In the Federal Register on August 30, 2019 (84 FR 45713), make the following amendments:

In the third column on page 45716, under Section IV Application and Submission Information, subsection C. Submission Dates and Times, paragraph (1)(a)(ii) amend the language to: 4:30 p.m. local time on April 15, 2020.

In the third column on page 45716, under Section IV Application and Submission Information, subsection C. Submission Dates and Times, paragraph (1)(b) amend the language to: For applicants requesting a grant only of over $20,000 (unrestricted) or a combination grant and guaranteed loan where the grant request is greater than $20,000, complete applications must be received no later than 4:30 p.m. local time on April 15, 2020.

In the third column of the table on page 45716, amend the Application window closing dates for the Renewable Energy Systems and Energy Efficiency Improvements Grants ($20,000 or less grant and guaranteed loan where the grant request is $20,000 or less competing for the remaining set aside funds) to April 15, 2020*.

In the third column of the table on page 45716, amend the Application window closing dates for the Renewable Energy Systems and Energy Efficiency Improvements Grants Unrestricted grants, including combination grant and guaranteed loan where the grant request is greater than $20,000) to April 15, 2020*.

In the first column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B Review and Selection Process, paragraph (1)(a) amend the second sentence to read: Eligible applications must be submitted by April 15, 2020, in order to be considered for these set-aside funds.

In the first column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B. Review and Selection Process, paragraph (1)(a) amend the third sentence to read: Approximately 50 percent of these funds will be made available for those complete applications the Agency receives by October 31, 2019, and approximately 50 percent of the funds for those complete applications the Agency receives by April 15, 2020.

In the first column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B. Review and Selection Process, paragraph (1)(b) amend the first sentence to read: Eligible applications received by April 15, 2020, for renewable energy system and energy efficiency improvements grants of $20,000 or less, that are not funded by State allocations can be submitted to the National Office to compete against grant applications of $20,000 or less from other States at a national competition.

In the first column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B. Review and Selection Process, paragraph (1)(c) amend the first sentence to read: Eligible applications for renewable energy system and energy efficiency improvements, regardless of the amount of the funding request, received by April 15, 2020, can compete for unrestricted grant funds.

In the second column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B. Review and Selection Process, paragraph (1) amend paragraph (d) to read: National unrestricted grant funds for all eligible renewable energy system and energy efficiency improvements grant applications received by April 15, 2020, which include grants of $20,000 or less, that are not funded by State allocations can be submitted to the National Office to compete against grant applications from other States at a final national competition.

In the third column on page 45718, under section V. Application Review Information, subsection B. Review and Selection Process, paragraph (3) amend the last sentence to read: All unfunded eligible applications for combined grant and guaranteed loan applications that are received by April 15, 2020, and that are not funded by State allocations can be submitted to the National Office to compete against other grant and combined grand and guaranteed loan applications from other States at a final national competition.

On August 15, 2019, the Court sustained Commerce on the following issues: (1) The selection of South Africa, rather than Bulgaria, as the source of surrogate values;  1 (2) the selection of international freight values used by Commerce in the Final Determination ;  2 (3) Commerce's valuation of Zhongji's scrap;  3 and (4) Commerce's decision to defer issuance of its Preliminary Determination. 4 Furthermore, the Court found that Zhongji's arguments about the broader legitimacy of the irrevocable value-added tax (VAT) adjustment were not properly raised during the administrative proceeding. 5 In the Final Determination and Amended Final Determination, 6 Commerce based its calculation of Zhongji's VAT adjustment on the U.S. price of Zhongji's merchandise on resale by Jiangsu Zhongji Lamination Materials Co. (HK) (Zhongji HK), instead of the price at which Jiangsu Zhongji Lamination Materials, Co., Ltd., Jiangsu Zhongji Lamination Materials Stock Co., Ltd., and Jiangsu Huafeng Aluminum Industry Co., Ltd. (collectively, Jiangsu Zhongji) sold the merchandise to Zhongji HK. 7

In Fine Furniture I, litigation arising from the first antidumping duty administrative review of multilayered hardwood flooring, the Court found that Commerce failed to reconcile the deduction for irrecoverable VAT that Commerce calculated with the amounts of irrecoverable VAT that were actually incurred upon exportation, and that Commerce's calculation was not supported by substantial evidence on the record, remanding the case for reconsideration. 8 On remand, Commerce modified its VAT calculations and found that the transfer price to respondent's affiliate was the actual base value from which irrecoverable VAT was calculated, because it was more appropriate to focus on achieving tax neutrality generally, rather than determining what taxes the GOC should have imposed. 9 Commerce's new VAT adjustment methodology was subsequently affirmed by this Court in Fine Furniture II. 10 The fact pattern in Fine Furniture I was similar to that in this case, as the respondent had a similar selling structure and certified that China used its transfer price to its affiliated, offshore reseller as the basis to collect VAT. 11 In accordance with Commerce's revised VAT adjustment calculation methodology, on February 25, 2019, the United States requested a voluntary remand concerning its calculation of the VAT adjustment. 12

On November 12, 2019, we filed our Redetermination. 13 In our Redetermination, we based our calculation of the VAT adjustment on the sale of Jiangsu Zhongji to their affiliated reseller, Zhongji HK.

On March 9, 2020, the Court sustained Commerce's Redetermination, and entered its final judgment. 14

In its decision in Timken, 893 F.2d at 341, as clarified by Diamond Sawblades, the Federal Circuit held that, pursuant to section 516A(e) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), Commerce must publish a notice of a court decision not “in harmony” with a Commerce determination, and must suspend liquidation of entries pending a “conclusive” court decision. The Court's March 9, 2020 judgment sustaining the Redetermination constitutes a final decision of the Court that is not in harmony with Commerce's Amended Final Determination and Order. This notice is published in fulfillment of the publication requirement of Timken. Accordingly, Commerce will continue the suspension of liquidation of the subject merchandise pending the expiration of the period of appeal or, if appealed, pending a final and conclusive court decision.

Because there is now a final court decision, Commerce amends the Amended Final Determination with respect to Zhongji. The revised cash deposit rates for the LTFV investigation, is as follows:

In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct CBP to collect a cash deposit of 48.30 percent for entries of subject merchandise exported by Zhongji, effective March 19, 2020, in accordance with the Timken Notice.

This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516(A)(e), 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.

The Natural Resource Damage Assessment (NRDA) mission of ONMS is to restore injuries to sanctuary resources caused by the release of hazardous substances or oil under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA; 42 U.S.C., 9601 et seq. ) or the Oil Pollution Action of 1990 (OPA; 33 U.S.C., 2701 et seq. ), or physical injuries under the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA) (16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq. ). ONMS consists of the following component organizations: fourteen national marine sanctuaries and two marine national monuments, and the Office of General Counsel for Natural Resources (GCNR). NOAA published the GCNR rate for FY10 in the Federal Register on October 20, 2011 (76 FR 65182). ONMS conducts NRDAs as a basis for recovering damages from responsible parties and uses the funds recovered to restore injured sanctuary resources.

When addressing NRDA incidents, the costs of the damage assessment are recoverable from responsible parties who are potentially liable for an incident. Costs include direct and indirect costs. Direct costs are costs for activities that are clearly and readily attributable to a specific output. In the context of ONMS, outputs may be associated with damage assessment cases, or may be represented by other program products. In contrast, indirect costs reflect the costs for activities that collectively support ONMS's mission and operations. For example, indirect costs include general administrative support and traditional overheads. Although indirect costs may not be readily traced back to a specific direct activity, indirect costs may be allocated to direct activities using an indirect cost distribution rate.

Consistent with standard Federal accounting requirements, ONMS is required to account for and report the full costs of its programs and activities. Further, ONMS is authorized by law to recover reasonable costs of damage assessment and restoration activities under CERCLA, OPA and the NMSA. Within the constraints of these laws, ONMS has the discretion to develop indirect cost rates subject to its requirements.

In October 2002, NOAA contracted the public accounting firm Cotton and Company LLP to: (1) Evaluate the cost accounting system and allocation practices; (2) recommend the appropriate indirect cost allocation methodology; and (3) determine the indirect cost rates for the organizations that comprise ONMS. A subcontractor to Cotton and Company LLP, Empirical Concepts Incorporated (Empirical), calculated the ONMS indirect costs for fiscal year 2010.

Empirical concluded that the cost accounting system and allocation practices of ONMS component organizations are consistent with Federal accounting requirements. Empirical also determined that the most appropriate indirect allocation method was the Direct Labor Cost Base for all ONMS component organizations. The Direct Labor Cost Base is computed by allocation total indirect costs over the sum of direct labor dollars plus the application of NOAA's leave surcharge and benefits rates to direct labor. Empirical further assessed that the indirect cost rates for the ONMS component organizations were fair and equitable. A report on Empirical's assessment and their determination can be obtained from the person identified in FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT .

ONMS will apply the indirect cost rate for FY2010 as recommended by Empirical for each of the ONMS component organizations as provided in the following table:

ONMS will apply the FY2010 rates identified in this notice to all damage assessment and restoration case costs incurred from October 1, 2010 until present, using the Direct Labor Cost base allocation methodology. For cases that have settled and for cost claims paid prior to the effective date of the fiscal year in question, ONMS will not re-open any resolved matters for the purpose of applying the rates in this notice. For cases not settled and cost claims not paid prior to the effective date of the fiscal year in question, ONMS will calculate costs using the rates in this notice. ONMS will use the FY2010 rates for future fiscal years until year-specific rates are developed.

Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) if the information will be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (4) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (5) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Agency: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).

Title: Marine Mammal Health and Stranding Response Program, Level A Stranding Report, Rehabilitation Disposition Data Sheet, and Human Interaction Form.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0178.

Form Number(s): None.

Type of Request: Regular submission (extension of an existing collection).

Number of Respondents: 400.

Average Hours per Response: 30 minutes for Stranding Reports and Rehabilitation Disposition Forms; 45 minutes for the Human Interaction Data Sheet.

Burden Hours: 14,600.

Needs and Uses: This request is for revision of this previously approved data collection. All three of the currently approved forms in this collection (the Stranding Report form, Human Interaction Form, and Rehabilitation Disposition Form) have been slightly modified.

The marine mammal stranding report provides information on strandings so that the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) can compile and analyze, by region, the species, numbers, conditions, and causes of illnesses and deaths in stranded marine mammals. NMFS requires this information to fulfill its management responsibilities under the Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1421a). Section 402(b) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1421a) requires the Secretary to collect and update information on strandings. It further provides that the Secretary shall compile and analyze, by region, the species, numbers, conditions, and causes of illnesses and deaths in stranded marine mammals. Section 404 (a) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1421c) mandates that the Secretary respond to unusual marine mammal mortality events. Without a historical baseline provided by marine mammal information collected from strandings, detection of such events could be difficult, and the investigation could be impeded. Section 401(b) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1421) requires NMFS to facilitate the collection and dissemination of reference data on the health of marine mammal populations in the wild and to correlate health with physical, chemical, and biological environmental parameters. In order to perform this function, NMFS must standardize data collection protocols for health and correlations. Data and samples collected from stranded animals are a critical part of the implementation of this mandate of the MMPA. Minor edits to the current version of the form are proposed, including beginning to collect live, entangled large whale data in this data collection, streamlining the confidence codes, collecting data on marine debris and entanglement interactions, and minor textual edits to field names to better match the other two forms.

NMFS is also responsible for the welfare of marine mammals while in rehabilitation status. Under MMPA section 104(c)(10) [16 U.S.C. 1374(c)(10)], NMFS is required to maintain an inventory of live marine mammals held under permits for rehabilitation or captive display. The data in the Marine Mammal Rehabilitation Disposition report are required to monitor and track animals during rehabilitation and during transfer to permanent-permitted status. This information is submitted primarily by members of the marine mammal stranding networks which are authorized by NMFS. Minor changes are proposed for this form, including the collection of all pinniped pups born in rehab (previously was only for pups that survived the first 48 hours). Additionally, minor edits to field names were made to better match the other two forms.

The Human Interaction Data Sheet provides NMFS with consistent and detailed information on signs of human interaction in stranded marine mammals. This information will assist the Agency in tracking resource conflicts and will provide a solid scientific foundation for conservation and management of marine mammals. With a better understanding of interactions, appropriate measures can be taken to resolve conflicts and, stranding data are the best source of information regarding the occurrence of different types of human interaction. Minor changes to field names are proposed for this form, to better match the other two forms.

Affected Public: State governments; not-for-profit institutions; business or other for-profits organizations.

Frequency: Annual and periodic. On occasion.

Respondent's Obligation: Mandatory.

Legal Authority: Marine Mammal Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 1421a).

