<?xml version="1.0"?>
<?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="fedregister.xsl"?>
<FEDREG xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="FRMergedXML.xsd">
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Administrative</EAR>
            <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            <HD>Administrative Conference of the United States</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Assembly of the Administrative Conference of the United States, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24462</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11053</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Commodity Credit Corporation</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Agricultural Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Animal</EAR>
            <HD>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Animal Welfare; Amendments to Licensing Provisions and to Requirements for Dogs, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24403</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="0">2019-11031</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Release of Aphalara Itadori for the Biological Control of Japanese, Giant, and Bohemian Knotweeds, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24463-24464</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11026</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Release of Cheilosia Urbana for Biological Control of Invasive Hawkweeds, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24463</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11027</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Antitrust Division</EAR>
            <HD>Antitrust Division</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Changes Under the National Cooperative Research and Production Act:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cooperative Research Group on Energy Storage System Evaluation and Safety II, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24543</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11141</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Consumer Financial Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24498-24499</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10972</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24470</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11153</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Safety Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24389-24391</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="2">2019-11005</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Safety Zones:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fireworks Displays in the Fifth Coast Guard District, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24391-24392</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-11061</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Regulated Navigation Area:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lake Washington, Seattle, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24418-24420</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="2">2019-11006</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24531-24532</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11020</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11021</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Request for Applications:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24530-24531</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11057</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commodity Credit</EAR>
            <HD>Commodity Credit Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Requests for Applications:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Foreign Market Development Cooperator Program; Funding Opportunity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24464-24467</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="3">2019-11023</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Market Access Program; Funding Opportunity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24467-24470</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="3">2019-11022</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Comptroller</EAR>
            <HD>Comptroller of the Currency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Domestic First Lien Residential Mortgage Data, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24596-24597</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11051</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advance Payments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24516-24517</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11003</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Evaluation of Export Offers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24525-24526</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11004</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24523-24525</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11007</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application To Export Electric Energy:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Idaho Power Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24499</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11044</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Georgia; Miscellaneous Revisions, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24393-24395</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="2">2019-10969</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Illinois; Redesignation of the Illinois Portion of the St. Louis, MO-IL Area to Attainment of the 1997 Annual Standard for Fine Particulate Matter, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24395-24398</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="3">2019-10970</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Idaho; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2015 Ozone Standard; Reopening of Comment Period, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24420</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="0">2019-10958</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>South Carolina; 2008 8-hour Ozone Interstate Transport, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24420-24424</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="4">2019-10968</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Allocations of Cross-State Air Pollution Rule Allowances From New Unit Set-Asides for 2019 Control Periods, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24506-24507</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11167</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Ambient Air Monitoring Reference and Equivalent Methods:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Designation of One New Reference Method, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24508-24509</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11073</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Final Permit Modification:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System General Permit for Stormwater Discharges From Construction Activities, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24503-24506</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="3">2019-11075</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Request for Nominations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pesticide Program Dialogue Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24507-24508</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11010</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Updated Problem Formulation and Protocol for the Inorganic Arsenic Integrated Risk Information System Assessment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24502-24503</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11072</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Amendment of Class E Airspace:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hawaiian Islands, HI, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24364-24365</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-10949</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Establishment of the Hawaiian Islands High and the Hawaiian Islands Low Offshore Airspace Areas:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hawaii, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24365-24367</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="2">2019-10948</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Establishment of Area Navigation Routes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Northeastern United States, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24403-24406</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="3">2019-10950</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airspace Authorizations in Controlled Airspace, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24591-24592</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11060</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Auction of Toll Free Numbers in the 833 Code; Comment Sought on Competitive Bidding Procedures, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24424-24433</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="9">2019-11049</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24509-24511</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11048</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24500-24502</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11156</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11159</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11161</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Initial Market-Based Rate Filings Including Requests for Blanket Section 204 Authorizations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Antrim Wind Energy, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24500-24501</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11165</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Safe Integration of Automated Driving Systems-Equipped Commercial Motor Vehicles, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24449-24459</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="10">2019-11038</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hours of Service of Drivers; Exemption Applications:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kimble Recycling and Disposal, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24592-24593</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11035</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24511-24512</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10978</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24511</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10974</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Contact Lens Rule, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24664-24699</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP3.sgm" D="35">2019-09627</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24512</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10994</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Drug</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Guidance:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24526-24527</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11012</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Agricultural</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Agricultural Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Requests for Applications:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Foreign Market Development Cooperator Program; Funding Opportunity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24464-24467</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="3">2019-11023</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Market Access Program; Funding Opportunity, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24467-24470</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="3">2019-11022</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Assets</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Blocking or Unblocking of Persons and Properties, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24597-24598</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11024</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Approval of Subzone Status:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Calsonic Kansei North America, Shelbyville and Lewisburg, TN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24470-24471</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11018</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>United Parcel Service, Inc., Louisville, KY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24471</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11019</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>General Services</EAR>
            <HD>General Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advance Payments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24516-24517</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11003</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Evaluation of Export Offers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24525-24526</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11004</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24523-24525</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11007</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24517-24523</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="6">2019-11029</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Transactional Data Reporting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24512-24516</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="4">2019-11030</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Geological</EAR>
            <HD>Geological Survey</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Forests, Wildfire Risk, and Watershed Health in the Rio Grande River Basin, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24535-24536</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10998</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program Performance, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24527-24528</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11050</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>President's National Infrastructure Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24533-24534</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10992</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24534-24535</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10991</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Housing</EAR>
            <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Continuation of Demonstration To Test Proposed New Method of Assessing the Physical Conditions of Voucher-Assisted Housing, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24416-24418</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="2">2019-11059</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Information</EAR>
            <HD>Information Security Oversight Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24545</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11058</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Geological Survey</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
            <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
            <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Certified Professional Employer Organizations, </DOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24367-24389</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="22">2019-10856</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Modification of Regulations Regarding Benefit and Specificity in Countervailing Duty Proceedings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24406-24416</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="10">2019-11197</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From Mexico, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24473-24475</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11016</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From the Republic of Korea, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24471-24473</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11017</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Investigations; Determinations, Modifications, and Rulings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certain Robotic Vacuum Cleaning Devices and Components Thereof Such as Spare Parts, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24542</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10996</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Antitrust Division</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Labor Statistics Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Mine Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Statistics</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Statistics Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24543-24544</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11001</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Legal</EAR>
            <HD>Legal Services Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24545</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11196</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Mine</EAR>
            <HD>Mine Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Funding Opportunity:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Brookwood-Sago Mine Safety Grants, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24544</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11036</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>NASA</EAR>
            <HD>National Aeronautics and Space Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advance Payments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24516-24517</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11003</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Evaluation of Export Offers, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24525-24526</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11004</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24523-24525</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11007</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Archives</EAR>
            <HD>National Archives and Records Administration</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Information Security Oversight Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advisory Committee on the Records of Congress, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24545-24546</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11056</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Highway</EAR>
            <HD>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Removing Regulatory Barriers for Vehicles With Automated Driving Systems, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24433-24449</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="16">2019-11032</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24528-24530</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10976</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10979</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24529</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10984</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Exchange of Flatfish in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24399-24400</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-11011</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Fisheries Off West Coast States:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Highly Migratory Species Fishery; Closure, </SJDOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24398-24399</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-11014</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Fisheries Off West Coast States:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Coastal Pelagic Species Fisheries; Annual Specifications, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24459-24461</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="2">2019-11040</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New England Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24476</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11039</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Western Pacific Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24475</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11043</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>City of Juneau Waterfront Improvement Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24490-24498</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="8">2019-10973</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Portsmouth Naval Shipyard Dry Dock 1 Modification and Expansion, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24476-24490</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="14">2019-10980</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Commercial Use Authorizations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24539-24541</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11066</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24541-24542</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11065</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Programmatic Clearance for NPS-Sponsored Public Surveys, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24536-24537</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11064</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Special Park Use Applications, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24538-24539</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11063</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>National Register of Historic Places:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pending Nominations and Related Actions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24537-24538</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11052</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Science</EAR>
            <HD>National Science Foundation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24546</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11155</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Processing Fitness-for-Duty Drug and Alcohol Cases, </DOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24363-24364</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-11009</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption and Combined License Amendment:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Southern Nuclear Operating Co., Inc. Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4 Power Operated Relief Valve Noise Mitigation, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24546-24548</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-11008</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24546</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11154</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Personnel</EAR>
            <HD>Personnel Management Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Federal Employees' Retirement System</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Present Value Conversion Factors for Spouses of Deceased Separated Employees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24401-24402</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP1.sgm" D="1">2019-10849</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Pipeline</EAR>
            <HD>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Pipeline Safety:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Public Meeting on Unusually Sensitive Area Definitions and Pipeline Awareness and Engagement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24593-24594</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11042</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for Special Permit; Alaska Gasline Development Corp., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24594-24595</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11041</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Product, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24548-24549</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-11037</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Service</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Domestic Mail Manual; Incorporation by Reference, </DOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24392-24393</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="1">2019-11055</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>International Mail Manual; Incorporation by Reference, </DOC>
                      
                    <PGS>24392</PGS>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYR1.sgm" D="0">2019-11054</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Financial Disclosures about Acquired and Disposed Businesses, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24600-24661</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYP2.sgm" D="61">2019-09472</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>24562-24563, 24573, 24575-24576</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10981</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10982</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10983</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Applications:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>BlackRock Capital Investment Corp., et al., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24553-24562</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="9">2019-10975</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Commencement and Termination Dates:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pre-Pilot Period of the Transaction Fee Pilot for National Market System Stocks, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24563</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10997</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>ICE Clear Europe, Ltd., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24549-24553, 24573-24575</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="4">2019-10986</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-10989</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>MIAX Emerald, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24587-24589</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="2">2019-10985</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24563-24572, 24576-24587</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="11">2019-10987</FRDOCBP>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="9">2019-10988</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application for a U.S. Passport, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24590</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-10990</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Meetings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Overseas Schools Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24590-24591</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="1">2019-10995</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Preparation for the Sixth Session of the International Maritime Organizations Sub-Committee on Implementation of IMO Instruments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>24589</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP T="28MYN1.sgm" D="0">2019-11046</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Comptroller of the Currency</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Securities and Exchange Commission, </DOC>
                <PGS>24600-24661</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP T="28MYP2.sgm" D="61">2019-09472</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Federal Trade Commission, </DOC>
                <PGS>24664-24699</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP T="28MYP3.sgm" D="35">2019-09627</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24363"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>10 CFR Chapter I</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2016-0185]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Processing Fitness-for-Duty Drug and Alcohol Cases</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Policy revision; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a revision to its Enforcement Policy (the Policy). The NRC is revising Section 4.1, “Considerations in Determining Enforcement Actions Involving Individuals,” of the Policy to indicate that the NRC typically will not consider Fitness-for-Duty (FFD) Drug and Alcohol (D&amp;A) related violations for enforcement unless the licensee's FFD program has apparent deficiencies.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The policy revision is effective on May 28, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0185 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2016-0185. Address questions about NRC dockets to Carol Gallagher; telephone: 301-415-3463; email: 
                        <E T="03">Carol.Gallagher@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">pdr.resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that it is mentioned in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                         You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        David Furst, Office of Enforcement; telephone: 301-287-9087; email: 
                        <E T="03">David.Furst@nrc.gov;</E>
                         U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>On January 31, 2016, the NRC staff submitted to the Commission SECY-16-0009, “Recommendations Resulting from the Integrated Prioritization and Re-Baselining of Agency Activities,” (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML16028A189). Item 101 in Enclosure 1 of SECY-16-0009 included the NRC staff's recommendations for creating efficiencies in the Enforcement Process, in part by reducing FFD case processing.</P>
                <P>In developing potential efficiencies in the enforcement program, the NRC staff concluded that not processing routine cases involving D&amp;A issues would reduce NRC staff resources without impacting safety and security because 10 CFR part 26 already requires licensees to disposition individual violations of their FFD D&amp;A procedures.</P>
                <P>The Commission approved the NRC staff's recommendation to reduce FFD case processing in the Staff Requirements Memorandum for SECY-16-0009, dated April 13, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16104A158).</P>
                <P>
                    On October 5, 2016, the NRC published a document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (81 FR 69010) soliciting public comments on the proposed change to the Policy. Twelve stakeholders provided comments on the proposed revision. While the Nuclear Energy Institute commented on behalf of the nuclear energy industry that they supported the NRC staff's proposed revision to the Policy, not all stakeholders agreed with the proposed revision to the Policy. The public comments and staff's responses to those comments are available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16355A045.
                </P>
                <P>On May 8, 2017, the staff submitted SECY-17-0059 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16355A048) requesting Commission approval to issue a revised Policy, establishing that the NRC will not typically consider FFD D&amp;A related violations involving non-licensed individuals for enforcement action unless there is an apparent deficiency in the licensee's FFD program. On April 18, 2019, the Commission issued Staff Requirements Memorandum for SECY-17-0059, “Proposed Enforcement Policy Revision for Processing Fitness-For-Duty Cases Resulting from Site Fitness-For-Duty Drug and Alcohol Violations by Individuals” (ADAMS Accession No. ML19108A476), approving the staff's proposed revision to the Policy. The Commission also approved the staff's specific, proposed implementation of this change, through the addition of a new paragraph to Section 4.1 of the NRC's Policy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Revision to the NRC Enforcement Policy</HD>
                <P>This policy revision is being implemented by adding the following paragraph at the end of Section 4.1, “Considerations in Determining Enforcement Actions Involving Individuals:”</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>For FFD violations involving non-licensed individuals who violate drug and alcohol provisions of site FFD programs, which are explicitly described in § 26.75, “Sanctions,” the NRC will not typically consider FFD drug and alcohol-related violations for enforcement action unless there is an apparent deficiency in the licensee's FFD program to take the required sanctions against the individual(s) or deficiencies in implementation of the licensee FFD program.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>The revision to the Policy is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML19123A129.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This revision to the Policy does not contain any new or amended collections of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Existing collections of information were approved by the Office of Management (OMB) and Budget, approval number 3150-0136.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Protection Notification</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24364"/>
                    to, a request for information or an information collection requirement unless the document displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>This policy is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, OMB has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 21st day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Annette L. Vietti-Cook,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11009 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2018-1074; Airspace Docket No. 18-AWP-29]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Class E Airspace; Hawaiian Islands, HI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action modifies the Hawaiian Islands Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet and 5,500 feet above the surface of the earth by removing that portion that extends beyond the Territorial Sea. This action supports the operation of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) under standard instrument approach and departure procedures in the Hawaiian Islands, for the safety and management of aircraft within the National Airspace System.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective 0901 UTC, August 15, 2019. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1 Code of Federal Regulations part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783. The Order is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Richard Roberts, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 2200 S. 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone (206) 231-2245.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet and 5,500 feet above the surface for the Hawaiian Islands, HI, to correct an error in which US airspace extends into international airspace.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (84 FR 7837; March 5, 2019) for Docket No. FAA-2018-1074 to modify Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet and 5,500 feet above the surface of the earth for the Hawaiian Islands, HI. Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal to the FAA. No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11C, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designation listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Documents for Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    This document amends FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018. FAA Order 7400.11C is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. FAA Order 7400.11C lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA is amending Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by modifying Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet and 5,500 feet above the surface of the earth. The FAA identified that the Hawaiian Islands Class E airspace was established, in error, beyond the United States Territorial Sea and into international airspace. The Territorial Sea of the United States was defined by Presidential Proclamation number 5928, on December 27, 1988, as that area extending to 12 nautical miles beyond the land territory and internal waters of the United States and the airspace above it. This action will modify the Class E Airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth by adjusting the airspace's outer boundary to coincide with the Hawaiian Islands' Territorial Sea and remove the Class E airspace that extends upward from 5,500 feet above the surface of the earth. This action removes references to the Hilo and South Kauai VORTACs in the legal description for the Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet. The airspace is being redesigned without the use of these references. This legal description will establish the Hawaiian Islands as an archipelagic whole consistent with the definition established in the Constitution of the State of Hawaii. This designation includes all islands, together with their appurtenant reefs and territorial and archipelagic waters, included in the Territory of Hawaii on the date of enactment of the Admission Act, except the atoll known as Palmyra Island, together with its appurtenant reefs and territorial waters; but this State shall not be deemed to include the Midway Islands, Johnston Island, Sand Island (offshore from Johnston Island) or Kingman Reef, together with their appurtenant reefs and territorial waters. This action is being submitted coincidental with an FAA proposal, submitted on April 11, 2018 (83 FR 15521), to establish Hawaiian Islands' High and Low Offshore Airspace Areas within international airspace. The Offshore Airspace would extend from the Hawaiian Islands' Territorial Sea outward to the boundary of the Flight Information Region. The offshore airspace will provide for the application 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24365"/>
                    of domestic air traffic control procedures, beyond the Territorial Sea, within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or Air Traffic Control radar coverage.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a Regulatory Evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6005 Class E Airspace Areas Extending Upward From 700 Feet or More Above the Surface of the Earth.</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">AWP HI E5 Hawaiian Islands, HI [Amended]</HD>
                        <P>That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within 12 NM of the Hawaiian Islands shoreline Beginning at lat. 22°06′28″ N, long. 159°04′39″ W, to lat. 21°46′57″ N, long. 158°14′41″ W, to 12 NM from the shoreline of Oahu.</P>
                        <P>Thence, clockwise along the line 12 NM from and parallel to the shoreline of the State of Hawaii, to lat. 20°30′29″ N, long. 155°53′40″ W, to lat. 20°28′08″ N, long. 155°52′03″ W, to 12 NM from the shoreline of Hawaii.</P>
                        <P>Thence, clockwise along the line 12 NM from and parallel to the shoreline of Hawaii to lat. 20°03′26″ N, long. 156°05′30″ W, to lat. 20°22′48″ N, long. 156°18′51″ W, to 12 NM from the shoreline of Maui.</P>
                        <P>Thence clockwise along the line 12 NM from and parallel to the shoreline of the State of Hawaii, to lat. 21°25′19″ N, long. 158°26′08″ W, to lat. 21°44′34″ N long. 159°15′27″ W, to 12 NM from the shoreline of Kauai.</P>
                        <P>Thence, clockwise along the line 12 NM from and parallel to the shoreline of the State of Hawaii to the beginning.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Seattle, Washington, on May 6, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Maria Aviles,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Group Manager (A), Operations Support Group, Western Service Center.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10949 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2017-1013; Airspace Docket No. 17-AWP-12]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of the Hawaiian Islands High and the Hawaiian Islands Low Offshore Airspace Areas; Hawaii</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action establishes the Hawaiian High and Hawaiian Low Offshore airspace areas. This action establishes Class A airspace, extending upward from 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) to and including flight level (FL) 600; and Class E airspace, extending upward from 1,200 feet MSL to and including 17,999 feet MSL around the Hawaiian Islands. The action provides additional airspace within which domestic air traffic control (ATC) procedures will be used. Establishment of the Class A and Class E airspaces enhances the management of air traffic operations resulting in a more efficient use of that airspace.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective date 0901 UTC, August 15, 2019. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1 Code of Federal Regulations part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783. The Order is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of FAA Order 7400.11C at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
                         FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kenneth Ready, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes offshore airspace areas around the Hawaiian Islands in support of domestic air traffic control procedures when offshore airspace areas are established.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24366"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">History</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     for Docket No. FAA-2017-1013 (83 FR 15521; April 11, 2018), to establish the Hawaiian High and Hawaiian Low Offshore airspace areas. Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal. No comments were received.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Documents for Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    This document amends FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018. FAA Order 7400.11C is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document. FAA Order 7400.11C lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>The FAA is amending Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish the Hawaiian High and Hawaiian Low Offshore airspace areas. This action establishes Class A airspace, extending upward from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL 600; and Class E airspace, extending upward from 1,200 feet MSL to and including 17,999 feet MSL around the Hawaiian Islands.</P>
                <P>Offshore airspace areas are published in paragraphs 2003 and 6007, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11C dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The offshore airspace areas listed in this document will be subsequently published in the Order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">ICAO Considerations</HD>
                <P>As part of this regulation relates to navigable airspace outside the United States, this notice is submitted in accordance with the ICAO International Standards and Recommended Practices. Article 12 to the Chicago Convention provides that over the high seas the rules inforce shall be those established under the convention. The application of International Standards and Recommended Practices by the FAA, Office of Airspace Services, in areas outside United States domestic airspace, is governed by Annexes 2 (Rule of the Air) and 11 (Air Traffic Services) to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, which pertain to the establishment of necessary air navigational facilities and services to promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of civil air traffic. The purpose of Article 12 and Annex 11 is to ensure that civil aircraft operations on international air routes are performed under uniform conditions. The International Standards and Recommended Practices in Annex 11 apply to airspace under the jurisdiction of a contracting state, derived from ICAO. Annex 11 provisions apply when air traffic services are provided and a contracting state accepts the responsibility of providing air traffic services over high seas or in airspace of undetermined sovereignty. A contracting State accepting this responsibility may apply the International Standards and Recommended Practices that are consistent with standards and practices utilized in its domestic jurisdiction. In accordance with Article 3 of the Convention, State-owned aircraft are exempt from the Standards and Recommended Practices of Annex 11. The United States is a contracting State to the Convention. Article 3(d) of the Convention provides that participating state aircraft will be operated in international airspace with due regard for the safety of civil aircraft. Since this action involves, in part, the designation of navigable airspace outside the United States, the Administrator is consulting with the Secretary of State and the Secretary of Defense in accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 10854.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this action of establishing the Hawaiian High and Hawaiian Low Offshore airspace areas qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act and its agency implementing regulations at 40 CFR part 1500, and in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures, regarding categorical exclusions for procedural actions at paragraph 5-6.5a which categorically excludes from full environmental impact review actions that are rulemaking actions that designate or modify classes of airspace areas, airways, routes, and reporting points (see 14 CFR part 71, Designation of Class A, B, C, D, and E Airspace Areas; Air Traffic Service Routes; and Reporting Points). As such, this action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts. In accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, paragraph 5-2 regarding Extraordinary Circumstances, the FAA has reviewed this action for factors and circumstances in which a normally categorically excluded action may have a significant environmental impact requiring further analysis. The FAA has determined that no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact study.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="71">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 2003 Offshore Airspace Areas.</HD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Hawaiian Islands High [New]</HD>
                        <P>
                            That airspace extending upward from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL 600 within the area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 24°43′17″ N, long. 155°15′47″ W; to lat. 24°17′45″ N, long. 154°15′00″ W; to lat. 23°46′50″ N, long. 153°21′58″ W; to lat. 23°01′27″ N, long. 152°34′40″ W; to lat. 22°20′39″ N, long. 151°53′07″ W; to lat. 21°32′52″ N, long. 151°27′59″ W; to lat. 20°41′49″ N, long. 151°01′09″ W; to lat. 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24367"/>
                            19°41′47″ N, long. 150°30′11″ W; to lat. 19°13′22″ N, long. 151°52′46″ W; to lat. 19°08′32″ N, long. 154°29′00″ W; to lat. 18°06′32″ N, long. 155°42′42″ W; to lat. 17°48′18″ N, long. 156°04′05″ W; to lat. 17°10′14″ N, long. 156°48′21″ W; to lat. 17°10′14″ N, long. 157°45′24″ W; to lat. 17°13′28″ N, long. 158°15′04″ W; to lat. 17°45′21″ N, long. 159°32′20″ W; to lat. 18°03′09″ N, long. 160°16′11″ W; to lat. 18°24′28″ N, long. 160°48′51″ W; to lat. 19°24′54″ N, long. 162°23′01″ W; to lat. 19°39′29″ N, long. 162°41′58″ W; to lat. 20°07′00″ N, long. 163°18′00″ W; to lat. 21°09′04″ N, long. 163°54′52″ W; to lat. 22°12′20″ N, long. 163°54′52″ W; to lat. 23°15′30″ N, long. 163°51′18″ W; to lat. 24°10′08″ N, long. 163°15′59″ W; to lat. 25°03′24″ N, long. 162°38′59″ W; to lat. 25°40′34″ N, long. 161°41′28″ W; to lat. 26°06′18″ N, long. 160°37′54″ W; to lat. 26°08′41″ N, long. 158°37′19″ W; thence to the point of beginning, excluding that airspace within 12 miles of the shoreline of the State of Hawaii.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6007 Offshore Airspace Areas.</HD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Hawaiian Islands Low [New]</HD>
                        <P>That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet MSL within the area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 19°10′04″ N, long. 153°39′43″ W; to lat. 19°08′32″ N, long. 154°29′00″ W; to lat. 19°07′10″ N, long. 155°13′34″ W; to lat. 18°45′39″ N, long. 155°35′36″ W; to lat. 18°40′54″ N, long. 156°05′48″ W; to lat. 19°24′23″ N, long. 158°36′11″ W; to lat. 20°18′00″ N, long. 160°46′52″ W; to lat. 20°49′07″ N, long. 161°33′17″ W; to lat. 21°40′37″ N, long. 161°54′48″ W; to lat. 22°31′49″ N, long. 161°55′19″ W; to lat. 23°26′57″ N, long. 161°31′39″ W; to lat. 23°57′27″ N, long. 160°54′00″ W; to lat. 24°18′03″ N, long. 159°50′09″ W; to lat. 24°10′39″ N, long. 158°54′47″ W; to lat. 23°47′34″ N, long. 158°11′12″ W; to lat. 23°30′03″ N, long. 157°29′36″ W; to lat. 23°19′54″ N, long. 156°45′02″ W; to lat. 23°13′26″ N, long. 155°42′39″ W; to lat. 22°54′59″ N, long. 154°55′06″ W; to lat. 22°28′14″ N, long. 154°19′27″ W; to lat. 21°45′08″ N, long. 153°49′50″ W; to lat. 21°02′31″ N, long. 153°38′56″ W; thence to the point of beginning, excluding that airspace within 12 miles of the shoreline of the State of Hawaii. That airspace extending upward from 5,500 feet MSL within the area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 19°11′37″ N, long. 152°50′00″ W; to lat. 19°08′32″ N, long. 154°29′00″ W; to lat. 17°48′59″ N, long. 156°03′17″ W; to lat. 18°28′58″ N, long. 157°59′36″ W; to lat. 19°03′34″ N, long. 159°48′11″ W; to lat. 19°29′40″ N, long. 160°47′02″ W; to lat. 20°00′46″ N, long. 161°44′53″ W; to lat. 20°50′35″ N, long. 162°23′01″ W; to lat. 21°50′15″ N, long. 162°44′13″ W; to lat. 22°52′38″ N, long. 162°38′25″ W; to lat. 23°55′59″ N, long. 162°08′09″ W;  to lat. 24°43′41″ N, long. 161°12′18″ W; to lat. 25°00′33″ N, long. 159°50′17″ W; to lat. 24°50′45″ N, long. 158°32′32″ W; to lat. 24°19′39″ N, long. 157°32′31″ W; to lat. 23°59′14″ N, long. 156°28′23″ W; to lat. 23°53′49″ N, long. 155°25′33″ W; to lat. 23°24′55″ N, long. 154°15′20″ W; to lat. 22°41′48″ N, long. 153°28′59″ W; to lat. 21°45′32″ N, long. 152°58′57″ W; to lat. 20°35′50″ N, long. 152°48′18″ W; thence to the point of beginning, excluding that airspace within 12 miles of the shoreline of the State of Hawaii. That airspace upward from 10,000 feet MSL within the area bounded by a line beginning at lat. 19°12′44″ N, long. 152°12′34″ W; to lat. 19°08′32″ N, long. 154°29′00″ W; to lat. 17°20′23″ N, long. 156°36′33″ W; to lat. 18°33′07″ N, long. 159°55′59″ W; to lat. 19°03′09″ N, long. 161°10′15″ W; to lat. 19°31′51″ N, long. 162°00′41″ W; to lat. 20°11′04″ N, long. 162°40′05″ W; to lat. 20°58′47″ N, long. 163°04′59″ W; to lat. 21°56′05″ N, long. 163°19′16″ W; to lat. 22°54′36″ N, long. 163°13′18″ W; to lat. 23°36′43″ N, long. 162°58′50″ W; to lat. 24°30′39″ N, long. 162°32′55″ W; to lat. 25°07′02″ N, long. 161°36′02″ W; to lat. 25°33′41″ N, long. 160°06′39″ W; to lat. 25°27′34″ N, long. 158°34′55″ W; to lat. 24°43′37″ N, long. 156°56′38″ W; to lat. 24°30′12″ N, long. 155°51′07″ W; to lat. 24°16′10″ N, long. 154°47′02″ W; to lat. 23°53′14″ N, long. 153°57′47″ W; to lat. 23°14′36″ N, long. 153°08′32″ W; to lat. 22°20′47″ N, long. 152°35′51″ W; to lat. 21°12′25″ N, long. 152°13′34″ W; to lat. 20°33′20″ N, long. 152°11′55″ W; thence to the point of beginning, excluding that airspace within 12 miles of the shoreline of the State of Hawaii.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rodger A. Dean Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Airspace Policy Group.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10948 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Parts 31, 301, and 602</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[TD 9860]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BN19</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Certified Professional Employer Organizations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final regulations.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document sets forth final regulations relating to certified professional employer organizations (CPEOs). The Stephen Beck, Jr., Achieving a Better Life Experience Act of 2014, required the IRS to establish a voluntary certification program for professional employer organizations. These final regulations set forth the requirements a person must satisfy in order to become and remain a CPEO and the federal employment tax liabilities and other obligations of persons certified by the IRS as CPEOs. These final regulations will affect persons who apply to be treated as CPEOs and who are certified by the IRS as meeting the applicable requirements. In certain instances, the final regulations will also affect the federal employment tax liabilities and other obligations of customers of the CPEO.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         These regulations are effective on May 28, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                         For dates of applicability see §§ 31.3511-1(i), 301.7705-1(c), and 301.7705-2(o).
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Nina Roca at (202) 317-6798 (this is not a toll-free number).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The collection of information contained in these final regulations has been reviewed and approved by the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) under control number 1545-2266.</P>
                <P>The collection of information in these regulations is in § 31.3511-1(g), which provides that the Secretary shall develop such reporting and recordkeeping rules, regulations, and procedures as the Secretary determines necessary or appropriate to ensure compliance by CPEOs with subtitle C of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), and in § 301.7705-2, which relates to the requirements that a person must satisfy to become and remain certified as a CPEO.</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                <P>Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Stephen Beck, Jr., Achieving a Better Life Experience Act of 2014 (the ABLE Act), enacted on December 19, 2014 (Pub. L. 113-295), added new sections 3511 and 7705 to the Code relating to the certification requirements for, and the federal employment tax consequences of, being a “certified professional employer organization” (CPEO). The ABLE Act required the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24368"/>
                    Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to establish a voluntary certification program for persons to become CPEOs. Additionally, the ABLE Act made conforming amendments to sections 3302, 3303(a), 6053(c), 6652, and 7528 relating to the obligations, requirements, and penalties applicable to a CPEO.
                </P>
                <P>Section 7705(a) defines a CPEO as a person who applies to be treated as a CPEO for purposes of section 3511 and has been certified by the Secretary as meeting the requirements of section 7705(b), which include requirements related to tax status and background, satisfying certain bond, financial review, and quarterly reporting requirements (as provided for in section 7705(c)), and notifying the IRS of any change that materially affects the continuing accuracy of information provided by the CPEO.</P>
                <P>Section 7705(d) gives the Secretary the authority to suspend or revoke the certification of any person for purposes of section 3511 if the Secretary determines that the person is not satisfying the agreements or requirements of sections 7705(b) or (c), or fails to satisfy applicable accounting, reporting, payment, or deposit requirements. Section 7705(f) provides that the Secretary shall make available to the public the name and address of each person certified as a CPEO and each person whose certification is suspended or revoked.</P>
                <P>Under sections 3511(a)(1) and (c)(1), for purposes of federal employment taxes and other obligations under the federal employment tax rules, a CPEO is generally treated as the employer of any individual performing services for a customer of the CPEO and covered by a contract meeting the requirements of section 7705(e)(2) (CPEO contract) between the CPEO and the customer (covered employee), but only with respect to remuneration remitted to the covered employee by the CPEO. With respect to an individual covered by a CPEO contract who performs services for a customer at a work site that meets the coverage requirements of section 7705(e)(3) (a work site employee), section 3511(a)(1) specifies that no person other than the CPEO is treated as the employer for federal employment tax purposes with respect to remuneration remitted by the CPEO to such individual.</P>
                <P>Under section 3511(g), the Secretary is directed to develop such reporting and recordkeeping rules, regulations, and procedures as the Secretary determines necessary or appropriate to ensure compliance with the applicable federal employment tax provisions by CPEOs. In addition, under section 3511(h), the Secretary is directed to prescribe such regulations as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of section 3511.</P>
                <P>
                    On May 6, 2016, the Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS published final and temporary regulations under section 7705 (TD 9768) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (81 FR 27315, as corrected July 12, 2016 at 81 FR 45012) that describe the application process and certification requirements necessary for a person to become and remain a CPEO. On the same date, the Treasury Department and the IRS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-127561-15) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (81 FR 27360) cross-referencing the temporary regulations and proposing additional regulations under section 3511 that describe the federal employment tax consequences for CPEOs and their customers. On June 3, 2016, Revenue Procedure 2016-33 (2016-25 I.R.B. 1034) was also issued, which set forth the detailed procedures for applying to be certified as a CPEO. The IRS did not receive any requests for a public hearing on the regulations, and therefore no public hearing was held. Several comments responding to the proposed and temporary regulations and the revenue procedure were received. The Treasury Department and the IRS determined that it was important to respond promptly to some of these comments and issued Notice 2016-49 (2016-34 I.R.B. 265) on August 5, 2016 in response. Notice 2016-49 provided interim guidance and described modifications to certain certification requirements, which are reflected in these final regulations. Finally, the Treasury Department and the IRS also issued Revenue Procedure 2017-14 (2017-3 I.R.B. 426) on December 29, 2016, which addressed the requirements for a CPEO to remain certified and the procedures relating to suspension and revocation of CPEO certification. The written comments received are available for public inspection and copying at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or upon request. After consideration of all the comments, the proposed regulations are adopted as amended by these final regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                <P>The IRS received seven written comments in response to the proposed and temporary regulations. Several of the points made in the comments related to items specifically addressed in the online application for certification, Rev. Proc. 2016-33, Notice 2016-49, Rev. Proc. 2017-14, Form 8973 “Certified Professional Employer Organization/Customer Reporting Agreement”, Schedule R (Form 941) “Allocation Schedule for Aggregate Form 941 Filers”, and/or Form 14751 “Certified Professional Employer Organization Surety Bond”. Except to the extent that certain of these comments also relate to issues covered by the regulations, the comments are beyond the scope of the regulations and they are not otherwise addressed herein. They are under further consideration for future revisions of the revenue procedures and possible modifications to the application program and applicable forms.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Annual Wage Base and Withholding Threshold for Covered Employees</HD>
                <P>
                    Sections 3511(a) and (c), provide that, for federal employment tax purposes, a CPEO is treated as the employer of covered employees that are work site employees (section 3511(a)(1)) and covered employees that are not work site employees (non-work site covered employees) (section 3511(c)(1)) with regard to remuneration it pays to these covered employees. Remuneration paid by an employer to an employee within any calendar year is not subject to the social security portions of Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) taxes, the equivalent portions of tier 1 Railroad Retirement Tax Act (RRTA) taxes, or Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA) taxes to the extent it exceeds the applicable annual wage base for these taxes (collectively referred to in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions as the “annual wage base”). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     sections 3121(a), 3231(e), and 3306(b) for FICA, RRTA, and FUTA taxes respectively. Under section 3102(f)(1), employers are required to withhold Additional Medicare Tax (AdMT) from an employee's wages only to the extent that those wages exceed $200,000 in a calendar year (referred to in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions as the “withholding threshold”). The annual wage base applies on an employer-by-employer basis, unless the predecessor-successor employer rule discussed below applies; thus, only remuneration received during any calendar year by an employee from the same employer is considered in applying the annual wage base for purposes of the remuneration paid by that employer. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     §§ 31.3121(a)(1)-1(a)(3) and 31.3306(b)(1)-1(a)(3) for FICA and FUTA taxes, respectively. Similarly, the AdMT withholding threshold applies only with regard to remuneration received during any calendar year by an employee from the same employer. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 31.3102-4(a).
                    <PRTPAGE P="24369"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    By contrast, the annual wage base is not applied separately to successor and predecessor employers. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 3121(a)(1). In accordance with section 3511(b), § 31.3511-1(d) of the proposed regulations provides that, for purposes of the annual wage base: (1) A customer is considered a predecessor employer and a CPEO is considered a successor employer upon entering into a CPEO contract with respect to a work site employee who is performing services for the customer, and (2) a CPEO is considered a predecessor employer and a customer is considered a successor employer upon termination of the CPEO contract between the CPEO and the customer with respect to a work site employee who is performing services for the customer. The proposed regulations also provide that, except as provided with respect to successor and predecessor employers in § 31.3511-1(d), remuneration received by a covered employee from a CPEO for performing services for a customer of the CPEO within any calendar year is subject to a separate annual wage base and withholding threshold that are each computed with respect to such remuneration, without regard to any remuneration received by the covered employee during the calendar year from any other employer (including, if applicable, remuneration received directly from the customer receiving services from the employee). Thus, upon entering into a CPEO contract with a customer with respect to a covered employee, the CPEO starts a new annual wage base and withholding threshold with respect to the covered employee (unless the CPEO is treated as a successor employer under § 31.3511-1(d)).
                </P>
                <P>The proposed regulations also provide that if, during a calendar year, a covered employee receives remuneration from a CPEO for services performed by the covered employee for more than one customer of the CPEO, the annual wage base and withholding threshold do not apply to the aggregate remuneration received by the covered employee from the CPEO for services performed for all such customers. Rather, the annual wage base and withholding threshold apply separately to the remuneration received by the covered employee from the CPEO with respect to services performed for each customer.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS received several comments on the annual wage base and withholding threshold rules for covered employees under the proposed regulations. One commenter recommended that current law, unaffected by section 3511 and the regulations thereunder, should apply for purposes of determining whether remuneration paid by a CPEO to a non-work site covered employee is subject to a separate annual wage base. The commenter asserted that the statutory distinction between the tax treatment of work site employees and the tax treatment of non-work site covered employees was intended to address CPEO and customer liability only in each case, and was not meant to otherwise change the federal employment tax treatment of wages paid to work site employees versus non-work site covered employees.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with that assertion. Section 31.3121(a)(1)-1(a)(3) provides that if an employee receives remuneration from more than one employer in a calendar year, the annual wage base does not apply to the aggregate remuneration received from all of such employers, but instead applies to the remuneration received during that calendar year from each employer. Because section 3511 treats a CPEO as an employer separate and apart from the CPEO customer for whom the employees are performing services, employees receiving remuneration from both the CPEO and the CPEO customer in a calendar year must be treated as receiving remuneration from two different employers and the annual wage base therefore applies separately, unless the successor and predecessor rules under section 3511(b) apply.</P>
                <P>The same commenter also suggested that, if an employee performs services for multiple customers of a CPEO, the annual wage base should apply to the aggregate remuneration received by the employee from the CPEO for services performed for all customers. The commenter argued that the customer-by-customer treatment of the annual wage base in the proposed regulations was contrary to the statutory language that treats the CPEO as the sole employer of work site employees.</P>
                <P>
                    A customer-by-customer treatment of the annual wage base is consistent with section 3511. Specifically, the maintenance of a separate annual wage base and withholding threshold with respect to each customer for which a covered employee performs services during a calendar year is consistent with the statutory language of section 3511(a)(1) which provides that the CPEO will “be treated as the employer (and no other person will be treated as the employer) of any work site employee performing services for any customer of such organization, 
                    <E T="03">but only with respect to remuneration remitted by such organization to such work site employee”</E>
                     (emphasis added). This language contemplates that the CPEO will have a separate annual wage base under 3121(a), 3231(e), and 3306(b) (subject to the application of the predecessor-successor employer rules on a customer-by-customer basis). Furthermore, under section 3511(a)(2) (applicable to work site employees) and section 3511(c)(2) (applicable to non-work site covered employees), the exemptions, exclusions, definitions, and other rules, which are based on the type of employer in most cases will be based on the CPEO customer (assuming the typical situation in which the CPEO customer is the common law employer of the covered employees). In these instances, the attributes of the CPEO customer (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     tax-exempt or not) will be used to determine the taxes on the remuneration paid by the CPEO with respect to services performed for a customer. In addition, section 3511(d)(1)(A) provides that, for purposes of certain specified credits, with respect to services performed by a work site employee for a CPEO customer, the credits apply to the CPEO customer, not the CPEO. Thus, section 3511 requires, for both work site and non-work site covered employees, the separate treatment of amounts paid by the CPEO to one employee with respect to services performed by the employee for two or more different customers. A separate annual wage base and withholding threshold with respect to each customer for which a covered employee performs services is needed for purposes of applying some of the exemptions, exclusions, definitions, and other rules addressed in section 3511(a)(2) and (c)(2) and the treatment of some of the credits discussed in section 3511(d). Therefore, if a single employee receives remuneration from a CPEO pursuant to multiple CPEO contracts with different customers, the CPEO must maintain a separate annual wage base and withholding threshold for the employee with respect to each customer.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For instance, wages paid to employees for services performed in the employ of a religious, charitable, educational, or other type of organization described under section 501(c)(3) are not subject to FUTA tax under section 3306(c)(8). Consequently, under sections 3511(a)(2) and (c)(2), wages paid by a CPEO to covered employees for services performed for a CPEO customer that is an organization described in section 501(c)(3) are not subject to FUTA tax. Wages paid by a CPEO to a covered employee for services performed for a CPEO customer that is a section 501(c)(3) organization cannot be used in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24370"/>
                    determining FUTA tax liability for wages paid by the CPEO for services performed by that same employee for a CPEO customer that is subject to FUTA tax. The FUTA annual wage base must be applied separately to the remuneration paid by the CPEO for services performed for the non-section 501(c)(3) employer because under sections 3511(a)(2) and (c)(2) the exemption from FUTA tax applies only to the CPEO customer that is a 501(c)(3) organization.
                </P>
                <P>For these reasons, the commenter's proposed changes are not adopted in these final regulations.</P>
                <P>Finally, one commenter suggested that, because a CPEO that is treated as a successor employer will need to determine the amount of wages paid and applied toward the annual wage base by a customer that is treated as the predecessor employer and in some cases that information provided by a customer may be incorrect, the IRS should issue guidance stating that a CPEO may rely on the wage report provided by the customer. Whether, and to what extent, a CPEO relies on a wage report from its customer is a business decision for the CPEO. The CPEO still has the obligation to report accurate information. General guidance on the procedures applicable to preparing and reporting wage information in predecessor and successor employer situations is addressed in the regulations under section 3121(a)(1) and in Revenue Procedure 2004-53, 2004-34 I.R.B. 320, (the revenue procedure specifically provides guidance on filing Forms 941, W-2, W-4, and W-5 in predecessor and successor employer situations). CPEOs that are treated as successor employers should refer to those provisions for guidance. For these reasons, the commenter's suggestion is not adopted in these final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Treatment of Credits</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Non-Work Site Covered Employees</HD>
                <P>Under section 3302(h), if a CPEO, or a customer of a CPEO, makes a contribution to a state's unemployment fund with respect to wages paid to a work site employee, the CPEO is eligible for the credits available under section 3302 for purposes of calculating FUTA tax with respect to that contribution. Similarly, under section 3303(a)(4), a CPEO is allowed an additional credit under section 3302(b) with respect to any reduced rate of contributions permitted by a state law if the Secretary of Labor finds that under that law the CPEO is permitted to collect and remit contributions during the taxable year to the state unemployment fund with respect to a work site employee. Because section 3302(h) and section 3303(a)(4) apply exclusively with respect to wages paid to work site employees, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on the application of the credits in sections 3302(h) and 3303(a)(4) with respect to wages paid to non-work site covered employees.</P>
                <P>Under section 3511(d), for purposes of various tax credits enumerated in section 3511(d)(2) under which the amount of the credit is determined by reference to the amount of federal employment taxes or the amount of wages subject to federal employment taxes, the credit with respect to a work site employee performing services for a customer applies to the customer, not to the CPEO. Consequently, in determining the amount of the credit, the customer, and not the CPEO, takes into account the federal employment taxes and wages paid by the CPEO with respect to the work site employee and for which the CPEO receives payment from the customer. Because the application of the specified tax credits to the customer under section 3511(d) applies exclusively with respect to work site employees, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on the treatment of tax credits with respect to non-work site covered employees.</P>
                <P>One commenter responded to these requests for comments. Concerning the application of the FUTA tax credits in sections 3302(h) and 3303(a)(4) to non-work site covered employees, the commenter stated that the application of the credits should be governed by current law without regard to the statutory provisions related to the CPEO program. But the commenter also suggested that “it is equitable, consistent with the intent of the law, and in the best interests of employment administration efficiency (without regard to the application of [section] 3511) to apply the application of the pass-through of the FUTA tax credit to a CPEO with respect to wages paid to . . . individuals covered by a CPEO contract that are not Work Site Employees.” In addition, this commenter requested that the preamble to the final regulations note that “as a general matter, the CPEO that is liable for the FUTA taxes on remuneration it pays would be eligible for the tax credits under sections 3302(h) and 3303(a)(4).”</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that, because amendments to regulations under section 3302(h) and section 3303(a)(4) were not included in the notice of proposed rulemaking, these final regulations will not address the general application of the credits in sections 3302(h) and 3303(a)(4) in connection with wages paid to non-work site covered employees. The Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to consider this issue.</P>
                <P>Concerning the treatment of tax credits described in section 3511(d) with respect to non-work site covered employees, the commenter suggested that, just as with the credits under sections 3302(h) and 3303(a)(4), the application of these credits should be governed by current law. The commenter also added that there is “no basis or advantage” to treating work site employees and non-work site covered employees differently and therefore, as a general matter, the customer, and not the CPEO, should be eligible for the tax credits listed in section 3511(d). The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that current law should govern the eligibility for the tax credits listed in section 3511(d) with respect to wages paid to non-work site covered employees. For this reason, these final regulations do not include provisions regarding the application of the tax credits in section 3511(d) to non-work site covered employees. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that, in computing these credits under current law, generally the customer, and not the CPEO, will take into account wages and federal employment taxes paid by the CPEO with respect to the covered employee and for which the CPEO receives payment from the customer. This is the same treatment accorded to tax credits listed in section 3511(d) for work site employees. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Additional Credits</HD>
                <P>As discussed in the previous section, section 3511(d) governs the treatment of various tax credits under which the amount of the credit is determined by reference to the amount of wages or federal employment taxes and section 3511(d)(2) specifies these credits. Under section 3511(d)(2)(H), the Secretary may specify other credits subject to the treatment provided for under section 3511(d). Consistent with this section, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on whether other credits should be specified in these regulations or in other guidance.</P>
                <P>
                    One commenter requested that the recently enacted employer credit for paid family and medical leave under section 45S be added to the list of specified credits in the regulations. Section 45S was added to the Code by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (Pub. L. 115-97) enacted December 22, 2017. Notice 2018-71, 2018-41 I.R.B. 548, published October 9, 2018, provides that, for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24371"/>
                    wages paid by a CPEO to qualifying employees for services performed for an eligible employer, the eligible employer, not the CPEO, may take into account wages paid to qualifying employees for services performed for the eligible employer in determining the credit under section 45S. The notice also announces the IRS's intention to publish proposed regulations under section 45S. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that, although the credit under section 45S does not apply to wages paid in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2019 (unless extended), it is appropriate to add this credit to the list of specified credits. Therefore, these final regulations include the credit under section 45S in the list of specified credits under § 31.3511-1(e)(2) (which provides a list of credits that apply to the CPEO customer, and not the CPEO, with respect to services performed by a work site employee for a CPEO customer). In addition, § 31.3511-1(e)(2)(ix) of these final regulations provides that the IRS may specify any other section as a specified credit in further guidance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No other comments on the proposed regulations were received specifying additional credits to be included in the final regulations. However, subsequent to the issuance of the proposed regulations, the IRS did receive questions concerning whether wages paid by a CPEO to employees for services performed for a customer can be used by the customer in determining the employee retention credit in section 503 of the Disaster Tax Relief and Airport and Airway Extension Act of 2017 (The Disaster Relief Act (Pub. L. 115-63)) (assuming that the customer otherwise meets the requirements for the credit). In response to these inquiries, the IRS provided, in Publication 976 “Disaster Relief”, and on 
                    <E T="03">irs.gov,</E>
                     that for purposes of the employee retention credit, qualified wages paid by a CPEO to eligible employees of an eligible employer are considered qualified wages incurred by the eligible employer. The employee retention credit for disaster relief found in The Disaster Relief Act is substantially similar to the credit provided for in section 1400R, which provides an employee retention credit for employers affected by Hurricane Katrina. In addition, several other disaster relief acts have provided employee retention credits modeled after the credit in section 1400R. Since future disaster relief acts may continue to include employee retention credits similar to those provided in section 1400R and in The Disaster Relief Act, these final regulations add statutory employee retention credits that are similar to the employee retention credit in section 1400R and that provide disaster relief to employers in designated disaster areas to the list in § 31.3511-1(e)(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3.Treatment of Self-Employed Individuals</HD>
                <P>Consistent with section 3511(f), which provides that a self-employed individual is not a work site employee with respect to remuneration paid by a CPEO, and with section 3511(c), which provides that a CPEO is not treated as an employer of a self-employed individual, the proposed regulations provide that section 3511 does not apply to any self-employed individual.</P>
                <P>The proposed regulations define a “self-employed individual” as an individual with net earnings from self-employment (as defined in section 1402(a), without regard to the exceptions thereunder) derived from providing services covered by a CPEO contract, whether such net earnings are derived from providing services as a non-employee to a customer of a CPEO, from the individual's own trade or business as a sole proprietor customer of the CPEO, or as a partner in a partnership that is a customer of the CPEO, but only with regard to such net earnings.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the preamble discussion of the definition of “work site employee” in the proposed regulations provides that a self-employed individual, whether an independent contractor to the customer, a sole proprietor customer of the CPEO, or a partner in a partnership customer of the CPEO, is not considered to be a work site employee under section 3511(f) with regard to those earnings, but also provides that in the limited case in which a self-employed individual who is an independent contractor of a customer is also paid wages by the CPEO under a CPEO contract with the customer, the individual may nevertheless be a work site employee with respect to those wages. This latter language was intended to address the uncommon situation in which one individual is receiving payments from the CPEO for services provided to a customer in two separate capacities, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     for services performed for the CPEO customer as a common law employee of the customer and for completely separate and distinct services provided to the customer as an independent contractor. The CPEO is treated as the employer of the individual for federal employment tax purposes with respect to the payments the CPEO makes to the individual for the services the individual performs as a common law employee of the CPEO customer, and these payments are reported as wages by the CPEO. The payments for the services provided as an independent contractor are not wages and must be reported as payments to a self-employed individual.
                </P>
                <P>Further, any payment made by a CPEO to a partner in a partnership under a contract between the partnership and the CPEO must always be treated as a payment to a self-employed individual and reported as such. Under Revenue Ruling 69-184 (1969-1 C.B. 256) “[b]ona fide members of a partnership are not employees of the partnership” for federal employment tax purposes. “Such a partner who devotes . . . time and energies in the conduct of the trade or business of the partnership, or in providing services to the partnership as an independent contractor, is, in either event, a self-employed individual rather than an individual who, under the usual common law rules applicable in determining the employer-employee relationship, has the status of an employee.” Thus, “[r]emuneration received by a partner from the partnership is not `wages' with respect to `employment.' ” Instead, under the statutory framework of Subchapter K of the Code, an allocation or distribution between a partnership and a partner for the provision of services generally can be treated in one of three ways: (1) A distributive share under section 704(b) (reported as such by the partnership on Schedule K-1 (Form 1065), “Partner's Share of Income, Deductions, Credits, etc.”); (2) a guaranteed payment under section 707(c) (reported as such by the partnership on Schedule K-1 (Form 1065)); or (3) as a transaction in which a partner has rendered services to the partnership in its capacity as other than a partner under section 707(a) (reported by the partnership like a payment to an independent contractor on Form 1099-MISC, “Miscellaneous Income”). It is irrelevant to the characterization of the payment whether a CPEO pays the partner or the partnership pays the partner directly.</P>
                <P>
                    One commenter requested that the IRS permit reporting of payments by CPEOs to self-employed individuals using Form W-2, “Wage and Tax Statement.” However, the reporting of amounts paid to self-employed individuals is outside of the scope of these regulations. For example, under the section 6041 regulations, certain payments to self-employed individuals are reported using information returns such as Form 1099-MISC, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24372"/>
                    “Miscellaneous Income,” and not on Form W-2. Payments (within the meaning of section 6041 and the regulations thereunder) made to self-employed individuals should be reported in accordance with the rules under these and other applicable provisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Reporting to the IRS by CPEOs</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Reporting Commencement or Termination of CPEO Contracts and Service Agreements</HD>
                <P>Section 3511(g) sets forth the reporting requirements and obligations that persons must satisfy in order to maintain certification as a CPEO. The proposed regulations provide that a CPEO must report information relating to the commencement or termination of (1) any CPEO contract with a customer and (2) any service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) with a client and the name and EIN of such customer or client. The proposed regulations also provide that, with any Form 940, “Employer's Annual Federal Unemployment (FUTA) Tax Return”, or Form 941, “Employer's Quarterly Federal Tax Return”, that a CPEO files, the CPEO must attach the applicable Schedule R (or any successor form) including such information as the Commissioner may require about each of its customers under a CPEO contract and any clients under a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2). The only comment the IRS received related to these reporting requirements stated that they should be eliminated as they relate to clients under a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) because they are unnecessarily burdensome, ineffective, and not supported by statute. The commenter also stated that reporting commencement or termination of CPEO contracts or service agreements should be required only quarterly.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 3511(g) provides that the “Secretary shall develop such reporting and recordkeeping rules, regulations, and procedures as the Secretary determines necessary or appropriate to ensure compliance with this title by certified professional employer organizations.” Because a CPEO contract potentially affects the liability of CPEO customers under such contracts, the proposed regulations provide that CPEOs must report service agreements described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) with clients so that the IRS has a record that explicitly provides which CPEO clients are 
                    <E T="03">not</E>
                     under a CPEO contract, in the event that disputes concerning liability arise. In addition, the instructions to Form 8973, which is the form used to report a CPEO contract with a customer and a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) with a client, require that customers and clients sign Form 8973 and that a copy of this form be provided to the customers and clients to ensure the customers and clients understand the nature of their relationship with the CPEO. This requirement is in line with the statutory requirement in section 7705(e)(2)(F) that a CPEO contract include a provision that the CPEO agrees to be treated as a CPEO for purposes of 3511 with respect to the CPEO customer's employees. Thus, requiring that CPEOs report service agreements described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) with clients not only facilitates the IRS's recordkeeping, but also provides a means for the IRS to verify that the CPEO has properly represented to clients and customers the nature of their contractual arrangement (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     whether they are covered by a CPEO contract or not).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Similarly, the proposed regulations provide that CPEOs must include information about clients under a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) on Schedule R so that the IRS has a record of which amounts reported on Forms 941 and 940 are 
                    <E T="03">not</E>
                     subject to the liability provisions in sections 3511(a) and (c), in the event disputes concerning liability arise, and so that the IRS can better reconcile the total amounts of wages and taxes reported on Forms 940 and 941 with the amounts of wages and taxes reported on Schedule R.
                </P>
                <P>Because the proposed regulations' reporting requirements relating to clients under a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) assist the IRS in ensuring CPEO compliance with rules governing federal employment tax liability, consistent with section 3511(g), these final regulations retain the reporting requirements as they were in the proposed regulations.</P>
                <P>The proposed regulations do not address the time and manner of reporting the commencement or termination of CPEO contracts and service agreements. Rather, this information is provided in Rev. Proc. 2017-14 and in the instructions to the Form 8973. Requirements relating to the time and manner of reporting the commencement or termination of CPEO contracts and service agreements are criteria for tax administration that may need to be modified as processes or technology change or more knowledge about administrative challenges is acquired. Therefore, these requirements are more appropriately addressed in tax forms and publications or revenue procedures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Form 943—Attaching Schedule R and Reporting on Magnetic Media</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations provide that, with every Form 940 and Form 941 it files, a CPEO must attach all required schedules, including, but not limited to, the applicable Schedule R (or any successor form). The proposed regulations also provide that a CPEO must file Forms 940 and 941, and all required accompanying schedules, on magnetic media unless the CPEO is provided a waiver by the Commissioner. The proposed regulations define magnetic media as electronic filing, as well as other media specifically permitted under the applicable regulations, revenue procedures, publications, forms, instructions, or other guidance.</P>
                <P>For certain agricultural employer clients and customers, CPEOs must report federal employment taxes using Form 943, “Employer's Annual Federal Tax Return for Agricultural Employees.” At the time the proposed regulations were promulgated, a Schedule R was not available for Form 943, and the form could not be filed electronically. However, Schedule R (Form 943) is now available, and electronic filing has since been made available for Form 943. For this reason, these final regulations provide that, just like Forms 940 and 941, Form 943 must be filed with all required schedules, including Schedule R, attached and Form 943 must be filed on magnetic media unless the CPEO is provided a waiver by the Commissioner.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Waivers of the Requirement To Report on Magnetic Media</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations provide that the requirement to file Forms 940 and 941 on magnetic media can be waived in cases of undue economic hardship. Since the promulgation of the proposed regulations, some CPEOs experienced difficulties in electronic filing due to temporary software and technological issues, and one commenter asked the IRS to clarify that undue economic hardship can include economic hardships resulting from software and technological issues. The IRS provided these clarifications on 
                    <E T="03">irs.gov,</E>
                     and these final regulations also clarify that undue economic hardship includes economic hardships resulting from software and technological issues.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Applicable Definitions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Certified Public Accountant (CPA)</HD>
                <P>
                    In connection with the financial statement and quarterly assertion and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24373"/>
                    attestation requirements in the temporary regulations, the CPEO applicant or CPEO must submit an opinion or an examination level attestation, as applicable, from a CPA. The temporary regulations define a CPA as an individual who is independent of the CPEO (as prescribed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants' (AICPA) Professional Standards, Code of Professional Conduct), and among other things, files with the IRS a written declaration that he or she is authorized to represent the CPEO applicant or CPEO before the IRS. The Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments regarding whether the CPA independence guidelines or requirements of other governmental agencies or departments of industry self-regulatory bodies (such as the Department of Labor's guidelines on the independence of CPAs retained by employee benefit plans under 29 CFR 2509.75-9, the Securities and Exchange Commission's (SEC) independence guidelines for auditors reporting on financial statements included in SEC filings, and the Government Accountability Office's auditor independence requirements under Government Auditing Standards that cover federal entities and organizations receiving federal funds), as adapted for a CPA of a CPEO, would better ensure the impartiality of CPAs providing opinions on a CPEO's financial statements. One commenter responded that the AICPA's independence guidelines are the most appropriate for the CPEO program, and that most CPAs are more familiar with those guidelines than the other guidelines referenced in the preamble to the temporary regulations. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the AICPA's independence guidelines are the most appropriate for the CPEO program. Therefore, these final regulations retain the reference to the AICPA professional standards.
