Under the authority of the plant pest provisions of the Plant Protection Act (PPA) (7 U.S.C. 7701 et seq. ), the regulations in 7 CFR part 340, “Movement of Organisms Modified or Produced Through Genetic Engineering,” regulate, among other things, the importation, interstate movement, or release into the environment of organisms modified or produced through genetic engineering that are plant pests or pose a plausible plant pest risk.

The petition for nonregulated status described in this notice was evaluated under the version of the regulations effective at the time that it was received. The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) issued a final rule, published in the Federal Register on May 18, 2020 (85 FR 29790-29838, Docket No. APHIS-2018-0034), 1 revising 7 CFR part 340; however, the final rule has been implemented in phases. The new Regulatory Status Review (RSR) process, which replaces the petition for determination of nonregulated status process, became effective on April 5, 2021, for corn, soybean, cotton, potato, tomato, and alfalfa. The RSR process is effective for all crops as of October 1, 2021. However, “[u]ntil RSR is available for a particular crop . . . APHIS will continue to receive petitions for determination of nonregulated status for the crop in accordance with the [legacy] regulations at 7 CFR 340.6.” (85 FR 29815). This petition for a determination of nonregulated status is being evaluated in accordance with the regulations at 7 CFR 340.6 (2020) as it was received by APHIS on January 28, 2020.

The petition (APHIS Petition Number 19-317-01p)  2 from BASF Corporation, of Research Triangle Park, NC (BASF), seeks a determination of nonregulated status of soybean ( Glycine max ) designated as event GMB151, which has been developed using genetic engineering for resistance to the plant-parasitic nematode, soybean cyst nematode ( Heterodera glycines ), and for tolerance to 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (HPPD-4) inhibitor herbicides. The BASF petition states that information collected during field trials and laboratory analyses indicates that GMB151 soybean is unlikely to pose a plant pest risk, and therefore should not be regulated under APHIS' regulations in 7 CFR part 340.

According to our process  3 for soliciting public comment when considering petitions for determinations of nonregulated status of organisms developed using genetic engineering, APHIS accepts written comments regarding a petition once APHIS deems it complete. In a notice published in the Federal Register on May 28, 2020 (85 FR 32004-32005, Docket No. APHIS-2020-0023), 4 APHIS announced the availability of the BASF petition for public comment. APHIS solicited comments on the petition for 60 days ending on July 27, 2020, in order to help identify potential environmental and interrelated economic issues and impacts that APHIS may determine should be considered in our evaluation of the petition.

APHIS received nine comments on the petition from agricultural trade groups, farmers, and members of the public. Five comments generally supported BASF's petition, while four expressed objections to crops developed or modified through genetic engineering.

APHIS decided, based on its review of the petition and its evaluation and analysis of the comments received during the 60-day public comment period on the petition, that the petition involves an organism developed using genetic engineering that raises substantive new issues. According to our public review process for such petitions (see footnote 3), APHIS is following Approach 2, in which we first solicit written comments from the public on a draft environmental assessment (EA) and a draft plant pest risk assessment (PPRA) for a 30-day comment period through the publication of a Federal Register notice. Then, after reviewing and evaluating the comments on the draft EA and the draft PPRA and other information, APHIS revises the draft PPRA as necessary and prepares a final EA. APHIS also publishes a notice in the Federal Register announcing the regulatory status of the organism developed using genetic engineering and the availability of APHIS' final EA, PPRA, finding of no significant impact (FONSI), and our regulatory determination.

A second opportunity for public involvement was provided on August 17, 2021, with a notice published in the Federal Register (86 FR 45955-45956) announcing the availability of the draft EA and draft PPRA for public review and comment. That comment period closed on September 16, 2021. APHIS received 2,743 comments on the petition and supporting documents. All but eight of the comments consisted of identical and near-identical copies of a form letter submitted by different individuals who expressed their general opposition to the concept and use of genetic engineering for any purpose. Commenters objected to GMB151 soybean because it expresses a novel protein from Bacillus thuringiensis, which many stated has not been adequately evaluated for use as a pesticide. Others objected to deregulation of GMB151 soybean on grounds that it would contribute to weed resistance. Commenters also opposed deregulation because it would contribute to an increase in the use of isoxaflutole, which they stated will jeopardize human health and safety. The comments are addressed in our final EA.

The final EA contains the results of APHIS' review and evaluation of the comments received during the comment period on the draft EA, draft PPRA, and the petition. The final EA provides the public with documentation of APHIS' review and analysis of any potential environmental impacts associated with the determination of nonregulated status of GMB151 soybean. The EA was prepared in accordance with: (1) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ), (2) regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality for implementing the procedural provisions of NEPA (40 CFR parts 1500-1508), (3) USDA regulations implementing NEPA (7 CFR part 1b), and (4) APHIS' NEPA Implementing Procedures (7 CFR part 372). Based on our EA, the response to public comments, and other pertinent scientific data, APHIS has reached a FONSI with regard to the preferred alternative identified in the EA (to make a determination of nonregulated status of GMB151 soybean).

Based on APHIS' analysis of field and laboratory data submitted by BASF, references provided in the petition, peer-reviewed publications, information analyzed in the EA, the PPRA, comments provided by the public, and information provided in APHIS' response to those public comments, APHIS has determined that GMB151 soybean is unlikely to pose a plant pest risk and therefore is no longer subject to our regulations governing the importation, interstate movement, or release into the environment of organisms developed using genetic engineering.

Copies of the signed determination document, PPRA, final EA, and FONSI, as well as the previously published petition and supporting documents, are available as indicated in the ADDRESSES and FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT sections of this notice.

Authority: 7 U.S.C. 7701-7772 and 7781-7786; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.

The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (H.R. 133) authorized USDA to conduct a demonstration program for the preservation and revitalization of the Section 514 (Off-FLH) and 515 programs authorized by the Housing Act of 1949; 7 CFR part 3560.

The Agency encourages applicants to consider projects that will advance the following key priorities:

• Assisting Rural communities recover economically from the impacts of the COVID 19 pandemic, particularly disadvantaged communities.

• Ensuring all rural Residents have equitable access to RD programs and benefits for RD funded projects.

• Reducing climate pollution and increasing resilience to the impacts of climate change through economic support to rural communities.

For further information, visit https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points.

This Notice solicits applications for deferrals of any closed Section 514 (Off-FLH) or 515 Agency loan obligated on or after October 1, 1991 for the purpose of revitalization and preservation of existing properties. Under this NOSA, eligible loan payments can be deferred for 20 years. The cash flow from the deferred RHS direct loan principal and interest payment will be deposited to the RHS project's reserve account or as directed by the Agency to meet the specific project's present and future physical needs as determined by the Capital Needs Assessment (CNA) concurrently approved by the Agency. At the end of this Notice, a CNA addendum is provided with detailed instructions to assist the applicant in completing CNA reports, expected useful life tables, and forms. The deferral may also support new debt payments being incurred for repair/rehabilitation loans and/or to reduce tenant rents as determined by the Agency to be in the best interests of the tenants and Government. There are no other MPR tools or forms of assistance available under this NOSA.

A deferral of principal and interest payments for 20 years of any closed Section 514 (Off-FLH) or Section 515 Agency loan(s) that was obligated on or after October 1, 1991. Loans obligated prior to October 1, 1991 are not eligible for deferral under this NOSA. If there are multiple loans on the account, all loans must be obligated on or after October 1, 1991 to be eligible. If the account has a loan(s) obligated prior to October 1, 1991, the account/property is not eligible for MPR. The total of all liens against the project, with the exception of Agency deferred debt, cannot exceed the Agency-approved security value of the project. All Agency debt, either in first lien position or in a subordinated lien position, must be secured by the project, except deferred debt, which is not included in the Agency's total lien position for computation of the Agency's security value in the MPR program.

(1) The deferral will assure the continued feasibility of preserving needed rental units based on criteria described in 7 CFR 3560.57(a)(3).

(2) Transfers with MPR Deferrals must be processed through the MFH Production and Preservation Division in accordance with the transfers regulations.

(3) All terms and conditions of the deferral will be described in the MPR Conditional Commitment (MPR-CC), the MPR Debt Deferral Agreement, and any associated transfer approval.

(4) A balloon payment of principal and accrued interest (deferral balloon) will be due at the end of the deferral period, or upon default pursuant to the terms contained therein. Interest will accrue at the promissory note rate. If applicable, the subsidy will be applied as set out in the Agency's Form RD 3560-9, “Multiple Family Housing Interest Credit Agreement.”

Any questions on eligibility for deferral should be directed via email at: RD.MPR@usda.gov . Please include in the subject line “MPR NOSA Eligibility” and the name and address of the property in question.

MPR deferrals may be approved for project consolidations for stay-in-owner or transfer transactions in accordance with 7 CFR part 3560 providing the following are met:

(1) All projects being consolidated must be submitted on one application and located in the same market area as defined in 7 CFR 3560.11;

(2) Projects must be of the same type, managed under one management plan and one management agreement, and in sufficient proximity to permit convenient and efficient management of the property.

The Agency will require a re-amortization of the existing loan(s). MPR debt deferrals authorized in conjunction with transfers or subordinations will become effective upon completion of all planned repairs and rehabilitation deemed acceptable to the RHS approval official as outlined in the MPR conditional commitment.

Special conditions apply to transfers. Under the provisions of 7 CFR 3560.406, debt deferral for any eligible loans(s) as described herein may be included in the transfer underwriting under the following conditions:

1. The new owner, including all principals, sharing an identity of interest (IOI) with the selling entity in any other RHS properties, is fully compliant with all Agency requirements and conditions, unless there is an Agency approved workout agreement as specified in 7 CFR 3560.453 in place and on schedule for at least six (6) months prior to the date of application.

2. The maximum return-to-owner-(RTO) will be determined prior to applying the deferral.

(1) For the purpose of this Notice, “Applicant” includes the applying entity ( e.g., ABC LLP) and the entity's principals ( e.g., John Doe, General Partner of ABC LLP; XYZ, Inc., General Partner of ABC LLP; John Doe Jr., President of XYZ, Inc.). In the case of a single asset entity that is not a natural person, the Agency will rely solely on the qualifications of the natural person(s) managing/controlling the entity (whether directly or indirectly through other entities) to establish the applicant's eligibility.

(2) Eligible applicants for the MPR program include individuals, partnerships or limited partnerships, consumer cooperatives, trusts, State or local public agencies, corporations, limited liability companies, non-profit organizations, Indian tribes, associations, or other entities authorized by the Agency that own (stay in owner) or will be the owner of the project for which an application for transfer of ownership by the Agency has been submitted.

(3) Eligibility requirements include substantial and verifiable favorable experience and creditworthiness as required by the respective MFH program regulations specified in 7 CFR part 3560, with the exception that stay-in owner applicants are not required to meet the test for other credit for MPR purposes as stated in 7 CFR 3560.55(a)(2). Appropriate credit reports for the applicant, entity and principals will be submitted and considered in both the MPR and transfer processing eligibility determination as defined in Section III. Application and Submission Information B. 9. below.

(1) All applicants must meet the respective (Section 515 or 514 Off-FLH) requirements for initial and/or current (continuing) borrower eligibility and program participation. Initial eligibility will be determined as of the date of the application filing deadline. The Agency reserves the right to discontinue processing any application due to material changes in the applicant's status occurring at any time after the initial eligibility determination.

(2) Eligibility also includes the continued ability of the borrower/applicant to provide acceptable management and will include an evaluation of any current outstanding deficiencies. Any outstanding violations or extended open operational findings associated with the applicant/borrower or any affiliated entity having an identity of interest (IOI) with the project ownership and which are recorded in the Agency's automated Multi-Family Information System (MFIS), may preclude further processing of any MPR applications unless there is a current, approved workout agreement in accordance with § 3560.453 in place and the plan has been satisfactorily followed for a minimum of six (6) consecutive months, as determined by the Agency.

(3) In the event of an MFH transfer, the proposed transferee must submit evidence of site control together with a copy of the borrower's written request signed by both the proposed buyer and the seller describing the general terms of the proposed transfer. Evidence may include a valid and unexpired Purchase Agreement, Letter of Intent, or other documentation acceptable to the Agency. Transfers will be processed in accordance with the guidelines of § 3560.406.

(4) All applicants are subject to the applicable requirements of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved USDA Suspension and Debarment, and Drug-Free Workplace Certifications as prescribed under Title 2 CFR parts 417 and 421.

(1) Project loans must have been obligated on or after October 1, 1991. Any projects with a loan(s) obligated prior to October 1, 1991, are not eligible for this MPR demonstration program.

(2) Projects must have open physical finding(s) identified by a recent physical inspection and recorded by the Agency. Furthermore, the open physical finding(s) of record must be the result of circumstances beyond owner and/or management control and/or must be uncorrected due to insufficient operating income/reserve funds necessary to address the outstanding physical need(s) of the project. Any projects with open physical findings resulting from deferred maintenance, as recorded by the Agency, are not eligible for this MPR demonstration program. Physical deficiencies identified by the Agency or another lending organization ( i.e., HUD, Housing Finance Agency, etc.) or reported by local code enforcement of imminent threats to the health and safety of tenants that have not been recorded but are documented by the applicant and provided as part of the application, may be considered when determining project eligibility.

For an application to be deemed eligible, applicants must also meet the criterion of at least two of the Agency's three key priorities (COVID-19, Equity and Climate). To help with your understanding of the Key Priorities and how your property could qualify, please refer to the key priority eligibility information below, and then on the following website for details: https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points. Please note for purposes of this NOSA, the Key Priorities as described below and on the website, are being used solely for eligibility purposes and no points will be awarded. All eligible applications will be accepted.