I. Abstract

The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issues permits, under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.; MSA), to foreign fishing vessels fishing or operating in U.S. waters. MSA and associated regulations at 50 CFR part 600 require that vessels apply for fishing permits, that vessels and certain gear be marked for identification purposes, that observers be embarked on selected vessels, and that permit holders report their fishing effort and catch or, when processing fish under joint ventures, the amount and locations of fish received from U.S. vessels. These requirements apply to all foreign vessels fishing, transshipping, or processing fish in U.S. waters. Information is collected from persons who operate a foreign fishing vessel in U.S. waters to participate in a directed fishery or joint venture operation, transship fish harvested by a U.S. vessel to a location outside the U.S., or process fish in internal waters. Each person operating a foreign fishing vessel under MSA authority may be required to submit information for a permit, mark their vessels and gear, or submit information about their fishing activities. To facilitate observer coverage, foreign fishing vessel operators must provide a quarterly schedule of fishing effort and upon request must also provide observers with copies of any required records. For foreign fishing vessels that process fish in internal waters, the information collected varies somewhat from other foreign fishing vessels that participate in a directed fishery or a joint venture operation. In particular, these vessels may not be required to provide a permit application or mark their vessels. The information submitted in applications is used to determine whether permits should be used to authorize directed foreign fishing, participation in joint ventures with U.S. vessels, or transshipments of fish or fish products within U.S. waters. The display of identifying numbers on vessels and gear aid in fishery law enforcement and allows other fishermen to report suspicious activity. Reporting of fishing activities allows monitoring of fish received by foreign vessels.

Foreign fishing activity reports are made by radio when fishing begins or ceases, to report on transfers of fish, and to file weekly reports on the catch or receipt of fish. Weekly reports may be submitted by fax or email. Recordkeeping requirements for foreign vessels include a communications log, a transfer log, a daily fishing log, a consolidated fishing or joint venture log, and a daily joint venture log. These records must be maintained for three years. Paper forms are used for foreign fishing vessel permit applications. No information is submitted to NMFS for the vessel and gear marking requirements.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0075.

Form Number: None.

Type of Review: Regular submission (extension of a currently approved collection).

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit organizations.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 8.

Estimated Time per Response: For permit applications: One and one half hours for an application for a directed fishery; two hours for a joint venture application, and 45 minutes for a transshipment permit. For fishing activity reporting: 6 minutes for a joint venture report; 30 minutes per day for joint venture record-keeping; and 7.5 minutes per day for record-keeping by transport vessels. For weekly reports, 30 minutes per response. For foreign vessel and gear identification marking: 15 minutes per marking.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 82.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: $3,337 in recordkeeping/reporting costs.

Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.

Title of Collection: NCCC Team Leader Application.

OMB Control Number: 3045-0005.

Type of Review: Renewal.

Respondents/Affected Public: Individuals and Households.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 800.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 1,600 hours.

Abstract: The NCCC Team Leader application, which is available electronically for all applicants, provides information CNCS uses to select Team Leaders for AmeriCorps NCCC. NCCC engages approximately 2800 corps members each year in community service, and selects Team Leaders and Support Team Leaders to serve as project leaders and project developers and to provide on-site team supervision and reporting. There is at least one Team Leader for each team of approximately ten Corps Members. CNCS also seeks to continue using the currently-approved information collection until the revised information collection is approved by OMB. The currently-approved information collection is due to expire on 11/30/2020.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. All written comments will be available for public inspection on regulations.gov.

The meeting notice published in the Federal Register on Monday, February 3, 2020 (85 FR 5946).

Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Department of Defense, the Designated Federal Officer for U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors was unable to provide public notification required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a) concerning the cancellation of the previously noticed meeting for March 23, 2020. Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.

Purpose of Program: Through the National Center for Education Research (NCER), the Institute of Education Sciences (Institute) provides support for programs of research in areas of demonstrated national need. The Institute's research grant programs are designed to provide interested individuals and the general public with reliable and valid information about education practices that support learning and improve academic achievement and access to education opportunities for all learners. Through the Statistical and Research Methodology in Education grant program, NCER intends to support the development of a wide range of methodological and statistical tools to better enable applied education scientists to conduct rigorous education research. Through the Using Longitudinal Data to Support State Education Policymaking grant program, NCER intends to expand the research use of State Longitudinal Data Systems to examine long-term learner outcomes and pathways in order to provide evidence for State education policymaking.

Competitions in This Notice: The Institute's NCER is announcing two competitions—one competition in statistical and research methodology in education and one competition in using longitudinal data to support State education policymaking.

The Statistical and Research Methodology in Education Competition. Under this ccompetition, NCER will consider only applications that address one of the following topics:

• Statistical and Research Methodology Grants.

• Early Career Statistical and Research Methodology Grants.

Using Longitudinal Data to Support State Education Policymaking. Under this competition, NCER will consider only applications that expand the research use of State Longitudinal Data Systems (SLDS) to provide evidence for State education policymaking. Through this new grant program, IES will increase its support for the research use of SLDS beyond its ongoing research grants program and Grants for Statewide Longitudinal Data Systems.

Exemption from Proposed Rulemaking: Under section 191 of the Education Sciences Reform Act, 20 U.S.C. 9581, the Institute is not subject to section 437(d) of the General Education Provisions Act, 20 U.S.C. 1232(d), and is therefore not required to offer interested parties the opportunity to comment on priorities, selection criteria, definitions, and requirements.

Program Authority: 20 U.S.C. 9501 et seq.

Applicable Regulations: (a) The Education Department General Administrative Regulations in 34 CFR parts 77, 81, 82, 84, 86, 97, 98, and 99. In addition, the regulations in 34 CFR part 75 are applicable, except for the provisions in 34 CFR 75.100, 75.101(b), 75.102, 75.103, 75.105, 75.109(a), 75.200, 75.201, 75.209, 75.210, 75.211, 75.217(a)-(c), 75.219, 75.220, 75.221, 75.222, 75.230, and 75.708. (b) The Office of Management and Budget Guidelines to Agencies on Governmentwide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement) in 2 CFR part 180, as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3485. (c) The Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards in 2 CFR part 200, as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3474.

Note: The regulations in 34 CFR part 86 apply to institutions of higher education only.

Note: The open licensing requirement in 2 CFR 3474.20 does not apply for these competitions.

Types of Awards: Discretionary grants and cooperative agreements.

Fiscal Information: Although Congress has not yet enacted an appropriation for FY 2021, the Institute is inviting applications for these competitions now so that applicants can have adequate time to prepare their applications. The actual level of funding, if any, depends on final congressional action. The Department will announce additional competitions later in FY 2020.

Estimated Range of Awards: For the Statistical and Research Methodology in Education competition (84.305D): $40,000 to $300,000. For the Using Longitudinal Data to Support State Education Policymaking competition (84.305S): $40,000 to $333,000. The size of the awards will depend on the scope of the projects proposed.

Estimated Number of Awards: The number of awards made under each competition will depend on the quality of the applications received and the availability of funds.

Contingent on the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2022 from the list of highly-rated unfunded applications from the FY 2021 competitions.

Note: The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.

Project Period: Up to 36 months.

1. Eligible Applicants: For the Statistical and Research Methodology in Education grant program, applicants that have the ability and capacity to conduct scientifically valid research are eligible to apply. These include, but are not limited to, nonprofit and for-profit organizations and public and private agencies and institutions of higher education, such as colleges and universities. For the Using Longitudinal Data to Support State Education Policymaking grant program, eligible applicants must be a State educational agency (SEA), defined as a State or Territory's K-12 authority, alone, or in conjunction with research organizations such as universities and research firms, and/or with other appropriate organizations (such as other State agencies or local educational agencies). The SEA must be the grantee and must provide the Principal Investigator.

2. Cost Sharing or Matching: These programs do not require cost sharing or matching.

3. Subgrantees: Under 34 CFR 75.708(b) and (c) a grantee under this competition may award subgrants—to directly carry out project activities described in its application—to the following types of entities: Nonprofit and for-profit organizations and public and private agencies and institutions of higher education. The grantee may award subgrants to entities it has identified in an approved application.

1. Application Submission Instructions: Applicants are required to follow the Common Instructions for Applicants to Department of Education Discretionary Grant Programs, published in the Federal Register on February 13, 2019 (84 FR 3768) and available at www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2019-02-13/pdf/2019-02206.pdf, which contain requirements and information on how to submit an application.

2. Other Information: Information regarding program and application requirements for the competitions will be contained in the NCER Requests for Applications (RFAs), which will be available on or before April 1, 2020 on the Institute's website at: https://ies.ed.gov/funding/. Application packages for these competitions will be available on May 7, 2020.

3. Content and Form of Application Submission: Requirements concerning the content of an application are contained in the RFA for the specific competition. The forms that must be submitted are in the application package for the specific competition.

4. Submission Deadline: July 30, 2020 11:59:59 p.m. Eastern Time.

We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.

5. Intergovernmental Review: These competitions are not subject to Executive Order 12372 and the regulations in 34 CFR part 79.

6. Funding Restrictions: We reference regulations outlining funding restrictions in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice.

1. Selection Criteria: For all of its grant competitions, the Institute uses selection criteria based on a peer-review process that has been approved by the National Board for Education Sciences. The Peer Review Procedures for Grant Applications can be found on the Institute's website at https://ies.ed.gov/director/sro/peer_review/application_review.asp.

For the 84.305D competition, peer reviewers will be asked to evaluate the significance of the application, the quality of the research plan, the qualifications and experience of the personnel, the resources of the applicant to support the proposed activities, and the quality of the dissemination history and dissemination plan. These criteria are described in greater detail in the RFA.

For the 84.305S competition, peer reviewers will be asked to evaluate the significance of the application, the quality of the research plan, the applicability and availability of the data to be analyzed, and the quality of the plans to disseminate and use the findings in State decision-making. These criteria are described in greater detail in the RFA.

For all of the Institute's competitions, applications should include budgets no higher than the relevant maximum award as set out in the relevant RFA. For the Statistical and Research Methodology in Education competition, the maximum award for the Regular Grants is $900,000 and the maximum award for the Early Career Grants is $225,000. For the Using Longitudinal Data to Support State Education Policymaking competition, the maximum award is $1,000,000. The Institute will not make an award exceeding the maximum award amount.

2. Review and Selection Process: We remind potential applicants that in reviewing applications in any discretionary grant competition, the Institute may consider, under 34 CFR 75.217(d)(3), the past performance of the applicant in carrying out a previous award, such as the applicant's use of funds, achievement of project objectives, and compliance with grant conditions. The Institute may also consider whether the applicant failed to submit a timely performance report or submitted a report of unacceptable quality.

In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Institute also requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).

3. Risk Assessment and Specific Conditions: Consistent with 2 CFR 200.205, before awarding grants under these competitions, the Department conducts a review of the risks posed by applicants. Under 2 CFR 3474.10, the Institute may impose specific conditions and, in appropriate circumstances, high-risk conditions on a grant if the applicant or grantee is not financially stable; has a history of unsatisfactory performance; has a financial or other management system that does not meet the standards in 2 CFR part 200, subpart D; has not fulfilled the conditions of a prior grant; or is otherwise not responsible.

4. Integrity and Performance System: If you are selected under this competition to receive an award that over the course of the project period may exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (currently $250,000), under 2 CFR 200.205(a)(2) we must make a judgment about your integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards—that is, the risk posed by you as an applicant—before we make an award. In doing so, we must consider any information about you that is in the integrity and performance system (currently referred to as the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS)), accessible through the System for Award Management. You may review and comment on any information about yourself that a Federal agency previously entered and that is currently in FAPIIS.

Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.

1. Award Notices: If your application is successful, we notify your U.S. Representative and U.S. Senators and send you a Grant Award Notification (GAN); or we may send you an email containing a link to access an electronic version of your GAN. We may notify you informally, also.

If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we will notify you.

2. Administrative and National Policy Requirements: We identify administrative and national policy requirements in the application package and reference these and other requirements in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice.

We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice and include these and other specific conditions in the GAN. The GAN also incorporates your approved application as part of your binding commitments under the grant.

3. Grant Administration: Applicants should budget for an annual two-day meeting for project directors to be held in Washington, DC.

4. Reporting: (a) If you apply for a grant under one of the competitions announced in this notice, you must ensure that you have in place the necessary processes and systems to comply with the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 170 should you receive funding under the competition. This does not apply if you have an exception under 2 CFR 170.110(b).

(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Institute. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Institute under 34 CFR 75.118. The Institute may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to www.ed.gov/fund/grant/apply/appforms/appforms.html.

5. Performance Measures: To evaluate the overall success of its education research grant programs, the Institute annually assesses the percentage of projects that result in peer-reviewed publications and the number of Institute-supported interventions with evidence of efficacy in improving learner education outcomes.

6. Continuation Awards: In making a continuation award under 34 CFR 75.253, the Institute considers, among other things: Whether a grantee has made substantial progress in achieving the goals and objectives of the project; whether the grantee has expended funds in a manner that is consistent with its approved application and budget; and, if the Institute has established performance measurement requirements, whether the grantee has met the performance targets in the grantee's approved application.

In making a continuation award, the Institute also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).

Accessible Format: Individuals with disabilities can obtain this document and a copy of the RFA in an accessible format ( e.g., braille, large print, audiotape, or compact disc) on request to the appropriate program contact person listed under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT .

Electronic Access to This Document: The official version of this document is the document published in the Federal Register . You may access the official edition of the Federal Register and the Code of Federal Regulations at www.govinfo.gov. At this site you can view this document, as well as all other documents of this Department published in the Federal Register , in text or Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.

You may also access documents of the Department published in the Federal Register by using the article search feature at www.federalregister.gov. Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.