                </P>
                <P>Several commenters also noted that the requirement that a CPA be authorized to represent the CPEO applicant or CPEO before the IRS could conflict with the CPA independence requirements of the AICPA. Consistent with Notice 2016-49, and to ensure that the CPA may be “independent” within the meaning of the AICPA guidelines, these final regulations omit the requirement that the CPA file with the IRS a written declaration of authorization to represent the CPEO applicant or CPEO before the IRS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Responsible Individual</HD>
                <P>Section 7705(b)(1) provides that the Secretary may establish requirements for certification that apply not only to the CPEO applicant or CPEO, but also to “any owner, officer, and other persons as may be specified in regulations.” Accordingly, the temporary regulations include a number of requirements that apply to certain owners, officers, and other individuals (referred to in the regulations as “responsible individuals”). The temporary regulations generally define a responsible individual as an individual in any of the following categories with respect to the CPEO applicant or CPEO: (1) Certain owners; (2) directors and officers; (3) individuals with ultimate responsibility for implementing the decisions of the organization's governing body; (4) individuals with ultimate responsibility for the organization's management and operations; (5) individuals with ultimate responsibility for managing the organization's finances; (6) managing members or general partners; (7) the sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship; and (8) any other individuals with primary responsibility for federal employment tax compliance of the organization. With respect to determining whether an individual is a responsible individual by reason of ownership, the temporary regulations specify that a responsible individual includes any individual who owns 33 percent or more of the total combined voting power of all classes of stock of a corporation entitled to vote or the total value of shares of all classes of stock of a corporation, or any individual who owns 33 percent or more of the profits interest or capital interest in a partnership.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments regarding the administrability of applying the definition of responsible individual with respect to ownership of profits interests in a partnership, the value of which may fluctuate over time. One commenter indicated that, although there would be situations where a partner's capital interest or profits interest will fluctuate, similar fluctuations will likely occur with respect to changes in corporate ownership. The commenter did not suggest revising the definition of responsible individual with respect to ownership percentages, but the commenter did suggest that the IRS require only annual reporting of responsible individuals unless there is significant turnover in the CPEO's responsible individuals. The temporary regulations require that a CPEO applicant or CPEO notify the IRS, in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(8)), of any change that materially affects the continuing accuracy of any agreement or information that was previously made or provided to the IRS. A change in responsible individuals is an example of a material change, and the time and manner for reporting this information to the IRS is currently set forth in Rev. Proc. 2016-33 and Rev. Proc. 2017-14. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt this suggestion, but the Treasury Department and the IRS will consider this comment in any future updates to these two revenue procedures. Additionally, the final regulations adopt the definition of responsible individuals from the temporary regulations, with additional language regarding disregarded entities as described in paragraph 7(a) of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                <P>
                    The temporary regulations also require the CPEO, and each of its responsible individuals, to take such actions as are necessary to authorize the IRS to investigate the accuracy of statements and submissions made by the CPEO, including waiving confidentiality and privilege when necessary and submitting fingerprints to conduct comprehensive background checks, including, but not limited to, checks on tax compliance and criminal background. With respect to suitability requirements applicable to responsible individuals, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments regarding the possible expansion of the category of individuals who must authorize the IRS to conduct comprehensive background checks and submit fingerprint cards to include certain directors, officers, and owners of a CPEO applicant's or CPEO's related entities. The Treasury Department and the IRS received one comment in response. The commenter requested that the category not be expanded because such an expansion would impose additional paperwork burdens on professional employer organizations (PEOs), responsible individuals, and the IRS without any meaningful improvements in the program. The Treasury Department and the IRS considered the likely impact on PEOs, responsible individuals, and the IRS of expanding this category and the likely value of this additional information to the IRS. As of the date of these final regulations, the IRS has certified 120 CPEOs, and the information provided regarding each CPEO applicant, its related entities, precursor entities, and responsible individuals, coupled with the ongoing certification requirements 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24374"/>
                    applicable to CPEOs and responsible individuals, has been sufficient for the IRS to make determinations regarding certification. Therefore, these final regulations do not expand the category of individuals who must authorize the IRS to conduct comprehensive background checks and submit fingerprint cards beyond what was included in the temporary regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Provider of Employment-Related Services</HD>
                <P>The temporary regulations define a provider of employment-related services as a person that provides employment tax administration, payroll services, or other employment-related compliance services to clients. One commenter suggested that the phrase “or other employment-related compliance services” in the definition of provider of employment-related services could be interpreted to include entities that only provide (1) labor through a staffing service, or (2) employment background screening services. The commenter suggested revising the definition to refer to “other similar employment-related compliance services.” The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the commenter that the phrase “or other employment-related compliance services” could be construed to apply more broadly than was intended. As noted in the preamble to the temporary regulations, the term is intended to capture entities that provide payroll or other federal employment tax administration and compliance services. Accordingly, these regulations replace the term “provider of employment-related services” with “provider of payroll services” and revise the definition of this term to clarify that the entity must provide payroll, federal employment tax administration, or other similar federal employment tax-related compliance services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Work Site</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations define “work site” as a physical location at which an individual regularly performs services for a customer of a CPEO (except that a work site may not be the individual's residence or a telework site unless the customer requires the individual to work at that site) and if there is no such location, the work site is the location from which the customer assigns work to the individual. The proposed regulations also provide that, in applying the term “work site,” contiguous locations are treated as a single physical location and thus a single work site, and noncontiguous locations that are not reasonably proximate are treated as separate physical locations and thus separate work sites. A CPEO may treat noncontiguous locations that are reasonably proximate as a single physical location and thus a single work site, but any two work sites that are separated by 35 or more miles or that operate in a different industry or industries will not be treated as reasonably proximate. Because the physical location at which an individual regularly performs services can, at times, be difficult to ascertain, the Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on the definition of work site and any additional clarifications that would facilitate a determination of an individual's work site.</P>
                <P>One commenter responded to this request for comments. The commenter suggested that the definition focus on the physical location where an individual “primarily” performs services and that, when appropriate, various client locations should be considered one work site location rather than providing for separate work sites for each location at which the CPEO customer's workers perform services. The commenter also suggested that work sites in different industries and work sites that are maintained as a separate operation for bona fide business reasons (based on facts and circumstances) are factors that should be taken into account for purposes of determining whether two or more work sites should be treated as one work site.</P>
                <P>
                    The definition of work site in the proposed regulations, as a location where an individual 
                    <E T="03">regularly</E>
                     performs services, was intended to take into account CPEO customers whose workers provide services in multiple noncontiguous, non-proximate locations and/or locations that operate in a different industry or industries. Under the proposed regulations, the determination of whether a covered employee is a work site employee is made separately with regard to each work site at which the covered employee regularly provides services; under this standard, a covered employee may be determined to be a work site employee at more than one work site during a calendar quarter. Furthermore, the proposed regulations provide that a covered employee will be considered a work site employee for the entirety of a calendar quarter if the employee qualifies as a work site employee at any time during that quarter. Therefore, a covered employee that regularly performs services for a customer at multiple sites need only qualify as a work site employee at one of the sites in a calendar quarter to be considered a work site employee for that entire quarter.
                </P>
                <P>The use of the phrase “primarily performs services” instead of the phrase “regularly performs services” would not provide the customer this flexibility, but would instead require customers with covered employees at multiple sites either to identify the site at which covered employees “primarily” perform services or to make a determination (with appropriate substantiation) that it maintains separate work sites for a bona fide business reason such that these sites can be treated as one work site. To avoid that result, these final regulations do not adopt this suggested change.</P>
                <P>However, the Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that certain employers have employees regularly working at the location of clients of varying industries, all doing work in the employer's industry rather than the industry of the client. For example, an information technology business might have employees regularly performing services related to information technology at the locations of clients in a variety of unrelated industries (factory, restaurant, museum, etc.). To address this situation, these final regulations provide that the determination of the industry of a work site is based on the nature of the CPEO customer's work at that work site, irrespective of work performed by other entities at the same site.</P>
                <P>In addition, these final regulations provide that when treating noncontiguous locations as a single physical location and thus a single work site, one noncontiguous location cannot be included in more than one work site. The final regulations contain an example illustrating this rule. Finally, for clarification, non-substantive changes were made to the language in the proposed regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Work Site Employee</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations, consistent with section 7705(a), provide that a work site employee means, with respect to a customer, a covered employee who performs services for the customer at a work site where at least 85 percent of the individuals performing services for the customer are covered employees of the customer. The proposed regulations also provide that a covered employee will be considered a work site employee for the entirety of a calendar quarter if he or she qualifies as a work site employee at any time during that quarter. Consequently, a covered employee can be a work site employee for one or more calendar quarters of the year and a non-work site covered employee for other calendar quarters 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24375"/>
                    during the same year. One commenter suggested a safe harbor rule providing that a covered employee who qualifies as a work site employee at any time during a calendar quarter is considered a work site employee for the entirety of that quarter 
                    <E T="03">and</E>
                     for the remainder of the calendar year. Since the CPEO program began in 2016, the IRS has not been made aware of any issues concerning the quarterly determination of work site employees. For this reason, and because a quarter-by-quarter work site employee determination coincides with a CPEO's quarterly federal employment tax reporting, these final regulations do not adopt this suggestion.
                </P>
                <P>The same commenter also requested that the regulations clarify the rules regarding excluded employees under section 414(q)(5). In accordance with section 7705(e)(3), the proposed regulations provide that, in determining whether the 85 percent threshold is met, individuals who are excluded employees within the meaning of section 414(q)(5) (such as newly hired or part-time employees) are not taken into account as either covered employees or individuals performing services, although those individuals may otherwise be covered employees and work site employees under the proposed regulations. The commenter was concerned that this rule could be interpreted to mean that all employees of a startup company would be excluded employees for purposes of determining whether the 85 percent threshold is met. The commenter suggested that the regulations incorporate the flush language from section 414(q)(5), which provides that an employer may substitute a shorter period of service, smaller number of hours or months, or lower age for the period of service, number of hours or months, or age specified in section 414(q)(5), though the commenter also suggested that the regulations provide that any such modifications must be on a consistent and uniform basis with respect to individuals performing services at the work site.</P>
                <P>Because the application of section 414(q)(5) is outside the scope of these regulations, these final regulations do not provide for any further explanation of the application of section 414(q)(5). Therefore, employers should look to the language of section 414(q)(5) in determining which employees should be excluded under section 7705(e)(3). However, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the flush language from section 414(q)(5) can be applied in the context of determining whether the 85 percent work site coverage requirement threshold is met under section 7705(e)(3), such that an employer may substitute a shorter period of service, smaller number of hours or months, or lower age for the period of service, number of hours or months, or age specified in section 414(q)(5).</P>
                <P>Finally, this commenter suggested that the regulations provide that reasonable good faith determinations concerning the application of the 85 percent coverage test in determining work site employees will be respected unless there is a pattern of abuse of this rule by the CPEO or its customer. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that, because applying the 85 percent coverage rules for determining work site employees may be challenging in certain situations, a good faith standard is appropriate. For this reason, these final regulations provide that a CPEO's determination that a covered employee is a work site employee will be respected if the CPEO has made a good faith determination that the covered employee meets the requirements of section 7705(e), the regulations, and further guidance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Application Process</HD>
                <P>The temporary regulations provide that a CPEO applicant will be notified by the IRS whether its application for certification has been approved or denied, as well as the effective date of certification or the reason(s) for the denial, each as applicable. One commenter noted that the temporary regulations do not address the reapplication process for CPEO applicants that are denied certification. The commenter requested that the final regulations clarify that a CPEO applicant may not reapply for certification for at least one year following a denial of certification, unless the CPEO applicant has resolved the issues identified by the IRS as the reason for the certification denial. The commenter also suggested that the final regulations clarify that a CPEO applicant that withdraws its application before the IRS makes a decision regarding certification may reapply for certification at any time. Rev. Proc. 2016-33 sets forth the detailed procedures for applying to be certified, including the ability to withdraw an application, but it does not address reapplication following a denial of certification. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the final regulations should address the ability to reapply after a denial of certification or withdrawal. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that a CPEO applicant may reapply for certification in such time and manner, and must include such information, as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance. Because procedural requirements relating to the time and manner of applying for certification may need to be modified as processes or technology change or more knowledge about administrative challenges is acquired, the Treasury Department and the IRS intend to address these requirements in a future revision of Rev. Proc. 2016-33.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Suitability</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Disregarded Entities and Sole Proprietorships</HD>
                <P>
                    The temporary regulations provide that a CPEO may not be a business entity that is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for federal tax purposes under §§ 301.7701-2 and 301.7701-3 (without regard to the special rule in § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(iv) that provides that such entities are corporations for federal employment tax purposes). Several commenters expressed concerns regarding the prohibition against disregarded entities becoming CPEOs. The commenters indicated that the temporary regulations may unnecessarily limit the ability of persons to apply for certification. They explained that PEOs may be structured as disregarded entities for legitimate business reasons, such as to reduce the overall compliance burden associated with filing state income tax returns. As a result of those comments, the Treasury Department and the IRS announced in Notice 2016-49 the expectation that the final regulations would not prohibit a business entity that is disregarded as separate from its owner under §§ 301.7701-2 and 301.7701-3 from becoming a CPEO, provided the disregarded entity is (1) wholly owned directly (including through one or more disregarded entities organized in the United States) by a United States person (as defined in section 7701(a)(30)), and (2) created or organized in the United States or under the law of the United States or of any state (collectively, a domestic disregarded entity). Consistent with Notice 2016-49, these final regulations allow domestic disregarded entities to apply for certification as CPEOs. The Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments on the appropriateness of allowing a disregarded entity that is domestically organized but not wholly owned directly by a United States person to apply for certification as a CPEO, but no comments were received on this issue. Accordingly, these final regulations require the disregarded entity to be both 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24376"/>
                    domestically organized and wholly owned directly by a United States person.
                </P>
                <P>As a result of the change permitting certain disregarded entities to apply for certification as a CPEO, these final regulations also revise the definition of “responsible individual” to include: (1) In the case of a disregarded entity owned by a corporation or partnership, the responsible individuals of that corporation or partnership, and (2) in the case of a disregarded entity owned by an individual, the individual owner. These final regulations also clarify that CPEO applicants and CPEOs that, but for their status as disregarded entities, would separately be members of a controlled group, are treated as members of a controlled group for purposes of sections 3511 and 7705 and the regulations thereunder.</P>
                <P>One commenter noted that the requirement that a CPEO must be a business entity would preclude an individual operating a business through a sole proprietorship from becoming a CPEO. As stated in Notice 2016-49, to ensure parity between sole proprietorships and disregarded entities that are wholly owned by individuals, these final regulations also expressly allow sole proprietorships to apply for certification as CPEOs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Fingerprint Cards and Background Checks</HD>
                <P>The temporary regulations provide that each responsible individual must submit fingerprints in the time and manner and under the circumstances prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance. Currently, the specific requirements regarding the time and manner of fingerprint submissions, including whether a responsible individual needs to submit multiple cards are included in Rev. Proc. 2016-33, the CPEO application for certification, and in the Responsible Individual Personal Attestation (RIPA) instructions. One commenter requested that the temporary regulations be revised to clarify that a responsible individual may submit a single fingerprint card that will be used for background check purposes for all CPEO applicants in a controlled group for which that person is a responsible individual. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion because the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that the regulations should continue to provide the IRS with the flexibility to include specific instructions regarding fingerprint cards in other guidance, such as revenue procedures and the application for certification, as the program develops and as changes in technology permit new procedures. The Treasury Department and the IRS will consider this comment in any future updates to Rev. Proc. 2016-33. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS consider it appropriate to include a specific reference to Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) background checks in order to acknowledge the scope of the background check. Accordingly, these final regulations expressly state that a CPEO or CPEO applicant, and each of its responsible individuals must take such actions as are necessary to authorize the IRS to conduct comprehensive background checks, including, but not limited to, FBI or other similar criminal background checks.</P>
                <P>
                    One commenter requested that responsible individuals who are attorneys, CPAs, enrolled agents, and officers of publicly traded companies be allowed to provide professional status information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     credential number, state of jurisdiction, and date of expiration) in lieu of submitting fingerprints. The commenter indicated that this would be consistent with the IRS's e-file program. Under sections 3511(a)(1) and (c)(1), with respect to remuneration remitted to an individual by a CPEO, for purposes of federal employment taxes and other obligations under the federal employment tax rules, the CPEO is treated as the employer of any individual performing services for a customer of the CPEO and covered by a CPEO contract. This treatment and the tax liability associated with it makes the CPEO program unlike other contractual arrangements, including a relationship with an e-file provider. The Treasury Department and the IRS continue to view the criminal background of a CPEO applicant and its responsible individuals as an important factor in determining whether the CPEO applicant's or the CPEO's certification presents a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the suggestion to rely on professional status data in lieu of an FBI or other similar background check.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Waiving Confidentiality and Privilege</HD>
                <P>
                    The temporary regulations require that CPEOs and responsible individuals take such actions as are necessary to authorize the IRS to investigate the accuracy of statements and submissions, including waiving confidentiality and privilege when necessary. One commenter noted that this requirement could be read to imply that responsible individuals and CPEOs are required to provide a blanket waiver of confidentiality and privilege on all issues. The temporary regulations were not intended to require responsible individuals and CPEOs to provide a blanket waiver. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that the language in the temporary regulations could be read more broadly than intended. Accordingly, and consistent with similar provisions in Rev. Proc. 2016-33, the final regulations clarify that the waiver will be required only in instances in which the IRS is otherwise unable to obtain or confirm the information it needs to evaluate a CPEO applicant's or CPEO's qualification for certification (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     from relevant third parties, such as former employers, because of the existence of confidentiality, non-disclosure, or similar agreements).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Financial Institution</HD>
                <P>The temporary regulations require CPEO applicants and CPEOs to use only financial institutions described in section 265(b)(5) to hold cash and cash equivalents. One commenter stated that CPEOs may violate this requirement by keeping small amounts of cash and cash equivalents on their premises. The commenter noted that this is a common practice and that certain cash equivalents are not ordinarily deposited in financial institutions. To address this concern, the final regulations require CPEO applicants and CPEOs to hold substantially all of their cash and cash equivalents in financial institutions described in section 265(b)(5). This change is intended to allow CPEO applicants and CPEOs to hold petty cash and cash equivalents (such as undeposited checks) on their premises.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Working Capital Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The temporary regulations provide that CPEO applicants and CPEOs must cause to be prepared and provided to the IRS, by the same date they must provide a copy of their annual audited financial statements, an opinion of an independent CPA that the financial statements reflect positive working capital for the fiscal year, unless an exception applies. In addition, the temporary regulations require this opinion to set forth in detail, a calculation of the CPEO applicant's or CPEO's working capital and state that the financial statements are presented fairly in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). Two commenters suggested that the final regulations eliminate the requirement that a CPEO applicant and CPEO have positive working capital. The commenters maintained that because the specific requirement of positive working capital is not included 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24377"/>
                    in the language of section 7705, the IRS should not impose this requirement on CPEOs. The commenters suggested that the IRS, instead, make its decision regarding whether to certify (or suspend) a CPEO applicant or CPEO, as applicable, based on the entity's financial situation, experience, and other factors in their entirety. Additionally, the commenters cautioned against the imposition of a rigid and difficult-to-monitor requirement.
                </P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS consider a CPEO with annual audited financial statements that reflect positive working capital (as determined in accordance with GAAP) to present a materially lower risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes than a CPEO without positive working capital. Accordingly, pursuant to section 7705(b)(1) and consistent with several state PEO certification and registration laws, the final regulations have retained the positive working capital requirement. The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that working capital may fluctuate over the course of a CPEO's fiscal year due to normal business operations. To allow for some fluctuation in working capital, the final regulations retain the exception to the positive working capital requirement set forth in the temporary regulations. This exception allows the CPEO applicant or CPEO to have negative working capital for no more than two consecutive quarters, provided the CPEO applicant or CPEO explains the reason it has negative working capital and demonstrates that the failure to have positive working capital does not present a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes.</P>
                <P>Several commenters indicated that CPAs may be prevented from including a statement on working capital in the CPA opinion due to certain AICPA limitations on what can be included in a CPA opinion. As stated in Notice 2016-49, to ensure consistency with the AICPA guidelines applicable to CPA opinion letters, these final regulations have been revised to require a CPEO applicant or CPEO to submit a copy of its annual audited financial statements and an opinion of a CPA that the annual audited financial statements are presented fairly in accordance with GAAP, provided that the audited annual financial statements covered by the opinion include a Note to the Financial Statements that states that the financial statements reflect positive working capital or that the CPEO applicant or CPEO satisfies the positive working capital exception included in these final regulations. The Treasury Department and the IRS anticipate making similar changes in future revisions of Rev. Proc. 2016-33 and Rev. Proc. 2017-14.</P>
                <P>The temporary regulations further require a responsible individual of a CPEO applicant or CPEO to provide, by the last day of the second month after the end of each calendar quarter and beginning with the most recently completed quarter as of the date of the application for certification, a statement verifying under penalties of perjury that the CPEO applicant or CPEO has positive working capital with respect to the most recently completed fiscal quarter. The temporary regulations further provide that although CPEO applicants and CPEOs that are members of a controlled group, within the meaning of sections 414(b) and (c), and the regulations thereunder, will be treated as a single CPEO applicant or CPEO for purposes of the annual audited financial statements, quarterly assertion and attestation, and bond requirements, the annual and quarterly requirements imposed with respect to positive working capital apply to each CPEO applicant or CPEO on a separate basis.</P>
                <P>With respect to both the annual and quarterly requirements regarding positive working capital, two commenters suggested that these requirements should not apply on an individual CPEO basis. The commenters noted that many PEOs have multiple related PEO entities that maintain combined or consolidated financial statements, and these entities should be permitted to demonstrate compliance with any positive working capital requirement on an aggregate basis. The commenters suggested that the IRS could impose a requirement that each related entity guarantee the liabilities of its related CPEOs to the IRS.</P>
                <P>Under the CPEO program, the decision regarding whether to certify, suspend, or revoke each CPEO applicant or CPEO (as applicable) is made on an entity-by-entity basis. Although the suitability of related and precursor entities is relevant when determining whether to certify a CPEO applicant, the IRS makes a separate certification determination with respect to each CPEO applicant. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt without change the provisions in the temporary regulations that the annual and quarterly requirements imposed with respect to positive working capital apply to each CPEO applicant or CPEO on a separate basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. Examination Level Attestation</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 7705(c)(3)(B), § 301.7705-2T(f)(1)(i) and (f)(3)(i) of the temporary regulations provide that CPEOs and CPEO applicants must provide, on a quarterly basis, an assertion, signed by a responsible individual under penalties of perjury, stating that the CPEO has withheld and made deposits of all federal employment taxes (other than taxes imposed by chapter 23 of the Code) as required by subtitle C for such calendar quarter, and an examination level attestation from a CPA stating that this assertion is fairly stated in all material respects. One commenter suggested that the final regulations provide the IRS with authority to provide an agreed-upon procedural alternative to the examination level attestation requirement because that option would provide uniformity, greater certainty, and potential cost savings. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that section 7705(c)(3)(B) specifically requires an examination level attestation on a quarterly basis and does not provide authority for other options. For this reason, these final regulations do not adopt this suggestion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Bond Requirements</HD>
                <P>Section 7705(c)(2) sets forth the bond requirements that a person must satisfy in order to become and remain a CPEO. The temporary regulations provide, among other things, that a CPEO must meet the bond requirements without posting collateral. Two commenters suggested that the final regulations remove the requirement that a CPEO meet the bond requirements without posting collateral. The commenters suggested that the “no collateral” requirement could limit access to CPEO certification for “small and medium sized PEOs,” but the commenters did not suggest what size entity would qualify as a small or medium sized PEO. As an alternative to removing the requirement in its entirety, one commenter suggested the IRS include the fact that a CPEO has obtained a bond with collateral as a factor in evaluating the application for certification. Alternatively, one commenter suggested that a surety be permitted to request collateral for small CPEO applicants (those with a required surety bond penal sum of under $1,000,000). Finally, one commenter suggested that the IRS retain the discretion to not automatically revoke a CPEO's certification merely because the surety has sought collateralization of its risk after the CPEO is certified. The commenter suggested that the request for collateral be treated as a material change that must be reported and explained to the IRS.</P>
                <P>
                    One commenter remarked that “[a]s a general matter, a surety prefers to provide bonds on an uncollateralized 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24378"/>
                    basis.” The commenter further noted that a surety may require collateral if a bond applicant is qualified, but the obligation being secured is “particularly risky.” The commenter noted that the potential duration of the CPEO bond (which is the time during which the IRS may make a claim and collect tax under sections 6501 and 6502) may make the CPEO bond particularly risky, and indicated that this increased risk could conceivably be addressed by a collateral requirement.
                </P>
                <P>As indicated in the preamble to the temporary regulations, one of the main benefits of the bond requirement in section 7705(c) is that a CPEO must submit to the bonding surety's financial underwriting process to obtain the bond. This underwriting process provides the IRS with a certain level of assurance concerning the financial condition of the CPEO. As of the date of these final regulations, the IRS has certified 120 CPEOs. Each CPEO (or controlled group, where applicable) has provided the IRS with a bond without posting collateral, including several with bond amounts below the $1 million threshold. The Treasury Department and the IRS view the surety's financial underwriting process as a fundamental component of the bond requirement in section 7705(c), and have determined that the purpose of the bond requirement is substantially undermined if the CPEO obtains the bond by posting collateral in the amount of the bond. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS acknowledge that in certain limited circumstances, an exception to the prohibition on posting collateral may be appropriate. Accordingly, these final regulations state that the Commissioner may provide exceptions to this rule in further guidance. The Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to consider this issue in connection with anticipated revisions to Rev. Proc. 2017-14. In addition, the Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that in certain situations, a surety may want to retain the right to request collateral of a CPEO and that this right by itself does not violate the regulatory requirement that a CPEO must meet the bond requirements without posting collateral. For this reason, the final regulations provide that a surety's retention of the right to request collateral does not violate the rule against posting collateral, as long as no collateral is actually required by the surety or posted by the CPEO. However, if a surety later exercises this right and seeks collateral for a CPEO's bond, this action qualifies as a material change that must be timely reported to the IRS and will result in the revocation of the CPEO's certification if the CPEO cannot obtain a bond from another surety that does not require the CPEO to post collateral, subject to any exceptions the Commissioner may provide, as described above.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS also received comments requesting that the regulations clarify whether a CPEO must provide a separate bond for each year or adjust the penal sum of the bond based on its liability for the applicable bond period. One commenter also requested that the Treasury Department and the IRS define the terms strengthening bond and superseding bond. Consistent with guidance issued in Rev. Proc. 2017-14, these regulations clarify that the bond, any riders thereto, and any strengthening bonds are one continuous obligation from the effective date of the bond through the date the bond is superseded or cancelled. These regulations also provide definitions for riders, and for strengthening, superseding, and new bonds, and incorporate other guidance from Rev. Proc. 2017-14.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">11. Accrual Method of Accounting</HD>
                <P>Consistent with section 7705(b)(4) of the Code, the temporary regulations provide that a CPEO must compute its taxable income using an accrual method of accounting or, if applicable, another method that the Commissioner provides for in further guidance. One commenter requested that the IRS issue guidance approving the cash method of accounting as long as the entity provides audited financial statements using the accrual method. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion. Like the temporary regulations, however, the final regulations allow the Commissioner to provide for other accounting methods in further guidance, and the Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to consider the issue of whether to allow CPEOs to use the cash method of accounting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">12. Tip Reporting</HD>
                <P>The ABLE Act added section 6053(c)(8) to the Code regarding the application of the reporting requirements relating to certain large food or beverage establishments with respect to CPEOs and their customers. Section 6053(c)(8) provides that the CPEO customer with respect to whom a work site employee performs services is the employer for purposes of reporting under section 6053(c), and the CPEO is required to furnish to the customer and the IRS any information the IRS prescribes as necessary to complete this reporting. One commenter requested that these regulations clarify that the information required to be provided by section 6053(c)(8) is limited to information generated by the CPEO as a function of the services it performs as a CPEO and that is not already available to the customer. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that, because amendments to the regulations under section 6053 were not included in the notice of proposed rulemaking, these final regulations will not address information that must be provided under section 6053(c)(8). However, the Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to consider this issue.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">13. Maintain Employee Records</HD>
                <P>Under section 7705(e)(2)(E), a service contract must provide that a CPEO will maintain employee records, and the proposed regulations include the same requirement with respect to a CPEO contract. One commenter asked for further guidance regarding this requirement to maintain employee records. Although the statutory and regulatory provisions regarding service agreements and CPEO contracts require that the contract or agreement include certain provisions, including that the CPEO maintain employee records, the CPEO and its customers and client may choose to include additional provisions in their contracts. To allow for some flexibility and business judgment in negotiating CPEO contracts, the final regulations do not adopt the suggestion to expand upon the statutory requirements concerning maintaining employee records, and retain without modification the requirements for CPEO contracts set forth in the proposed regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">14. Marketing as CPEOs</HD>
                <P>
                    One commenter asked the Treasury Department and the IRS to clarify that only CPEOs may market themselves as CPEOs. Section 7705(f) and § 301.7705-2(a)(3) and (n)(4)(ii) provide that the IRS will make available the name and address of every person certified as a CPEO and every CPEO whose certification is suspended or revoked. These regulations impose rules and requirements on CPEO applicants and CPEOs, but they do not apply to those entities that do not apply for or obtain certification. Whether an entity other than a CPEO incorrectly represents its classification in its business materials is not a matter for IRS enforcement. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt this suggestion, but the Treasury Department and the IRS encourage customers and clients of entities claiming to be CPEOs to confirm that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24379"/>
                    those entities are listed and remain listed as CPEOs on 
                    <E T="03">www.irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">15. Confidentiality of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    One commenter requested guidance indicating that information submitted to the IRS will be kept confidential. This comment is beyond the scope of these regulations, so no changes were made in these final regulations. Generally, returns and return information, including CPEO applications, are confidential and may only be disclosed as authorized by the Internal Revenue Code. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 6103. Section 7705(f) provides for the public disclosure of the name and address of CPEOs and whether a CPEO's certification was suspended or revoked.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">16. No Inference Language</HD>
                <P>One commenter requested that the regulations reiterate language in section 206(h) of the ABLE Act that nothing in section 206 of the ABLE Act (which includes sections 3511 and 7705) shall be construed to create any inference with respect to the determination of who is an employee or employer (1) for federal tax purposes (other than the purposes set forth in the amendments made by section 206), or (2) for purposes of any other provision of law. This suggested addition to the final regulations is not necessary. Section 7705(g) sufficiently addresses the implications of the no inference provisions with respect to the Code. It provides that except to the extent necessary for purposes of section 3511, nothing in section 7705 shall be construed to affect the determination of who is an employee or employer for purposes of Title 26. Comments related to other laws are beyond the scope of these regulations, and they are not addressed herein.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">17. Other Changes</HD>
                <P>In addition to the changes discussed above, these final regulations include non-substantive or clarifying changes to the text of the proposed and temporary regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <P>This regulation is not subject to review under section 6(b) of Executive Order 12866 pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement (April 11, 2018) between the Treasury Department and the Office of Management and Budget regarding review of tax regulations. It is hereby certified that the collection of information contained in these regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The collection of information is in §§ 31.3511-1(g) and 301.7705-2. The certification is based on the following:</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS anticipate that the organizations that choose to apply for this voluntary certification program are likely to be entities that already have many of the systems and processes in place that are needed to comply with these regulations. For example, it is expected that CPEOs will generally maintain annual audited financial statements during the normal course of their business, rather than solely as a result of § 301.7705-2(e). Moreover, the requirements in § 301.7705-2(e) and (f) for demonstrating positive working capital on an annual basis and for the quarterly assertions regarding federal employment tax compliance build upon requirements already reflected in many state PEO certification and registration laws, thereby minimizing the economic impact on those CPEO applicants already subject to the similar state law requirements.</P>
                <P>In addition, many of the requirements in §§ 31.3511-1(g) and 301.7705-2 that impose a collection of information on CPEOs constitute one-time notifications to the IRS, customers, or clients or notifications that relate to events in the life cycle of a CPEO that are less predictable and may be infrequent—such as transfers of existing CPEO contracts, making material changes to agreements previously provided to the IRS, suspension or revocation of the CPEO's certification, or the reclassification of employees at a particular work site as non-work site covered employees—and thus will have a minimal economic impact on the CPEO. Moreover, the Treasury Department and the IRS expect that CPEOs participating in this voluntary program will be able to build upon pre-existing systems and processes through which they already communicate with their clients.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) it is hereby certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the NPRM preceding these regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on their impact on small business.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal authors of these regulations are Melissa Duce, Andrew Holubeck, Nina Roca, and Neil Shepherd of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Employee Benefits, Exempt Organizations, and Employment Taxes). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in the development of these regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    IRS Revenue Procedures, Revenue Rulings notices, and other guidance cited in this document are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (or Cumulative Bulletin) and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 31</CFR>
                    <P>Employment taxes, Income taxes, Penalties, Pensions, Railroad retirement, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Social Security, Unemployment compensation.</P>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 301</CFR>
                    <P>Employment taxes, Estate taxes, Excise taxes, Gift taxes, Income taxes, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 602</CFR>
                    <P>Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, 26 CFR parts 31, 301, and 602 are amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 31—EMPLOYMENT TAXES AND COLLECTION OF INCOME TAX AT THE SOURCE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="31">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 31 is amended by adding an entry for § 31.3511-1 in numerical order to read in part as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Section 31.3511-1 is also issued under 26 U.S.C. 3511(h).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="31">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                         Section 31.3511-1 is added to subpart F to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 31.3511-1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Certified professional employer organization.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Treatment as employer</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For purposes of the federal employment taxes and other obligations imposed under chapters 21 through 25 of subtitle C of the Internal Revenue Code (federal employment taxes), a certified professional employer organization (CPEO) (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(1) of this chapter) is treated as the employer of any covered employee (as defined in § 301.7705-
                            <PRTPAGE P="24380"/>
                            1(b)(5) of this chapter), but only with respect to remuneration remitted by the CPEO to the covered employee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Work site employee.</E>
                             In the case of a covered employee who is a work site employee (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(17) of this chapter) of the customer, no person other than the CPEO is treated as the employer of the work site employee with respect to the customer for purposes of federal employment taxes imposed on remuneration remitted by the CPEO to the work site employee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Non-work site covered employee.</E>
                             In the case of a covered employee who is not a work site employee, a person other than the CPEO is also treated as an employer of the employee for purposes of federal employment taxes imposed on remuneration remitted by the CPEO to the employee if such person is determined to be an employer of the employee without regard to the application of this paragraph (a) and section 3511.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Exemptions, exclusions, definitions, and other rules</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Solely for purposes of federal employment taxes imposed on remuneration remitted by a CPEO to a covered employee, the application of exemptions, exclusions, definitions, and other rules that are based on the type of employer is presumed to be based on the type of employer of the customer of the CPEO for whom the covered employee performs services. If a covered employee performs services for more than one customer of the CPEO during the calendar year, the presumption described in the previous sentence applies separately to remuneration remitted by the CPEO to the covered employee for services performed with respect to each such customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Presumption rebutted.</E>
                             The presumption set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be rebutted if either the Commissioner determines, or the CPEO demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence, that the relationship between the customer and the covered employee is not the legal relationship of employer and employee as set forth in § 31.3401(c)-1. If such a determination or demonstration is made, then, with respect to remuneration remitted by a CPEO to a covered employee, the application of exemptions, exclusions, definitions, and other rules that are based on the type of employer will be based on the type of employer of the person determined by the Commissioner or demonstrated by the CPEO to be the common law employer of the covered employee in accordance with § 31.3401(c)-1.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">No inference from presumption.</E>
                             The presumption set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not create any inference with respect to the determination of who is an employer or employee or whether the legal relationship of employer and employee exists for federal tax purposes or for purposes of any other provision of law (other than for paragraph (b)(1) of this section).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Annual wage limitation, contribution base, and withholding threshold</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">CPEO has separate taxable wage base, contribution base, and withholding threshold.</E>
                             For purposes of applying the annual wage limitations under sections 3121(a)(1) and 3306(b)(1) (relating to the Federal Insurance Contributions Act and the Federal Unemployment Tax Act, respectively), the contribution base under section 3231(e)(2) (relating to the Railroad Retirement Tax Act), and the withholding threshold under section 3102(f)(1) (relating to the Additional Medicare Tax), remuneration received by a covered employee from a CPEO for performing services for a customer of the CPEO within any calendar year is subject to a separate annual wage limitation, contribution base, and withholding threshold that are each computed without regard to any remuneration received by the covered employee during the calendar year from any other employer (including, if applicable, remuneration received directly from the customer receiving services from the employee). Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a CPEO is treated as a successor or predecessor employer for purposes of the annual wage limitations and contribution base upon entering into or terminating a CPEO contract (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(3) of this chapter) with respect to a work site employee, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Performance of services for more than one customer.</E>
                             If, during a calendar year, a covered employee receives remuneration from a CPEO for services performed by the covered employee for more than one customer of the CPEO, the annual wage limitation, contribution base, and withholding threshold do not apply to the aggregate remuneration received by the covered employee from the CPEO for services performed for all such customers. Rather, the annual wage limitation, contribution base, and withholding threshold apply separately to the remuneration received by the covered employee from the CPEO with respect to services performed for each customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Successor employer status</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For purposes of sections 3121(a)(1), 3231(e)(2)(C), and 3306(b)(1), a CPEO and its customer are treated as—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) A successor and predecessor employer, respectively, upon entering into a CPEO contract with respect to a work site employee who is performing services for the customer; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) A predecessor and successor employer, respectively, upon termination of the CPEO contract between the CPEO and the customer with respect to the work site employee who is performing services for the customer.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Non-work site covered employee.</E>
                             A CPEO entering into a CPEO contract with a customer during a calendar quarter with respect to a covered employee who is not a work site employee at any time during that calendar quarter will not be treated as a successor employer (and the customer will not be treated as a predecessor employer) for purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section regardless of whether, during the term of the CPEO contract, the covered employee subsequently becomes a work site employee. Similarly, a CPEO terminating a CPEO contract with a customer during a calendar quarter with respect to a covered employee who is not a work site employee at any time during that calendar quarter will not be treated as a predecessor employer (and the customer will not be treated as a successor employer) for purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section regardless of whether, during the term of the CPEO contract, the covered employee had previously been a work site employee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Treatment of credits</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For purposes of the credits specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The credit with respect to a work site employee performing services for a customer applies to the customer, not to the CPEO; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) In computing the credit, the customer, and not the CPEO, is to take into account wages and federal employment taxes paid by the CPEO with respect to the work site employee and for which the CPEO receives payment from the customer.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Credits specified.</E>
                             A credit is specified in this paragraph (e) if such credit is allowed under—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Section 41 (credit for increasing research activity);</P>
                        <P>(ii) Section 45A (Indian employment credit);</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) Section 45B (credit for portion of employer social security taxes paid with respect to employee cash tips);
                            <PRTPAGE P="24381"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) Section 45C (clinical testing expenses for certain drugs for rare diseases or conditions);</P>
                        <P>(v) Section 45R (employee health insurance expenses for small employers);</P>
                        <P>(vi) Section 45S (employer credit for paid family and medical leave);</P>
                        <P>(vii) Section 51 (work opportunity credit);</P>
                        <P>(viii) Section 1396 (empowerment zone employment credit);</P>
                        <P>(ix) Statutory employee retention credits that are similar to the employee retention credit in section 1400R and that provide disaster relief to employers in designated disaster areas; and</P>
                        <P>(x) Any other section specified by the Commissioner in further guidance (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(8) of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Section not applicable to related customers, self-employed individuals, and other circumstances.</E>
                             This section does not apply—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) In the case of any customer that—</P>
                        <P>(i) Has a relationship to a CPEO described in section 267(b) (including, by cross-reference, section 267(f)) or section 707(b), except that “10 percent” shall be substituted for “50 percent” wherever it appears in such sections; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) Has commenced a CPEO contract with the CPEO but such commencement has not been reported to the IRS as described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section; or</P>
                        <P>(2) To remuneration paid by a CPEO to any self-employed individual (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(14) of this chapter) in that capacity;</P>
                        <P>(3) To any CPEO contract that a CPEO enters into while its certification has been suspended by the IRS; or</P>
                        <P>(4) To any CPEO whose certification has been revoked or voluntarily terminated for periods after the effective date of revocation or voluntary termination.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting and recordkeeping</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting and recordkeeping for employers.</E>
                             A CPEO that is treated as an employer of a covered employee pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must meet all reporting and recordkeeping requirements described in subtitle F of the Code that are applicable to employers in a manner consistent with such treatment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting on magnetic media</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO must file on magnetic media any Form 940, “Employer's Annual Federal Unemployment (FUTA) Tax Return,” Form 941, “Employer's QUARTERLY Federal Tax Return,” and Form 943, “Employer's Annual Federal Tax Return for Agricultural Employees,” and all required accompanying schedules, as well as such other returns, schedules, and other required forms and documents as is required by further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Waiver.</E>
                             The Commissioner may waive the requirements of this paragraph (g)(2) in case of undue economic hardship (including economic hardship resulting from temporary software and technological issues). The principal factor in determining hardship will be the amount, if any, by which the cost of filing the return, schedule, or other required form or document on magnetic media in accordance with this paragraph (g)(2) exceeds the cost of filing on or by other media. A request for a waiver must be made in accordance with applicable guidance. The waiver must specify the type of filing (that is, the name of the form or schedule) and the period to which it applies. In addition, the waiver will be subject to such terms and conditions regarding the method of filing as may be prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Magnetic media.</E>
                             The term magnetic media means any magnetic media permitted under applicable guidance. These generally include electronic filing, as well as other media specifically permitted under the applicable guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting to the IRS by CPEOs.</E>
                             A CPEO must report the following to the IRS in such time and manner, and including such information, as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The commencement or termination of any CPEO contract (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(3) of this chapter) with a customer, or any service agreement as described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) with a client, and the name and employer identification number (EIN) of such customer or client.</P>
                        <P>(ii) With any Form 940, Form 941, and Form 943 that it files, all required schedules, including, but not limited to, the applicable Schedule R (or any successor form), containing such information as the Commissioner may require about each of its customers under a CPEO contract (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(3) of this chapter) and each of its clients under a service agreement (as described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2)). A CPEO must file Form 940, Form 941, and Form 943, along with all required schedules, on magnetic media, unless the CPEO is granted a waiver by the Commissioner in accordance with paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(iii) A periodic verification that it continues to meet the requirements of § 301.7705-2 of this chapter, as described in § 301.7705-2(j).</P>
                        <P>(iv) Any change that materially affects the continuing accuracy of any agreement or information that was previously made or provided by the CPEO to the IRS, as described in § 301.7705-2(k) of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(v) A copy of its audited financial statements and an opinion of a certified public accountant regarding such financial statements, as described in § 301.7705-2(e)(1) of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(vi) The quarterly statements, assertions, and attestations regarding those assertions described in § 301.7705-2(f)(1) of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Any information the IRS determines is necessary to promote compliance with respect to the credits described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and provided in section 3302.</P>
                        <P>(viii) Any other information the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting to customers by CPEOs.</E>
                             A CPEO must meet the following reporting requirements with respect to its customers in such time and manner, and including such information, as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Provide each of its customers with the information necessary for the customer to claim the credits described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Notify any customer if its CPEO contract has been transferred to another person (or if another person will report, withhold, or pay, under such other person's EIN, any applicable federal employment taxes with respect to the wages of any individuals covered by its CPEO contract) and provide the customer with the name and EIN of such other person.</P>
                        <P>(iii) If the CPEO's certification is suspended or revoked as described in § 301.7705-2(n) of this chapter, notify each of its current customers of such suspension or revocation.</P>
                        <P>(iv) If any covered employees are not, or cease to be, work site employees because they perform services at a location at which the 85 percent threshold described in § 301.7705-1(b)(17) of this chapter is not met, notify the customer that it may also be liable for federal employment taxes imposed on remuneration remitted by the CPEO to such covered employees, as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Information and agreements in any contract or agreement between a CPEO and a customer or client.</E>
                             Any CPEO contract (as defined in § 301.7705-1(b)(3) of this chapter) between a CPEO and a customer or service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) between a CPEO and a client must—
                            <PRTPAGE P="24382"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the case of a contract that is a CPEO contract—</P>
                        <P>(A) Contain the name and EIN of the CPEO reporting, withholding, and paying any applicable federal employment taxes with respect to any remuneration paid to individuals covered by the contract or agreement;</P>
                        <P>(B) Require the CPEO to provide to the customer the notices and information required by paragraph (g)(4) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(C) Describe the information that the CPEO will provide that is necessary for the customer to claim the credits specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section; and</P>
                        <P>(D) Require the CPEO to notify the customer that the customer may also be liable for federal employment taxes on remuneration remitted by the CPEO to covered employees if the work sites at which they perform services do not (or ever cease to) meet the 85 percent threshold described in § 301.7705-1(b)(17) of this chapter; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) In the case of a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) that is not a CPEO contract (and thus the individuals covered by that contract are not covered employees), or if this section does not apply to the contract under paragraph (f) of this section, notify, or be accompanied by a notification to, the client that the service agreement or contract is not covered by section 3511 and does not alter the client's liability for federal employment taxes on remuneration remitted by the CPEO to the employees covered by the service agreement or contract.</P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Penalties and additions to tax</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO that is treated as an employer of a covered employee under this section and that is required to meet the reporting requirements of an employer is subject to the same penalties and additions to tax as an employer with respect to such reporting requirements, including, but not limited to, penalties and additions to tax under sections 6651, 6656, 6672, 6721, 6722, and 6723.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Failures to timely make reports required under section 3511.</E>
                             CPEOs are subject to penalty under section 6652(n) with respect to reports required to be made to the IRS in paragraphs (g)(1) and (3) of this section and reports required to be made to customers in paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Failures to attach Schedule R.</E>
                             A CPEO is subject to penalty under section 6652(n) for failure to attach Schedule R (or successor form) to Forms 941, 940, or 943 as required by paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section. A CPEO is also subject to penalty under section 6723 for failure to include the EIN of each customer on Schedule R of Form 941, 940, or 943. See § 301.6723-1 of this chapter for the application of the section 6723 penalty in the case of multiple failures on a single document.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Failures to file on magnetic media.</E>
                             With respect to the requirement in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section that a CPEO must file Forms 940, 941, and 943, along with all required schedules, on magnetic media, a failure to file on magnetic media does not constitute a failure to file for purposes of section 6651(a)(1) nor does it constitute a failure to make a report for purposes of section 6652(n). Rather, the requirement to file Forms 940, 941, and 943 on magnetic media is a condition of maintaining certification as a CPEO.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             The rules in this section apply on and after May 3, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 301—PROCEDURE AND ADMINISTRATION</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 301 is amended by removing entries for §§ 301.7705-1T and 301.7705-2T and adding entries for §§ 301.7705-1 and 301.7705-2 in numerical order to read in part as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Section 301.7705-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 7705(h).</P>
                        <P>Section 301.7705-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 7705(h).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>
                         Sections 301.7705-1 and 301.7705-2 are added to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 301.7705-1 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Certified professional employer organization.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The definitions set forth in this section apply for purposes of this section, §§ 31.3511-1 and 301.7705-2, and sections 3302(h), 3303(a)(4), 6053(c)(8), and 7528(b)(4).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Certified professional employer organization</E>
                             (CPEO) means a person that applies to be certified as a CPEO in accordance with § 301.7705-2(a) and has been certified by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) as meeting the requirements of § 301.7705-2. For purposes of § 301.7705-2(g)(2), the term CPEO also includes the person before it applied for certification and while its application is pending with the IRS. For all other purposes, a person is a CPEO as of the effective date of its certification (as specified in the certification notice described in § 301.7705-2(a)(2)) and until its certification is revoked by the IRS (as described in § 301.7705-2(n)) or, if earlier and applicable, until the CPEO voluntarily terminates its certification in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">CPEO applicant</E>
                             means a person that has applied to be certified as a CPEO in accordance with § 301.7705-2(a) and whose application is pending with the IRS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">CPEO contract</E>
                             means a service contract between a CPEO and a customer that is in writing and provides that, with respect to an individual providing services to the customer, the CPEO will—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Assume responsibility for payment of wages to the individual, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from the customer for the services;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Assume responsibility for reporting, withholding, and paying any applicable federal employment taxes with respect to the individual's wages, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from the customer for the services;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Assume responsibility for any employee benefits that the service contract may require the CPEO to provide to the individual, without regard to the receipt or adequacy of payment from the customer for such benefits;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Assume responsibility for recruiting, hiring, and firing the individual in addition to the customer's responsibility for recruiting, hiring, and firing the individual;</P>
                        <P>(v) Maintain employee records relating to the individual; and</P>
                        <P>(vi) Agree to be treated as a CPEO for purposes of section 3511 with respect to the individual.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Certified public accountant (CPA)</E>
                             means a certified public accountant who—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) With respect to a CPEO applicant or CPEO, is independent of the CPEO applicant or CPEO (as prescribed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants' Professional Standards, Code of Professional Conduct, and its interpretations and rulings);</P>
                        <P>(ii) Is not currently under suspension or disbarment from practice before the IRS;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Is duly qualified to practice as a CPA in any state;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Files with the IRS a written declaration that he or she is currently qualified to practice as a CPA in any state; and</P>
                        <P>(v) Meets such other requirements as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Covered employee</E>
                             means, with respect to a customer, any individual (other than a self-employed individual, as defined in paragraph (b)(14) of this section) who performs services for the customer and who is covered by a CPEO 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24383"/>
                            contract between the CPEO and the customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Customer</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, a customer is any person who enters into a CPEO contract with a CPEO.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Persons who are not customers.</E>
                             A provider of payroll services that uses its own EIN for filing federal employment tax returns on behalf of its clients (or that used its own EIN immediately prior to entering into a service contract with the CPEO) is not a customer, even if it has entered into a service contract with the CPEO that meets all of the requirements for a CPEO contract described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section other than being a contract between a CPEO and a customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Federal employment taxes</E>
                             mean the taxes imposed by subtitle C of the Internal Revenue Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Guidance</E>
                             includes guidance published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             or Internal Revenue Bulletin, as well as administrative guidance such as forms, instructions, publications, or other guidance on the 
                            <E T="03">irs.gov</E>
                             website.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Partnership</E>
                             means a business entity (as described in § 301.7701-2(a)) that is classified as a partnership for federal tax purposes under §§ 301.7701-1, 301.7701-2, and 301.7701-3. Accordingly, any references to a managing member or general partner of a partnership mean a managing member or general partner of an entity that is classified as a partnership for federal tax purposes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Precursor entity</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A precursor entity means, with respect to a CPEO applicant, any related entity of the CPEO applicant that is or was a provider of payroll services that—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Has made a substantial asset transfer to the CPEO applicant during the calendar year in which the CPEO applicant applies for certification or any of the three preceding calendar years or plans to make such a substantial asset transfer while the application for certification is pending or in the 12-month period following the date of the CPEO applicant's application for certification; or</P>
                        <P>(B) Has ceased operations or dissolved during the calendar year in which the CPEO applicant applied for certification or any of the three preceding calendar years.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Related.</E>
                             For purposes of this paragraph (b)(10), a provider of payroll services is considered a related entity of a CPEO applicant if it is a related entity within the meaning of paragraph (b)(12) of this section or if it would be or would have been such a related entity based on the ownership and responsible individuals of the provider of payroll services at the time of its substantial asset transfer, ceasing of operations, or dissolution, as applicable, and the ownership and responsible individuals of the CPEO applicant at the time of its application.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Provider of payroll services</E>
                             means a person that provides federal employment tax administration, payroll services, or other similar federal employment tax-related compliance services to clients, including, but not limited to, collecting, reporting, and paying federal employment taxes with respect to wages or compensation paid by the person to individuals performing services for the clients. A provider of payroll services includes, but is not limited to, a CPEO.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (12) 
                            <E T="03">Related entity</E>
                             means, with respect to a CPEO applicant or CPEO, any person that meets one or more of the following criteria:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The person is a member of a controlled group of which the CPEO applicant or CPEO is also a member. Additionally, CPEO applicants and CPEOs that, but for their status as disregarded entities would separately be members of a controlled group, are treated as members of a controlled group for purposes of this paragraph (b)(12)(i). For purposes of this paragraph (b)(12)(i), controlled group has the meaning given to such term by sections 414(b) and (c) and §§ 1.414(b)-1 and 1.414(c)-1 through 1.414(c)-6 of this chapter, except that—</P>
                        <P>(A) With respect to a person that is not a provider of payroll services “more than 50 percent” will be substituted for “at least 80 percent” each place it appears in section 1563(a) (which is cross-referenced in section 414(b) and § 1.414(c)-2 of this chapter); and</P>
                        <P>(B) With respect to a person that is a provider of payroll services, “more than 5 percent” will be substituted for “at least 80 percent” each place it appears in section 1563(a) and § 1.414(c)-2 of this chapter; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) The person is a provider of payroll services and—</P>
                        <P>(A) A majority of the directors or a majority of the officers (as described in paragraph (b)(13)(ii) of this section) of the CPEO applicant or CPEO are directors or officers (as described in paragraph (b)(13)(ii) of this section), respectively, of the provider of payroll services; or</P>
                        <P>(B) An individual is a responsible individual of both the provider of payroll services and the CPEO applicant or CPEO by reason of paragraph (b)(13)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (13) 
                            <E T="03">Responsible individual</E>
                             means, with respect to a CPEO applicant or CPEO, (or, for purposes of paragraph (b)(10)(ii) or (b)(12)(ii) of this section, a provider of payroll services), the following individuals:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Any individual who owns, directly or indirectly, applying the constructive ownership rules of section 1563(e) with respect to stock ownership and substituting the term “interest” for the term “stock” and the term “partnership” for the term “corporation” used in that section, as appropriate for purposes of determining whether an interest in a partnership is indirectly owned by any person, 33 percent or more of—</P>
                        <P>(A) In the case of a corporation, the total combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to vote of such corporation or the total value of shares of all classes of stock of such corporation; or</P>
                        <P>(B) In the case of a partnership, the capital interest or profits interest of such partnership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Any individual who is a director or an officer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(13)(ii), a director is a voting member of the governing body (that is, the board of directors or equivalent controlling body authorized under state law to make governance decisions on behalf of the organization), and the officers are determined by reference to the organizing document, bylaws, or resolutions of the governing body, or otherwise designated consistent with state law. Officers may include individuals such as a president, vice-president, secretary, and treasurer.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Any individual who, regardless of title, has ultimate responsibility for implementing the decisions of the organization's governing body. An individual who serves with the title of chief executive officer, executive director, and/or president has this ultimate responsibility. An individual with this ultimate responsibility may include an individual who is not treated as an employee of the organization. If this ultimate responsibility resides with two or more individuals (for example, co-presidents), who may exercise such responsibility in concert or individually, then each such individual is a responsible individual.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) Any individual who, regardless of title, has ultimate responsibility for supervising the management, administration, or operation of the organization. An individual who serves with the title of chief operating officer has this ultimate responsibility. An individual with this ultimate responsibility may include an individual who is not treated as an employee of the organization. If this ultimate responsibility resides with two 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24384"/>
                            or more individuals, who may exercise such responsibility in concert or individually, then each such individual is a responsible individual.