(1) COVID-19—the project must be located in or serving one of the top 10% of counties or county equivalents based upon the county risk score in the United States. The dashboard located at https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points will be used to determine if a project is eligible to apply based upon its location. Applicants must use the dashboard to verify if the project is located within one of the top 10% of counties or county equivalents based upon the county risk score in the United States and provide documentation from the dashboard within the application to verify the location in order to be eligible.

(2) Equity—the project must be located in or servicing a community with a score of 0.75 or above on the CDC Social Vulnerability Index. The dashboard located at https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points will be used to determine if a project is eligible to apply based upon its location. Applicants must use the dashboard to verify if the project is located in or servicing a community with a score of 0.75 or above on the CDC Social Vulnerability Index and provide documentation from the dashboard within the application to verify the location in order to be eligible.

(3) Climate Impacts—applicants may be eligible through one of two methods:

a. The project must be located in or serving coal, oil and gas, and power plant communities whose economic well-being ranks in the most distressed tier of the Distressed Communities Index. The dashboard located at https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points will be used to determine if a project is eligible to apply based upon its location. Applicants must use the dashboard to verify if the project is located within or serving coal, oil and gas, and power plant communities and whose economic well-being ranks in the most distressed tier of the Distressed Communities Index and provide documentation from the dashboard within the application to verify the location in order to be eligible.

b. demonstrate through a written narrative how proposed climate-impact projects improve the livelihoods of community residents and meet pollution mitigation or clean energy goals.

(1) All materials must be submitted via CloudVault.

(2) The process for submitting an electronic application to RHS via CloudVault is outlined below:

a. At least three business days prior to the application deadline, the applicant must email RHS a request to create a shared folder in CloudVault. The email must be sent to the following address: RD.MPR@usda.gov. The email must contain the following information:

(i) Subject line: MPR NOSA Submission.

(ii) Body of email: Applicant Name, Applicant Contact Information, Project State, Project Name, and Project City.

(iii) Request language: “Please create a shared CloudVault folder so that we may submit our application documents.”

(b) Once the email request to create a shared CloudVault folder has been received, a shared folder will be created within two business days. When the shared CloudVault folder is created by RHS, the system will automatically send an email to the applicant's submission email with a link to the shared folder. All required application documents in accordance with this NOSA must be loaded into the shared CloudVault folder. When the submission deadline is reached, the applicant's access to the shared CloudVault folder will be removed. Any document uploaded to the shared CloudVault folder after the application deadline will not be reviewed or considered.

(1) The applicant must upload a Table of Contents for the documents that have been uploaded to the shared CloudVault folder.

(2) Applications must include all applicable information requested on the MPR application form (Form Approved: OMB No. 0575-0190) to be considered complete. The application form can be found at http://www.rd.usda.gov/programs-services/housing-preservation-revitalization-demonstration-loans-grants. Click on the To Apply tab to access the “Fiscal Year 2022 Application for MFH Preservation and Revitalization Demonstration Program (MPR).”

(3) Responding entity's Dun and Bradstreet Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number, registration in the System for Award Management (SAM) prior to submitting an application pursuant to 2 CFR 25.200(b), and other supporting information to substantiate their legal authority and good standing. Applicants can receive a DUNS number at no cost by calling the dedicated toll-free DUNS Number request line at (866) 705-5711 or via the internet at http://www.dnb.com/. Additional information concerning this requirement can be obtained on the grants.gov website at http://www.grants.gov. All applicants must be registered in SAM prior to submitting an application, unless determined exempt under 2 CFR 25.110. Federal award recipients must maintain an active SAM registration during which time they have an active Federal award or an application under consideration by the Agency. The applicant must ensure that the information in the database is current, accurate, and complete. Applicants must ensure they complete the Financial Assistance General Certifications and Representations in SAM. Similarly, all recipients of Federal financial assistance are required to report information about first-tier sub-awards and executive compensation in accordance with 2 CFR part 170, so long as an entity respondent does not have an exception under 2 CFR 170.110(b), they must have the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the reporting requirements should the responding entity receive federal assistance. See 2 CFR 170.200(b).

(4) Applicant must provide a narrative describing the transaction in detail of how the deferral-only MPR tool will benefit their transaction. List any adverse impacts or physical failures ( i.e., natural causes not foreseen, damage not reimbursable by insurance or disaster loan or grant, etc.)

(5) Applicant must complete the Form SF 424, “Application for Federal Assistance,” which can be found and completed online at the following website: https://apply07.grants.gov/apply/forms/readonly/SF424_2_1-V2.1.pdf.

(6) Provide evidence of site control for all transfers of ownership.

(7) For Section 515 projects, the average physical vacancy rate for the 12 months preceding this Notice's application submission date can be no more than 10 percent for projects consisting of 16 or more revenue units and no more than 15 percent for projects less than 16 revenue units. If the applicant is seeking an exception to this requirement or there are concerns about the market, the applicant must submit an explanation as to the circumstances affecting the vacancy rate. The Agency will request additional information if the vacancy rates along with a current market study to support the need of the project and its continued financial feasibility. The Agency will request additional information if the vacancy rates exceed the percentages stated above, which may include a current market study, to assess the need of the project and its continued financial feasibility. To further demonstrate there is a continuing need for the RHS project, the Agency may request waiting lists and/or confirmation of a housing shortage by local housing agencies. The market data must show a clear need and demand for the project. The Agency will determine whether the proposal has market feasibility based on the data provided by the applicant. Any costs associated with the completion of the market data is NOT an eligible program project expense. If a project consolidation is involved, the consolidation will remain eligible so long as the average vacancy rate for each individual project meets the occupancy standard noted in this paragraph each project must meet the average vacancy rate outlined above.

(8) For Sections 514/516 Off-FLH projects, since this program is typically seasonal which affects the vacancy rate, rather than an average physical vacancy rate as noted in section (ii) above, a positive cash flow for the previous full three (3) years of operation is required unless an exception applies as described section III(A)(3), above for projects with an approved work out plan.

(9) Submit a current (no older than six months from the date of issuance) combination comprehensive credit report for both the entity and the actual individual principals, partners, members, etc. within the applicant entity, including any sub-entities, who are responsible for controlling the ownership and operations of the entity. Although a commercial credit report for a new entity may have limited information available, a combination report ties the entity and individual principal(s) together under the applicant/borrower name based on the credit report agency's ability to provide a single reporting source. However, if any of the principals in the applicant entity are not natural persons ( i.e., corporations, other limited liability companies, trusts, etc.) separate commercial credit reports must be submitted on those organizations as well. Individual personal consumer credit reports are not required if a combination report is being provided. Only Credit reports provided by accredited major credit bureaus will be accepted. In the past, the Agency has required the applicant to submit the credit report fee. In lieu of the applicant submitting the fee, the Agency will require the applicant to provide the credit report. It is the Agency's expectation that this change will create an efficiency in the application process that did not exist, which should assist with streamlining the application process for the applicant.

Failure to submit all required documents, forms and information prior to the deadline will result in an incomplete application, the application will be rejected and the applicant will be notified of appeal rights under 7 CFR part 11. Applicants are reminded that all submissions must be received by the deadline. Applications received after the deadline will not be evaluated. Upon request, RHS will provide the responding entities with a written acknowledgement of receipt.

The Agency will conduct an initial screening for eligibility within 90 business days of the NOSA closing deadline. Transfer applicants must meet Agency eligibility, application, and approval process requirements outlined in HB-3-3560, Chapter 7.

Eligibility determination is not an award or commitment for federal assistance. If the application is not accepted for further processing due to being incomplete or ineligible, the applicant will be notified of appeal rights under 7 CFR part 11. Applications that are deemed eligible but are not selected for further processing ( i.e., financially infeasible, etc.) will be withdrawn from processing and the applicant will be notified of appeal rights under 7 CFR part 11.

Eligible applicants accepted for further processing that do not include a project transfer (stay-in owner) will be required to submit a CNA in accordance with 7 CFR 3560.103(c) and the addendum at the end of this NOSA. The timeframe for submitting the CNA will be included in the applicant's selection letter. The CNA will be used to underwrite the proposal to determine financial feasibility. The CNA must be approved by the Agency prior to the Agency underwriting the transaction. Stay-in owner applicants can use property reserve account funds to pay for CNA costs if approved by the servicing specialist assigned to the property. Servicing specialist assignments by property can be found at: https://www.sc.egov.usda.gov/data/MFH.html. A CNA is comprised of nine main sections:

• Definitions;

• Contract Addendum;

• Requirements and Statement of Work (SOW) for a CNA;

• The CNA Review Process;

• Guidance for the Multi-Family Housing (MFH) CNA Recipient Regarding Contracting for a CNA;

• Revising an Accepted CNA During Underwriting;

• Updating a CNA;

• Incorporating a Property's Rehabilitation into a CNA; and

• Repair and Replacement Schedule.

Transfer applicants must comply with the requirements of 7 CFR 3560.406 and Chapter 7 of HB-3-3560, including all Agency approval and closing conditions prior to closing the MPR debt deferral. The Agency will provide additional guidance to the applicant and request information and documents necessary to complete the underwriting and review process within 45 days of the Agency's selection letter. Since the character of each application may vary substantially depending on the type of transaction proposed, additional information may be requested as appropriate.

The feasibility and structure of each proposal will be based on the Agency's underwriting and the following parameters:

(1) For applications submitted under this Notice, the Agency will conduct eligibility determinations and eligible applicants will be processed accordingly.

(2) Applications marked as any of the following will be prioritized for the initial review and processing. Priority projects will have an initial review completed within 30-60 business days of the NOSA closing deadline:

a. “Deferral needed as part of a pending transfer”

b. “stay-in owner transaction with third-party funding that will expire within 120 days”

c. “project with urgent health/safety/accessibility issues to address”

d. “projects with an average physical vacancy rate of no more than 5% for the 12 months preceding this Notice's application submission date with a demonstrated waiting list”

e. “projects that meet all three of the Agency's key priorities (COVID-19, Equity and Climate)”.

(3) Upon completion of RHS underwriting, MPR debt deferral offers will be presented to successful applicants as a conditional commitment (CC) and the Letter of Conditions (LOC). These documents will outline the borrower's requirement for executing and recording an Agency-approved Restrictive-Use Covenant (RUC) for a period equivalent to the remaining term of any non-deferred existing loan or the remaining term of any existing RUC, whichever ends later.

(4) Stay-in-owner applicants that have secured third party funding that will add new hard debt in an amount more than the amount approved to be deferred, will require an appraisal to ensure the property remains secure before the transaction will be approved.

(5) Transfer applicants requesting MPR debt deferral will be presented an opportunity to accept or reject the offered terms and conditions for such deferral in the MPR CC. Additional transfer requirements will be outlined in a Transfer Letter of Conditions.

(6) If no offer is made or if the applicant fails to accept or reject the offer presented, the application will be rejected, and appeal rights will be given.

(7) Closing of MPR offers will occur within six months of the accepted MPR CC unless extended in writing by the Agency.

(8) Applicants will be informed of any proposals that are determined to be financially infeasible. Any proposal denied by the Agency will be returned to the applicant, and the applicant will be given appeal rights pursuant to 7 CFR part 11.

(9) Any MPR applications not approved one year from the selection notice date will be withdrawn, unless an extension is approved by the Agency. Applicants may reapply for federal assistance under future Notices as they may be made available.

If third party funding sources have not yet been committed, the Agency may issue a conditional approval contingent upon receipt of firm funding commitments consistent with the terms used in the PAT attached to the Conditional Commitment to underwrite the transaction. Agency approval will be withdrawn if a satisfactory firm commitment is not received as the transaction cannot close until a firm commitment is provided. Any changes to the proposed sources that cause substantial material changes will require re-evaluation of the transaction by the National Office Underwriter and, in some cases, may cause approval to be rescinded and/or a new concurrence to be issued.

The information collection requirements contained in this Notice have received approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under Control Number 0575-0190.

In accordance with Federal civil rights laws and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Mission Areas, agencies, staff offices, employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.

Program information may be made available in languages other than English. Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication to obtain program information ( e.g., Braille, large print, audiotape, American Sign Language) should contact the responsible Mission Area, agency, or staff office; the USDA TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TTY); or the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.

To file a program discrimination complaint, a complainant should complete a Form AD-3027, USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which can be obtained online at https://www.ocio.usda.gov/document/ad-3027, from any USDA office, by calling (866) 632-9992, or by writing a letter addressed to USDA. The letter must contain the complainant's name, address, telephone number, and a written description of the alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights (ASCR) about the nature and date of an alleged civil rights violation. The completed AD-3027 form or letter must be submitted to USDA by:

(1) Mail: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410; or

(2) Fax: (833) 256-1665 or (202) 690-7442; or

(3) Email: program.intake@usda.gov .

A Capital Needs Assessment (CNA) provides a repair schedule for the property in its present condition, indicating repairs and replacements necessary for a property to function properly and efficiently over a span of 20 years.

The purpose of this Addendum is to provide clarification and guidance on the Rural Development CNA process. The document includes general instructions used in completing CNA reports, specific instructions on how to use the expected useful life tables, and a set of applicable forms including the Terms of Reference form; Systems and Conditions forms; and Evaluator's Summary forms.

The following definitions are provided to clarify terms used in conjunction with the CNA process:

CNA Recipient: This will be who enters into the contract with the CNA Provider. The Recipient can be either the property owner or applicant/transferee.