Commissioners will hold a hearing to discuss the proposed Voluntary Voting System Guidelines (VVSG) 2.0 Requirements as submitted by the Technical Guidelines Development Committee (TGDC). The VVSG 2.0 Requirements are currently published for a 90-day public comment period. Commissioners will hear from a panel of experts who will provide an introduction to the VVSG process as well a high-level overview of the proposed VVSG 2.0 requirements. Commissioners will also hear from members of the public who wish to offer verbal testimony on the VVSG 2.0 requirements. Public testimony during the hearing will be limited to 3-5 minutes maximum per person. If you would like to participate in public testimony, please contact Jerome Lovato ( jlovato@eac.gov ) with your full name and phone number no later than 9:50 a.m. Eastern Time on March 27, 2020. For dial-in users, you will be identified by your area code and the last three digits of your phone number, so please provide the phone number that you will use during the hearing.

The TGDC unanimously approved to recommend VVSG 2.0 Requirements on February 7, 2020, and sent the Requirements to the EAC Acting Executive Director via the Director of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), in the capacity of the Chair of the TGDC on February 28, 2020. Upon adoption, the VVSG 2.0 would become the fifth iteration of national level voting system standards. The Federal Election Commission published the first two sets of federal standards in 1990 and 2002. The EAC then adopted Version 1.0 of the VVSG on December 13, 2005. In an effort to update and improve version 1.0 of the VVSG, on March 31, 2015, the EAC commissioners unanimously approved VVSG 1.1.

Status: This hearing will be open to the public.

Purpose of the Committee: To provide advice on a continuing basis to the Director, Office of Science of the Department of Energy, on the many complex scientific and technical issues that arise in the development and implementation of the Biological and Environmental Research Program.

Public Participation: The daylong meeting is open to the public. If you would like to file a written statement with the Committee, you may do so either before or after the meeting. If you would like to make oral statements regarding any of the items on the agenda, you should contact Tristram West at: tristram.west@science.doe.gov (email) or 301-903-5051 (fax). You must make your request for an oral statement at least five business days before the meeting. Reasonable provision will be made to include the scheduled oral statements on the agenda. The Chairperson of the Committee will conduct the meeting to facilitate the orderly conduct of business. Public comment will be limited to five minutes each.

Minutes: The minutes of this meeting will be available for public review and copying within 45 days at the BERAC website: https://science.osti.gov/ber/berac/Meetings/BERAC-Minutes.

OMB Control Number: 3060-1231.

Title: Section 90.20 (xiv), Public Safety Pool.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities, and State, Local, or Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Reponses: 4 respondents; 4 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 1 hour.

Frequency of Response: One-time; on occasion reporting requirement and third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for these collections are contained in Sections 1, 2, 4(i), 4(j), 301, 303, 316, and 337 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 154(j), 301, 303, 316, and 337.

Total Annual Burden: 4 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No Cost.

Privacy Act Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Needs and Uses: On August, 23, 2016, the Federal Communications Commission released a Report and Order, FCC 16-113, PS Docket No. 15-199 that modified Part 90 of the Rules Private Land Mobile Radio Services. The amended rule revises the Part 90 eligibility rules to permit railroad police officers to access the interoperability. Specifically, the Commission modified Section 90.20(xiv) to provide that:

(xiv)(A) Railroad police officers are a class of users eligible to operate on the nationwide interoperability and mutual aid channels listed in 90.20(i) provided their employer holds a Private Land Mobile Radio (PLMR) license of any radio category, including Industrial/Business (I/B). Eligible users include full and part time railroad police officers, Amtrak employees who qualify as railroad police officers under this subsection, Alaska Railroad employees who qualify as railroad police officers under this subsection, freight railroad employees who qualify as railroad police officers under this subsection, and passenger transit lines police officers who qualify as railroad police officers under this subsection. Railroads and railroad police departments may obtain licenses for the nationwide interoperability and mutual aid channels on behalf of railroad police officers in their employ. Employers of railroad police officers must obtain concurrence from the relevant state interoperability coordinator or regional planning committee before applying for a license to the Federal Communications Commission or operating on the interoperability and mutual aid channels.

( 1 ) Railroad police officer means a peace officer who is commissioned in his or her state of legal residence or state of primary employment and employed, full or part time, by a railroad to enforce state laws for the protection of railroad property, personnel, passengers, and/or cargo.

( 2 ) Commissioned means that a state official has certified or otherwise designated a railroad employee as qualified under the licensing requirements of that state to act as a railroad police officer in that state.

( 3 ) Property means rights-of-way, easements, appurtenant property, equipment, cargo, facilities, and buildings and other structures owned, leased, operated, maintained, or transported by a railroad.

( 4 ) Railroad means each class of freight railroad ( i.e., Class I, II, III); Amtrak, Alaska Railroad, commuter railroads and passenger transit lines.

( 5 ) The word state, as used herein, encompasses states, territories and the District of Columbia.

(B) Eligibility for licensing on the 700 MHz narrowband interoperability channels is restricted to entities that have as their sole or principal purpose the provision of public safety services.

To effectively implement the provisions of the new Rule, no other modifications to existing FCC rules are required. The changes are intended to simplify the licensing process for railroad police officers and ensure interoperable communications. The modified rules provide a benefit to public safety licensees by ensuring that only railroad police officers with appropriate governmental authorization can operate on the interoperability and mutual aid channels during emergencies. This will provide the additional benefit of promoting interoperability with railroad police officers by eliminating eligibility as a gating factor when licensing spectrum. The Report and Order reduces the burden on railroad police by allowing them to meet eligibility standard by requiring employers of railroad police officers to obtain concurrence from the relevant state interoperability coordinator or regional planning committee before applying for a license to the Federal Communications Commission or operating on the interoperability and mutual aid channels. Compliance with this requirement is already a requisite for public safety eligibility to use the interoperability and mutual aid channels, consequently any new burden imposed by this requirement would be minimal.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0844.

Title: Carriage of the Transmissions of Television Broadcast Stations: Section 76.56(a), Carriage of qualified noncommercial educational stations; Section 76.57, Channel positioning; Section 76.61(a)(1)-(2), Disputes concerning carriage; Section 76.64, Retransmission consent.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 4,902 respondents and 7,082 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5 to 5 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation to Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this action is contained in Sections 1, 4(i) and (j), 325, 338, 614, 615, 631, 632, and 653 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i) and (j), 325, 338, 534, 535, 551, 552, and 573.

Total Annual Burden: 4,486 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No cost.

Nature and Extent of Confidentiality: There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.

Privacy Impact Assessment: No impact(s).

Needs and Uses: Under Section 614 of the Communications Act and the implementing rules adopted by the Commission, commercial TV broadcast stations are entitled to assert mandatory carriage rights on cable systems located within the station's television market. Under Section 325(b) of the Communications Act, commercial TV broadcast stations are entitled to negotiate with local cable systems for carriage of their signal pursuant to retransmission consent agreements in lieu of asserting must carry rights. This system is therefore referred to as “Must-Carry and Retransmission Consent.” Under Section 615 of the Communications Act, noncommercial educational (NCE) stations are also entitled to assert mandatory carriage rights on cable systems located within the station's market; however, noncommercial TV broadcast stations are not entitled to retransmission consent.

In 2019, the Commission adopted new rules governing the delivery and form of carriage election notices. Electronic Delivery of MVPD Communications, Modernization of Media Regulation Initiative, MB Docket Nos. 17-105, 17-317, Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, FCC 19-69, 34 FCC Rcd 5922(2019) ( 2019 Report and Order ). That decision modernized the carriage election notice rules by moving the process online for most broadcasters and multichannel video programming distributors (MVPDs), but the Commission sought comment on how to apply these updated rules to certain small broadcast stations and MVPDs.

In 2020, the Commission adopted a Report and Order that resolved the remaining issues regarding carriage election notice rules for small broadcast stations and MVPDs. Electronic Delivery of MVPD Communications, Modernization of Media Regulation Initiative, MB Docket Nos. 17-105, 17-317, Report and Order, FCC 20-14, 2020 WL 948697 (rel. Feb. 25, 2020) (2020 Report and Order). Pursuant to that decision, the obligations of certain small broadcasters and MVPDs were slightly modified.

This information collection is being revised to reflect the changes to 47 CFR 76.64(h) as well as other new obligations adopted in the 2020 Report and Order, which require review and approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).

47 CFR 76.64(h)(5) is amended to require low power television stations and non-commercial educational translator stations that are qualified under 47 CFR 76.55 and retransmitted by an MVPD to, beginning no later than July 31, 2020, respond as soon as is reasonably possible to messages or calls from MVPDs that are received via the email address or phone number the station provides in the Commission's Licensing and Management System (LMS) database.

A qualified Low Power Television (LPTV) station that changes its carriage election must send an election change notice to each affected MVPD's carriage election-specific email address by the carriage election deadline. Such change notices must include, with respect to each station covered by the notice: The station's call sign, the station's community of license, the DMA where the station is located, the specific change being made in election status, and an email address and phone number for carriage-related questions. LPTV notices to cable operators need to identify specific cable systems for which a carriage election applies only if the broadcaster changes its election for some systems of the cable operator but not all. In addition, the broadcaster must carbon copy ElectionNotices@FCC.gov, the Commission's election notice verification email inbox, when sending its carriage elections to MVPDs.

All qualified LPTV stations, whether being carried pursuant to must carry or retransmission consent, must send an email notice to all MVPDs that are or will be carrying the station no later than the next carriage election deadline of October 1, 2020. Qualified LPTVs must do so even if they are not changing their carriage status from the current election cycle. These notifications must be sent to an MVPD's carriage election-specific email address, must be copied to ElectionNotices@FCC.gov, and must include the same information required for a change notification except that the notification may simply confirm the existing carriage status rather than a change in status.

All qualified NCE translator stations must provide email notice to all MVPDs that are or will be carrying the translator no later than the next carriage election deadline of October 1, 2020. Similar to qualified LPTVs, these notifications must be sent to an MVPD's carriage election-specific email address, must be copied to ElectionNotices@FCC.gov, and must include the station's call sign, the station's community of license, and the DMA where the station is located and within which it has elected to be carried.

Pursuant to Section 6(f) of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 2.34, 16 CFR 2.34, notice is hereby given that the above-captioned consent agreement containing a consent order to cease and desist, having been filed with and accepted, subject to final approval, by the Commission, has been placed on the public record for a period of thirty (30) days. The following Analysis of Agreement Containing Consent Order to Aid Public Comment describes the terms of the consent agreement and the allegations in the complaint. An electronic copy of the full text of the consent agreement package can be obtained from the FTC website (for March 19, 2020), at this web address: https://www.ftc.gov/news-events/commission-actions.

You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before April 24, 2020. Write “Danaher Corporation; File No. 191 0082” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the https://www.regulations.gov website.

Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online through the https://www.regulations.gov website.

If you prefer to file your comment on paper, write “Danaher Corporation; File No. 191 0082” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite CC-5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20580; or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW, 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.

Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible website at https://www.regulations.gov, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including in particular competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.

Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record. See FTC Rule 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Once your comment has been posted on the public FTC website—as legally required by FTC Rule 4.9(b)—we cannot redact or remove your comment from the FTC website, unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request.

Visit the FTC website at http://www.ftc.gov to read this Notice and the news release describing it. The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding, as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before April 24, 2020. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.

The Federal Trade Commission (“Commission”) has accepted, subject to final approval, an Agreement Containing Consent Orders (“Consent Agreement”) from Danaher Corporation (“Danaher”) designed to remedy the anticompetitive effects resulting from Danaher's proposed acquisition of the GE Biopharma business of General Electric Company's (“GE”) GE Healthcare Life Sciences division. Under the terms of the proposed Consent Agreement, Danaher is required to divest all of the rights and assets related to the following products to Sartorius AG (“Sartorius”): (1) Microcarrier beads; (2) conventional low-pressure liquid chromatography (“LPLC”) columns; (3) conventional LPLC skids; (4) single-use LPLC skids; (5) three affected chromatography resins; (6) LPLC continuous chromatography systems; (7) single-use TFF systems; and (8) label-free molecular characterization instruments.

The proposed Consent Agreement has been placed on the public record for thirty days for receipt of comments by interested persons. Comments received during this period will become part of the public record. After thirty days, the Commission will review the comments received and decide whether it should withdraw, modify, or make the Consent Agreement final.

Under the terms of the Equity and Asset Purchase Agreement dated February 25, 2019, Danaher will acquire the GE Biopharma business in exchange for $21.4 billion (the “Acquisition”). The Commission's Complaint alleges that the proposed Acquisition, if consummated, would violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18, and Section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 45, by substantially lessening competition in the markets for: (1) Microcarrier beads; (2) conventional low-pressure liquid chromatography (“LPLC”) columns; (3) conventional LPLC skids; (4) single-use LPLC skids; (5) three affected chromatography resins; (6) LPLC continuous chromatography systems; (7) single-use TFF systems; and (8) label-free molecular characterization instruments. The proposed Consent Agreement will remedy the alleged violations by preserving the competition that otherwise would be lost in these markets as a result of the proposed Acquisition.

Headquartered in Washington, DC, Danaher is a leading global manufacturer of professional, medical, industrial, and commercial products and services through more than twenty operating companies. Danaher sells bioprocessing products primarily through its wholly owned subsidiary Pall Corporation (“Pall”), including instruments and consumables that support research, discovery, process development, and manufacturing workflows of biopharmaceutical drugs. Danaher sells other life science instruments, including molecular characterization used primarily in biopharmaceutical research applications, through its Molecular Devices, LLC operating company.

GE is a global conglomerate headquartered in Boston, Massachusetts. GE Biopharma is a division of GE Healthcare Life Sciences that manufactures and sells instruments, consumables, and software that support the research, discovery, process development, and manufacturing workflows of biopharmaceutical drugs.