                        </P>
                        <P>(v) Any individual who, regardless of title, has ultimate responsibility for managing the organization's finances. An individual who serves with the title of chief financial officer or treasurer has this ultimate responsibility. An individual with this ultimate responsibility may include an individual who is not treated as an employee of the organization. If this ultimate responsibility resides with two or more individuals who may exercise the responsibility in concert or individually, then each such individual is a responsible individual.</P>
                        <P>(vi) In the case of a partnership, any individual who is a managing member or general partner.</P>
                        <P>(vii) In the case of a sole proprietorship, the sole proprietor.</P>
                        <P>(viii) In the case of a disregarded entity owned by a corporation or partnership, the responsible individuals of that corporation or partnership.</P>
                        <P>(ix) In the case of a disregarded entity owned by an individual, the individual owner.</P>
                        <P>(x) Any other individual with primary responsibility for the organization's federal employment tax compliance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (14) 
                            <E T="03">Self-employed individual</E>
                             means an individual with net earnings from self-employment (as defined in section 1402(a) without regard to the exceptions thereunder) derived from providing services covered by a CPEO contract, whether such net earnings from self-employment are derived from providing services as a non-employee to a customer of the CPEO, from the individual's own trade or business as a sole proprietor customer of the CPEO, or as an individual who is a partner in a partnership that is a customer of the CPEO, but only with regard to such net earnings.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (15) 
                            <E T="03">Substantial asset transfer</E>
                             means any transfer of 35 percent or more of the value of the operating assets of the person making the transfer, whether through one or a series of transactions and whether accomplished through sale, lease, gift, assignment, succession, merger, consolidation, corporate separation, or any other means. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(15), operating assets include both tangible and intangible resources related to the conduct of the person's trade or business, including, but not limited to, such intangible assets as contracts, agreements, receivables, employees, and goodwill (which includes the value of a trade or business based on expected continued customer patronage due to its name, reputation, or any other factors). In the case of a contract described in section 7705(e)(2) or a service agreement described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) of this chapter entered into by a provider of payroll services, even if the contract or agreement is not sold, gifted, assigned, or otherwise formally transferred to a CPEO applicant, it will be considered transferred from the provider of payroll services to the CPEO applicant if the CPEO applicant reports, withholds, or pays, under its employer identification number (EIN), any applicable federal employment taxes with respect to the wages of any individuals covered by the contract or agreement.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (16) 
                            <E T="03">Work site</E>
                             means a physical location at which an individual regularly performs services for a customer of a CPEO or, if there is no such location, the location from which the customer assigns work to the individual. A work site may not be the individual's residence or a telework site unless the customer requires the individual to work at that site. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(16), work sites that are contiguous locations will be treated as a single physical location and thus a single work site, and noncontiguous locations will be treated as separate physical locations and thus separate work sites, except as provided in the next sentence. A CPEO customer may treat noncontiguous locations as a single physical location and thus a single work site if each of the locations is separated by less than 35 miles from every other location in the single work site and all locations in the single work site operate in the same industry. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the determination of the industry of a work site is based on the nature of the CPEO customer's work at that work site, irrespective of work performed by other entities at the same site. When treating noncontiguous locations as a single physical location and thus a single work site, one noncontiguous location cannot be included in more than one work site. For example, assume there are three noncontiguous locations, A, B, and C, operating in the same industry and that B is 20 miles east from A and C is 20 miles east from B. A CPEO customer would not be permitted to treat these three locations as a single work site but would be permitted to treat either A and B as a single work site or B and C as a single work site.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (17) 
                            <E T="03">Work site employee</E>
                            —(i)
                            <E T="03"> In general.</E>
                             A work site employee means, with respect to a customer, a covered employee who performs services for such customer at a work site where at least 85 percent of the individuals performing services for the customer are covered employees of the customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Self-employed individuals.</E>
                             Solely for purposes of determining whether the 85 percent threshold described in paragraph (b)(17)(i) of this section is met, a self-employed individual described in paragraph (b)(14) of this section is treated as a covered employee if such individual would be a covered employee but for the exclusion of self-employed individuals from the definition of covered employee in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Excluded employees.</E>
                             In determining whether the 85 percent threshold described in paragraph (b)(17)(i) of this section is met, an individual who is an excluded employee described in section 414(q)(5) is not treated as either an individual providing services or a covered employee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Treatment for calendar quarter.</E>
                             A covered employee will be considered a work site employee for the entirety of a calendar quarter if the employee qualifies as a work site employee at any time during that quarter.C
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) 
                            <E T="03">Separate determination for each work site.</E>
                             The determination of whether a covered employee is a work site employee is made separately with regard to each work site at which the covered employee regularly provides services and for each customer for which the covered employee is providing services. A covered employee may be determined to be a work site employee of more than one work site during a calendar quarter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) 
                            <E T="03">Good faith determination respected.</E>
                             A CPEO's determination that a covered employee is a work site employee will be respected if the CPEO has made a good faith determination that the covered employee meets the requirements of section 7705(e), this paragraph (b)(17), and any further guidance related to work site employee determinations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             The rules in this section apply on and after May 3, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 301.7705-2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>CPEO certification process.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Application requirement and certification</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Application.</E>
                             To be certified as a certified professional employer organization (CPEO), a person must submit a properly completed and executed application for certification as a CPEO in the time and manner prescribed by, and providing such information as required by, this section and any further guidance issued by the Commissioner. In addition, the applicant's responsible individuals must submit such information as is 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24385"/>
                            specified in this section and further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Notice.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant will be notified by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) whether its application for certification has been approved or denied, and, if approved, the effective date of certification. If the IRS denies the application, the IRS will inform the CPEO applicant of the reason(s) for denial. If the IRS denies an application for certification, or if the CPEO applicant withdraws an application for certification, the CPEO applicant may reapply for certification in such time and manner, and must include such information, as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Public disclosure of certification.</E>
                             If the IRS approves a CPEO applicant's application for certification, the IRS will make available to the public the name and address of the CPEO, as well as the effective date of its certification, in the time and manner described in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Effective date of certification.</E>
                             A CPEO's certification will be effective as of the effective date of certification specified in the notice described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and in the public disclosure described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and will continue in effect until the effective date of the revocation of the CPEO's certification, if any, as described in paragraph (n) of this section or, if earlier, the date that the CPEO voluntarily terminates its certification in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Requirements for certification.</E>
                             To receive and maintain certification, a CPEO applicant or CPEO must meet the requirements described in this section, as well as any additional requirements the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance. In addition, any precursor entities, related entities, and responsible individuals of the CPEO applicant or CPEO must meet any requirements applicable to them described in this section and in further guidance. The IRS may deny an application for certification or revoke or suspend a CPEO's certification if a CPEO applicant or CPEO, or one or more of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, fails to meet any applicable requirement described in this section or other applicable guidance, and the IRS will do so if the IRS determines, in its sole discretion, that such failure presents a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes. In determining whether one or more failures to meet the requirements described in this section presents a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes, the IRS generally will consider all relevant facts and circumstances, including the size, scope, nature, significance, recurrence, and timing of and reason for the failure and, in the case of a CPEO, any prior failures of the CPEO to meet the requirements of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Suitability</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The IRS may deny an application for certification or revoke or suspend a CPEO's certification for any of the following reasons:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, has failed to pay any applicable federal, state, or local taxes or file any required federal, state, or local tax or information returns in a timely and accurate manner, unless the failure is determined to be due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, has been charged with or convicted of any criminal offense under the laws of the United States or of a state or political subdivision thereof, or is the subject of an active IRS criminal investigation.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, has been sanctioned, or had a license, registration, or accreditation (including a license, registration, or accreditation relating to its status or ability to operate as a professional employer organization) denied, suspended, or revoked, by a court of competent jurisdiction, licensing board, assurance or other professional organization, or federal or state agency, court, body, board, or other authority for any misconduct that involves dishonesty, fraud, or breach of trust or that otherwise bears upon the suitability of the CPEO applicant or CPEO to perform its professional functions (including, but not limited to, any civil or criminal penalty described in 42 U.S.C. 503(k)(1)(D) imposed by state law).</P>
                        <P>(iv) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, is listed on any sanctions list compiled by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) within the Department of Treasury, including, but not limited to, the OFAC Consolidated Sanctions List and the OFAC Specially Designated Nationals List.</P>
                        <P>(v) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its precursor entities, related entities, or responsible individuals, fails to demonstrate a history of financial responsibility, which the IRS may assess by checks on credit history and other similar indicators.</P>
                        <P>(vi) The CPEO applicant or CPEO and the responsible individuals of the CPEO applicant or CPEO fail to demonstrate adequate collective knowledge or experience with respect to:</P>
                        <P>(A) Federal or state employment tax reporting, depositing, and withholding requirements;</P>
                        <P>(B) Handling of and accounting for payroll, tax payments, and other funds on behalf of others;</P>
                        <P>(C) Effective recordkeeping systems;</P>
                        <P>(D) Retention of qualified personnel and legal advisors as needed; and</P>
                        <P>(E) General business and risk management.</P>
                        <P>(vii) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or any of its responsible individuals, gives false or misleading information (including by intentionally omitting relevant information), or participates in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the IRS, knowing, or having reason to know, that the information is false or misleading. For the purpose of this paragraph (c)(1)(vii), “information” includes (but is not limited to) facts or other matters contained in testimony, federal tax returns, and financial statements and opinions regarding such statements; applications for certification (and all accompanying documentation); affidavits, declarations, assertions, attestations, statements, and agreements; and periodic verifications that the requirements of this section continue to be met; and any other information that is required to be provided by this section, section 3511(g), § 31.3511-1 of this chapter, or further guidance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Must be a business entity or sole proprietorship</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO must be a business entity described in § 301.7701-2(a) or a sole proprietorship. Accordingly, a CPEO may not be an entity classified as a trust under § 301.7701-4.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Ownership by a United States person.</E>
                             In addition, a sole proprietorship or a business entity that is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for federal tax purposes under §§ 301.7701-2 and 301.7701-3 (without regard to the special rule in § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(iv) that provides that such entities are corporations for federal employment tax purposes) must be wholly owned directly (including through one or more disregarded entities organized in the United States, in the case of a business entity) by a United States person (as defined in section 7701(a)(30)).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Treatment as separate member of a controlled group.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a CPEO 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24386"/>
                            applicant or CPEO that otherwise qualifies as a member of a controlled group (within the meaning of sections 414(b) and (c) and §§ 1.414(b)-1 and 1.414(c)-1 through 1.414(c)-6 of this chapter) but for its status as an entity disregarded as separate from its owner for federal tax purposes under §§ 301.7701-2 and 301.7701-3, is treated as a separate member of a controlled group for purposes of this section, § 301.7705-1, section 3511, § 31.3511-1 of this chapter, and section 7705.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Authorization to investigate suitability.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO, and each of its responsible individuals, must take such actions as are necessary to authorize the IRS to investigate the accuracy of statements and submissions, including waiving confidentiality and privilege when necessary (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             in situations in which the IRS is otherwise unable to obtain or confirm information necessary to evaluate a CPEO applicant's or CPEO's qualification for certification), and to conduct comprehensive background checks, including, but not limited to, Federal Bureau of Investigation or other similar criminal background checks, checks on tax compliance, professional experience (including through the contact of third-party references), credit history, and professional sanctions. In addition, a CPEO applicant or CPEO, and any of its responsible individuals, must provide the IRS with such additional information as the IRS may request to facilitate such background investigations. Each responsible individual of a CPEO applicant or CPEO must also submit fingerprints in the time and manner and under the circumstances prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Business location</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">State of organization.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO must be created or organized in the United States or under the law of the United States or of any state.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Business location in the United States.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO must have one or more established, physical business locations in the United States at which regular operations of an activity that constitutes a trade or business within the United States (within the meaning of section 864(b)) take place and at which a significant portion of its CPEO-related functions are carried on and administrative records are kept.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">United States responsible individuals.</E>
                             A majority of the CPEO applicant's or CPEO's responsible individuals must be citizens or residents of the United States.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Use of financial institution.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO must use only financial institutions described in section 265(b)(5) to hold substantially all of its cash and cash equivalents, receive payments from customers, and pay wages and federal employment taxes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">CPEOs.</E>
                             By the last day of the sixth month after the end of each fiscal year, and beginning with the first fiscal year that ends after the CPEO's effective date of certification, a CPEO must cause to be prepared and provided to the IRS—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) A copy of its annual audited financial statements for the fiscal year;</P>
                        <P>(ii) An opinion of a certified public accountant (CPA) that such financial statements are presented fairly and in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP); and</P>
                        <P>(iii) A statement in the Note to the Financial Statements covered by the CPA opinion that the CPEO's annual audited financial statements reflect positive working capital or, only if the CPEO satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section, reflect negative working capital, with such statement in either case setting forth in detail a calculation of the CPEO's working capital as reflected in the annual audited financial statements (a working capital statement).</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">CPEO applicants</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant must cause to be prepared and provided to the IRS, with its application, a copy of its annual audited financial statements, an opinion with respect to such financial statements, and a working capital statement (each as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section) for the most recently completed fiscal year as of the date it applies for certification. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, if a CPEO applicant applies for certification before the last day of the sixth month following its most recently completed fiscal year, and the audit of the financial statements for that fiscal year has not yet been completed at the time of application, a CPEO applicant must provide to the IRS, with its application, the financial statements, opinion, and working capital statement described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section for the immediately preceding fiscal year, if any, and must subsequently provide to the IRS the financial statements, opinion, and working capital statement for the most recently completed fiscal year by the last day of the sixth month after such fiscal year ends. In addition, for any fiscal year that ends after the CPEO applicant applies for certification and on or before the effective date of certification, if applicable, the CPEO applicant must provide the audited financial statements, opinion, and working capital statement by the last day of the sixth month after such fiscal year ends. The obligation to provide the annual audited financial statements described in the preceding sentence continues to apply even if the CPEO applicant is certified as a CPEO prior to the date the annual audited financial statements are provided.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Newly established CPEO applicants.</E>
                             In addition to the requirements in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, a CPEO applicant that was not operating as a provider of payroll services for all or part of its most recently completed fiscal year as of the date it applies for certification must provide a copy of the annual audited financial statements of any precursor entity, if one exists, an opinion with respect to such financial statements, and a working capital statement (each as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section) for the precursor entity's most recently completed fiscal year as of the date of the application for certification in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance, as well as such additional information as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Exception to positive working capital requirement.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO with annual audited financial statements for a fiscal year that do not reflect positive working capital will not fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section if—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The CPEO applicant or CPEO has negative working capital for no more than two consecutive fiscal quarters of that fiscal year, as demonstrated by the financial statements (for the final fiscal quarter in the fiscal year) and the statements described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section (for any other fiscal quarter), as applicable;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The CPEO applicant or CPEO, or its CPA, provides, in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance, an explanation to the IRS describing the reason for the failure; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) The IRS determines, in its sole discretion, that the failure does not present a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Completed fiscal year.</E>
                             For purposes of this paragraph (e), a fiscal year will be considered completed once the last day of that fiscal year has ended, regardless of whether the CPEO applicant or CPEO was in operation or certified for all 12 months of the fiscal year or the fiscal year consisted of fewer than 12 months.
                            <PRTPAGE P="24387"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Quarterly assertions and attestations</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">CPEOs.</E>
                             By the last day of the second month after the end of each calendar quarter, and beginning with the first calendar quarter that ends after the CPEO's effective date of certification, a CPEO must provide the following to the IRS:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) An assertion, signed by a responsible individual under penalties of perjury, stating that the CPEO has withheld and made deposits of all federal employment taxes (other than taxes imposed by chapter 23 of the Code) as required by subtitle C for such calendar quarter and an examination level attestation from a CPA stating that such assertion is fairly stated in all material respects.</P>
                        <P>(ii) A statement signed by a responsible individual under penalties of perjury verifying that the CPEO has positive working capital (as determined in accordance with GAAP) at the end of the most recently completed fiscal quarter, as well as such additional financial information that the Commissioner may specify in further guidance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Immaterial failures.</E>
                             A CPEO will not fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section if the CPA examination level attestation indicates that the CPEO has failed to withhold or make deposits in certain immaterial respects, provided that—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) The attestation provides a summary of the immaterial failures that were found;</P>
                        <P>(B) The attestation states that the failures were immaterial and isolated and do not reflect a meaningful lapse in compliance with federal employment tax withholding and deposit requirements; and</P>
                        <P>(C) The IRS determines, in its sole discretion, that the isolated and immaterial failures identified by the CPA do not present a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Negative working capital.</E>
                             A CPEO with negative working capital at the end of a fiscal quarter will not fail to meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section if—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) The CPEO does not have negative working capital at the end of the two fiscal quarters immediately preceding such fiscal quarter, as demonstrated by the annual audited financial statements described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, if available, or the statements described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(B) The CPEO provides an explanation to the IRS describing the reason for such negative working capital in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance; and</P>
                        <P>(C) The IRS determines, in its sole discretion, that the negative working capital does not present a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">CPEO applicants</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             By the last day of the second month after the end of each calendar quarter, beginning with the most recently completed calendar quarter as of the date of a CPEO applicant's application for certification and ending with the most recently completed calendar quarter as of the effective date of certification (if applicable), a CPEO applicant must provide to the IRS the assertion, examination level attestation, and working capital statement described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, subject to the exceptions described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section (though substituting “CPEO applicant” for “CPEO”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Newly established CPEO applicants.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant that was not operating as a provider of payroll services during the most recently completed calendar quarter as of the date of its application for certification or during any calendar quarter that ends while its application for certification is pending must provide to the IRS the assertion, examination level attestation, and working capital statement described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section with respect to any precursor entity, if applicable, in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance, as well as such additional information as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Bond</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO must post a bond (or bonds, as described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section) from a qualified surety (as described in paragraph (g)(6) of this section) for the payment of federal employment taxes, issued in the form and containing the terms prescribed by the Commissioner in this paragraph (g) and in further guidance and in an amount described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Bond amount</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The amount of the bond (or bonds, as described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section) must be, for each period beginning on April 1 of any calendar year and ending on March 31 of the following calendar year (or, in the case of a newly certified CPEO, beginning with the effective date of certification and ending on the subsequent March 31) (the bond period), at least equal to the greater of—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Five percent of the CPEO's liability under section 3511 (or, if applicable, the liability described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section) during the calendar year preceding the beginning of the bond period, but not more than $1,000,000; or</P>
                        <P>(B) $50,000.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Amount of bond in first and second year as a CPEO.</E>
                             If a CPEO does not have any liability under section 3511 for all or a portion of a preceding calendar year because the CPEO was not certified as a CPEO for all or a portion of that preceding calendar year, the liability applied for purposes of paragraph (g)(2)(i)(A) of this section for the entirety or portion of the preceding calendar year during which the CPEO was not certified will be the federal employment tax liability of the CPEO, and of any precursor entity of the CPEO described in § 301.7705-1(b)(10)(i)(A), that results from one or more service agreements described in § 31.3504-2(b)(2) of this chapter. With respect to the federal employment tax liability of such precursor entity during a preceding calendar year, for purposes of paragraph (g)(2)(i)(A) of this section, the liability will be applied only to the extent it results from service agreements that have been transferred or are intended to be transferred by the precursor entity to the CPEO at the time the bond amount is determined. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(2)(ii), an entity is considered a precursor entity of a CPEO described in § 301.7705-1(b)(10)(i)(A) if it was determined to be its precursor entity under that section at the time it was a CPEO applicant.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">One continuous obligation.</E>
                             The bond, any riders thereto, and any strengthening bonds posted to satisfy the requirements of this section are considered one continuous obligation of the surety for unpaid tax liabilities accrued by the CPEO under subtitle C from the effective date of the bond until the bond is superseded or cancelled.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Increase in bond amount</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO must determine if an increase in the bond amount is necessary for each new bond period. If a CPEO's liability under section 3511 (or, if applicable, the liability described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section) for the preceding calendar year results in a minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section that exceeds the current amount of the bond, the CPEO must increase the amount of its bond with respect to the new bond period in order to meet the minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section. To increase the bond amount, a CPEO may amend an existing bond 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24388"/>
                            through the use of a rider, or post a strengthening, superseding, or new bond, where applicable, and in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">To reflect adjustment or assessment.</E>
                             Subject to the limit in paragraph (g)(2)(i)(A) of this section, if, during the bond period, the CPEO or the IRS determines that the applicable federal employment tax liability for the preceding calendar year was higher than the amount reported and paid and on which the bond amount for the bond period was based (and the applicable party makes an adjustment or assessment reflecting such determination), a CPEO must increase the amount of its bond to meet the minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section through the use of a rider, or by posting a strengthening, superseding, or new bond in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Cancellation</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Notice.</E>
                             A bond required under this paragraph (g) must provide that it may be cancelled by the surety only after the surety gives written notice of such cancellation to the IRS and the CPEO in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">New or superseding bond required.</E>
                             If a CPEO either receives notice of cancellation from the surety provider of its bond, or gives notice to the IRS of the CPEO's intent to cancel the bond, the CPEO must post a new or superseding bond for the minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section in such time and manner as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Ongoing liability.</E>
                             A bond required under this paragraph (g) must provide that, if a surety cancels the bond without issuing a superseding bond to the CPEO, the surety will, notwithstanding the cancellation, remain liable for all federal employment tax liability accrued by the CPEO during the period beginning with the effective date of the first bond issued by the surety to the CPEO in any consecutive series of bonds issued by that surety prior to cancellation and ending with the cancellation of the bond (the total bond period), up to the penal amount of the bond at the time of the cancellation. A cancelling surety will remain liable as described in this paragraph (g)(4)(iii) for federal employment tax liability accrued during the total bond period up to the penal amount of the bond for as long as the Commissioner may assess and collect taxes for such period under sections 6501 and 6502.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">No posting of collateral</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (g)(5)(iii) of this section, a CPEO must meet the bond requirements of this paragraph (g) without posting collateral.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Surety's retention of the right to seek collateral by itself not a violation of paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section.</E>
                             A surety's retention of the right to seek collateral, as long as no collateral is actually required by the surety or posted by the CPEO, does not violate the rule in paragraph (g)(5)(i).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions to no collateral requirement.</E>
                             The Commissioner may provide exceptions to the rule in paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section in further guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Requirements for surety.</E>
                             Any surety that issues a bond required by this paragraph (g) to a CPEO must be a surety company that holds a certificate of authority from the Secretary as an acceptable surety on federal bonds and meets such other requirements as the Commissioner may prescribe in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Bond definitions</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Rider.</E>
                             A rider is an amendment to an existing bond that increases the bond amount. The rider must apply to liabilities that arise on or after the effective date of the bond that the rider amends. The surety remains liable under the existing bond, as amended by the rider, for the assessment and collection periods applicable to the CPEO under sections 6501 and 6502, respectively, with respect to any taxable period that occurs during the term of the bond unless and until the bond is superseded.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Strengthening bond.</E>
                             A strengthening bond is an additional bond posted in the incremental amount of the increase so that the strengthening bond together with the existing bond equal the total minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section. The strengthening bond must apply to liabilities that arise on or after the effective date of the bond it strengthens. Both the strengthening bond and the bond it strengthens must remain in effect, and the surety remains liable under both bonds for the assessment and collection periods applicable to the CPEO under sections 6501 and 6502, respectively, with respect to any taxable period that occurs during the term of the bonds, unless and until the bonds are superseded.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">New bond.</E>
                             A new bond is a bond posted for the total required bond amount, and a new bond may only be posted upon the CPEO's initial certification or immediately following cancellation of an existing bond. In the case of a cancellation of an existing bond, the effective date of the new bond must be no later than the effective date of the cancellation of the existing bond, and the surety providing the existing (now cancelled) bond remains liable for liabilities that accrued during the term of the cancelled bond for the assessment and collection periods applicable to the CPEO under sections 6501 and 6502, respectively, with respect to any taxable period that occurred during the term of that bond.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Superseding bond.</E>
                             A superseding bond is a bond posted for the total minimum required bond amount specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, not just for an incremental increase. Upon execution of the superseding bond, the superseded bond is no longer in effect, and the surety that provided the superseded bond is no longer liable under the superseded bond. The superseding bond must apply to liabilities that arise on or after the effective date of the superseded bond.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Controlled group.</E>
                             All CPEO applicants and CPEOs that are members of a controlled group within the meaning of sections 414(b) and (c), and §§ 1.414(b)-1 and 1.414(c)-1 through 1.414(c)-6 of this chapter, will be treated as a single CPEO applicant or CPEO for purposes of paragraphs (e) (other than (e)(1)(iii)), (f) (other than (f)(1)(ii)), and (g) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Consents to disclose.</E>
                             To receive and maintain certification, a CPEO applicant or CPEO must provide such consents for the IRS to disclose confidential tax information to its customers, and to other persons as necessary to carry out the purposes of these regulations, that relates to its certification and obligations to report, deposit, and pay federal employment taxes as the Commissioner may require in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Periodic verification.</E>
                             A CPEO must periodically verify that it continues to meet the requirements of this section in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Notification of material changes.</E>
                             A CPEO applicant or CPEO must notify the IRS, in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance, of any change that materially affects the continuing accuracy of any agreement or information that was previously made or provided to the IRS.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (l) 
                            <E T="03">Accrual method of accounting.</E>
                             A CPEO must compute its taxable income using an accrual method of accounting or, if applicable, another method that the Commissioner provides for in further guidance.
                            <PRTPAGE P="24389"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (m) 
                            <E T="03">Compliance with reporting obligations</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A CPEO must agree to make reports to the IRS and to its clients as provided in section 3511(g) and § 31.3511-1 of this chapter, including filing all federal employment tax returns and information returns as required.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Filing on magnetic media.</E>
                             A CPEO must file all returns, schedules, reports, and other forms and documents on magnetic media when required by section 3511(g) and § 31.3511-1 of this chapter, other Treasury regulations, or other guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (n) 
                            <E T="03">Suspension and revocation</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The IRS may suspend or revoke the certification of any CPEO, in the time and manner and under the circumstances prescribed by the Commissioner in this section and in further guidance, as a result of one or more failures to meet any of the requirements for CPEOs described in this section, section 3511(g), § 31.3511-1 of this chapter, and any further guidance and will suspend or revoke certification if the IRS determines, in its sole discretion, that such failure(s) present a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes. See paragraph (b) of this section for the factors the IRS will consider in determining whether one or more failures to meet any of the requirements described in this section presents a material risk to the IRS's collection of federal employment taxes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Suspension.</E>
                             Section 3511 will not apply to any contract described in section 7705(e)(2) into which the CPEO enters while its certification is suspended.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Revocation.</E>
                             If an organization's certification as a CPEO is revoked, the organization will not be considered a CPEO for purposes of section 3511 unless and until it again applies to be certified as a CPEO in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section and is again certified by the IRS as meeting the requirements of this section. An organization whose certification as a CPEO has been revoked may not reapply to be certified as a CPEO until one year has passed after the effective date of its revocation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Disclosure of suspension and revocation</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Notification by the CPEO.</E>
                             An organization whose certification as a CPEO has been suspended or revoked must notify its customers of such suspension or revocation in the time and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in further guidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Disclosure by the IRS.</E>
                             If the IRS suspends or revokes an organization's certification as a CPEO, the IRS will make available to the public the fact of such suspension or revocation in the time and manner described in further guidance. The IRS may also separately notify the organization's customers of such suspension or revocation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (o) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             The rules in this section apply on and after May 3, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 301.7705-1T</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Removed]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>
                         Section 301.7705-1T is removed.
                    </AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 301.7705-2T </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Removed]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>
                     Section 301.7705-2T is removed.
                </AMDPAR>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 602—OMB CONTROL NUMBERS UNDER THE PAPERWORK REDUCTION ACT</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 7.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 602 continues to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 8.</E>
                         In § 602.101, paragraph (b) is amended by adding entries in numerical order for “31.3511-1,” “301.7705-1,” and “301.7705-2” and removing the entries for “301.7705-1T” and “301.7705-2T” to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 602.101 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>OMB Control numbers.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,12">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">CFR part or section where identified and described</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Current OMB
                                    <LI>control No.</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">31.3511-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>1545-2266</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">301.7705-1</ENT>
                                <ENT>1545-2266</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">301.7705-2</ENT>
                                <ENT>1545-2266</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kirsten Wielobob,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Services and Enforcement.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Approved: May 7, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David J. Kautter,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10856 Filed 5-23-19; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2019-0243]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone between mile marker (MM) 99.5 and MM 100.5 Above Head of Passes, Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters near New Orleans, LA, during a fireworks display on June 20, 2019. This rule prohibits persons and vessels from entering the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port New Orleans or a designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 8:45 p.m. through 9:45 p.m. on June 20, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         type USCG-2019-0243 in the “SEARCH” box and click “SEARCH.” Click on Open Docket Folder on the line associated with this rule.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Lieutenant Commander Benjamin Morgan, Sector New Orleans, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 504-365-2281, email 
                        <E T="03">Benjamin.P.Morgan@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background Information and Regulatory History</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 11, 2019, MIP Inc. notified the Coast Guard that they would be conducting a fireworks display at 9:45 on June 20, 2019. The fireworks are to be launched from a barge at the approximate mile maker (MM) 100 Above Head of Passes, Lower 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24390"/>
                    Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA. In response, on April 19, 2019, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled Safety Zone; Lower Mississippi River; New Orleans, LA (84 FR 16419). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this fireworks display. During the comment period that ended May 20, 2019, we received no comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Delaying the effective date of this rule would be impracticable and against the public interest because immediate action is needed to respond to the potential safety hazards associated with the fireworks display.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Legal Authority and Need for Rule</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034 (previously 33 U.S.C. 1231). The Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans (COTP) has determined that a temporary safety zone is necessary to provide for the safety of life and vessels transiting the area where the fireworks will be launched. The fireworks display is scheduled to take place at 9:15 p.m. on June 20, 2019, in the navigable waters of the Lower Mississippi River at New Orleans, LA. The purpose of this rule is to ensure safety of vessels and the navigable waters in the safety zone before, during, and after the scheduled event.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments, Changes, and the Rule</HD>
                <P>As noted above, we received no comments on our NPRM published April 19, 2019. There is only one minor change in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM, in which the new event start time has changed from 9:30 p.m. to 8:45 p.m. and the end time from 10:30 p.m. to 9:45 p.m. on June 20, 2019.</P>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from 8:45 p.m. through 9:45 p.m. on June 20, 2019. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters between MM 99.5 and 100.5 Above Head of Passes, Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA. The duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of vessels and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled fireworks display. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. A designated representative is a commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the U.S. Coast Guard assigned to units under the operational control of USCG Sector New Orleans.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.</P>
                <P>This regulatory action determination is based on the location, time, and duration of the safety zone. The safety zone will only be enforced for a one hour period on the evening of June 20, 2019 between MMs 99.5 and 100.5 Above Head of Passes, Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the temporary safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24391"/>
                    Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.1D, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969(42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting only one hour that will prohibit entry between mile marker (MM) 99.5 and 100.5 Above Head of Passes, Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Protest Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section to coordinate protest activities so that your message can be received without jeopardizing the safety or security of people, places or vessels.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-0243 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-0243 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters between mile marker (MM) 99.5 and 100.5 Above Head of Passes (AHP), Lower Mississippi River, New Orleans, LA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Effective period.</E>
                             This section is effective from 8:45 p.m. through 9:45 p.m. on June 20, 2019.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) In accordance with the general regulations in § 165.23, entry into or remaining within this zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans (COTP) or designated representative. A designated representative is a commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the U.S. Coast Guard assigned to units under the operational control of USCG Sector New Orleans.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Vessels requiring entry into this safety zone must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative. They may be contacted on VHF-FM Channel 16 or 67 or by telephone at (504) 365-2544.</P>
                        <P>(3) Persons and vessels permitted to enter this safety zone must transit at their slowest safe speed and comply with all lawful directions issued by the COTP or the designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Information broadcasts.</E>
                             The COTP or a designated representative will inform the public of the enforcement times and date for this safety zone through Broadcast Notices to Mariners (BNMs), Local Notices to Mariners (LNMs), and/or Marine Safety Information Bulletins (MSIBs) as appropriate.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>K.M. Luttrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector New Orleans.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11005 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2019-0370]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zones; Fireworks Displays in the Fifth Coast Guard District</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the Penn's Landing, Delaware River, Philadelphia, PA, safety zone as described in agency regulations on various dates from late May 2019 through the end of July 2019. This action is necessary to ensure safety of life on the navigable waters of the United States immediately prior to, during, and immediately after the fireworks displays. During the enforcement periods, vessels may not enter, remain in, or transit through the safety zones during these enforcement periods unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or designated Coast Guard patrol personnel on scene.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The safety zone in section (a), row (16) of the table to 33 CFR 165.506 will be enforced from 8:30 p.m. through 10:00 p.m. on each of the following dates in 2019: May 25th, May 30th, June 29th, and July 1st (with July 2nd or July 3rd as alternate dates for inclement weather).</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, you may call or email Petty Officer Thomas Welker, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Delaware Bay, Waterways Management Division, telephone 215-271-4814, email 
                        <E T="03">Thomas.J.Welker@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone as described in section (a), row (16) of the table to 33 CFR 165.506 from 8:30 p.m. through 10:00 p.m. on each of the following dates in 2019: May 25th, May 30th, June 29th, and July 1st (with July 2nd or July 3rd as alternate dates for inclement weather). This action is necessary to ensure safety of life on the navigable waters of the United States immediately prior to, during, and immediately after the fireworks displays. Our regulation for safety zones of fireworks displays within the Fifth Coast Guard District, table to § 165.506, section (a), row (16), specifies the location of the regulated area as all waters of the Delaware River adjacent to Penn's Landing, Philadelphia, PA, within 500 yards of a fireworks launch site at approximate position latitude 39°56′49″ N, longitude 075°08′11″ W. As reflected in § 165.506(d), vessels may not enter, remain in, or transit through the safety zone during the enforcement period unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or designated Coast Guard patrol personnel on scene.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notice of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Coast Guard will provide notification of the enforcement periods via broadcast notice to mariners.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24392"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scott E. Anderson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Delaware Bay.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11061 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>39 CFR Part 20</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>International Mail Manual; Incorporation by Reference</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Postal Service announces the issuance of the 
                        <E T="03">Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service, International Mail Manual</E>
                         (IMM®) dated March 4, 2019, and its incorporation by reference in the 
                        <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on May 28, 2019. The incorporation by reference of the IMM is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 28, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Carrie Nagla, (202) 268-7279.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">International Mail Manual</E>
                     was issued on March 4, 2019, and was updated with 
                    <E T="03">Postal Bulletin</E>
                     revisions through February 14, 2019. It replaced all previous editions. The IMM continues to enable the Postal Service to fulfill its long-standing mission of providing affordable, universal mail service. It continues to: (1) Increase the user's ability to find information; (2) increase the user's confidence that they have found the information they need; and (3) reduce the need to consult multiple sources to locate necessary information. The provisions throughout this issue support the standards and mail preparation changes implemented since the version of March 4. 2018. The 
                    <E T="03">International Mail Manual</E>
                     is available to the public on the Postal Explorer® internet site at 
                    <E T="03">http://pe.usps.com.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 39 CFR Part 20</HD>
                    <P>Foreign relations, Incorporation by reference.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>In view of the considerations discussed above, the Postal Service hereby amends 39 CFR part 20 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 20—INTERNATIONAL POSTAL SERVICE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="20">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 20 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 552(a); 13 U.S.C. 301-307; 18 U.S.C. 1692-1737; 39 U.S.C. 101, 401, 403, 404, 407, 414, 416, 3001-3011, 3201-3219, 3403-3406, 3621, 3622, 3626, 3632, 3633, and 5001.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="20">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 20.1 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a), removing the words “issued March 5, 2018” and adding in their place “issued March 4, 2019”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (b), adding an entry for “IMM” at the end of the table.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 20.1 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>International Mail Manual; incorporation by reference.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">b</E>
                                )
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">International mail manual</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Date of issuance</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">IMM</ENT>
                                <ENT>March 4, 2019.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="20">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 20.2 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 20.2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Effective date of the International Mail Manual.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            The provisions of the 
                            <E T="03">International Mail Manual</E>
                             issued March 4, 2019, are applicable with respect to the international mail services of the Postal Service.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ruth Stevenson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Federal Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11054 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>39 CFR Part 111</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>Domestic Mail Manual; Incorporation by Reference</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Postal Service announces the issuance of the 
                        <E T="03">Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service, Domestic Mail Manual</E>
                         (DMM®) dated March 4, 2019, and its incorporation by reference in the 
                        <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on May 28, 2019. The incorporation by reference of the DMM dated March 4, 2019, is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 28, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Carrie Nagla (202) 268-7279.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The most recent issue of the 
                    <E T="03">Domestic Mail Manual</E>
                     (DMM) is dated March 4, 2019. This issue of the DMM contains all Postal Service domestic mailing standards, and continues to: (1) Increase the user's ability to find information; (2) increase confidence that users have found all the information they need; and (3) reduce the need to consult multiple chapters of the Manual to locate necessary information. The issue dated March 4, 2019, sets forth specific changes, including new standards throughout the DMM to support the standards and mail preparation changes implemented since the version issued on March 5, 2018.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Changes to mailing standards will continue to be published through 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices and the 
                    <E T="03">Postal Bulletin,</E>
                     and will appear in the next online version available via the Postal Explorer® website at: 
                    <E T="03">https://pe.usps.com.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 39 CFR Part 111</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Incorporation by reference.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>In view of the considerations discussed above, the Postal Service hereby amends 39 CFR part 111 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 111—GENERAL INFORMATION ON POSTAL SERVICE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="111">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 39 CFR part 111 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 552(a); 13 U.S.C. 301-307; 18 U.S.C. 1692-1737; 39 U.S.C. 101, 401, 403, 404, 414, 416, 3001-3011, 3201-3219, 3403-3406, 3621, 3622, 3626, 3632, 3633, and 5001.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="111">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 111.3, amend paragraph (f) by adding an entry for “DMM” at the end of the table to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 111.3 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amendment to the Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service, Domestic Mail Manual.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(f) * * *</P>
                        <PRTPAGE P="24393"/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L1,tp0,i1" CDEF="s60,r60,r60">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Transmittal letter for issue</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Dated</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     publication
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">DMM</ENT>
                                <ENT>March 4, 2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation for this rule]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 111.4 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="111">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 111.4 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing “April 25, 2018” and adding “May 28, 2019”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the parenthetical authority citation at the end of the section.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ruth Stevenson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Federal Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11055 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>40 CFR Part 52</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R04-OAR-2006-0651; FRL-9994-14-Region 4]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; GA; Miscellaneous Revisions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving changes to the Georgia State Implementation Plan (SIP) to revise Georgia's rules regarding emissions standards and open burning. EPA is approving portions of the SIP revision submitted by the State of Georgia, through the Georgia Department of Natural Resources Environmental Protection Division (GA EPD) on April 11, 2003. This action is being taken pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule will be effective June 27, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2006-0651. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Confidential Business Information or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available either electronically through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or in hard copy at the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, (formerly known as the Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. EPA requests that if at all possible, you contact the person listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section to schedule your inspection. The Regional Office's official hours of business are Monday through Friday 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., excluding Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Richard Wong, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960, or Joel Huey, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Wong can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-8726 or via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">wong.richard@epa.gov.</E>
                         Mr. Huey can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9104 or via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">huey.joel@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 11, 2003, GA EPD submitted a SIP revision to EPA for approval that involves changes to Georgia's SIP regulations. In this action, EPA is approving the portions of the Georgia submission that make changes to Georgia's Rule 391-3-1-.02(2)(nnn)—
                    <E T="03">NO</E>
                    <E T="54">X</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">Emissions from Large Stationary Gas Turbines</E>
                     and Rule 391-3-1-.02(5)—
                    <E T="03">Open Burning.</E>
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPA is not acting on the following three other portions of GA EPD's April 11, 2003, submittal at this time. On October 21, 2009, GA EPD submitted a letter withdrawing from the submittal a proposed revision to Georgia Rule 391-3-1-.02(2)(qqq)—
                    <E T="03">Volatile Organic Compound From Extruded Polystyrene Products Manufacturing Utilizing a Blowing Agent.</E>
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On January 5, 2017 (82 FR 1206), EPA approved changes to Rule 391-3-1-.01—
                    <E T="03">Definitions</E>
                     that were included in the April 11, 2003, submittal. On April 16, 2018 (83 FR 16276), EPA published a proposed rulemaking for Rule 391-3-1-.03(11)(b)—
                    <E T="03">Permit by Rule Standards</E>
                     that was included in the April 11, 2003, submittal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         On August 31, 2018, GA EPD submitted a letter (included in the docket for this action) withdrawing from the submittal a proposed revision to Georgia Rule 391-3-1-.02(5)(d) that would provide exceptions to the 40 percent opacity limit on open burning.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The October 21, 2009, letter is included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published on February 12, 2019 (84 FR 3354), EPA proposed to approve Georgia's Miscellaneous Revisions. The details of Georgia's submission and the rationale for EPA's action are explained in the NPRM. Comments on the proposed rulemaking were due on or before March 14, 2019. EPA received no comments on the proposed action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Georgia's Rule 391-3-1-.02(2)(nnn)—
                    <E T="03">NO</E>
                    <E T="54">X</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">Emissions from Large Stationary Gas Turbines,</E>
                     effective April 20, 2003, which adds exemptions for emission standards for certain electric generating units, and Georgia Rule 391-3-1.02(5)—
                    <E T="03">Open Burning,</E>
                     also effective April 20, 2003,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which adds, clarifies and removes several types of activities to the open burning exception list, revises specific county restrictions and removes the prohibition on open burning during an air pollution episode. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 4 Office (please contact the person identified in the “For Further Information Contact” section of this preamble for more information). Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24394"/>
                    under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The effective date of the change to Rule 391-3-1-.02(5) made in Georgia's April 11, 2003, SIP revision is April 20, 2003. However, for purposes of the state-effective date at 40 CFR 52.570(c), that change to Georgia's rule is captured and superseded by Georgia's update in a November 6, 2006 (state-effective July 13, 2006), SIP revision, which EPA previously approved on February 9, 2010 (75 FR 6309).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         62 FR 27968 (May 22, 1997).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is approving the aforementioned changes to the Georgia SIP found in Georgia Rules 391-3-1-.02(2)(nnn) and 391-3-1.02(5) submitted on April 11, 2003. For the reasons explained in EPA's February 12, 2019 NPRM (84 FR 3354), EPA has concluded that these changes are consistent with the CAA and its implementing regulations, and will not interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (as defined in section 7501 of the Act). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 7410(l).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. This action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
                </P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and</P>
                <P>• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>
                <P>The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.</P>
                <P>
                    The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this action and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of the rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 29, 2019. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 307(b)(2).
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Mary S. Walker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Regional Administrator, Region 4.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart L—Georgia</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.570, the table in paragraph (c) is amended by revising the entries “391-3-1-.02(2)(nnn)” and “391-3-1-.02(5)” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.570</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,r50,r75">
                            <TTITLE>EPA Approved Georgia Regulations</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">State citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Explanation</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Emission Standards</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="24395"/>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">391-3-1-.02(2)(nnn)</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    NO
                                    <E T="52">X</E>
                                     Emissions from Large Stationary Gas Turbines
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>4/20/2003</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    5/28/2019, [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">391-3-1-.02(5)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Open Burning</ENT>
                                <ENT>7/13/2006</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    5/28/2019, [insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Except subparagraph 391-3-1-.02(5)(c), which was approved on July 10, 2001, with a state-effective date of August 16, 2000.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10969 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52 and 81</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R05-OAR-2018-0842; FRL-9994-11-Region 5]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Illinois; Redesignation of the Illinois Portion of the St. Louis, MO-IL Area to Attainment of the 1997 Annual Standard for Fine Particulate Matter</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is redesignating the Illinois portion of the St. Louis, MO-IL, nonattainment area (hereafter, “the St. Louis area”) to attainment for the 1997 fine particulate matter (PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        ) annual national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS or standard). The Illinois portion of the St. Louis area includes Madison, Monroe, and St. Clair counties, and Baldwin Township in Randolph county. EPA is taking this action because it has determined that the St. Louis area is attaining the annual 1997 PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         standard based on the most recent three years of certified air quality data. EPA is also approving a revision to the Illinois state implementation plan (SIP) for maintaining the 1997 annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS through 2030. Illinois' maintenance plan submission includes an updated emissions inventory, which includes emissions inventories for PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        , nitrogen oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ), sulfur dioxide (SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and ammonia. The maintenance plan submission also includes motor vehicle emission budgets (MVEBs) for the mobile source contribution of PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         and NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         to the St. Louis PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         area for transportation conformity purposes. EPA is approving and updating both the emissions inventory and MVEBs. EPA is taking these actions in accordance with the Clean Air Act (CAA) and EPA's implementation rule regarding the 1997 PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on May 28, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2018-0842. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available either through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or at the Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, Air and Radiation Division, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604. This facility is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays. We recommend that you telephone Michelle Becker, Life Scientist, at (312) 886-3901 before visiting the Region 5 office.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Michelle Becker, Life Scientist, Attainment Planning and Maintenance Section, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-3901, 
                        <E T="03">becker.michelle@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. What action is EPA taking?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 6, 2018, Illinois submitted a request to EPA to redesignate the St. Louis area to attainment for the 1997 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     annual standard, and to approve the maintenance plan, MVEBs, and 2008 emissions inventory for the area. In an action published on March 21, 2019 (84 FR 10461), EPA proposed to redesignate the area and approve several actions related to the redesignation. Additional background and details regarding this final action can be found in the March 21, 2019, proposed rule. The comment period for this proposed rulemaking closed on April 22, 2019. No comments were received for this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What action is EPA taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is approving a change to the official designation of the St. Louis area for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment. EPA is approving a determination that the St. Louis area has attained the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     standard, based on the most recent three years of certified air quality data. This action also approves the maintenance plan for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS as revision to the Illinois SIP for the St. Louis area. EPA is also approving an emissions inventory which includes primary PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    , NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , VOCs, and ammonia from 2008 and MVEBs for the St. Louis area. These MVEBs will be used in future transportation conformity analyses for the area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 
                    <E T="03">The Fine Particulate Matter National Ambient Air Quality Standards: State Implementation Plan Requirements</E>
                     final rule (final PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     SIP requirements rule), EPA revoked the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS in areas that had always been attainment 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24396"/>
                    for that NAAQS, and in areas that had been designated as nonattainment but that were redesignated to attainment before October 24, 2016, the rule's effective date. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 58010, August 24, 2016. EPA also finalized a provision that revokes the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS in areas that are redesignated to attainment for that NAAQS after October 24, 2016, effective on the effective date of the redesignation of the area to attainment for that NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 50.13(d).
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA is redesignating the Illinois portion of the St. Louis area to attainment for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and approving the CAA section 175A maintenance plan for the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS for the reasons described in the March 21, 2019, proposed action.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS will be revoked in the area on the effective date of this redesignation. Beginning on that date, the area will no longer be subject to transportation or general conformity requirements for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS due to the revocation of the primary NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 58125, August 24, 2016. The area will be required to implement the CAA section 175A maintenance plan for the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. Once approved, the maintenance plan could only be revised if the revision meets the requirements of CAA section 110(l) and, if applicable, CAA section 193. The area would not be required to submit a second 10-year maintenance plan for the 1997 primary annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 58144, August 24, 2016.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         CAA section 175A(a) establishes the requirements that must be fulfilled by nonattainment areas in order to be redesignated to attainment. That section only requires that nonattainment areas for the 
                        <E T="03">primary</E>
                         standard submit a plan addressing maintenance of the 
                        <E T="03">primary</E>
                         NAAQS in order to be redesignated to attainment; it does not require nonattainment areas for secondary NAAQS to submit maintenance plans in order to be redesignated to attainment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         42 U.S.C. 7505a(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(d), EPA finds there is good cause for these actions to become effective immediately upon publication. This is because a delayed effective date is unnecessary due to the nature of a redesignation to attainment, which relieves the area from certain CAA requirements that would otherwise apply to it. The immediate effective date for this action is authorized under both 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1), which provides that rulemaking actions may become effective less than 30 days after publication if the rule “grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction,” and section 553(d)(3), which allows an effective date less than 30 days after publication “as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause found and published with the rule.” The purpose of the 30-day waiting period prescribed in section 553(d) is to give affected parties a reasonable time to adjust their behavior and prepare before the final rule takes effect. This rulemaking, however, does not create any new regulatory requirements such that affected parties would need time to prepare before the rule takes effect. Rather, today's rule relieves the state of planning requirements for this PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     nonattainment area. For these reasons, EPA finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) for these actions to become effective on the date of publication of these actions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the accompanying approval of a maintenance plan under section 107(d)(3)(E) are actions that affect the status of a geographical area and do not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those imposed by state law. A redesignation to attainment does not in and of itself create any new requirements, but rather results in the applicability of requirements contained in the CAA for areas that have been redesignated to attainment. Moreover, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and</P>
                <P>• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>
                    The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. EPA will submit a report containing this action and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of the rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 29, 2019. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24397"/>
                    of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 81</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Cathy Stepp,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 5.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Title 40 CFR parts 52 and 81 are amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.720, the table in paragraph (e) is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        a. Adding an entry under “Attainment and Maintenance Plans” for “PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         (1997)-maintenance plan and motor vehicle emissions budgets” before the entry “Sulfur dioxide (2010) nonattainment plans”.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        b. Adding an entry under “Emissions inventories” for “Emissions inventories—2008 (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        , primary PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        , SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        , ammonia, and VOC)” before the entry “Emission inventory—2011 (2008 8-hour ozone).”
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.720</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,10,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>EPA-Approved Illinois Nonregulatory and Quasi-Regulatory Provisions</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Name of SIP provision</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Applicable geographic or nonattainment area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>submittal</LI>
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Attainment and Maintenance Plans</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     (1997)—maintenance plan and motor vehicle emissions budgets
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>St. Louis area</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/6/2018</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    5/28/2019, [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Emissions Inventories</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    Emissions inventories—2008 (NO
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                    , primary PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                    , SO
                                    <E T="0732">2</E>
                                    , ammonia, and VOC)
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>St. Louis area</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/6/2018</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    5/28/2019, [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     citation]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 81—DESIGNATION OF AREAS FOR AIR QUALITY PLANNING PURPOSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="81">
                    <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 81 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>
                            42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        4. Section 81.314 is amended by revising the entries for St. Louis, MO-IL in the table entitled “Illinois—1997 Annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS” to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 81.314</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Illinois.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s100,12,xs54,12,12">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Illinois—1997 Annual PM
                                <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                 NAAQS
                            </TTITLE>
                            <TDESC>[Primary and secondary]</TDESC>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Designated area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Designation 
                                    <SU>a</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Classification</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22">St. Louis, MO-IL:</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">Madison County</ENT>
                                <ENT>5/28/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">Monroe County</ENT>
                                <ENT>5/28/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">Randolph County (part): Baldwin Village</ENT>
                                <ENT>5/28/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">St. Clair County</ENT>
                                <ENT>5/28/2019</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="24398"/>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>a</SU>
                                 Includes Indian Country located in each county or area, except as otherwise specified.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 This date is 90 days after January 5, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 This date is July 2, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10970 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 660</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 031125294-4091-02]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-WCR-A002</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries Off West Coast States; the Highly Migratory Species Fishery; Closure</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary rule; closure.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS is prohibiting fishing with large-mesh drift gillnet (DGN) gear (
                        <E T="03">≥</E>
                        14 inches mesh) off the coast of southern California east of 120° W meridian from June 1, 2019, through August 31, 2019. This prohibition is based on the Assistant Administrator for Fisheries' (AA's) determination that El Niño conditions are occurring off the coast of southern California. This action protects Endangered Species Act-listed loggerhead sea turtles (
                        <E T="03">Caretta caretta</E>
                        ), specifically the endangered North Pacific Ocean Distinct Population Segment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective 12:01 a.m. Pacific Daylight Time (PDT), June 1, 2019, through 11:59 p.m. PDT, August 31, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Chris Fanning, West Coast Region (WCR), NMFS, (562) 980-4198, 
                        <E T="03">chris.fanning@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The DGN fishery is managed under the Fishery Management Plan for U.S. West Coast Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species (50 CFR part 660, subpart K) and occurs off the coast of California. NMFS regulations provide that, “No person may fish with, set, or haul back drift gillnet gear in U.S. waters of the Pacific Ocean east of the 120° W meridian from June 1 through August 31 during a forecasted, or occurring, El Niño event off the coast of southern California” (50 CFR 660.713(c)(2)). This area, which falls within the Southern California Bight (SCB), is referred to in the regulations as the “Pacific loggerhead conservation area.”</P>
                <P>Under 50 CFR 660.713(c)(2)(ii), the AA is to rely on information developed by NOAA offices (the Climate Prediction Center (CPC) and the West Coast Office of the Coast Watch program) to make the determination that an El Niño event is forecasted or occurring off southern California. The AA is to use monthly sea surface temperature (SST) charts to determine whether there are warmer-than-normal SSTs off southern California “during the months prior to the closure months for years in which an El Niño event has been declared” by the CPC. Specifically, the AA is to use SST data from the third and second months prior to the month of closure.</P>
                <P>NMFS published these regulations to protect loggerhead sea turtles, which are listed under the Endangered Species Act. The regulations addressed a reasonable and prudent alternative (RPA) included in NMFS' 2000 biological opinion on issuance of an incidental take permit under the Marine Mammal Protection Act. The biological opinion concluded that bycatch in the DGN fishery was likely to jeopardize the continued existence of loggerhead sea turtles and, as an RPA, recommended the fishery be closed during the summer months when El Niño conditions are present to avoid the likelihood of jeopardy. The regulations implemented in 2003 addressed this RPA.</P>
                <P>
                    On February 14, 2019, the CPC issued an 
                    <E T="03">El Niño Advisory,</E>
                     declaring that El Niño conditions formed during January 2019, based on the presence of above-average SSTs across most of the equatorial Pacific Ocean. Since that initial advisory, all monthly CPC updates have stated that El Niño conditions remain in these waters. The May 9, 2019, update reaffirmed El Niño conditions are currently present.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On May 7, 2019, NMFS staff reviewed the SST anomalies in the SCB during March and April of 2019, relying on SST maps available through NOAA's Coast Watch program (for details see 
                    <E T="03">http://coastwatch.pfeg.noaa.gov/erddap/index.html</E>
                    ). These maps indicated that SSTs were above normal in the SCB. NMFS concluded that a determination of El Niño conditions off southern California is warranted based on SSTs that are warmer than normal during the third and second months prior to the month of the closure, consistent with regulations at 50 CFR 660.713(c)(2)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>
                    If SSTs return to normal or below normal during a closure period, regulations at 50 CFR 660.713(c)(2)(iii) state that the AA may re-open the fishery after publishing a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice announcing that El Niño conditions are no longer present in the SCB.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>This action is required by regulations at 50 CFR 660.713 and is exempt from Office of Management and Budget review under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <P>
                    NMFS finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) for the time-area closure of the DGN fishery. Notice and comment procedures are impracticable and contrary to the public interest. The most recent El Niño determination occurred on May 9, 2019, and regulations require that the closure period begin on June 1; therefore, there is insufficient time for notice and comment procedures. For the same reasons, NMFS also finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive the general requirement for a 30-day delay in effectiveness for this action. This measure is based upon the best available information and is necessary for the conservation of loggerhead sea turtles. The closure period anticipated by the regulation ends, at the latest, on August 31, 2019. A delay in effectiveness may 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24399"/>
                    allow the fishery to interact with and injure or kill loggerhead sea turtles that may occur within the SCB during the time period in which the regulation was intended to protect loggerheads.
                </P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer M. Wallace,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11014 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 679</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 180713633-9174-02]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XH046</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Exchange of Flatfish in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary rule; reallocation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS is exchanging unused yellowfin sole Community Development Quota (CDQ) for rock sole CDQ acceptable biological catch (ABC) reserves in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area. This action is necessary to allow the 2019 total allowable catch of rock sole in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area to be harvested.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective May 28, 2019 through December 31, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI) according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.</P>
                <P>The 2019 rock sole and yellowfin sole CDQ reserves specified in the BSAI are 5,040 metric tons (mt) and 16,478 mt as established by the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (84 FR 9000, March 13, 2019). The 2019 rock sole and yellowfin sole CDQ ABC reserves are 7,683 mt and 11,684 mt as established by the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (84 FR 9000, March 13, 2019).</P>
                <P>The Aleutian Pribilof Island Community Development Association has requested that NMFS exchange 400 mt of yellowfin sole CDQ reserves for 400 mt of rock sole CDQ ABC reserves under § 679.31(d). Therefore, in accordance with § 679.31(d), NMFS exchanges 400 mt of yellowfin sole CDQ reserves for 400 mt of rock sole CDQ ABC reserves in the BSAI. This action also decreases and increases the TACs and CDQ ABC reserves by the corresponding amounts. Tables 11 and 13 of the final 2019 and 2020 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (84 FR 9000, March 13, 2019) are further revised as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 11—Final 2019 Community Development Quota (CDQ) Reserves, Incidental Catch Amounts (ICAS), and Amendment 80 Allocations of the Aleutian Islands Pacific Ocean Perch, and BSAI Flathead Sole, Rock Sole, and Yellowfin Sole Tacs</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Amounts are in metric tons]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Sector</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pacific ocean perch</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Eastern 
                            <LI>Aleutian</LI>
                            <LI>district</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Central 
                            <LI>Aleutian</LI>
                            <LI>district</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Western 
                            <LI>Aleutian</LI>
                            <LI>district</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Flathead sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">BSAI</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Rock sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">BSAI</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Yellowfin sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">BSAI</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TAC</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,009</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>153,600</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CDQ</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,178</ENT>
                        <ENT>897</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,070</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,552</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,440</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,078</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ICA</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">BSAI trawl limited access</ENT>
                        <ENT>973</ENT>
                        <ENT>743</ENT>
                        <ENT>178</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>18,351</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Amendment 80</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,758</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,685</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,742</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,949</ENT>
                        <ENT>36,060</ENT>
                        <ENT>115,171</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Note:</E>
                         Sector apportionments may not total precisely due to rounding.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 13—Final 2019 and 2020 ABC Surplus, ABC Reserves, Community Development Quota (CDQ) ABC Reserves, and Amendment 80 ABC Reserves in the BSAI for Flathead Sole, Rock Sole, and Yellowfin Sole</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Amounts are in metric tons]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Sector</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2019 Flathead sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2019 Rock sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2019 Yellowfin sole</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2020 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Flathead
                            <LI>sole</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2020 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Rock
                            <LI>sole</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2020 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Yellowfin
                            <LI>sole</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ABC</ENT>
                        <ENT>66,625</ENT>
                        <ENT>118,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>263,200</ENT>
                        <ENT>68,448</ENT>
                        <ENT>143,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>257,800</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TAC</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>153,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>57,100</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,425</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ABC surplus</ENT>
                        <ENT>52,125</ENT>
                        <ENT>71,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>109,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,948</ENT>
                        <ENT>86,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>91,375</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ABC reserve</ENT>
                        <ENT>52,125</ENT>
                        <ENT>71,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>109,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,948</ENT>
                        <ENT>86,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>91,375</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CDQ ABC reserve</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,577</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,283</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,084</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,772</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,266</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,777</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Amendment 80 ABC reserve</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,548</ENT>
                        <ENT>64,117</ENT>
                        <ENT>97,516</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,176</ENT>
                        <ENT>77,334</ENT>
                        <ENT>81,598</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The 2020 allocations for Amendment 80 species between Amendment 80 cooperatives and the Amendment 80 limited access sector will not be known until eligible participants apply for participation in the program by November 1, 2019.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="24400"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the flatfish exchange by the Aleutian Pribilof Island Community Development Association in the BSAI. Since these fisheries are currently open, it is important to immediately inform the industry as to the revised allocations. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery, to allow the industry to plan for the fishing season, and to avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet as well as processors. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of May 15, 2019.</P>
                <P>The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.</P>
                <P>This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer M. Wallace,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11011 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24401"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Part 843</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3206-AN82</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Federal Employees' Retirement System; Present Value Conversion Factors for Spouses of Deceased Separated Employees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) is proposing to revise the table of reduction factors for early commencing dates of survivor annuities for spouses of separated employees who die before the date on which they would be eligible for unreduced deferred annuities, and to revise the annuity factor for spouses of deceased employees who die in service when those spouses elect to receive the basic employee death benefit in 36 installments under the Federal Employees' Retirement System (FERS) Act of 1986. These rules are necessary to ensure that the tables conform to the economic and demographic assumptions adopted by the Board of Actuaries and published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on May 20, 2019.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by docket number and/or Regulatory Information Number (RIN) and title, by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number or RIN for this document. The general policy for comments and other submissions from members of the public is to make these submissions available for public viewing at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as they are received without change, including any personal identifiers or contact information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Karla Yeakle, (202) 606-0299.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 20, 2019, OPM published notice 84 FR 22915 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to revise the normal cost percentages under the Federal Employees' Retirement System (FERS) Act of 1986, Public Law 99-335, 100 Stat. 514, as amended, based on economic assumptions and demographic factors adopted by the Board of Actuaries of the Civil Service Retirement System. By statute under 5 U.S.C. 8461(i), the revisions to the actuarial assumptions require corresponding changes in factors used to produce actuarially equivalent benefits when required by the FERS Act.
                </P>
                <P>Section 843.309 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, regulates the payment of the basic employee death benefit. Under 5 U.S.C. 8442(b), the basic employee death benefit may be paid to a surviving spouse as a lump sum or as an equivalent benefit in 36 installments. These rules amend 5 CFR 843.309(b)(2) to conform the factor used to convert the lump sum to 36-installment payments with the revised economic assumptions.</P>
                <P>Section 843.311 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, regulates the benefits for the survivors of separated employees under 5 U.S.C. 8442(c). This section provides a choice of benefits for eligible current and former spouses. If the current or former spouse is the person entitled to the unexpended balance under the order of precedence under 5 U.S.C. 8424, he or she may elect to receive the unexpended balance instead of an annuity.</P>
                <P>Alternatively, an eligible current or former spouse may elect to receive an annuity commencing on the day after the employee's death or on the deceased separated employee's 62nd birthday. If the annuity commences on the deceased separated employee's 62nd birthday, the annuity will equal 50 percent of the annuity that the separated employee would have received had he or she attained age 62. If the current or former spouse elects an earlier commencing date, the annuity is reduced using the factors in Appendix A to subpart C of part 843 to make the annuity actuarially equivalent to the present value of the annuity that the spouse or former spouse would have received if the annuity had commenced on the deceased separated employee's 62nd birthday. These rules amend Appendix A to subpart C of part 843 to conform the factors to the revised actuarial assumptions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <P>OPM has examined the impact of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563, which directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public, health, and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects of $100 million or more in any one year. This rule was not designated as a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule is not expected to be a E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this proposed rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Federalism</HD>
                <P>We have examined this rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that this rule will not have any negative impact on the rights, roles and responsibilities of State, local, or tribal governments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>This regulation meets the applicable standard set forth in Executive Order 12988.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24402"/>
                    necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>This action pertains to agency management, personnel, and organization and does not substantially affect the rights or obligations of nonagency parties and, accordingly, is not a “rule” as that term is used by the Congressional Review Act (Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA)). Therefore, the reporting requirement of 5 U.S.C. 801 does not apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (PRA), unless that collection of information displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number.
                </P>
                <P>This rule involves an OMB approved collection of information subject to the PRA Application for Death Benefits (FERS)/Documentation and Elections in Support of Application for Death Benefits when Deceased was an Employee at the Time of Death (FERS), 3206-0172. The public reporting burden for this collection is estimated to average 60 minutes per response, including time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. The total burden hour estimate for this form is 16,751 hours. The systems of record notice for this collection is: OPM SORN CENTRAL-1-Civil Service Retirement and Insurance Records.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 5 CFR Part 843</HD>
                    <P>Air traffic controllers, Disability benefits, Firefighters, Government employees, Law enforcement officers, Pensions, Retirement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alexys Stanley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regulatory Affairs Analyst, Office of Personnel Management.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Office of Personnel Management proposes to amend 5 CFR part 843 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 843—FEDERAL EMPLOYEES RETIREMENT SYSTEM—DEATH BENEFITS AND EMPLOYEE REFUNDS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 843 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>5 U.S.C. 8461; §§ 843.205, 843.208, and 843.209 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 8424; § 843.309 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 8442; § 843.406 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 8441.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Current and Former Spouse Benefits</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 843.309, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 843.309 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Basic employee death benefit.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(2) For deaths occurring on or after October 1, 2019, 36 equal monthly installments of 2.96358 percent of the amount of the basic employee death benefit.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. Revise Appendix A to subpart C of part 843 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 843—Present Value Conversion Factors for Earlier Commencing Date of Annuities of Current and Former Spouses of Deceased Separated Employees</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>With at least 10 but less than 20 years of creditable service—</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,10,">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Age of separated employee at birthday before death</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Multiplier</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">26</ENT>
                            <ENT>.0998</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">27</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1068</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">28</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1138</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">29</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1214</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">30</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1291</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">31</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1375</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">32</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1463</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">33</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1555</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">34</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1651</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">35</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1755</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">36</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1867</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">37</ENT>
                            <ENT>.1986</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">38</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2113</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">39</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2247</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">40</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2390</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">41</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2540</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">42</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2701</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">43</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2875</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">44</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3057</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">45</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3252</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">46</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3460</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">47</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3680</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">48</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3917</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">49</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4171</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">50</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4445</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">51</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4739</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">52</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5055</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">53</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5393</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">54</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5758</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">55</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6151</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">56</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6578</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">57</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7037</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">58</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7536</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">59</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8076</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">60</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8663</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">61</ENT>
                            <ENT>.9302</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>With at least 20, but less than 30 years of creditable service—</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,10">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Age of separated employee at birthday before death</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Multiplier</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">36</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2153</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">37</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2291</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">38</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2436</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">39</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2592</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">40</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2756</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">41</ENT>
                            <ENT>.2930</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">42</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3116</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">43</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3316</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">44</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3527</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">45</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3752</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">46</ENT>
                            <ENT>.3992</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">47</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4247</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">48</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4521</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">49</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4814</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">50</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5131</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">51</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5470</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">52</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5834</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">53</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6225</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">54</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6646</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">55</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">56</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7592</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">57</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8123</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">58</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8698</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">59</ENT>
                            <ENT>.9322</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>With at least 30 years of creditable service—</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s10,7,7">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Age of separated 
                                <LI>employee at birthday </LI>
                                <LI>before death</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Multiplier by
                                <LI>separated</LI>
                                <LI>employee's year of birth</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                After
                                <LI>1966</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                From
                                <LI>1950</LI>
                                <LI>through</LI>
                                <LI>1966</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">46</ENT>
                            <ENT>.4912</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5254</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">47</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5226</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5591</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">48</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5564</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5953</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">49</ENT>
                            <ENT>.5926</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6340</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">50</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6316</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6757</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">51</ENT>
                            <ENT>.6733</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7203</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">52</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7181</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7683</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">53</ENT>
                            <ENT>.7663</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8199</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">54</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8182</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8754</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">55</ENT>
                            <ENT>.8741</ENT>
                            <ENT>.9353</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">56</ENT>
                            <ENT>.9346</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.0000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10849 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6325-38-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24403"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>9 CFR Parts 1, 2, and 3</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2017-0062]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0579-AE35</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Animal Welfare; Amendments to Licensing Provisions and to Requirements for Dogs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; reopening of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We are reopening the comment period for our proposed rule that would amend the licensing requirements under the Animal Welfare Act regulations to promote compliance, reduce licensing fees, and strengthen existing safeguards that prevent individuals and businesses who have a history of noncompliance from obtaining a license or working with regulated animals. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The comment period for the proposed rule published on March 22, 2019,  (84 FR 10721-10735) is reopened. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before June 5, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2017-0062.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>
                         Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2017-0062, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road, Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2017-0062</E>
                         or in our reading room, which is located in Room 1141 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 799-7039 before coming.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Ms. Christine Jones, Chief of Staff, Animal Care, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 84, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3751.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 22, 2019, we published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (84 FR 10721-10735,  Docket No. APHIS-2017-0062) a proposal to amend the licensing requirements under the Animal Welfare Act regulations to promote compliance, reduce licensing fees, and strengthen existing safeguards that prevent individuals and businesses who have a history of noncompliance from obtaining a license or working with regulated animals.