“As-Is” CNA: This type of CNA is prepared for an existing MFH property and reports the physical condition including all Section 504 Accessibility and Health and Safety items of the property based on that moment in time. This CNA can be useful for many program purposes other than the MPR Demonstration program such as: An ownership transfer, determining whether to offer pre-payment aversion incentive and evaluating or resizing the reserve account. The “as-is” report will include all major repairs and likely some minor repairs that are typically associated with the major work: Each major component, system, equipment item, etc. inside and outside; building(s); property; access and amenities in their present condition. A schedule of those items showing the anticipated repair or replacement timeframe and the associated hard costs for the ensuing 20-year term of the CNA serves as the basis or starting point in evaluating the underwriting that will be necessary to determine the feasibility and future viability of the property to continue serving the needs of eligible tenants.

“Post Rehabilitation” CNA: This type of CNA builds on the findings of the accepted “as-is” CNA and is typically prepared for a project that will be funded for major rehabilitation. The Post Rehabilitation CNA is adjusted to reflect the work intended to be performed during the rehabilitation. The assessment must be developed from the rehabilitation project plans and any construction contract documents to reflect the full extent of the planned rehabilitation.

Life Cycle Cost Analysis (LCCA): A LCCA is an expanded version of a CNA and is defined at 7 CFR 3560.11. The LCCA will determine the initial purchase cost, the operation and maintenance cost, the “estimated useful life”, and the replacement cost of an item selected for the project. The LCCA provides the borrower with the information on repair or replacement costs and timeframes over a 20-year period. It also provides information that will assist with a more informed component selection and can provide the borrower with a more complete financial plan based on the predictive maintenance needs associated with those components. If the newly constructed project has already been completed without any previous LCCA requirements, either an “as-is” CNA or LCCA can be provided to establish program mandated reserve deposits. An Architect or Engineer is the best qualified person(s) to prepare this report.

Consolidation: In some circumstances, RD may permit two or more properties to be consolidated as defined in 7 CFR 3560.410 when it is in the best interests of the Government. The CNA Recipient must consult with the RD loan official before engaging the CNA Provider in any case where the CNA intends to encompass more than a single (one) existing RD property to determine if a consolidated CNA may be acceptable for RD underwriting.

RD uses a Contract Addendum to supplement the basic CNA Agreement or “Contract”, between the CNA Recipient and CNA Provider, with additional details and conditions. It can be found in Attachment A, Addendum to Capital Needs Assessment Contract and must accompany all contracts executed between the CNA Recipient and CNA Provider for CNAs used in RD transactions. If any conflicts arise between the “Contract” and “Contract Addendum”, the “Contract Addendum” will supersede.

The Contract Addendum identifies the responsibilities and requirements for both the CNA Recipient and the CNA Provider. To assure proper completion of the contract documents the following key provisions must be completed:

a. The Contract Addendum will include the contract base amount for the CNA Provider's cost for services on page A-2, and provisions for additional services to establish the total price for the CNA.

b. Item I e, will require an itemized listing for any additional anticipated services and their unit costs including future updates and revisions that may be required before the CNA is accepted by RD. Note: Any cost for updating a CNA must be included, in the “additional services” subpart, of the original CNA Contract.

c. The selection criteria boxes in II a, will identify the type of CNA being provided.

d. In III a, the required language for the blank on “report format” is: “ USDA RD CNA Template, current RD version, in Microsoft Excel format”. This format will import directly into the RD underwriting template for loan underwriting purposes.

Minimum requirements for a CNA acceptable to RD can be found in Attachment B, Capital Needs Assessment Statement of Work. This is supplemented by Attachment C, Fannie Mae Physical Needs Assessment Guidance to the Property Evaluator. To resolve any inconsistency in the two documents, Attachment B, the CNA SOW, will in all cases prevail over Attachment C, Fannie Mae Physical Needs Assessment Guidance to the Property Evaluator. (For example, on page C-2 of Attachment C, Fannie Mae defines the “term” as “term of the mortgage and two years beyond”. For USDA, the “term” will be 20 years, as defined in the CNA SOW.)

Attachment B includes the required qualifications for the CNA Provider, the required SOW for a CNA assignment, and general distribution and review instructions to the CNA Provider. The CNA Providers must be able to report the current physical condition of the property and not base their findings on the financial condition of either the property or the CNA Recipient.

Attachment C is a three-part document RD has permission to use as reference to the CNA process throughout the RD MFH program efforts. The three key components of this Attachment are: (1) Guidance to the property evaluator; (2) expected useful life tables; and (3) a set of forms.

An acceptable CNA must appropriately address within the report and narrative all Accessibility Laws and Requirements that apply to Section 515 and Sections 514/516 MFH properties. The CNA Provider must assess how the property meets the requirements of accessibility to persons with disabilities in accordance the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (UFAS) and Section 504 Accessibility Requirements. It is the responsibility of the Provider to inspect and verify whether all accessibility features are compliant.

A CNA used by RD will be reviewed by the designated RD CNA Reviewer with experience in construction, rehabilitation, and repair of MFH properties, especially as it relates to repair and replacement.

A CNA report must be obtained by the CNA Recipient from an independent third-party CNA Provider that has no identity of interest with the property owner, management agent, applicant/transferee or any other principle or affiliate defined in 7 CFR 3560.11. The CNA Recipient will contract with the CNA Provider and is therefore the client of the provider. However, the CNA Recipient must consult with RD, before contracting with a CNA Provider to review Guidance Regarding Contracting for a CNA. The RD CNA Reviewer will evaluate a proposed agreement or engagement letter between the CNA Recipient and the CNA Provider using Attachment G, Capital Needs Assessment Guidance to the Reviewer, prior to reviewing any CNA report. Unacceptable CNA proposals, contracts or reports will be returned to the CNA Recipient for appropriate corrections before they will be used for any underwriting determinations.

The CNA Reviewer will also review the cost of the CNA contract. The proposed fee for the CNA must be approved as an eligible housing project expense under 7 CFR 3560.103 (c) for the agreement to be acceptable and paid using project funds. In most cases, the CNA service contract amount has not exceeded $3,500 based on the Agency's most recent cost analysis.

Borrowers and applicants are encouraged to obtain multiple bids in all cases. However, there is no Agency requirement to select the “low bidder” under this UL and the CNA Recipient may select a CNA Provider that will provide the best value, based on qualifications, as well as price after reviewing references and past work.

If the CNA is funded by the property's reserve account, a minimum of two bids is required if the CNA service contract amount is estimated to exceed $5,000 as specified in HB-2-3560, Chapter 4, Paragraph 4.17 B. If the CNA contract under this UL is funded by another source, or will be under $5,000, a single bid is acceptable.

If the proposed agreement is acceptable, the reviewer will advise the appropriate RD servicing official, who will in turn inform the CNA Recipient. If the proposed agreement is unacceptable, the reviewer will notify the servicing official, who will notify the CNA Recipient and the CNA Provider in writing and identify actions necessary to make the proposed CNA agreement acceptable to RD. Upon receipt of a satisfactory agreement, the RD CNA Reviewer should advise the appropriate RD servicing official or underwriting official to accept the proposal.

The CNA Reviewer will review the preliminary CNA report submitted to RD by the CNA Provider using Attachment G and write the preliminary CNA review report. During the CNA review process, the CNA Reviewer and underwriter will consult with the servicing field office most familiar with the property for their input and knowledge of the property. Any differences of opinion that exist regarding the findings must be mutually addressed by RD staff. If corrections are needed, the loan official will notify the CNA Recipient, in writing, of any revisions necessary to make the CNA report acceptable to RD. The CNA Reviewer will review the final CNA report and deliver it to the loan official. The final report must be signed by both the CNA Reviewer and the loan official (underwriter). Upon signature by both, this report becomes the “accepted” CNA indicating the actual condition of the property at the time of the CNA inspection—a “snapshot” in time—and will be marked “Current Property Condition” for indefinite retention in the borrower case file.

A CNA Provider should be fully aware of the intended use for the CNA because it can impact the calculations necessary to perform adequate accessibility assessments and can impact the acceptability of the report by RD. Unacceptable reports will not be used for any RD underwriting purposes even though they may otherwise be acceptable to the CNA Recipient or another third-party lender or participant in the transaction being proposed.

CNA Recipients are responsible for choosing the CNA Provider they wish to contract with, and for delivering an acceptable CNA to Rural Development. RD in no way guarantees the performance any Provider nor the acceptability of the Provider's work.

CNA Recipients are advised to request an information package from several CNA Providers and to evaluate the information before selecting a provider. At a minimum, the information package should include a list of qualifications, a list of references, a client list, and a sample CNA report. However, the CNA Recipient may request any additional information they feel necessary to evaluate potential candidates and select a suitable provider for this service. Consideration for the type of CNA required should be part of the CNA Recipient's selection criteria and inserted into the contract language as well. The necessary skill set to perform the “as-is” versus the Post Rehabilitation CNA or a LCCA needs to be considered carefully. Knowledge of the accessibility laws and standards and the ability to read and understand plans and specifications should also be among the critical skill elements to consider.

Attachment A, Contract Addendum must be submitted to RD with the contract and signed by the CNA Recipient and CNA Provider. The proposed agreement with the CNA Recipient and CNA Provider must meet RD's qualification requirements for both the provider and the CNA SOW, as specified in Attachment B, Capital Needs Assessment Statement of Work. RD must review the proposed agreement between the CNA Recipient and the CNA Provider, and concur only if all of the RD requirements and conditions are met. (See the previous Section 3 of this UL, The CNA Review Process. )

Please note: It is in the CNA Recipient's best interest to furnish the CNA Provider with the most current and up-to-date property information for a more comprehensive and thorough CNA report. RD recommends that the CNA Recipient conduct a pre-inspection meeting with the Owner, Property Manager, maintenance persons familiar with the property, CNA Provider, and Agency Representatives at the site. This meeting will allow a forum to discuss specific details about the property that may not be readily apparent to all parties involved during the review process, as well as making some physical observations on-site. Certain issues that may not be evident to the CNA Provider due to weather conditions at the time of review should also be discussed and included in the report. Additionally, other issues that may need to be addressed include environmental hazards, structural defects, and complex accessibility issues. It is imperative that the Agency be fully aware of the current physical condition of the property at the time the CNA is prepared. An Agency representative must make every effort to attend the CNA Providers on-site inspection of the property unless the Agency has performed a physical inspection of the property within the previous 12 months.

This pre-inspection meeting also allows the CNA Provider to discuss with the CNA Recipient total number of units to be inspected, as well as identifying any specific units that will be inspected in detail. The minimum number of inspected units required by the Agency for an acceptable CNA is 50 percent. However, inspecting a larger number of units generally provides more accurate information to identify the specific line items to be addressed over the “term” being covered by the CNA report. CNA Recipients are encouraged to negotiate with the CNA Provider to achieve inspection of all units whenever possible. The ultimate goal for the CNA Recipient and CNA Provider, as well as the Agency, is to produce the most accurate “baseline or snapshot” of current physical property conditions for use as a tool in projecting future reserve account needs.

During transaction underwriting and analysis, presentation of the information contained in the “accepted” CNA may need to be revised by RD to address financing and other programmatic issues. The loan underwriter and the CNA Reviewer will work together to determine if revisions are necessary to meet the financial and physical needs of the property, and established RD underwriting or servicing standards and principals. These may involve shifting individual repair line items reported in the CNA, moving work from year to year, or other adjustments that will improve cash flow. The revised underwriting CNA will be used to establish reserve funding schedules as well as operating budget preparation and analysis and will be maintained by RD as supporting documentation for the loan underwriting.

The initial CNA, prepared by the CNA Provider, will be maintained as an independent third-party record of the current condition of the property at the beginning of the 20-year cycle.

Original CNAs will be maintained in the case file, clearly marked as either “Current Property Condition” (“As-is”), “Post Rehabilitation Condition”, or “Revised Underwriting/Replacement Schedule”, as applicable. Note: The CNA Provider is not the appropriate party to “revise” a CNA which has already been approved by the CNA Recipient and concurred with by the Agency. The CNA Provider's independent opinion was the basis of the “As is” or “Post Rehabilitation” CNA. The CNA developed for underwriting may only be revised by RD staff during the underwriting process or as part of a post-closing servicing action.

A completed CNA more than a year old at the time of the RD CNA review and approval must be “updated' prior to RD approval. Likewise, if at the time of underwriting the CNA is more than a year old (but less than two years old), it must be updated before the transaction can be approved.

To update a CNA, the CNA Provider must review property changes (repairs, improvements, or failures) that have occurred since the date of the original CNA site visit with the CNA Recipient, review costs and quantities, and submit an updated CNA for approval. However, if the site visit for the CNA occurred more than two years prior to the loan underwriting, the CNA Provider should perform a new site visit to verify the current project condition.

Once the CNA has been updated, the CNA Provider will include a statement noting “This is an updated CNA of the earlier CNA dated ___,” at the beginning of the CNA's Narrative section. The CNA Provider should reprint the CNA with a new date for the updated CNA, and provide a new electronic copy to the CNA Recipient and RD.

If the CNA age exceeds 2years at the time of the RD CNA review and approval, the CNA Provider will need to repeat the site visit process to re-evaluate the condition of the property. The original report can remain the basis of the findings.

A CNA provides a repair schedule for the property in its present condition, indicating repairs and replacements necessary for a property to function properly and efficiently over a span of 20 years. It is not an estimate of existing rehabilitation needs, or an estimate of rehabilitation costs. If any rehabilitation of a MFH development is planned as part of the proposed transaction, a rehabilitation repair list (also called a “Scope of Work”) must be developed independently based on the CNA repair schedule. This rehabilitation repair list may be developed by the CNA Recipient, a project Architect, or an outside party (such as the CNA Provider, when qualified) hired by the CNA Recipient.