Microcarrier beads are used in cell culture bioprocessing. They provide a surface for the anchorage of dependent cells to attach and grow in cell culture vessels and bioreactors. Danaher and GE are the two leading global suppliers of microcarrier beads and are each other's closest competitors. The only other significant supplier of microcarrier beads is Corning, Inc., which is substantially smaller than GE, the dominant supplier. The market for microcarrier beads is highly concentrated. The parties have a combined market share of greater than 70 percent. The Acquisition would increase concentration in the microcarrier bead market substantially and reduce the number of major suppliers from three to two.

LPLC columns separate wanted from unwanted molecules by using a liquid or gaseous phase to carry the cell mass through an adsorbent serving as a stationary phase. Conventional LPLC columns are containers that hold chromatography resins used as the adsorbent during the stationary phase. These columns are made of glass, stainless steel, acrylic glass, or plastic. This market is highly concentrated, with only four main suppliers, including Danaher and GE. The parties have a combined market share of greater than 45 percent. Further, Danaher and GE are two of very few suppliers that offer larger, process-scale conventional LPLC columns, which is a segment of the market that is even more concentrated. Other remaining chromatography suppliers consist of fringe of firms, each of which account for a small share of the market.

Conventional LPLC skids control the flow of liquid in the chromatography process. Conventional LPLC skids contain a system of pumps, valves, sensors, tubing, electronic components, software, and flow paths composed of multi-use components. GE is the leading supplier of conventional LPLC skids with a market share of over 30 percent. Danaher and GE currently compete directly for sales in the market for conventional LPLC skids, and there are few other significant suppliers. The Acquisition would substantially increase concentration in the market for conventional LPLC skids.

Single-use LPLC skids control the flow of liquid in the chromatography process and have the same function as conventional LPLC skids except that the flow path is composed of single-use components. As is the case for conventional ones, GE is the dominant supplier of single-use LPLC skids. According to market participants, in addition to GE and Danaher are two of only three significant suppliers. The only other suppliers are fringe firms with few sales. Danaher and GE have a combined market share of greater than 80 percent for single-use LPLC skids.

Chromatography resins are chemically treated consumables that constitute the stationary phase of the LPLC process. The parties both supply resins, although GE has a broad portfolio of resins while Danaher has more limited offerings. Each resin type differs in its chemical characteristics and features, and specific purification and production steps require different resins for the processing of particular molecules. Because of their distinct attributes and uses, each type of resin appears to constitute a distinct antitrust market. The parties have competitively significant overlaps in three resin markets: Affinity resins, ion exchange resins, and mixed mode resins. Affinity resins use binding interactions between a ligand and its binding partner to capture the target molecule. Ion exchange resins separate molecules based on their total electric charge. Mixed mode resins use matrices functionalized with ligands capable of multiple interactions that make this type of resin useful to purify target proteins when other methods fail.

Danaher and GE are two of a limited number of competitors in the markets for affinity, ion exchange, and mixed mode resins. Similar to the markets for chromatography hardware, GE is dominant in chromatography resins, holding market shares of between 65 and 73 percent, 57 and 65 percent, and 56 and 64 percent in affinity, ion exchange, and mixed mode resins, respectively, while Danaher's market share is significant but no greater than ten percent in each resin market.

A LPLC continuous chromatography system consists of a skid and columns that functions by regulating the flow of resins through the affixed columns in a continuous process that, for some uses, provides greater efficiency and cost savings. The parties, however, appear to be the leading suppliers in the market. Currently, Danaher has approximately 28 percent market share and GE has approximately 14 percent share. Only three other suppliers compete in this market, and the combined firm would have a market share of over 40 percent.

Single-use TFF systems control the filtration process, which removes unwanted molecules during the cell growth phase of the bioprocessing workflow by running liquids through porous membranes. Single-use TTF systems include sensors, valves, safety and security items, software, and network communication hardware, as well as flow kits, manifolds, and pumps composed of single-use components. Customers typically use TFF for cell clarification and for diafiltration, concentration, and microfiltration. TFF systems are configurable as conventional or single-use platforms. With single-use TFF systems, suppliers sell disposable flow kits (single-use tubing) that are used as a consumable. In contrast, conventional TFF systems are made with stainless steel and must be cleaned and validated after each use. Customers typically do not switch between single-use and conventional TFF systems, and they do not view other types of filtration systems as an economic or practical substitute for single-use TFF systems. Danaher and GE are two important competitors in the market for single-use TFF systems. GE's system has gained share since recently entering the market and currently competes closely with Danaher's system. The parties have a combined share of the single-use TFF filtration systems market of more than 35 percent.

Label-free molecular characterization instruments characterize protein binding interaction and protein concentration based on measurement of the optical, calorimetric, electrical, acoustic, and other physical reactions to various stimuli. Researchers use these instruments for a number of applications, including drug discovery and other biological research. Label-free molecular characterization instruments are a distinct relevant product market within the broader universe of molecular characterization instruments By their own estimates Danaher has approximately 23 percent share and GE has about 39 percent leaving the combined firm with share greater than 60 percent. The remainder of the market is highly fragmented and consists of less established instrument manufacturers and firms offering niche products.

The proposed Acquisition would likely result in substantial competitive harm to consumers in the markets for microcarrier beads; conventional LPLC columns; conventional LPLC skids; single-use LPLC skids; three chromatography resins; LPLC continuous chromatography systems; single-use TFF systems; and label-free molecular characterization. The parties are two of few significant suppliers of these products worldwide. Eliminating the head-to-head competition between Danaher and GE in these concentrated markets would allow the combined firm to exercise market power unilaterally, likely resulting in higher prices, reduced innovation, and less choice for consumers.

De novo entry in the relevant markets would not be timely, likely, or sufficient in magnitude, character, and scope to deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects of the proposed Acquisition. Entry into each of the relevant product markets requires a significant amount of time and resources. In each relevant market, a new entrant would need to develop products with high levels of performance and reliability to establish the brand recognition necessary to compete effectively due to the premium customers place on suppliers' track records and reputations for reliable, high-quality products. Attaining requisite technological expertise and intellectual property often prevents suppliers from developing new products in the relevant markets. These barriers can delay the launch of new products and prevent existing suppliers of other equipment from developing new projects. Moreover, a potential entrant must establish a sufficient sales force that offers high-quality technical support and is capable of establishing relationships with customers. Such development efforts are difficult, time-consuming, and expensive, and often fail to result in a competitive product reaching the market.

The Consent Agreement eliminates the competitive concerns raised by the proposed Acquisition by requiring Danaher to divest its microcarrier beads; chromatography hardware including conventional LPLC chromatography columns, conventional LPLC chromatography skids, and single-use LPLC chromatography skids; three chromatography resins; LPLC continuous chromatography systems; single-use TFF filtration systems; and label-free molecular characterization instruments to Sartorius. Danaher must divest all assets and rights to research, develop, manufacture, market, and sell these products, including all related intellectual property and other confidential business information, manufacturing technology, existing inventory, and all related agreements to manufacture and distribute the products. Additionally, to ensure that the divestiture is successful and to maintain continuity of supply, the proposed Order requires Danaher to supply Sartorius with these products for a limited time while Sartorius establishes its own manufacturing capability. Further, the proposed Order requires Sartorius to seek the Commission's approval in the event that it seeks to sell certain divested assets or acquire certain assets that compete with the divested assets for a period of three years. The provisions of the Consent Agreement ensure that Sartorius becomes an independent, viable, and effective competitor to maintain the competition that currently exists.

Based in Göttingen, Germany, Sartorius is a leading provider of instruments, manufacturing systems, and associated consumables for the life sciences industry including bioprocessing equipment used for drug discovery, development, and commercialization. Sartorius's existing biopharma business includes products that are highly complementary to the divestiture assets. Sartorius has the expertise, worldwide sales infrastructure, and resources to restore the competition that otherwise would have been lost due to the proposed Acquisition.

Danaher must accomplish the divestitures no later than 45 days after consummating the proposed Acquisition or ten days after receiving all regulatory approvals necessary to consummate the divestiture. Until Danaher completes the divestiture, the proposed Order requires Danaher to hold separate the entire Pall operating company and the molecular characterization business, as well as to maintain the divested assets. Danaher is also required to submit compliance reports to staff and to the proposed monitor demonstrating compliance with these asset maintenance provisions.

If the Commission determines that Sartorius is not an acceptable acquirer, or that the manner of the divestitures is not acceptable, the proposed Order requires Danaher to unwind the sale of rights and assets to Sartorius and then divest the affected products to a Commission-approved acquirer within six months of the date the Order becomes final. To ensure compliance with the Order, the Commission has agreed to appoint a Monitor to ensure that Danaher complies with all of its obligations pursuant to the Consent Agreement and to keep the Commission informed about the status of the transfer of the product rights and assets to Sartorius. The proposed Order further allows the Commission to appoint a trustee in the event that Danaher fails to divest the products as required.

The purpose of this analysis is to facilitate public comment on the Consent Agreement, and it is not intended to constitute an official interpretation of the proposed Order or to modify its terms in any way.

Research has shown that health care quality in the U.S. varies significantly and only half of adults receive evidence-based, recommended care. Individuals with multiple chronic conditions (42% of adults) and older adults are at particular risk for negative health outcomes. Current evidence shows that clinical decision support (CDS) systems improve adherence to evidence-based practices by analyzing patient data and making appropriate information available to the physician at the time they need it. CDS systems are usually electronic health record (EHR)-based, encompassing tools like alerts, clinical guidelines, patient reports and dashboards, diagnostic support, and workflow tools. These tools help reduce clinical errors and allow for customization to patient needs, improving quality of care and patient outcomes.

The AHRQ Patient-Centered (PC) CDS Learning Network (PC CDS LN) defines PC CDS as: “CDS that supports individual patients and their approved care givers and/or care teams in health-related decisions and actions by leveraging information from PCOR findings and/or patient-specific information ( e.g., patient-generated health data).” Through PC CDS, AHRQ seeks to accelerate the movement of patient-centered outcomes research (PCOR) evidence into practice and to make CDS more shareable, standards-based, and publicly available.

Traditionally, CDS initiatives have focused on provider-directed guidelines and increasing the shareability of CDS artifacts; however, PC CDS targets both patients (and/or caregivers) and providers.

AHRQ's effort to support PC CDS has included efforts such as the PC CDS LN, CDS Connect, and other related grants and contracts. In this project, AHRQ seeks to conduct a comprehensive evaluation to assess the impact of AHRQ's PCOR CDS Initiative (the Initiative) on understanding of the current state of PC CDS and to identify gaps to guide AHRQ's future research.

This research has the following goal:

To assess the accomplishments and opportunities for the Initiative as a whole, and each of its four individual components: The PC CDS Learning Network, CDS Connect, Quantifying Efficiencies, and the U18 CDS Resource Grants.

This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractor, NORC at the University of Chicago, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to disseminate government-funded research relevant to comparative clinical effectiveness research. 42 U.S.C. 299b-37(a)-(c).

To achieve these goals, the evaluation team will use key informant interviews and a web-based survey to gather information about the programs from stakeholders, contributors, and users of the CDS Initiative programs.

Key Informant Interviews: The evaluation team will conduct semi-structured interviews with people involved in the Initiative's components, including representatives from academia, industry, health systems, and government. Key informants will include the following groups:

Leaders: Includes AHRQ project officers, contractor's senior staff, and senior consultants to Initiative components. Leaders are expected to have set the direction of the components or activities and to be familiar with the activities, the processes of implementation, and their outputs in their entirety.

Contributors: Includes lead authors or content developers for a product or output of a component, and may overlap with leaders. Examples of contributors from the PC CDS LN include lead authors of the Trust Framework, Opioid Action Plan, or Patient Blogs; examples from the CDS Connect include individuals who contributed CDS artifacts to the repository.

Participants: Includes individuals who participated in workgroups of either the PC CDS LN or CDS Connect, or participated in the development of one of the products.

Consumers: Includes individuals who have used a product developed by the Initiative, including artifacts found on the CDS Connect repository and the CDS Connect Authoring Tool in particular. Individuals will be identified from interviews with leaders, contributors, and participants, and through literature review for authors making references to Initiative products ( i.e., reports or artifacts).

AHRQ and the evaluation contractor will create a list of eligible key informants that reflect the appropriate mix of roles and depth of experience to ensure comprehensive evaluation. Key informants will receive invitational emails that explain the scope and allow candidates to ask questions before declining or accepting the invitation. We will include clinical staff in our sample of participants in the Quantifying Efficiencies grant program, the U18 grants and the two opioid-related CDS projects. Involving staff at clinical sites will also be critical to understanding the value of PC CDS in the context of provider workflows and burdens.

Web Survey: The purpose of the web survey is to understand more about who the users of CDS Connect resources are, their reasons for using the resources, how they use these resources, and their perceptions about their value. The CDS Connect resources of interest include the CDS Authoring Tool, artifacts in the CDS Connect Repository and open-source CDS Connect resources available on Github, a platform for developing and sharing software. Respondents will be identified through a chain-referral methodology. The first set of survey invitations will be sent to a list of email addresses of known contributors or users of CDS Connect as well as a group of potential users of CDS Connect. At the end of the survey, each respondent will be asked to provide names and email addresses for up to four other users of CDS Connect resources. After the list of names from all referrals is deduplicated, a survey invitation will be sent to these referrals.