                </P>
                <P>Comments on the proposed rule were required to be received on or before May 21, 2019. We are reopening the comment period on Docket No. APHIS-2017-0062 for an additional 15 days, to June 5, 2019. This action will allow interested persons additional time to prepare and submit comments. We will also consider all comments received between May 21, 2019, and the date of this notice.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 21st day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kevin Shea,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11031 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2019-0339; Airspace Docket No. 18-AEA-21]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Establishment of Area Navigation (RNAV) Routes; Northeastern United States</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish seven new low altitude RNAV routes, designated T-303, T-307, T-320, T-324, T-335, T-356, and T-358, in the northeastern United States. The proposed routes would enhance the efficiency of the National Airspace System (NAS) by expanding the availability of RNAV routing and supporting the transition of the NAS from ground-based to satellite-based navigation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before July 12, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1 (800) 647-5527 or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2019-0339; Airspace Docket No. 18-AEA-21 at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the internet at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         For further information, you can contact the Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783. The Order is also available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of FAA Order 7400.11C at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Paul Gallant, Airspace Policy Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would expand the availability of RNAV in the eastern United States to improve the efficiency of the NAS by lessening the dependency on ground-based navigation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24404"/>
                    or arguments as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2019-0339; Airspace Docket No. 18-AEA-21 and be submitted in triplicate to the Docket Management Facility (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address and phone number). You may also submit comments through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2019-0339; Airspace Docket No. 18-AEA-21.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.</P>
                <P>All communications received on or before the specified comment closing date will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this action may be changed in light of comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of NPRM's</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address and phone number) between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except federal holidays. An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, Room 210, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Documents for Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018. FAA Order 7400.11C is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this proposed rule. FAA Order 7400.11C lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish seven new low altitude RNAV routes, designated T-303, T-307, T-320, T-324, T-335,T-356, and T-358, in the northeastern United States. The purpose of the routes is to expand the availability of RNAV and improve the efficiency of the NAS by reducing the dependency on ground-based navigation systems. The following is a general description of the proposed routes.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-303:</E>
                     T-303 would extend between the IRAKE, NC, fix (22 NM northeast of the Kinston, NC (ISO), VORTAC), and the WHITE, NJ, fix (14 NM northeast of the Coyle, NJ, (CYN) VORTAC).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-307:</E>
                     T-307 would extend between the PEARS, NC, fix (43 NM northeast of the New Bern, NC, (EWN) VOR/DME), and the SHERL, NY, fix (37 NM southeast of the Kennedy, NY, (JFK) VOR/DME).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-320:</E>
                     T-320 would extend between the NUTTS, VA, fix (46 NM northeast of the South Boston, VA, (SBV) VORTAC) and the WHITE, NJ, fix (14 NM northeast of the Coyle, NJ, (CYN) VORTAC).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-324:</E>
                     T-324 would extend between the COLIN, VA, fix (37 NM south of the Nottingham, MD, (OTT) VORTAC), and the ZIGGI, NJ, fix (37 NM southwest of the Kennedy, NY, (JFK) VOR/DME).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-335:</E>
                     T-335 would extend between the CHEYF, MD, WP (near the Snow Hill, MD, (SWL) VORTAC), and the Pottstown, PA, (PTW) VORTAC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-356:</E>
                     T-356 would extend between the WOOLY, MD fix (38 NM east of the Martinsburg, WV, (MRB) VORTAC) eastward to the SWANN, MD, fix; then northeastward to the ELUDE, MD, fix (9 NM west of the Dupont, DE, (DQO) VORTAC).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="04">T-358:</E>
                     T-358 would extend between the Martinsburg, WV, (MRB) VORTAC, and the AVALO, NJ, fix (10 NM south of the Atlantic City, NJ, (ACY) VORTAC).
                </P>
                <P>The full route descriptions are listed in “The Proposed Amendment” section, below.</P>
                <P>United States Area Navigation routes are published in paragraph 6011 of FAA Order 7400.2C, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The RNAV routes listed in the document would be subsequently published in the Order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to  amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order 7400.11C, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 13, 2018, and effective September 15, 2018, is amended as follows: </AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 6011 United States Area Navigation Routes.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24405"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,7/8,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="xls75,xls50,xls180">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-303 IRAKE, NC to WHITE, NJ [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">IRAKE, NC </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°41′31.44″ N, long. 077°20′25′44″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ZAGGY, NC </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°47′58.38″ N, long. 077°16′01.21″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">KOHLS, NC </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°22′17.76″ N, long. 076°52′21.48″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">EDTAJ, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°36′17.91″ N, long. 076°34′23.35″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PSALM, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°40′10.68″ N, long. 076°29′22.33″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DEEMS, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°44′31.54″ N, long. 076°23′43.84″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Norfolk, VA (ORF) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°53′30.84″ N, long. 076°12′01.17″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OUTLA, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°20′45.48″ N, long. 075°59′54.08″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FATOM, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°30′48.53″ N, long. 075°58′32.77″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">JAMIE, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°36′20.58″ N, long. 075°57′48.81″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAGGO, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°58′58.48″ N, long. 075°44′01.39″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TRPOD, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°20′17.30″ N, long. 075°30′28.27″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SEAMN, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°27′28.44″ N, long. 075°25′58.71″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterloo, DE (ATR) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VOR/DME </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°48′35.32″ N, long. 075°12′40.76″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">JILLI, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°00′42.22″ N, long. 075°05′46.21″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">LEEAH, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°15′39.27″ N, long. 074°57′11.01″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ANABL, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°30′15.98″ N, long. 074°43′34.12″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HOWIE, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°34′57.82″ N, long. 074°39′09.97″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CRESI, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°36′39.32″ N, long. 074°37′34.66″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">THMAS, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°40′07.73″ N, long. 074°34′16.24″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Coyle, NJ (CYN) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°49′02.42″ N, long. 074°25′53.85″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">WHITE, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°00′24.32″ N, long. 074°15′04.61″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-307 PEARS, NC to SHERL, NY [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">PEARS, NC </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 35°47′12.36″ N, long. 076°57′01.97″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SUNNS, NC </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°26′24.74″ N, long. 076°30′28.21″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Norfolk, VA (ORF) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 36°53′30.84″ N, long. 076°12′01.17″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OUTLA, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°20′45.48″ N, long. 075°59′54.08″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">EWOOD, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°31′10.55″ N, long. 075°52′09.26″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ARICE, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 07°41′19.65″ N, long. 075°44′32.27″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DUNFE, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°53′18.83″ N, long. 075°35′29.39″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CHEYF, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°06′01.66″ N, long. 075°27′12.74″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CBEAV, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°22′19.01″ N, long. 075°15′53.18″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RADDS, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°38′54.80″ N, long. 075°05′18.48″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SEWEL, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°56′01.88″ N, long. 074°54′18.11″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">WNSTN, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°05′43.81″ N, long. 074°48′01.20″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">AVALO, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°16′54.52″ N, long. 074°30′50.75″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">BRIGS, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°31′24.72″ N, long. 074°08′19.67″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HARBO, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°36′27.04″ N, long. 074°00′26.56″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DRIFT, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°48′53.56″ N, long. 073°40′49.53″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MANTA, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°54′07.01″ N, long. 073°32′31.63″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PLUME, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°07′06.67″ N, long. 073°17′08.03″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SHERL, NY </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°15′20.55″ N, long. 073°07′18.26″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-320 NUTTS, VA to WHITE, NJ [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">NUTTS, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°04′34.16″ N, long. 078°12′13.69″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">WAVES, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°35′13.54″ N, long. 077°26′52.03″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TAPPA, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°58′12.66″ N, long. 076°50′40.62″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">COLIN, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°05′59.23″ N, long. 076°39′50.85″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SHLBK, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°20′16.21″ N, long. 076°26′10.51″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">QUENS, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°26′04.59″ N, long. 076°19′10.06″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PRNCZ, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°37′38.10″ N, long. 076°05′08.20″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GARED, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°41′40.41″ N, long. 076°01′21.96″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CHOPS, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°45′41.81″ N, long. 075°57′36.18″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HEDGE, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°53′32.11″ N, long. 075°50′14.46″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CANNY, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°03′39.92″ N, long. 075°40′40.65″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smyrna, DE (ENO) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°13′53.93″ N, long. 075°30′57.49″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">BRIEF, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°26′55.21″ N, long. 075°07′39.69″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cedar Lake, NJ (VCN) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VOR/DME </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°32′15.62″ N, long. 074°58′01.72″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">LEBVE, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°39′25.01″ N, long. 074°44′23.42″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Coyle, NJ (CYN) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°49′02.42″ N, long. 074°25′53.85″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">WHITE, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°00′24.32″ N, long. 074°15′04.61″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-324 COLIN, VA to ZIGGI, NJ [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">COLIN, VA </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°05′59.23″ N, long. 076°39′50.85″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SHLBK, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°20′16.21″ N, long. 076°26′10.51″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">QUENS, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°26′04.59″ N, long. 076°19′10.06″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PRNCZ, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°37′38.10″ N, long. 076°05′08.20″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GARED, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°41′40.41″ N, long. 076°01′21.96″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CHOPS, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°45′41'81″ N, long. 075°57′36.18″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">COSHA, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°57′57.57″ N, long. 075°30′51.59″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ATWEL, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°59′17.98″ N, long. 075°28′20.28″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GROUT, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°01′08.72″ N, long. 075°24′50.99″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DONIL, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°04′35.44″ N, long. 075°18′18.92″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">LEEAH, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°15′39.27″ N, long. 074°57′11.01″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TUBER, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°21′55.92″ N, long. 074°45′05.19″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Atlantic City, NJ (ACY) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°27′21.15″ N, long. 074°34′34.73″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PANZE, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°40′33.58″ N, long. 074°10′05.45″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FALON, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°49′00.73″ N, long. 074°06′37.80″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ZIGGI, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°03′07.01″ N, long. 074°00′49.34″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-335 CHEYF, MD to Pottstown, PA (PTW) [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">CHEYF, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°06′01.66″ N, long. 075°27′12.74″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TRPOD, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°20′17.30″ N, long. 075°30′28.27″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="24406"/>
                            <ENT I="01">EZIZI, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°36′12.96″ N, long. 075°30′38.10″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">LAFLN, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°47′27.40″ N, long. 075°30′47.72″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">EGGRS, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°53′30.52″ N, long. 075°30′49.95″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">COSHA, DE </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 38°57′57.57″ N, long. 075°30′51.59″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smyrna, DE (ENO) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°13′53.93″ N, long. 075°30′57.49″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ELUDE, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°39′11.28″ N, long. 075°48′08.43″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FOLEZ, PA </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°55′32.76″ N, long. 075°49′16.49″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SINON, PA </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°02′13.78″ N, long. 075°34′45.93″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pottstown, PA (PTW) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 40°13′20.04″ N, long. 075°33′36.90″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-356 WOOLY, MD to ELUDE, MD [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">WOOLY, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°20.19.18″ N, long. 077°02′11.17″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DROSA, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°18′30.32″ N, long. 076°58′06.22″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OBWON, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°11′54.69″ N, long. 076°32′04.84″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SWANN, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°09′05.28″ N, long. 076°13′43.94″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GATBY, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°15′40.02″ N, long. 076°06′01.84″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">KERNO, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°18′36.25″ N, long. 076°02′34.92″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ODESA, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°29′29.00″ N, long. 075°49′44.37″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ELUDE, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°39′11.28″ N, long. 075°48′08.43″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="02">T-358 Martinsburg, WV (MRB) to AVALO, NJ [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Martinsburg, WV (MRB) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°23′08.06″ N, long. 077°50′54.08″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CPTAL, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°32′16.02″ N, long. 077°41′55.65″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HOGZZ, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°34′36.70″ N, long. 077°12′44.75″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MOYRR, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°30′03.42″ N, long. 076°56′10.84″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DANII, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°17′46.42″ N, long. 076°42′19.36″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">OBWON, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>WP </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°11′54.69″ N, long. 076°32′04.84″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SWANN, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°09′05.28″ N, long. 076°13′43.94″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GOLDA, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°10′20.27″ N, long. 076°02′51.07″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">BROSS, MD </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°11′28.40″ N, long. 075°52′49.88″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smyrna, DE (ENO) </ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°13′53.93″ N, long. 075°30′57.49″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">LEEAH, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°15′39.27″ N, long. 074°57′11.01″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">AVALO, NJ </ENT>
                            <ENT>Fix </ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°16′54.52″ N, long. 074°30′50.75″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                      
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rodger A. Dean, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Airspace Policy Group.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10950 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE </AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration </SUBAGY>
                <CFR>19 CFR Part 351</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 190522468-9468-01]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0625-AB16</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Modification of Regulations Regarding Benefit and Specificity in Countervailing Duty Proceedings</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P> The Department of Commerce (Commerce) proposes to modify two regulations pertaining to the determination of benefit and specificity in countervailing duty proceedings. These modifications, if adopted, would clarify how Commerce determines the existence of a benefit resulting from a subsidy in the form of currency undervaluation, and clarify that companies in the traded goods sector of an economy can constitute a group of enterprises for purposes of determining whether a subsidy is specific.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To be assured of consideration, written comments must be received no later than June 27, 2019. </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                         All comments must be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        , Docket No. ITA-2019-0002, unless the commenter does not have access to the internet. Commenters that do not have access to the internet may submit the original and one electronic copy of each set of comments by mail or hand delivery/courier. All comments should be addressed to Jeffrey I. Kessler, Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, Room 1870, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20230. Comments submitted to Commerce will be uploaded to the eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commerce will consider all comments received before the close of the comment period. All comments responding to this notice will be a matter of public record and will be available on the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        . Commerce will not accept comments accompanied by a request that part or all of the material be treated confidentially because of its business proprietary nature or for any other reason.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Any questions concerning file formatting, document conversion, access on the internet, or other electronic filing issues should be addressed to Laura Merchant, Enforcement and Compliance, at (202) 482-2104, email address: 
                        <E T="03">webmaster-support@ita.doc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P> Gregory Campbell at (202) 482-2239 or Matthew Walden at (202) 482-2963.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The purpose of the U.S. countervailing duty law is to provide a remedy for U.S. workers and businesses injured by unfairly subsidized imports. It is based upon the recognition that certain government interventions in the market cause distortions to trade and confer unfair advantages on certain economic actors. The countervailing duty law therefore provides for the imposition of a countervailing duty on subsidized imports to offset the portion of the subsidy attributable to the imported goods. Commerce conducts an investigation to determine whether countervailable subsidies have been provided, and the U.S. International Trade Commission separately determines whether the domestic industry of the like product is injured (or threatened with injury) by reason of those imports. If both agencies reach affirmative determinations, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection to apply countervailing duties on the subject imports.</P>
                <P>
                    A countervailing duty investigation is initiated when Commerce receives a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24407"/>
                    petition filed on behalf of a U.S. industry that requests relief. Commerce can also self-initiate an investigation. An investigation covers a discrete “class or kind” of merchandise, such as off-the-road tires, or corrosion-resistant steel, or frozen shrimp. The investigation is a quasi-judicial proceeding, during which Commerce collects information from interested parties, assembles an administrative record, and receives arguments from interested parties. Commerce then makes its findings based upon the administrative record and parties' arguments. If the investigation results in affirmative findings, and countervailing duties are imposed, there can be annual reviews of the duties to establish the precise amount of duties each year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1671, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (the Act), governs countervailing duty proceedings. It also defines a “subsidy.” Specifically, section 701 of the Act provides that when the government of a country or any public entity within the territory of a country is providing, directly or indirectly, a countervailable subsidy with respect to the manufacture, production, or export of a class or kind of merchandise that is imported into the United States, and material injury or threat of material injury is found by the International Trade Commission, Commerce shall impose a countervailing duty. Section 771(5)(B) of the Act defines a subsidy as existing when: A government or any public entity within the territory of a country provides a financial contribution; provides any form of income or price support; or makes a payment to a funding mechanism to provide a financial contribution, or entrusts or directs a private entity to make a financial contribution, if providing the contribution would normally be vested in the government and the practice does not differ in substance from practices normally followed by governments; and a benefit is thereby conferred. To be countervailable, a subsidy must be specific within the meaning of section 771(5A) of the Act.
                </P>
                <P>There are four types of government financial contributions described in section 771(5)(D) of the Act: (1) A direct transfer of funds or potential direct transfer of funds; (2) foregoing or not collecting revenue that is otherwise due; (3) providing goods or services, other than general infrastructure; and (4) purchasing goods.</P>
                <P>Section 771(5)(E) of the Act sets forth certain methods for determining the existence of a benefit for several different types of financial contributions. However, section 771(5)(E) of the Act is not exhaustive; it does not provide the method for determining the existence of a benefit for every type of financial contribution. Commerce's regulations provide further rules for determining the existence of a benefit. In particular, 19 CFR 351.503 sets forth some general principles, while 19 CFR 351.504 through 351.520 provide more specific guidelines for calculating the benefit from certain types of financial contributions.</P>
                <P>Section 771(5A) of the Act addresses specificity of subsidies. Section 771(5A)(A) of the Act states that a subsidy is specific if it is an export subsidy described in section 771(5A)(B) or an import substitution subsidy described in section 771(5A)(C), or is determined to be specific pursuant to section 771(5A)(D). Section 771(5A)(D)(i) of the Act states that a subsidy is specific as a matter of law if the authority providing the subsidy, or the legislation pursuant to which the authority operates, expressly limits access to the subsidy to an enterprise or industry.</P>
                <P>Even if a subsidy is not specific as a matter of law, it could be specific as a matter of fact. Section 771(5A)(D)(iii) of the Act describes four situations in which a subsidy is specific as a matter of fact: (1) The actual recipients of the subsidy, whether considered on an enterprise or industry basis, are limited in number; (2) an enterprise or industry is a predominant user of the subsidy; (3) an enterprise or industry receives a disproportionately large amount of the subsidy; or (4) the manner in which the authority providing the subsidy has exercised discretion in the decision to grant the subsidy indicates that an enterprise or industry is favored over others. Section 771(5A)(D)(iv) of the Act states that a subsidy is specific when it is limited to an enterprise or industry located within a designated geographical region within the jurisdiction of the authority providing the subsidy. Section 771(5A) of the Act makes clear that the term “enterprise or industry” includes a group of enterprises or industries. Commerce's regulation at 19 CFR 351.502 sets forth more rules for determining specificity.</P>
                <P>
                    Neither the Act nor Commerce's regulations specify how to determine the existence of a benefit or specificity when Commerce is examining a potential subsidy resulting from the exchange of currency. The proposed modifications to Commerce's regulations, described below, would address this issue.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In the past, Commerce has received allegations from petitioning U.S. industries that currency undervaluation in the context of unified currency regimes constitutes a countervailable subsidy. Commerce found the evidence in these allegations insufficient to support initiation. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Utility Scale Wind Towers from the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation,</E>
                         77 FR 3447 (January 24, 2012); 
                        <E T="03">Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation,</E>
                         76 FR 70966 (November 16, 2011).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Specifically, the modifications described below propose one way to analyze whether the exchange of an undervalued currency results in a countervailable subsidy. They are developed with the recognition that while Commerce is, by statute, the administering authority of the countervailing duty law, the issue of currency undervaluation is complex and unlike many of the subsidies we have examined in the past. As described below, during any countervailing duty proceeding involving a potential subsidy in the form of currency undervaluation, we intend to seek and to defer to the Department of the Treasury's (Treasury's) evaluation and conclusion as to whether government action on the exchange rate has resulted in currency undervaluation, unless we have good reason to believe otherwise, based on the record as a whole, in which case we will provide Treasury an opportunity to review and rebut the contrary reasoning. Treasury will use a consistent framework to assess currency undervaluation resulting from government action, recognizing country-specific factors. If it is determined that there is currency undervaluation based on government action on the exchange rate, Commerce will proceed to determine whether such action is countervailable.</P>
                <P>In determining whether there has been government action on the exchange rate that undervalues the currency, we do not intend in the normal course to include monetary and related credit policy of an independent central bank or monetary authority.</P>
                <P>We invite comments not only on this proposed approach, but also as to whether there are other options under the existing law to examine potential currency-related subsidies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Modifications</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce proposes to modify 19 CFR 351.502 and 19 CFR 351.503 as indicated below. The modification to 19 CFR 351.502 would clarify that enterprises that primarily buy or sell goods internationally can constitute a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24408"/>
                    group of enterprises for purposes of determining specificity. The modification to 19 CFR 351.503 would add a paragraph explaining how Commerce intends to determine benefit when investigating or reviewing a potential subsidy in the form of currency undervaluation under a unified exchange rate system.
                </P>
                <P>Any analysis of currency countervailability must focus on the above-described legal criteria under the U.S. countervailing duty statute, all of which relate to the fundamental principle that countervailing duties address government interventions in the market that cause distortions. There are a variety of possible currency-related fact patterns that might satisfy the legal criteria for countervailability, and it is not Commerce's intention to identify or address them all here. That said, one analytical approach is to view currency undervaluation under a unified currency regime as a domestic currency premium. For instance, this occurs when exporting enterprises exchange U.S. dollars for their domestic currency at a state bank or other entity that Commerce determines on the record of the proceeding to be an authority (or a private entity entrusted or directed by an authority) and, in doing so, receive more domestic currency in exchange for each U.S. dollar converted than they would otherwise earn in the absence of the currency undervaluation. The receipt of domestic currency from an authority (or an entity entrusted or directed by an authority) in exchange for U.S. dollars could constitute the financial contribution under section 771(5)(D) of the Act.</P>
                <P>In general terms, the currency undervaluation benefit calculation requires an identification of what the currency's value should be, absent the undervaluation. To do this, one method is to employ the concept of an equilibrium “real effective exchange rate” (REER) or its equivalent, consistent with International Monetary Fund (IMF) methodologies. For the purposes of this rule, equilibrium REER is defined as the REER that would lead to an appropriate level for external balance over the medium term. This equilibrium REER or its equivalent would be employed in the following two-step benefit analysis.</P>
                <P>Step 1 would involve a threshold determination of the extent of foreign currency undervaluation, on the basis of a comparison of a country's REER and equilibrium REER in the relevant time period. Parties alleging that there is a currency undervaluation subsidy could submit, where possible, objective, third-party, publicly available estimates of the nominal U.S. dollar rate consistent with the REER needed to achieve external balance. To the extent that a country's equilibrium REER exceeds its REER in the relevant time period, a benefit may exist.</P>
                <P>The next step would be to identify the nominal, bilateral U.S. dollar exchange rate consistent with the equilibrium REER that would have prevailed in the relevant time period absent the undervaluation. The difference between (1) this nominal, bilateral U.S. dollar rate that would otherwise have prevailed and (2) the actual average nominal, bilateral U.S. dollar (money or market) rate used for commercial purposes in the relevant time period, could demonstrate the existence of a “benefit” from currency undervaluation.</P>
                <P>In assessing the parties' arguments and conducting its analysis, Commerce will timely request that Treasury evaluate any currency undervaluation resulting from government action on the exchange rate. We expect that Treasury will timely provide Commerce with an evaluation and conclusion as to whether and to what extent the government action on the exchange rate has resulted in undervaluation of the currency, and, if Treasury deems appropriate, an evaluation of the benefit arising from such undervaluation. Treasury will use a consistent framework to assess currency undervaluation resulting from government action on the exchange rate, recognizing country-specific factors. Commerce will submit Treasury's evaluation to the record of the administrative proceeding and defer to Treasury's evaluation as to undervaluation in making Commerce's determination as to countervailability, unless Commerce has good reason to disagree with that evaluation, based on the record as a whole, in which case Commerce will provide Treasury an opportunity to review and rebut the contrary reasoning. As with any countervailing duty proceeding, all information presented to or obtained by Commerce during the proceeding will be placed on the administrative record, consistent with section 516A(b)(2)(A)(i) of the Act.</P>
                <P>The value of the countervailable benefit to a particular enterprise under investigation or review could be determined by taking into account the amount of U.S. dollars that enterprise converted into domestic currency through an entity determined to be an authority (or entrusted or directed by an authority) during the relevant investigation or review period, the actual exchange rates in effect at the time of conversion, and the nominal dollar rate Commerce determines under this proposed regulatory modification. The benefit could be determined in other ways as well, depending on the particular circumstances.</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to the specificity of an undervalued currency under a unified currency regime, an analysis under the proposed regulation could take into consideration a country's balance of payments data and, specifically, the amount of foreign currency supplied by broad categories of entities or activities in that country, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     exporters, foreign investors, tourists and recipients of factor income earned abroad. Information, where available, regarding the market supply of foreign currency could provide a reasonable proxy for the amount of U.S. dollars converted into the undervalued domestic currency of the country under investigation.
                </P>
                <P>The final step would be to determine the portion of this total amount that is composed of foreign exchange supplied by enterprises that primarily buy or sell goods internationally. Starting with gross foreign currency supplied by exporters, and deducting the foreign exchange needed by these exporters to purchase any imported inputs used in the production of exported goods, would result in a figure for net foreign exchange supplied by the enterprises in the exporting and importing sector of that country. If enterprises in a country that primarily buy or sell goods internationally collectively constitute a predominant user or account for a disproportionate share of net foreign exchange supply, Commerce could find a currency undervaluation subsidy to be specific to that group of enterprises within the meaning of section 771(5A)(D)(iii) of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the countervailing duty law addresses government interventions in the market that cause distortions to trade and confer unfair advantages on certain economic actors. The proposed modifications, if adopted, would do just that. When state-owned banks or other entities Commerce finds to be authorities (or private entities entrusted or directed by authorities) provide foreign currency in exchange for U.S. dollars, Commerce may determine that there is a government financial contribution. The specificity test in the statute focuses the countervailing duty remedy only on those government interventions that benefit particular sectors of the economy. With respect to benefit, Commerce's analysis would address, in light of record evidence from third-party sources and Treasury, whether there is a financial contribution on terms more favorable than the market would provide. Commerce intends to use its 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24409"/>
                    discretion under the existing statute and regulations, including these proposed modifications, to focus the benefit inquiry on government distortions providing an advantage to exporters, consistent with Commerce's existing practice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Expected Impact of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>Like many of Commerce's regulations, the modifications proposed here are an explanation of how Commerce will apply its existing statutory authority. Commerce notes that our proposed analysis for currency is not fundamentally different from the approach we follow for other types of countervailable subsidies we frequently encounter: Loosely speaking, we examine whether foreign companies are receiving a financial contribution on terms that are better than what is commercially available, absent government action. The purpose is to provide relief to U.S. workers, farmers, ranchers, and businesses who are injured by unfairly subsidized imports—in this case, by virtue of subsidies that occur when a foreign producer/exporter exchanges currency and receives a benefit due to currency undervaluation.</P>
                <P>
                    It is also important to note that the Act requires Commerce's determinations in countervailing duty cases be made on the basis of the administrative record. The proceedings are normally adversarial, and accordingly there is often conflicting factual information on the record that might support different determinations by Commerce. Under section 516A(b)(1)(B)(i) of the Act, Commerce may make any determination unless it is unsupported by substantial evidence on the record, or otherwise not in accordance with law (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     arbitrary and capricious).
                </P>
                <P>We note all of Commerce's determinations in countervailing duty cases are made publicly available and are subject to judicial review. Commerce's decisions are fully explained, including calculations supporting the findings and responses to comments made by the interested parties.</P>
                <P>We are including here two alternative approaches to assessing the expected economic impact of the proposed rule, if it were to become final, and we welcome comments on both approaches. Note that the economic analyses included in this document have been prepared solely for purposes of providing the public with the information and analyses required by Executive Order 12866 and are not meant to serve as a predictor of the facts in any potential future cases, nor to indicate the likelihood of any particular future determinations. Examples are provided for illustrative purposes only. All of Commerce's countervailing duty determinations are based solely on the administrative record of the proceeding at hand, consistent with the Act and Commerce's regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Economic Impact Assessment—Alternative 1</HD>
                <P>The first alternative analysis is based on the estimates of the annual total duties that could be collected if currency-related subsidies are countervailed in future proceedings.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule, if it becomes final, would explain how Commerce will apply its statutory authority when examining potential subsidies resulting from undervalued currency. As explained above, in multiple prior cases Commerce has examined subsidy allegations based on a unified currency regime. While Commerce declined to initiate on those currency undervaluation allegations due to insufficient evidence provided by the petitioner, there is nothing in existing law or regulations that would prevent a domestic industry from petitioning Commerce immediately to investigate such a subsidy.</P>
                <P>Nonetheless, to inform the public discussion of this proposed regulation, we consider the economic impact of a potential increase in the number of currency subsidy allegations that could potentially result from the public's increased awareness that Commerce would consider initiating countervailing duty investigations of such subsidies. As discussed below, we estimate that the total amount of countervailing duties that might be collected due to countervailing such subsidies could range from $3.9 million to $16.6 million annually—or, if certain additional assumptions are made, reflecting an unlikely scenario, up to $21 million. To be clear, this rule itself will not lead to duties in these estimated amounts. Rather, countervailing duties related to a currency-related subsidy can only be imposed after Commerce has reached an affirmative final determination of subsidization and the U.S. International Trade Commission has reached an affirmative final injury determination. Any subsidy determination in a future countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding in which Commerce applies this rule will be based on the administrative record of that proceeding, consistent with the Act and Commerce's regulations. Commerce welcomes public comment on any likely economic effect of this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>
                    As a threshold question, we considered whether the proposed regulation would lead to an increase in the number of CVD petitions filed. The number of petitions filed over the past five years has fluctuated considerably.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Yet we are not aware of any evidence that the number of potentially countervailable subsidy programs is responsible for this change, even in part. Rather, a key determinant of whether a petition is filed is whether petitioners believe they can meet the statutory requirements for injury.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, Commerce estimates that a typical affirmative final determination in a CVD case results in a finding of at least 10 countervailable programs 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —and in some cases, the number is much higher. From the standpoint of a petitioner who has not yet hired advisors to prepare a petition, the number of potentially countervailable subsidies for a given product from a given country is indefinite. Petitioners' awareness (as a result of the proposed regulation) that there is one additional subsidy claim that could be brought is unlikely to significantly change their calculus in deciding whether to invest the necessary time and resources to petition for the imposition of a CVD order.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The number of CVD petitions filed each year from FY 2014 though FY 2018 is as follows: 15, 25, 16, 11, 18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Section 701(a) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         While this estimate is based on our general experience across all CVD cases and relevant countries, as an independent check we closely reviewed the final determinations in the investigations for all current CVD orders involving South Korea, and calculated that Commerce countervailed 14 programs on average in those investigations. This further confirms that an estimate of 10 programs per case is appropriately viewed as conservative. We further note that the number of subsidies alleged in a given proceeding generally exceeds (often considerably) the number of subsidies ultimately determined to be countervailable and used by the companies under investigation in a proceeding.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, Commerce does not believe that the proposed regulation will affect the number of CVD petitions received.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, Commerce does believe that the proposed regulation is likely to increase the number of CVD allegations in petitions, because petitioners will be aware that Commerce is willing to investigate and potentially countervail currency undervaluation subsidies when there is a supported allegation and when the financial contribution, benefit, and specificity requirements are met. Therefore, in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24410"/>
                    remainder of this section, we consider the following question: What is the value of annual duties likely to be collected if Commerce finds a countervailable currency undervaluation subsidy in a proceeding in which both it and the U.S. International Trade Commission have reached final affirmative determinations?
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Commerce has seldom, if ever, conducted an investigation that included only one or even a handful of alleged subsidies, which further supports the point that the addition of one more potential subsidy allegation, in the form of currency undervaluation, is not likely to be a decisive factor in a U.S. petitioning industry's decision to file a new petition.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In theory, there are two possible approaches to answering this question. First, we could attempt to estimate the likely value of annual duties from the magnitude of currency undervaluation shown to exist economy-wide in the past. However, this approach is unworkable, because (consistent with statute) countervailing duty calculations are based on company-specific information which is not possible to estimate in the abstract. Given that the range of possible experience can vary widely between companies, it is essentially a speculative endeavor to identify meaningful, representative averages for each variable.</P>
                <P>
                    To illustrate this point with a simplified calculation: Assume as an example two hypothetical producers/exporters of subject merchandise in a country are under investigation by Commerce, each with markedly different profiles. Company A is an integrated producer that imports few inputs and sells a relatively large share of its finished product within its domestic market, though also exports some to the United States. Company B is a Foreign Invested Enterprise in the country under investigation that is part of a global supply chain. It imports key inputs (in U.S. dollars) and re-exports a large portion of its finished product to the United States. Assume the REER differential for the country's domestic currency unit (DCU) is 10 percent. Also, assume two scenarios for each company: One where the bilateral nominal exchange rate is undervalued by 5 percent (scenarios A
                    <E T="52">1</E>
                     and B
                    <E T="52">1</E>
                    ) and one where it is undervalued by 10 percent (scenarios A
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     and B
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ). Finally, assume that neither company receives the currency subsidy benefit indirectly, and that the current nominal exchange rate is 1 U.S. dollar per DCU 1.05.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="10" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Hypothetical Currency-Related CVD Rate Calculations</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Domestic 
                            <LI>sales </LI>
                            <LI>(DCUs)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            US$ 
                            <LI>rate </LI>
                            <LI>gap </LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            US 
                            <LI>sales </LI>
                            <LI>(US$)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Tot. sales 
                            <LI>(DCU)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Share of 
                            <LI>US$ </LI>
                            <LI>holdings </LI>
                            <LI>exchanged </LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Amount 
                            <LI>DCUs </LI>
                            <LI>actually </LI>
                            <LI>received</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Amt. 
                            <LI>DCUs </LI>
                            <LI>at </LI>
                            <LI>target </LI>
                            <LI>US$ </LI>
                            <LI>rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Benefit 
                            <LI>(DCUs)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Currency 
                            <LI>subsidy </LI>
                            <LI>CVD </LI>
                            <LI>rate </LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Company A
                            <E T="52">1</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>500,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,525,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                        <ENT>420,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>400,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.31</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Company A
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>500,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,525,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                        <ENT>420,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>381,818</ENT>
                        <ENT>38,182</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Company B
                            <E T="52">1</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>250,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>500,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>775,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>105,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>100,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.65</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Company B
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>250,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>500,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>775,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>105,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>95,455</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,545</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.23</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Note that under Commerce's CVD methodology, in calculating a company-specific CVD rate for a given domestic (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     non-export-contingent) subsidy, Commerce will normally use the company's total worldwide sales (including domestic sales and sales to third countries) of domestically manufactured products as the denominator. All other things equal, the result of using total sales as the denominator compared to using, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     just export sales (as Commerce does for export-contingent subsidies) is generally to reduce the CVD rate for that subsidy. The magnitude of that reduction will depend on the particular company's ratio of export to total sales, among other things. Accordingly, in the event of an affirmative finding of a countervailable subsidy in a future proceeding under the proposed regulation—which sets out a framework for analyzing currency undervaluation as a domestic subsidy—the higher the worldwide sales of the subsidy recipient, the lower the CVD rate that Commerce would assign to that subsidy recipient, all else equal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The examples presented above, while hypothetical, serve to illustrate that company-specific valuations of a subsidy benefit from currency undervaluation can vary significantly depending on the assumptions for at least three key variables: (i) The extent to which the nominal bilateral U.S. dollar rate falls below the level consistent with the equilibrium REER value; (ii) the extent to which the company converted U.S. dollars into domestic currency during the relevant time period; and (iii) the value of the company's total sales (of all products, to all markets). The larger (or smaller) the divergence in the nominal bilateral (in (i) above), the larger (or smaller) is the subsidy benefit in absolute terms, all else equal; and (ii) the larger (or smaller) the amount of U.S. dollars converted into domestic currency (in (ii) above), the larger (or smaller) is the benefit, all else equal. However, this tells us nothing about how large or small the countervailing duty rate is since this rate is equal to the benefit in U.S. dollars divided by the U.S. dollar value of the company's total sales (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the ratio of the two variables). Since there is no necessary correlation or relationship between the total sales variable and the other two variables, or between the benefit amount and the sales amount of the ratio that defines the countervailing duty rate, neither the currency undervaluation variable nor the U.S. dollar conversion variable alone gives any indication of the ultimate countervailing duty rate for currency undervaluation. Thus, in the case of a large currency undervaluation, the countervailing duty rate can nevertheless be zero; and in the case of a small currency undervaluation, the countervailing duty rate can be large. For this reason, as stated above, we cannot estimate the likely value of annual duties from the magnitude of currency undervaluation shown to exist economy-wide in the past.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The second possible approach, presented below, is to base our estimate on aggregated historical data for the value of CVDs deposited—which we assume to be a function of the number of subsidy allegations made to Commerce. This aggregated historical data serves as the baseline for our impact analysis. According to data from Customs and Border Protection,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the average annual amount of total duties deposited under CVD orders over the last five fiscal years (FY 2014-18) was $527 million. The average annual value of imports subject to CVD during that timeframe was $4.22 billion. Thus, an average total CVD rate of roughly 12 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24411"/>
                    percent was deposited on every dollar of imports subject to CVD.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Customs and Border Protection collects data on the total value of U.S. imports from all countries subject to countervailing duty orders during a given period, as well as the value of duties deposited by importers pursuant to those CVD orders during that period. Concerns regarding the protection of proprietary information prevent us from making public that information, except in the most aggregated form that we have provided here.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         During that 5-year time frame, the average total CVD rate on an annual basis ranged from a low of 8.5 percent to a high of 15.2 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As noted above, Commerce estimates that a typical CVD case involves at least 10 countervailable programs.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, we have calculated a conservatively high average 1.2 percent CVD rate for each subsidy program found to be countervailable in a typical case.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     There is no reason to think that this figure would be different for currency-related subsidies.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Commerce does not calculate this statistic in the ordinary course of our work. This estimate of at least 10 countervailable programs on average is based on an internal review of the determinations in several of the hundreds of CVD investigations and administrative reviews that Commerce has conducted in recent years.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Alternatively, taking the highest average annual total CVD rate in the last five years of 15.2 percent, as noted above, and dividing by 10 programs, results in a very conservatively-high program-specific CVD rate of 1.52 percent. Conversely, taking the lowest average annual total CVD rate in the last five years of 8.5 percent and dividing by 10 programs results in a lower-end program-specific CVD rate of 0.85 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         As discussed below, the fact that currency undervaluation subsidies may be perceived to be available to a variety of industries and enterprises throughout a particular country's economy does not distinguish them from other subsidies that Commerce already countervails today. Furthermore, the larger the relevant sales of a given company, the lower the applicable CVD rate (all else equal). Thus, the magnitude of currency undervaluation based on Step 1 or Step 2 of the benefit analysis is not in and of itself a predictor of the likely CVD rates that Commerce would impose if it were to countervail currency subsidies.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As of the drafting of this notice, there are 116 CVD orders in effect. While Commerce does not believe that implementation of this currency undervaluation methodology will result in an increase in CVD investigations (as discussed above), for purposes of illustration we assume hypothetically that the proposed regulation would result in an additional two CVD orders per year that would not have otherwise existed absent the adoption of this methodology, which equals a roughly two percent increase in the number of existing orders.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, as a corollary, we assume that the average value of imports subject to CVD increases two percent from $4.22 billion to $4.3 billion. To be clear, Commerce is not aware of any precedent for new petitions as the result of the public's increased awareness that a type of subsidy is potentially countervailable. Therefore, in our view, a two percent increase in the number of petitions due solely to the public's increased awareness that currency undervaluation subsidies are potentially countervailable represents an outlier scenario.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         From FY 2014 through FY 2018, the number of CVD orders imposed is as follows: 6, 9, 16, 11, 18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    We currently have information in the public domain from two sources (IMF and Peterson Institute for International Economics) regarding whether countries' exchange rates were undervalued during 2017.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For some countries the two sources agree, but for other countries one source finds there is undervaluation and the other source finds there is not; moreover, the lists of countries assessed by the two sources are not identical. Additionally, these two sources are not making a judgment about whether the undervaluation is a result of government action on the exchange rate, which would be part of the evaluation and conclusion provided by Treasury in the proposed rule. Commerce has not made any decision as to how we will treat instances where our information sources disagree over undervaluation for a given country. This will depend upon the record evidence, including any analysis provided by Treasury, and interested parties' arguments in a given proceeding.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Any future finding of undervaluation will of course be based on data for the relevant period of investigation or review covered by the CVD proceeding, data permitting.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    However, hypothetically, if Commerce were to find that a currency is undervalued because at least one of the two sources' point estimates indicates undervaluation (the “more conservative” scenario, in that it results in a higher estimate of economic significance), then the data show that roughly 32 percent of total imports subject to CVDs are from countries with undervalued currencies.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As an alternative hypothetical, if Commerce were to find that a currency is undervalued because both sources (and in the case of IMF, the entire reported range) support such a determination (the “less conservative” scenario), then only 7.6 percent of total imports subject to CVDs are from a country (in fact, only one country—Korea) with an undervalued currency.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         In FY 2018, countervailing duties were deposited on various products imported from 19 countries. For 12 of these 19 countries, at least one of the two sources (IMF or Peterson Institute for International Economics) deemed the domestic currency undervalued during 2017. Based on information from Customs and Border Protection, the total value of imports from these 12 countries with potentially undervalued currencies equaled roughly 32 percent of the total value of imports from all 19 countries.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         To be clear, in this estimate we are only considering “step 1” of the benefit analysis. Step 2 of the benefit test, the financial contribution test, the specificity test, and the U.S. International Trade Commission's injury test would reduce the candidate countries for CVDs targeting currency undervaluation even further. This is another reason that Commerce's estimates of economic significance are conservatively high.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the more conservative scenario: 32 percent * $4.30 billion = $1.38 billion in average annual imports that are covered by CVD orders and are from countries with undervalued currencies. Next, $1.38 billion * 1.2 percent CVD rate calculated for a currency subsidy = $16.6 million in total annual duties collected for countervailing currency undervaluation subsidies.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Relying instead on the very conservative (high) average program rate of 1.52 percent, noted above, results in the following calculation: $1.38 billion * 1.52 percent CVD rate calculated for a currency subsidy = $21 million in total annual duties collected for countervailing currency undervaluation subsidies. Conversely, relying on the low rate of 0.85 percent results in the following calculation: $1.38 billion * 0.85 percent CVD rate calculated for a currency subsidy = $11.7 million in total annual duties collected for countervailing currency undervaluation subsidies.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Under the less conservative scenario: 7.6 percent * $4.30 billion = $327 million in average annual imports that are covered under CVD orders and are from countries with undervalued currencies. Next, $327 million * 1.2 percent CVD rate calculated for a currency subsidy = $3.9 million in total annual duties collected for currency undervaluation subsidies.</P>
                <P>
                    Although Commerce believes that the assumptions underlying the two scenarios above are the most reasonable based on past CVD practice, other assumptions would lead to significantly higher estimates of economic impact. For example, if the total value of imports subject to countervailing duties is assumed to be double the historical average (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $8.44 billion); the share of all imports from undervalued countries is assumed to be 50 percent (rather than the maximum of 32 percent suggested by the relevant data sources we have cited from PIIE and IMF), and the average CVD rate for currency undervaluation is assumed to be double the historical average for other subsidies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     2.4 percent rather than 1.2 percent); then the calculation of economic impact would be as follows: $8.44 billion * 50% * 2.4 percent = $101.3 million.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Commerce notes that there is no evidence that CVDs—which are imposed only on very specific products from a particular country (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     certain carbon and alloy cut-to-length steel plate from the Republic of Korea)—deter trade with the country more generally. Commerce currently has 58 CVD orders on China, the most for any single country, and each CVD order typically involves multiple subsidy programs (of which currency undervaluation would be only one). Yet U.S. imports from China have continued to rise 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24412"/>
                    significantly over the last several years to $540 billion in 2018 (up from $440 billion in 2013). Similarly, Commerce currently has 19 CVD orders on imports from India (again, with each order typically encompassing multiple subsidy programs), and yet total U.S imports from India have continued to rise significantly over the last several years to $54 billion in 2018 (up from $42 billion in 2013). Commerce has a total of 116 CVD orders in place, but the value of imports impacted by those orders equates to just 0.3 percent of all imports into the United States in FY 2018.
                </P>
                <P>It is important to underscore four additional points in this context. First, the fact that currency undervaluation subsidies may be perceived to be available to a variety of industries and enterprises throughout a particular country's economy does not distinguish them from other subsidies that Commerce already countervails today. For example, Commerce has often countervailed the provision of electricity for less than adequate remuneration in CVD proceedings involving imports from China. This is largely a reflection of the fact that this program is frequently included among the countervailable subsidies alleged in CVD petitions submitted from petitioning U.S. industries, which in turn reflects the fact that most foreign industries that have been involved in U.S. CVD proceedings use electricity in their production processes. The fact that Commerce has frequently found electricity subsidies in prior China CVD cases has not led to new CVD petitions being filed by U.S. industries that would not otherwise be filed. Land, policy lending, and export buyers credits, which Commerce frequently countervails, similarly illustrate this point.</P>
                <P>
                    Moreover, while it may seem that the total aggregate value of these types of government supports across all recipients could be relatively large, given the various enterprises and industries to which they may be available, there is no basis to presume a relatively large economy-wide value translates into a larger CVD rate for the program for a given company. This is because, as explained above, the CVD rate for domestic subsidies is generally determined on a company-specific basis, taking into account the amount of subsidy received by a particular producer/exporter of subject merchandise, and the total worldwide sales of the company for relevant products (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     those products that benefit from the subsidy, which may be a broader category than the subject merchandise).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Likewise, assuming 
                    <E T="03">arguendo</E>
                     that the benefit from a currency undervaluation subsidy in a given country is large in the aggregate, Commerce does not believe that that is a sufficient basis to presume that a company-specific CVD rate calculated for currency undervaluation will likely be larger than the program rates for any other subsidies that company receives. For example, in 
                    <E T="03">Countervailing Duty Investigation of Certain Corrosion-Resistant Steel Products From the Republic of Korea: Final Affirmative Determination, and Final Affirmative Critical Circumstances Determination, in Part,</E>
                     81 FR 35310 (June 2, 2016), the Government of Korea reported in its public submissions that the Korean Development Bank (a Korean government policy bank) provided close to $14 billion in loans in 2014 to Korean companies under its “Short-Term Discounted Loans for Export Receivables” program. However, despite the considerable size of the program in the aggregate, we calculated a company-specific rate for that subsidy program of less than 0.01 percent for one of two Korean respondent companies in that CVD proceeding. The second respondent company in the investigation reported not using the program at all, and therefore received no rate for that program.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     That said, we invite the public to comment on this issue. Similarly, the aggregate value of the Government of India's “Merchandise Exports from India Scheme” was reportedly close to $2 billion (Rs 12,746 in Crore) during India's 2016-17 budget year.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     And yet, in a CVD investigation of that subsidy program involving Indian producers of cold-drawn mechanical tubing during that period, Commerce determined that the company-specific program rate for that subsidy was only 0.12 percent for one of the companies under investigation, and 1.48 percent for another company. 
                    <E T="03">See Certain Cold-Drawn Mechanical Tubing of Carbon and Alloy Steel from India: Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination,</E>
                     82 FR 58172 (December 11, 2017).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         To the extent information on aggregate subsidy amounts is on the record of Commerce's CVD proceedings, it is often “business proprietary information” and therefore is not subject to public disclosure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         “Statement of Revenue Impact under the Central Tax System,” Receipts Budget 2018-2019 (available online at:
                        <E T="03"> https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/ub2018-19/rec/annex7.pdf).</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, the products that are subject to countervailing duty (and antidumping duty) investigations are typically defined very narrowly by the petitioners. This is due, at least in part, to the relationship between the scope of Commerce's investigations and the U.S. International Trade Commission's definition of the domestic like product.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This will not change if Commerce begins to countervail currency undervaluation subsidies.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         In many cases, a narrow definition of the scope and the domestic like product is beneficial to the petitioning U.S. domestic industry, because this may increase the likelihood of an affirmative injury finding. As the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit stated in 
                        <E T="03">Allegheny Ludlum Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         287 F.2d 1365, 1370-71 (Fed. Cir. 2002), “Any actual effect of the imported goods on the narrower domestic like product market may be effectively submerged, and lost, upon the inclusion of data from a larger set of domestic products.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Third, as noted above, Commerce estimates that a typical CVD case involves 10 countervailable subsidy programs. Furthermore, based on anecdotal evidence, it can cost private parties more than one million dollars in legal and other fees to petition for the imposition of CVDs on a particular product from a particular country. Accordingly, to the extent that the proposed regulation would change CVD practice, it is likelier to lead to one additional CVD allegation in petitions that would otherwise have been submitted—not an increase in the overall number of CVD petitions.</P>
                <P>
                    Fourth, Commerce again notes that the proposed rule simply explains that companies that primarily buy or sell goods internationally can comprise a “group” of enterprises for specificity purposes. This is consistent with what Commerce has done in other situations. For example, in 
                    <E T="03">Coated Free Sheet Paper from the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination,</E>
                     72 FR 60645 (October 25, 2007), Commerce explained in Comment 14 of the Decision Memorandum that foreign invested enterprises (FIEs) constitute a “group” of enterprises, notwithstanding the fact that they may operate in a variety of industries. Likewise, in a 2010 policy bulletin, available at 
                    <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/policy/PB-10.1.pdf,</E>
                     Commerce explained that state-owned enterprises (SOEs) can constitute a “group” of enterprises. Treating FIEs or SOEs as a group for purposes of the specificity analysis has not led to a discernable increase in the number of CVD investigations. Accordingly, we do not believe that the specificity provision in this proposed regulation will lead to a discernable increase in the number of CVD investigations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24413"/>
                </P>
                <P>All of this information confirms that the proposed regulation is unlikely to dramatically change the total volume of imports subject to CVDs. Rather, it may lead to an uptick in total CVD rates if and only if Commerce determines that there are currency undervaluation subsidies in countries during the relevant time periods. This supports the estimates of economic impact provided above, ranging from approximately $4 million to less than $17 million.</P>
                <P>In sum, based on the reasoning provided above, Commerce is of the view that regulatory guidance on how it will treat subsidy allegations regarding currency undervaluation is no different from existing regulations, for example, addressing the treatment of loans by state-owned banks (19 CFR 351.505), equity infusions (19 CFR 351.507), or exemptions for prior-stage cumulative indirect taxes (19 CFR 351.518).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Economic Impact Assessment—Alternative 2</HD>
                <P>During interagency discussions, an alternative approach to assessing the economic significance of the rule emerged. This alternative approach attempts to determine the likely economic impact of the proposed regulation, based on the overall magnitude of currency-related subsidies provided to all economic actors, regardless of their company-specific features and their engagement (or lack thereof) in unfair trade that injures a domestic industry.</P>
                <P>
                    As discussed in more detail above, Commerce frequently countervails the provision of electricity for less than adequate remuneration in its CVD proceedings involving imports from China; this analysis will use extrapolations from this past experience as a means of exploring the potential impact of currency-related subsidies.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This analysis begins by estimating the electricity portion of Chinese imports' overall subsidy rate, which along with the Chinese portion of worldwide countervailable imports yields an estimate of the countervailing duties associated with Chinese electricity subsidies. The result is then extrapolated, proportionate to estimates of the total relevant subsidies, from the electricity context to currency.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         As discussed below, the fact that currency undervaluation subsidies may be perceived to be available to a variety of industries and enterprises throughout a particular country's economy does not distinguish them from other subsidies that Commerce already countervails today. Furthermore, the larger the relevant sales of a given company, the lower the applicable CVD rate (all else equal). Thus, the magnitude of currency undervaluation based on Step 1 or Step 2 of the benefit analysis is not in and of itself a predictor of the likely CVD rates that Commerce would impose if it were to countervail currency subsidies.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Table 2 reports electricity-associated and total subsidy rates for a random sample of the approximately 35 Chinese countervailable subsidies for which final affirmative determinations were published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     between 2014 and 2018.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Also reported are import values associated with the relevant products, which will be used to calculate an import-weighted average of the electricity portion of overall countervailing duties.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         This sampling approach introduces uncertainty. It is anticipated that a more comprehensive examination of the data (without sampling) may be possible for the analysis of any final rule resulting from this proposal.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Sample of Chinese Subsidy Rates and Total Import Values, 2014 to 2018</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Subsidy rate
                            <LI>(%),</LI>
                            <LI>electricity</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Subsidy rate
                            <LI>(%),</LI>
                            <LI>total</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pre-order
                            <LI>imports</LI>
                            <LI>
                                ($ million) 
                                <SU>k</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Calcium Hypochlorite 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5.34</ENT>
                        <ENT>65.85</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Tool Chests and Cabinets 
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.41</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.03</ENT>
                        <ENT>230</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Stainless Steel Sheet and Strip 
                            <SU>c</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5.62</ENT>
                        <ENT>75.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>312</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Cast Iron Soil Pipe Fittings 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>3.44</ENT>
                        <ENT>34.87</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Hardwood Plywood 
                            <SU>e</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.61</ENT>
                        <ENT>22.98</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>i</SU>
                             464
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Large Diameter Welded Pipe 
                            <SU>f</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>20.06</ENT>
                        <ENT>198.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>29.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Melamine 
                            <SU>g</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>20.06</ENT>
                        <ENT>154.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Cold-Rolled Steel Flat Products 
                            <SU>h</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>20.06</ENT>
                        <ENT>256.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>j</SU>
                             280
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2014-29368-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2014/12/15/2014-29368/calcium-hypochlorite-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china-final-affirmative-countervailing-duty</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2017-25768-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2017/11/29/2017-25768/certain-tool-chests-and-cabinets-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china-final-affirmative-countervailing</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2017-02577-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2017/02/08/2017-02577/countervailing-duty-investigation-of-stainless-steel-sheet-and-strip-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2018-14827-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2018/07/11/2018-14827/cast-iron-soil-pipe-fittings-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china-final-affirmative-countervailing</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>e</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2017-24864-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2017/11/16/2017-24864/countervailing-duty-investigation-of-certain-hardwood-plywood-products-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>f</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2018-13567-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2018/11/14/2018-24805/countervailing-duty-investigation-of-large-diameter-welded-pipe-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>g</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2015-09004-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2015/11/06/2015-28351/melamine-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china-final-affirmative-countervailing-duty-determination</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>h</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/summary/prc/2016-12183-1.pdf; https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2016/05/24/2016-12183/certain-cold-rolled-steel-flat-products-from-the-peoples-republic-of-china-final-affirmative</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>i</SU>
                         Chinese imports are assumed to be 65 percent of the $715.7 million combined total across five countries.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>j</SU>
                         Chinese imports are assumed to be 65 percent of the $431.5 million combined total across two countries.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>k</SU>
                         The pre-order import levels listed in the cited fact sheets will not necessarily equal the imports that occur in future years when CVDs are imposed.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The average, weighted by import value, of the electricity portion of the overall subsidy rate is 5.25 percent.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Customs and Border Protection data cited above indicate that 17 percent of countervailable imports are from China. This, in turn, yields an estimate that $4.7 million (= 5.25 percent × 17 percent × $527 million) in annual countervailing duties are associated with Chinese electricity subsidies.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         The result would be 3.7 percent if it were calculated by dividing the estimated electricity-related subsidies by the estimated total subsidies. This approach is not emphasized because it would require somewhat greater confidence in the import data, which has the limitations noted in the Table 2 footnotes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24414"/>
                <P>
                    Industrial and commercial users in China reportedly received between $7.2 billion and $13.6 billion in annual electricity subsidies in recent years.