The CNA Recipient must not use repair line-item costs taken from the CNA to develop the rehabilitation cost estimates for the rehabilitation loan, as these costs will not be accurate. The repair costs in a CNA are based on estimated costs for the property. Typically, these costs include the labor, materials, overhead and profit, but do not include applicable “soft costs”. For example, for CNA purposes, the probable cost is to send a repairman out, remove an appliance, and put a new one in its place. For rehabilitation cost estimates, the CNA Recipient typically intends to hire a general contractor to oversee and supervise the rehabilitation work, which is then considered a “soft cost”. The cost of rehabilitation includes the costs for that general contractor, the general contractor's requirements, the cost of a project Architect (if one is used), tenant relocation (if needed), and interim financing (if used), which are considered “soft costs” attributed to the rehabilitation costs for the project.

If a “Post Rehabilitation” CNA is required and authorized by RD, a copy of the rehabilitation repair list or SOW must be provided to the CNA Provider. The CNA Provider will prepare a “Post Rehabilitation” CNA indicating what repairs are planned for the property in the coming 20 years based on conditions after the rehabilitation is completed. Items to be replaced during rehabilitation that will need to be replaced again within the 20 years, such as appliances, will be included in the “Post Rehabilitation” CNA. Items that will not need replacement during the coming 20 years, such as a new roof, will not need to be calculated in the “Post Rehabilitation” CNA. The line item should not be removed from the CNA, but the cost data should be zeroed out. Appropriate comments should be included in the CNA report to acknowledge the SOW or rehabilitation/repairs that were considered.

A CNA is not a formal repair and replacement schedule and cannot be used as an exact replacement schedule. A CNA is an estimate of the anticipated replacement needs for the property over time, and the associated replacement costs. The goal of a CNA is to estimate the replacement times based on the Expected Useful Life (EUL) to assure funds are available to replace equipment as it is needed. Hopefully, materials will be well maintained and last longer than estimated in the CNA. However, the CNA cannot be used to mandate replacement times for the identified building components. The RD underwriter may find it necessary to adjust the proposed replacement schedule during the course of the underwriting to allow for an adequate Annual Deposit to Replacement Reserves (ADRR) payment that will sustain the property over a 20-year period and keep rents below the maximum rents that are allowed.

This meeting is available to the public through the WebEx link above. If joining only via phone, callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Individuals who are deaf, deafblind and hard of hearing may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the call-in number found through registering at the web link provided above for the meeting.

Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the respective meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Victoria Moreno at vmoreno@usccr.gov. All written comments received will be available to the public.

Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Unit at (434) 515-0204. Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at the www.facadatabase.gov. Persons interested in the work of this advisory committee are advised to go to the Commission's website, www.usccr.gov, or to contact the Regional Programs Unit at the above phone number or email address.

This meeting is available to the public through the WebEx link above. If joining only via phone, callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Individuals who are deaf, deafblind and hard of hearing may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the call-in number found through registering at the web link provided above for the meeting.

Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the respective meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Victoria Moreno at vmoreno@usccr.gov. All written comments received will be available to the public.

Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Unit at (202) 809-9618. Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at the www.facadatabase.gov. Persons interested in the work of this advisory committee are advised to go to the Commission's website, www.usccr.gov, or to contact the Regional Programs Unit at the above phone number or email address.

On February 1, 2022, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) initiated a countervailing duty (CVD) investigation of imports of barium chloride from India. 1 Currently, the preliminary determination is due no later than April 7, 2022.

Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires Commerce to issue the preliminary determination in a countervailing duty investigation within 65 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation. However, section 703(c)(1) of the Act permits Commerce to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation if: (A) The petitioner  2 makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) Commerce concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination. Under 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner must submit a request for postponement 25 days or more before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination and must state the reasons for the request. Commerce will grant the request unless it finds compelling reasons to deny the request.

On March 8, 2022, the petitioner submitted a timely request that Commerce postpone the preliminary CVD determination. 3 The petitioner stated that it requests postponement “. . . so that Petitioner's counsel can analyze and comment upon the responses of the respondent company and the Government of India to Commerce's Countervailing Duty Questionnaire.”  4 In accordance with 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner has stated the reasons for requesting a postponement of the preliminary determination, and Commerce finds no compelling reason to deny the request. Therefore, in accordance with section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act, Commerce is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determination to no later than 130 days after the date on which this investigation was initiated, i.e., June 13, 2022. 5 Pursuant to section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1), the deadline for the final determination of this investigation will continue to be 75 days after the date of the preliminary determination.

This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).

On January 25, 2022, Commerce published in the Federal Register its affirmative final determinations in the countervailing duty investigations of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. 1 On March 8, 2022, the ITC notified Commerce of its final affirmative determinations, pursuant to sections 705(b)(1)(A)(i) and 705(d) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), that an industry in the United States is materially injured by reason of subsidized imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia, and of its determination that critical circumstances do not exist with respect to imports of granular PTFE resin from India. 2

The product covered by these orders is granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. For a complete description of the scope of these orders, see the Appendix to this notice.

On March 8, 2022, in accordance with sections 705(b)(1)(A)(i) and 705(d) of the Act, the ITC notified Commerce of its final determinations in these investigations, in which it found that an industry in the United States is materially injured by reason of subsidized imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. Therefore, in accordance with section 705(c)(2) of the Act, Commerce is issuing these countervailing duty orders. Because the ITC determined that imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia are materially injuring a U.S. industry, unliquidated entries of such merchandise from India and Russia, entered or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, are subject to the assessment of countervailing duties.

Therefore, in accordance with section 706(a) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, countervailing duties on unliquidated entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. With the exception of entries occurring after the expiration of the provisional measures period and before the publication of the ITC's final affirmative injury determinations, as further described below, countervailing duties will be assessed on unliquidated entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after July 6, 2021, the date of publication of the Preliminary Determinations in the Federal Register . 3

With regards to the ITC's negative critical circumstances determination on imports of granular PTFE resin from India discussed above, we will instruct CBP to lift suspension and to refund any cash deposits made to secure the payment of estimated countervailing duties with respect to entries of granular PTFE resin from India, entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after April 7, 2021 ( i.e., 90 days prior to the date of publication of the preliminary determination), but before July 6, 2021 ( i.e., the date of the publication of the preliminary determination for this investigation).

In accordance with section 706 of the Act, Commerce will direct CBP to reinstitute the suspension of liquidation of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia, effective the date of publication of the ITC's notice of final determinations in the Federal Register , and to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce pursuant to section 706(a)(1) of the Act, countervailing duties for each entry of the subject merchandise in an amount based on the net countervailable subsidy rates for the subject merchandise. On or after the date of publication of the ITC's final injury determinations in the Federal Register , CBP must require, at the same time as importers would normally deposit estimated duties on this merchandise, a cash deposit equal to the rates noted below. These instructions suspending liquidation will remain in effect until further notice. The all-others rate applies to all producers or exporters not specifically listed below.

Section 703(d) of the Act states that the suspension of liquidation pursuant to an affirmative preliminary determination may not remain in effect for more than four months. In the underlying investigations, Commerce published the Preliminary Determinations on July 6, 2021. 6 Therefore, entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia made on or after November 3, 2021, and prior to the date of publication of the ITC's final determination in the Federal Register , are not subject to the assessment of countervailing duties due to Commerce's discontinuation of the suspension of liquidation.

In accordance with section 703(d) of the Act, Commerce instructed CBP to terminate the suspension of liquidation and to liquidate, without regard to countervailing duties, unliquidated entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after November 3, 2021, the date on which the provisional countervailing duty measures expired, through the day preceding the date of publication of the ITC final injury determinations in the Federal Register . Suspension of liquidation will resume on the date of publication of the ITC final injury determinations in the Federal Register .

On September 20, 2021, Commerce published the final rule titled “ Regulations to Improve Administration and Enforcement of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Laws” in the Federal Register . 7 On September 27, 2021, Commerce also published the notice titled “ Scope Ruling Application; Annual Inquiry Service List; and Informational Sessions” in the Federal Register . 8 The Final Rule and Procedural Guidance provide that Commerce will maintain an annual inquiry service list for each order or suspended investigation, and any interested party submitting a scope ruling application or request for circumvention inquiry shall serve a copy of the application or request on the persons on the annual inquiry service list for that order, as well as any companion order covering the same merchandise from the same country of origin. 9

In accordance with the Procedural Guidance, for orders published in the Federal Register after November 4, 2021, Commerce will create an annual inquiry service list segment in Commerce's online e-filing and document management system, Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Electronic Service System (ACCESS), available at https://access.trade.gov, within five business days of publication of the notice of the order. Each annual inquiry service list will be saved in ACCESS, under each case number, and under a specific segment type called “AISL-Annual Inquiry Service List.”  10

Interested parties who wish to be added to the annual inquiry service list for an order must submit an entry of appearance to the annual inquiry service list segment for the order in ACCESS within 30 days after the date of publication of the order. For ease of administration, Commerce requests that law firms with more than one attorney representing interested parties in an order designate a lead attorney to be included on the annual inquiry service list. Commerce will finalize the annual inquiry service list within five business days thereafter. As mentioned in the Procedural Guidance, the new annual inquiry service list will be in place until the following year, when the Opportunity Notice for the anniversary month of the order is published.

Commerce may update an annual inquiry service list at any time as needed based on interested parties' amendments to their entries of appearance to remove or otherwise modify their list of members and representatives, or to update contact information. Any changes or announcements pertaining to these procedures will be posted to the ACCESS website at https://access.trade.gov.

In the Final Rule, Commerce stated that, “after an initial request and placement on the annual inquiry service list, both petitioners and foreign governments will automatically be placed on the annual inquiry service list in the years that follow.”  11 Accordingly, as stated above, the petitioners and foreign governments should submit their initial entry of appearance after publication of this notice in order to appear in the first annual inquiry service list for those orders for which they qualify as an interested party. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.225(n)(3), the petitioners and foreign governments will not need to resubmit their entries of appearance each year to continue to be included on the annual inquiry service list. However, the petitioners and foreign governments are responsible for making amendments to their entries of appearance during the annual update to the annual inquiry service list in accordance with the procedures described above.

This notice constitutes the countervailing duty orders with respect to granular PTFE resin from India and Russia pursuant to section 706(a) of the Act. Interested parties can find a list of countervailing duty orders currently in effect at http://enforcement.trade.gov/stats/iastats1.html.

These orders are issued and published in accordance with section 706(a) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.211(b).

Background

This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on October 25, 2021. 1 For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. 2 A list of topics included in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum is included as Appendix II to this notice. The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Preliminary Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The products covered by this investigation are freight rail coupler systems and certain components thereof from China. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix I.

In accordance with the Preamble to Commerce's regulations, 3 the Initiation Notice set aside a period of time for parties to raise issues regarding product coverage ( i.e., scope). 4 In November 2021, we received timely scope comments from two interested parties, 5 as well as timely rebuttal scope comments from the petitioner. 6 In February and March 2022, at our request, 7 we received additional information, as well as additional comments, from interested parties regarding merchandise under consideration attached to rail cars. 8 Because this information was submitted in close proximity to this preliminary determination, we intend to evaluate it and issue a decision regarding the scope of this investigation after this preliminary determination.

Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, we have preliminarily relied upon facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences (AFA) for the China-wide entity. The China-wide entity includes both companies selected for individual examination, because they failed to respond to Commerce's questionnaire, and all other exporters who responded to Commerce's quantity and value (Q&V) questionnaire, because they failed to submit a separate rate application, as instructed in the Initiation Notice. 9 Because no companies are eligible for a rate separate from the China-wide entity, all exporters of Chinese freight rail couplers are preliminarily found to be part of the China-wide entity. We assigned the highest margin alleged in the petition ( i.e., 147.11 percent) to the China-wide entity as AFA, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary determination, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

In the Initiation Notice, Commerce stated that it would calculate producer/exporter combination rates for the respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in this investigation. 10 Policy Bulletin 05.1 describes this practice. 11 In this case, because no companies qualified for a separate rate, producer/exporter combination rates were not calculated for this preliminary determination. 12

Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated dumping margins exist:

In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register .

Further, pursuant to section 733(d)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as indicated in the chart above, as follows: (1) For all Chinese exporters of subject merchandise, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated dumping margin established for the China-wide entity; and (2) for all third-county exporters of subject merchandise, the cash deposit rate is also the cash deposit rate applicable to the China-wide entity. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.

To determine the cash deposit rate, Commerce normally adjusts the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the amount of domestic subsidy pass-through and export subsidies determined in a companion countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where Commerce has made a preliminary affirmative determination for domestic subsidy pass-through or export subsidies, Commerce has offset the calculated estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate rate(s). As discussed in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, we made no adjustment for domestic subsidy pass-through. As further explained in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, we made an adjustment for export subsidies found in the companion CVD investigation. 13 The adjusted rate may be found in the “Preliminary Determination” section chart above.

Should provisional measures in the companion CVD investigation expire prior to the expiration of provisional measures in this LTFV investigation, Commerce will direct CBP to begin collecting cash deposits at a rate equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin calculated in this preliminary determination unadjusted for export subsidies at the time the CVD provisional measures expire.

These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.

Normally, Commerce discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with a preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). However, because Commerce preliminarily determined that all companies are part of the China-wide entity and assigned as AFA to the China-wide entity a rate that is based solely on the margin alleged in the petition, there are no calculations to disclose.

Because the mandatory respondents in this investigation did not provide information requested by Commerce by the established deadline and Commerce preliminarily determines in accordance with section 776(b) of the Act that each of the mandatory respondents has been uncooperative, verification will not be conducted.