The survey instrument includes multiple choice questions that capture important data points about use of CDS Connect resources, specifically the CDS Authoring tool, GitHub resources, and artifacts from the CDS Repository. Respondents will only be presented with more detailed questions about CDS Connect resource usage based on their responses to initial screening questions. The survey will take ten minutes on average to complete based on in-house testing.

This mixed methods evaluation seeks to answer the following research questions about the Initiative as a whole:

1. To what extent has the Initiative promoted the dissemination and implementation of PCOR findings through sharable, standards-based, and publicly available CDS and how?

2. What activities carried out through each component ( e.g., webinars, workgroups, in-person meetings, repositories, CDS artifacts and development tools, final reports or plans) were found to be most successful in furthering the various goals of the Initiative?

3. What do stakeholders perceive to be the impacts of the Initiative to date, including reflection on their own involvement in it, and current or potential achievements, such as the development of a common definition of PC CDS and growth of interest in and capacity for developing these types of CDS among stakeholders?

4. How does the Initiative address federal policies for the dissemination and implementation of evidence-based research funded by the PCOR Trust Fund, and how do they interact with other federal policy initiatives designed to promote widespread use, interoperability and patient access to information from EHRs with advanced CDS.

5. What can AHRQ learn from the Initiative that is relevant to other initiatives aimed at disseminating and implementing clinical evidence and evidence-based practices? How can the lessons learned here inform future research, implementation, and dissemination initiatives?

Information collected by the study will inform strategies to promote the adoption of PCOR evidence into practice through CDS developed by AHRQ and other Department of Health and Human Services agencies, including the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and the Office of the National Coordinator for Health IT, as well as state and local governments and private health care organizations. Findings from the evaluation can help identify and shape strategies to promote more effective implementation of PCOR CDS in order to accelerate the movement of evidence into clinical practice and support patient-centered decision making by clinicians with their patients.

Key Informant Interviews. Key informant interviews will be conducted with up to 147 key informants across a variety of organizations involved in each component of the Initiative. NORC will use one of 14 interview protocols based on the component the key informant is involved in and their role in that component. As shown in Exhibit 1, the interview form names include the type of role of the key informant in the project. All interviews are expected to last one hour. Some key informants may serve multiple roles or work on multiple projects. In these cases, the relevant protocols will be combined and streamlined so that the informant only completes one interview. Some of the key informant interviews for the sites or Opioid-related grants may be conducted during the course of site visits at the implementation sites, either with individuals or small groups of respondents.

Web Survey. For the web survey, it is estimated that 453 CDS Connect users will respond to the 10-minute survey. The total annual burden hours for the key informant interviews and surveys is estimated to be 224 hours as shown in Exhibit 1.

Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annual cost burden associated with the respondents' time to participate in this information collection, which comes to $14,371.85.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ's health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Purpose: The Secretary, the Assistant Secretary for Health, and by delegation the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, are authorized under Sections 301 and 308 of the Public Health Service Act to conduct directly or by grants or contracts, research, experiments, and demonstrations relating to occupational safety and health and to mine health. The Board of Scientific Counselors provides guidance to the Director, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health on research and prevention programs. Specifically, the Board provides guidance on the Institute's research activities related to developing and evaluating hypotheses, systematically documenting findings and disseminating results. The Board evaluates the degree to which the activities of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health: (1) Conform to appropriate scientific standards, (2) address current, relevant needs, and (3) produce intended results.

Matters to be Considered: The agenda for the meeting addresses occupational safety and health issues related to: Peracetic Acid: Overview of Analytical, Toxicology and Field Studies; NIOSH Center for Motor Vehicle Safety Strategic Plan; New tools for real-time coding of industry and occupation in field surveys; National Firefighter Registry Update; and Evaluation Capacity Building Plan Update.

Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate. An agenda is also posted on the NIOSH website ( http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/bsc/ ). Members of the public who wish to address the NIOSH BSC are requested to contact the Executive Secretary for scheduling purposes (see contact information below). Alternatively, written comments to the BSC may be submitted via an on-line form at the following website: http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/bsc/contact.html.

The Director, Strategic Business Initiatives Unit, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign Federal Register notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.

Description: OHSEPR leads HHS's and ACF's disaster human services missions conducted under the National Response Framework's Emergency Support Function 6 (ESF 6), Mass Care, Emergency Assistance, Temporary Housing, and Human Services. OHSEPR's ESF 6 disaster operations include implementation of disaster human services case management missions to connect disaster survivors to resources and services that support their individual and family recovery from disaster.

The primary purpose of the information collection pertains to the implementation of OHSEPR's delivery of case management services to individuals and households impacted by a disaster. OHSEPR's disaster case managers collect information during intake assessments that is utilized to identify a disaster survivor's unmet needs and connect them with resources. OHSEPR also utilizes this information to target resources and improve its disaster human services operations.

The information collection will be used to support OHSEPR's goal to quickly identify critical gaps, resources, needs, and services to support state, local, and non-profit capacity for disaster case management and to augment and build human service capacity where none exists. All information gathered will be used to (1) provide case management services to survivors and (2) inform the delivery of disaster case management services and programmatic strategies and improvements.

Respondents: Individuals impacted by a disaster.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 521.

Comments: The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.

Description: This Notice is to solicit comments from the public on ACYF's proposed information collection documents (application, State Plan, and Performance Progress Report).

Purpose and Use of the Information Collections: The application and State Plan will offer information about the proposed state project and it will be used as the primary basis to determine whether or not the project meets the minimum requirements for the award.

The Performance Progress Report will inform the monitoring of the grantees program design, program evaluation, management improvement, service quality, and compliance with agreed upon goals. ACYF/FYSB will use the information to assure effective service delivery. Finally, the data from this collection will be used to report outcomes and efficiencies and will provide valuable information to policy makers and key stakeholders in the development of program and research efforts.

Respondents: Fifty states and nine territories, to include the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, Northern Mariana Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Marshall Islands, and Palau.

Estimated Annual Burden Total: 4,702.

Comments: The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.

On January 31, 2020, as a result of confirmed cases of COVID-19, and after consultation with public health officials as necessary, Alex M. Azar II, Secretary of Health and Human Services, pursuant to the authority under section 319 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247), determined that a public health emergency exists and has existed since January 27, 2020, nationwide. 1 On March 13, 2020, President Donald J. Trump declared that the COVID-19 outbreak in the United States constitutes a national emergency, beginning March 1, 2020. 2 FDA is committed to providing timely recommendations, regulatory advice, guidance, and technical assistance on an Agency-wide basis on issues related to COVID-19, including to clarify our expectations regarding regulatory requirements to support response efforts to this emergency. To this end, FDA is announcing procedures for making available FDA guidance documents related to the COVID-19 public health emergency. FDA believes that these procedures, which operate within FDA's established good guidance practices regulations, will allow the Agency to rapidly disseminate Agency recommendations and policies related to COVID-19 to industry, FDA staff, and other stakeholders.

To facilitate issuance of guidance on topics related to the COVID-19 public health emergency, the Agency intends to use the following procedures:

• In light of the need to act quickly and efficiently to respond to the COVID-19 public health emergency, FDA anticipates that prior public participation will not be feasible or appropriate before FDA implements COVID-19-related guidance documents. FDA anticipates it will issue COVID-19-related guidance documents for immediate implementation without prior public comment (see section 701(h)(1)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 371(h)(1)(C)) and 21 CFR 10.115(g)(2) (§ 10.115(g)(2)).

• Although FDA expects that COVID-19-related guidances will be implemented without prior comment, FDA will solicit comment, review all comments received, and revise the guidance documents as appropriate (see § 10.115(g)(2)). Each guidance will specify the docket number(s) to which comments can be submitted.

• Guidance documents related to COVID-19 will be accessible on the internet from the FDA web page entitled “Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19),” available at https://www.fda.gov/emergency-preparedness-and-response/mcm-issues/coronavirus-disease-2019-covid-19.

• Guidance documents related to COVID-19 may also be accessed from the FDA web page entitled “Search for FDA Guidance Documents” available at https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents.

• Rather than publishing a separate Notice of Availability (NOA) for each COVID-19-related guidance document, FDA intends to publish periodically a consolidated NOA. This periodic NOA will announce the availability of all the COVID-19-related guidance documents that issued during the relevant period. The consolidated NOA will provide instructions to the public on submitting comments on COVID-19-related guidance documents, including the docket number(s) associated with each guidance document, information on how to view the dockets, and instructions for persons interested in obtaining a copy of a COVID-19-related guidance document. In addition, the guidance document will provide information to the public on submitting comments on the guidance document, including the docket number(s) associated with the guidance document and instructions for persons interested in obtaining a copy of a COVID-19-related guidance document.

• FDA intends to establish one docket for each Center or Office that may issue COVID-19-related guidance documents. All COVID-19-related guidance documents issued by that Center or Office will be available in the docket associated with the Center or Office that issues the guidance document. The docket numbers associated with each Center or Office that may issue COVID-19-related guidance documents are as follows:

Under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq. ), we maintain lists of endangered and threatened wildlife and plant species in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 50 CFR 17.11 (for wildlife) and 17.12 (for plants) (List). Section 4(c)(2)(A) of the ESA requires us to review each listed species' status at least once every 5 years. Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.21 require that we publish a notice in the Federal Register announcing those species under active review. For additional information about 5-year reviews, go to http://www.fws.gov/endangered/what-we-do/recovery-overview.html.

This notice announces our active 5-year reviews of the species in the following table.

A 5-year review considers the best scientific and commercial data that have become available since the current listing determination or most recent status review of each species, such as:

A. Species biology, including, but not limited to, population trends, distribution, abundance, demographics, and genetics;

B. Habitat conditions, including, but not limited to, amount, distribution, and suitability;

C. Conservation measures that have been implemented to benefit the species;

D. Threat status and trends (see the five factors under How do we determine whether a species is endangered or threatened? ); and

E. Other new information, data, or corrections, including, but not limited to, taxonomic or nomenclatural changes, identification of erroneous information contained in the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants, and improved analytical methods.

We request any new information concerning the status of any of these 25 species. Information submitted should be supported by documentation such as maps; bibliographic references; methods used to gather and analyze the data; and/or copies of any pertinent publications, reports, or letters by knowledgeable sources.

We may conduct a species status assessment (SSA) for some of these species. An SSA is a biological risk assessment to aid decision makers who must use the best available scientific information to make policy decisions or recommendations under the ESA. The SSA provides decision makers with a scientifically rigorous characterization of a species' status, and of the likelihood that the species will sustain populations, along with key uncertainties in that characterization. It presents a compilation of the best available information on a species, as well as its ecological needs, based on environmental factors. An SSA also describes the current condition of the species' habitat and demographics, and probable explanations for past and ongoing changes in abundance and distribution within the species' range. Finally, it forecasts the species' response to probable future scenarios of environmental conditions and conservation efforts. Overall, an SSA uses the conservation biology principles of resiliency, redundancy, and representation (collectively known as the “3 Rs”) to evaluate the current and future condition of the species. As a result, the SSA characterizes a species' ability to sustain populations in the wild over time based on the best scientific understanding of current and future abundance and distribution within the species' ecological settings.

A. Species means any species or subspecies of fish, wildlife, or plant, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature.

B. Endangered means any species that is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range.

C. Threatened means any species that is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.

Section 4(a)(1) of the ESA requires that we determine whether a species is endangered or threatened based on one or more of the following five factors:

A. The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range;

B. Overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes;

C. Disease or predation;

D. The inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or

E. Other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.

To do any of the following, contact the person associated with the species you are interested in under the table in Which species are under review? , above:

A. To get more information on a species;

B. To submit information on a species; or

C. To review information we receive, which will be available for public inspection by appointment, during normal business hours, at the listed addresses.

Comments and materials received will be available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the offices where the comments are submitted. Comments we receive become part of the administrative record associated with this action. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. All submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.

All completed status reviews under the ESA are available via the Service website, at https://www.fws.gov/endangered/species/us-species.html.

This document is published under the authority of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq. ).

In accordance with the PRA, ONRR provides the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continued information collections. This helps ONRR assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand ONRR's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.

ONRR publishes this notice to elicit comments on the proposed ICR. ONRR is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues mentioned in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations at 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1): (1) Is the collection necessary to perform the proper functions of ONRR; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might ONRR enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might ONRR minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. ONRR will post all comments, including names and addresses of respondents at http://www.regulations.gov. ONRR will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your Personally Identifiable Information (PII), such as your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment(s), you should be aware that your entire comment, including PII, may be made available to the public at any time. While you can ask ONRR, in your comment, to withhold your PII from public view, ONRR cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so. ONRR will post the ICR at https://www.onrr.gov/Laws_R_D/FRNotices/ICR0122.htm.

The Secretary of the United States Department of the Interior is responsible for mineral resource development on Federal and Indian lands and the Outer Continental Shelf (OCS). Under various laws, the Secretary's responsibility is to (1) manage mineral resource production, (2) collect royalties and other mineral revenues due, and (3) disburse the funds collected. ONRR posted the laws pertaining to mineral leases on Federal and Indian lands and the OCS at http://www.onrr.gov/Laws_R_D/PubLaws/default.htm.

The Secretary also has a trust responsibility to manage Indian lands and seek advice and information from Indian beneficiaries. ONRR performs the minerals revenue management functions for the Secretary and assists the Secretary in carrying out the Department's trust responsibility for Indian lands.