                    <E T="51">22 23</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It is unclear how much of that total went to export manufacturing, but given the steel industry's prominence as a recipient of electricity subsidies (per Haley and Haley, 2013), steel trade data are used to develop an estimate of the portion of such subsidies that are associated with exports to the United States.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2018, China exported 66.9 million metric tons of steel, including 734.8 thousand metric tons to the U.S.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Total Chinese steel production was 928.3 million metric tons.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Exports to the U.S. thus represented 0.08 percent (= 0.7348 million / 928.3 million) of Chinese steel production.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If 0.08 percent of Chinese electricity subsidies are associated with steel that is ultimately exported to the United States, then the amount of the associated subsidy would range from approximately $6 million (= 0.08 percent × $7.2 billion) to $11 million (= 0.08 percent × $13.6 billion). The resulting estimates of the ratio of countervailing duty to underlying subsidy would range from 42.8 percent (= $4.7 million / $11 million) to 78.4 percent (= $4.7 million / $6 million).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Stocking, Andrew and Terry Dinan. “China's Growing Energy Demand: Implications for the United States.” Congressional Budget Office Working Paper 2015-05. June 2015. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbo.gov/sites/default/files/114th-congress-2015-2016/workingpaper/50216-China_1.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         Lelyveld, Michael. “China Faulted for Cutting Power Prices.” Radio Free Asia, March 18, 2019, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.rfa.org/english/commentaries/energy_watch/china-faulted-for-cutting-power-prices-03182019111315.html</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Haley, Usha C.V. and George T. Haley. “How Chinese Subsidies Changed the World.” Harvard Business Review, April 25, 2013, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://hbr.org/ 2013/04/how-chinese-subsidies-changed</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.trade.gov/ steel/countries/pdfs/exports-china.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         https://www.worldsteel.org/en/dam/jcr:dcd93336-2756-486e-aa7f-64f6be8e6b1e/2018%2520global%2520crude%2520steel%2520production.pdf.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Uncertainty is introduced into this analysis by a limited ability to account for the possibility that the U.S. imports steel that is of relatively high value per ton.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The IMF reports 3.0 percent undervaluation of Chinese currency on average in 2017.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With U.S. imports from China valued at $540 billion, the associated subsidy would be approximately $16 billion (= 3.0 percent × $540 billion). However, this estimate does not account for behavior change (which could include changes in import-export activity, subsidy activity, or both). Toward that end, it is noted that Table 3 reports data on pre-order countervailable imports from China and the rest of the world for which final affirmative determinations were made between November 2018 and April 2019. The Chinese portion consists of 65 percent of the total. As noted previously, CBP data indicate that 17 percent of (post-order) countervailable imports are from China, thus potentially indicating that behavior change, especially in the Chinese context, can reduce CVD collection by nearly three-quarters.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For this reason, the $16 billion subsidy estimate is reduced to $4 billion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         The IMF reports an uncertainty range from 13 percent undervaluation to 7 percent overvaluation; see the “Staff-Assessed REER Gap” columns of Table 2 of the External Sector Report 2018, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.imf.org/en/Publications/ESR/Issues/2018/07/19/2018-external-sector-report</E>
                        . The Peterson Institute for International Economics (PIIE), another major third-party source of information on currency valuation, only reports a point estimate, which presently indicates that Chinese currency is overvalued; see the “Change in REER (percent) Change in Simulation” column of Table 2 of PIIE's report, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://piie.com/system/files/documents/pb17-31.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Moreover, U.S. imports of cold-rolled steel from Vietnam rose by nearly $200 million subsequent to the imposition, in 2015, of anti-dumping charges on Chinese cold-rolled steel products (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.commerce.gov/news/press-releases/2018/05/us-department-commerce-issues-affirmative-final-circumvention-rulings)</E>
                        . If it is assumed that nearly all of this increase consisted of Chinese steel funneled through Vietnam and that pre-order U.S.-bound Chinese exports of cold-rolled steel were $280 million (as shown in Table 2), then this provides further evidence of behavior change reducing duty collection by over 70 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Pre-Order Countervailable Imports, Final Determinations from November 2018 to April 2019</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pre-order
                            <LI>countervailable</LI>
                            <LI>imports from</LI>
                            <LI>China</LI>
                            <LI>($ million)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pre-order
                            <LI>countervailable</LI>
                            <LI>imports from</LI>
                            <LI>the rest of</LI>
                            <LI>the world</LI>
                            <LI>($ million)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Large Diameter Welded Pipe 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>29.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>294.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet 
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>897.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Rubber Bands 
                            <SU>c</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Plastic Decorative Ribbon 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>22.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Large Diameter Welded Pipe 
                            <SU>e</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>398.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Cast Iron Soil Pipe 
                            <SU>f</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>11.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Rubber Bands 
                            <SU>g</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Steel Wheels 
                            <SU>h</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>388</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Laminated Woven Sacks 
                            <SU>i</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>21.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Glycine 
                            <SU>j</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-multiple-large-diameter-welded-pipe-ad-cvd-final-110718.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-prc-alloy-aluminum-sheet-ad-cvd-final-110718.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-prc-rubber-bands-ad-cvd-final-111418.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-prc-plastic-decorative-ribbon-ad-cvd-final-122118.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>e</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-multiple-large-diameter-welded-pipe-ad-cvd-final-022119.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>f</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-prc-cast-iron-soil-pipe-ad-cvd-final-022519.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>g</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-thailand-rubber-bands-ad-cvd-final-030119.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>h</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-prc-steel-wheels-ad-cvd-final-032219.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>i</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-vietnam-laminated-woven-sacks-ad-cvd-final-040519.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>j</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/download/factsheets/factsheet-multiple-glycine-ad-cvd-final-042519.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Multiplying the $4 billion estimate by the 42.8- or 78.4-percent CVD-to-subsidy ratios calculated in the electricity context yields an estimated range of between $1.71 billion and $3.14 billion in new countervailing duties collected on Chinese imports.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This estimation approach extrapolates from electricity subsidies to a new policy 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24415"/>
                    context involving currency undervaluation. A key assumption underlying this analysis is that, despite being different types of subsidies, the patterns of injury findings and company-specific features are such that the ratio of CVDs ultimately collected to subsidies provided (where subsidy is defined in its general, rather than legal, sense) would be similar in the currency context to what has been historically experienced with regard to electricity. Public comments are welcome on the appropriateness of this extrapolation and as regards evidence or methodological suggestions that would allow for refinement of the analytic approach.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         This outcome would, in turn, lead to increased prices for U.S. consumers of the relevant imported goods.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In sum, based on the reasoning provided above, Commerce is of the view that regulatory guidance on how it will treat subsidy allegations regarding currency undervaluation is no different from existing regulations, for example, addressing the treatment of issues such as electricity subsidies in the extended example, loans by state-owned banks (19 CFR 351.505), equity infusions (19 CFR 351.507), or exemptions for prior-stage cumulative indirect taxes (19 CFR 351.518). Nevertheless, the topic of currency undervaluation often garners wider attention, and we recognize that some argue that any action to address currency exchange practices will impact currency markets. These impacts are inherently indirect and unpredictable, and would not necessarily be a factor in the decision making of the agency to pursue individual cases of subsidy allegations that necessarily flow from the statutory criteria, as clarified in this proposed rulemaking. Nevertheless, if that were to turn out to be true, the indirect economic impact of this rule could potentially be greater than the historically based estimates summarized in this section. This is an area of uncertainty in this analysis and accordingly, we welcome comments on whether this proposed rule addressing the “benefit” and “specificity” elements of the countervailing duty law will have such an impact.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classifications</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866</HD>
                <P>For the reasons described above regarding the potential economic impacts of this rule, and because of the potential, depending on the flow of additional activity in this area, for this rule to have a relatively concentrated effect on specific markets, OMB has determined that this proposed rule is economically significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13771</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13771, titled Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, was issued on January 30, 2017. The designation of any final rule that results from this proposal, as an E.O. 13771 regulatory or deregulatory action, will be informed by feedback received during the public comment period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule contains no new collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and will, if finalized, be transmitted to the Congress and to the Comptroller General for review in accordance with such provisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132, dated August 4, 1999 (64 FR 43255 (August 10, 1999)). </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Chief Counsel for Regulation for the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that the proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities. A summary of the need for, objectives of and legal basis for this rule is provided in the preamble and is not repeated here. The factual basis for this certification is as follows.</P>
                <P>The entities upon which this rulemaking could have an impact include foreign governments, foreign exporters and producers, some of whom are affiliated with U.S. companies, and U.S. importers. Commerce currently does not have information on the number of directly-impacted entities that would be considered small under the Small Business Administration's size standards for small businesses in the relevant industries. However, some of the affected entities may be considered small entities under the appropriate industry size standards. Additionally, although this proposed rule may indirectly impact small entities that are parties to individual countervailing duty proceedings, we do not expect that it will have a significant economic impact on any such entities.</P>
                <P>The proposed action is merely a promulgation of the rules and standards Commerce will apply in analyzing a potential subsidy resulting from currency undervaluation. Any direct burden resulting from this proposed rule will fall on foreign governments and foreign exporters, which may be required to report information regarding a potential currency subsidy to Commerce. Therefore, the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities, as that term is defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. For this reason, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required, and one has not been prepared.</P>
                <P>We recognize that action subsequent to this rule could also result in indirect burdens to U.S. importers, which may be required to pay increased duties as a result of determinations made in individual CVD proceedings that include allegations of specific currency undervaluation. However, because even the products and industries that will be the subject of such case-by-case determinations cannot be known in advance, it is impossible to determine the number of small entities that might be impacted by subsequent CVD proceedings that may involve allegations of the sort that are the subject of this rule and so may be affected by this rule.</P>
                <P>Commerce invites comment on this certification.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 19 CFR Part 351</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Antidumping, Business and industry, Cheese, Confidential business information, Countervailing duties, Freedom of information, Investigations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 23, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey I. Kessler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated, 19 CFR part 351 is proposed to be amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 351—ANTIDUMPING AND COUNTERVAILING DUTIES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 19 CFR part 351 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 1202 note; 19 U.S.C. 1303 note; 19 U.S.C. 1671 
                        <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                         and 19 U.S.C. 3538.
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>
                    2. In § 351.502, redesignate paragraphs (c) through (f) as paragraphs 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24416"/>
                    (d) through (g), and add paragraph (c) to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 351.502 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Specificity of domestic subsidies.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Traded goods sector.</E>
                         In determining whether a subsidy is being provided to a “group” of enterprises or industries within the meaning of section 771(5A)(D) of the Act, the Secretary may consider enterprises that primarily buy or sell goods internationally to comprise such a group.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. In § 351.503, add paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 351.503</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Benefit.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Special rule for currency undervaluation.</E>
                         In determining whether a benefit is conferred when a firm exchanges United States dollars for the domestic currency of a country under a unified exchange rate system, the Secretary normally will consider a benefit to be conferred when the domestic currency of the country is undervalued in relation to the United States dollar. In applying this rule, the Secretary will request that the Secretary of the Treasury provide Treasury's evaluation and conclusion as to whether the currency of a country is undervalued as a result of government action on the exchange rate and the extent of any such undervaluation.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11197 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <CFR>24 CFR Part 982</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-5928-N-02]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Continuation of Demonstration To Test Proposed New Method of Assessing the Physical Conditions of Voucher-Assisted Housing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Demonstration continuation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Through this document, HUD solicits comment on the continuation of a demonstration designed to test the new method of assessing the physical condition of housing assisted by HUD vouchers (voucher-assisted housing). The original announcement of the Demonstration was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on May 4, 2016. In the Joint Explanatory Statement accompanying the act appropriating funds for HUD in Fiscal Year (FY 2016), Congress directed HUD to implement a single inspection protocol for public housing and voucher units. The continuation of this demonstration is necessary to meet that requirement. The demonstration commenced the process for implementing that single inspection protocol.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments Due Date: July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments to the Office of the General Counsel, Regulations Division, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Communications should refer to the above docket number. There are two methods for submitting public comments.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">1. Submission of Comments by Mail.</E>
                         Comments may be submitted by mail to the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Due to security measures at all federal agencies, however, submission of comments by mail often results in delayed delivery. To ensure timely receipt of comments, HUD recommends that comments submitted by mail be submitted at least two weeks in advance of the public comment deadline.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">2. Electronic Submission of Comments.</E>
                         Interested persons may submit comments electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         HUD strongly encourages commenters to submit comments electronically. Electronic submission of comments allows the commenter maximum time to prepare and submit a comment, ensures timely receipt by HUD, and enables HUD to make comments immediately available to the public. Comments submitted electronically through the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website can be viewed by other commenters and interested members of the public. Commenters should follow instructions provided on that site to submit comments electronically.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> To receive consideration as public comments, comments must be submitted using one of the two methods specified above. Again, all submissions must refer to the docket number and title of the notice.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">No Facsimile Comments.</E>
                     Facsimile (fax) comments are not acceptable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Inspection of Comments.</E>
                     All comments and communications submitted to HUD will be available, for public inspection and copying between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. weekdays at the above address. Due to security measures at the HUD Headquarters building, an advance appointment to review the public comments must be scheduled by calling the Regulations Division at (202) 708-3055 (this is not a toll-free number). Copies of all comments submitted are available for inspection and downloading at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>George Forbes, Inspection Standards and Data—Vouchers Division, Real Estate Assessment Center, Office of Public and Indian Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 550 12th Street SW, Suite 100, Washington, DC 20410-4000; telephone number (202) 475-8735 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may contact this number via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Structure of the Notice</HD>
                <P>This document discusses the background, goals, and comments received during the demonstration and the reasons for continuing the demonstration. Section II provides background on the origins of the Uniform Physical Condition Standards for Vouchers (UPCS-V) and progress of the demonstration. Section III discusses the impact of comments on the test plan for the demonstration and reframed goals based on those comments. Section IV describes what HUD is looking to accomplish in the next phase of the demonstration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Information on the Housing Choice Voucher program and the current Housing Quality Standards (HQS), codified at 24 CFR 982.401, was presented in the May 4, 2016 Demonstration Notice.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The HUD Office of Inspector General (OIG) released several audit reports and evaluations identifying weakness in the current HCV inspection program.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, the Senate Committee on Appropriations issued Report 113-045, accompanying the Senate bill for HUD's 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24417"/>
                    2014 appropriations, directing HUD to “. . . move to a consistent inspection standard across housing assistance programs, as well as [for] oversight of Section 8 units.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the Joint Explanatory Statement accompanying the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2016, Public Law 114-113, approved December 18, 2015, Congress again directed HUD to implement a single inspection protocol for public housing and voucher units.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on these findings and directives, HUD commenced the development of the UPCS-V inspection standard. Congress provided HUD with funding to improve its oversight of the HCV inspection program and to move the inspection standard for the HCV program to a standard consistent with other affordable housing programs, incorporating modern health and safety practices.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Notice of Demonstration to Test Proposed New Method of Assessing the Physical Conditions of Voucher-Assisted Housing, 81 FR 26759 (May 4, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         HUD OIG Reports: 2018-PH-1002; 2017-PH-1007; 2016-AT-1005; 2015-CH-1007; 2014-NY-1003; 2012-BO-1005.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         See page 100 of 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CRPT-113srpt45/pdf/CRPT-113srpt45.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See page 41 of Division L of the FY2016 Joint Explanatory Statement. See 
                        <E T="03">https://rules.house.gov/bill/114/hr-2029-sa.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See Title II of Division K of the FY2015 Joint Explanatory Statement. See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.congress.gov/congressional-record/2014/12/11/house-section/article/H9307-1.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>HUD is developing a single inspection standard for all units under the Public Housing, Housing Choice Voucher (HCV) and Multifamily programs, called National Standards for the Physical Inspection of Real Estate (NSPIRE). NSPIRE will leverage the infrastructure of UPCS-V to demonstrate, test, and validate NSPIRE protocols. HUD envisions NSPIRE being used for all housing inspections.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Demonstration Progress</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the demonstration, HUD trained numerous public housing agencies (PHAs) and continues to train PHAs on a regular basis. Currently over 200 PHAs are actively participating in the program. This participation has been critical to the development of a viable inspection protocol. Active PHA participation in the demonstration allows HUD to conduct analysis on a statistically valid number of inspections using the UPCS-V Protocol version 2.5.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition to training on the protocol and inspection process, HUD provided devices to some demonstration participants to mitigate the potential cost of off-the-shelf devices.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/sites/documents/UPCSV-PROTOCOLREV.PDF.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    UPCS-V Protocol version 2.5 is currently active in the field. The much improved, streamlined, and alphabetized Defect Dictionary of UPCS-V Beta was drafted while version 2.5 was active in the field. In order to validate the changes made to the inspection protocol, HUD must field test UPCS-V Beta over the next two years. Further, HUD hopes to increase demonstration participation to gather more representative and informative data. HUD continues to recruit PHAs to participate. Contact 
                    <E T="03">ISDV@HUD.GOV</E>
                     for more information on becoming a demonstration participant. HUD welcomes additional PHA participation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Impact of Comments and Demonstration Goals</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact of Comments</HD>
                <P>The initial demonstration was tailored to allow a variety of PHAs to participate. Many PHAs commented they wanted to participate but did not meet the initial selection criteria of the original demonstration notice, including PHA size, geographical spread, and/or number of inspections per week. HUD considered these comments and deemed it beneficial to allow some PHAs to participate in the demonstration that did not meet the initial criteria because it allowed stress testing in diverse environments and provided a more representative sample of inspections and issues. HUD also agreed with commenters with respect to allowing the participation of PHAs who use contract inspectors to conduct their inspections. Public comments supported the expansion of the selection criteria.</P>
                <P>As a result of the ongoing demonstration, HUD developed, tested, and fielded a mobile inspection application that has received increasingly positive feedback from PHAs. PHA feedback has been critical throughout the demonstration, resulting in a significantly improved user experience for PHAs and increased data flow to HUD.</P>
                <P>
                    HUD's published list of Life-Threatening Conditions was an area of concern for several commenters.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As many commenters noted, the expansion of UPCS-V will be easier to adopt by PHAs if the existing management applications is an integrated UPCS-V Protocol; to that end, HUD formatted the system to allow stakeholders to familiarize themselves with the progress of HUD's software development.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Housing Opportunity Through Modernization Act of 2016 (HOTMA)—Housing Quality Standard (HQS) Implementation Guidance [Notice PIH 2017-20 (HA)], 
                        <E T="03">HUD.GOV</E>
                         (Oct. 27, 2017). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Housing Opportunity Through Modernization Act of 2016: Implementation of Various Section 8 Voucher Provisions, 82 FR 5458 (Jan. 18, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/program_offices/public_indian_housing/reac/isdv/it/vedga.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Demonstration Goals</HD>
                <P>Decent, safe, and sanitary housing is the objective of National Housing Policy, 42 U.S.C. 12702, and the primary goal of UPCS-V. HUD seeks to provide PHAs with an inspection protocol that gives them insight into the housing quality of subsidized units so they can use data-driven decisions to guide their program administration. The protocol itself is objective, accurate, and consistent in order to realize the goals of insightful data, which ensures PHAs provide decent, safe, and sanitary housing.</P>
                <P>
                    The three components of the demonstration, (1) evaluation of the revised inspection model (UPCS-V), (2) data standardization and information exchange, and (3) insight for improvement have made significant progress during the demonstration.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     UPCS-V Beta is awaiting validation in the field. By standardizing inspection procedures with participating PHAs, HUD seeks to provide access to incisive inspection data unavailable before. HUD's work with software vendors represents the first step in honing data standardization and information exchange to facilitate PHA access to meaningful data metrics. The third component of the demonstration provides insight for improvement. HUD's increasing capacity to analyze data provides PHAs with insight needed to improve their detailed understanding of the condition of voucher-assisted housing available through their program.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         81 FR 26760 (May 4, 2016) (the three components of the Demonstration were originally identified as: Evaluation of Revised Inspection Model (UPCS-V); Data Standardization and Information Exchange; and Oversight and Performance Improvement).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. The Next Phase of the Demonstration</HD>
                <P>To gather additional data and allow increased PHA participation, while avoiding the burden of defaulting to their original inspection models by current participants, HUD recognized the need to continue the UPCS-V Demonstration.</P>
                <P>
                    HUD welcomes input from every sector of the stakeholder population including tenants, landlords, and 3rd party software developers. HUD received positive feedback with respect to the streamlined and alphabetized defect dictionary of UPCS-V Beta. The current inspection application has significant improvements based on user feedback. HUD's software development team continues to communicate with stakeholders. These achievements are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24418"/>
                    the groundwork for successfully modernizing the voucher-assisted housing inspection standard.
                </P>
                <P>HUD must consider several factors of significance in evaluating UPCS-V for successful completion. Does the protocol meet PHA needs? Is UPCS-V clear, accurate, objective, and consistent? Is it practical for all inspectors, from entry level to experienced? Does it provide valuable insight to PHAs, and is it cost effective for them to use? Inspection application development, training, and user acceptance testing are all critical components of providing stakeholders a quality product. The demonstration must encompass all these necessary components to provide stakeholders with a tool that meets their needs. To meet PHA needs and thoroughly address the above questions, a two-year continuation of the UPCS-V demonstration is necessary.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 8, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>R. Hunter Kurtz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11059 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2019-0296]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA11</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Regulated Navigation Area; Lake Washington, Seattle, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is proposing to establish a permanent regulated navigation area for certain waters of Lake Washington. The regulated navigation area is intended to protect personnel and vessels from potential hazards created by excessive vessel wake prior to and following high traffic Seafair events. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2019-0296 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for further instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Petty Officer Amy Hamilton, Sector Puget Sound Waterways Management, Coast Guard; telephone 206-217-6051, 
                        <E T="03">SectorPugetSoundWWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§  Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background, Purpose, and Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard was notified by the Mercer Island Police Department of hazardous conditions associated with increased vessel and swimmer congestion after high traffic Seafair marine events, which can make routine navigation for persons and vessels unsafe. The Seafair event draws an extraordinary amount of boaters and persons to the waterway to observe several high traffic events, such as the Seafair Hydroplane Races and Seafair Air Shows. The wakes created by transiting vessels near the vicinity of vessels moored to the log boom during high traffic events pose a safety concern to vessels and swimmers in the area. Coast Guard action is needed to restrict vessel movement prior to and after Seafair events where significant marine traffic endanger the safety of swimmers and vessels proximate to the log boom.</P>
                <P>The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of persons and vessels on the navigable waters of Lake Washington within the regulated navigation area from excessive vessel wake occurring prior to and after Seafair events. The Coast Guard is proposing this rulemaking under authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034 (previously 33 U.S.C. 1231).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>The District Commander is proposing to establish a regulated navigation area prior to and after Seafair activities, which usually occur during the last week of July and the first two weeks of August. The regulated navigation area would cover all navigable waters within Lake Washington south of the Interstate 90 floating Bridge and north of a line between Bailey Peninsula and Mercer Island. The duration of the regulated navigation area is intended to protect personnel and vessels in these navigable waters from excessive wake associated with vessels before and after high traffic Seafair events. Vessels transiting the area will be required to create minimum wake at speeds of less than 7 miles per hour, unless a higher minimum speed is necessary to maintain bare steerageway. Enforcement periods for this rule will occur daily prior to and immediately following Seafair activities. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.</P>
                <P>This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration and time-of-day of the regulated navigation area. Vessel traffic will be able to transit through the regulated navigation area, and the regulation will only impact a small designated area of Lake Washington for less than three days. Moreover, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the regulated navigation area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24419"/>
                </P>
                <P>While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the regulated navigation area may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.</P>
                <P>
                    If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) explaining why you think it qualifies and how and to what degree this rule would economically affect it.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section. The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this proposed rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.1D, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves a regulated navigation area enforced annually for a total of less than 3 days that would restrict vessel speed to a minimum wake of less than 7 miles per hour. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Protest Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section to coordinate protest activities so that your message can be received without jeopardizing the safety or security of people, places, or vessels.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.</P>
                <P>
                    We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If your material cannot be submitted using 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     contact the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document for alternate instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and will include any personal information you have provided. For more about privacy and the docket, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/privacyNotice.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and can be viewed by following that website's instructions. Additionally, if you go to the online docket and sign up for email alerts, you will be notified when comments are posted or a final rule is published.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard is proposing to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:  </AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.1341 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 165.1341</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Regulated Navigation Area; Lake Washington; Seattle, WA.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Location.</E>
                         The following area is a regulated navigation area: All waters of Lake Washington south of the Interstate 90 Floating West Bound Bridge and north of the points between Bailey Peninsula at 47°33′14.4″ N, 122°14′47.3″ and Mercer Island at 47°33′24.5″ N, 122°13′52.5″ W.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                         As used in this section, 
                        <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                         means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24420"/>
                        coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Puget Sound (COTP) in the enforcement of the regulated navigation zone.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                         All vessels and persons transiting the regulated navigation area described in paragraph (a) of this section must proceed at a speed which creates minimum wake, 7 miles per hour or less, unless a higher minimum speed is necessary to maintain bare steerageway.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Enforcement periods.</E>
                         This section will be enforced annually immediately before and after Seafair activities which usually occurs during the last week in July and the first two weeks of August. The event will be one week or less in duration and the specific dates and times of the enforcement periods will be published in a notice of enforcement in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>D.G. Throop,</NAME>
                    <TITLE> Commander, RADM, U.S. Coast Guard, Thirteenth Coast Guard District.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11006 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R10-OAR-2018-0766, FRL-9994-27-Region 10]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; ID: Infrastructure Requirements for the 2015 Ozone Standard; Reopening of Comment Period</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; reopening of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is reopening the public comment period on the proposed rule “Air Plan Approval; ID: Infrastructure Requirements for the 2015 Ozone Standard” published April 9, 2019. Whenever a new or revised National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) is promulgated, the Clean Air Act requires each State to submit a plan for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the standard, commonly referred to as infrastructure requirements. The EPA proposes to approve the Idaho State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted on September 27, 2018, as meeting infrastructure requirements for the 2015 ozone NAAQS. Due to an administrative error, documents relevant to the proposed action were left out of the docket during the initial comment period from April 9, 2019 to May 9, 2019. Thus, the EPA is providing an additional 30 days for public comment on the proposed action.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The comment date for the proposed rule published April 9, 2019 at 84 FR 14067, is reopened. Comments must be received on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2018-0766, at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from regulations.gov. The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information the disclosure of which is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Matthew Jentgen at (206) 553-0340, or 
                        <E T="03">jentgen.matthew@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On April 9, 2019, the EPA published a proposed rulemaking to approve the Idaho State Implementation Plan, submitted on September 27, 2018, as meeting infrastructure requirements for the 2015 ozone NAAQS (84 FR 14067). Documents relevant to the proposed action were inadvertently left out of the docket during the initial comment period. In response, the EPA is reopening the public comment period.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 15, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Chris Hladick,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 10.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10958 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R04-OAR-2018-0666; FRL-9994-13-Region 4]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; South Carolina; 2008 8-Hour Ozone Interstate Transport</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency is proposing to approve South Carolina's June 18, 2018, State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission pertaining to the “good neighbor” provision of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) for the 2008 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). The good neighbor provision requires each state's implementation plan to address the interstate transport of air pollution in amounts that contribute significantly to nonattainment, or interfere with maintenance, of a NAAQS in any other state. In this action, EPA is proposing to determine that South Carolina's SIP contains adequate provisions to prohibit emissions within the State from contributing significantly to nonattainment or interfering with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2018-0666 at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24421"/>
                        <E T="03">http://www2.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Evan Adams, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Adams can also be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9009 and via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">adams.evan@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 12, 2008, EPA promulgated an ozone NAAQS that revised the levels of the primary and secondary 8-hour ozone standards from 0.08 parts per million (ppm) to 0.075 ppm.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     73 FR 16436 (March 27, 2008). Pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(1), within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS (or shorter, if EPA prescribes), states must submit SIPs that meet the applicable requirements of section 110(a)(2). EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. One of the structural requirements of section 110(a)(2) is section 110(a)(2)(D)(i), which generally requires SIPs to contain adequate provisions to prohibit in-state emissions activities from having certain adverse air quality effects on neighboring states due to interstate transport of air pollution. There are four sub-elements, or “prongs,” within section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) of the CAA. CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), also known as the “good neighbor” provision, requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from emitting any air pollutant in amounts that will contribute significantly to nonattainment, or interfere with maintenance, of the NAAQS in another state. The two provisions of this section are referred to as prong 1 (significant contribution to nonattainment) and prong 2 (interference with maintenance). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires SIPs to contain adequate provisions to prohibit emissions that will interfere with measures required to be included in the applicable implementation plan for any other state under part C to prevent significant deterioration of air quality (prong 3) or to protect visibility (prong 4). This proposed action addresses only prongs 1 and 2 of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i). All other infrastructure SIP elements for South Carolina for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS were addressed in separate rulemakings.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         0.075 ppm equates to 75 parts per billion (ppb).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         83 FR 48239 (September 24, 2018); 81 FR 56512 (August 22, 2016); 80 FR 48255 (August 12, 2015); 80 FR 14019 (March 18, 2015); and 80 FR 11136 (March 2, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. State Submittal</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 18, 2018, the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SC DHEC) provided a SIP submittal 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to EPA to address the interstate transport requirements of sections 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the South Carolina SIP. South Carolina made this submission to certify that its SIP contains adequate provisions to prohibit emissions activities within the State which will contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state, and therefore, adequately addresses the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     South Carolina's certification is based on air quality monitoring and modeling data, SIP-approved and state provisions regulating emissions of ozone precursors (volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and nitrogen oxides (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    )) within the State, and an analysis of recent trends in emissions of ozone precursors (VOCs and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ) from South Carolina sources.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         On October 24, 2011, South Carolina submitted a state implementation plan revision to address the 110(a)(1) and (2) requirements of the CAA including section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) with respect to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. On April 16, 2013, the state withdrew its good neighbor SIP submission. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         August 29, 2016 Memorandum from Gobeail McKinley re “Status of 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) SIPs for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS,” available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document?D=EPA-HQ-OAR-2015-0500-0509;</E>
                         July 17, 2012 South Carolina SIP Submittal for the 2008 8-hour Ozone Infrastructure Requirements, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document?D=EPA-R04-OAR-2012-0694-0002.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         On July 13, 2015, EPA published a final rulemaking that finalized findings of failure to submit with regard to the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for 24 states, including South Carolina, with respect to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         80 FR 39961. The findings of failure to submit established a two-year deadline for EPA to promulgate a FIP to address the interstate transport SIP requirements pertaining to significant contribution to nonattainment and interference with maintenance unless, prior to EPA promulgating a FIP, the state submits, and EPA approves, a SIP that meets these requirements. Additional background on the findings of failure to submit—including EPA's findings related to South Carolina—can be found in the preamble to the final rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         80 FR 39961.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. EPA's Analysis Related to 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone NAAQS</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA developed technical information and related analyses to assist states with meeting section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requirements for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS through SIPs and, as appropriate, to provide backstop federal implementation plans (FIPs) in the event that states failed to submit approvable SIPs.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 26, 2016, EPA took steps to effectuate this backstop role with respect to eastern states 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by finalizing an update to the 2011 Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (2011 CSAPR) ozone season program that addresses good neighbor obligations for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (CSAPR Update).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The CSAPR Update establishes statewide NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     budgets for certain affected electricity generating units in 22 eastern states for the May through September ozone season to reduce the interstate transport of ozone pollution in the eastern United States, and thereby help downwind states and communities meet and maintain the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 74504 (October 26, 2016). The rule also determined that emissions from 14 states (including South Carolina) will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 ozone NAAQS in downwind states. Accordingly, EPA determined that it need not require further emission reductions from sources in those states to address the good neighbor provision as to the 2008 ozone NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The EPA issued a Notice of Data Availability on August 4, 2015, requesting comment on the modeling platform and air quality modeling results that were used for the proposed CSAPR Update. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         80 FR 46271.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         For purposes of the CSAPR Update, “eastern” states refer to all contiguous states fully east of the Rocky Mountains (thus not including the mountain states of Montana, Wyoming, Colorado, or New Mexico).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Federal Implementation Plans: Interstate Transport of Fine Particulate Matter and Ozone and Correction of SIP Approvals, Final Rule (2011 CSAPR), 76 FR 48208 (August 8, 2011); Cross-State Air Pollution Rule Update for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS (CSAPR Update), 81 FR 74504 (October 26, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The CSAPR Update used the same framework that EPA used when developing the original 2011 CSAPR, EPA's interstate transport rule addressing the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS as well as the 1997 and 2006 fine particulate matter (PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    ) NAAQS. This framework established the following four-step process to address the requirements of the good neighbor provision: (1) Identify downwind areas, referred to as receptors, that are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24422"/>
                    expected to have problems attaining or maintaining the NAAQS; (2) determine which upwind states impact these identified problems in amounts sufficient to “link” them to the downwind air quality problems; (3) for states linked to downwind air quality problems, identify upwind emissions, if any, that will significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of a NAAQS; and (4) reduce the identified upwind emissions for states that are found to have emissions that will significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the NAAQS downwind by adopting permanent and enforceable measures in a FIP or SIP. In the CSAPR Update, EPA used this four-step framework to determine whether states in the east will significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of downwind air quality. As explained below, the CSAPR Update's four-step analysis supports the conclusions provided in SC DHEC's June 18, 2018, interstate transport SIP submittal for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS that the state will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the standard in other states.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the technical analysis supporting the CSAPR Update, EPA used detailed air quality analyses to determine where projected nonattainment or maintenance receptors would be, at step 1 of the four-step framework, and whether emissions from an eastern state contribute to downwind air quality problems at those projected nonattainment or maintenance receptors, in step 2 of the framework. Specifically, EPA determined whether each state's contributing emissions were at or above a specific threshold. EPA determined that one percent was an appropriate threshold to use in this analysis because there were important, even if relatively small, contributions to identified nonattainment and maintenance receptors from multiple upwind states at that threshold.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 74504 (October 26, 2016). For the CSAPR Update, EPA applied an air quality screening threshold of 0.75 ppb (equivalent to one percent of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS of 75 ppb) to identify linkages between upwind states and the downwind nonattainment and maintenance receptors. States with impacts below the one-percent threshold were considered not to contribute to identified downwind nonattainment and maintenance receptors and therefore would not contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the standard in those downwind areas. If a state's impact was equal to or exceeded the one-percent threshold, that state was considered “linked” to the downwind nonattainment or maintenance receptor(s) and the state's emissions were further evaluated, taking into account both air quality and cost considerations, to determine whether any emissions reductions might be necessary to address the state's obligation pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         EPA's analysis showed that the one-percent threshold generally captured a high percentage of the total pollution transport affecting downwind states. EPA's analysis further showed that the application of a lower threshold would result in relatively modest increases in the overall percentage of ozone transport pollution captured, while the use of higher thresholds would result in a relatively large reduction in the overall percentage of ozone pollution transport captured relative to the levels captured at one percent at the majority of the receptors. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 74504 (October 26, 2016) and “Air Quality Modeling Final Rule Technical Support Document for the Final CSAPR Update” (CSAPR Update Modeling TSD), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/2017-05/documents/aq_modeling_tsd_final_csapr_update.pdf.</E>
                         This approach is consistent with the use of a one-percent threshold to identify those states “linked” to air quality problems with respect to the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS in the original CSAPR rulemaking, wherein EPA noted that there are adverse health impacts associated with ambient ozone even at low levels. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         76 FR 48208 (August 8, 2011); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         “Air Quality Modeling Final Rule Technical Support Document” for the 2011 CSAPR, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document?D=EPA-HQ-OAR-2009-0491-4140.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed in the final rulemaking for the CSAPR Update, the air quality modeling contained in EPA's technical analysis: (1) Identified locations in the U.S. where EPA anticipated nonattainment or maintenance issues in 2017 for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (these were identified as nonattainment or maintenance receptors, respectively), and (2) quantified the projected contributions from emissions from upwind states to downwind ozone concentrations at the receptors in 2017. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 74504 (October 26, 2016). This modeling used the Comprehensive Air Quality Model with Extensions (CAMx version 6.11) to model the 2011 base year and the 2017 future base case emissions scenarios to identify projected nonattainment and maintenance sites with respect to the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in 2017. EPA used nationwide state-level ozone source apportionment modeling (the CAMx Ozone Source Apportionment Technology/Anthropogenic Precursor Culpability Analysis technique) to quantify the contribution of 2017 base case NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC emissions from all sources in each state to the 2017 projected receptors. The air quality model runs were performed for a modeling domain that covers the 48 contiguous United States, the District of Columbia, and adjacent portions of Canada and Mexico. The updated modeling data released to support the final CSAPR Update for South Carolina inform the Agency's analysis of upwind state linkages to downwind air quality problems for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     CSAPR Update Modeling Technical Support Document (TSD).
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA's air quality modeling for the final CSAPR Update indicated that South Carolina's largest impact on any projected downwind nonattainment receptor in 2017 was 0.15 ppb and South Carolina's largest contribution to any projected downwind maintenance-only site in 2017 was 0.30 ppb.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These values are below the one percent screening threshold of 0.75 ppb, and therefore there are no identified linkages between South Carolina and 2017 downwind projected nonattainment and maintenance sites.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         CSAPR Update Modeling TSD at Table 4-2, section 4.4 and Appendix D.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the CSAPR Update addressed the decision from the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit in 
                    <E T="03">EME Homer City Generation, L.P.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     795 F.3d 118 (D.C. Cir. 2015), remanding for reconsideration certain state ozone season NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emission budgets from the original CSAPR (including South Carolina's) with respect to the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPA removed South Carolina from the CSAPR ozone season trading program beginning in 2017.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Among other things, the decision remanded CSAPR without vacatur for reconsideration of the EPA's emission budgets for certain states. The court declared invalid the CSAPR Phase 2 NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         ozone season emission budgets of 11 states, including South Carolina, holding that those budgets over-control with respect to the downwind air quality problems to which those states were linked for the 1997 ozone NAAQS. Because the 2008 ozone NAAQS is more stringent than the 1997 ozone NAAQS, the CSAPR Update modeling necessarily indicates that South Carolina is also not linked to any remaining air quality concerns with respect to the 1997 ozone standard for which the states were regulated in the original CSAPR. For South Carolina, EPA therefore relieved sources in the State from the obligation to comply with the NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         ozone season trading program in response to the remand.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 74523-74524.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What is EPA's analysis of the South Carolina submittal?</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned in section I, South Carolina's June 18, 2018, submittal certifies that emission activities from the State will not contribute significantly to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24423"/>
                    8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state for the following reasons: (1) Modeling conducted by EPA in support of the CSAPR Update indicates that South Carolina's impact on any downwind receptor is far less than 1 percent of the standard; (2) NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC precursor emissions and monitored ozone concentrations in South Carolina have decreased since 2002; and (3) South Carolina has in place both SIP-approved and state provisions that regulate ozone precursors in the State. Based on an assessment of this information, EPA proposes to approve South Carolina's SIP submission because it has adequate provisions to ensure that emissions from sources within the State will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in any other state.
                </P>
                <P>
                    South Carolina's submittal assessed EPA's CSAPR Update modeling, which showed South Carolina's impact on downwind receptors for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS as far less than one percent of the standard (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     0.75 ppb). South Carolina cites to EPA's August 2016 CSAPR Update Modeling TSD where the modeling indicated that South Carolina's largest impact on any projected downwind nonattainment receptor in 2017 was 0.15 ppb and the largest impact on any projected downwind maintenance-only site was 0.30 ppb, both of which are below 0.75 ppb, the one percent threshold for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. Therefore, EPA concluded in the CSAPR Update that South Carolina's emissions will not contribute to downwind nonattainment and maintenance receptors and therefore, did not finalize a FIP that required additional emission reductions from South Carolina. Accordingly, in the CSAPR Update, EPA made a final determination that South Carolina emissions will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with the 2008 ozone NAAQS in other states and that sources in the State are not required to further reduce emissions pursuant to the good neighbor provision with respect to this standard.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 74506. EPA is not reopening for comment final determinations made in the CSAPR Update or the modeling conducted to support that rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    South Carolina's submittal also notes that total annual NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions and total annual VOC emissions in South Carolina have decreased by 47 percent and 36 percent, respectively, between 2002 and 2014. South Carolina indicates that monitored ozone concentrations in the State are also trending downward, due to the success of federal and state air regulations, which correlates to the decline in ozone precursor emissions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    SC DHEC identified regulations that have been approved into the South Carolina SIP to provide for the control of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and nitrogen dioxide (NO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ), which are precursors that contribute to ambient ozone concentrations. These regulations include Regulations 61-62.5, Standard 7—
                    <E T="03">Prevention of Significant Deterioration,</E>
                     and 61-62.5, Standard 7.1—
                    <E T="03">Nonattainment New Source Review,</E>
                     which provide for the implementation of a permitting program required under Title I, Parts C and D of the CAA for sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    . The permitting requirements help ensure that no new or modified sources in the State subject to these permitting regulations will significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. SC DHEC also identified SIP-approved Regulation 61-62.1 
                    <E T="03">Definitions and General Requirements,</E>
                     which provide enforceable emission limits and other control measure, means, and techniques. SIP-approved Regulation 61-62.5, Standard No. 5.2, 
                    <E T="03">Control of Oxides of Nitrogen</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">NO</E>
                    <E T="54">X</E>
                    ) establishes emission standards and compliance (testing and monitoring) requirements respectively for stationary sources of air pollution emissions.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Although not relied upon for purposes of approval, SC DHEC also identified state-only provisions of the South Carolina Code Section 48-1-10 
                        <E T="03">Pollution Control Act</E>
                         and Section 1-23-10 
                        <E T="03">State Agency Rule Making and Adjudication of Contested Cases</E>
                         as regulations that the State is implementing which provide for the control of NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         emissions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    South Carolina further identified the following regulations that provide for the implementation of VOC emissions controls: Regulation 61-62.60, 
                    <E T="03">South Carolina Designated Facility Plan and New Source Performance Standards</E>
                     and Regulation 61-62.61, 
                    <E T="03">National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants and National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Source Categories.</E>
                     While these rules are not approved into the federally-approved SIP, they incorporate the federal requirements of 40 CFR parts 60 and 63 by reference.
                </P>
                <P>Based on the information presented herein, EPA proposes to approve South Carolina's June 18, 2018, SIP submission on grounds that it addresses the State's 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) good neighbor obligation for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS because the EPA has found that the State will not significantly contribute to nonattainment or interfere with maintenance of the 2008 ozone NAAQS in any other state.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is proposing to approve South Carolina's June 18, 2018, SIP submission demonstrating that South Carolina's SIP is sufficient to address the CAA requirements of prongs 1 and 2 under section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. EPA requests comment on this proposed approval of South Carolina's SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
                </P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);</P>
                <P>
                    • Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24424"/>
                    be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
                </P>
                <P>• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).</P>
                <FP>Because this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law, this proposed action for the State of South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). Therefore, this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Trial law. The Catawba Indian Nation (CIN) Reservation is located within the boundary of York County, South Carolina. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, S.C. Code Ann. 27-16-120 (Settlement Act), “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” The CIN also retains authority to impose regulations applying higher environmental standards to the Reservation than those imposed by state law or local governing bodies, in accordance with the Settlement Act.</FP>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Mary S. Walker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Regional Administrator, Region 4. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10968 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>47 CFR Parts 1 and 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[AU Docket No. 19-101; WC Docket No. 17-192; CC Docket No. 95-155; FCC 19-41]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Auction of Toll Free Numbers in the 833 Code; Comment Sought on Competitive Bidding Procedures</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; proposed auction procedures.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this document, the Commission proposes and seeks comment on competitive bidding procedures to be used for the auction of certain toll free numbers in the 833 code (833 Auction).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are due on or before June 3, 2019, and reply comments are due on or before June 10, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS) or by filing paper copies. 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filing of Documents in Rulemaking Proceedings,</E>
                         63 FR 24121 (May 1, 1998). All filings in response to the 
                        <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice</E>
                         must refer to AU Docket No. 19-101; WC Docket No. 17-192; CC Docket No. 95-155. The Commission strongly encourages interested parties to file comments electronically and requests that an additional copy of all comments and reply comments be submitted electronically to the following email address: 
                        <E T="03">833auction@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronic Filers:</E>
                         Comments may be filed electronically using the internet by accessing the ECFS: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/ecfs/.</E>
                         Filers should follow the instructions provided on the website for submitting comments. In completing the transmittal screen, filers should include their full name, U.S. Postal Service mailing address, and the applicable docket number, AU Docket No. 19-101; WC Docket No. 17-192; CC Docket No. 95-155.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Paper Filers:</E>
                         Parties who choose to file by paper must file an original and one copy of each filing. If more than one docket or rulemaking number appears in the caption of this proceeding, filers must submit two additional copies for each additional docket or rulemaking number. Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
                    </P>
                    <P>All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th St. SW, Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. The filing hours are 8:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.</P>
                    <P>Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9050 Junction Drive, Annapolis Junction, MD 20701.</P>
                    <P>U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th Street SW, Washington, DC 20554.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For auction legal questions, Scott Mackoul in the Auctions Division of the Office of Economics and Analytics at (202) 418-0660. For toll free number questions, Matthew Collins in the Wireline Competition Bureau's Competition Policy Division at (202) 418-7141.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This is a summary of the Public Notice (
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice</E>
                    ), AU Docket No. 19-101, WC Docket No. 17-192; CC Docket No. 95-155, FCC 19-41, adopted on May 9, 2019 and released on May 10, 2019. The complete text of the 
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice</E>
                     is available for public inspection and copying from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) Monday through Thursday or from 8:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. ET on Fridays in the FCC Reference Information Center, 445 12th Street SW, Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. The complete text is also available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/wireline-competition/competition-policy-division/numbering-resources/833-toll-free-number-auction</E>
                     or by using the search function for AU Docket No. 19-101 on the Commission's ECFS web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.fcc.gov/ecfs/.</E>
                     Alternative formats are available to persons with disabilities by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">FCC504@fcc.gov</E>
                     or by calling the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0530 (voice), (202) 418-0432 (TTY). Pursuant to sections 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated in the 
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice</E>
                     in AU Docket No. 19-101.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    1. With the 
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice,</E>
                     the Commission takes another step toward modernizing the way it distributes toll free numbers. Specifically, the Commission initiates the pre-bidding process for the auction of certain toll free numbers in the 833 code (833 Auction). The 833 Auction will make available over 17,000 numbers in the 833 code for which there have been multiple competing requests. This auction will serve as an experiment in using competitive bidding as a way to assign toll free numbers equitably and efficiently.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24425"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    2. While toll free numbers have been assigned on a first-come, first serve basis traditionally, the Commission modified its toll free assignment rule last year to provide greater flexibility and permit alternative approaches to assigning numbers. Specifically, in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     83 FR 53377, October 23, 2018, the Commission added competitive bidding as a method to assign toll free numbers and, as an experiment in using this approach, established the 833 Auction to assign numbers that were requested by two or more Responsible Organizations (“RespOrgs”) during the 833 pre-code opening process. The Commission also opened participation in the 833 Auction to not only RespOrgs but also potential subscribers who may wish to participate directly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. In establishing this experiment in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission set out the general framework for the 833 Auction and designated Somos, Inc., the Toll Free Numbering Administrator, as the auctioneer. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     also called for a pre-bidding process during which the Commission would seek comment on detailed auction procedures, as is typical in Commission auctions. With the 
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice,</E>
                     the Commission initiates the pre-bidding process.
                </P>
                <P>4. After receiving comments, the Commission will release a public notice establishing the final application and bidding procedures for the 833 Auction (833 Auction Procedures Public Notice), including the dates and deadlines by which potential bidders must meet the requirements necessary to qualify to bid. Somos will then be required to implement the established procedures to conduct the auction, including: Accepting applications to participate in the bidding; accepting upfront payments; determining which applicants are qualified to bid; accepting and processing the bids; announcing the winning bidders; and accepting final payments. After the 833 Auction is complete, the Commission will use the information from the auction to determine how to proceed with assigning future toll free numbers.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. 833 Auction Overview</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Numbers To Be Auctioned</HD>
                <P>
                    5. In the 833 pre-code opening process, Somos identified 17,638 numbers as mutually exclusive (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     requested by two or more RespOrgs). A complete list of these 17,638 numbers is available at 
                    <E T="03">www.somos.auction.com.</E>
                     These numbers will be offered in the 833 Auction, with one exception. Specifically, the Commission in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     allowed government entities and non-profit health and safety organizations the ability to file a petition to set aside a previously identified mutually exclusive 833 number. On April 16, 2019, the Wireline Competition Bureau released a Public Notice seeking petitions to set aside toll free numbers for public health and safety purposes. If a petition is granted with respect to a particular number, that number will be assigned to the petitioner and unavailable in the 833 Auction.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Overview of Participation in the 833 Auction</HD>
                <P>6. Because the Commission recognizes that many parties interested in acquiring one or more of the identified 833 toll free numbers may not be familiar with participating in its auctions, the Commission provides an overview of the process.</P>
                <P>
                    7. In addition to establishing the final auction procedures for the 833 Auction, the 833 Auction Procedures Public Notice will also announce the dates during which interested parties may submit their auction applications online to Somos. In the auction application, an interested party will be required to provide certain information, make certifications, and select the numbers from the available pool on which they are interested in bidding. Once Somos reviews the applications, it will announce the list of complete and incomplete applications. For applications deemed incomplete, applicants will be afforded a second filing (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     resubmission) window to make minor modifications to their auction applications. Applications to which major modifications are made after the deadline for submitting applications will be denied. Major modifications include, but are not limited to: Any changes in the ownership of the applicant that constitute an assignment or change of control of the applicant; changes to any certifications required in the application; or changes to the toll free numbers selected in the application or to the parties for which an applicant is bidding.
                </P>
                <P>8. All interested parties will also need to submit an upfront payment, the amount of which will determine the number of 833 numbers they can bid on during the auction. Following the resubmission filing window and the submission of upfront payments, Somos will announce the list of qualified bidders (based on the list of complete applications and sufficient upfront payments).</P>
                <P>9. The 833 Auction will consist of a single round of bidding. Bidders will upload their bid information online through the Somos bidding system. After completion of the single round, Somos will announce the winning bidders for each number and establish the deadline for making final payments. Any winning bidder that is not a RespOrg must then work with a RespOrg after the auction to reserve the number in the Service Management System Database (Toll Free Database) in accordance with the Commission's rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Further Educational Opportunities for Potential Bidders</HD>
                <P>10. Because the Commission expects that the 833 Auction will attract parties that have never participated in a Commission auction, it directs Somos to provide additional information on the application and bidding systems. This information should include, but is not limited to, demonstrations and other educational and hands-on practice opportunities that potential bidders can use to familiarize themselves with the application and bidding systems. For example, for recent spectrum license and universal service support auctions, the Commission has released an online tutorial that serves to help applicants understand auction application filing procedures. Are there any other specific types of educational and hands-on practice opportunities that potential bidders in this context would find helpful?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Proposed Implementation OF 833 Auction Principles</HD>
                <P>
                    11. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission established certain principles to (1) promote the transparency and efficiency of the 833 Auction, and (2) reduce the instances of conflicts of interest and the likelihood of anticompetitive strategic behavior by participants. The Commission seeks comment on specific procedures to implement these principles.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Participation Through Single Applicant and Application</HD>
                <P>
                    12. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission decided it would allow potential subscribers the option to participate directly in the 833 Auction or indirectly through a RespOrg. The Commission also required that potential subscribers participate in the 833 Auction through only a single auction applicant (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     either on its own behalf or through a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24426"/>
                    RespOrg). The Commission further held that a potential subscriber may not engage multiple applicants to bid on its behalf.
                </P>
                <P>13. To enforce these mandates and to help prevent possible collusion, the Commission proposes that a potential subscriber can participate in the 833 Auction either (1) through a RespOrg that will bid on all the numbers in which the subscriber is interested in acquiring, or (2) by submitting its own application and bidding for all the numbers in which it is interested. Thus, a potential subscriber could not selectively choose to be represented by a RespOrg for some numbers and submit an application on its own for other numbers. This proposed application restriction is consistent with the requirement that a potential subscriber may participate through only a single auction applicant and is necessary to prevent collusion among applicants. Additionally, the Commission proposes that the auction application require that each applicant certify that (1) if it is bidding on its own behalf, it is also not participating in the auction through another entity, and/or (2) if it is bidding on behalf of potential subscriber(s) that it is not aware that the potential subscriber(s) are participating through another applicant. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.</P>
                <P>
                    14. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission also prohibited a single party, or multiple parties with a controlling interest in common, from becoming qualified to bid in the 833 Auction based on multiple applications. Based on that restriction, the Commission proposes to require an applicant certify that it, or any commonly-controlled entity, is not submitting multiple applications in the 833 Auction.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     also stated that, to define parties with common controlling interests in the pre-auction process, the Commission anticipates using definitions adopted for similar purposes in its spectrum auctions. The Commission believes this approach has the benefit of ample precedent and, therefore, it proposes to define a “controlling interest” for purposes of identifying commonly controlled entities in the 833 Auction as an individual or entity with positive or negative de jure or de facto control of the applicant. De jure control includes holding 50 percent or more of the voting stock of a corporation or holding a general partnership interest in a partnership. Ownership interests that are held indirectly by any party through one or more intervening corporations may be determined by successive multiplication of the ownership percentages for each link in the vertical ownership chain and application of the relevant attribution benchmark to the resulting product, except that if the ownership percentage for an interest in any link in the chain meets or exceeds 50 percent or represents actual control, it may be treated as if it were a 100 percent interest. De facto control is determined on a case-by-case basis. Examples of de facto control include constituting or appointing 50 percent or more of the board of directors or management committee; having authority to appoint, promote, demote, and fire senior executives that control the day-to-day activities of the entity; or playing an integral role in management decisions.
                </P>
                <P>16. The Commission also seeks comment on a presumption that spouses own or control or have the power to control interests owned or controlled by either of them and a presumption that immediate family members own or control or have the power to control interests owned or controlled by other immediate family members. In this context “immediate family member” would mean father, mother, husband, wife, son, daughter, brother, sister, father- or mother-in-law, son- or daughter-in-law, brother- or sister-in-law, step-father or -mother, step-brother or -sister, step-son or -daughter, half brother or sister. The Commission proposes to place the burden on applicants to sufficiently demonstrate that spouses or family members should not be treated as having an identity of interest such that it creates common control. The Commission proposes that where the presumption has not been adequately rebutted, such spouses and family members will be subject to the prohibition on submission of multiple auction applications by commonly controlled entities. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.</P>
                <P>
                    17. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission indicated that any 833 Auction applicants that have overlapping non-controlling interests must take steps to prevent communicating bid information. Specifically, the Commission required applicants with overlapping non-controlling interests to certify they have established internal controls to preclude any person acting on behalf of an applicant from possessing information about the bids or bidding strategies of more than one applicant, or communicating such information to another person acting on behalf of and possessing such information regarding another applicant. Thus, the Commission plans to include such a certification in the auction application.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Prohibition on Certain Communications</HD>
                <P>
                    18. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission stated that, for the 833 Auction, there should be a prohibition on certain communications similar to the prohibition that applies in the Commission's spectrum license and universal service support auctions. Specifically, in those auctions, applicants are prohibited from communicating certain auction-related information to other applicants beginning on the auction application filing deadline and concluding upon a specific post-auction deadline for winning bidders (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the down payment deadline or deadline to file long-form applications). This prohibition on certain communications is intended to reinforce existing antitrust laws, facilitate detection of collusive conduct, and deter anticompetitive behavior.
                </P>
                <P>19. The Commission proposes that each applicant in the 833 Auction will be prohibited from cooperating or collaborating with any other applicant with respect to its own, or one another's, or any other competing applicant's bids or bidding strategies. Further, an applicant will be prohibited from communicating, with any other applicant in any manner, the substance of its own, or one another's, or any other competing applicant's bids or bidding strategies (including with respect to the post-auction market for toll free numbers). The proposed prohibition will begin at the deadline for submitting auction applications and will end at the post-auction deadline for winning bidders to submit their final payments (which will be announced by Somos after bidding concludes). The proposed prohibition will not apply to all communications between or among applicants; it would apply only to any communications conveying, in whole or part, directly or indirectly, the applicant's or a competing applicant's bids or bidding strategy (including with respect to the post-auction market for toll free numbers). The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.</P>
                <P>
                    20. Moreover, as the Commission does in spectrum license and universal service support auctions, it proposes to define “applicant” broadly for purposes of this prohibition. The Commission proposes that “applicant” for purposes of the prohibition on certain communications for the 833 Auction includes: All controlling interests in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24427"/>
                    entity submitting the auction application; all holders of partnership and other ownership interests and any stock interest amounting to 10% or more of the entity, or outstanding stock, or outstanding voting stock of the entity submitting the auction application; all officers and directors of that entity; and any entity listed as a potential subscriber on whose behalf the entity submitting the auction application will be bidding. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
                </P>
                <P>21. Finally, to implement the prohibition of certain communications, the Commission proposes to require an applicant that makes or receives a prohibited communication to report such communication to the Commission and Somos staff immediately, and in any case no later than five business days after the communication occurs. The Commission also proposes to rely to the extent appropriate on past precedent and guidance regarding its rules on prohibited communications in connection with its spectrum auctions. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Restrictions on Agreements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Agreements Among Applicants</HD>
                <P>22. The Commission proposes to prohibit certain agreements among applicants (whether the applicants are RespOrgs or potential subscribers) in the 833 Auction. The prohibition would apply to any agreements, arrangements, or understandings of any kind relating to the toll free numbers being auctioned to which the applicant, or any party that controls or is controlled by the applicant, is a party. This includes any agreements that address or communicate directly or indirectly bids (including specific prices), bidding strategies (including the specific numbers on which to bid or not to bid), or the post-auction market for toll free numbers. Similar to the Commission's proposed prohibition on certain communications, it proposes to define “applicant” for these purposes broadly. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.</P>
                <P>23. This proposed prohibition would not apply to agreements unrelated to the toll free numbers being offered in the 833 Auction. Business discussions and negotiations that are unrelated to bidding in the 833 Auction and that do not convey information about the numbers being auctioned or bidding strategies would not be prohibited. Moreover, not all auction-related information would be covered by the prohibition. For example, communicating merely whether a party has or has not applied to participate in the 833 Auction would not violate the proposed rule. In contrast, communicating how a party will participate, including specific numbers or bid amounts, would convey bid or bidding strategies and would be prohibited under the proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Agreements Among RespOrgs</HD>
                <P>24. Given RespOrgs' dominant position in the toll free number market, the Commission proposes to prohibit certain auction-related agreements among RespOrgs even where only one of the RespOrgs is an applicant in the 833 Auction. Thus, an applicant RespOrg would be prohibited from having an agreement related to the toll free numbers being offered in the 833 Auction with a non-applicant RespOrg. Similar to the proposed prohibition on agreements among applicants, this proposed prohibition between applicant RespOrgs and non-applicant RespOrgs would not apply to agreements unrelated to the toll free numbers being offered in the 833 Auction. Thus, business discussions and negotiations that are unrelated to bidding in the 833 Auction and that do not convey information about the numbers being auctioned or bidding strategies would not be prohibited.</P>
                <P>
                    25. This proposed prohibition would not apply to RespOrgs that are commonly controlled. Commonly-controlled entities are those in which the same individual or entity either directly or indirectly holds a controlling interest (as determined by positive or negative de jure or de facto control). When RespOrgs share a common officer or director or control, the Commission presumes that bids and bid strategies will be communicated. Moreover, the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     stated that commonly controlled RespOrgs cannot submit multiple applications to participate in the 833 Auction. Instead, the commonly controlled RespOrgs would need to choose one of the entities to be the applicant and disclose the existence of the other commonly controlled RespOrgs in the application. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Agreements Between RespOrgs and Potential Subscribers</HD>
                <P>
                    26. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     allowed potential subscribers to participate directly in the 833 Auction or indirectly through a RespOrg. Given the unique position of RespOrgs participating on their own behalf or bidding on behalf of other entities, the Commission proposes to require any applicant RespOrg that bids for a potential subscriber to acquire a letter of authorization from the potential subscriber. Somos, as the Toll Free Numbering Administrator, currently requires RespOrgs to present similar letters of authorization when a subscriber changes RespOrgs. The Commission proposes that the letter of authorization to represent the subscriber in the 833 Auction should be substantially the same—
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     identifies the parties and toll free number(s), and includes a signed and dated authorization. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal and on whether to require the applicant RespOrg to provide the letter of authorization as part of its auction application (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     to upload it as an attachment) or to simply allow the applicant RespOrg to certify that it is in possession of the letter and be able to produce it to the Commission if requested.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Responsibility for Winning Bid Payment</HD>
                <P>27. The Commission emphasizes that any RespOrg that applies to participate in the 833 Auction, including a RespOrg participating on behalf of one or more potential subscribers, assumes a binding obligation to pay its full winning bid amount, and is responsible for complying with all post-auction requirements, regardless of whether a potential subscriber on whose behalf the RespOrg bid fulfills its financial or contractual obligation to the RespOrg. While an applicant RespOrg may seek reimbursement from the potential subscriber for which it bid, the RespOrg—as the bidder in the auction—is ultimately responsible for full payment of any winning bid.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Proposed Application Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Applicant Identification</HD>
                <P>
                    28. Any party interested in obtaining an 833 number available through the auction must submit an auction application to become qualified to bid in the 833 Auction. The Commission proposes that, as a first step in the application process, an interested party must acquire an “Auction ID” from Somos, which will verify the potential applicant's identity. Moreover, the Commission proposes that any entity that cannot be verified through the Somos verification process must then participate through a RespOrg (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the RespOrg will bid on its behalf and will be responsible for making final payment on any winning bids). The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24428"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Auction Application Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    29. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission established general principles governing the information that must be provided in the auction application. The Commission now seeks comment on specific application requirements consistent with the principles of (1) promoting the transparency and efficiency of the auction, and (2) reducing the instances of conflicts of interest and the likelihood of undesirable and/or anticompetitive strategic behavior by participants.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. 833 Auction Number Selection</HD>
                <P>30. The Commission proposes that an applicant in the 833 Auction must identify, in its auction application, each toll free number (from the list of available 833 numbers) on which it may wish to place a bid during the auction, and the party for which it is bidding for each number. If qualified to bid in the auction, the entity will not be obligated to place a bid on each of the numbers selected in its application, but an entity will not be able to bid on any numbers that it does not select in its application. If a particular available toll free number is not selected on any auction application, it will not be available in the auction. The Commission further proposes that any changes made to the numbers selected on an application will be considered a major modification of the application, which will result in a dismissal of the application. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals. The Commission also notes that there is no limit to how many numbers for which an entity can place a bid. Given that there are over 17,000 possible numbers, are there any special considerations that the Commission (or Somos) should account for in the item and entity selection process?</P>
                <P>
                    31. In addition, in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission stated that each auction participant will be required to certify, as applicable, that it is not bidding on behalf of multiple interested parties (including itself) for the same toll free numbers or that each interested party is bidding through one entity for a given number. To implement this prohibition, the Commission stated that it expects that an applicant will need to disclose each party on whose behalf it is bidding, for each toll free number that it selects. Requiring an applicant to identify the party for which it is bidding will allow Somos to verify that a potential subscriber is seeking to bid based on only one application and will make it clear to applicants that they can represent only one entity per number. Thus, the Commission proposes that, for each number on which an applicant wishes to be able to bid, it must identify the party (either itself or another entity) for which it is bidding. The Commission also proposes that any changes made on an application regarding the disclosure of the party for which an applicant is bidding will be considered a major modification of the application, which will result in application dismissal. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    32. Moreover, the Commission proposes that, while the 833 numbers selected by an applicant will not be made public until after the bidding is complete, the party for which an applicant is bidding will be made public once Somos announces which applications are compete or incomplete (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     when most auction application information typically becomes public in a Commission auction). The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Ownership Disclosure/Identity of Applicant</HD>
                <P>
                    33. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission stated that it expected that any entity wishing to participate in the 833 Auction would have to fully disclose information regarding the real party or parties-in-interest in the applicant or application and the ownership structure of the applicant, including both direct and indirect ownership interests of 10% or more. Requiring applicants' ownership information provides several benefits. First, it promotes auction transparency by providing insight—to the Commission, Somos, other bidders, and the public—into the entities participating in the auction. Second, it provides information to help bidders comply with the prohibition on certain communications. Third, it provides information to the Commission and Somos to enforce the restrictions against multiple applications, including prohibiting commonly-controlled entities from submitting separate applications.