Case briefs or other written comments on non-scope matters may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than seven days after the deadline date for case briefs. 14 Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this investigation are encouraged to submit with each argument: (1) A statement of the issue; (2) a brief summary of the argument; and (3) a table of authorities. Commerce has modified certain of its requirements for serving documents containing business proprietary information until further notice. 15

All interested parties will have the opportunity to submit case and rebuttal briefs on the post-preliminary scope determination. The deadline to submit case briefs on the post-preliminary scope decision will be seven days after the signature date of the post-preliminary scope determination memorandum. Rebuttal scope briefs (which are limited to issues raised in the scope briefs) may be submitted no later than seven days after the deadline for the scope briefs. For all scope briefs and rebuttals thereto, parties must file identical documents simultaneously on the records of the ongoing AD and CVD freight rail coupler investigations. No new factual information or business proprietary information may be included in either scope briefs or rebuttal scope briefs.

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a date and time to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.

Section 735(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1) provide that Commerce will issue the final determination within 75 days after the date of its preliminary determination. Accordingly, Commerce will make its final determination no later than 75 days after the signature date of this preliminary determination.

In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.

This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).

On January 25, 2022, Commerce published in the Federal Register its affirmative final determinations in the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigations of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. 1 On March 8, 2022, the ITC notified Commerce of its final determinations, pursuant to section 735(d) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), that an industry in the United States is materially injured within the meaning of section 735(b)(1)(A)(i) of the Act by reason of LTFV imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia, and of its determination that critical circumstances do not exist with respect to dumped imports of granular PTFE resin from India. 2

The product covered by these orders is granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. For a complete description of the scope of these orders, see the Appendix to this notice.

On March 8, 2022, in accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, the ITC notified Commerce of its final determinations in these investigations, in which it found that an industry in the United States is materially injured by reason of imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. 3 Therefore, in accordance with section 735(c)(2) of the Act, Commerce is issuing these antidumping duty orders. Because the ITC determined that imports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia are materially injuring a U.S. industry, unliquidated entries of such merchandise from India and Russia, entered or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption, are subject to the assessment of antidumping duties.

Therefore, in accordance with section 736(a)(1) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties equal to the amount by which the normal value of the merchandise exceeds the export price (or constructed export price) of the merchandise, for all relevant entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. With the exception of entries occurring after the expiration of the provisional measures period and before publication of the ITC's final affirmative injury determinations, as further described below, antidumping duties will be assessed on unliquidated entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after September 2, 2021, the date of publication of the Preliminary Determinations in the Federal Register . 4

With regard to the ITC's negative critical circumstances determination on imports of granular PTFE resin from India, we will instruct CBP to lift suspension and to refund any cash deposits made to secure the payment of estimated antidumping duties with respect to entries of the subject merchandise from India entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after June 4, 2021 ( i.e., 90 days prior to the date of the publication of the India Preliminary Determination ), but before September 2, 2021 ( i.e., the date of publication of the India Preliminary Determination ).

Except as noted in the “Provisional Measures” section of this notice, in accordance with section 736 of the Act, Commerce will instruct CBP to continue to suspend liquidation on all relevant entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia. These instructions suspending liquidation will remain in effect until further notice.

Commerce will also instruct CBP to require cash deposits equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margins indicated in the tables below, adjusted by the export subsidy offset. Accordingly, effective on the date of publication in the Federal Register of the notice of the ITC's final affirmative injury determinations, CBP will require, at the same time as importers would normally deposit estimated duties on subject merchandise, a cash deposit equal to the rates listed below. The relevant all-others rate applies to all producers or exporters not specifically listed.

Section 733(d) of the Act states that suspension of liquidation pursuant to an affirmative preliminary determination may not remain in effect for more than four months, except where exporters representing a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise request that Commerce extend the four-month period to no more than six months. At the request of exporters that account for a significant proportion of exports of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia, Commerce extended the four-month period to six months in these investigations. Commerce published the Preliminary Determinations on September 2, 2021. 5

The extended provisional measures period, beginning on the date of publication of the Preliminary Determinations, ended on February 28, 2022. Therefore, in accordance with section 733(d) of the Act and our practice, 6 Commerce will instruct CBP to terminate the suspension of liquidation and to liquidate, without regard to antidumping duties, unliquidated entries of granular PTFE resin from India and Russia entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption after February 28, 2022, the final day on which the provisional measures were in effect, until and through the day preceding the date of publication of the ITC's final affirmative injury determinations in the Federal Register . Suspension of liquidation and the collection of cash deposits will resume on the date of publication of the ITC's final determinations in the Federal Register .

The estimated weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:

On September 20, 2021, Commerce published the final rule titled “ Regulations to Improve Administration and Enforcement of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Laws” in the Federal Register . 8 On September 27, 2021, Commerce also published the notice titled “ Scope Ruling Application; Annual Inquiry Service List; and Informational Sessions” in the Federal Register . 9 The Final Rule and Procedural Guidance provide that Commerce will maintain an annual inquiry service list for each order or suspended investigation, and any interested party submitting a scope ruling application or request for circumvention inquiry shall serve a copy of the application or request on the persons on the annual inquiry service list for that order, as well as any companion order covering the same merchandise from the same country of origin. 10

In accordance with the Procedural Guidance, for orders published in the Federal Register after November 4, 2021, Commerce will create an annual inquiry service list segment in Commerce's online e-filing and document management system, Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Electronic Service System (ACCESS), available at https://access.trade.gov, within five business days of publication of the notice of the order. Each annual inquiry service list will be saved in ACCESS, under each case number, and under a specific segment type called “AISL—Annual Inquiry Service List.”  11

Interested parties who wish to be added to the annual inquiry service list for an order must submit an entry of appearance to the annual inquiry service list segment for the order in ACCESS within 30 days after the date of publication of the order. For ease of administration, Commerce requests that law firms with more than one attorney representing interested parties in an order designate a lead attorney to be included on the annual inquiry service list. Commerce will finalize the annual inquiry service list within five business days thereafter. As mentioned in the Procedural Guidance, the new annual inquiry service list will be in place until the following year, when the Opportunity Notice for the anniversary month of the order is published.

Commerce may update an annual inquiry service list at any time as needed based on interested parties' amendments to their entries of appearance to remove or otherwise modify their list of members and representatives, or to update contact information. Any changes or announcements pertaining to these procedures will be posted to the ACCESS website at https://access.trade.gov.

In the Final Rule, Commerce stated that, “after an initial request and placement on the annual inquiry service list, both petitioners and foreign governments will automatically be placed on the annual inquiry service list in the years that follow.”  12 Accordingly, as stated above, the petitioners and foreign governments should submit their initial entry of appearance after publication of this notice in order to appear in the first annual inquiry service list for those orders for which they qualify as an interested party. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.225(n)(3), the petitioners and foreign governments will not need to resubmit their entries of appearance each year to continue to be included on the annual inquiry service list. However, the petitioners and foreign governments are responsible for making amendments to their entries of appearance during the annual update to the annual inquiry service list in accordance with the procedures described above.

This notice constitutes the antidumping duty orders with respect to granular PTFE resin from India and Russia pursuant to section 736(a) of the Act. Interested parties can find a list of antidumping duty orders currently in effect at http://enforcement.trade.gov/stats/iastats1.html.

These antidumping duty orders are published in accordance with section 736(a) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.211(b).

Through acts such as the National Construction Safety Team Act (NCSTA), the National Windstorm Impact Reduction Act (NWIRA) and the NIST Organic Act, among others, as well as the President's Climate Action Plan (2013), NIST conducts research and develops guidance and other related tools to promote and enhance the safety and well-being of people in the face of a hazard event. With this in mind, NIST proposes to conduct a number of data collection efforts within the topic areas of disaster and failure studies and community resilience and sustainability, including studies of specific disaster events ( e.g., wildfire, urban fire, structure collapse, hurricane, earthquake, tornado, and flood events), assessments of community resilience and sustainability, and evaluations of the usability and utility of NIST resilience guidance or other products.

These data collection efforts may be either qualitative or quantitative in nature or may consist of mixed methods. Additionally, data may be collected via a variety of means, including but not limited to electronic or social media, direct or indirect observation ( i.e., in person, video and audio collections), interviews, questionnaires, and focus groups. NIST will limit its inquiries to data collections that solicit strictly voluntary opinions or responses. The results of the data collected will be used to decrease negative impacts of disasters on society, and, in turn, increase community resilience within the U.S. communities. Steps will be taken to protect confidentiality of respondents in each activity covered by this request.

This notice pertains to both a revision and an extension of a previously approved submission. The NIST Engineering Laboratory utilizes this clearance to conduct research in support of topic areas of disaster and failure studies and community resilience (including studies of specific disaster events such as wildfire, urban fire, structure collapse, hurricane, earthquake, tornado, and flood events).

This type of research is directly related to a range of disasters which are unpredictable in their number during a given year. Additionally, some disasters may require multiple studies resulting in multiple collections. Therefore, in light of the recent increases in the number of severe disaster events and the growing trend of disasters occuring outside of their typical season, NIST is requesting to increase the ICR Annual Response allotment from 20,000 to 25,000 Responses; and the ICR Annual Hours allotment from 15,000 to 18,000. NIST assures that no changes will be made to any of the individual information collection requests that have been approved for use.

NIST will collect this information by electronic means when possible, as well as by mail, fax, telephone, technical discussions, and in-person interviews. NIST may also utilize observational techniques to collect this information.

OMB Control Number: 0693-0078.

Form Number(s): None.

Type of Review: Regular submission. Revision.

Affected Public: Individuals or households; first responders; weather forecasters; members of the media; water, power, transportation, and communications infrastructure operators; businesses or other for-profit organizations; not-for-profit institutions; State, local or tribal government; Federal government; Standards-making bodies; Universities.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 25,000.

Estimated Time per Response: Varied, dependent upon the data collection method used. The possible response time to complete a questionnaire may be 15 minutes or 2 hours to participate in an interview.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 18,000.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: $0.

NIST invites comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

This United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) Quality Survey is an instrument designed to measure opinions about the services that USPTO provides its patent application customers. The results from this voluntary survey will assist USPTO in guiding improvements and enhancements in the future. The USPTO conducts the Patents External Quality Survey as part of its quality improvement efforts under E.O. 14058, Transforming Federal Customer Experience and Service Delivery to Rebuild Trust in Government (Dec. 13, 2021). This survey narrows the focus of customer satisfaction to examination quality and uses a longitudinal, rotating panel design to assess changes in customer perceptions and to identify key areas for examiner training and opportunities for improvement. The USPTO surveys patent agents, attorneys, and other individuals from large domestic corporations (including those with 500+ employees), small and medium-size businesses, independent inventors, and universities and other non-profit research organizations. This survey does not include foreign entities.

The USPTO random sample used in this survey is drawn from the Patent Application and Location Management (PALM) database. The sample population is drawn from the top filing firms and entities that have filed more than 5 patent applications in a 12-month period. This ongoing survey is generally conducted twice a year. USPTO uses a rotating panel design where participants will take the survey twice in back-to-back survey periods. Half the participants in each survey period are new, completing the survey for the first time, and half are returning to complete the survey for a second time. This design allows a precise measurement of changes in customer experience over time.

The Patents External Quality Survey is primarily a web-based survey, although respondents can also complete the survey via paper and mail if they prefer. The content of both versions is identical. Potential respondents are sent either an email or mailed pre-survey letter, depending on noted preferences for contact. At the beginning of each survey period, respondents are provided instructions for accessing and completing the survey electronically. After a specified response period, a survey packet containing the questionnaire, a separate cover letter prepared by the Deputy Commissioner for Patents, and a postage-paid, pre-addressed return envelope are mailed to all sample members that have not yet submitted a response. Sampled members receiving a paper survey can still complete the survey electronically if they prefer. Reminder/thank you postcards and telephone calls are used to encourage response from sample members.

The survey may be submitted electronically or in paper form via postal mail.

OMB Control Number: 0651-0057.

Form(s):

• PTO/2325 (Patents External Quality Survey).

Type of Review: Extension and revision of a currently approved information collection.

Affected Public: Private sector.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 1,875 respondents.

Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 3,100 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: The USPTO estimates that it will take the public between 2 minutes (0.03 hours) and 10 minutes (.17 hours) to complete a response in this information collection. This includes the time to gather the necessary information, answer the survey prompts, and submit the completed request to the USPTO.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Burden Hours: 444 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Hourly Cost Burden: $193,140.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Non-hourly Cost Burden: $0. There are no capital start-up, maintenance costs, recordkeeping costs, filing fees, or postage costs associated with this information collection. The USPTO covers the costs of all survey materials and provides postage-paid, pre-addressed return envelopes for the surveys that are returned by mail.

The USPTO is soliciting public comments to:

(a) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

All comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. USPTO will include or summarize each comment in the request to OMB to approve this information collection. Before including an address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in a comment, be aware that the entire comment—including PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask in your comment to withhold PII from public view, USPTO cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Exchange Employee Travel Files; OMB Control Number 0702-0131.

Type of Request: Revision.

Number of Respondents: 250.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 250.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 125.

Needs and Uses: This information collection is required to process all official Continental United States and Outside the Continental United States Exchange Permanent Change of Station requests for Exchange employees and their dependents/family members. The data collected assists the Exchange Human Resources Travel personnel in determining eligibility of the employee and/or dependents to travel, obtain passports, visas, and authorizing any travel expense reimbursement.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

OMB Desk Officer: Ms. Jasmeet Seehra.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number, and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DOD Clearance Officer: Ms. Angela Duncan.

Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Ms. Duncan at whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Army Sex Offender Information; Department of the Army Form 190-45-SG (Army Law Enforcement Reporting and Tracking System); OMB Control Number 0702-0128.

Type of Request: Revision.