When a company or an individual enters into a lease to explore, develop, produce, and dispose of minerals from Federal or Indian lands, that company or individual agrees to pay the lessor a share in an amount or value of production from the leased lands. The lessee or its designee must report various kinds of information to the lessor relative to the disposition of the leased minerals. Such information is generally available within the records of the lessee or others involved in developing, transporting, processing, purchasing, or selling such minerals.

If ONRR determines that a lessee did not properly report or pay, it may issue orders, notices of noncompliance, and civil penalty notices to compel corrective reporting, payment, or both. Lessees have a right to appeal ONRR's determinations.

Regulations under 30 CFR part 1243 govern the submission of appropriate surety instruments to suspend compliance with orders or decisions and to stay the accrual of civil penalties (if the Office of Hearings and Appeals grants a lessee's petition to stay accrual of civil penalties) pending administrative appeal for Federal and Indian leases. For Federal oil and gas leases, under 30 U.S.C. 1724(l) and its implementing regulations under 30 CFR part 1243, an appellant requesting a suspension without providing a surety must submit information to demonstrate financial solvency. This ICR covers the burden hours associated with submitting financial statements and surety instruments required to stay an ONRR order, decision, or accrual of civil penalties.

Title 30 CFR 1243.1 states that lessees or recipients of ONRR orders may suspend compliance with an order if they appeal under 30 CFR part 1290. Pending appeal, ONRR may suspend the payment requirement if the appellant submits a formal agreement of payment in the case of default, such as a bond or other surety; for Federal oil and gas leases, the appellant may alternatively demonstrate financial solvency. If the Office of Hearings and Appeals grants a lessee's, or other recipient of a notice of noncompliance or civil penalty notice, request to stay the accrual of civil penalties under 30 CFR 1241.55(b)(2) and 1241.63(b)(2), the lessee or other recipient must post a bond or other surety. For Federal oil and gas leases, the appellant may alternatively demonstrate financial solvency.

ONRR accepts the following surety types: form ONRR-4435, Administrative Appeal Bond; form ONRR-4436, Letter of Credit; form ONRR-4437, Assignment of Certificate of Deposit; Self-bonding; and U.S. Treasury Securities.

When an appellant selects one of the surety types and puts it in place, the appellant must maintain the surety until the appeal's completion. If the appeal is decided in favor of the appellant, ONRR will return the surety to the appellant. If the appeal is decided in favor of ONRR, then ONRR will take action to collect the total amount due or draw down on the surety. ONRR will draw down on a surety if the appellant fails to comply with requirements relating to the amount due, timeframe, or surety submission or resubmission. Whenever ONRR draws down on a surety, it reduces the total amount due, which is defined as the unpaid principal plus the interest accrued to the projected receipt date of the surety payment. Appellants may refer to the Surety Instrument Posting Instructions, available on our website at http://www.onrr.gov/compliance/appeals.htm.

An appellant may file form ONRR-4435, Administrative Appeal Bond, which ONRR uses to secure the financial interests of the public and Indian lessors during the entire administrative and judicial appeal processes. Under 30 CFR 1243.4, an appellant is required to submit its contact and surety amount information on the bond to obtain the benefit of suspension of an obligation to comply with an order. The bond must be issued by a qualified surety company that the U.S. Department of the Treasury approves (see Department of the Treasury Circular No. 570, revised periodically in the Federal Register ). ONRR's Director, or the delegated bond-approving officer, maintains the bonds in a secure facility. After an appeal's conclusion, ONRR may release and return the bond to the appellant or collect payment on the bond. If collection is necessary for a remaining balance, ONRR will issue a demand for payment to the surety company with a notice to the appellant. ONRR will also include all interest accrued on the affected receivable.

An appellant may choose to file form ONRR-4436, Letter of Credit, with no modifications. Requirements under 30 CFR 1243.4 continue to apply. ONRR's Director, or the delegated bond-approving officer, maintains the Letter of Credit (LOC) in a secure facility. The appellant is responsible for verifying that the bank provides a current Fitch rating to ONRR. After the appeal's conclusion, ONRR may release and return the LOC to the appellant or collect payment on the LOC. If collection is necessary for a remaining balance, ONRR will issue a demand for payment that includes the principal amount plus the interest assessed on the receivable, to the bank with a notice to the appellant.

An appellant may choose to secure a debt by requesting to use a Certificate of Deposit (CD) from a bank with the required minimum rating and submitting form ONRR-4437, Assignment of Certificate of Deposit. Requirements under 30 CFR 1243.4 continue to apply. The appellant must file the request with ONRR prior to the invoice due date. ONRR will accept a book-entry CD that explicitly assigns the CD to ONRR's Director. If collection of the CD is necessary for an unpaid balance, ONRR will return unused CD funds to the appellant after total settlement of the appealed issues, including applicable interest charges.

For Federal oil and gas leases, regulations under 30 CFR 1243.201 provide that no surety instrument is required when a person representing the appellant periodically demonstrates, to the satisfaction of ONRR, that the guarantor or appellant is financially solvent or otherwise able to pay the obligation. The appellant must submit a written request to “self-bond” every time a new appeal is filed. To evaluate the financial solvency and exemption from requirements of appellants to maintain a surety related to an appeal, ONRR requires appellants to submit a consolidated balance sheet, subject to annual audit. In some cases, ONRR also requires copies of the most recent tax returns (up to three years) filed by the appellant.

In addition, an appellant must annually submit financial statements, subject to annual audit, to support its net worth. ONRR uses the consolidated balance sheet or business information supplied to evaluate the financial solvency of a lessee, designee, or payor seeking a stay of payment obligation pending review. If the appellant does not have a consolidated balance sheet documenting its net worth, or if it does not meet the $300 million net worth requirement, ONRR selects a business information or credit reporting service to provide information concerning the appellant's financial solvency. ONRR charges the appellant a $50 fee each time it reviews data from a business information or credit reporting service. The fee covers ONRR's cost to determine an appellant's financial solvency.

An appellant may choose to secure its debts by requesting to use a U.S. Treasury Security (TS). The appellant must file the letter of request with ONRR prior to the invoice due date. The TS must be a U.S. Treasury note or bond with maturity equal to or greater than one year. The TS must equal 120 percent of the appealed amount plus 1 year of estimated interest (necessary to protect ONRR against interest rate fluctuations). ONRR only accepts book-entry TS.

ONRR is requesting OMB's approval to continue to collect this information. Not collecting this information would limit the Secretary's ability to discharge the duties of the office and may result in loss of royalty and other payments. Proprietary information submitted to ONRR under this collection is protected, and there are no questions of a sensitive nature included in this information collection. A response is mandatory in order to suspend compliance with an order pending appeal.

Title: Suspensions Pending Appeal and Bonding.

OMB Control Number: 1012-0006.

Bureau Form Numbers: Forms ONRR-4435, ONRR-4436, and ONRR-4437.

Frequency: Annually and on occasion.

Estimated Number and Description of Respondents: 105 Federal or Indian appellants.

Estimated Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping “Hour” Burden: 210 hours.

The following table shows the estimated annual burden hours by CFR section and paragraph. ONRR has not included in its estimates certain requirements performed in the normal course of business and considered usual and customary.

Estimated Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping “Non-hour” Cost Burden: There are no additional recordkeeping costs associated with this information collection. However, ONRR estimates 5 appellants per year will pay a $50 fee to obtain credit data from a business information or credit reporting service, which is a total “non-hour” cost burden of $250 per year (5 appellants per year × $50 = $250).

Public Disclosure Statement: The PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ) provides that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires each agency to “* * * provide 60-day notice in the Federal Register * * * and otherwise consult with members of the public and affected agencies concerning each proposed collection of information* * *.” Agencies must specifically solicit comments to: (1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the agency to perform its duties, including whether the information is useful; (2) evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information that ONRR collects; and (4) minimize the burden on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

The PRA also requires agencies to estimate the total annual reporting “non-hour cost” burden to respondents or record-keepers resulting from the collection of information. If you have costs to generate, maintain, and disclose this information, you should comment and provide your total capital and startup cost components or annual operation, maintenance, and purchase of service components. You should describe the methods that you use to estimate (1) major cost factors, including system and technology acquisition, (2) expected useful life of capital equipment, (3) discount rate(s), and (4) the period over which you incur costs. Capital and startup costs include, among other items: Computers and software that you purchase to prepare for collecting information; monitoring, sampling, and testing equipment; and record storage facilities. Generally, your estimates should not include equipment or services purchased: (i) Before October 1, 1995; (ii) to comply with requirements not associated with the information collection; (iii) for reasons other than to provide information or keep records for the Federal government; or (iv) as part of customary and usual business or private practices.

ONRR will summarize written responses to this notice and address them in its ICR submission for OMB approval, including appropriate adjustments to the estimated burden. ONRR will provide a copy of the ICR to you without charge upon request. ONRR also will post the ICR at http://www.onrr.gov/Laws_R_D/FRNotices/ICR0122.htm.

ONRR will post all comments, including names and addresses of respondents at http://www.regulations.gov. Before including Personally Identifiable Information (PII), such as your address, phone number, email address, or other personal information in your comment(s), you should be aware that your entire comment (including PII) may be made available to the public at any time. While you may ask ONRR in your comment to withhold PII from public view, ONRR cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so.

An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

Background. —On October 4, 2019, the Commission determined that it should proceed to full reviews in the subject five-year reviews (84 FR 67960, December 12, 2019); accordingly, full reviews are being scheduled pursuant to section 751(c)(5) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)(5)). A record of the Commissioners' votes, the Commission's statement on adequacy, and any individual Commissioner's statements are available from the Office of the Secretary and at the Commission's website.

Participation in the reviews and public service list. —Persons, including industrial users of the subject merchandise and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in these reviews as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in section 201.11 of the Commission's rules, by 45 days after publication of this notice. A party that filed a notice of appearance following publication of the Commission's notice of institution of the reviews need not file an additional notice of appearance. The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the reviews.

For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).

Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and BPI service list. —Pursuant to section 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI gathered in these reviews available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the reviews, provided that the application is made by 45 days after publication of this notice. Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined by 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the reviews. A party granted access to BPI following publication of the Commission's notice of institution of the reviews need not reapply for such access. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.

Staff report. —The prehearing staff report in the reviews will be placed in the nonpublic record on June 24, 2020, and a public version will be issued thereafter, pursuant to section 207.64 of the Commission's rules.

Hearing. —The Commission will hold a hearing in connection with the reviews beginning at 9:30 a.m. on Thursday, July 16, 2020, at the U.S. International Trade Commission Building. Requests to appear at the hearing should be filed in writing with the Secretary to the Commission on or before July 8, 2020. A nonparty who has testimony that may aid the Commission's deliberations may request permission to present a short statement at the hearing. All parties and nonparties desiring to appear at the hearing and make oral presentations should participate in a prehearing conference to be held on July 10, 2020, at the U.S. International Trade Commission Building, if deemed necessary. Oral testimony and written materials to be submitted at the public hearing are governed by sections 201.6(b)(2), 201.13(f), 207.24, and 207.66 of the Commission's rules. Parties must submit any request to present a portion of their hearing testimony in camera no later than 7 business days prior to the date of the hearing.

Written submissions. —Each party to the reviews may submit a prehearing brief to the Commission. Prehearing briefs must conform with the provisions of section 207.65 of the Commission's rules; the deadline for filing is July 2, 2020. Parties may also file written testimony in connection with their presentation at the hearing, as provided in section 207.24 of the Commission's rules, and posthearing briefs, which must conform with the provisions of section 207.67 of the Commission's rules. The deadline for filing posthearing briefs is July 23, 2020. In addition, any person who has not entered an appearance as a party to the reviews may submit a written statement of information pertinent to the subject of the reviews on or before July 23, 2020. On August 18, 2020, the Commission will make available to parties all information on which they have not had an opportunity to comment. Parties may submit final comments on this information on or before August 20, 2020, but such final comments must not contain new factual information and must otherwise comply with section 207.68 of the Commission's rules. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of section 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of sections 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's Handbook on Filing Procedures, available on the Commission's website at https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf, elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.

Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.

In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.

Background. —These investigations are being instituted, pursuant to sections 703(a) and 733(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671b(a) and 1673b(a)), in response to a petition filed on March 18, 2020, by Briggs & Stratton Corporation, Wauwatosa, Wisconsin.

For further information concerning the conduct of these investigations and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 207).

Participation in the investigations and public service list. —Persons (other than petitioners) wishing to participate in the investigations as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in sections 201.11 and 207.10 of the Commission's rules, not later than seven days after publication of this notice in the Federal Register . Industrial users and (if the merchandise under investigation is sold at the retail level) representative consumer organizations have the right to appear as parties in Commission antidumping duty and countervailing duty investigations. The Secretary will prepare a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to these investigations upon the expiration of the period for filing entries of appearance.

Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and BPI service list. —Pursuant to section 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI gathered in these investigations available to authorized applicants representing interested parties (as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9)) who are parties to the investigations under the APO issued in the investigations, provided that the application is made not later than seven days after the publication of this notice in the Federal Register . A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.

