Entities (July 26, 2023), Statement of Commissioner Kristin N. Johnson in Support of Proposed Amendments to Provisions Common to Registered Entities at 
                                <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/PressRoom/SpeechesTestimony/johnsonstatement072623b.</E>
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                        <P>Today's Final Rule updates the Commission's regulations governing the introduction of new products and new rules. The Final Rule includes updates that demonstrate the Commission's commitment to ongoing efforts to ensure the clarity and relevance of its regulatory requirements—for example, updates to reflect the fact that registered entities now communicate with the Commission via the internet.</P>
                        <P>
                            The Final Rule amends Sections 40.2 (self-certification of products), 40.3 (voluntary submission of products for Commission approval), 40.5 (voluntary submission of rules for Commission approval), and 40.6 (self-certification of rules) to require that, in each case, a registered entity provide a submission “that is complete with respect to” key information about the product or rule. These changes reflect the Commission's commitment to ensure that registered entities provide sufficient information to the Commission to enable the Commission to complete the analysis of compliance required under the CEA and the Part 40 regulations. Several commenters noted the importance of this change in ensuring the Commission remains adequately informed about market developments.
                            <SU>3</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                             And, as the Final Rule notes, the regulations retain the word “concise,” thus minimizing the burden on registered entities, while enabling the Commission to receive the information it needs.
                        </P>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 
                                <E T="03">See</E>
                                 FIA Comment Letter on Provisions Common to Registered Entities (Nov. 3, 2023) at 1; Better Markets Comment Letter on Provisions Common to Registered Entities (Nov. 6, 2023) at 4.
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                        <P>I thank staff in the Division of Clearing and Risk and the Division of Market Oversight, including Rachel Kaplan, Steven Benton, Nancy Markowitz, and Eileen Chotiner, for their efforts on this rulemaking.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-24388 Filed 11-6-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6351-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