Number of Respondents: 120.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 120.

Average Burden per Response: 20 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 40.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirement is necessary for the Department of the Army, Office of the Provost Marshal General to obtain and record the sex offender registration information of those sex offenders who reside or are employed on an Army installation. Registered sex offenders are defined as any person who is either registered or required to register as a sex offender by any law, regulation or policy of the United States, the Department of Defense, the Army, a State, U.S. territory, or tribal government. All registered sex offenders who reside or are employed on an Army installation will submit their registration information with the installation Provost Marshal Office. The information collected is entered into the Army Law Enforcement Reporting and Tracking System and used by Army law enforcement to ensure the sex offender is compliant with any court order restrictions.

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit; not-for-profit institutions; individuals or households.

Frequency: As required.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to obtain or retain benefits.

OMB Desk Officer: Ms. Jasmeet Seehra.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number, and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DOD Clearance Officer: Ms. Angela Duncan.

Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Ms. Duncan at whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Exchange Accounts Receivable Files; CRC 7429395, Exchange Form 6450-005; OMB Control 0702-0137.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirement is necessary to process, monitor, and post audit accounts receivables to the Army and Air Force Exchange Service; to administer the Federal Claims Collection Act and to answer inquiries pertaining thereto as well as collection of indebtedness and determination of customer's eligibility to cash checks at Exchange facilities.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Annual Burden Hours: 43,461.55.

Number of Respondents: 869,231.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 869,231.

Average Burden per Response: 3 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondents are Exchange patrons, potential patrons, or past patrons who are indebted to the Exchange. This may include dishonored checks, deferred payment plans, home layaway, pecuniary liability claims and credit.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Department of Defense Passport and Passport Agent Services, Authorization to Apply for a “No-Fee” Passport and/or Request for Visa; DD Form 1056; OMB Control Number 0702-0134.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirement is necessary to obtain and record the personally identifiable information of official passport and/or visa applicants. This information is used to process, track, and verify no-fee passport and visa applications and requests for additional visa pages, Status of Forces Agreement endorsement, Multinational Force and Observers.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Annual Burden Hours: 175,000.

Number of Respondents: 175,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 175,000.

Average Burden per Response: 60 minutes,

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondents are DoD civilian and military personnel, and eligible accompanying family members traveling on official government orders to a country requiring a no-fee passport and/or visa. Authorization to apply for no-fee passport is granted to those who can verify U.S. citizenship and legitimate official travel needs. Authorization to request a visa may also be granted to non U.S. citizen family members, whose names are listed on the sponsor's official travel orders. The information collected on this form is shared with the Department of State and the designated foreign embassies.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: National Industrial Security Program Contracts Classification System; DD Form 254; OMB Control Number 0704-0567.

Needs and Uses: Pursuant to 48 CFR 27, in conjunction with subpart 4.4 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation, contracting officers shall determine whether access to classified information may be required by a contractor during contract performance. DoD Components shall use the DD Form 254, “Contract Security Classification Specification,” as an attachment to contracts or agreements requiring access to classified information by U.S. contractors. The DD Form 254 is used to identify the classified areas of information involved in a contract and the specific items of information that require protection. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) Contract Classification System (NCCS) is the electronic repository for the DD Form 254. NCCS expedites the processing and distribution of contract classification specifications for contracts requiring access to classified information. NCCS also has a built-in automated process for the Request for Approval to Subcontract and provides workflow support for the Facility Clearance Request and National Interest Determination processes.

Affected Public: Business or other for profit.

Annual Burden Hours: 28,800.

Number of Respondents: 8,000.

Responses per Respondent: 6.

Annual Responses: 48,000.

Average Burden per Response: 36 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondents are cleared contractor facilities in the National Industrial Security Program under the security cognizance of DCSA. Pursuant to security classification guidance in 32 CFR part 117, NISP contractors must provide contract security classification specifications with any contract or agreement that they propose or award. DD Form 254 is the official vehicle for providing this information. A respondent submits completed DD Form 254 with any attachments to the applicable subcontractor and to the DoD NISP Cognizant Security Office for evaluation. Once the DD Form 254 is submitted, it is reviewed by Government Security personnel to ensure access language is present. Following review, Government Contracting Officers certify and release the DD Form 254 to the Industry Commercial and Government Entity referenced within the DD Form 254.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Childbirth and Breastfeeding Support Demonstration Survey; OMB Control Number 0720-CBDS.

Needs and Uses: The Childbirth and Breastfeeding Support Demonstration Survey is necessary to solicit information from TRICARE beneficiaries who have given birth in the specified reporting period (initial survey for beneficiaries who gave birth in calendar year 2021, with follow on surveys sent to beneficiaries who give birth each calendar year quarter through the end of 2026, with the final survey sent in early 2027). Approximately 100,000 TRICARE beneficiaries give birth each year; about 60 percent of those births occur in private sector care and the other 40 percent in direct care (military treatment facilities). The survey is mandated by Section 746 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (Public Law 116-283, enacted on January 1, 2021).

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Annual Burden Hours: 2,400.

Number of Respondents: 16,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 16,000.

Average Burden per Response: 9 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Militarily Critical Technical Data Agreement; DD Form 2345; OMB Control Number 0704-0207.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirement is necessary as a basis for certifying enterprises or individuals to have access to DoD export-controlled militarily critical technical data subject to the provisions of 32 CFR 250. Enterprises and individuals that need access to unclassified DoD-controlled militarily critical technical data must certify on DD Form 2345, Militarily Critical Technical Data Agreement, that data will be used only in ways that will inhibit unauthorized access and maintain the protection afforded by U.S. export control laws. The information collected is disclosed only to the extent consistent with prudent business practices, current regulations, and statutory requirements and is so indicated on the Privacy Act Statement of DD Form 2345.

Affected Public: Individuals or households; businesses or other for-profit; not-for-profit institutions.

Annual Burden Hours: 2,666.67.

Number of Respondents: 8,000.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 8,000.

Average Burden per Response: 20 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Status of the Forces Survey of Active Duty Members; OMB Control Number 0704-0624.

Type of Request: Revision.

Number of Respondents: 16,500.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 16,500.

Average Burden per Response: 20 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 5,500 hours.

Needs and Uses: The purpose of the Status of the Forces Survey (SOFS) of Active Duty Members is to assess the attitudes and opinions of active duty members and to provide key metrics to the OUSD(P&R). Results of this and subsequent surveys are used to provide direct feedback on key strategic indicators such as satisfaction and retention. These indicators provide primary data on personnel career plans, retention decisions, morale, commitment, and quality of life and historically provide the ability to evaluate the impact of policies and programs with regard to readiness and retention. The surveys are benchmarks by which senior DoD officials can track trends over time. Data from the surveys will be presented to the OUSD(P&R), Military Departments, Congress, and DoD policy and program offices. Analysis will include the Office of People Analytics' (OPA) standard products: A tabulation volume (a set of relative frequency distributions of each question, and cross-tabulations of survey questions by key stratifying variables), briefing slides and reports highlighting key findings, and a statistical methodology report. Ad hoc analyses requested by the policy office sponsors and other approved organizations may be conducted as needed and based on available staff. These projects take approximately one year to complete, including assessment design and development, fielding and administration, and data analysis and reporting. In addition, as mandated by the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016, Title VI, Subtitle F, Subpart 661, the Defense Manpower Data Center, now OPA, fields a financial literacy and preparedness survey within the SOFS annually. Results will be used by the Service Secretaries to evaluate and update financial literacy training and will be submitted in a report to the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Frequency: Annually.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

OMB Desk Officer: Ms. Jasmeet Seehra.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number, and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DOD Clearance Officer: Ms. Angela Duncan.

Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Ms. Duncan at whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Workplace and Gender Relations Survey of Military Members; OMB Control Number 0704-0615.

Type of Request: Extension.

Number of Respondents: 204,300.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 204,300.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 102,150 hours.

Needs and Uses: The legal requirements for the Workplace and Gender Relations (WGR) surveys of military members can be found in the following:

Sexual assault, sexual harassment, and gender discrimination remain a major concern across the DoD and for members of Congress. In February 2004, the OUSD(P&R) testified before the Senate Armed Services Committee on the prevalence of sexual assault in the DoD and the programs and policies planned to address the issues. In accordance with legislative requirements, the OUSD(P&R) issued memoranda to the Services that provide DoD policy guidance on sexual assault that included a new standard definition, response capability, training requirements, response actions, and reporting guidance throughout the Department. The Sexual Assault and Prevention Response Office supported implementation of the new policy and requires data to assess the prevalence of sexual assault in the Department and the effectiveness of the programs they have implemented.

The WGR surveys will assess the attitudes and opinions of military members on issues relating to sexual harassment, gender discrimination, and sexual assault, as well as the culture and climate of the units/organizations in which individuals serve. It will provide the policy offices of the USD(P&R) with current data on (1) the positive and negative trends for professional and personal relationships between Service members; (2) the specific types of assault that have occurred and the number of times in the preceding year; (3) the effectiveness of DoD policies designed to improve professional relationships between male and female Service members; (4) the effectiveness of current processes for complaints, reports, and investigations; and, (5) specific issues related to sexual harassment, sexual assault, and gender discrimination that may inform the Department's prevention and response efforts.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Frequency: Biennially.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

OMB Desk Officer: Ms. Jasmeet Seehra.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number, and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DoD Clearance Officer: Ms. Angela Duncan.

Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Ms. Duncan at whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Application for Homeowners Assistance; DD Form 1607; OMB Control Number 0704-0463.

Type of Request: Reinstatement with change.

Number of Respondents: 15.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 15.

Average Burden per Response: 1 hour.

Annual Burden Hours: 15.

Needs and Uses: In accordance with Section 3374 of U.S. Code title 42; the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-5); 32 CFR part 239; and DoD Directive 4165.50E, “Homeowners Assistance Program (HAP),” the DoD provides funds to financially compensate eligible members of the Armed Forces who incur a wound, injury, or illness in the line of duty during a deployment in support of the Armed Forces on or after September 11, 2001; wounded DoD and Coast Guard civilian homeowners reassigned in furtherance of medical treatment or rehabilitation or due to medical retirement in connection with a disability incurred in the performance of his or her duties during a forward deployment occurring on or after September 11, 2001 in support of the Armed Forces; and surviving spouses of fallen warriors who move within two years of the death of such employee or member. Additionally, during the times of Base Realignment and Closure, the HAP program can be authorized to assist civilian and active duty homeowners who are impacted by the closure or realignment of their job duties. Priority access to the funds goes to surviving spouses of those killed during deployment and those who were wounded, injured, or ill during deployment on or after September 11, 2001. HAP applicants use DD Form 1607, “Application for Homeowner's Assistance Program (HAP),” to apply for HAP benefits.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

OMB Desk Officer: Ms. Jasmeet Seehra.

You may also submit comments and recommendations, identified by Docket ID number and title, by the following method:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the agency name, Docket ID number, and title for this Federal Register document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing on the internet at http://www.regulations.gov as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.

DoD Clearance Officer: Ms. Angela Duncan.

Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Ms. Duncan at whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Navy Flight Demonstration Squadron (Blue Angels) Backseat Rider Programs; OPNAV Forms 5720/13, 5720/14, 5720/15; OMB Control Number 0703-0073.

Needs and Uses: This information collection requirement is necessary to medically clear and coordinate with individuals selected through the Key Influencer (KI) program and media personnel so that they may participate in backseat flights at Blue Angels' air shows and demonstrations. Flying these candidates, in coordination with media presence, is intended to promote the Navy and Marine Corps as professional and exciting organizations in which to serve.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Annual Burden Hours: 30.

Number of Respondents: 30.

Responses per Respondent : 2.

Annual Responses: 60.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 120.

Number of Respondents: 240.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses : 240.

Average Burden per Response: 30 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 150.

Number of Respondents: 270.

Annual Responses : 300.

Average Burden per Response : 30 minutes.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondents are persons selected through the KI program, credentialed media representatives and local air show liaisons. The completed forms certify that the selected individuals are physically fit to fly and that the Blue Angels Public Affairs staff are able to coordinate flight information with respondents. If these forms are not completed, Blue Angels' staff cannot be readily assured of the physical fitness, qualifications and contact information of respondents. Having these forms reviewed by medical personnel and public affairs staff is essential in maintaining the safety and integrity of the Navy Flight Demonstration Backseat Rider process and program.

The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.

Title of Collection: William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program (Direct Loan Program) Promissory Notes and related forms.

OMB Control Number: 1845-0007.

Type of Review: A revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents/Affected Public: Individuals and Households.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 9,862,685.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 4,021,665.

Abstract: The Direct Subsidized Loan and Direct Unsubsidized Loan Master Promissory Note (Subsidized/Unsubsidized MPN) serves as the means by which an individual agrees to repay a Direct Subsidized Loan and/or Direct Unsubsidized Loan.

The Direct PLUS Loan Master Promissory Note (PLUS Loan MPN) serves as the means by which an individual applies for and agrees to repay a Direct PLUS Loan. If a Direct PLUS Loan applicant is determined to have an adverse credit history, the applicant may qualify for a Direct PLUS Loan by obtaining an endorser who does not have an adverse credit history. The Endorser Addendum serves as the means by which an endorser agrees to repay the Direct PLUS Loan if the borrower does not repay it.

An MPN is a promissory note under which a borrower may receive loans for a single or multiple academic years. The MPN explains the terms and conditions of the loans that are made under the MPN.