Conference. —As the Commission proceeds with alternative solutions during the COVID-19 pandemic, the Commission is not holding in-person Title VII (antidumping and countervailing duty) preliminary phase staff conferences at the U.S. International Trade Commission Building. It is providing an opportunity for parties to provide opening remarks, witness testimony, and responses to staff questions through written submissions. Requests to participate in these written proceedings should be emailed to preliminaryconferences@usitc.gov (DO NOT FILE ON EDIS) on or before April 1, 2020. A nonparty who has testimony that may aid the Commission's deliberations may request permission to participate by submitting a short statement.

Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, https://edis.usitc.gov ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.

Written submissions. —As provided in sections 201.8 and 207.15 of the Commission's rules, any person may submit to the Commission on or before April 13, 2020, a written brief containing information and arguments pertinent to the subject matter of the investigations. Parties may file written testimony in connection with their participation in the written proceedings described above. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of section 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of sections 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's Handbook on Filing Procedures, available on the Commission's website at https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf, elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.

In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.

Certification. —Pursuant to section 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with these investigations must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that any information that it submits to the Commission during these investigations may be disclosed to and used: (i) By the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of these or related investigations or reviews, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.

Authority: These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.12 of the Commission's rules.

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:

1. Type of Information Collection: Extension of a currently approved collection.

2. The Title of the Form/Collection: Credit Card Payment Form.

3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: The form number is 1-786, the applicable component within the Sponsoring component: Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services Division.

4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract: Primary: Individuals. This collection is necessary for individuals to submit payment to receive a copy of their personal identification record.

5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: Annually, the FBI receives 25,000 credit card payment forms, therefore there are 25,000 respondents. The form requires 3.5 minutes to complete.

6. An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: There are an estimated 1,458 total annual burden hours associated with this collection.

If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, Suite 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.

Section 103(h) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), 30 U.S.C. 813(h), authorizes MSHA to collect information necessary to carry out its duty in protecting the safety and health of miners. Further, section 101(a) of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 811, authorizes the Secretary of Labor to develop, promulgate, and revise as may be appropriate, improved mandatory health or safety standards for the protection of life and prevention of injuries in coal or other mines.

Title 30 CFR 56.5005 and 57.5005 require, whenever respiratory equipment is used, that metal and nonmetal mine operators institute a respirator program governing selection, maintenance, training, fitting, supervision, cleaning, and use of respirators. These standards seek to control miner exposure to harmful airborne contaminants by using engineering controls to prevent contamination and vent or dilute the contaminated air. However, where accepted engineering control measures have not been developed or when necessary by the nature of work involved (for example, while establishing controls or occasional entry into hazardous atmospheres to perform maintenance or investigation), employees may work for reasonable periods of time in concentrations of airborne contaminants exceeding permissible levels if they are protected by appropriate respiratory protective equipment.

Sections 56.5005 and 57.5005 incorporate by reference, requirements of the American National Standards Institute's Practices for Respiratory Protection (ANSI Z88.2-1969). These incorporated requirements mandate that miners who must wear respirators be fit-tested to the respirators that they will use. Certain records are also required to be kept in connection with respirators, including: written standard operating procedures governing the selection and use of respirators; records of the date of issuance of the respirator; and fit-test results.

MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:

• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;

• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

The information collection request will be available on http://www.regulations.gov. MSHA cautions the commenter against providing any information in the submission that should not be publicly disclosed. Full comments, including personal information provided, will be made available on www.regulations.gov and www.reginfo.gov.

The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL-Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.

Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION section of this notice.

This request for collection of information contains provisions for Respirator Program Records. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Agency: Mine Safety and Health Administration.

OMB Number: 1219-0048.

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents: 350.

Frequency: On occasion.

Number of Responses: 6,300.

Annual Burden Hours: 3,588 hours.

Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost: $140,000.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.

Section 103(h) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), 30 U.S.C. 813(h), authorizes MSHA to collect information necessary to carry out its duty in protecting the safety and health of miners. Further, section 101(a) of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 811, authorizes the Secretary of Labor to develop, promulgate, and revise as may be appropriate, improved mandatory health or safety standards for the protection of life and prevention of injuries in coal and metal and nonmetal mines.

The Mine Act authorizes the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) to study the causes and consequences of coal-related respiratory disease, and in cooperation with MSHA, to carry out a program for early detection and prevention of pneumoconiosis. NIOSH administers the National Coal Workers' Health Surveillance Program, “Specifications for Medical Examinations of Underground Coal Miners,” as specified in 42 CFR part 37. Title 30 CFR 72.100 contains collection requirements for these activities in paragraphs (d) and (e).

Section 72.100(d) requires that each mine operator must develop and submit for approval to NIOSH a plan in accordance with 42 CFR part 37 for providing miners with the required periodic examinations specified in section 72.100(a) and a roster specifying the name and current address of each miner covered by the plan.

Section 72.100(e) requires that each mine operator must post on the mine bulletin board at all times the approved plan for providing the examinations specified in section 72.100(a).

Sections 72.100(d) and (e) are requirements that mirror NIOSH information collection requirements under 42 CFR 37.4 (existing OMB No. 0920-0020). Including these requirements allows MSHA to use its inspection and enforcement authority to ensure that operators comply with these provisions.

MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:

• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;

• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

Background documents related to this information collection request are available at https://regulations.gov and in DOL-MSHA located at 201 12th Street South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION section of this notice from the previous collection of information.

This information collection request concerns provisions for Periodic Medical Surveillance Examinations for Coal Miners. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request from the previous information collection request.

Type of Review: Extension, without change, of a currently approved collection.

Agency: Mine Safety and Health Administration.

OMB Number: 1219-0152.

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents: 1,126.

Frequency: On occasion.

Number of Responses: 1,352.

Annual Burden Hours: 1,051 hours.

Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost: $406.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the proposed information collection request; they will become a matter of public record and will be available at https://www.reginfo.gov.

I. Background

Section 103(h) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), 30 U.S.C. 813(h), authorizes MSHA to collect information necessary to carry out its duty in protecting the safety and health of miners. Further, section 101(a) of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 811, authorizes the Secretary of Labor to develop, promulgate, and revise as may be appropriate, improved mandatory health or safety standards for the protection of life and prevention of injuries in coal or other mines.

Under Title 30 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), MSHA has requirements that address hoists and appurtenances, including wire rope, used for hoisting persons. The requirements address both metal and nonmetal surface and underground mines (30 CFR parts 56 and 57); and underground coal and surface work areas of underground coal mines (30 CFR parts 75 and 77).

Sections 56/57.19022 and 75/77.1432 requires the diameter of newly installed wire rope to be measured at least once in every third interval of the rope's active length to establish a baseline for subsequent semiannual measurements. A record of the measurements is required to be made and retained until the rope is retired from service.

Sections 56/57.19023 and 75/77.1433 require the wire rope to be visually examined at least every fourteen days for visible structural damage, corrosion, and improper lubrication or dressing. If the examination reveals weakening portions of the rope, the weakened portions must be monitored daily for further deterioration until retirement criteria require that the rope be removed from service. The person conducting the examination must certify that the examination was made and the record must be retained for one year.

Sections 56/57.19121 requires the person conducting the inspection, test or examination of hoisting equipment certify that these activities have been done. Any unsafe conditions must be noted in a record and dated. All certifications and records must be retained for one year.

Section 75.1400-2 requires a record to be made of tests conducted on safety catches. Safety catches are the last means to stop, safely, a falling conveyance in the event of rope or equipment failure.

Sections 75.1400-4 and 77.1404 require a record to be made of each daily examination. If any unsafe condition is found during the examination, the person conducting the examination must make a record of the condition. All certifications and records must be retained for one year.

Section 77.1906 requires a daily examination of hoists used for shaft sinking. If any unsafe condition is found during the examination, the person conducting the examination must make a record of the condition. All certifications and records must be retained for one year.

MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:

• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;

• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

The information collection request will be available on http://www.regulations.gov. MSHA cautions the commenter against providing any information in the submission that should not be publicly disclosed. Full comments, including personal information provided, will be made available on www.regulations.gov and www.reginfo.gov.

The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL-Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.

Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION section of this notice.

This request for collection of information contains provisions for Records of Tests and of Examinations of Personnel Hoisting Equipment. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.

Type of Review: Extension, without change, of a currently approved collection.

Agency: Mine Safety and Health Administration.

OMB Number: 1219-0034.

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents: 225.

Frequency: On occasion.

Number of Responses: 61,366.

Annual Burden Hours: 5,133 hours.

Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost: $270,000.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.

Section 103(h) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977 (Mine Act), 30 U.S.C. 813(h), authorizes MSHA to collect information necessary to carry out its duty in protecting the safety and health of miners. Further, section 101(a) of the Mine Act, 30 U.S.C. 811, authorizes the Secretary of Labor (Secretary) to develop, promulgate, and revise as may be appropriate, improved mandatory health or safety standards for the protection of life and prevention of injuries in coal and metal and nonmetal mines.

This Information Collection Request concerns recordkeeping requirements related to: (1) Inspection of compressed-air receivers and other unfired pressure vessels, (2) Boilers, (3) Safety defects; examination, correction and records, and (4) Examination of working places.

Under sections 56.13015 and 57.13015 of title 30, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), compressed-air receivers and other unfired pressure vessels must be inspected by inspectors holding a valid National Board Commission and in accordance with the applicable chapters of the National Board Inspection Code, a Manual for Boiler and Pressure Vessels Inspectors, 1979. Safety defects found on compressed-air receivers and other unfired pressure vessels have caused injuries and fatalities in the mining industry.

Records of inspections must be kept in accordance with the requirements of the National Board Inspection Code and the records must be made available to the Secretary or an authorized representative.

Under sections 56.13030 and 57.13030 of title 30 CFR, fired pressure vessels (boilers) must be equipped with water level gauges, pressure gauges, automatic pressure-relief valves, blowdown piping and other safety devices approved by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers to protect against hazards from overpressure, flameouts, fuel interruptions and low water level.

Records of inspection and repairs must be retained by the mine operator in accordance with the requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, 1977, and the National Board Inspection Code (progressive records—no limit on retention time) and shall be made available to the Secretary or an authorized representative.

Under sections 56.14100 and 57.14100, operators must inspect equipment, machinery, and tools that are to be used during a shift for safety defects before the equipment is placed in operation. Defects affecting safety are required to be corrected in a timely manner. In instances where the defect makes continued operation of the equipment hazardous to persons, the equipment must be removed from service, tagged to identify that it is out of use, and repaired before use is resumed.

Safety defects on self-propelled mobile equipment account for many injuries and fatalities in the mining industry. Inspection of this equipment prior to use is required to ensure safe operation. The equipment operator is required to make a visual and operational check of the various primary operating systems that affect safety, such as brakes, lights, horn, seatbelts, tires, steering, back-up alarm, windshield, cab safety glass, rear and side view mirrors, and other safety and health related items.

Any defects found are required to be either corrected immediately, or reported to and recorded by the mine operator prior to the timely correction. The precise format in which the record is kept is left to the discretion of the mine operator. Reports of uncorrected defects are required to be recorded by the mine operator and kept at the mine office from the date the defects are recorded, until the defects are corrected.

Under sections 56.18002 and 57.18002 of title 30 CFR, a competent person designated by the operator shall examine each working place at least once each shift before miners begin work in that place, for conditions that may adversely affect safety or health. A record of each examination must be made before the end of the shift for which the examination was conducted. The record must contain the name of the person conducting the examination; the date of the examination; location of all areas examined; and description of each condition found that may adversely affect the safety or health of miners. When a condition that may adversely affect safety or health is corrected, the examination record shall include, or be supplemented to include, the date of the corrective action. The operator must maintain the examination records for at least one year, make the records available for inspection by authorized representatives of the Secretary and the representatives of miners, and provide these representatives a copy on request.

MSHA is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection. MSHA is particularly interested in comments that:

• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;

• Evaluate the accuracy of MSHA's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

The information collection request will be available on http://www.regulations.gov. MSHA cautions the commenter against providing any information in the submission that should not be publicly disclosed. Full comments, including personal information provided, will be made available on www.regulations.gov and www.reginfo.gov.

The public may also examine publicly available documents at USDOL-Mine Safety and Health Administration, 201 12th Street South, Suite 4E401, Arlington, VA 22202-5452. Sign in at the receptionist's desk on the 4th floor via the East elevator.

Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION section of this notice.

This request for collection of information contains recordkeeping provisions for 30 CFR 56/57.13015, 56/57.13030, 56/57.14100, and 56/57.18002. MSHA has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request.

Type of Review: Extension, without change, of a currently approved collection.

Agency: Mine Safety and Health Administration.

OMB Number: 1219-0089.

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents: 12,280.

Frequency: On occasion.

Number of Responses: 4,101,012.

Annual Burden Hours: 881,963 hours.

Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost: $215,299.

Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they will also become a matter of public record.

This notice of intent to grant a partially exclusive patent license is issued in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(e) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i). The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the United States of America as represented by the Administrator of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration. The prospective co-exclusive license will comply with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.

Information about other NASA inventions available for licensing can be found online at http://technology.nasa.gov.

This meeting was announced in the Federal Register on March 18, 2020 (see reference below). The postponement of this meeting is due to scheduling issues of the key participants. NASA will announce the new dates for this meeting in a future Federal Register notice. REF: Federal Register /Vol. 85, No. 53/ Wednesday, March 18, 2020/Notices; page 15504.