                </P>
                <P>34. The Commission proposes to require applicants in the 833 Auction to provide the same level of ownership disclosure required in Commission spectrum auctions—namely, section 1.2112(a) of the Commission's rules. Specifically, the Commission proposes that applicants in the 833 Auction must disclose: (1) The real party or parties in interest of the applicant or of the application; (2) any direct interest holder of 10% or greater; (3) any indirect interest holder of 10% or greater; and (4) any FCC-regulated entity or applicant for an FCC license in which the applicant, or any direct interest holder of 10% or greater, owns 10% or more stock, whether voting or non-voting. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Agreement Disclosure/Letters of Authorization</HD>
                <P>35. To the extent that an applicant may be a party to a permitted auction-related agreement, the Commission proposes that an applicant must disclose the agreement on its auction application. Specifically, the Commission proposes that an applicant must disclose any agreement related to the numbers being auctioned, including the names of the parties to the agreement(s).</P>
                <P>
                    36. In Commission spectrum license and universal service support auctions, where certain agreements are allowed, the applicant must disclose certain limited information about the agreements in their pre-auction short-form applications (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the parties to the agreement and a brief summary of the agreements), while winning bidders often may be required to provide more detailed information about the agreements in their post-auction long-form applications. Since there will be no long-form application following the 833 Auction, the Commission seek comment on whether the limited information normally provided in the short-form application (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     names of the parties to the agreement and a brief description of the agreement) is sufficient for the 833 Auction.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Additional Disclosures and Certifications</HD>
                <P>
                    37. The Commission stated in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     that it would also require applicants in the 833 Auction to provide additional information and make additional certifications in the application, as may be found in the pre-auction process to be necessary to implement the Commission's decisions in that order. Based on this, the Commission proposes to require each to certify that it is not currently in default or delinquent on a non-tax debt to the Federal government, as is the Commission's practice in its spectrum auctions, in order to preserve the integrity of the auction process and to ensure that bidders are capable of meeting their financial commitments. Under this proposal, the applicant's status as a current defaulter will be determined as of the auction application deadline. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal, and also encourages prospective applicants to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24429"/>
                    pay any delinquent debts prior to the auction application deadline. After the deadline, an applicant can dispute the status of the debt, but consistent with the Commission's practice in spectrum auctions, applicants will not be able to cure the default or delinquency after the auction application deadline to participate in the auction.
                </P>
                <P>38. The Commission also asks if there are other certifications that it should consider requiring auction applicants to make in order to become qualified to bid in the 833 Auction? Are there any legal restrictions that may be relevant in the 833 Auction, as in Commission spectrum auctions, limiting participation based on a prior bar against participating in such an auction?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Proposed Bidding Procedures</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Auction Design: Single Round, Vickery Auction</HD>
                <P>
                    39. The Commission decided in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     that the 833 Auction will be conducted as a single round, sealed-bid auction, in which bidders submit their bids for individual numbers simultaneously, with the winning bid for each number determined solely by bids for that number, independent of the bids for any other number. Moreover, the Commission also chose to use a Vickery auction, in which the amount paid by the winning bidder is determined by the second-highest bid. Therefore, in the 833 Auction, the winning bidder for each 833 number will be the bidder with the highest bid and will pay the second-highest bid amount for that number.
                </P>
                <P>40. In the event that a toll free number receives only one bid, the Commission proposes that the toll free number will be awarded to the bidder placing the sole bid. Consistent with a Vickery auction, the Commission further proposes that the bidder in that case would acquire the right to use the number and not be required to pay anything because there was no second-highest bid. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <P>
                    41. In the event that a toll free number receives two or more tied amounts for the highest bid, the Commission proposes that the winning bidder will be determined by use of a pseudo-random number. The Commission proposes that Somos assign the pseudo-random number to each bid for each toll free number submitted to the 833 Auction. Moreover, because the Commission required the 833 Auction to be a Vickery auction where the winning bidder pays the second highest bid (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the value that the second highest bidder attached to the toll free number), it proposes that, in the case of tied bids, the winning bidder would still pay the second highest bid, which would be the same amount as its placed bid. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Limited Information Procedures During the Auction Process</HD>
                <P>42. Consistent with the procedures in many recent Commission auctions, the Commission proposes that Somos conduct the 833 Auction using procedures for limited information disclosure (sometimes also referred to as anonymous bidding). The Commission proposes that Somos withhold, until after the close of bidding and announcement of auction results, the public release of bidders' particular 833 number selections and any information that may reveal the identities of bidders placing bids and taking other bidding-related actions. More specifically, the Commission proposes to not make public until after bidding has closed: (1) The numbers that an applicant selects for bidding in its auction application, (2) the amount of any upfront payment made by or on behalf of an applicant for the 833 Auction, (3) any applicant's bidding eligibility, and (4) any other bidding-related information that might reveal the identity of the bidder placing a bid. Once Somos has performed an initial review of the auction applications and announced which are complete or incomplete, the Commission proposes that Somos will make public the information contained in the application except the toll free numbers that an applicant selects for bidding. This includes the names of any potential subscribers for which an applicant RespOrg is bidding.</P>
                <P>43. Because the 833 Auction will be conducted using a single round of bidding, the Commission does not anticipate that there will be the same need for release of bidding-related actions during the auction that there would be in a multiple-round auction. If such circumstances were to arise prior to the release of non-public information and auction results, however, the Commission's proposal would mean that it would not indicate the identity of any bidders taking such actions. After the close of bidding, bidders' number selections, upfront payment amounts, bids, and any other bidding-related actions and information will be made publicly available. The Commission seek comment on these proposals.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Auction Structure</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Bidding Format and Period</HD>
                <P>44. The Commission expects Somos to conduct the auction online. The single-round format will consist of one bidding round, which will occur on one day. While the Commission expects the bidding round to be open for several hours, it proposes that Somos, in consultation with the Commission, will announce the actual start and finish time of the bidding round at least one week before the start of the auction. This approach should provide certainty to the bidders, while providing Somos with flexibility. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Information Relating to Auction Delay, Suspension, or Cancellation</HD>
                <P>45. For the 833 Auction, the Commission proposes that, by public notice or by announcement during the auction, the Commission, or Somos in consultation with the Commission, may delay or suspend the auction in the event of a natural disaster, technical failures, administrative or weather necessity, evidence of an auction security breach or unlawful bidding activity, or for any other reason that affects the fair and efficient conduct of competitive bidding. In such cases, Somos would seek guidance from the Commission about resuming, rescheduling, or canceling the auction in its entirety. If the bidding is delayed or suspended, the Commission may direct Somos to resume the auction starting from the beginning of the scheduled bidding round or for a shorter period, or cancel the auction in its entirety. The Commission will exercise this authority solely at its discretion. It seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Bidding Procedures</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Upfront Payment and Bidder Eligibility</HD>
                <P>
                    46. The Commission proposes that potential bidders must provide an upfront payment of $100 per number to participate in the 833 Auction. Upfront payments help ensure that only serious qualified bidders participate in an auction and provide a source of available funds in the event a penalty must be assessed for an auction default. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission chose to require upfront payments in the 833 Auction but deferred to the pre-auction process what the upfront payments should be, though it stated that it generally expected the approach to be modeled on those used in the Commission's spectrum auctions.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24430"/>
                </P>
                <P>47. In determining the amount of upfront payment required in spectrum license auctions, the Commission has balanced “the goal of encouraging bidders to submit serious, qualified bids with the desire to simplify the bidding process and minimize implementation costs that will be imposed on bidders.” At this point, the Commission has little information about the value of the toll free numbers being auctioned—in fact, one of the goals of the 833 Auction is to help inform the Commission on the value of the available toll free numbers. Moreover, the Commission does not wish to discourage participation of sincere bidders. Therefore, it proposes to require an upfront payment of $100 per number. Such an amount should begin to cover the costs of auctioning the numbers in the event a bidder defaults and, thus, best achieve the Commission's goals in requiring an upfront payment while burdening bidders the least. The Commission seeks comment on its proposal, and on any other alternative upfront payment amounts or proposals.</P>
                <P>48. Applicants for the 833 Auction will need to submit an upfront payment sufficient to be able to bid on the total number of toll free numbers for which they wish to submit bids. Thus, an applicant may select on its auction application more of the available 833 numbers than the total for which it expects to submit bids, but its actual bidding will be limited by the amount of its upfront payment. For example, if an applicant were to select 50 numbers on its application but submits an upfront payment of only $1,000, it would be able to place bids on only 10 numbers (based on the proposed upfront payment of $100 per number).</P>
                <P>49. Moreover, given that some participants in the 833 Auction may not be familiar with auctions generally, the Commission emphasizes that, if a winning bid is less than the bidder's upfront payment, any remaining amount will be refunded to the bidder, minus any default payments that a bidder might owe. Similarly, if a bidder does not have any winning bids, it will be reimbursed the entirety of its upfront payment.</P>
                <P>50. Additionally, for applicant RespOrgs who are bidding on behalf of potential subscribers, the Commission proposes that all funds that a RespOrg submits as an upfront payment in the auction (regardless of whether the funds came from the RespOrg or a potential subscriber for which the RespOrg is bidding) will be considered the upfront payment of the RespOrg applicant and will be used to offset the final payment obligation for any winning bids of the RespOrg, regardless of which 833 numbers the RespOrg wins. It would be the responsibility of a RespOrg and potential subscriber for which it will bid to work out their financial arrangements. From the perspective of the auction, however, all upfront payments submitted by an applicant RespOrg would be considered to be payments by the applicant RespOrg and will be applied to offset the final payment obligations for all toll free numbers that the RespOrg wins. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <P>
                    51. The Commission also proposes to require upfront payments of a certain amount be made via wire transfer. Specifically, any upfront payment above $300 must be made through a wire transfer to Somos (or its payment designee). The Commission proposes that any amounts under this threshold (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $300 or less) can be made using an alternative payment collection process, such as Automated Clearing House (ACH). Such a process may be easier for individuals or small entities that may be interested in only a few toll free numbers. The Commission proposes to specifically exclude payments via check or credit card, as such payment processes have increased risks associated with them, which may not be conducive to a timely auction. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal and alternative thresholds.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Bid Amounts</HD>
                <P>52. The Commission proposes to allow bids only in whole dollar amounts. It seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Auction Default Payments</HD>
                <P>
                    53. Each bid is a binding commitment. If a bidder fails to make full payment on its bid or otherwise defaults for any reason, it should be subject to a default payment. The Commission explained in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     that it generally expected the approach to default payments in the 833 Auction to be modeled on those used in the Commission's spectrum auctions. In spectrum auctions, any winning bidder that defaults or is disqualified after the close of an auction is liable for a default payment that consists of a deficiency payment and an additional payment. The deficiency payment is generally equal to the difference between the amount of the defaulted bid and the amount of the winning bid in a subsequent auction. The additional payment is a percentage of the defaulter's bid or of the subsequent winning bid, whichever is less. The additional payment percentage is established by the Commission in advance of the auction and is generally between 3% and 20% of the applicable bid. Since the 833 Auction is an experiment, the Commission has not yet decided if there will be a subsequent auction of toll free numbers. Therefore, it proposes that the default payment in the 833 Auction will not include a deficiency payment, but rather will be based only on a percentage of the defaulted bid. Because there will be no deficiency payment, the Commission proposes to set the default payment requirement in the 833 Auction at a higher percentage of the defaulted bid than the additional payments it requires for defaults in its spectrum auctions. The Commission believes that a higher percentage will adequately compensate for the absence of a deficiency payment and sufficiently discourage insincere bidding and default. Accordingly, the Commission proposes that the default payment should be 35% of the defaulted bid amount. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal, and any alternatives.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Post Auction Considerations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Final Payments</HD>
                <P>54. Shortly after the single round of bidding for the 833 Auction is complete, Somos will announce the winning bidders through a public notice. The Commission proposes that each winning bidder must submit the full payment for its winning bid(s) within 10 business days following release of the public notice announcing the winning bidders. Similar to the final payment procedures in its spectrum auctions, the Commission also proposes to allow a winning bidder to make its final payment within five additional business days after the applicable deadline, provided it also pays a late fee of 5% of the winning bid. The Commission proposes that, if a winning bidder misses the final payment deadline and also fails to remit the required payment (plus the applicable late fee) by the end of the late payment period, it would be declared in default and subject to the applicable default payment. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.</P>
                <P>
                    55. Similar to its proposal for upfront payments, the Commission proposes to require final payments of a certain amount be made via wire transfer. Specifically, any final payment above $300 must be made through a wire transfer to Somos (or its payment designee). The Commission proposes that any amounts under this threshold (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $300 or less) can be made using an 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24431"/>
                    alternative payment collection process, such as ACH. Such a process may be easier for individuals or small entities that may be interested in only a few toll free numbers. The Commission proposes to specifically exclude payments via check or credit card, as such payment processes have increased risks associated with them, which may not be conducive to a timely auction. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal and alternative thresholds.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Reserving Toll Free Numbers</HD>
                <P>
                    56. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     required any potential subscriber that directly participates in the 833 Auction and is a winning bidder to work with a RespOrg after the auction to reserve a number in the Toll Free Database in accordance with section 52.101 of the Commission's rules. The Commission proposes that, under such circumstances, the potential subscriber must declare which RespOrg it plans to use within 15 business days after the public notice announcing the winning bidders. The Commission further proposes that subscribers may report any problems working with RespOrgs after the auction to Somos, which will hold the number while these issues are resolved. The Commission proposes to entertain waivers of the 15 business day deadline, consistent with its existing waiver standard, where a subscriber's late declaration was due to no fault of its own. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Secondary Market Considerations</HD>
                <P>
                    57. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission adopted an exception to the rules prohibiting the brokering, hoarding, and warehousing of toll free numbers for numbers acquired in an auction. Consistent with the goal of the 833 Auction—assigning toll free numbers to those who can put them to their best use—the Commission adopted this exception to promote the development of a secondary market for numbers assigned via competitive bidding. In order to evaluate the operation of this new secondary market, the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     directed Somos “to maintain data on secondary market transactions and make that data available to the Commission.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    58. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     established that the data collected include “the new subscriber's name and contact information, and other limited information Somos deems necessary.” To further the Commission's evaluation of the secondary market, it proposes that Somos collect additional limited information beyond that identified in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order.</E>
                     Specifically, the Commission proposes that Somos collect the following information: (a) Contact information of both parties to the transaction, including (i) name, (ii) address, (iii) email address, and (iv) phone number; (b) sale price; and (c) sale date. This information should allow the Commission to fully evaluate the operation of the secondary market, including the demand for the right to use toll free numbers, the value parties place on the right to use toll free numbers, and how frequently transactions occur on the secondary market. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    59. The 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     also established that RespOrgs are obligated to provide information to Somos to facilitate the collection of data about secondary market transactions. To incentivize RespOrgs to provide this information promptly, the Commission proposes that RespOrgs must submit all required data about post-auction secondary market transactions involving their subscribers to Somos within 60 days of the transaction. The Commission proposes that this requirement be included in Somos's tariff and that, like other violations of RespOrg requirements in the tariff, noncompliance be penalized by discontinuing access to the Toll Free Database until the required data is reported. The Commission believes that 60 days from the date of a transaction is a reasonable amount of time for a RespOrg to discover and report transaction data to Somos. Even if a subscriber does not inform a RespOrg of a transaction, 60 days provides a RespOrg with two monthly billing cycles during which it should be aware of a subscriber change. And if a RespOrg discovers a transaction but the subscriber does not provide it with information about the transaction, the Commission proposes allowing the RespOrg to withhold service from the subscriber until it receives the necessary information. The Commission also believes that the penalty of discontinued access to the Toll Free Database—until the required data is reported—appropriately balances its dual goals of incentivizing compliance while not discouraging RespOrgs who fail to report transaction data from correcting a good faith oversight. The Commission seeks comment on this proposal.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Procedural Matters</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Supplemental Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    60. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), the Commission has prepared a Supplemental Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (Supplemental IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities of the policies and rules addressed in 
                    <E T="03">833 Auction Comment Public Notice</E>
                     to supplement the Commission's Initial and Final Regulatory Flexibility Analyses completed in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     pursuant to which the 833 Auction will be conducted. Written public comments are requested on the Supplemental IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the Supplemental IRFA and must be filed by the same deadline for comments on the proposals in the Public Notice. The Commission will send a copy of the Public Notice, including the Supplemental IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA). In addition, the Public Notice and Supplemental IRFA (or summaries thereof) will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    61. 
                    <E T="03">Need for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Rules.</E>
                     To further the goal of an efficient, fair and orderly allocation of toll free numbers to all potential subscribers, including small entities, the Commission added competitive bidding as a method to assign toll free numbers and established the 833 Auction as an experiment in that approach. The Public Notice seeks comment on proposed procedural rules to govern the 833 Auction. The process is intended to provide notice of, and adequate time for, potential applicants to comment on proposed auction procedures. An efficient and fair administration of the competitive bidding process will benefit all 833 Auction participants, including small entities. To that end, the Commission seeks comment on the following proposed procedures: (1) Allow potential subscribers to participate in the 833 Auction either through a RespOrg that will bid on all the numbers in which the subscriber is interested in acquiring, or by submitting its own application and bidding for all the numbers in which it is interested; (2) require each applicant in the 833 Auction to certify that (i) if it is bidding on its own behalf, it is also not participating in the auction through another entity and/or, if it is bidding on behalf of potential subscribers that it is not aware that the potential subscriber(s) are participating through 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24432"/>
                    another applicant; and (ii) it, or any commonly-controlled entity, is not submitting multiple applications in the 833 Auction, utilizing the Commission's definitions for control adopted for similar purposes in its spectrum auctions; (3) prohibit each applicant in the 833 Auction from cooperating or collaborating with any other applicant with respect to its own, or one another's, or any other competing applicant's bids or bidding strategies, and will be prohibited from communicating with any other applicant in any manner the substance of its own, or one another's, or any other competing applicant's bids or bidding strategies (including the post-auction market for toll free numbers); (4) prohibit certain agreements between applicants (whether the applicants are RespOrgs or potential subscribers) in the 833 Auction, and certain auction-related agreements among RespOrgs even where only one of the RespOrgs is an applicant in the 833 Auction; (5) require any applicant RespOrg that bids for a potential subscriber to acquire a letter of authorization from the potential subscriber; (6) require applicants to first acquire an “Auction ID” from Somos, which will verify the potential applicant's identity, and if any entity cannot be verified through the Somos verification process, it must then participate through a RespOrg; (7) require each applicant, on its auction application, (i) identify each number on which it wishes to be able to bid and, for each number, the party (either itself or another entity) for which it is bidding, (ii) provide the same level of ownership disclosure required in Commission auctions, (iii) disclose any auction-related agreement, and (iv) certify that it is not currently in default or delinquent on a non-tax debt to the Federal government; (8) for determining the winning bidder on tied bids for a toll free number, use a pseudo-random number assigned to each bid; and for an only bid received for a toll free number, assign the sole bidder the number and require no payment; (9) conduct the 833 Auction using procedures for limited information disclosure; (10) require potential bidders provide an upfront payment of $100 per number, and treat all funds that a RespOrg submits as an upfront payment in the auction (regardless of whether the funds came from the RespOrg or a potential subscriber for which the RespOrg is bidding) as the upfront payment of the RespOrg that will be used to offset the final payment obligation for any winning bids of the RespOrg; (11) default payment of 35% of the defaulted bid; (12) full payment within 10 business days following release of the public notice of the winning bids, or full payment plus a 5% late fee, within five additional business days; (13) require any potential subscriber that directly participates in the 833 Auction and is a winning bidder to declare its intent to work with a specific RespOrg within 15 business days following release of the public notice of winning bids; and (14) require Somos to collect additional information on secondary markets and require RespOrgs submit all required data about post-auction secondary market transactions within 60 days of a transaction.
                </P>
                <P>
                    62. 
                    <E T="03">Legal Basis.</E>
                     The Commission has a statutory obligation under section 251(e)(1) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (the Act), “to ensure that toll free numbers, which are a scarce and valuable national public resource, are allocated in an equitable and orderly manner that serves the public interest.” Pursuant to this statutory mandate, the Commission has the “authority to set policy with respect to all facets of numbering administration in the United States,” and a “require[ment] . . . to ensure the efficient, fair, and orderly allocation of toll free numbers.” The proposed auction procedures and secondary market proposals in the Public Notice further the statutory requirement that numbers be made “available on an equitable basis”—an auction and secondary market are both efficient and orderly, and fair. These actions benefit all auction participants and toll free number subscribers, including small entities. In addition, the proposed requirements for Somos to follow as the auctioneer for 833 numbers are supported under the Commission's obligation in section 251(e)(1) to ensure its Toll Free Numbering Administrator administers “telecommunications numbering and to make such numbers available on an equitable basis,” and section 201(b)'s authorization for the Commission to “prescribe such rules and regulations as may be necessary in the public interest to carry out the provisions of this [Act].” These actions will help ensure an efficient and orderly, and fair, assignment of toll free numbers.
                </P>
                <P>
                    63. 
                    <E T="03">Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rules Will Apply.</E>
                     The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules and policies, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    64. In the FRFA incorporated into the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission described in detail the small entities that might be significantly affected. In the Public Notice, the Commission incorporates by reference the descriptions and estimates of the number of small entities from the previous FRFA in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     in WC Docket No. 17-192.
                </P>
                <P>
                    65. 
                    <E T="03">Description of Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements for Small Entities.</E>
                     The Commission designed the auction application process itself to minimize reporting and compliance requirements for applicants, including small business applicants. Parties desiring to participate in the 833 Auction must file an application in which they certify under penalty of perjury as to their qualifications. Eligibility to participate in bidding is based on an applicant's auction application and certifications, as well as its upfront payment. The Commission decided in the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     that it will not require applicants to submit a long-form application after the conclusion of the 833 Auction, given the lack of need to verify winning bidders' qualifications in this context and to limit the administrative burden on bidders, including small business entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    66. 
                    <E T="03">Steps Taken to Minimize Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities, and Significant Alternatives Considered.</E>
                     The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”
                    <PRTPAGE P="24433"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    67. In the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order,</E>
                     the Commission concluded that assigning toll free numbers through competitive bidding will benefit smaller entities, particularly when compared with the prior first-come, first-served assignment methodology, which favored larger, more sophisticated entities that had invested in systems that provided enhanced connectivity to the Toll Free Database). Moreover, the Commission also elected to allow potential subscribers, many of which may be smaller entities, the choice between participating directly in the auction or indirectly through a RespOrg.
                </P>
                <P>68. The Commission intends that the proposals of the Public Notice to facilitate participation in the 833 Auction will result in both operational and administrative cost savings for small entities and other auction participants. In light of the numerous resources that will be available from the Commission and Somos at no cost, the processes and procedures proposed for the 833 Auction in the Public Notice should result in minimal economic impact on small entities. For example, prior to the auction, small entities and other auction participants may seek clarification of or guidance on complying with competitive bidding rules and procedures, reporting requirements, and the bidding system. Small entities as well as other auction participants will be able to avail themselves of web-based, interactive online tutorials to familiarize themselves with auction procedures, filing requirements, bidding procedures, and other matters related to the 833 Auction and hotlines to assist with issues such as access to or navigation within the electronic auction application system. The Commission also makes copies of Commission decisions available to the public without charge, providing a low-cost mechanism for small businesses to conduct research prior to and throughout the auction. In addition, Somos will post public notices on its website will make this information easily accessible and without charge to benefit all 833 Auction applicants, including small businesses. These steps are made available to facilitate participation in the 833 Auction by all eligible bidders and may result in significant cost savings for small business entities who utilize these alternatives. Moreover, the adoption of bidding procedures in advance of the auction is designed to ensure that the 833 Auction will be administered predictably and fairly for all participants, including small businesses.</P>
                <P>
                    69. The proposed procedures for the conduct of the 833 Auction constitute the more specific implementation of the competitive bidding rules contemplated by Part 1 of the Commission's rules and the underlying rulemaking orders, including the 
                    <E T="03">Toll Free Assignment Modernization Order</E>
                     and relevant competitive bidding orders, and are fully consistent therewith.
                </P>
                <P>
                    70. 
                    <E T="03">Federal Rules that May Duplicate, Overlap, or Conflict with the Proposed Rules.</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Ex Parte Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    71. This proceeding has been designated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's ex parte rules. Persons making oral ex parte presentations must file a copy of any written presentations or memoranda summarizing any oral presentation within two business days after the presentation (unless a different deadline applicable to the Sunshine Period applies). Persons making oral ex parte presentations are reminded that memoranda summarizing the presentations must (1) list all persons attending or otherwise participating in the meeting at which the ex parte presentation was made, and (2) summarize all data presented and arguments made during the presentation. If the presentation consisted in whole or in part of the presentation of data or arguments already reflected in the presenter's written comments, memoranda, or other filings in the proceeding, the presenter may provide citations to such data or arguments in his or her prior comments, memoranda, or other filings (specifying the relevant page and/or paragraph numbers where such data or arguments can be found) in lieu of summarizing them in the memorandum. Documents shown or given to the Commission staff during ex parte meetings are deemed to be written ex parte presentations and must be filed consistent with rule 1.1206(b). In proceedings governed by rule 1.49(f) or for which the Commission has made available a method of electronic filing, written ex parte presentations and memoranda summarizing oral ex parte presentations, and all attachments thereto, must be filed through the electronic comment filing system available for that proceeding, and must be filed in their native format (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     .doc, .xml, .ppt, searchable .pdf). Participants in this proceeding should familiarize themselves with the Commission's ex parte rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11049 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>49 CFR Part 571</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NHTSA-2019-0036]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2127-AM00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Removing Regulatory Barriers for Vehicles With Automated Driving Systems</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NHTSA is seeking public comment on the near- and long-term challenges of testing and verifying compliance with existing crash avoidance (100-series) Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSSs) for Automated Driving System-Dedicated Vehicles (ADS-DVs) that lack traditional manual controls necessary for a human driver to maneuver the vehicle and other features intended to facilitate operation of a vehicle by a human driver, but that are otherwise traditional vehicles with typical seating configurations. This document seeks comments on the suitability of various approaches that could be used to address compliance verification challenges that exist for crash avoidance standards that either require a manual control; or specify the use of manual controls in a compliance test procedure. NHTSA's long-term goal is to use what the agency learns from this ANPRM, as well as the agency's other research efforts, to develop a proposal to amend the crash avoidance FMVSSs in ways that address these and other compliance challenges with a continued focus on safety. This ANPRM builds on NHTSA's efforts to identify and address regulatory barriers to ADS technologies, including the request for comments (RFC) on this topic in January 2018. NHTSA intends to issue two additional documents to remove barriers in the crashworthiness FMVSSs (200-series standards) and address issues in the FMVSSs pertaining to telltales, indicators, and warnings in ADS-DVs.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24434"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this advanced notice of proposed rulemaking are due no later than July 29, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be identified by Docket Number NHTSA-2019-0036 and may be submitted using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. E.T., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regardless of how you submit your comments, you must include the docket number identified in the heading of this document. Note that all comments received, including any personal information provided, will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Please see the “Privacy Act” heading below.
                    </P>
                    <P>You may call the Docket Management Facility at 202-366-9826.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or the street address listed above. We will continue to file relevant information in the Docket as it becomes available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice, DOT/ALL-14 FDMS, accessible through 
                        <E T="03">www.transportation.gov/privacy.</E>
                         To facilitate comment tracking and response, we encourage commenters to provide their name, or the name of their organization; however, submission of names is completely optional. Whether or not commenters identify themselves, all timely comments will be fully considered.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For technical issues: David Hines, Director, Office of Crash Avoidance Standards (Phone: 202-366-1810; Fax: 202-493-0073). For legal issues: Sara R. Bennett, Attorney-Advisor, Vehicle Rulemaking and Harmonization, Office of Chief Counsel (Phone: 202-366-2992; Fax: 202-366-3820).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. NHTSA's Efforts To Provide Guidance and Regulatory Certainty</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Stakeholder Feedback</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Addressing Barriers in the FMVSS</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Example #1 (FMVSS No. 135): Manual Control Required</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Example #2 (FMVSS No. 126): Existing Test Procedures That Cannot Be Executed Absent Manual Controls</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Additional Barrier Examples</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Possible Approaches To Revising Crash Avoidance Test Procedures</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Normal ADS-DV Operation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Test Mode With Pre-Programmed Execution (TMPE)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Test Mode With External Control (TMEC)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Simulation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Technical Documentation for System Design and/or Performance Approach</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Use of Surrogate Vehicle With Human Controls</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Public Participation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Rulemaking Analyses</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    This Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) is a continuation of NHTSA's efforts to gather input from stakeholders and the public regarding what approaches to propose to address potential challenges to the verification of the compliance with the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSSs) of Automated Driving System-Dedicated Vehicles (ADS-DVs) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that lack traditional manual controls, but have traditional seating configurations. In this document, the agency first discusses the types of barriers posed by the existing crash avoidance standards and, second, what types of test methods could be employed to test vehicles that lack traditional controls. NHTSA believes that safety should be the preeminent consideration when evaluating whether and how the test methods discussed in this document could be used to address regulatory barriers to ADS-DVs. NHTSA notes that the focus of this document is ADS-DVs, and that the agency is not at this time considering changing the applicability of current requirements to traditional vehicles.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         An ADS is the hardware and software that are collectively capable of performing the entire dynamic driving task (DDT) on a sustained basis, regardless of whether it is limited to a specific operational design domain. The term “ADS” specifically refers to SAE Level 3, 4, or 5 driving automation systems as described in SAE J3016_201806 Taxonomy and Definitions for Terms Related to Driving Automation Systems for On-Road Motor Vehicles. However, the focus of this document is on ADS-DVs that lack traditional manual controls, but have traditional seating configurations. ADS-DVs which are defined as vehicles designed to be operated exclusively by a level 4 or level 5 ADS for all trips within its given ODD limitations (if any). 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         For the purposes of this ANPRM, manual controls include traditional driving input mechanisms, such as the steering wheel, accelerator pedal, brake pedal, and transmission gear selector controls. We refer to these vehicles in the balance of the document as “ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Comments are requested on these approaches and specifically on their feasibility and permissibility as additions to relevant crash avoidance FMVSSs.</P>
                <P>To address barriers posed by the rest of the FMVSSs, NHTSA intends to issue two additional documents, one for the crashworthiness FMVSSs (200-series standards) and another for telltales, indicators, and warnings.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    The development of ADSs brings the possibility of associated reductions in the number of motor vehicle crashes, deaths, injuries, and associated economic costs. This document is one of three documents 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA is issuing to begin the development and implementation of a comprehensive strategy to update the FMVSSs to maintain the required performance levels of existing standards for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls while addressing regulatory barriers to the compliance verification of these vehicles. This ANPRM is intended to solicit focused feedback on the feasibility and permissibility of a number of approaches to addressing the challenges in certifying or verifying compliance to certain crash avoidance (100-series) for ADS-DVs without manual controls.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaMain.</E>
                         The Regulatory Identification Numbers for the two other documents are RIN 2127-AM06, RIN 2127-AM07.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         This document, therefore, does not address the regulation of ADS equipment or its performance, but rather focuses on determining and specifying in the FMVSS the processes that the agency will use in conducting compliance verification for vehicles without manual controls. This document is also not intended to address regulatory challenges relating to information or visibility requirements in the FMVSS (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         telltales, indicator lamps), the occupant protection requirements in the “crashworthiness” (200-series) FMVSS, dual-mode vehicles (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that can be either driven using manual controls or by the ADS), bi-directional vehicles, or vehicles with non-traditional seating configurations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “campfire” seating arrangement). NHTSA intends to address these and other related topics in research and future documents.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    While some ADS-DVs are equipped with manual controls, and thus NHTSA can conduct compliance verification testing of those vehicles using current test procedures, this is not the case with all ADS-DVs. Specifically, this ANPRM focuses on ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls and that may also lack other features intended to facilitate 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24435"/>
                    operation of a vehicle by a human driver. NHTSA believes that modifications of the existing regulatory text, including definitions and test methods used to perform some existing 100-series FMVSS compliance tests, may be necessary for the agency to assess the vehicles' compliance with certain existing FMVSS. The agency intends to explore modifications to the standards with a continued focus on safety.
                </P>
                <P>NHTSA notes that some equipment required under the current FMVSSs provide safety benefits beyond what the agency had originally contemplated at the time each FMVSS was promulgated. For instance, while the agency may have established rear visibility mirror performance requirements based on the safety need for a driver's visibility while driving, outside rearview mirrors have come to serve an additional safety function when a vehicle is parked by providing occupants information regarding whether it is safe to exit the vehicle. Such additional safety benefits must be considered in evaluating their continued necessity on an ADS-DV without traditional manual controls.</P>
                <P>In this document, NHTSA discusses two potential types of regulatory barriers for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls, describes a FMVSS that exemplifies each challenge, and presents a brief overview of comments on the request for comment (RFC). The agency also presents and seeks comment regarding the safety impacts of using alternative compliance test verification methods to conduct compliance verification testing for these types of vehicles, assuming that the standards and procedures could be revisited to appropriately ensure the existing standard of performance without requiring, directly or indirectly, manual controls. NHTSA has initiated work in these areas, including an internal evaluation of regulatory requirements as well as an ongoing research project with the Virginia Tech Transportation Institute (VTTI). The agency anticipates significant overlap between the standards identified and discussed in this ANPRM and the provisions and requirements identified by VTTI through its research activity and analysis. The comments received in response to this document will supplement the research to ensure that NHTSA is considering all stakeholders' perspectives when developing proposals to modify the existing FMVSSs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    NHTSA's primary exercise of its regulatory authority under the National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act, as amended (“Safety Act”), involves the development, establishment, and enforcement of the FMVSSs.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FMVSSs, including the tests they specify, must be: Practicable, both technologically and economically; objective, meaning that they must produce identical results when tests are conducted in identical conditions and determinations of compliance must be based on scientific measurements, not subjective opinion; and meet the need for safety.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, in issuing a FMVSS, the agency must consider whether the standard is reasonable, practicable, and appropriate for the types of motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for which it is prescribed.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA possesses broad general rulemaking authority to issue regulations to assist in implementing the Safety Act.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30111.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30102(a)(9), 30111(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30111(b)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act, 
                        <E T="03">as amended</E>
                         (Pub. L. 89-563, 80 Stat. 730) contained a section that authorized the Secretary to issue, amend, and revoke rules and regulations that the Secretary deemed necessary to carry out the subchapter (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         “general rulemaking authority”). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         S. Rep. No. 91-559, at 3136, 3141 (1969) That section was repealed as surplus during codification. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C.A. § 1406. 49 U.S.C. 322(a) separately provides the Secretary with such authority. The Secretary has, in turn, delegated that authority to all modal Administrators. 49 CFR 1.81 (a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Manufacturers must certify that their motor vehicles comply with all applicable standards before the vehicles can be sold, offered for sale, introduced or delivered for introduction in interstate commerce, or imported into the United States.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Generally speaking, certification to a standard means that the manufacturer, in exercising reasonable care, certifies that the vehicle meets the requirements of that standard, and that if the vehicle were to be tested according to the test procedures contained in the FMVSSs, the vehicle would meet or exceed the level of performance specified in the standard. That is, while NHTSA verifies that vehicles are compliant with the FMVSSs by conducting compliance tests as they are set forth in the FMVSSs and NHTSA's corresponding compliance test procedures, manufacturers are not required to follow the compliance test procedures, and, instead, simply may not certify a vehicle as compliant, if “in exercising reasonable care, the [manufacturer] has reason to know the certificate is false or misleading in material respect.” 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Absent an exemption or exception, ADS-DVs must comply with all applicable FMVSSs.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30115(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30112.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As the federal agency charged with reducing crashes and deaths and injuries resulting from crashes on the nation's roadways,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA is encouraged by the potential for safety improvements through new ADS technologies being developed by automobile manufacturers and other innovators. NHTSA anticipates that ADS-DVs can serve a vital safety role on the Nation's roads, particularly since human error and choice are critical factors behind the occurrence of a large number of crashes.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 30101.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Critical Reasons for Crashes Investigated in the National Motor Vehicle Crash Causation Survey (February 2015), 
                        <E T="03">available at https://crashstats.nhtsa.dot.gov/Api/Public/ViewPublication/812115.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    However, for ADS technologies to develop fully, technological and regulatory barriers must be overcome. NHTSA wants to take this opportunity to reaffirm that, despite the use of the term “regulatory barrier” in this and other future documents, the existing FMVSSs neither have any provisions addressing the self-driving capability of an ADS nor prohibit inclusion of ADS components on a vehicle. Likewise, nothing in those standards poses testing or certification challenges for vehicles with ADSs so long as the vehicles have means of manual control and conventional seating, and otherwise meet the performance requirements of the FMVSSs. Thus, it is a manufacturer's design of a motor vehicle without manual driving controls, design of a motor vehicle with novel seating configurations or orientations, or a covered party's disabling of any part of a device or element of design of a motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment that is currently in compliance with applicable FMVSSs, that could complicate the compliance of the vehicle to the existing FMVSSs 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —not solely the inclusion of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24436"/>
                    the hardware and software that make up an ADS. For ADS-DVs not designed to ever be driven by a human, requiring installation of traditional manual controls results in unnecessary design restrictions and regulatory expense.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         A covered party is defined as a manufacturer, distributor, dealer, rental company, or motor vehicle repair business. 49 U.S.C. 30122. Covered parties are prohibited from knowingly making inoperative any part of a device or element of design installed in a new or used motor vehicle or motor vehicle equipment in compliance with an applicable FMVSS. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The make inoperative prohibition contains an exception that applies when the covered party “reasonably believes” the vehicle or equipment with the inoperative device or element will only be used “for testing or a similar purpose during maintenance and repair.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         NHTSA has additional exemption authority with regard to the “make inoperative” prohibition and may prescribe regulations to exempt a person or a class of persons from this prohibition if the Agency decides the exemption is consistent with motor vehicle safety and the purposes of the Act. 49 U.S.C. 30122(c). NHTSA has issued regulatory exemptions to the make inoperative prohibition for the installation of airbag on/off switches and other 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        modifications to accommodate people with disabilities. 49 CFR part 595.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. NHTSA's Efforts To Provide Guidance and Regulatory Certainty</HD>
                <P>
                    This ANPRM builds on NHTSA's efforts in recent years to identify and address regulatory barriers to ADS technologies. NHTSA has already taken steps to address technological barriers through the publication of agency guidance to ensure the safe development and deployment of ADS technologies. In September 2017, the DOT released the guidance document 
                    <E T="03">Automated Driving Systems 2.0: A Vision for Safety</E>
                     to provide guidance to the public, particularly industry stakeholders and the States. 
                    <E T="03">A Vision for Safety</E>
                     discussed 12 priority safety design elements for manufacturers and other innovators involved in ADS development, including vehicle cybersecurity, human machine interface, crashworthiness, consumer education and training, and post-crash ADS behavior. More recently, DOT released 
                    <E T="03">Preparing for the Future of Transportation: Automated Vehicles 3.0,</E>
                     a complementary document to the 2017 guidance that introduces guiding principles that will support Departmental programs and policies and describes the DOT's multi-modal strategy to address existing barriers to safety innovation and progress. It also communicates DOT's agenda to the public and stakeholders on important policy issues and identifies opportunities for cross-modal collaboration. DOT's automation principles are: (1) We will prioritize safety; (2) We will remain technology neutral; (3) We will modernize regulations; (4) We will encourage a consistent regulatory and operational environment; (5) We will prepare proactively for automation; and (6) We will protect and enhance the freedoms enjoyed by Americans.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA has also conducted research activities to help inform its decision-making with regard to identifying and resolving regulatory barriers. NHTSA, in collaboration with the Volpe National Transportation Systems Center, conducted a preliminary report identifying barriers to the compliance testing and self-certification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls. In March 2016, that report was published (the “Volpe Report”).
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The report focused on FMVSS requirements that present barriers to the compliance testing and self-certification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls because they refer to a human driver.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Kim, Perlman, Bogard, and Harrington (2016, March) Review of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS) for Automated Vehicles, Preliminary Report. US DOT Volpe Center, Cambridge, MA. Available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://rosap.ntl.bts.gov/view/dot/12260.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The term `driver' is defined in § 571.3 as follows: “Driver means the occupant of the motor vehicle seated immediately behind the steering control system.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based on the Volpe Report findings, in 2017, NHTSA initiated work with VTTI to expand upon the work performed by Volpe by performing analysis and industry outreach to identify potential approaches for addressing compliance verification barriers.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Through this contract with NHTSA, VTTI is going beyond the initial work in the Volpe Report and taking a broader look at possible modifications to the current FMVSS regulatory text and test procedures that would both maintain safety and ensure regulatory certainty for manufacturers of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls. The VTTI project, as currently scoped, is separated into two phases. Phase I, which will include the technical translation of 30 FMVSSs and associated test procedures, concludes by the end of 2019. Phase II, which will focus on the remaining FMVSSs and associated test procedures, is expected to start in 2019 and conclude in mid-2021. These efforts are anticipated to inform NHTSA's decisions on updates to the FMVSSs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Contract No. DTNH2214D00328L/DTNH2217F00177, “Assessment, Evaluation, and Approaches to Modification of FMVSS that may Impact Compliance of Innovative New Vehicle Designs Associated with Automated Driving Systems.” The task award document states “[t]he overall goal of this Task Order is to provide NHTSA findings and results needed to make informed decisions regarding the modification of FMVSS in relation to the certification and compliance verification of innovative new vehicle designs precipitated by automated driving systems.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to these research efforts, NHTSA has also requested input from stakeholders through a January 2018 RFC to identify regulatory barriers in the FMVSS to the testing, compliance certification, and compliance verification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls.
                    <E T="51">17 18</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This ANPRM continues the discussion on topics covered in the January 2018 RFC. NHTSA also recently published an ANPRM requesting public input on a possible future national pilot program for the safe on-road testing and deployment of vehicles with high or full driving automation.
                    <E T="51">19 20</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         See the table in Appendix A for explanations of these terms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         83 FR 2607 (Jan. 18, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         83 FR 50872 (Oct. 10, 2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Deployment in this context refers to the manufacturing for sale, selling, offering for sale, introducing or delivering for introduction in interstate commerce, or importing of vehicles in the U.S.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, NHTSA has received and evaluated an interpretation request and petition for exemption that helped inform this document. The first was an interpretation request received from Google, to which the agency responded on February 4, 2016.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The response covered a variety of Google's concerns relating to how it could certify a vehicle that does not include manual controls, such as a steering wheel, accelerator pedal, or brake pedal. The response also provided tables listing those standards that NHTSA could interpret Google's ADS as the “driver” or “operator,” and a table listing those standards that NHTSA could interpret the human occupant seated in the left front designated seating position as the “driver.” 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The agency interpreted the term “driver” as applying to the ADS. Even so, NHTSA's response highlighted that interpreting the driver to be the ADS “does not end the inquiry or determine the result”—many of the interpretive requests would require rulemaking and/or exemption for resolution.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Available at https://isearch.nhtsa.gov/files/Google%20-%20compiled%20response%20to%2012%20Nov%20%2015%20interp%20request%20-%204%20Feb%2016%20final.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The second request that helped inform this document is a petition for exemption from General Motors (GM), which the agency received on January 11, 2018.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In that petition, GM categorized what they described as “human-driver-based requirements” into three categories: (1) Features designed to interface with a human driver, such as manual controls; (2) features designed to provide human drivers with information, such a telltales and indicator lamps; and (3) features to protect human occupants, such as air bags. GM's contention is that its ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls require only the third category of requirements. GM states that the ADS-DV provides the controls and information to the ADS, and that doing so meets the safety objectives of the FMVSS. Additionally, the GM petition states that their vehicle applies the occupant protection required for the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24437"/>
                    right front seating position to the left front seating position.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Information available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nhtsa.gov/laws-regulations/petitions-nhtsa.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based on these efforts, NHTSA has determined that most of the potential regulatory barriers to the certification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls in the 100-series FMVSSs fall into three categories: (1) The standard requires a manual control; (2) the standard specifies how the agency will use manual controls in the regulatory description of how it will test for compliance; or (3) the definition or use of particular terms (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     “driver”) become so unclear that clarification is necessary before certification and compliance verification testing is possible.
                </P>
                <P>To address these barriers, NHTSA considered stakeholder input and conducted an internal analysis of the translations of the regulatory text necessary to remove barriers, and has identified in the ANPRM a number of regulatory approaches for how to amend the FMVSSs to accommodate compliance verification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls. Using two primary crash avoidance standards as illustrative examples, this ANPRM provides a discussion of the first two identified categories of potential regulatory barriers.</P>
                <P>Removal of barriers posed by references to traditional manual controls in the standards or test procedures, however, does not resolve all issues, as NHTSA itself must still be able to test these vehicles to ensure their compliance. This ANPRM, therefore, provides several alternative compliance verification test methods that commenters briefly mentioned in their comments. NHTSA has made no judgment at this time regarding which compliance verification test method would be best for addressing the particular regulatory barriers, if any, and expects that it may be possible that the feasibility, including meeting the requirements of the Safety Act, of a particular compliance strategy would depend on the context in which it is used. It is NHTSA's hope that the feedback received in response to this ANPRM will support this and future rulemaking activities and clarify the compliance methods that would best address any crash avoidance regulatory barriers that may exist today.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Stakeholder Feedback</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 18, 2018, the agency issued an RFC seeking public comments to identify regulatory barriers in the existing FMVSS to the testing, compliance certification, and compliance verification of motor vehicles equipped with ADS and certain unconventional interior designs (83 FR 2607). The agency received roughly 100 comment submissions to the RFC.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Comments were received from a diverse group of stakeholders including safety advocates; trade associations; individual vehicle manufacturers; automotive suppliers; state and local government agencies; international standards organizations working groups; insurance/legal; research institutions; policy centers; consultants; workers'/union representatives; and individuals. In addition, to support the RFC, NHTSA held a public meeting on March 6, 2018 (83 FR 6148) in Washington, DC, at which VTTI presented an overview of their NHTSA-funded project focused on the development of options for potential FMVSSs and compliance test procedure revisions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Docket No. NHTSA-2018-0009.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Comments were requested in two main areas: (1) Barriers to testing, certification, and compliance verification and (2) research needed to address those barriers and NHTSA's role in conducting such research. Topics discussed by commenters included, for example, suggestions for regulatory strategies for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls; specific barriers; suggestions about the use of interpretations and exemptions to remove regulatory barriers; importance of maintaining and ensuring safety for all road users; activities being conducted by industry standard organizations; potential impacts to the environment and the workforce; considerations from local and state government organizations; data acquisition, use and protection; research needs; among others. Input received from these stakeholders, as it relates to the focus of this ANPRM, is included and referenced throughout this document. A brief summary of comments follows.</P>
                <P>Vehicle manufacturers and technology companies suggested that NHTSA consider all regulatory tools in the near term, including interpretations and exemptions, to address regulatory uncertainty instead of relying on the notice and comment rulemaking process. While NHTSA is utilizing these processes, where appropriate, the agency is concurrently pursuing regulatory action to address issues that require changes to the regulatory text.</P>
                <P>Some safety advocates stated that, before removing regulatory barriers, new FMVSSs are needed for ADSs to avoid unintended safety consequences. Vehicle manufacturers and technology companies also generally stated that NHTSA should focus on conventional vehicles equipped with ADSs first, and that barriers unaffected by the absence or presence of traditional manual controls could be addressed later. Further, there was some disagreement amongst commenters regarding which FMVSSs should be retained, even for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls.</P>
                <P>The agency agrees that the existing FMVSSs neither have provisions addressing the capabilities of ADSs nor prohibit ADS hardware or software, but believes that unique aspects of ADSs warrant further research to assess how to best structure any new regulation in a way that appropriately addresses safety issues. Accordingly, the agency's focus in this document is on the narrower question of how to amend the FMVSS to safely permit ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls . . . The agency, therefore, discusses an approach to address challenges for crash avoidance standards, with an emphasis on what the agency could do to clarify how it will conduct compliance verification testing for the two previously identified categories of barriers.</P>
                <P>The agency also received comments on other topics such as data, cybersecurity, and impact of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls on traffic congestion, transit, land use, the environment, jobs, and training. Although, not the focus of this document, the agency has reviewed and appreciates stakeholders' perspectives on these topics. Other NHTSA and DOT activities, including the Pilot Program for Collaborative Research on Motor Vehicles with High or Full Driving Automation ANPRM, Study on the Impacts of Automated Vehicle Technologies on the Workforce, and voluntary guidance documents, are examining some of these issues and may inform future regulatory proposals.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Addressing Barriers in the FMVSS</HD>
                <P>In the ANPRM, NHTSA furthers the discussion begun in the RFC by seeking comment on potential strategies to safely address regulatory barriers to the compliance verification of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls. Because the agency believes that safety should be the primary focus of its efforts to address barriers to ADS-DVs, we ask that commenters explain how the use of the different regulatory approaches discussed in this document would affect vehicle safety.</P>
                <P>
                    In this section, the agency describes and provides illustrative examples of the two predominant categories of regulatory barriers to compliance 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24438"/>
                    certification that exist in the crash avoidance standards.
                </P>
                <P>The crash avoidance standards, located in the FMVSS 100-series, are designed to reduce the likelihood of a crash occurring or, failing that, reduce the severity of a crash by reducing the velocity of vehicles involved in a crash. This is in contrast to the agency's crashworthiness standards, located in the FMVSS 200-series, which are designed to reduce the risk of injury to occupants in a crash. Thus, the most prominent historical examples of crash avoidance standards concern: Lighting, mirrors and other measures to enhance visibility; braking requirements; and measures related to tires. More recently, this category of standards includes the agency's requirements that rely on advanced safety systems, including electronic stability control (ESC), rear visibility systems, and sound alerts for pedestrians, as these technologies, like more advanced ADS technologies, are designed to decrease the likelihood of a crash.</P>
                <P>The agency has established that most of the barriers within the crash avoidance standards fall into one of the following three types:</P>
                <P>1. The standard requires a manual control.</P>
                <P>2. The standard specifies how the agency will use manual controls in the regulatory description of how it will test.</P>
                <P>
                    3. The definition or use of terms (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     “driver”) in the FMVSS that assume human control of vehicles.
                </P>
                <P>The following sections discuss these first two types of barriers by focusing on a prominent example of each barrier and how the agency could address this type of barrier. The third type of barrier has impacts on all of NHTSA's standards, and therefore will be addressed in the agency's future documents.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Example #1 (FMVSS No. 135): Manual Control Required</HD>
                <P>The first type of barrier to the compliance verification of an ADS-DV without traditional manual controls is when a safety standard directly requires a manual control be provided in the vehicle.</P>
                <P>
                    FMVSS No. 135, “Light vehicle brake systems,” provides an illustrative example of a standard that serves as a potential barrier because it requires that vehicles be equipped a manual control and requires that this manual control be used to test compliance. Specifically, per FMVSS No. 135, S5.3, all light vehicles must be equipped with service brakes that “
                    <E T="03">shall be activated by means of a foot control.</E>
                    ”
                </P>
                <P>
                    Evaluation and discussion of this barrier is not new—NHTSA's interpretation letter to Google stated that the agency would need to commence rulemaking to consider an amendment to FMVSS No. 135.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The agency is carefully assessing the overall safety impacts of removing any potential barriers in FMVSS No. 135.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://isearch.nhtsa.gov/files/Google%20-%20compiled%20response%20to%2012%20Nov%20%2015%20interp%20request%20-%204%20Feb%2016%20final.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">RFC Comments:</E>
                     A number of commenters to the RFC specifically discussed the FMVSS No. 135 “foot control” requirement as a potential barrier to the design of their ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls. Overall, many of the industry commenters requested that NHTSA remove the reference to a foot control. However, other commenters, including some safety advocates, requested that NHTSA focus its efforts on creating additional standards to regulate the ADS rather than removing or modifying components of current standards. Some commenters also requested that NHTSA examine any risks associated with permitting the removal of brake system controls and advocated for a holistic assessment of all risks each FMVSS mitigates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">NHTSA's Preliminary Analysis:</E>
                     To consider how best to address a regulatory barrier such as that imposed by the FMVSS No. 135 “foot control” requirement, NHTSA believes it is important to first consider the safety purpose of the standard. For example, the stated purpose of FMVSS No. 135 is to “ensure safe braking performance under normal and emergency driving conditions.” 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A foot-controlled brake serves several interests. First, it ensures that a driver can decelerate the vehicle while maintaining maximum control over the steering input. Second, it ensures that a driver will always know that brakes are actuated by foot controls. Third, absent power brake technology, a driver can apply more force with a foot pedal than by using a hand-operated control. Some of these interests are less relevant today than in the past. For example, power brake technology can substantially reduce the force required to actuate the service brakes and is found in the vast majority of new vehicles produced today.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         49 CFR 571.135.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In considering whether to remove a requirement for a manual control such as a foot-actuated service brake control, it is critical to consider broader impacts on safety. Specifically, in order to assess the overall impact of removing the requirement that service brakes be operated by foot control, NHTSA must consider the reasoned expectation that a human driver will reliably use the service brakes to avoid obstacles.</P>
                <P>Thus, NHTSA is considering four possible approaches to address requirements for manual controls such as the foot-actuated brake pedal requirement in FMVSS No. 135. As these are general approaches to this issue, they are not intended to address specific standards, which may have underlying statutory mandates that could limit the agency's flexibility.</P>
                <P>• First, if the required control is necessary for motor vehicle safety on all vehicles, NHTSA would retain the requirement for all vehicles, even if that requires potentially redundant technologies for certain ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls.</P>
                <P>• Second, if the required control is no longer necessary for motor vehicle safety for any vehicle, NHTSA could remove or otherwise modify the requirement, if permitted to by law.</P>
                <P>• Third, if the required control is still necessary for motor vehicle safety for traditional vehicles, but not necessary for the safety of ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls, NHTSA could retain the requirement only for traditional vehicles and, if permitted by law, exclude ADS-DVs without manual controls.</P>
                <P>
                    • Fourth, if the required control is necessary for motor vehicle safety, but a different control (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a non-human-actuated control) would be necessary for an ADS-DV to perform the same function, NHTSA may retain the existing requirement for traditional vehicles, but have a separate, different control or equipment requirement for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Example #2 (FMVSS No. 126): Existing Test Procedures That Cannot Be Executed Absent Traditional Manual Controls</HD>
                <P>
                    The second type of barrier is when the test procedure for a standard specifies how the agency will use manual controls in the regulatory description of how it will test vehicles' compliance with the performance requirements of an FMVSS, even though the standard itself does not require a manual control. Typically, NHTSA's safety standards outline performance requirements that must be met under certain test procedures and NHTSA will conduct compliance verification tests in accordance with these procedures. Some descriptions of how NHTSA will conduct a FMVSS compliance verification test reference controls that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24439"/>
                    are not present on ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls, or not provided in the same capacity as a vehicle with manual controls.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An example of this type of barrier is in FMVSS No. 126; Electronic Stability Control (ESC) Systems for Light Vehicles. The purpose of FMVSS No. 126 is to reduce the numbers of deaths and injuries that result from crashes in which the driver loses directional control of the vehicle, including those resulting in vehicle rollover, by requiring that vehicles be installed with an ESC system that meets the performance requirements established in the standard.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The FMVSS, therefore, is about the performance of the ESC system, not any traditional manual control. However, the compliance test included in the regulation states that “a steering machine programmed to execute the required steering pattern must be used.” 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This paragraph says that the agency will use a steering machine, which mounts to the vehicle steering wheel and, through computer programming, is used to apply steering inputs at specific magnitudes, rates, and timing, when conducting the tests within the ESC standard. This requirement is based on the assumption at the time of the standard's promulgation that all vehicles subject to FMVSS No. 126 would have steering wheels. However, for an ADS-DV without a traditional steering wheel, the manufacturer of the vehicle is left without the necessary information as to how the agency will conduct a compliance verification test, and therefore, lacks the regulatory certainty it would normally have when conducting its certification testing for a traditional vehicle. Further, NHTSA would also not be able to conduct its own compliance test. Thus, in this scenario, it is impossible to determine whether the ESC is adequately functioning.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         49 CFR 571.126.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         49 CFR 571.126, S6.3.5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">RFC Comments:</E>
                     Several commenters provided feedback on possible alternate test methods to verify compliance with FMVSS No. 126. Many of these comments concerned how compliance could be verified once the agency has determined how to modify the test procedure to remove the reference to the traditional manual control. These issues are addressed in the following section. With regard to how the procedures themselves could be modified, some commenters suggested that the agency focus on identifying alternate performance criteria to address the safety intent of the standard using different metrics (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     lateral displacement, peak yaw rate, and instant yaw rate). Specific to the ESC test, one commenter suggested an alternate metric to steering wheel angle suggested by commenters was the angle of the front wheels relative to the longitudinal axis of the vehicle. Other commenters suggest that, instead of making substantial changes to existing standards, NHTSA should consider issuing a separate set of standards specifically for ADS-DVs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">NHTSA's Preliminary Analysis:</E>
                     Considering the FMVSS No. 126 example above, the purpose of this standard is to “reduce the number of deaths and injuries that result from crashes in which the driver loses directional control of the vehicle, including those resulting in vehicle rollover.” That is, the agency did not promulgate the rule for the purpose of requiring a steering wheel or regulating the performance of the steering wheel, but used the equipment it reasonably anticipated at the time would be included in any of the vehicles for which ESC would be required. The agency tentatively believes that other standards that present similar types of barriers were also intended to address the performance of some other part of the vehicle, rather than the manual control. Therefore, the agency could modify the test procedure in such a way that removes or modifies the reference to the control without affecting the performance of the regulated aspect of the vehicle.
                </P>
                <P>
                    There are numerous ways that this could be done. For example, if an ADS-DV lacks traditional manual controls but continues to have some way to control the vehicle (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     through a wireless application), the agency could revise the test procedure to reference alternative types of controls. Alternatively, it may be that these vehicles will also continue to have equipment that the agency can use to test the performance of a regulated component. For example, although vehicles without traditional manual controls will not have a steering wheel, they will have a steering system that controls the directional motion of the vehicle based on inputted path or destination information.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA may be able to identify a different point within the steering system at which the magnitude of a turn can be measured. If such a point can be identified and a means of commanding the translated input to the vehicle can be developed, NHTSA could conduct the ESC compliance test in the same manner as it is done on vehicles with steering wheels. NHTSA requests comment on this analysis and possible approaches for addressing test procedures that presume the presence of manual controls, such as the steering wheel angle portion of FMVSS No. 126. Another approach may be to identify and evaluate other relevant performance metrics. For example, replacing the steering wheel angle requirements with a wheel angle requirement. Further, the agency could more dramatically revise the standard to address the performance of the regulated feature or component by considering the safety intent of the standard. For example, for ESC, the safety intent is to reduce deaths and injuries from crashes in which the driver loses directional control of the vehicle. If NHTSA took this type of broad view, it could potentially replace the sine-with-dwell maneuver with some type of road course that would assess the ADS-DV's ability to steer to avoid obstacles, potentially including a variant of the sine-with-dwell maneuver, thereby testing the associated lateral accelerations, yaw rates, etc. However, to develop an objective, repeatable road course to replace the sine-with-dwell maneuver and adequately evaluate a vehicle's ESC system would require considerable research, so other nearer-term solutions would still need to be considered.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         Separately, FMVSS No. 203; “Impact protections for the driver from the steering control system” defines a steering control system as “the basic steering mechanism and its associated trim hardware, including any portion of a steering column assembly that provides energy absorption upon impact. SAE documents refer to “lower steering system”, the “upper steering system”, “power assist systems,” and “advanced steering systems.” The lower steering system includes, but is not limited to, the wheel end, suspension geometry, linkages, and steering gear. The upper steering system includes, but is not limited to, the steering column and intermediate shaft. The power assist system includes, but is not limited to, any hydraulic, electro-hydraulic, and electric power steering functionalities. Finally, the advanced steering systems include, but are not limited to, rear wheel steer, active front steer, active park assist, and other driver assistance systems. See SAE C0716 “Fundamentals of Steering Systems,” 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sae.org/learn/content/c0716/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The agency seeks comment on the feasibility of these and other approaches, including explanation of how any potential changes to the regulatory text will affect vehicle safety.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         The agency understands that FMVSS No. 136, Electronic Stability Control for Heavy Vehicles, presents similar issues as those discussed for FMVSS No. 126.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Additional Barrier Examples</HD>
                <P>
                    The above two examples demonstrate different types of barriers that exist for manufacturers interested in certifying ADS-DVs that lack traditional manual 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24440"/>
                    controls to existing requirements in the FMVSSs. These barriers are not mutually exclusive, as a particular standard could include both types of barriers.