The Direct Consolidation Loan Application and Promissory Note (Consolidation Note) serves as the means by which a borrower applies for a Direct Consolidation Loan and promises to repay the loan. It also explains the terms and conditions of the Direct Consolidation Loan. The Consolidation Note Instructions explain to the borrower how to complete the Consolidation Note. The Consolidation Additional Loan Listing Sheet provides additional space for a borrower to list loans that he or she wishes to consolidate. The Consolidation Request to Add Loans serves as the means by which a borrower may add other loans to an existing Direct Consolidation Loan within a specified time period. The Consolidation Loan Verification Certificate serves as the means by which the U.S. Department of Education obtains the information needed to pay off the holders of the loans that the borrower wants to consolidate.

This revision updates the Subsidized/Unsubsidized MPN and the Consolidation Note by removing information related to the 150% Subsidized Usage Limit requirements. This previous statutory provision was repealed by the Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA) Simplification Act, part of the part of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Pub. L. 116-260), and no longer applies to borrowers of Direct Subsidized Loans and Direct Consolidation Loans. There are no proposed changes to the PLUS MPN or to any of the other forms included in this submission.

On March 8, 2022 CDC announced a single-source award will support the Burkina Faso Ministry of Health to implement HIV strategic information and laboratory strengthening activities in Burkina Faso (87 FR 12966). This award is cancelled in its entirety.

Background: The Advisory Board was established under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000 to advise the President on a variety of policy and technical functions required to implement and effectively manage the new compensation program. Key functions of the Advisory Board include providing advice on the development of probability of causation guidelines that have been promulgated by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) as a final rule; advice on methods of dose reconstruction, which have also been promulgated by HHS as a final rule; advice on the scientific validity and quality of dose estimation and reconstruction efforts being performed for purposes of the compensation program; and advice on petitions to add classes of workers to the Special Exposure Cohort (SEC). In December 2000, the President delegated responsibility for funding, staffing, and operating the Advisory Board to HHS, which subsequently delegated this authority to CDC. NIOSH implements this responsibility for CDC.

The charter was issued on August 3, 2001, renewed at appropriate intervals, and rechartered under Executive Order 13889 on March 22, 2020, and will terminate on March 22, 2022.

Purpose: The Advisory Board is charged with (a) providing advice to the Secretary, HHS, on the development of guidelines under Executive Order 13179; (b) providing advice to the Secretary, HHS, on the scientific validity and quality of dose reconstruction efforts performed for this program; and (c) upon request by the Secretary, HHS, advise the Secretary on whether there is a class of employees at any Department of Energy facility who were exposed to radiation but for whom it is not feasible to estimate their radiation dose, and on whether there is reasonable likelihood that such radiation doses may have endangered the health of members of this class. SDRR was established to aid the Advisory Board in carrying out its duty to advise the Secretary, HHS, on dose reconstruction.

Matters To Be Considered: The agenda will include discussions on the following dose reconstruction program quality management and assurance activities: Dose reconstruction cases under review from Set 30, possibly including cases involving the Hanford site and discussion of changes in SDRR selection criteria based on SC&A document, “Summary Dose Reconstruction Information,” dated December 20, 2021. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate. For additional information, please contact Toll Free 1 (800) CDC-INFO.

The Director, Strategic Business Initiatives Unit, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign Federal Register notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.

Purpose: The Board will: (1) Conduct, encourage, cooperate with, and assist other appropriate public health authorities, scientific institutions, and scientists in the conduct of research, investigations, experiments, demonstrations, and studies relating to the causes, diagnosis, treatment, control, and prevention of injury and violence, and other impairments; (2) assist States and their political subdivisions in preventing intentional and unintentional injuries and to promote health and well-being; and (3) conduct and assist in research and control activities related to injury. The Board of Scientific Counselors makes recommendations regarding policies, strategies, objectives, and priorities; and reviews progress toward injury prevention goals and provides evidence in injury prevention-related research and programs. In addition, the Board provides advice on the appropriate balance of intramural and extramural research, the structure, progress, and performance of intramural programs. The Board is designed to provide guidance on extramural scientific program matters, including the: (1) Review of extramural research concepts for funding opportunity announcements; (2) conduct of Secondary Peer Review of extramural research grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts applications received in response to the funding opportunity announcements as it relates to the Center's programmatic balance and mission; (3) submission of secondary review recommendations to the Center Director of applications to be considered for funding support; (4) review of research portfolios, and (5) review of program proposals.

Matters To Be Considered: The agenda will include an update on the Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) Research Priorities; Older Adult Falls Research Priorities; the Diversity, Equity, Belonging, Inclusion and Accessibility (DEBIA) Strategic Plan; and Health Equity. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.

Written Public Comment: Written comments must be received on or before 5:00 p.m., EDT, April 18, 2022, by email at ncipcbsc@cdc.gov. All written comments will be included as part of the meeting minutes.

Oral Public Comment: This meeting will include time for members of the public to make an oral comment. Individuals wishing to pre-register for public comment must do so by Wednesday, April 6, 2022, at 5:00 p.m., EDT. Those pre-registering for public comment must also register for the meeting using the link below.

Oral Public Comment Procedure: Individuals registered to provide public comment will be called upon first to speak based on the order of registration, followed by others from the public. All public comments will be limited to two (2) minutes per speaker.

The Director, Strategic Business Initiatives Unit, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign Federal Register notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.

Purpose: This Committee is charged with providing scientific and technical advice and guidance to the Secretary, HHS; the Assistant Secretary for Health; the Director, CDC; the Commissioner, Food and Drug Administration (FDA); and the Administrator, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The advice and guidance pertain to general issues related to improvement in clinical laboratory quality and laboratory medicine practice and specific questions related to possible revision of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) standards. Examples include providing guidance on studies designed to improve safety, effectiveness, efficiency, timeliness, equity, and patient-centeredness of laboratory services; revisions to the standards under which clinical laboratories are regulated; the impact of proposed revisions to the standards on medical and laboratory practice; and the modification of the standards and provision of non-regulatory guidelines to accommodate technological advances, such as new test methods, the electronic transmission of laboratory information, and mechanisms to improve the integration of public health and clinical laboratory practices.

Matters To Be Considered: The agenda will include agency updates from CDC, CMS, and FDA. In addition to the general updates, an update will be provided on the ongoing CLIAC workgroups. Presentations and CLIAC discussion will focus on the future of laboratory medicine, especially testing in non-traditional sites. There will be an extended public comment session focusing on anticipated changes in testing practices, personnel issues, and emerging technologies used in non-traditional testing sites. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.

It is the policy of CLIAC to accept written public comments and provide a brief period for oral public comments pertinent to agenda items. Public comment periods for each agenda item are scheduled immediately prior to the Committee discussion period for that item. In general, each individual or group requesting to present an oral comment will be limited to a total time of five minutes (unless otherwise indicated). Speakers should email CLIAC@cdc.gov or notify the contact person at least five business days prior to the meeting date. For individuals or groups unable to attend the meeting, CLIAC accepts written comments until the date of the meeting (unless otherwise stated). However, it is requested that comments be submitted at least five business days prior to the meeting date so that the comments may be made available to the Committee for their consideration and public distribution. All written comments will be included in the meeting Summary Report posted on the CLIAC website.

The Director, Strategic Business Initiatives Unit, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign Federal Register notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.

This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see ADDRESSES ).

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice.

1. Type of Information Collection Request: Revision of a currently approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Reform of Requirements for Long-Term Care Facilities; Use: According to our data, as of April 2, 2021, there were 15,372 LTC facilities in the United States. These facilities are currently caring for 1,290,290 residents. Since the number of LTC facilities and residents varies yearly, for the purposes of this analysis, we utilized estimates of 15,600 for LTC facilities and 1.3 million residents. LTC facilities include skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) as defined in section 1819(a) of the Social Security Act in the Medicare program and nursing facilities (NFs) as defined in 1919(a) of the Act in the Medicaid program. SNFs and NFs provide skilled nursing care and related services for residents who require medical or nursing care, or rehabilitation services for the rehabilitation of injured, disabled, or sick persons. In addition, NFs provide health-related care and services to individuals who because of their mental or physical condition require care and services (above the level of room and board) which can be made available to them only through institutional facilities, and is not primarily for the care and treatment of mental diseases. SNFs and NFs must care for their residents in such a manner and in such an environment as will promote maintenance or enhancement of the quality of life of each resident and must provide to residents services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, in accordance with a written plan of care, which describes the medical, nursing, and psychosocial needs of the resident and how such needs will be met and is updated periodically.

Under the authority of sections 1819 and 1919 of the Act, the Secretary proposed to reform the requirements that SNFs and NFs must meet to participate in the Medicare & Medicaid programs. These requirements would be set forth in 42 CFR 483 subpart B as Requirements for LTC Care Facilities. The requirements apply to an LTC facility as an entity as well as the services furnished to each individual under the care of the LTC facility, unless a requirement is specifically limited to Medicare or to Medicaid beneficiaries. To implement these requirements, State survey agencies generally conduct surveys of LTC facilities to determine whether or not they are complying with the requirements.

Ordinarily, we would be required to estimate the public reporting burden for information collection requirements (ICRs) for these regulations in accordance with chapter 35 of title 44, United States Code. However, sections 4204(b) and 4214(d) of Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987, Public Law 100-203 (OBRA '87) provide for a waiver of Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) requirements for some regulations. At the time that the 2016 LTC final rule (81 FR 68688) published, we believed that this waiver still applied to those updates we made to existing requirements in part 483 subpart B that were set forth by OBRA 87. However, we acknowledged that the 2016 final rule also extensively revised many of the existing requirements in part 483 subpart B and recognized that the revisions likely created new burdens for facilities. In addition, we noted that the 2016 final rule implemented several new requirements set forth by the Affordable Care Act, which were not included in the PRA waiver. Therefore, we provided burden estimates for the new ICRs finalized in the 2016 LTC final rule set forth by the Affordable Care Act, as well as those revisions to existing requirements in part 483 subpart B that were so extensive they could be considered new ICRs in concept. For the current or 2022 information collection request (ICR), we have provided updates to the burden in the 2019 ICR, as well as provided burden estimates for all of the new ICs finalized since 2016 that were in effect as of May 2021. The ICRs and the rules they were finalized in are indicated in table below.

The primary users of this information will be State agency surveyors, CMS, and the LTC facilities for the purposes of ensuring compliance with Medicare and Medicaid requirements as well as ensuring the quality of care provided to LTC facility residents. The ICs specified in the regulations may be used as a basis for determining whether a LTC is meeting the requirements to participate in the Medicare program. In addition, the information collected for purposes of ensuring compliance may be used to inform the data provided on CMS' Nursing Home Compare website and as such used by the public in considering nursing home selections for services. Form Number: CMS-10573 (OMB control number: 0938-1363); Frequency: Occasionally; Affected Public: Private Sector: Business or other for-profit and not-for-profit institutions; Number of Respondents: 15,600; Total Annual Responses: 18,658,854; Total Annual Hours: 29,935,899. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Diane Corning at 410-786-8486.)

2. Type of Information Collection Request: Reinstatement without change of a previously approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Medicare Authorization to Disclose Personal Health Information; Use: The “Medicare Authorization to Disclose Personal Health Information” will be used by Medicare beneficiaries to authorize Medicare to disclose their protected health information to a third party. Medicare beneficiaries can submit the Medicare Authorization to Disclose Personal Health Information electronically at Medicare.gov. Beneficiaries may also submit the Medicare Authorization to Disclose Personal Health Information by mailing a complete and valid authorization form to Medicare. Beneficiaries can submit the Medicare Authorization to Disclose Personal Health Information verbally over the phone by calling Medicare. Form Number: CMS-10106 (OMB control number: 0938-0930); Frequency: Occasionally; Affected Public: Individuals or households; Number of Respondents: 1,000,000; Total Annual Responses: 1,000,000; Total Annual Hours: 250,000. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Sam Jenkins at 410-786-3261.)

In the Federal Register of December 27, 2021 (86 FR 73295), we published a notice announcing the availability of a draft Compliance Policy Guide (CPG) entitled “Sec. 540.525 Scombrotoxin (Histamine)-forming Fish and Fishery Products—Decomposition and Histamine (CPG 7108.24).” This draft CPG would update and replace existing guidance for FDA staff on adulteration associated with decomposition and histamine identified during surveillance sampling and testing of fish and fishery products susceptible to histamine formation. We gave interested parties until February 25, 2022, to submit comments before we began work on the final guidance.

FDA has received a request for a 30-day extension for this comment period to allow additional time for interested parties to develop and submit data, other information, and comments for this draft Compliance Policy Guide before we begin work on the final version of the guidance. We have considered this request and are reopening the comment period for 30 days. FDA believes that this additional 30 days will allow adequate time for any interested parties to submit data, other information, and comments before we begin work on the final guidance.

Section 306(a)(2)(A) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 335a(a)(2)(A)) requires debarment of an individual from providing services in any capacity to a person that has an approved or pending drug product application if FDA finds that the individual has been convicted of a felony under Federal law for conduct relating to the development or approval, including the process of development or approval, of any drug product under the FD&C Act. On August 11, 2021, Ms. Varona was convicted as defined in section 306(l)(1) of the FD&C Act in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Florida, Miami Division, when the court accepted her plea of guilty and entered judgment against her for one count of Conspiracy to Defraud the United States in violation of 18 U.S.C. 371.