At the direction of the President, the U.S. Trade Representative has imposed duties on products of China in order to obtain the elimination of the unfair and damaging acts, policies, and practices identified in this investigation. The duties have been imposed in four tranches. See 83 FR 28719 (June 20, 2018), 83 FR 40823 (August 16, 2018), 83 FR 47974 (September 21, 2018), as modified by 83 FR 49153 (September 28, 2018), and 84 FR 43304 (August 20, 2019), as modified by 84 FR 69447 and 85 FR 3741.

For each tranche, the U.S. Trade Representative established a process by which U.S. stakeholders could request exclusion of particular products classified within an eight-digit Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading covered by the action. See 83 FR 32181 (July 11, 2018), 83 FR 47236 (September 18, 2018), 84 FR 29576 (June 24, 2019), and 84 FR 57144 (October 24, 2019). The exclusion processes for tranches 3 and 4 are still in process, and are not affected by this notice.

Throughout the exclusion process, USTR assessed medical necessity in granting exclusions, consistent with its published criteria. In addition, the U.S. Trade Representative, in consultation with the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), prioritized the review of exclusion requests addressed to medical-care products related to the U.S. response to COVID-19, and granted approximately 200 separate exclusions on March 5, 2020. See 85 FR 13970 (March 10, 2020), 85 FR 15015 (March 16, 2020), and 85 FR 15244 (March 17, 2020). The exclusions covered personal protective equipment products and other medical-care related products.

In order to reflect developments in the efforts to respond to the COVID-19 outbreak, USTR is requesting public comments on possible further modifications to remove duties from additional medical-care products. USTR invites comments from interested persons with respect to whether a particular product covered by the action in this investigation is needed to respond to the COVID-19 outbreak. The docket for comments will remain open at least until June 25, 2020, and may be extended as appropriate. To facilitate timely consideration of possible modifications, interested persons should submit comments as promptly as possible. Interested persons may also submit responses to comments. To be assured of consideration, any responses to comments should be submitted within three business days after a comment is posted in the docket. USTR will review comments on a rolling basis.

Each comment specifically must identify the particular product of concern and explain precisely how the product relates to the response to the COVID-19 outbreak. For example, the comment may address whether a product is directly used to treat COVID-19 or to limit the outbreak, and/or whether the product is used in the production of needed medical-care products.

Comments may be submitted regarding any product covered by the action in the investigation, regardless of whether the product is subject to a pending or denied exclusion request.

In order to facilitate timely consideration of possible modifications, commenters should define the product of concern as precisely as possible. All comments must include the following information, to the extent possible: The ten-digit subheading of the HTSUS applicable to the product, and the identity of the particular product in terms of its functionality and physical characteristics ( e.g., dimensions, material composition, or other characteristics). Commenters may provide information concerning the producer, importer, ultimate consumer, or trademarks or tradenames, but this is less helpful.

All submissions must be in English and sent electronically via Regulations.gov . To submit comments via www.regulations.gov, enter docket number USTR-2020-0014 on the home page and click `search.' The site will provide a search-results page listing all documents associated with this docket. Find a reference to this notice and click on the link titled `comment now!' For further information on using the www.regulations.gov website, please consult the resources provided on the website by clicking on `How to Use Regulations.gov ' on the bottom of the home page. USTR will not accept hand-delivered submissions.

The Regulations.gov website allows users to submit comments by filling in a `comment' field or by attaching a document using an `upload file' field. USTR prefers that you submit comments in an attached document. If you attach a document, it is sufficient to type `see attached' in the `comment' field. USTR prefers submissions in Microsoft Word (.doc) or searchable Adobe Acrobat (.pdf). If you use an application other than those two, please indicate the name of the application in the `comment' field.

File names should reflect the name of the person or entity submitting the comments. Please do not attach separate cover letters to electronic submissions; rather, include any information that might appear in a cover letter in the comments themselves. Similarly, to the extent possible, please include any exhibits, annexes, or other attachments in the same file as the comment itself, rather than submitting them as separate files.

You can view submissions on the Regulations.gov website by entering docket number USTR-2020-0014 in the search field on the home page.

In a notice that the FAA issued on March 11, 2020, and published in the Federal Register on March 16, 2020 (85 FR 15018), the FAA announced certain relief through May 31, 2020, in light of impacts on air travel demand related to the outbreak of novel 2019 coronavirus (also known as “SARS-CoV-2,” causing the disease COVID-19) (“Coronavirus”). As announced in that notice, through May 31, 2020, the FAA will waive the minimum usage requirement as to any slot associated with a scheduled nonstop flight between JFK, LGA, or DCA, respectively, and other points that is canceled as a direct result of Coronavirus-related impacts. 1 In addition, that notice announced that the FAA will prioritize flights canceled due to Coronavirus at designated IATA Level 2 airports in the United States—including ORD, EWR, LAX, and SFO—through May 31, 2020, for purposes of establishing a carrier's operational baseline in the next corresponding season. 2 In granting this relief, the FAA asserted its expectation that foreign slot coordinators would accommodate U.S. carriers with reciprocal relief. The FAA further stated that it would continue to monitor the situation and might augment the waiver as circumstances warrant.

Since the FAA issued that notice on March 11, 2020, the Coronavirus has continued to cause greater disruption. On March 11, the World Health Organization (WHO) characterized COVID-19 as a pandemic, as the rates of infection continued to rise in many locations around the world and across the United States. On March 13, the President of the United States proclaimed that the COVID-19 outbreak in the United States constitutes a national emergency. On March 16, the President and the White House Coronavirus Task Force announced a program called “15 Days to Slow the Spread,” a nationwide effort to slow the spread of COVID-19 in the United States through the implementation of social distancing at all levels of society, including a recommendation to avoid discretionary travel. On March 19, the Department of State issued a Global Level 4 Health Advisory—Do Not Travel, advising U.S. citizens to avoid all international travel due to the global impact of COVID-19. As of March 20, Coronavirus had been detected in over 150 countries and every state in the United States. Whereas on March 11 the WHO reported 118,319 confirmed COVID-19 cases globally (including 696 in the United States), on March 21 the WHO reported 266,073 confirmed COVID-19 cases globally (including 15,219 in the United States).

Since issuing the March 11, 2020, notice, the FAA continues to receive cancelation notices at slot-controlled airports in the United States, which include JFK, LGA, and DCA, as well as U.S. airports designated as IATA Level 2, for flights to and from areas with significant Coronavirus outbreaks. U.S. and foreign carriers have continued to urge the FAA to extend relief through the Summer 2020 scheduling season, which ends on October 24, 2020.

IATA, which asserts that it represents some 290 airlines comprising 82% of global air traffic, stated in a March 3, 2020, press release that offering relief through the Summer 2020 season “will mean that airlines can respond to market conditions with appropriate capacity levels, avoiding any need to run empty services in order to maintain slots.” According to IATA, without certainty through the Summer 2020 season, “airlines are unable to plan ahead sufficiently to ensure efficient rostering of crew or deployment of aircraft.”

On March 16, 2020, the FAA received a letter addressed to responsible slot authorities from leaders of twenty-three airlines around the world, including United Airlines from the United States, requesting “a global waiver from standard slot usage rules through summer 2020 to obtain flexibility for capacity reductions in light of diminishing passenger demand, and to help stabilize a very tenuous operational and commercial environment.” The letter asserts “[h]aving such a waiver in hand will help us plan our operations over the summer months in a manner to maximize global connectivity and efficiency.” United Airlines announced on March 17, 2020, that it would implement a 60% schedule reduction for April 2020, including a 42% reduction across the United States and Canada and an 85% decrease in international flights. United Airlines followed with an announcement on March 20, 2020, that it is reducing its international schedule by 95% for April 2020.

In a March 19, 2020, letter to the FAA, American Airlines “strongly requests” the FAA to “issue a full usage waiver for the remainder of the summer 2020 IATA season.” American Airlines asserts that it “has taken unprecedented action to cut our schedules by more than 75% internationally and 30% domestically in April alone with significantly more cuts in May and beyond into the spring and summer months.”

Other U.S. airlines also report significant capacity cuts in the coming months. Delta Air Lines announced on March 10, 2020, that to align capacity with expected demand, it is reducing system capacity by 15 points versus its plan, with international capacity reduced by 20-25%, and domestic capacity reduced by 10-15%. JetBlue Airways announced on March 18, 2020, that it will reduce its capacity by at least 40% in April and May, and it also expects substantial cuts in June and July. Southwest Airlines announced on March 20, 2020, that it has implemented a plan to reduce capacity by at least 20 percent for the period from April 14 through June 5, 2020, driven by a drop in travel demand due to the COVID-19 outbreak. On March 18, 2020, Airlines for America, which describes itself as an advocate for leading U.S. airlines, asserted that “cancellations far outpace new bookings for U.S. carriers, planes are only 20-30% full and new bookings are implying 70-80 percent declines in traffic even as airlines make dramatic cuts in capacity—and this is getting worse each day with no end in sight.”

In consideration of the foregoing information, the requests that the FAA has received, and the evolving situation, the FAA has tentatively determined to extend through October 24, 2020, the relief that the FAA has already granted through May 31, 2020, to continue on the same terms as the FAA announced in granting that relief. If the FAA extends relief to October 24, 2020, the FAA expects that foreign slot coordinators will provide reciprocal relief to U.S. carriers. To the extent that U.S. carriers fly to a foreign carrier's home jurisdiction and that home jurisdiction does not offer reciprocal relief to U.S. carriers, the FAA may determine not to grant a waiver to that foreign carrier. A foreign carrier seeking a waiver may wish to ensure that the responsible authority of the foreign carrier's home jurisdiction submits a statement by email to ScheduleFiling@dot.gov confirming reciprocal treatment of the slot holdings of U.S. carriers.

The Coronavirus continues to present a highly unusual and unpredictable condition that is beyond the control of carriers. Passenger demand continues to decrease dramatically as a result of the Coronavirus. The ultimate duration and severity of Coronavirus impacts on passenger demand in the United States and internationally remain unclear. Even after the pandemic is contained, impacts on passenger demand are likely to continue for some time.

The FAA tentatively has concluded that an extension of relief through October 24, 2020, is appropriate to provide carriers with maximum flexibility during this unprecedented situation and to support the long-term viability of carrier operations at slot-controlled and IATA Level 2 airports in the United States. 3 Continuing relief for this additional period is reasonable to mitigate the impacts on demand for air travel resulting from the spread of the Coronavirus worldwide.

The FAA seeks views and information regarding this tentative decision. Interested persons are invited to show cause why the FAA should or should not finalize this decision, and to submit any information relevant to making this decision. Written views and supporting data may be submitted no later than March 30, 2020, by email to the Slot Administration Office at 7-awa-slotadmin@faa.gov. Information submitted to the FAA may be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. The FAA recognizes that commenters may seek to submit business information that is both customarily and actually treated as confidential. Persons that submit such confidential business information should clearly mark the information as “PROPIN”. The FAA will take the necessary steps to protect properly designated information to the extent allowable by law.

After receiving and reviewing comments, the FAA anticipates subsequently providing notice of its final decision.

As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel LOVE SONG is:

The complete application is available for review identified in the DOT docket as MARAD-2020-0056 at http://www.regulations.gov. Interested parties may comment on the effect this action may have on U.S. vessel builders or businesses in the U.S. that use U.S.-flag vessels. If MARAD determines, in accordance with 46 U.S.C. 12121 and MARAD's regulations at 46 CFR part 388, that the issuance of the waiver will have an unduly adverse effect on a U.S.-vessel builder or a business that uses U.S.-flag vessels in that business, a waiver will not be granted. Comments should refer to the vessel name, state the commenter's interest in the waiver application, and address the waiver criteria given in section 388.4 of MARAD's regulations at 46 CFR part 388.

Please submit your comments, including the attachments, following the instructions provided under the above heading entitled ADDRESSES . Be advised that it may take a few hours or even days for your comment to be reflected on the docket. In addition, your comments must be written in English. We encourage you to provide concise comments and you may attach additional documents as necessary. There is no limit on the length of the attachments.

Go to the docket online at http://www.regulations.gov, keyword search MARAD-2020-0056 or visit the Docket Management Facility (see ADDRESSES for hours of operation). We recommend that you periodically check the Docket for new submissions and supporting material.

Yes. Be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, will be made publicly available.

If you wish to submit comments under a claim of confidentiality, you should submit three copies of your complete submission, including the information you claim to be confidential business information, to the Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, Office of Legislation and Regulations, MAR-225, W24-220, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Include a cover letter setting forth with specificity the basis for any such claim and, if possible, a summary of your submission that can be made available to the public.

In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice, DOT/ALL-14 FDMS, accessible through www.dot.gov/privacy. To facilitate comment tracking and response, we encourage commenters to provide their name, or the name of their organization; however, submission of names is completely optional. Whether or not commenters identify themselves, all timely comments will be fully considered. If you wish to provide comments containing proprietary or confidential information, please contact the agency for alternate submission instructions.

Title: Tip Reporting Alternative Tip Agreement used in the Cosmetology and Barber Industry.

OMB Number: 1545-1529.

Announcement Number: 2000-21 and 2001-01.

Abstract: Announcement 2000-21, 2000-19 I.R.B. 983, and Announcement 2001-1, 2001-2 I.R.B. 277, contain information required by the Internal Revenue Service in its tax compliance efforts to assist employers and their employees in understanding and complying with Internal Revenue Code section 6053(a), which requires employees to report all their tips monthly to their employers.