                </P>
                <P>The agency has tentatively identified the types of barriers in the following provisions: In FMVSS No. 108, hazard warning signal flashers and operating units, beam switching devices, and turn signal operating units; in FMVSS No. 114, depressing the brake pedal and references to the parking brake; in FMVSS No. 138, driving the vehicle on the Uniform Tire Quality Grading (UTQG) public roadways as part of the compliance test procedure; as well as similar provisions in the standards that apply specifically for heavy vehicles, including FMVSS No. 105, 121, and 136. See the table below categorizing each of these additional examples by the type of barrier it represents.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,16C,16C">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Barrier type 1— 
                            <LI>requires a manual control</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Barrier type 2—
                            <LI>specifies the use of manual controls in </LI>
                            <LI>a compliance </LI>
                            <LI>test procedure</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">FMVSS No. 108:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Hazard warning signal flasher or operating unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Beam switching device</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Turn signal operating unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">FMVSS No. 114:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reference to parking brake</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Depressing the brake pedal</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">FMVSS No. 138:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Driving the vehicle on the UTQG public roadways as part of the compliance test procedure</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">FMVSS No. 105:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reference to a specific device that reduces operator effort and mentions muscular force in the definition of brake power assist</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Manual control to be used during testing of the hydraulic and electric brake systems</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">FMVSS No. 121:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mention a “service brake control”</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mentions “actuation of the parking brake control”</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Parking brake control—trucks and buses. The parking brake control shall be separate from the service brake control. It shall be operable by a person seated in the normal driving position. The control shall be identified in a manner that specifies the method of control operation. The parking brake control shall control the parking brakes of the vehicle and of any air braked vehicle that it is designed to tow</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">FMVSS No. 136:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Transmission and Brake Controls. The transmission selector control is in a forward gear during all maneuvers. A vehicle equipped with an engine braking system that is engaged and disengaged by the driver is tested with the system disengaged</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>X</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The agency has a series of questions relating to the examples listed above in this section and to the next section. Thus, the questions will be listed after the following section.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Possible Approaches To Revising Crash Avoidance Test Procedures</HD>
                <P>The above discussion concerns how the agency could remove references to traditional manual controls in both the standards and test procedures. However, that begs the question: once vehicles no long have traditional manual controls, how will NHTSA be able to test them to ensure that they meet the revised standards? Without traditional controls, NHTSA will have to confront such varied issues as: how to get a vehicle it purchases for compliance testing from the test facility; how it will direct the vehicle to perform the required test procedure; how it will deal with a vehicle whose ODD does not include a test facility; and so on.</P>
                <P>
                    Below are several general approaches NHTSA could consider in developing a document proposing to amend the existing 100-series FMVSS requirements and test procedures for ADS-DVs without manual controls in a way that allows NHTSA to conducts testing for vehicles that are not required to have traditional manual controls. NHTSA developed these approaches in response to certain comments 
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     received in response to the January 2018 RFC, as well as NHTSA's own internal analysis. NHTSA's goal is to ensure that the testing methods it specifies for its use in testing ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls are practicable and objective, and otherwise meet the requirements of the Safety Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         The agency's discussions of those approaches do not include a summary of what the commenters said about the approaches. This is because the commenters simply identified them; they did not describe them or explore of their possible advantages/disadvantages. Where possible, the agency does provide a citation to an example of the comments that mention one or more of those approaches.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The agency requests comment on the following approaches: (1) Normal ADS-DV operation; (2) Test Mode with Pre-Programmed Execution (TMPE); (3) Test Mode with External Control (TMEC); (4) Simulation; (5) Technical Documentation for System Design and/or Performance Approach; and (6) Use of Surrogate Vehicle with Human Controls. The agency also requests comment on whether any additional alternatives are possible. In addition to answers to the questions that appear after the discussion of each approach, NHTSA requests that commenters answer these questions for each of the approaches:</P>
                <P>1. What are the possible advantages and disadvantages of each approach?</P>
                <P>2. Discuss whether each approach fits the requirements and criteria of the Safety Act and enables effective enforcement of the FMVSSs. Explain the basis for your answers.</P>
                <P>
                    3. Can more than one of these approaches be specified by the agency as alternative ways for the agency to determine compliance with the same requirement in the same FMVSS? If so, please describe how this could be done consistent with the Vehicle Safety Act, using one or more specific FMVSS requirements as illustrative examples. If more than one approach could be specified for the same requirement in the same FMVSS, do commenters believe that the agency, in assessing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24441"/>
                    compliance with the same requirement in the same FMVSS, choose one approach for one vehicle model, but another approach for a different model? If so, explain why.
                </P>
                <P>4. If only one of these approaches can be used to enforce a particular FMVSS requirement, what factors should be considered in selecting that approach? What policy or other considerations should guide the agency in choosing one alternative approach versus another for determining the compliance of a particular vehicle or item of equipment?</P>
                <P>
                    5. With respect to any single approach or combination of approaches, could it be ensured that the compliance of all makes and models across the industry is measured by the same yard stick, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     that all vehicles are held to the same standard of performance, in meeting the same FMVSS requirement?
                </P>
                <P>6. What other potential revisions or additions to terms, in addition to `driver', are necessary for crash avoidance standards that NHTSA should consider defining or modifying to better communicate how the agency intends to conduct compliance verification of ADS vehicle.</P>
                <P>7. Should NHTSA consider an approach to establish new definitions that apply only to ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls?</P>
                <P>8. For compliance testing methods involving adjusting current test procedures to allow alternative methods of controlling the test vehicle during the test (normal ADS-DV function, TMPE, TMEC), or to allow the use of a surrogate vehicle:</P>
                <P>a. How could NHTSA ensure that the test vehicle's performance using the compliance method is an accurate proxy for the ADS-DV's performance during normal operation?</P>
                <P>b. If NHTSA were to incorporate the test method into its test procedures, would NHTSA need to adjust the performance requirements for each standard (in addition to the test procedures) to adequately maintain the focus on safety for an ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>9. For compliance testing methods that replace physical tests with non-physical requirements (simulation, documentation):</P>
                <P>a. If the test method is used to determine compliance with a real-world test, how can NHTSA validate the accuracy of a simulation or documentation?</P>
                <P>b. If NHTSA must run real-world tests to validate a simulation or documentation, what is the advantage of non-physical requirements over these other compliance methods?</P>
                <P>10. Would non-physical requirements simply replicate the existing physical tests in a virtual world? If not, what would be the nature of the non-physical requirements (that is, what performance metrics would these requirements use, and how would NHTSA measure them)? Are there ways that NHTSA could amend the FMVSSs to remove barriers to ADS-DVs that would not require using the compliance test methods described in below?</P>
                <P>a. Are there any barriers in the FMVSS or NHTSA's test procedures that could be addressed by altering or removing references to manual controls in the test procedures without substantively changing the FMVSS performance requirement?</P>
                <P>b. Are there any changes that NHTSA could make to the FMVSS test procedures that could incorporate basic ADS capabilities to demonstrate performance, such as using an ADS-DV's capability to recognize and obey a stop sign to test service brake performance?</P>
                <P>11. What research or data exists to show that the compliance test method would adequately maintain the focus on ADS-DV safety? What modifications of the safety standards would be necessary to enable the use of the test method?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Normal ADS-DV Operation</HD>
                <P>One possible approach for vehicle manufacturers to use for self-certification, and the agency to use for compliance verification, is the “Normal ADS-DV Operation” approach. This approach involves operating the ADS-DV without traditional manual controls “as-is” with no extra programming and/or installation of any kind of manual controls for test maneuver execution. The ADS would be in control of the vehicle during compliance testing with all of its operational restrictions and decision-making capabilities in place. In its most basic form, compliance verification using Normal ADS-DV Operation would require the engineer performing the compliance test to input an appropriate destination using the same input method indicated by the ADS-DV's manufacturer for real-world operation. Vehicle performance would be observed and assessed during the period of normal on-road vehicle operation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Normal ADS-DV Operation approach may provide the most “realistic” representation of how the vehicle would perform during normal use. This approach could allow NHTSA to continue acquiring vehicles in the same way that U.S. consumers do, from commercial dealerships, and testing actual vehicles to verify they meet the FMVSS requirements.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA is interested in maintaining its policy to buy and test new production vehicles from dealership lots, to the extent possible. NHTSA believes that there are several test requirements in the FMVSSs for which Normal ADS-DV Operation may be a feasible compliance option if certain assumptions are correct. For example, the FMVSS No. 138 procedure for testing a vehicle's tire pressure monitoring system requires that the test vehicle is driven on a specific public roadway for a specified distance at the posted roadway speeds. During the test, the vehicle is stopped along the way to reduce tire inflation pressure and then driven again until a low inflation pressure indication is obtained. This test procedure could be modified to permit use of the Normal ADS-DV Operation approach for ADS-DVs by allowing the driving portion of the test to be performed by the ADS, which would be commanded by the test engineer using the ADS-DV's normal input method to select a destination.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         This statement assumes that ADS-DVs will be sold or leased to individual owners, similarly to how traditional vehicles are sold. This assumption may be incorrect if the majority of ADS-DVs are used as rideshare vehicles.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The primary drawback to the Normal ADS-DV Operation approach for ADS-DVs that lack manual controls is that its application is limited to test procedure requirements capable of being performed within the Operational Design Domain (ODD) 
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the ADS. As such, tests involving vehicle maneuvers or operation at speeds, locations, or other operating conditions not experienced within the vehicle's ODD could not be performed using this method. For example, a vehicle whose ODD does not include the specified test track for the above TPMS test, whether for geographic or road-type restrictions, could not use this approach to conduct the test. Another drawback of this approach, which several of the alternatives below attempt to correct, is that, even if a vehicle's ODD could allow it to perform a test, the vehicle may not be equipped with the controls necessary to allow NHTSA to actually conduct the test.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         The ODD is the operating conditions under which a given driving automation system or feature thereof is specifically designed to function, including, but not limited to, environmental, geographical, and time-of-day restrictions, and/or the requisite presence or absence of certain traffic or roadway characteristics. SAE J3016_201806 Taxonomy and Definitions for Terms Related to Driving Automation Systems for On-Road Motor Vehicles.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For NHTSA to evaluate the feasibility of the Normal ADS-DV Operation approach for compliance verification, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24442"/>
                    the agency would need more information about the extent to which an ADS-DV can be controlled under normal operation. In addition, it is possible that normal control could be used on some vehicles but not on others, since manufacturers may implement different methods for vehicle operators to communicate with and command the vehicle to accomplish on-road driving. To the extent that some but not all ADS-DVs could be designed to allow for this type of testing, at least for certain standards, it may be challenging for NHTSA to design appropriately objective standards to cover all ADS-DVs. To address these issues, NHTSA believes it is essential to better understand how operators will interface with and operate these ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls under normal conditions.
                </P>
                <P>To better understand the “Normal ADS-DV Operation” approach and its possible applications, the agency asks the following questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>
                    12. What design concepts are vehicle manufacturers considering relating to how an ADS-DV passenger/operator will interface with, or command (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     via verbal or manual input), the ADS to accomplish any driving task within its ODD? Please explain each design concept and exactly how each would be commanded to execute on-road trips.
                </P>
                <P>13. Are there specific challenges that will be encountered with this kind of approach for vehicle compliance verification? Please be specific and explain each challenge.</P>
                <P>14. Will all ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls be capable of receiving and acting upon simple commands not consisting of a street address based destination, such as “drive forward or backwards a distance of 10 feet and stop”; “shift from park to drive and accelerate to 25 mph”; “drive up onto a car hauler truck trailer”; etc.? Please explain projected challenges for ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls to complete discrete driving commands and tasks.</P>
                <P>15. How would NHTSA ensure that the performance of the ADS-DV during testing is consistent with how the vehicle would perform during actual normal use?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Test Mode With Pre-Programmed Execution (TMPE)</HD>
                <P>A TMPE is an approach to compliance testing in which the manufacturer programs into the ADS-DV a test mode that gives the test engineer access to a pre-programmed “compliance test library” from which pre-programmed testing scenarios can be selected and executed. The testing programs in the compliance library would be used to automatically perform the driving actions necessary for each applicable FMVSS compliance test. Pre-programmed execution is conceptually similar to that achieved via use of an external controller, discussed in detail below, in that it involves specific commands being sent to the ADS for purposes of executing compliance test procedures, with the key difference being the source of the commands. TMPE-based tests would be performed by using a manufacturer-installed suite of compliance testing programs; no external controller interface with the ADS-DV would be required to perform specified FMVSS compliance tests. A means of maneuvering the vehicle for purposes other than compliance tests may be necessary to load it onto or off of a transport vehicle and to move it in areas not part of its ODD, such as between a garage and test course at a compliance test facility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    While GM and ZF Group (ZF) briefly suggested that concepts similar to TMPE may be a viable approach, Mercedes and the Alliance of Automobile Manufacturers (Alliance), who discussed TMPE in greater detail, raised a number of potential problems that NHTSA believes may need to be addressed for it to be a viable method for compliance testing. Both Mercedes and the Alliance noted that pre-programmed execution may not be possible for test procedures that require driving maneuvers that are outside of an ADS's ODD. For example, an ADS-DV that is designed to be operated by the ADS only at lower speeds, but that does not qualify as a low-speed vehicle as defined by 571.3 (allowing it to be subject to the limited performance requirements of FMVSS No. 500), may lack the functionality to perform higher-speed maneuvers required for demonstrating compliance with certain standards (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     FMVSS Nos. 126; Electronic stability control systems and 135; Light vehicle brake systems). In addition, both Mercedes and the Alliance also raised the concern that the TMPE's test mode present a vulnerability for cybersecurity-related issues, and that issues such as providing mapping data for the specific proving grounds or other facilities at which test procedure is executed would need to be addressed.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    TMPE may be useful for assessing FMVSS compliance with test track-based performance requirements because it enables a test engineer to directly instruct an ADS-DV to execute the driving maneuvers necessary to perform the FMVSS test procedures. Since the ADS-DV would be programmed with the compliance library by the manufacturer at the time of production, compatibility of the commands within the library and vehicle being evaluated should be ensured (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     translation of the commands defined within the FMVSS test procedures to a format understood by the ADS is not required).
                </P>
                <P>
                    TMPE also has the potential for streamlining the testing process. Rather than performing tests intended to characterize the ADS-DV without traditional manual controls (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the brake application needed to activate ABS during an FMVSS No. 135 evaluation, or the steering input needed to achieve 0.3g during an FMVSS No. 126 assessment), the ADS-DV would be pre-programmed with testing information that presumably would precisely execute the FMVSS test procedures. In addition, NHTSA could validate (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     confirm that the characterization tests that provide the data needed to define the input parameters used to perform tests used in standards like FMVSS No. 126 and 135 have been correctly performed and have output the expected values) these pre-programmed configurations relatively easily by equipping the ADS-DV with conventional instrumentation during conduct of the FMVSS assessments in a manner consistent with that presently in use. NHTSA also imagines TMPE could be implemented at a relatively low cost, because manufacturers could simply program the vehicles' TMPE compliance library with the same compliance test programs the manufacturer uses for its own development testing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Notwithstanding these potential benefits, additional information regarding the way in which a pre-programmed FMVSS compliance test library may be implemented is needed to allow NHTSA to better understand the viability of the concept. For example, how would the test engineer responsible for performing the tests access the compliance library so they may select a specific test to perform? This could conceivably be via a “test menu” presented on an original equipment visual display within the ADS-DV. However, an OEM may not want to provide an obvious or visual means of accessing a pre-programmed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24443"/>
                    compliance test library to minimize the opportunity for individuals not performing compliance testing to access the test library. If access to a test menu is not provided, some means of communicating with the vehicle to select and initiate specific tests will be necessary, such as through the use of an external controller. However, NHTSA understands that granting access to the ADS-DV by means of any external controller represents a potential security risk, and would therefore like to better understand the way(s) a test engineer may be expected to securely access the compliance library and test menu required for performing FMVSS evaluations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA also seeks to better understand transportation concerns with moving the vehicle to the desired test location and testing the vehicle at that location. The test areas used for FMVSS certification on test tracks and proving grounds can be very different than public roads and potentially outside the ODD of the test vehicle. Even if the ADS-DV is transported (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not driven) to, and unloaded at, a designated test area, test instrumentation (and potentially the vehicle itself) typically requires a sequence of short driving maneuvers be performed to initialize vehicle- and instrumentation-based sensors, and for the vehicle to be positioned at a staging point that may not necessarily be the same day-to-day or even trial-to-trial. Should the vehicle need to return to the staging point after completion of a trial, it is expected that the return path will need to be made in accordance with test facility operating guidelines to safely avoid other traffic, and obey any direction of travel and facility use restrictions, etc. The return path may not necessarily be the most direct one.
                </P>
                <P>For the sake of maximizing test safety, it may be desirable to terminate a test performed with an ADS-DV if it is not being performed correctly, if the vehicle experiences a malfunction, or other traffic unexpectedly appears, etc. In some cases, it may be necessary to quickly brake the vehicle to a stop. One means of doing so could be through use of an emergency stop (E-stop) option within the test menu. To maximize the effectiveness of the E-stop, the mechanism would need to be quickly and easily accessible by the test engineer responsible for performing and/or observing test conduct. NHTSA is interested in better understanding the feasibility of incorporating an E-stop function into the ADS-DV for use during compliance testing, and what potential security risks doing so may introduce.</P>
                <P>
                    While attempting to perform advanced driver assistance system (ADAS) and/or Level 2 automation system tests within the confines of a test track, NHTSA has observed that certain features of some test vehicles are not available due to the location where the tests occurred (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     GM's Super Cruise cannot be enabled within the confines of most test tracks since the roads at these facilities do not reside within the system's ODD). For this reason, NHTSA is interested in better understanding the feasibility of having vehicle manufacturers remove any geofence-based operating restrictions while the ADS-DV is being operated in a “test mode” intended to assess FMVSS compliance.
                </P>
                <P>One disadvantage of using an FMVSS compliance library with pre-programmed tests not modifiable by the test engineer, is that test input characteristics would presumably be fixed and not able to be adjusted to be suitable for a particular test surface. Therefore, variation in test results across test locations in different geographic areas may be worse, since pre-programmed test inputs would be based on characterization tests (or even simulations) performed using a different test surface, etc. Better understanding the likelihood of this variability being great enough to affect maneuver severity is of interest to the agency. Also of interest is understanding what test tolerances an ADS-DV operating with commands from a compliance library may be expected to achieve. For example, FMVSS No. 126 requires a test maneuver entrance speed of 50 ± 1 mph (80 ± 2 km/h).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>16. How could engineers responsible for performing FMVSS compliance assessments of an ADS-DV without manual controls be expected to access and interface with the compliance test library menu?</P>
                <P>17. Would the FMVSS need to specify the libraries available to NHTSA to test the vehicle?</P>
                <P>
                    18. Is it practical to expect that an ADS-DV without any traditional manually-operated controls can be safely and efficiently operated within the confines of a test track with only a pre-programmed test menu (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     without some form of external controller or other means of vehicle control input)?
                </P>
                <P>19. Can an ADS-DV be expected to perform within tight tolerance levels using the regular on-board sensors?</P>
                <P>
                    20. How much variation in test results across various test locations (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     proving grounds) is expected to result from testing an ADS-DV equipped with the same FMVSS compliance library at different locations? Could the ability to satisfy FMVSS performance requirements depend on the location the tests are performed?
                </P>
                <P>21. Is it reasonable to assume any geofence-based operating restrictions could be suspended while the ADS-DV is operating in a “test mode” intended to assess FMVSS compliance?</P>
                <P>22. How could vehicle-based electronically accessible libraries for conducting FMVSS testing be developed in a way that would allow NHTSA to access the system for compliance testing but not allow unauthorized access that could present a security or safety risk to an ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>23. Are there other considerations NHTSA should be aware of when contemplating the viability of programmed execution-based vehicle compliance verification?</P>
                <P>24. When changes or updates are made to the ADS, how will the TMPE content be updated to reflect the changes and how often would it be updated?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Test Mode With External Control (TMEC)</HD>
                <P>
                    The TMEC approach suggested by the commenters could largely maintain existing 100-series FMVSS test procedures, but allow for test procedure steps that require an action by a human driver (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     instructions relating to the accelerator or brake pedals) to be accomplished using an external controller that is not controlled by the ADS, but by a test engineer. This option is closely related to the pre-programmed execution option also discussed in this ANPRM; however, rather than requiring the tests defined in FMVSS procedures be pre-programmed within the vehicle, the commands used to perform the FMVSS test procedures (including, but not limited to, those associated with the steering wheel, accelerator pedal, brake pedal, and transmission shifter) would be sent to the ADS-DV via an external controller operated by a test engineer. Under this approach, the external controller sending the commands used to perform the FMVSS test procedures may be located inside or outside the vehicle and could be connected to the vehicle either wirelessly or through a physical connection, but would not be part of the vehicle itself. Instead, it would be a device either designed and provided to NHTSA by the manufacturer or, alternatively, a standard device designed by NHTSA.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24444"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The external control approach was discussed by commenters GM and ZF, who both suggested that FMVSS compliance could be demonstrated by a human remotely piloting the vehicle. GM suggested that NHTSA could collaborate with industry to explore using external control devices and facilities that interact with the vehicle. ZF commented that ADS-DVs without traditional manual controls “will have alternate methods of inputting driving commands for normal situations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     to input an initial destination or route), and also for emergency situations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     rerouting to a new destination, an emergency stop button for occupants), in order to provide its desired functionality and level of safety.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>Like a test mode with programmed execution, a test mode with external control would preserve an ability to assess FMVSS compliance with test track-based performance requirements because it enables a test engineer to directly instruct an ADS-DV to execute the driving maneuvers necessary to perform the FMVSS test procedures. NHTSA recognizes that some vehicle manufacturers may choose to include provisions to accept external controller functionality in their ADS-DVs so that the vehicle is able to navigate with areas outside of the ADS's ODD, such as during maintenance or on dealer lots.</P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA assumes that an external controller for compliance test purposes could provide test engineers with control over all vehicle functions that are relevant to compliance verification and would provide a test engineer with a straight-forward way of selecting the desired tests and input parameters associated with the test being performed. However, there may be other advantages of an external controller. For example, external control capabilities that support manual operation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     vehicle speed, steering or braking magnitude, transmission gear) could be used to safely facilitate transportation of the ADS-DV without manual controls between garages and to test pads or courses at compliance test facilities. During the conduct of compliance testing, an external controller could be used to command maneuvers used to initialize the test vehicle and/or test equipment, facilitate pre-test staging, and could be configured to provide the test engineer with an E-stop function.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>25. Is it reasonable to assume a common (universal) interface, translator, and/or communication protocol between an external controller and any ADS-DV will be developed?</P>
                <P>
                    26. What is the most viable method for securely interfacing an external controller with the ADS-DV (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     wireless or physical access)?
                </P>
                <P>27. Could a means of manual control be developed that would allow NHTSA to access the system for compliance testing but not allow unauthorized access that could present a security or safety risk to an ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>28. Is it reasonable to assume any geofence-based operating restrictions could be suspended while an external controller intended to assess FMVSS compliance is connected to the ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>29. Are there other considerations NHTSA should be aware of when contemplating the viability of using an external controller-based vehicle certification?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Simulation</HD>
                <P>
                    Simulation is an approach for compliance verification by which NHTSA could verify that an ADS-DV complies with a FMVSS requirement using software or hardware-in-the-loop 
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     based evaluations rather than performing on-road or track-based tests with a complete physical vehicle. Simulations may be useful for determining how a modeled computer system will respond to a given set of inputs. The accuracy of a simulation strongly depends on its fidelity to the actual performance of the vehicle and validation of the models used to define it.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Hardware-in-the-loop simulation is a type of simulation in which the control loop components are comprised of some real hardware parts and some simulated parts. R. Isermann, J. Schaffnit, S. Sinsel, Hardware-in-the-Loop Simulation for the Design and Testing of Engine-Control Systems, Algorithms and Architectures for Real-Time Control, Cancun, Mexico, 1998.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                <P>Commenters to the RFC suggested that simulations could be particularly useful for certifying compliance with a performance standard like FMVSS No. 126, in which the purpose of the test is to ensure that the vehicle interprets sensor inputs properly, and that the vehicle translates those sensor inputs into outputs to the vehicle's driving functions that meet performance requirements. Mercedes noted that FMVSS No. 126 effectively already uses a simulation, since the required steering mechanism ensures that the vehicle receives a standardized set of steering inputs to limit variability. The Alliance also noted simulation as a possible “short-term” method of demonstrating FVMSS No. 126 compliance (as well as other FMVSS) and suggested that NHTSA should collaborate with industry stakeholders to develop a simulation “tool,” which NHTSA could validate as necessary.</P>
                <P>While some of the comments focused on a manufacturer's own ability to use simulation in its certification testing, NHTSA is primarily interested in learning more about how NHTSA could potentially use simulation to verify compliance, and whether this method is sufficient from a legal and technical perspective.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>Historically, NHTSA has not used a simulation approach for crash avoidance FMVSS compliance verification because the most accurate, economical, and feasible means of conducting tests has been to perform them on a test track, thereby avoiding any questions of simulation accuracy. Furthermore, the agency believes there could be additional safety benefits of buying and testing actual production vehicles as delivered to the consumer, which in the past has identified test failures due to vehicle design changes and equipment malfunctions that would not ordinarily have been found during vehicle simulations. For simulations, it may not be possible to accurately model proprietary control algorithms like those within an ADS electronic control unit (ECU). Complex simulation models with many inputs (such as those that would be necessary to demonstrate compliance with many of the FMVSS) are expensive to develop and difficult to validate without performing the actual test that is being simulated.</P>
                <P>However, the agency acknowledges that simulation may play a larger role in future performance standards specific to ADS-DVs and other ADS-equipped vehicles, because simulations could provide a practical and cost-effective means for evaluating a wide array of test and real-world operating conditions to which these vehicles will be exposed, and for which physical testing to a sufficient degree may be infeasible.</P>
                <P>
                    For a simulation to be considered for compliance verification, there are a number of considerations that the agency believes must be accounted for. The most difficult aspect of using simulation as a compliance verification method is the validation of the models used. This is because a simulation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24445"/>
                    suitable for an accurate and representative assessment of an ADS-equipped vehicle, whether it be an ADS-DV without traditional manual controls or one that could allow for manual control at times, would likely need to model both the vehicle (including but not limited to its chassis, drivetrain, suspension, brake system, tires, and ADS-relevant sensors, and any potential discrepancy between a modeled version of the vehicle and real-world production model) and the elements used to define the road surface and other characteristics of the environment in which the tests are performed. Accurate modelling by NHTSA would likely require the agency to incorporate vehicle-specific parameters and proprietary control algorithms, which may not be available for use by NHTSA and, if not available, would require extensive testing at a substantial cost for NHTSA to develop a model.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, a key part of NHTSA's enforcement responsibilities includes buying and testing actual production vehicles to verify, “as-sold” to the public, that these vehicles meet the FMVSS requirements. These actual “on-track” tests are important to verify compliance but also to help identify a manufacturer's certification shortcomings (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     suspension design changes that inadvertently change the performance of the ESC system, or a part replacement that inadvertently changes the performance of a brake system) and possible safety-related defects problems that would not necessarily be identified through simulation.
                </P>
                <P>For research purposes, NHTSA is considering the feasibility of working with vehicle manufacturers to develop an application programming interface (API) designed to allow a common set of operating conditions (which could potentially include those associated with FMVSS compliance tests), to interface with their (the vehicle manufacturer's) ADS. Conceptually, the API would function as a translator; a means of ensuring that simulated input conditions are properly interpreted by the ADS so that it, and the vehicle it resides in, responds in the same way it would in the real world.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>30. How can simulations be used to assess FMVSS compliance?</P>
                <P>31. Are there objective, practicable ways for the agency to validate simulation models to ensure their accuracy and repeatability?</P>
                <P>32. Is it feasible to perform hardware-in-the-loop simulations to conduct FMVSS compliance verification testing for current FMVSS?</P>
                <P>33. Is it feasible to perform software-in-the-loop simulations to conduct FMVSS compliance verification testing?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Technical Documentation for System Design and/or Performance Approach</HD>
                <P>
                    For the Technical Documentation approach, vehicle-specific technical design and/or build documentation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a system function description and logic and/or schematic diagrams) could be provided to allow NHTSA to permit an assessment of FMVSS compliance. It should be noted that this is different than the technical design documentation that is provided to NHTSA today. It is technical design documentation used by the manufacturer in the design and construction of the vehicle.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Several industry commenters discussed the approach of using technical documentation for compliance verification of vehicles for specified FMVSS requirements. The commenters noted that documentation could be used to address two different kinds of requirements. The first kind of requirements include those without performance specifications (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the ESC system must have the capability to apply brake torques at each wheel and to determine yaw rate). The second kind of requirements include those with system performance specifications (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     during an ESC system sine-with dwell test the yaw rate must not exceed 35% of the peak yaw rate 1 second after completion of the steering input; or during service brake system tests, with the test vehicle operating at 100km/h, the service brake system must be able to stop the vehicle within a specified distance).
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the first kind of requirements, those that do not include performance specifications, the Alliance explained that, “where there are no specific performance requirements within a FMVSS, but there is a desire to verify the general component and functional capability, NHTSA has included provisions for technical documentation to demonstrate FMVSS compliance in the appropriate standards.” GM stated that, “[t]echnical documentation is particularly useful for identifying components and functions for which no discrete performance requirement needs to be measured through testing.” 
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Both the Alliance and GM mentioned FMVSS No. 126 as an example of a standard that NHTSA could request technical documentation for certain functionality portions of the standard.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document?D=NHTSA-2018-0009-0079.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Considering ADS-DVs without manual controls, for the second kind of requirements that do specify system performance requirements, GM stated that, in reference to allowing flexibility to demonstrate performance requirements specified in FMVSS No. 126 and FMVSS No. 135, manufacturers could be required to provide technical documentation explaining the methodology used and associated test results. GM stated that “the performance requirements currently specified in FMVSS Nos. 126 and 135 should be preserved for self-driving vehicles, with `technical documentation' to report how the manufacturer certified to those requirements.” The Alliance stated that there are methods that could be used as the basis for technical documentation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     simulation, whole vehicle testing, hardware-in-the-loop testing, etc.) and believes that research is required to adapt the FMVSS No. 126 “sine with dwell” test procedure for ADS-DVs. The Alliance recommended that NHTSA consider adopting a technical documentation approach to the “sine with dwell” test requirements in the near-term. Mercedes stated that manufacturers could demonstrate ADS-DV compliance with ESC requirements via technical documentation, although in their opinion this approach would be more burdensome both for manufactures and for NHTSA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    Technical documentation is currently permitted for use in demonstrating compliance for a portion of one crash avoidance standard, FMVSS No. 126. For this standard, the agency requires manufacturers to make available upon request, documentation (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a system diagram, a written explanation of how the system works, and a logic diagram) demonstrating that a vehicle is equipped with an ESC system that is consistent with the definition described in the standard.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     During the development of the rule, the agency was not able to finalize an objective and repeatable performance test to evaluate understeer conditions. For this reason, the agency resorted to developing the compliance documentation requirements for describing the ESC system's capability to address understeer conditions described in S 5.6. FMVSS No. 126 S 5.6 states that the manufacturer must make available to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24446"/>
                    the agency upon request, documentation that includes a discussion on the pertinent inputs to the ESC computer or calculations within the computer and how the algorithm uses that information and controls ESC system hardware to limit understeer. A system diagram, depicting all the ESC system hardware is used as part of the compliance verification of the ESC definition to identify the components used for brake torque generation at each wheel and yaw rate monitoring. An additional written explanation and the logic diagrams are also used, as part of the compliance verification, to better describe how all the components work together to address vehicle instabilities. While NHTSA has used technical documentation for one portion of one standard, the agency did so as a measure of last resort because technical documentation does not confirm the level of performance for the physical vehicle.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         49 CFR 571.126, S5.6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For the second kind of requirements (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     requirements that include system performance specifications) the commenters discussed using various kinds of performance or test data documentation for compliance verification. In the regulatory language of many FMVSS, NHTSA provides test procedures so vehicle manufacturers know how NHTSA will test their vehicles and equipment. In addition to testing, occasionally, and typically in the context of an enforcement investigation into potential noncompliance with a FMVSS, NHTSA requests a manufacturer submit documentation/data that illustrates its basis for certification. Upon NHTSA's request, most manufacturers provide test reports similar to the reports generated by NHTSA contracted test labs (showing the results of the manufacturer's testing, just as NHTSA would have reports exhibiting the results of its own testing). For many of the crash avoidance FMVSSs, as their basis for compliance, vehicle manufacturers conduct testing in a similar manner as NHTSA conducts compliance verification, namely, using the same test procedures, test equipment and data collecting process. If this process changes and manufacturers solely provide NHTSA with the reports that include the performance test results without NHTSA testing the vehicle, it is not clear how the agency would properly verify compliance and ensure at least the same level of performance has been achieved. Furthermore, it has always been critical for the agency to establish objective, repeatable, and reproducible test procedures for manufacturers and the agency to both use ensuring the same test results regardless of who executes the test, or when and where the test is executed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above under the simulation discussion, the agency believes it is important to buy and test new vehicles as produced and sold. If documentation is used as a tool in the future, NHTSA would continue to focus on real-world testing of actual vehicles being operated on public roads. These actual “on-track” tests conducted by the agency are important to verify compliance but also to help identify a manufacturer's certification shortcomings (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     suspension design changes that inadvertently change the performance of the ESC system, or a part replacement that inadvertently changes the performance of a brake system) and possible safety related defects; problems that would not necessarily be identified through documentation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>34. How can the documentation-focused approach ensure compliance with FMVSS, considering it neither verifies that the vehicles on the road match the documentation nor confirms that the vehicles on the road comply with the FMVSSs?</P>
                <P>35. If technical documentation were acceptable for compliance verification, how would the manufacturer assure the agency that the documentation accurately represents the ADS-DV and that the system is safe?</P>
                <P>36. Exactly what kind of documentation could be submitted for each kind of FMVSS requirement? Provide specific examples with detailed explanation of the documentation required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Use of Surrogate Vehicle With Human Controls</HD>
                <P>Using the surrogate vehicle with human controls approach, the vehicle manufacturer would demonstrate that all relevant aspects of the surrogate vehicle are identical to those of the ADS-DV without traditional manual controls and then complete compliance verification using that surrogate vehicle and apply the results to the ADS-DV without traditional manual controls.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Several commenters suggested that a short-term solution for compliance verification testing of ADS-DVs is to certify a manually-operated “sister” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     surrogate) vehicle that shares the same platform, but differs from the ADS-DV because it has manual controls included for testing purposes. The Alliance, for example, suggested this as an approach to testing FMVSS No. 126. Ford agreed with this approach.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Analysis</HD>
                <P>Attempting to specify in a FMVSS test procedure that NHTSA will use surrogate vehicles in its compliance testing would create several challenges. First, if, in lieu of testing an ADS-DV, NHTSA were to test a surrogate vehicle, the agency may have difficulty demonstrating that such a test establishes the noncompliance of the ADS-DV. Since an ADS-DV would be equipped with components that provide the means to perform automated driving, a task the conventional surrogate vehicle is either not expected to perform or can perform while still including manual controls, inherent differences would be expected between the two vehicles. The implications of these differences must be understood to assess the viability of this approach. The agency would need to attempt to develop criteria for identifying suitable surrogates. These criteria would need to be universal in that they need to demonstrate equivalence for any vehicle, not only for a specific vehicle design. Second, even if it were possible to establish criteria for reliably identifying suitable surrogate vehicles, if it would nevertheless be more difficult for the agency to find suitable surrogates for some ADS-DVs than others, the agency might find it difficult to ensure that it could treat all ADS-DVs in an equitable manner. Third, the suitable surrogate vehicles must be available for sale in the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Questions Specific to This Testing Method (General Questions Precede This Section)</HD>
                <P>37. To what extent could equivalence of the vehicle components used for conventional and ADS-DVs be demonstrated to assure that surrogate vehicle performance would be indicative of that of a surrogate ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>38. How can the agency confirm that the maneuver severity performed by a surrogate manually-drivable vehicle, during FMVSS compliance tests, is equal to that of the subject ADS-DV? For example, how can the characterization maneuvers and subsequent scaling factors in the FMVSS No. 126 ESC test on the surrogate vehicle be confirmed as equivalent on the ADS-DV?</P>
                <P>
                    39. If results from FMVSS compliance tests of a conventional vehicle performed by its manufacturer differ 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24447"/>
                    from the results of NHTSA tests of an equivalent ADS-DV (particularly if the conventional vehicle complies with the agency's standards, but the ADS-DV does not), can the conflicting results be reconciled? If so, how?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">How can I influence NHTSA's thinking on this subject?</HD>
                <P>Your comments will help NHTSA improve this regulatory action. NHTSA invites you to provide different views on options NHTSA discusses, new approaches the agency has not considered, new data, descriptions of how this ANPRM may affect you, or other relevant information.</P>
                <P>NHTSA welcomes public review of on all aspects of this ANPRM. NHTSA will consider the comments and information received in developing its eventual proposal for how to remove regulatory barriers to ADS-DVs that lack manual controls by updating and modifying current FMVSS. As noted thorough this document, we are especially interested in comments that focus on how the test methods discussed ensure vehicle safety. Your comments will be most effective if you follow the suggestions below:</P>
                <P>• Explain your views and reasoning as clearly as possible.</P>
                <P>• Provide solid evidence and data to support your views.</P>
                <P>• If you estimate potential costs, explain how you arrived at that estimate.</P>
                <P>• Tell NHTSA which parts of the ANPRM you support, as well as those with which you disagree.</P>
                <P>• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns.</P>
                <P>• Offer specific alternatives.</P>
                <P>• Refer your comments to the specific sections of (or questions listed in) the ANPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">How do I prepare and submit comments?</HD>
                <P>Your primary comments should be written in English. To ensure that your comments are filed in the correct docket, please include the docket number of this document (NHTSA-2019-0036) in your comments.</P>
                <P>Your primary comments should not be more than 15 pages long (49 CFR 553.21), however, you may attach additional documents, such as supporting data or research, to your primary comments. There is no limit on the length of the attachments.</P>
                <P>
                    Please submit one copy (two copies if submitting by mail or hand delivery) of your comments, including the attachments, to the docket following the instructions given in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section at the beginning of this document. Please note, if you are submitting comments electronically as a PDF (Adobe) file, we ask that the documents submitted be scanned using the Optical Character Recognition (OCR) process, thus allowing NHTSA to search and copy certain portions of your submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note that pursuant to the Data Quality Act, in order for substantive data to be relied upon and used by the agency, it must meet the information quality standards set forth in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and DOT Data Quality Act guidelines. Accordingly, we encourage you to consult the guidelines in preparing your comments. DOT's guidelines may be accessed at 
                    <E T="03">www.transportation.gov/regulations/dot-information-dissemination-quality-guidelines</E>
                     (last accessed May 22, 2018).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">How can I be sure that my comments were received?</HD>
                <P>
                    If you submit comments by hard copy and wish Docket Management to notify you upon its receipt of your comments, enclose a self-addressed, stamped postcard in the envelope containing your comments. Upon receiving your comments, Docket Management will return the postcard by mail. If you submit comments electronically, your comments should appear automatically in Docket No. NHTSA-2019-0036 on 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If they do not appear within two weeks of posting, NHTSA suggests that you call the Docket Management Facility at 202-366-9826.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">How do I submit confidential business information?</HD>
                <P>If you wish to submit any information under a claim of confidentiality, you must submit three copies of your complete submission, including the information that you claim to be confidential business information, to the Office of the Chief Counsel, NHTSA, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, you should submit a copy (two copies if submitting by mail or hand delivery) from which you have deleted the claimed confidential business information to the docket by one of the methods given above under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . When you submit a comment containing information claimed to be confidential business information, you should include a cover letter setting forth the information specified in NHTSA's confidential business information regulation (49 CFR part 512).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Will the agency consider late comments?</HD>
                <P>
                    NHTSA will consider all comments that the docket receives before the close of business on the comment closing date indicated in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section. To the extent possible, NHTSA will also consider comments that the docket receives after that date.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">How can I read the comments submitted by other people?</HD>
                <P>
                    You may read the comments received by the docket at the address given in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. The hours of the docket are indicated above in the same location. You may also read the comments on the internet, identified by the docket number at the heading of this document, at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Please note that, even after the comment closing date, NHTSA will continue to file relevant information in the docket as it becomes available. Further, some people may submit late comments. Accordingly, NHTSA recommends that you periodically check the docket for new material.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Rulemaking Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">a. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 and DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, Oct. 4, 1993), provides for making determinations whether a regulatory action is “significant” and therefore subject to OMB review and to the requirements of the Executive Order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">b. Executive Order 13771 (Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs)</HD>
                <P>This action is not subject to the requirements of E.O. 13771 (82 FR 9339, (Feb. 3, 2017)) because it is an advance notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">c. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     no analysis is required for an ANPRM. However, vehicle manufacturers and equipment manufacturers are encouraged to comment if they identify any aspects of the potential rulemaking that may apply to them.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">d. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                <P>
                    NHTSA does not believe that there would be sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism assessment.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24448"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">e. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</HD>
                <P>With respect to the review of the promulgation of a new regulation, section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform” (61 FR 4729, February 7, 1996) requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect; (2) clearly specifies the effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct, while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) clearly specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issues by the Attorney General. This document is consistent with that requirement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">f. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), a person is not required to respond to a collection of information by a Federal agency unless the collection displays a valid OMB control number. There are no information collection requirements associated with this ANPRM. Any information collection requirements and the associated burdens will be discussed in detail once proposed rules have been issued.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">g. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) requires NHTSA to evaluate and use existing voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless doing so would be inconsistent with applicable law (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the statutory provisions regarding NHTSA's vehicle safety authority) or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standard (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     materials specifications, test methods, sampling procedures, and business practices) that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, such as SAE International. The NTTAA directs us to provide Congress (through OMB) with explanations when we decide not to use available and applicable voluntary consensus standards. While NHTSA is considering options regarding the modification of various FMVSS, it has not yet developed specific regulatory requirements, and thus the NTTAA does not apply for purposes of this ANPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">h. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure of State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $100 million annually (adjusted for inflation with base year of 1995). NHTSA has determined that this rulemaking action would not result in expenditures by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, in excess of $100 million annually.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">i. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>NHTSA has analyzed this rulemaking action for the purposes of the National Environmental Policy Act. The agency has preliminarily determined that implementation of this rulemaking action would not have any significant impact on the quality of the human environment. The agency will consider this further in any future proposed rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">j. Plain Language</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 require each agency to write all documents in plain language. Application of the principles of plain language includes consideration of the following questions:</P>
                <P>• Have we organized the material to suit the public's needs?</P>
                <P>• Are the requirements in the document clearly stated?</P>
                <P>• Does the document contain technical language or jargon that is not clear?</P>
                <P>• Would a different format (grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing) make the rule easier to understand?</P>
                <P>• Would more (but shorter) sections be better?</P>
                <P>• Could we improve clarity by adding tables, lists, or diagrams?</P>
                <P>If you have any responses to these questions, please include them in your comments on this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">k. Regulatory Identifier Number (RIN)</HD>
                <P>The Department of Transportation assigns a regulation identifier number (RIN) to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. You may use the RIN contained in the heading at the beginning of this document to find this action in the Unified Agenda.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.5.</P>
                    <NAME>Heidi Renate King,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Administrator. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix A—SAE Levels of Automation</HD>
                    <P>
                        To explain these levels of driving automation and put them in context with the other levels defined by SAE International, content from Table 1 of SAE J3016 
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         describing the full array of driving automation levels is provided here:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SAE 
                            <E T="03">J3016_201806</E>
                             Taxonomy and Definitions for Terms Related to Driving Automation Systems for On-Road Motor Vehicles.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs72,r200">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Level of automation</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Narrative definition
                                <LI>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     What does the vehicle do, what does the human driver/occupant do, and when and where do they do it?)
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 0</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">No Automation of driving task:</E>
                                 The performance by the driver of the entire DDT, even when enhanced by active safety systems.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Driver Assistance:</E>
                                 The sustained and ODD-specific execution by a driving automation system of either the lateral or the longitudinal vehicle motion control subtask of the DDT (but not both simultaneously) with the expectation that the driver performs the remainder of the DDT.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Partial Driving Automation:</E>
                                 The sustained and ODD-specific execution by a driving automation system of both the lateral and longitudinal vehicle motion control subtasks of the DDT with the expectation that the driver completes the OEDR subtask and supervises the driving automation system.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 3</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Conditional Driving Automation:</E>
                                 The sustained and ODD-specific performance by an ADS of the entire DDT with the expectation that the DDT fallback-ready user is receptive to ADS-issued requests to intervene, as well as to DDT performance-relevant system failures in other vehicle systems, and will respond appropriately.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 4</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">High Driving Automation:</E>
                                 The sustained and ODD-specific performance by an ADS of the entire DDT and DDT fallback without any expectation that a user will respond to a request to intervene.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="24449"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Level 5</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Full Driving Automation:</E>
                                 The sustained and unconditional (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 not ODD-specific) performance by an ADS of the entire DDT and DDT fallback without any expectation that a user will respond to a request to intervene.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11032 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-59-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>49 CFR Chapter III, Subchapter B</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0037]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2126-AC17</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safe Integration of Automated Driving Systems-Equipped Commercial Motor Vehicles</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA requests public comment about Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that may need to be amended, revised, or eliminated to facilitate the safe introduction of automated driving systems (ADS) equipped commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) onto our Nation's roadways. In approaching the task of adapting its regulations to accommodate automated vehicle technologies, FMCSA is considering changes to its rules to account for significant differences between human operators and ADS.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this document must be received on or before August 26, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket Number FMCSA-2018-0037 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Submissions Containing Confidential Business Information (CBI):</E>
                         Mr. Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Michael Huntley, Division Chief, Vehicle and Roadside Operations, Office of Carrier, Driver, and Vehicle Safety, MC-PSV, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 by telephone at (202) 366-9209 or by email, 
                        <E T="03">michael.huntley@dot.gov.</E>
                         If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this ANPRM (Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0037), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     put the docket number, FMCSA-2018-0037, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” When the new screen appears, click on the “Comment Now!” button and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
                </P>
                <P>FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period and may initiate a proposed rule based on your comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>The Agency notes that 49 CFR 389.9 provides protection for “confidential business information” which includes trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). Commercial or financial information is considered confidential if it is voluntarily submitted to the Agency and constitutes the type of information not customarily released to the general public. Under the Freedom of Information Act, CBI is eligible for protection from public disclosure. If you have CBI that is relevant or responsive to this ANPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Accordingly, please mark each page of your submission as “confidential” or “CBI.” Submissions designated as CBI and meeting the definition noted above will not be placed in the public docket of this ANPRM.</P>
                <P>Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Any commentary that FMCSA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <P>FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Viewing Comments and Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Insert the docket number, FMCSA-2018-0037, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24450"/>
                    Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Abbreviations and Acronyms</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ADS Automated Driving Systems</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ANPRM Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CBI Confidential Business Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CDL Commercial Driver's License</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMV Commercial Motor Vehicle</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMVSA Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DDT Dynamic Driving Task</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOT U.S. Department of Transportation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">E.O. Executive Order</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FMCSA Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FMCSRs Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FMVSSs Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HMRs Hazardous Materials Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HOS Hours of Service</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LCV Longer Combination Vehicle</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MCA Motor Carrier Act of 1935</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MCSA Motor Carrier Safety Act of 1984</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MCSAC Motor Carrier Safety Advisory Committee</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MCSAP Motor Carrier Safety Assistance Program</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NHTSA National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NIST National Institute of Standards and Technology</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ODD Operational Design Domain</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OEDR Object and Event Detection and Response</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFC Request for Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIA Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIN Regulation Identifier Number</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SBA Small Business Administration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SDLAs State Driver Licensing Agencies</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section symbol</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>This ANPRM is based on the general authority of the Motor Carrier Act of 1935 (MCA or 1935 Act) [49 U.S.C. 31502], the Motor Carrier Safety Act of 1984 (MCSA or 1984 Act) [49 U.S.C. 31136], and the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 (CMVSA or 1986 Act) [49 U.S.C. chapter 313], as all of those statutes have been amended.</P>
                <P>These statutes provide sufficient legal authority for the Secretary to issue regulations on the operation of ADS-equipped CMVs. Further, FMCSA's current regulations, promulgated pursuant to these statutes, do not explicitly require human operators or drivers. Various provisions, therefore, would either have no applicability or would need to be adapted to take into account the differences between ADS-equipped CMVs and more traditional vehicles.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Background</HD>
                <P>FMCSA is responsible for overseeing the safety of CMVs, their drivers, and their operation in interstate commerce. The Agency works with Federal, State, and local enforcement agencies, the motor carrier industry, and interested stakeholders to reduce crashes, injuries, and fatalities involving large trucks and buses.</P>
                <P>The FMCSRs provide rules to support the safe operation of CMVs, as defined in the MCSA (49 CFR 390.5) and the CMVSA (49 CFR 383.5).</P>
                <P>
                    On April 24, 2017, FMCSA held a public listening session to solicit information on issues relating to the design, development, testing, and integration of ADS-equipped CMVs (82 FR 18096, April 17, 2017). The listening session provided interested parties an opportunity to share their views and any data or analysis on this topic with Agency representatives. The Agency also invited interested parties to submit written comments by July 17, 2017. A full transcript of the listening session and all written comments are available in public docket FMCSA-2017-0114, at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to the public listening session discussed above, FMCSA commissioned the Department's Volpe National Transportation Systems Center (Volpe) to conduct a preliminary review of the FMCSRs to identify regulations that relate to the development and safe introduction of ADS. Volpe's final report is titled “Review of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for Automated Commercial Vehicles: Preliminary Assessment of Interpretation and Enforcement Challenges, Questions, and Gaps,” report number MCSA-RRT-17-013, August 2017. A copy of the report is available in public docket, FMCSA-2017-0114, at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>On September 12, 2017, the Department, through the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), published “Automated Driving Systems 2.0: A Vision for Safety” (A Vision for Safety 2.0), adopting the SAE International (SAE) J3016 standard's definitions for Levels of automation. The SAE definitions divide vehicles into Levels based on “who does what, when.” Generally:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 0, No Driving Automation:</E>
                     The performance by the driver of the entire dynamic driving task (DDT), even when enhanced by active safety systems.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 1, Driver Assistance:</E>
                     The sustained and operational design domain (ODD) specific execution by a driving automation system of either the lateral or the longitudinal vehicle motion control subtask of the DDT (but not both simultaneously) with the expectation that the driver performs the remainder of the DDT.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 2, Partial Driving Automation:</E>
                     The sustained and ODD-specific execution by a driving automation system of both the lateral and longitudinal vehicle motion control subtasks of the DDT with the expectation that the driver completes the object and event detection and response (OEDR) subtask and supervises the driving automation system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 3, Conditional Driving Automation:</E>
                     The sustained and ODD-specific performance by an ADS of the entire DDT with the expectation that the DDT fallback-ready user is receptive to ADS-issued requests to intervene, as well as to DDT performance-relevant system failures in other vehicle systems, and will respond accordingly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 4, High Driving Automation:</E>
                     The sustained and ODD-specific performance by an ADS of the entire DDT and DDT fallback without any expectation that a user will respond to a request to intervene.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">SAE Level 5, Full Driving Automation:</E>
                     The sustained and unconditional (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not ODD-specific) performance by an ADS of the entire DDT and DDT fallback without any expectation that a user will respond to a request to intervene.
                </P>
                <P>Using the SAE Levels described above, the Department generally draws a distinction between Levels 0-2 and 3-5, based on whether the human driver or the automated system is primarily responsible for monitoring the driving environment. For the purposes of this ANPRM, FMCSA's primary focus is SAE Levels 4-5 because it is only at those levels where the ADS can control all aspects of the driving task, without any intervention from a human driver.</P>
                <P>
                    On March 26, 2018, FMCSA published “Request for Comments [RFC] Concerning Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) Which May Be a Barrier to the Safe Testing and Deployment of Automated Driving Systems-Equipped Commercial Motor Vehicles on Public Roads” (83 FR 12933). The document solicited public 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24451"/>
                    comments on existing FMCSRs that may need to be updated, modified, or eliminated to facilitate the safe introduction of ADS-equipped CMVs onto our Nation's roadways. Further, FMCSA requested comments on certain FMCSRs likely to be affected as ADS-equipped CMVs appear on our roadways, including regulations concerning hours of service (HOS) and driver fatigue, the use of electronic devices, roadside inspection, and Commercial Driver's License (CDL) requirements. The comment period ended on May 10, 2018. Interested parties can view the comments the Agency received at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     (docket number FMCSA-2018-0037).
                </P>
                <P>On June 19, July 12, and August 24, 2018, FMCSA conducted listening sessions that provided members of the public with an opportunity to share their perspectives on ADS. Transcripts of these listening sessions may be found in the docket (FMCSA-2018-0037) for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. U.S. DOT Role in Vehicle Automation</HD>
                <P>As published on October 4, 2018, “Preparing for the Future of Transportation: Automated Vehicles 3.0,” (AV 3.0) explains that the Department's role in transportation automation is to ensure the safety and mobility of the traveling public while fostering economic growth. On October 9, 2018, the Department requested public comment on the document (83 FR 50746). The comment period ended on December 3, 2018.</P>
                <P>The Federal government will play a significant role in ensuring that automated vehicles can be safely and effectively integrated into the existing transportation system, alongside conventional vehicles, pedestrians, bicyclists, motorcyclists, and other road users.</P>
                <P>NHTSA has broad authority over the safety of ADS-equipped vehicles and other automated vehicle technologies. NHTSA has authority to establish Federal safety standards for new motor vehicles that are introduced into interstate commerce in the United States, and to address safety defects determined to exist in motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment used in the United States. The latter authority focuses on the obligations that Federal law imposes on the manufacturers of motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment to notify NHTSA of safety defects in those vehicles or vehicle equipment and to remedy the defects, subject to NHTSA's oversight and enforcement authority.</P>
                <P>The Department, through FMCSA, regulates the safety of commercial motor carriers operating in interstate commerce, the qualifications and safety of CMV drivers, and the safe operation of commercial trucks and motor coaches. FMCSA is broadly considering whether (and, if necessary, how) to amend its existing regulations to accommodate the integration of ADS into commercial vehicle operations. While some FMCSA regulatory requirements for commercial drivers (such as drug and alcohol testing requirements) have no application to ADS, many of the Agency's current regulations can be readily applied in the context of ADS-equipped CMVs.</P>
                <P>In approaching the task of adapting its regulations to accommodate automated vehicle technologies, FMCSA is considering amendments to its rules to account for significant differences between human operators and ADS. The Agency's preliminary approach is to avoid development of an entirely separate set of rules for ADS-equipped CMVs and their operation. The Agency would rely on NHTSA to establish Federal standards, if necessary, applicable to ADS equipment manufacturers (whether of original or aftermarket equipment), while FMCSA would focus on those rules necessary to ensure that motor carriers operating ADS-equipped CMVs have a uniform regulatory framework within which to operate in interstate commerce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Motor Carrier Safety Advisory Committee (MCSAC)</HD>
                <P>
                    In 2017, FMCSA requested that its MCSAC 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     provide recommendations to the Agency to assist with policy issues concerning the integration of ADS-equipped CMVs into the commercial fleet. During the MCSAC's June 12-13, 2017, meeting, the Agency requested (Task 17-1) that the group provide recommendations concerning the issues FMCSA should consider in ensuring that the Federal safety regulations provide appropriate standards for the safe operation of ADS-equipped CMVs, from design and development through testing and deployment. Specifically, the MCSAC was asked to consider the application of the following regulatory provisions in title 49, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), to ADS-equipped CMV operations:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The Motor Carrier Safety Advisory Committee (MCSAC) provides advice and recommendations to the Administrator of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration on motor carrier safety programs and motor carrier safety regulations. The MCSAC is composed of up to 20 members appointed by the Administrator for two-year terms and includes representatives of the truck and bus industries, safety advocacy groups, State motor carrier safety enforcement agencies, and labor communities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(1) Part 383, Commercial Driver's License Standards; Requirements and Penalties; </P>
                <P>(2) Part 391, Qualifications of Drivers and Longer Combination Vehicle (LCV) Driver Instructors;</P>
                <P>(3) Sections 392.80 and 392.82, Limiting the Use of Electronic Devices;</P>
                <P>(4) Part 395, Hours of Service of Drivers; and</P>
                <P>(5) Part 396, Inspection, Repair, and Maintenance.</P>
                <P>
                    The MCSAC completed its task during its July 30-31, 2018, meeting. A copy of the MCSAC's final report can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/advisory-committees/mcsac/mcsac-task-17-1-final-report.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. FMCSA'S Safety Oversight Goals</HD>
                <P>FMCSA has initiated this rulemaking to ensure that appropriate performance-based safety requirements are in place to support the integration of ADS-equipped CMVs into the U.S. fleets. The Agency believes the private sector will continue to make significant progress in the design, testing, and deployment of ADS technology and that the integration of ADS-equipped vehicles may provide improvements in transportation safety and the efficient movement of freight and passengers.</P>
                <P>Generally, FMCSA does not believe there is a need to revise the FMCSRs to accommodate the integration of Levels 1-3 equipment because a licensed CMV operator must be present at the controls of the vehicle at all times. FMCSA's driver-related rules would thus apply. The Agency reminds interstate motor carriers of their responsibility for having safety management controls in place to ensure the safe operation of such ADS-equipped CMVs, in full compliance with the applicable safety requirements. For example, for drivers of CMVs at Levels 1-3 (and obviously at Level 0) the Agency's CDL, controlled substances and alcohol testing, physical qualifications, driver distraction, and HOS rules would be applicable. The Agency, though, may consider guidance and other assistance that could identify best practices for safely operating vehicles with these lower-level systems, as they may present issues not present in more traditional vehicles.</P>
                <P>
                    By contrast, revisions to some of the Agency's rules may be needed to address situations in which the ADS technology may have complete control of the CMV under certain circumstances (Level 4) or all circumstances (Level 5). Where ADS technology is operating the vehicle within its ODD, FMCSA expects that the ADS will be capable of safely 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24452"/>
                    maintaining control of the CMV without the need for human intervention and that in the event of a malfunction, the ADS would be designed and equipped to revert to a fail-safe condition. This rulemaking considers what performance-based boundaries are needed to ensure that interstate motor carriers have appropriate safety management controls for the operation of ADS-equipped CMVs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Operational Design Domains—Vehicle Types and Configurations</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted in A Vision for Safety 2.0, entities, including operators and developers of ADS-equipped CMVs, are encouraged to define and document the ODD for each ADS available on their vehicle(s) tested or deployed on public roadways, as well as to document the process and procedure for assessment, testing, and validation of ADS functionality within the prescribed ODD. The ODD should describe the specific conditions under which a given ADS or feature is intended to function. The ODD defines where (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     what roadway types and speeds) and when (under what conditions, such as day/night, weather limits, etc.) an ADS is designed to operate. At a minimum, the ODD would include the following information:
                </P>
                <P>• Roadway types (interstate, local, etc.) on which the ADS is designed to operate safely;</P>
                <P>• Geographic area (city, mountain, desert, etc.);</P>
                <P>• Speed range;</P>
                <P>• Environmental conditions in which the ADS will operate (weather, daytime/nighttime, etc.); and</P>
                <P>• Other domain constraints.</P>
                <P>FMCSA expects that motor carriers interested in integrating ADS-equipped CMVs into their fleets would have in-depth discussions with the technology vendors to fully understand the ODD limitations and only utilize Level 4 or 5 capabilities for the conditions for which the vehicle is intended. The Agency seeks to avoid discouraging innovation and technology development and implementation.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, FMCSA requests comments on whether there are CMV types/configurations or cargoes for which fully automated operations should be restricted or prohibited (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     hazardous materials, motorcoaches, multi-trailer or longer combination vehicles (LCVs), etc.). If commenters believe the Agency should consider restrictions, please explain why.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Discussion of Current Safety Rules and the Public Responses to the March 26, 2018, RFC</HD>
                <P>FMCSA received 98 responses to its March 2018 RFC. The majority of commenters (68) were individuals. Four developers of ADS technology (Embark, Uber, Tesla, and WAYMO) provided comments, along with two insurance organizations (the Property Casualty Insurers Association of America and The Travelers Companies, Inc.), and one trucking company safety director. Other organizations and companies providing comments include the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance, Amazon, the National Tank Truck Carriers, Inc., the Small Business in Transportation Coalition, the American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators, the Ad-Hoc HAV Data Access Coalition, the National Motor Freight Traffic Association, the Community Transportation Association of America, the Competitive Enterprise Institute, the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety—Highway Loss Data Institute, the National School Transportation Association, the MITRE Corporation, the Truck and Engine Manufacturers Association, the Motor and Equipment Manufacturers Association, the Transportation Trades Department of the AFL-CIO, the American Trucking Associations, Securing America's Future Energy, the National Automobile Dealers Association, the Owner-Operator Independent Drivers Association, the Commercial Vehicle Training Association, the Trucking Alliance, Advocates for Highway and Auto Safety, and the Truck Safety Coalition.</P>
                <P>Based on public comments received in response to the RFC and during the recent public meetings noted above, FMCSA anticipates that, near-term, Level 4 operations are likely to involve a human driver, either present in the vehicle to facilitate the transition into and out of full automation without stopping, or waiting at a designated location prepared to operate the vehicle for such transitions. Based on FMCSA's preliminary assessment of its safety requirements and the potential of ADS-equipped vehicles, the Agency believes individuals responsible for taking control of an ADS-equipped vehicle on a public road should be subject to the current driver-related rules.</P>
                <P>FMCSA is considering a rulemaking regarding the introduction of ADS-equipped CMVs on our Nation's roadways. Below are the major issues commenters raised and FMCSA's responses, as well as other issues applicable to operators of Level 4 ADS-equipped CMVs and how these requirements could be adapted for such vehicles. To assist in development of any regulatory revisions that may be deemed necessary, the Agency requests responses to the following issues and questions. Wherever possible, commenters should provide data in support of their responses.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Do the FMCSRs require a human driver?</HD>
                <P>A Vision for Safety 2.0, issued by NHTSA in September 2017 and focusing on guidance to ADS developers and State governments, included a brief statement from FMCSA which said that, at the time, FMCSA believed that its regulations required that “a trained commercial driver must be behind the wheel at all times, regardless of any automated driving technologies available on the CMV, unless a petition for a waiver or exemption has been granted.” However, in the March 2018 RFC, FMCSA stated that it was reconsidering its views on this issue, noting, “[t]he absence of specific regulatory text requiring a driver be behind the wheel may afford the Agency the flexibility to allow, under existing regulations, ADS to perform the driver's functions in the operational design domain in which the system would be relied upon, without the presence of a trained commercial driver in the driver's seat.”</P>
                <P>
                    Some technology companies are developing Level 4 ADS-equipped CMVs to be operated on limited-access highways from exit-to-exit (or on-ramp to off-ramp), with no human operator in the vehicle, and, then, if necessary, operated by a human off these highways. Commenters explained that some shipping companies have distribution centers/warehouses very close to major highways, which makes this ADS operating scenario desirable from a marketing and productivity perspective. Some commenters also stated that a Level 4 ADS-equipped CMV would not operate outside of that ODD without a driver. The technology companies requested that FMCSA issue interpretive guidance or otherwise clarify that the FMCSRs, as written, do not expressly require a human driver at all times. Alternatively, technology companies noted the need for FMCSA to reexamine the definition of “driver” in the FMCSRs, specifically as it relates to ADS-equipped CMVs. Many other commenters were opposed to driverless vehicles generally but did not specifically comment regarding whether the current FMCSRs require a human driver at all times.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24453"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     As announced in AV 3.0, the Department will interpret and, consistent with all applicable notice and comment requirements, adapt the definitions of “driver” and “operator” to recognize that such terms do not refer exclusively to a human, but may include an automated system. Because the regulations do not require the presence of a human driver or operator, FMCSA will interpret its regulations to no longer assume that the CMV driver is always a human or that a human is present onboard a commercial vehicle during its operation, provided that the vehicle is equipped with a Level 4 or Level 5 ADS and is operating within its ODD (in the case of Level 4).