The factual basis for this conviction is as follows: As contained in the Information, entered into the docket on March 16, 2021, and the Factual Proffer in Support of Ms. Varona's guilty plea, entered into the docket on June 8, 2021, both from her case, Ms. Varona was employed as an assistant study coordinator at Tellus Clinical Research (Tellus). Tellus was a medical clinic that conducted clinical trials on behalf of pharmaceutical company sponsors. A drug manufacturer (Sponsor) initiated a clinical trial concerning a new investigational drug intended to treat patients suffering from irritable bowel syndrome (Study or IBS Trial). The Sponsor retained a Contract Research Organization (CRO) to manage various aspects of the IBS Trial. CRO entered into a contract with Tellus and Martin Valdes, a medical doctor serving as a clinical investigator for clinical trials conducted at Tellus and as the clinical investigator for the IBS Trial. The study protocol for the IBS Trial required subjects to make periodic scheduled visits to the clinical trial site for which they were paid $100 per visit. During some of these visits, subjects were required to provide blood samples for pharmacokinetic analysis, receive physical exams by clinical trial staff, and undergo electrocardiograms. Subjects were also required to use an “e-diary” system to report their daily experience with the Study drugs. They would do this by making daily phone calls to a number maintained by a third party and answering automated questions nonverbally by touch-tone buttons.

In her role as an assistant study coordinator, Ms. Varona was responsible for administering procedures to subjects in the Study and creating written records reflecting the participation in the Study. However, Ms. Varona and her co-conspirators engaged in an effort to impair, impede, and obstruct FDA's legitimate function of regulating clinical trials of drugs in order to obtain money. Ms. Varona and her co-conspirators did this by fabricating medical records to portray persons as legitimate Study subjects when they were not. She and her co-conspirators falsified these records to make it appear that the Study subjects had consented to participating in the Study, satisfied the Study's eligibility criteria, appeared for scheduled visits at the Study's site, taken Study drugs as required, and received checks as payment for site visits, among other things. For example, Ms. Varona represented that she had seen a purported Study subject, spoken to her about her dietary habits, lifestyle, and exercise regimen, collected a urine sample, taken vital signs, and dispensed the Study drug to her when Ms. Varona well knew that the individual was not a Study subject and that these representations were false. Ms. Varona also knew that one or more of her co-conspirators placed telephone calls to the e-diary system for the purposes of reporting fabricated data on behalf of purportedly legitimate Study subjects.

As a result of this conviction, FDA sent Ms. Varona by certified mail on November 8, 2021, a notice proposing to permanently debar her from providing services in any capacity to a person that has an approved or pending drug product application. The proposal was based on a finding, under section 306(a)(2)(A) of the FD&C Act, that Ms. Varona was convicted, as set forth in section 306(l)(1) of the FD&C Act, of a felony under Federal law for conduct relating to the development or approval, including the process of development or approval, of any drug product under the FD&C Act. The proposal also offered Ms. Varona an opportunity to request a hearing, providing her 30 days from the date of receipt of the letter in which to file the request, and advised her that failure to request a hearing constituted an election not to use the opportunity for a hearing and a waiver of any contentions concerning this action. Ms. Varona received the proposal on November 22, 2021. She did not request a hearing within the timeframe prescribed by regulation and has, therefore, waived her opportunity for a hearing and any contentions concerning her debarment (21 CFR part 12).

Therefore, the Assistant Commissioner, Office of Human and Animal Food Operations, under section 306(a)(2)(A) of the FD&C Act, under authority delegated to the Assistant Commissioner, finds that Ms. Varona has been convicted of a felony under Federal law for conduct relating to the development or approval, including the process of development or approval, of any drug product under the FD&C Act.

As a result of the foregoing finding, Ms. Varona is permanently debarred from providing services in any capacity to a person with an approved or pending drug product application, effective (see DATES ) (see sections 306(a)(2)(A) and 306(c)(2)(A)(ii) of the FD&C Act, (21 U.S.C. 355a(2)(A) and 335a(c)(2)(A)(ii))). Any person with an approved or pending drug product application who knowingly employs or retains as a consultant or contractor, or otherwise uses the services of Ms. Varona in any capacity during her debarment, will be subject to civil money penalties (section 307(a)(6) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 335b(a)(6))). If Ms. Varona provides services in any capacity to a person with an approved or pending drug product application during her period of debarment, she will be subject to civil money penalties (section 307(a)(7) of the FD&C Act). In addition, FDA will not accept or review any abbreviated new drug application from Ms. Varona during her period of debarment, other than in connection with an audit under section 306 of the FD&C Act (section 306(c)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act). Note that, for purposes of sections 306 and 307 of the FD&C Act, a “drug product” is defined as a drug subject to regulation under section 505, 512, or 802 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 355, 360b, 382) or under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262) (section 201(dd) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(dd))).

Any application by Ms. Varona for special termination of debarment under section 306(d)(4) of the FD&C Act should be identified with Docket No. FDA-2021-N-0968 and sent to the Division of Dockets Management (see ADDRESSES ). The public availability of information in these submissions is governed by 21 CFR 10.20.

Publicly available submissions will be placed in the docket and will be viewable at https://www.regulations.gov or at the Dockets Management Staff (see ADDRESSES ) between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, FDA is publishing notice of the proposed collection of information set forth in this document.

With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.

Under sections 501(c) and 502(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 351(c) and 352(a)), nonsterile devices that are labeled as sterile but are in interstate transit to a facility to be sterilized are adulterated and misbranded. FDA regulations at §  801.150(e) (21 CFR 801.150(e)) establish a control mechanism by which firms may manufacture and label medical devices as sterile at one establishment and ship the devices in interstate commerce for sterilization at another establishment, a practice that facilitates the processing of devices and is economically necessary for some firms.

Under §  801.150(e)(1), manufacturers and sterilizers may sign an agreement containing the following: (1) Contact information of the firms involved and the identification of the signature authority of the shipper and receiver, (2) instructions for maintaining accountability of the number of units in each shipment, (3) acknowledgment that the devices that are nonsterile are being shipped for further processing, and (4) specifications for sterilization processing. This agreement allows the manufacturer to ship misbranded products to be sterilized without initiating regulatory action and provides FDA with a means to protect consumers from use of nonsterile products. During routine plant inspections, FDA normally reviews agreements that must be kept for 2 years after final shipment or delivery of devices (see §  801.150(a)(2)). The respondents to this collection of information are device manufacturers and contract sterilizers. FDA's estimate of the reporting burden is based on data obtained from industry in recent years. It is estimated that each of the firms subject to this requirement prepares an average of 37.5 written agreements each year. This estimate varies greatly, from 1 to 218, because some firms provide sterilization services on a part-time basis for only 1 customer, while others are large facilities with many customers. The average time required to prepare each written agreement is estimated to be 4 hours. This estimate varies depending on whether the agreement is the initial agreement or an annual renewal, on the format each firm elects to use, and on the length of time required to reach agreement. The estimate applies only to those portions of the written agreement that pertain to the requirements imposed by this regulation. The written agreement generally also includes contractual agreements that are a usual and customary business practice. The recordkeeping requirements of §  801.150(a)(2) consist of making copies and maintaining the records required under the third-party disclosure section of this collection.

FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:

Our estimated burden for the information collection reflects an overall increase of 27,778 hours and a corresponding increase of 6,175 responses/records. We attribute this adjustment to an increase in the number of submissions we received over the last few years.

This proposed information collection was previously published in the Federal Register on November 22, 2021 (86 FR 66319), and allowed 60 days for public comment. No public comments were received. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment. The Office of Research Services, National Institutes of Health, may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.

Proposed Collection: NIH COVID-19 Vaccination Status Form, REVISION, 0925-0771, exp., 3/31/2022, Office of Research Services (ORS), National Institutes of Health (NIH).

Need and Use of Information Collection: This revision request includes two new forms as NIH is implementing a building entry protocol where all people, Federal Government employees, contractors, patients, and visitors, will answer questions about COVID exposure every day. The NIH COVID-19 Vaccination Status Form will continue to ensure the safety of the Federal workplace consistent with Executive Order 14042, Ensuring Adequate COVID Safety Protocols for Federal Contractors, Executive Order 14043, Requiring Coronavirus Disease 2019 Vaccination for Federal Employees, the COVID-19 Workplace Safety: Agency Model Safety Principles established by the Safer Federal Workforce Task Force, and guidance from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). The proposed information collection will continue to be used to ensure compliance with vaccination requirements in the authorities above, generate the list of persons required to be tested on a routine basis, and will provide important information regarding safety frameworks, guidance, and procedures.

OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 8,499.

This proposed information collection was previously published in the Federal Register on December 17, 2021, page 71650 (FR 86 pages 71650-71651) and allowed 60 days for public comment. No public comments were received. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment. The National Institutes of Health may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after February 28, 2023, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.

Proposed Collection: Electronic Application for NIH Certificates of Confidentiality (CoC E-application System), 0925-0689, REVISION, exp., date 02/28/2023, Office of Extramural Research (OER), National Institutes of Health (NIH).

Need and Use of Information Collection: The current CoC system sends system communications and the approved Certificate to the Principal Investigator and the Institutional Official. The optional data fields will allow the requester to identify another person that receives CoC system communications and the approved Certificate. This request system provides one electronic form to be used by all non-NIH funded research organizations that request a discretionary Certificates of Confidentiality (CoC) from NIH. As described in the authorizing legislation (Section 301(d) of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 241(d)), CoCs are issued by the agencies of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), including NIH, to authorize researchers to protect the privacy of human research subjects by prohibiting them from releasing names and identifying characteristics of research participants to anyone not connected with the research, except in limited circumstances specified in the statute. At NIH, the issuance of discretionary CoCs has been delegated to the OER in the NIH Office of the Director. NIH received 795 requests for CoCs from January 2020 through December 2020 and expects to receive approximately the same number of requests in subsequent years. The NIH has been using an online CoC system to review requests and issue CoCs since 2015. The current CoC request form includes six sections of information collected from research organizations. The information provided is used to determine eligibility for a CoC and to issue the CoC to the requesting organization. Eligible requesting organizations that provide legally binding affirmations that they will abide by the terms of the CoC are issued a Certificate of Confidentiality. This system has increased efficiency and reduced burden for both requesters and NIH staff who currently process these requests. OMB approval is requested for three years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 1193.

It is expected that recipients of this supplemental funding will provide services and supports consistent with the approved activities in the FY 2020 CCBHC Expansion Grants NOFO SM-20-012 and the majority of funds will be used for services. No more than 15 percent of these funds may be used for infrastructure, supplies, or equipment. SAMHSA expects that this program will improve the behavioral health of individuals across the nation by providing comprehensive community-based mental and substance use disorder services; treatment of co-occurring disorders; advance the integration of behavioral health with physical health care; assimilate and utilize evidence-based practices on a more consistent basis; and promote improved access to high quality care.

Supplemental awards will be prioritized for FY 2020 CCBHC Expansion grant recipients with an unobligated balance of less than $1,000,000 under their current grant.

This is not a formal request for application. Assistance will only be provided to the 166 CCBHC Expansion grant recipients, funded in FY 2020 under NOFO SM-20-012, based on the receipt of a satisfactory application and associated budget that is approved by a review group.

Funding Opportunity Title: FY 2020 CCBHC Expansion Supplemental Funding.

Assistance Listing Number: 93.696.

Authority: Section 520A (42 U.S.C. 290bb-32) of the Public Health Service Act, as amended.

Justification: Eligibility for this supplemental funding is limited to the 166 CCBHC Expansion grant recipients who received funding in FY 2020 under the CCBHC Expansion Grants NOFO SM-20-012. These recipients have experienced unexpected and/or increased costs for program activities and services due to the COVID-19 pandemic. It is expected that this supplemental funding will allow CCBHC Expansion grant recipients to provide the required and approved program activities and services that were affected during the pandemic.

Notice of this meeting is given under the authority of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. Appendix. The Commercial Customs Operations Advisory Committee (COAC) provides advice to the Secretary of Homeland Security, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) on matters pertaining to the commercial operations of CBP and related functions within the Department of Homeland Security and the Department of the Treasury.

Pre-registration: For members of the public who plan to participate in the webinar, please register online at https://teregistration.cbp.gov/index.asp?w=246 by 5:00 p.m. EDT by March 30, 2022. For members of the public who are pre-registered to attend the meeting via webinar and later need to cancel, please do so by 5:00 p.m. EDT March 30, 2022, utilizing the following link: https://teregistration.cbp.gov/cancel.asp?w=246.

Please feel free to share this information with other interested members of your organization or association.

To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the issues the committee will consider prior to the formulation of recommendations as listed in the Agenda section below.

Comments must be submitted in writing no later than March 28, 2022, and must be identified by Docket No. USCBP-2022-0010, and may be submitted by one (1) of the following methods:

• Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov. Follow the instructions for submitting comments.

• Email: tradeevents@cbp.dhs.gov. Include the docket number in the subject line of the message.

Instructions: All submissions received must include the words “Department of Homeland Security” and the docket number for this action. Docket: For access to the docket, go to http://www.regulations.gov and search for Docket Number USCBP-2022-0010. To submit a comment, click the “Comment Now!” button located on the top-right hand side of the docket page.

All comments received will be posted without change to https://www.cbp.gov/trade/stakeholder-engagement/coac/coac-public-meetings, including any personal information provided.

There will be multiple public comment periods held during the meeting on March 31, 2022. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to two (2) minutes or less to facilitate greater participation. Please note that the public comment period for speakers may end before the time indicated on the schedule that is posted on the CBP web page: http://www.cbp.gov/trade/stakeholder-engagement/coac.

The COAC will hear from the current subcommittees on the topics listed below:

Meeting materials will be available by March 22, 2022, at: http://www.cbp.gov/trade/stakeholder-engagement/coac/coac-public-meetings.

FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).

These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP.

The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.

Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at https://www.floodsrp.org/pdfs/srp_overview.pdf.

The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at https://msc.fema.gov for comparison.

FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).

These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP.

The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.

Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at https://www.floodsrp.org/pdfs/srp_overview.pdf.

The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at https://msc.fema.gov for comparison.