                </P>
                <P>
                    This does not mean that ADS-equipped CMVs operate without FMCSA oversight. Rather, FMCSA is required by statute to prescribe regulations that ensure that CMVs are maintained, equipped, loaded, and operated safely. The Agency, therefore, needs to consider promulgating rules to account for ADS-equipped CMVs, including subjects such as vehicle inspection, repair and maintenance, and other areas that may emerge. In addition, until Level 5 ADS-equipped CMVs are available, human drivers and operators will continue to play a crucial role in the operation of Level 4 ADS-equipped CMVs, as those vehicles can operate without a human only within their ODDs. As such, certain requirements that apply to humans involved in the operation of these vehicles will also need to be revised. Further, FMCSA emphasizes that both the vehicles themselves and entities responsible for the operation of an ADS-equipped CMV in interstate commerce (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     motor carriers) remain subject to safety oversight by the Agency, whether a human operates the vehicle or not, and FMCSA retains its authority to take enforcement action if an ADS-equipped CMV is not operated in a safe manner.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     1.1. How should FMCSA ensure that an ADS-equipped CMV only operates consistent with the ODD for the ADS equipped on the vehicle? 1.2. What are manufacturers' and motor carriers' plans for when and how Levels 4 and 5 ADS-equipped CMVs will become commercially available? 1.3. Should FMCSA consider amending or augmenting the definition of “driver” and/or “operator” in 49 CFR 390.5 or define a term such as “ADS driver” to reduce the potential for misinterpretation of the requirements?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) Endorsements</HD>
                <P>The March 2018 RFC requested comments on whether FMCSA should require a specific endorsement for human drivers and operators of ADS-equipped CMVs to ensure they (1) understand the capabilities and limitations of the advanced technologies, and (2) know when it is appropriate to rely on automatic, rather than manual, operation. Further, if such an endorsement is required, the Agency requested comment on what types of test(s)—knowledge, skills, or both—should be required to obtain the endorsement, and whether there should be separate endorsements for different types of ADS-equipped CMVs.</P>
                <P>Many commenters noted that it is imperative that human drivers and operators of ADS-equipped CMVs fully understand the capabilities and limitations of the advanced technologies that are deployed on vehicles they operate. Some commenters believe that in mixed-use scenarios in which a human may have to take control of a CMV from the ADS, an ADS endorsement should be required for the CDL holder. Given the wide range of technologies and ODDs in which these technologies are able to operate, some commenters expressed concern regarding whether a standardized test could be developed for an ADS CDL endorsement.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     FMCSA is responsible for the establishment and enforcement of CDL requirements applicable to every person who operates a commercial motor vehicle, as defined in 49 CFR 383.5, in interstate, foreign, or intrastate commerce; to all employers of such persons; and to State Driver License Agencies (SDLAs) that issue CDLs. The Agency believes that any individual who is expected to control the ADS-equipped CMV at any time the vehicle is in operation on a public road must be fully qualified to do so. However, given the way the CDL program is administered by the Agency and the 51 SDLAs, it would be difficult to distinguish between current knowledge and skills requirements and those arguably sufficient for limited Level 4 operations.
                </P>
                <P>In Level 5, the ADS technology is, by definition, capable of performing all driving functions under all conditions. In some operational models, there may be an individual responsible for remotely monitoring multiple CMVs, a scenario that is obviously not covered by the existing CDL regulations. For Level 4, however, the technology would be limited to certain ODDs, which may require the presence of a human prepared to take control as the vehicle approaches the limits of those domains. Preliminarily, the Agency is inclined to maintain the CDL rules, essentially as written, but to clarify that these rules apply to any person who may be relied upon to control any aspect of operation of the ADS-equipped vehicle on a public road.</P>
                <P>Under the current rules, the basic CDL requires knowledge and skills tests, with additional testing required to remove certain restrictions or to obtain endorsements. The skills test, or road test, must be given in a representative vehicle. However, ADS technology is advancing rapidly, and there will continue to be a range of approaches to automation. At this time, it would be very difficult to establish uniform knowledge and/or skills tests to adequately assess a CDL holder's understanding of the vehicle's ADS and the specific operating scenarios under which human control may be needed, versus those scenarios where relying solely on the ADS is appropriate. Therefore, it is premature for the Agency to consider proposing rules in this regard. Moreover, it is also difficult at this time to estimate the costs and safety benefits of requiring an ADS endorsement for CDL holders. However, FMCSA agrees that this is a critical issue and, to the extent necessary, will work with stakeholders to provide guidance to ensure that human operators are aware of the technological capabilities of their vehicles.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     2.1. Should a CDL endorsement be required of individuals operating an ADS-equipped CMV? 2.2. If so, what should be covered in the knowledge and/or skills test associated with an ADS endorsement? 2.3. What would be the impacts on SDLAs? 2.4. Should a driver be required to have specialized training for ADS-equipped CMVs? 2.5. In an operational model that has an individual remotely monitoring multiple CMVs, should the Agency impose limitations on the number of vehicles a remote driver monitors? 2.6. Is there any reason why a dedicated or stand-by remote operator should not be subject to existing driver qualifications?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Drivers' Hours of Service (HOS) Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    Given that the FMCSRs include limitations on the number of hours that a driver may drive during a day and a week to reduce the risk of driver fatigue and fatigue-related crashes, FMCSA requested comments on how drivers' HOS should be recorded if the ADS is relied on to perform some or all of the driving tasks otherwise performed by a human driver.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24454"/>
                </P>
                <P>Commenters stated that the HOS rules should not be applicable for operating scenarios where the ADS technology controls the CMV and there is no human present because there would be no limit on the number of hours the ADS technology could operate the vehicle. However, for scenarios in which a human is needed to operate the vehicle for a portion of a given trip, commenters asked how the HOS rules would apply to the human operator.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     The FMCSRs include limits on the amount of driving time during a work shift and prohibit individuals from operating CMVs after the individual has accumulated 15 hours of on-duty time (for drivers of passenger-carrying CMVs), or after the 14th hour from the beginning of the work day (for drivers of property-carrying CMVs). Drivers of passenger-carrying vehicles are limited to 10 hours of driving time during the work shift and drivers of property-carrying vehicles to 11 hours of driving time during the work shift.
                </P>
                <P>Drivers of passenger-carrying vehicles must have at least 8, and drivers of property-carrying vehicles at least 10, consecutive hours off-duty at the end of the work shift. Drivers of CMVs are prohibited from driving after accumulating 60 hours of on-duty time within 7 consecutive days (60-hour rule) or 70 hours of on-duty time within 8 consecutive days (70-hour rule). Drivers of property-carrying vehicles, however, may restart weekly calculations at any time after taking 34 consecutive hours off-duty.</P>
                <P>The Agency believes, preliminarily, that the basic approach for applying the HOS rules should continue to be used; that is, any time a human is at the controls of an ADS-equipped CMV, either in the driver's seat or operating it remotely, the time should be recorded as on-duty, driving. Any time the human is working without having the responsibility for taking control of the ADS-equipped vehicle (because it is operating in a fully autonomous mode within its intended ODD) should be considered on-duty, not driving. For scenarios in which the human is in a sleeper-berth on a vehicle controlled by ADS technology, the human may record his/her duty status in the same manner as a team driver with hours off-duty in the passenger seat or sleeper-berth time. The Agency welcomes comments on whether these preliminary regulatory approaches are appropriate or whether other structures are preferable.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     3.1. Should HOS rule changes be considered if ADS technology performs all the driving tasks while a human is on-duty, not driving; off-duty or in the sleeper berth; or physically remote from the CMV? 3.2. Should the HOS requirements apply to both onboard and remote operators? 3.3. If so, how should HOS be recorded when an individual is not physically in control of the vehicle?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Medical Qualifications for Human Operators</HD>
                <P>The FMCSRs include physical qualification standards for humans driving CMVs to ensure that they are medically qualified to do so. In the RFC, FMCSA requested comment on what medical conditions that currently preclude medical qualification (1) could become inapplicable as ADS technology develops, and (2) should not be considered disqualifying for a human driver who is simply monitoring an ADS-equipped CMV.</P>
                <P>Several commenters believe FMCSA's current medical requirements for drivers/operators of CMVs should apply when individuals have the responsibility for driving an ADS-equipped CMV. They indicated that for the non-driving tasks (Levels 4-5), further study is needed before considering potential changes to the associated medical requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     FMCSA's regulations in 49 CFR part 391 include physical qualifications standards for individuals operating CMVs, as defined in 49 CFR 390.5. Such standards were originally established in the late 1930s and have been modified significantly since that time. The Agency also provides advisory criteria for use by healthcare professionals in making the determination whether a driver with certain medical conditions should be issued a medical certificate. Based on FMCSA's preliminary assessment of its safety requirements and the potential of ADS-equipped vehicles, the Agency presently believes individuals responsible for taking control of an ADS-equipped vehicle on a public road should be subject to the current physical qualification standards.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     4.1. Should some of the physical qualification rules be eliminated or made less stringent for humans remotely monitoring or potentially controlling ADS-equipped CMVs? 4.2. If so, which of the requirements should be less restrictive for human operators who would take control of an ADS-equipped CMV remotely? 4.3. Should the Agency consider less restrictive rules for humans who have the benefit of ADS technology to assist them in controlling the vehicle (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     technologies that would enable individuals with limb impairments to operate at a level comparable to individuals without such impairments)?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Distracted Driving and Monitoring</HD>
                <P>The FMCSRs prohibit individuals from texting and using hand-held wireless phones while driving CMVs in interstate commerce. In the RFC, FMCSA requested comment regarding what changes, if any, should be made to the distracted driving regulations for human operators of ADS-equipped CMVs operating in an automated mode.</P>
                <P>Some commenters believe changes to regulations would depend on the SAE Level designation of the vehicle, its operational capabilities, and the role of the driver in safe operation. Commenters also believe that if a human is present and responsible for the safe operation of the CMV, current restrictions against distraction should remain in effect.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     Sections 392.80 and 392.82 of the FMCSRs prohibit individuals from texting and using handheld wireless phones, respectively, while driving CMVs in interstate commerce. A CDL holder, whether operating in interstate, foreign, or intrastate commerce, may also be disqualified for violating State or local laws on texting and use of handheld phones (49 CFR 383.51(c), Table 2, paragraph 10). The regulations do not provide an exception for individuals who are in the driver's seat but have chosen to rely on advanced technologies such as lane departure warning systems, collision avoidance systems, etc. From the above, the requirements related to distracted driving set forth in the FMCSRs apply to human operators of ADS-equipped CMVs, and such operators must remain focused on their duties. While FMCSA is inclined to believe it will remain appropriate to require human operators to comply with all existing regulations concerning distraction while operating ADS-equipped CMVs, the Agency welcomes comments regarding distraction and whether FMCSA should consider amending the rules regarding distraction for cases where an onboard or remote human operator is not actively controlling a Level 4 or 5 ADS-equipped CMV.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Question:</E>
                     5.1. How should the prohibition against distracted driving (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     texting, hand-held cell phone) apply to onboard operators responsible for taking control of the CMV under certain situations, and to remote operators with similar responsibilities?
                    <PRTPAGE P="24455"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Safe Driving and Drug and Alcohol Testing</HD>
                <P>FMCSA's controlled substances and alcohol testing requirements in 49 CFR part 382 are intended to prevent crashes and injuries resulting from the misuse of alcohol or use of controlled substances by drivers of CMVs. The rules include requirements for pre-employment drug testing, random alcohol and drug tests, post-crash testing, reasonable suspicion testing, and, for individuals that have tested positive for the misuse of alcohol or use of controlled substances, return-to-duty testing.</P>
                <P>Part 392 of the FMCSRs includes requirements for and prohibitions against certain actions of CMV drivers. For example, the rules require drivers to obey the laws, ordinances, and regulations of the jurisdiction in which the CMV is operated and prohibit drivers from operating a CMV while ill or fatigued. Drivers are also prohibited from possessing or being under the influence of drugs or alcohol while on-duty. The regulations also cover matters such as the inspection of cargo and cargo securement devices and systems during trips and procedures for travelling through railroad crossings.</P>
                <P>FMCSA did not specifically request comment on these issues in the RFC. However, the Agency believes preliminarily that these rules should continue to apply to any human who is expected to take control of the operation of the ADS-equipped CMV while it is on a public road.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     6.1. Should FMCSA consider revising its rules to ensure that (1) any human exercising control of an ADS-equipped vehicle must continue to comply with all the rules under Part 392, and (2) a CMV under the control of a Level 4 or Level 5 ADS must satisfy the operational rules? 6.2. For example, should FMCSA require that the ADS be capable of identifying highway-rail grade crossings and stopping the CMV prior to crossing railroad tracks to avoid collisions with trains, or going onto a highway-rail grade crossing without having sufficient space to travel completely through the crossing without stopping? 6.3. For scenarios in which the control of the ADS-equipped CMV alternates, or may alternate, between a human and the technology, should FMCSA require that both the human operator and ADS comply with the applicable operational rules?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Inspection, Repair, and Maintenance</HD>
                <P>The FMCSRs require all CMVs to be systematically inspected, repaired, and maintained, all parts to be in safe and proper operating condition at all times, and each vehicle to pass an inspection at least once every year. In the RFC, FMCSA requested comments regarding how motor carriers will be able to ensure the proper functioning of ADS prior to operating in automated mode, whether motor carrier personnel responsible for maintaining ADS equipment should be required to have a minimum level of training, and what types of malfunctions or damage on an ADS-equipped CMV would be considered an imminent hazard.</P>
                <P>Commenters stated that safety rules should require that ADS include self-diagnostic capabilities and reporting for critical subsystems as well as for the full ADS itself. They also believe the Department should establish minimum performance or equipment criteria, and test procedures for self-certification and marking of ADS-equipped vehicles. Commenters also stated that individuals responsible for maintaining the ADS equipment should have minimum training and certification.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     The FMCSRs include requirements for motor carriers to have systematic inspection, repair and maintenance programs for their CMVs and to maintain certain records documenting the types of maintenance performed. Drivers are required to prepare reports of any defects or deficiencies discovered by or reported to them during the work shift and the motor carrier is responsible for taking appropriate actions after receiving such reports, but before the vehicle is dispatched again.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, a comprehensive inspection of CMVs must be conducted at least once every 12 months based on a checklist provided in Appendix G to the FMCSRs and proof of the annual inspection must be maintained on the CMV.</P>
                <P>FMCSA prescribes minimum qualifications for individuals conducting the annual inspection if the inspection is not conducted in accordance with a State inspection program that FMCSA considers comparable to the Federal requirements. FMCSA also prescribes minimum qualifications for motor carrier employees responsible for brake-related inspection, repair and maintenance tasks.</P>
                <P>FMCSA believes that motor carriers must have appropriate inspection, repair and maintenance programs to ensure that any ADS-equipped CMVs they dispatch are capable of operating safely. This means the CMV must be capable of performing within its ODD. Recognizing that the advanced safety systems used in Level 4 and 5 ADS-equipped CMVs will rely heavily on advanced software programs that will invariably be subject to periodic updates and revision, it will be critical for motor carriers to establish a system to ensure that all vehicles are using the most up-to-date version of safety-critical software.</P>
                <P>FMCSA believes it is appropriate to consider amending part 396 to provide clear guidance to motor carriers dispatching Level 4 and Level 5 ADS-equipped CMVs that would operate on a public road. At a minimum, the Agency believes consideration should be given to require:</P>
                <P>• Pre-trip inspections before dispatching ADS-equipped CMVs;</P>
                <P>• A means for en route inspection for cargo securement devices to ensure proper tension—currently the driver is required to check the devices, but there may be alternative solutions based on improved technology;</P>
                <P>• Post-trip inspection requirements, which may vary depending on the sensors and detectors, to identify mechanical/electrical problems that may or may not be related to the ADS technology;</P>
                <P>• Periodic or annual inspection of ADS technology.</P>
                <P>Consistent with the current FMCSRs concerning qualifications of individuals conducting the annual inspection of CMVs and brake-related inspection, repair, and maintenance tasks on CMVs, the Agency is considering the adoption of similar requirements for motor carrier personnel responsible for ADS-related inspection, repair and maintenance tasks.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     7.1. What qualifications should be required of the individual performing the pre-trip inspection? 7.2. What kind of routine or scheduled inspections should be performed and what types of ADS-related maintenance records should be required? 7.3. Should the inspection period be more or less frequent than annual for an ADS-equipped CMV? 7.4. Should inspections be mileage-based or time-based (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     1,000 miles, 3 months or 1,000 hours of operation)? 7.5. Should FMCSA impose general requirements for motor carrier personnel responsible for ADS-related inspection, repair, and maintenance tasks similar to the Agency's brake inspector qualification requirements? 7.6. How could FMCSA ensure that motor carriers apply safety-critical software updates?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Roadside Inspections</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA and its State partners conduct roadside inspections of CMVs to identify and remove unsafe drivers and vehicles from service. In the RFC, FMCSA requested comment regarding 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24456"/>
                    how an enforcement official will be able to identify CMVs capable of various levels of automated operation, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     should ADS-equipped CMVs be visibly marked to indicate the level of automated operation they are designed to achieve.
                </P>
                <P>Although commenters did not state that ADS-equipped CMVs should be subject to a greater level of scrutiny than CMVs operated by humans during roadside inspections, some believed ADS-equipped CMVs should be marked in a manner visible to enforcement personnel, or have some form of electronic vehicle identification to facilitate inspections. Some commenters believe that ADS-equipped vehicles should have malfunction indicators to identify problems in the event there is a roadside inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     The FMCSRs include requirements for truck and bus parts and accessories necessary for safe operations on public roads. The requirements are provided under 49 CFR part 393. To the extent there are Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSSs) under 49 CFR part 571 to cover the safety equipment or features, FMCSA cross-references those NHTSA requirements applicable to the vehicle and equipment manufacturers. Through the cross-reference, FMCSA imposes on the motor carriers the responsibility for maintaining the safety equipment and features that NHTSA required the vehicle manufacturers to install.
                </P>
                <P>Currently, neither the FMVSSs nor the FMCSRs include technical requirements specific to ADS technology. There are no ADS-specific Federal performance standards that manufacturers must satisfy for operation in a fully autonomous mode. However, the Agency expects that ADS technology companies will generally follow the Department's voluntary guidance and conduct thorough safety assessments.</P>
                <P>
                    FMCSA believes that certain regulatory requirements should be considered to ensure that motor carriers using ADS-equipped CMVs have clear Federal direction for safe operations, irrespective of manufacturers' voluntary safety assessments. FMCSA expects vehicle manufacturers or ADS technology companies to provide motor carriers with a form of self-certification of the capabilities of the ADS technology, based on completion of the voluntary safety assessment. The certification would enable the motor carrier to understand the ODD limitations of the ADS technology. FMCSA also preliminarily anticipates that Level 4 and 5 ADS-equipped vehicles would be marked to enable identification by Federal and State personnel, if there are no other visible indicators (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the absence of a driver's seat and steering wheel). While marking of vehicles to identify the ADS Level of capability would enable Federal and State personnel, motor carriers and drivers to know which vehicles can operate safely without a human at the controls under certain ODDs (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Level 4), or under any operating conditions (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Level 5), identification of the vehicle-specific ODD would likely need to be conveyed separately, through the self-certification based on the voluntary safety assessment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Roadside inspectors must be able to verify that ADS components are functioning properly. This could be accomplished through a system validation indicator that allows confirmation that the ADS systems are working to full capacity, or through individual malfunction indicators that would let enforcement officials know that a particular subsystem has a fault or defect and that maintenance is needed. The faults or defects might not be critical to safety but suggest that repairs should be made before the vehicle is dispatched again. Malfunction indicators are a routine requirement under both the FMVSSs and FMCSRs (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the antilock brake system malfunction indicator required under FMVSS Nos. 105 and 121 and section 393.55 of the FMCSRs). FMCSA believes requirements for such indicators should be considered to alert motor carrier maintenance personnel as well as Federal and State enforcement officials whether the ADS is fully operational or in need of repair. Motor carriers would then know whether a human must maintain full control of the vehicle and drive it as if there were no ADS technology, or whether the ADS may be relied on as the manufacturer intended it to be used.
                </P>
                <P>Given the many scenarios an ADS-equipped vehicle may encounter on a public road, FMCSA preliminarily believes it would be appropriate to require that the ADS-equipped vehicle, like a human driver, have a means of detecting emergency vehicles such as police, fire, and rescue, and moving out of the path of first responders, as well as taking appropriate action while driving through work-zones.</P>
                <P>In addition to basic safety requirements for ADS technology, the Agency is considering enforcement tolerances that could be used by Federal and State enforcement personnel to identify the levels of non-compliance that would warrant placing an ADS-equipped CMV out of service until the problem is corrected.</P>
                <P>FMCSA acknowledges that Federal and State enforcement officials may need further training to identify problems with ADS-equipped CMVs, but it is not the Agency's goal to have these officials be responsible for conducting diagnostic tests of a CMV's ADS. FMCSA would discourage inspectors from delaying the movement of ADS-equipped CMVs unless there are clear indications of safety-critical CMV violations and/or ADS faults or malfunctions. FMCSA would work with the private sector and State safety agencies to develop enforcement tolerances for use in determining whether certain faults or malfunctions warrant placing the ADS-equipped CMV out of service.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     8.1. Should motor carriers be required to notify FMCSA that they are operating Level 4 or 5 ADS-equipped CMVs? 8.2. If so, how should the carrier notify FMCSA? 8.3. Should FMCSA require markings identifying the ADS Level of a vehicle? 8.4. Should the Agency require motor carriers to utilize ADS-equipped CMVs that have a malfunction indicator? 8.5. Should the Agency require that motor carriers deploying ADS-equipped CMVs ensure the vehicle can pull over in response to Federal and State officials or move out of the way of first-responders? 8.6. How might that be achieved, and at what cost? 8.7. How would roadside enforcement personnel know that a vehicle can no longer operate safely? 8.8. Absent an FMVSS, how could standard indications be provided to enforcement personnel?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. Cybersecurity</HD>
                <P>Numerous commenters expressed concerns regarding cybersecurity and hacking of ADS-equipped CMVs and recommended that vehicle data access be protected against hacking through recognized principles of data security by design.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     ADS technologies depend on an array of electronics, sensors, and computer systems. In advancing these features and exploring the safety benefits of these new vehicle technologies, FMCSA and NHTSA are focused on strong cybersecurity to ensure these systems work as intended and are built to mitigate safety and security risks. To ensure a comprehensive cybersecurity environment, NHTSA has adopted a multi-faceted research approach that leverages the National Institute of Standards and Technology's (NIST) Cybersecurity Framework, and encourages industry to adopt practices that improve the cybersecurity posture 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24457"/>
                    of their vehicles in the U.S.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FMCSA will work with NHTSA and the automotive industry to proactively address vehicle cybersecurity challenges and to continuously seek methods to mitigate the associated safety risks.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.nhtsa.gov/technology-innovation/vehicle-cybersecurity.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     9.1. What types of safety and cargo security risks may be introduced with the integration of ADS-equipped CMVs? 9.2. What types of rules should FMCSA consider to ensure that motor carriers' safety management practices adequately address cybersecurity?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Confidentiality of Shared Information</HD>
                <P>FMCSA acknowledges that companies may be reluctant to share certain proprietary data or information with the Agency. While FMCSA notes that 49 CFR 389.9 provides certain protections for “confidential business information,” which includes trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential, the RFC requested comment regarding what measures original equipment manufacturers and technology developers expect of FMCSA before sharing confidential business information. Additionally, FMCSA requested comments on how the Agency might obtain information sufficient to assess the safety performance of ADS-equipped CMVs without collecting confidential business information.</P>
                <P>Several commenters stated that they expect FMCSA to establish standards/regulations concerning access to proprietary safety information regarding certain components that directly relate to safety-sensitive functions. They believe NHTSA, FMCSA, and other DOT agencies should work with the private sector to obtain critical safety-related information that may be proprietary. Commenters also believe that these DOT agencies should seek confidentiality agreements to ensure Federal and State enforcement agencies' access to safety data associated with the performance of ADS systems, while protecting the ADS developers' proprietary information.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FMCSA Response:</E>
                     The Agency has established procedures to protect confidential business information submitted as part of a rulemaking (49 CFR 389.9). Additionally, FMCSA will work with motor carriers, manufacturers, and developers to ensure, to the greatest extent practicable, the protection of sensitive data relating to the design, testing, production, and marketing of ADS or proprietary information submitted in response to an Agency request. Unless required by law, FMCSA will not unilaterally or proactively release confidential business information to the public.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Questions:</E>
                     10.1. As the development of ADS technology continues, the Agency believes there is a need to learn about the performance limitations of these systems. FMCSA draws a distinction between information about performance limitations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how well does the ADS keep the vehicle in its lane and under what environmental conditions, etc.) and details about the system design (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the specific types of sensors, or the arrays of sensors and cameras used for input to the central processing unit for the ADS). To what extent do ADS developers believe performance data should be considered proprietary and withheld from the public? 10.2. Are the Agency's current processes under 49 CFR 389.9 for submission and protection of confidential business information in the context of a rulemaking sufficient to allow ADS developers and motor carriers to communicate essential information to the Agency regarding the operation of ADS? 10.3. If not, how should those processes be modified?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Voluntary Consensus Standards</HD>
                <P>As noted above, FMCSA would like to build upon best practices from the private sector in providing guidance to motor carriers on safe practices for the integration of ADS-equipped CMVs. The Agency would consider use of private sector standards to ensure cost-effective, performance-based safety requirements.</P>
                <P>OMB's revised Circular A-119, “Federal Participation in the Development and Use of Voluntary Consensus Standards and in Conformity Assessment Activities,” (81 FR 4673), states that “. . . the effectiveness of the U.S. standards system in enabling innovation depends on continued private sector leadership and engagement.” Circular A-119 is intended to encourage Federal agencies to benefit from the expertise of the private sector, promote Federal agency participation in standards bodies to support the creation of standards that are useable by Federal agencies, and minimize reliance on government-unique standards or regulations where an existing standard would meet the Federal government's objectives.</P>
                <P>
                    One of the primary means that FMCSA uses to fulfill the intent of Circular A-119 is to incorporate by reference certain voluntary standards. For example, under 49 CFR 393.7, Matter incorporated by reference, FMCSA adopted several private-sector standards concerning vehicle safety equipment required on CMVs operated in interstate commerce. Rather than crafting and imposing Federal standards or requirements where voluntary consensus standards were followed by the majority of parties, the Agency adopted the private-sector standards by reference. As a result, the Agency can enforce the referenced standards as part of the FMCSRs. Specific areas where such references are used for regulatory requirements include lamps and reflectors for CMVs that were not subject to NHTSA's FMVSS No. 108 (49 CFR 571.108) and standards for cargo securement devices (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     chains, synthetic webbing, wire rope, cordage, etc.). FMCSA thus allowed companies following industry best practices to simply continue operating as usual.
                </P>
                <P>Because of the advances in ADS technology, FMCSA's preferred approach to adopting safety requirements at this time is to rely on the development of consensus standards, whenever practicable. Voluntary standards offer flexibility and responsiveness to the rapid pace of innovation, can encourage investment and bring cost-effective innovation to the market more quickly, and may be validated by private sector conformity assessment and testing protocols. The Department supports the development and continuing evolution of stakeholder-driven voluntary standards, which in many cases can be an effective non-regulatory means to support interoperable integration of technologies into the transportation system. The Department, for example, has already adopted SAE's terminology for automated vehicles, including the levels of automation. The Agency requests public comment on the extent to which the private sector has developed consensus standards that the Agency could reference, if necessary, to ensure motor carriers have appropriate guidance on the safety management practices they should have in place to operate ADS-equipped vehicles safety.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Motor Carrier Safety Assistance Programs (MCSAP)</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA is responsible for the administration of the MCSAP, a Federal grant program that provides financial assistance to States to reduce the number and severity of CMV-related crashes and hazardous materials incidents. The goal of the MCSAP is to improve CMV safety through consistent, uniform, and effective CMV safety programs. The MCSAP regulations (49 CFR part 350) include conditions for participation by States and local 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24458"/>
                    jurisdictions and promote the adoption and uniform enforcement of State safety rules, regulations, and standards that are compatible with the FMCSRs and the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMRs) issued by the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, for both interstate, foreign, and intrastate motor carriers and drivers.
                </P>
                <P>Section 350.331 requires participating States to conduct reviews of their laws and regulations for compatibility with the Federal safety rules and HMRs and to report the results of that review in their Commercial Vehicle Safety Plans. The regulation also requires participating States to amend their laws or regulations to make them compatible with the FMCSRs and/or HMRs within three years of the effective date of any newly enacted regulations.</P>
                <P>In the event FMCSA amends the FMCSRs to adopt rules concerning the operation of ADS-equipped CMVs, FMCSA anticipates its State partners would adopt compatible rules. Through this rulemaking, FMCSA discourages States from adopting more stringent rules concerning ADS, which could interfere with interstate commerce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Questions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Do the FMCSRs require a human driver?</HD>
                <P>1.1. Should FMCSA establish a rule that would prohibit an ADS-equipped CMV from operating outside its designated ODD?</P>
                <P>1.2. What are manufacturers' and motor carriers' plans for when and in what way Level 4 and 5 ADS-equipped CMVs will become commercially available?</P>
                <P>1.3. Should FMCSA consider amending or augmenting the definition of “driver” and/or “operator” provided in 49 CFR 390.5 or define a term such as “ADS driver” to reduce the potential for misinterpretation of the requirements?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) Endorsements</HD>
                <P>2.1. Should a CDL endorsement be required of individuals operating an ADS-equipped CMV?</P>
                <P>2.2. If so, what should be covered in the knowledge and/or skills test associated with an ADS endorsement?</P>
                <P>2.3. What would be the impacts on SDLAs?</P>
                <P>2.4. Should a driver be required to have specialized training for ADS-equipped CMVs?</P>
                <P>2.5. In an operational model that has an individual remotely monitoring multiple CMVs, should the Agency impose limitations on the number of vehicles a remote driver monitors?</P>
                <P>2.6. Should a dedicated or stand-by remote operator be subject to existing driver qualifications?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Drivers' Hours of Service (HOS) Rules</HD>
                <P>3.1. Should HOS rule changes be considered if ADS technology performs all the driving tasks while a human is off-duty or in the sleeper berth, or physically remote from the CMV?</P>
                <P>3.2. Should the HOS requirements apply to both onboard and remote operators?</P>
                <P>3.3. If so, how should HOS be recorded when an individual is not physically in control of the vehicle?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Medical Qualifications for Human Operators</HD>
                <P>4.1. Should some of the physical qualification rules be eliminated or made less stringent for humans remotely monitoring or potentially controlling ADS-equipped CMVs?</P>
                <P>4.2. If so, which of the requirements should be less restrictive for human operators who would take control of an ADS-equipped CMV remotely?</P>
                <P>
                    4.3. Should the Agency consider less restrictive rules for humans who have the benefit of ADS technology to assist them in controlling the vehicle (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     technologies that would enable individuals with limb impairments to operate at a level comparable to individuals without such impairments)?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Distracted Driving and Monitoring</HD>
                <P>5.1. How should the prohibition against distracted driving apply to onboard operators responsible for taking control of the CMV under certain situations, and to remote operators with similar responsibilities?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Safe Driving</HD>
                <P>6.1. Should FMCSA consider revising its rules to ensure that (1) any human exercising control of an ADS-equipped vehicle must continue to comply with all the rules under Part 392, and (2) a CMV under the control of a Level 4 or Level 5 ADS must satisfy the operational rules?</P>
                <P>6.2. For example, should FMCSA require that the ADS be capable of identifying highway-rail grade crossings and stopping the CMV prior to crossing railroad tracks to avoid collisions with trains, or going onto a highway-rail grade crossing without having sufficient space to travel completely through the crossing without stopping?</P>
                <P>6.3. For scenarios in which the control of the ADS-equipped CMV alternates, or may alternate, between a human and the technology, should FMCSA require that both the human operator and ADS comply with the applicable operational rules?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Inspection, Repair and Maintenance</HD>
                <P>7.1. If so, what qualifications should be required of the individual performing the inspection?</P>
                <P>7.2. What kind of routine or scheduled inspections should be performed and what types of ADS-related maintenance records should be required?</P>
                <P>7.3. Should the inspection period be more frequent than annual for an ADS-equipped CMV?</P>
                <P>
                    7.4. Should inspections be mileage-based or time-based (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     1,000 miles, 3 months or 1,000 hours of operation)?
                </P>
                <P>7.5. Should FMCSA impose general requirements for motor carrier personnel responsible for ADS-related inspection, repair, and maintenance tasks similar to the Agency's brake inspector qualification requirements?</P>
                <P>7.6. How could FMCSA ensure that motor carriers apply available after-market software updates?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Roadside Inspections</HD>
                <P>8.1. Should motor carriers be required to notify FMCSA that they are operating Level 4 or 5 ADS-equipped CMVs?</P>
                <P>8.2. If so, how should the carrier notify FMCSA?</P>
                <P>8.3. Should FMCSA require markings identifying the ADS Level of a vehicle?</P>
                <P>8.4. Should the Agency require motor carriers to utilize ADS-equipped CMVs that have a malfunction indicator?</P>
                <P>8.5. Should the Agency require that motor carriers deploying ADS-equipped CMVs ensure the vehicle can pull over in response to Federal and State officials or move out of the way of first-responders?</P>
                <P>8.6. How might that be achieved, and at what cost?</P>
                <P>8.7. How would roadside enforcement personnel know that a vehicle can no longer operate safely?</P>
                <P>8.8. Absent an FMVSS, how could standard indications be provided to enforcement personnel?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. Cybersecurity</HD>
                <P>9.1. What types of safety and cargo security risks may be introduced with the integration of ADS-equipped CMVs?</P>
                <P>9.2. What types of rules should FMCSA consider to ensure that motor carriers safety management practices adequately address cybersecurity?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Confidentiality of Shared Information</HD>
                <P>
                    10.1. As the development of ADS technology continues, the Agency believes there is a need to learn about 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24459"/>
                    the performance limitations of these systems. FMCSA draws a distinction between information about performance limitations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     how well does the ADS keep the vehicle in its lane and under what environmental conditions, etc.) and details about the system design (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the specific types of sensors, or the arrays of sensors and cameras used for input to the central processing unit for the ADS). To what extent do ADS developers believe performance data should be considered proprietary and withheld from the public?
                </P>
                <P>10.2. Are the Agency's current processes under 49 CFR 389.9 for submission and protection of confidential business information in the context of a rulemaking sufficient to allow ADS developers and motor carriers to communicate essential information to the Agency regarding the operation of ADS?</P>
                <P>10.3. If not, how should those processes be modified?</P>
                <P>Issued under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.87.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Raymond P. Martinez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11038 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 660</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 190409351-9452-01]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XG972</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries Off West Coast States; Coastal Pelagic Species Fisheries; Annual Specifications</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS proposes to implement annual catch limits and management measures for the northern subpopulation of Pacific sardine (hereafter, Pacific sardine), for the fishing year from July 1, 2019, through June 30, 2020. The proposed action would prohibit most directed commercial fishing for Pacific sardine off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. Pacific sardine harvest would be allowed only in the live bait fishery, minor directed fisheries, as incidental catch in other fisheries, or as authorized under exempted fishing permits. The incidental harvest of Pacific sardine would be limited to 20 percent by weight of all fish per trip when caught with other stocks managed under the Coastal Pelagic Species Fishery Management Plan or up to 2 metric tons when caught with non-Coastal Pelagic Species stocks. The proposed annual catch limit for the 2019-2020 Pacific sardine fishing year is 4,514 metric tons. This proposed rule is intended to conserve and manage the Pacific sardine stock off the U.S. West Coast.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by June 12, 2019.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2019-0034, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submissions:</E>
                         Submit all electronic public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=NOAA-NMFS-2018-0034,</E>
                         click the “Comment Now!” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Submit written comments to Lynn Massey, Sustainable Fisheries Division, NMFS West Coast Region, 501 W Ocean Blvd., Ste. 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802-4250; Attn: Lynn Massey.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period, may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address, etc.), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “N/A” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the report “Assessment of Pacific Sardine Resource in 2019 for U.S.A. Management in 2019-2020” is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.pcouncil.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/04/E3_Supp_Att1_REVISED_Sardine_Assessment_Update_Review_Draft-full-version-electronic-only-DO-NOT-PRINT.pdf,</E>
                         and may be obtained from the West Coast Region (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lynn Massey, West Coast Region, NMFS, (562) 436-2462, 
                        <E T="03">lynn.massey@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    NMFS manages the Pacific sardine fishery in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) off the Pacific coast (California, Oregon, and Washington) in accordance with the Coastal Pelagic Species (CPS) Fishery Management Plan (FMP). The FMP and its implementing regulations require NMFS to set annual catch levels for the Pacific sardine fishery based on the annual specification framework and control rules in the FMP. These control rules include the harvest guideline (HG) control rule, which, in conjunction with the overfishing limit (OFL) and acceptable biological catch (ABC) rules in the FMP, are used to manage harvest levels for Pacific sardine, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    During public meetings each year, the NMFS Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC) presents the estimated biomass for Pacific sardine to the Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Council) CPS Management Team (Team), the Council's CPS Advisory Subpanel (Subpanel) and the Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC). The Team, Subpanel and SSC review the biomass and the status of the fishery, and recommend applicable catch limits and additional management measure. Following Council review and public comment, the Council adopts a biomass estimate and recommends catch limits and any in-season accountability measures to NMFS. NMFS publishes annual specifications in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to establish these catch limits and management measures for each Pacific sardine fishing year. This rule proposes the Council's recommended catch limits for the 2019-2020 fishing year, as well as management measures to ensure that harvest does not exceed those limits, and adoption of an OFL and ABC that take into consideration uncertainty surrounding the current estimate of biomass for Pacific sardine.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Recommended Catch Limits</HD>
                <P>According to the FMP, the catch limit for the principal commercial fishery is determined using the FMP-specified HG formula. The HG formula in the CPS FMP is HG = [(Biomass-CUTOFF) * FRACTION * DISTRIBUTION] with the parameters described as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Biomass.</E>
                     The estimated stock biomass of Pacific sardine age one and above. For the 2019-2020 management season, this is 27,547 metric tons (mt).
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">CUTOFF.</E>
                     This is the biomass level below which no HG is set. The FMP established this level at 150,000 mt.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">DISTRIBUTION.</E>
                     The average portion of the Pacific sardine biomass 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24460"/>
                    estimated in the EEZ off the Pacific coast is 87 percent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">FRACTION.</E>
                     The temperature-varying harvest fraction is the percentage of the biomass above 150,000 mt that may be harvested.
                </P>
                <P>As described above, the Pacific sardine HG control rule, the primary mechanism for setting the annual directed commercial fishery catch limit, includes a CUTOFF parameter, which has been set as a biomass level of 150,000 mt. This amount is subtracted from the annual biomass estimate before calculating the applicable HG for the fishing year. Since this year's biomass estimate is below that value, the formula results in an HG of zero, and no Pacific sardine are available for the primary directed commercial fishery during the 2019-2020 fishing season. This would be the fifth consecutive year that the primary directed commercial fishery is closed.</P>
                <P>
                    At the April 2019 Council meeting, the Council's SSC approved, and the Council adopted, the SWFSC's “Assessment of the Pacific Sardine Resource in 2019 for U.S. Management in 2019-2020”, available here: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.pcouncil.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/04/E3_Supp_Att1_REVISED_Sardine_Assessment_Update_Review_Draft-full-version-electronic-only-DO-NOT-PRINT.pdf.</E>
                     The resulting Pacific sardine biomass estimate of 27,547 mt was adopted as the best scientific information available for setting harvest specifications. Based on recommendations from its SSC and other advisory bodies, as well as the OFL and ABC control rules in the CPS FMP, the Council recommended, and NMFS is proposing, an OFL of 5,816 mt, an ABC of 4,514 mt, an annual catch limit (ACL) of 4,514 mt, and a prohibition on commercial Pacific sardine catch, unless it is harvested as part of the live bait, tribal, or minor directed fisheries, or as incidental catch in other fisheries. The Council also recommended an annual catch target (ACT) of 4,000 mt for the 2019-2020 fishing year. In conjunction with setting an ACT, the Council also recommended inseason and other management measures to ensure harvest opportunity under the ACT throughout the year (see below).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Recommended Management Measures</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed annual harvest limits and management measures were developed in the context of information, which has been communicated to the Council, that the sardine biomass has also declined below its minimum stock size threshold (MSST) of 50,000 mt defined in the CPS FMP. NMFS is in the process of reviewing the 2019 stock assessment (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ), and depending on the outcome of that review, might officially change the status of the Pacific sardine stock to overfished. Because the Council accepted that the biomass is below the 50,000 mt MSST, the FMP requires that incidental catch of sardine in other CPS fisheries be limited to an incidental allowance of no more than 20 percent by weight (instead of a maximum of 40 percent allowed when below the CUTOFF but above the MSST) and that incidental catch of live bait be limited to no more than 15 percent by weight.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Secretary is currently reviewing Amendment 17 to the CPS FMP, as recommended by the Council. Amendment 17, if approved, would remove the FMP's pre-specified 15 percent incidental landing limit that becomes effective for live bait if a stock managed under the CPS FMP becomes overfished. Therefore, Amendment 17 would provide flexibility to allow directed live bait fishing for Pacific sardine when Pacific sardine is overfished, provided that any such fishing is consistent with regulations and any rebuilding plan for the stock. NMFS published a Notice of Availability on Amendment 17 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 22, 2019 (84 FR 10768), and is soliciting public comments through May 21, 2019. Because Amendment 17 is still under Secretarial review, NMFS advised the Council to recommend management measures for the 2019-2020 fishing year that match the status quo FMP provisions (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     no directed live bait for overfished stocks and 15 percent maximum incidental limit on live bait for overfished stocks) and if desired, state its intent to use the provision of Amendment 17 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     allow directed live bait for overfished stocks with no predetermined limits) if it is approved. Therefore, the Council's recommended management measure on live bait (see #1 below) differs depending on NMFS' forthcoming determination on Amendment 17. The statutory deadline for NMFS to make a decision to approve, disapprove, or partially approve Amendment 17 is June 20, 2019, however NMFS expects to make the decision prior to issuing the final rule for the 2019-20120 Pacific sardine harvest specifications.
                </P>
                <P>The following are the proposed management measures and inseason accountability measures for the Pacific sardine 2019-2020 fishing year:</P>
                <P>(1) If the Secretary of Commerce approves Amendment 17, then directed live bait fishing for sardine will be permitted and will be subject to accountability measures specified under number 2 below. If Amendment 17 is not approved, then live bait landings will be limited to the 15-percent maximum allowed by the current CPS FMP and will still be subject to accountability measures specified under number 2 below;</P>
                <P>(2) If landings in the live bait fishery reach 2,500 mt, NMFS will institute a 1-mt per trip limit of sardine to the live bait fishery;</P>
                <P>
                    (3) A 20-percent incidental per landing by weight catch allowance will be applied to other CPS primary directed commercial fisheries (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Pacific mackerel);
                </P>
                <P>(4) A 2-mt per trip incidental catch allowance will be applied to non-CPS fisheries; and</P>
                <P>(5) If the ACT of 4,000 mt is attained, NMFS will institute a 1-mt per trip limit of sardine to live bait, and a 1-mt per trip limit of incidentally-caught sardine when caught with other CPS.</P>
                <P>All sources of catch including any exempted fishing permit (EFP) set-asides, the live bait fishery, and other minimal sources of harvest, such as incidental catch in CPS and non-CPS fisheries, and minor directed fishing, will be accounted for against the ACT.</P>
                <P>
                    The NMFS West Coast Regional Administrator would publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to announce when catch reaches the incidental limits as well as any changes to allowable incidental catch percentages. Additionally, to ensure that the regulated community is informed of any closure, NMFS would make announcements through other means available, including emails to fishermen, processors, and state fishery management agencies.
                </P>
                <P>In each of the previous 7 fishing years, the Quinault Indian Nation requested, and NMFS approved, a set-aside for the exclusive right to harvest Pacific sardine in the Quinault Usual and Accustomed Fishing Area off the coast of Washington State, pursuant to the 1856 Treaty of Olympia (Treaty with the Quinault). For the 2019-2020 fishing year, the Quinault Indian Nation has not requested a tribal set-aside and therefore none is proposed.</P>
                <P>At the April 2019 meeting, the Council also voted in support of two EFP proposals requesting an exemption from the prohibition to directly harvest Pacific sardine. This action accounts for NMFS approval of up to 405 mt of the ACL to be harvested under EFPs.</P>
                <P>
                    This action must be effective by July 1, 2019. Otherwise the fishery will open without any catch limits or restrictions in place. In order to ensure that these harvest specifications are effective in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24461"/>
                    time for the start of the July 1 fishing year, NMFS will solicit public comments on this proposed rule for 15 days rather than the standard 30 days. A 15-day comment period has been the practice since the 2015-2016 fishing year when the primary directed fishery for sardine was first closed. NMFS received the recommendations from the Council that form the basis for this rule only last month. The subject of this proposed rule—the establishment of the reference points—is considered a routine action, because they are calculated annually based on the framework control rules in the FMP. Additionally, the Council provides an opportunity for public comment each year at its April meeting before adopting the recommended harvest specifications and management measures for the proceeding fishing year.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the CPS FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule is exempt from the procedures of E.O. 12866 because this action contains no implementing regulations.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to Executive Order 13175, this proposed rule was developed after meaningful consultation and collaboration with the tribal representative on the Council who has agreed with the provisions that apply to tribal vessels.</P>
                <P>The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, for the following reasons:</P>
                <P>For Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (NAICS code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.</P>
                <P>The purpose of this proposed rule is to conserve the Pacific sardine stock by preventing overfishing, while still allowing harvest opportunity among differing fishery sectors. This will be accomplished by implementing the 2019-2020 annual specifications for Pacific sardine in the U.S. EEZ off the Pacific coast. The small entities that would be affected by the proposed action are the vessels that would be expected to harvest Pacific sardine as part of the West Coast CPS small purse seine fleet if the fishery were open, as well as fishermen targeting other CPS, sardine for live bait, or sardine in the minor directed fishery. In 2014, the last year that a directed fishery for Pacific sardine was allowed, there were approximately 81 vessels permitted to operate in the directed sardine fishery component of the CPS fishery off the U.S. West Coast; 58 vessels in the Federal CPS limited entry fishery off California (south of 39° N lat.); and a combined 23 vessels in Oregon and Washington's state Pacific sardine fisheries. The average annual per vessel revenue in 2014 for those vessels was well below the threshold level of $11 million; therefore, all of these vessels are considered small businesses under the RFA. Because each affected vessel is a small business, this proposed rule is considered to equally affect all of these small entities in the same manner. Therefore, this rule would not create disproportionate costs between small and large vessels/businesses.</P>
                <P>
                    The CPS FMP and its implementing regulations require NMFS to annually set an OFL, ABC, ACL, and HG or ACT for the Pacific sardine fishery based on the specified harvest control rules in the FMP applied to the current stock biomass estimate for that year. The derived annual HG is the level typically used to manage the principal commercial sardine fishery and is the harvest level NMFS typically uses for profitability analysis each year. As stated above, the CPS FMP dictates that when the estimated biomass drops below a certain level (150,000 mt) there is no HG. Therefore, for the purposes of profitability analysis, this action is essentially proposing an HG of zero for the 2019-2020 Pacific sardine fishing season (July 1, 2019, through June 30, 2020). The estimated biomass used for management during the preceding fishing year (2018-2019) was also below 150,000 mt. Therefore, NMFS did not implement an HG for the 2018-2019 fishing year, thereby prohibiting the primary commercial directed Pacific sardine fishery. Since there is again no directed fishing for the 2019-2020 fishing year, this proposed rule will not change the potential profitability compared to the previous fishing year. Additionally, while the proposed 2019-2020 ACL is lower compared to previous years, it is still expected to account for the various fishery sector needs (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     live bait, incidental catch in other CPS fisheries, and minor directed fisheries).
                </P>
                <P>The revenue derived from harvesting Pacific sardine is typically only one of the sources of fishing revenue for the commercial vessels that participate in this fishery. As a result, the economic impact to the fleet from the proposed action cannot be viewed in isolation. From year to year, depending on market conditions and availability of fish, most CPS/sardine vessels supplement their income by harvesting other species. Many vessels in California also harvest anchovy, mackerel, and in particular, squid, making Pacific sardine only one component of a multi-species CPS fishery. Additionally, some sardine vessels that operate off of Oregon and Washington also fish for salmon in Alaska or squid in California during times of the year when sardine are not available. The purpose of the incidental catch limits proposed in this action are to ensure the vessels impacted by a prohibition on directly harvesting Pacific sardine can still access these other profitable fisheries while still minimizing Pacific sardine harvest.</P>
                <P>CPS vessels typically rely on multiple species for profitability because abundance of Pacific sardine, like the other CPS stocks, is highly associated with ocean conditions and seasonality. Variability in ocean conditions and season results in variability in the timing and location of CPS harvest throughout the year. Because each species responds to ocean conditions in its own way, not all CPS stocks are likely to be abundant at the same time. Therefore, as abundance levels and markets fluctuate, the CPS fishery as a whole has relied on a group of species for its annual revenues.</P>
                <P>Therefore the proposed action, if adopted, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As a result, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required, and none has been prepared.</P>
                <P>This action does not contain a collection-of-information requirement for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch, III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11040 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24462"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">ADMINISTRATIVE CONFERENCE OF THE UNITED STATES</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Assembly of the Administrative Conference of the United States</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Administrative Conference of the United States.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Assembly of the Administrative Conference of the United States will hold a meeting to consider four proposed recommendations and to conduct other business. This meeting will be open to the public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will take place on Thursday, June 13, 2019, 9:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. The meeting may adjourn early if all business is finished.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held at The George Washington University Law School (GW Law), 2000 H Street NW, Washington, DC 20052 (Jacob Burns Moot Court Room).</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shawne McGibbon, General Counsel (Designated Federal Officer), Administrative Conference of the United States, Suite 706 South, 1120 20th Street NW, Washington, DC 20036; Telephone 202-480-2088; email 
                        <E T="03">smcgibbon@acus.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Administrative Conference of the United States makes recommendations to federal agencies, the President, Congress, and the Judicial Conference of the United States regarding the improvement of administrative procedures (5 U.S.C. 594). The membership of the Conference, when meeting in plenary session, constitutes the Assembly of the Conference (5 U.S.C. 595).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                     In addition to receiving updates on past, current, and pending Conference initiatives (including a presentation on the Conference's research into the use of artificial intelligence in federal agencies), the Assembly will consider minor amendments to its bylaws and four proposed recommendations which are described below:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency Guidance Through Interpretive Rules.</E>
                     This proposed recommendation lists steps that agencies can take to offer members of the public the opportunity to propose alternative approaches to those presented in an interpretive rule and to encourage, when appropriate, public participation in the adoption or modification of interpretive rules. It largely extends to interpretive rules the best practices for statements of policy adopted in Recommendation 2017-5, 
                    <E T="03">Agency Guidance Through Policy Statements,</E>
                     with appropriate modifications to account for instances in which there are differences between interpretive rules and statements of policy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Selection of Administrative Law Judges.</E>
                     This proposed recommendation addresses the processes and procedures that agency heads should consider establishing when exercising their authority under Executive Order 13843 to hire administrative law judges (ALJs). It encourages agencies to advertise ALJ positions in order to reach a wide pool of applicants, to publish minimum qualifications and selection criteria for ALJ hiring, and to develop policies for the review of ALJ applications.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Availability of Agency Guidance.</E>
                     This proposed recommendation offers agencies best practices for promoting widespread availability of guidance documents. It urges agencies to: Develop and disseminate internal policies for publishing, tracking, and obtaining input on guidance documents; post guidance documents online in a manner that facilitates public access; and undertake affirmative outreach to notify members of the public of new or updated guidance documents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Revised Model Rules for Implementation of the Equal Access to Justice Act.</E>
                     This proposed recommendation proposes a substantial revision of the Conference's 1986 model rules governing agency procedures for the submission and consideration of applications under the Equal Access to Justice Act, which requires the government to pay the expenses of certain prevailing parties in agency adjudications. The revised model rules reflect, among other things, changes in law and agency practice since 1986.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the proposed recommendations and the order of the agenda, as well as other materials related to the meeting, can be found at the 71st Plenary Session page on the Conference's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.acus.gov/meetings-and-events/plenary-meeting/71st-plenary-session.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Participation:</E>
                     The Conference welcomes the attendance of the public at the meeting, subject to space limitations, and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities or special needs. Members of the public who wish to attend in person are asked to RSVP online at the 71st Plenary Session web page shown above, no later than two days before the meeting, in order to facilitate entry and to ensure adequate seating. Members of the public who attend the meeting may be permitted to speak only with the consent of the Chairman and the unanimous approval of the members of the Assembly. If you need special accommodations due to disability, please inform the Designated Federal Officer noted above at least 7 days in advance of the meeting. The public may also view the meeting on GW Law's YouTube Channel: 
                    <E T="03">https://youtube.com/user/gwlawschool.</E>
                     Alternatively, an archived video recording of the meeting will be available on the Conference's website shortly after the conclusion of the event: 
                    <E T="03">https://livestream.com/ACUS.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written Comments:</E>
                     Persons who wish to comment on any of the proposed recommendations may do so by submitting a written statement either online by clicking “Submit a comment” on the 71st Plenary Session web page shown above or by mail addressed to: June 2019 Plenary Session Comments, Administrative Conference of the United States, Suite 706 South, 1120 20th Street NW, Washington, DC 20036. Written submissions must be received no later than 10:00 a.m. (EDT), Thursday, June 6, to ensure consideration by the Assembly.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Shawne McGibbon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11053 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6110-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24463"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2019-0017]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>
                    Notice of Availability of an Environmental Assessment for the Release of 
                    <E T="0714">Cheilosia urbana</E>
                     for Biological Control of Invasive Hawkweeds
                </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are advising the public that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has prepared an environmental assessment relative to permitting the release of the hoverfly 
                        <E T="03">Cheilosia urbana</E>
                         for the biological control of invasive hawkweeds (
                        <E T="03">Pilosella</E>
                         species) within the contiguous United States. Based on the environmental assessment and other relevant data, we have reached a preliminary determination that the release of these control agents will not have a significant impact on the quality of the human environment. We are making the environmental assessment available to the public for review and comment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We will consider all comments that we receive on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2019-0017.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>
                         Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2019-0017, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2019-0017</E>
                         or in our reading room, which is located in Room 1141 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 799-7039 before coming.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. Colin D. Stewart, Assistant Director, Pests, Pathogens, and Biocontrol Permits, Permitting and Compliance Coordination, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2237; email: 
                        <E T="03">Colin.Stewart@usda.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                     Hawkweeds are invasive weeds of moist pastures, forest meadows, and mountain rangelands with a moderate amount of moisture. Habitats most vulnerable to invasion include human-disturbed sites, such as roadsides and hayfields, and abandoned farmland. The following hawkweeds are considered noxious in many western States and are currently targets for biological control: 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella flagellaris</E>
                     (whiplash hawkweed), 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella floribunda</E>
                     (king devil hawkweed), 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella glomerata</E>
                     (queen devil or yellow devil hawkweed), 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella officinarum</E>
                     (mouse-ear hawkweed), and 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella piloselloides</E>
                     (tall hawkweed).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Cheilosia urbana</E>
                     is a very common and widespread hoverfly in Europe. The fly's potential range in North America is expected to match much of the distributions of the targeted 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella</E>
                     (hawkweed) species that occur in the northwestern United States and northeastern United States, including southwestern and southeastern Canada. Permitting the release of 
                    <E T="03">Cheilosia urbana</E>
                     is necessary to reduce the severity of invasive hawkweed infestations and economic losses since other alternatives are not effective or feasible.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's (APHIS') review and analysis of the potential environmental impacts associated with the proposed release are documented in detail in an environmental assessment (EA) entitled “Field Release of the Hoverfly 
                    <E T="03">Cheilosia urbana</E>
                     (Diptera: Syrphidae) for Biological Control of Invasive 
                    <E T="03">Pilosella</E>
                     species hawkweeds (Asteraceae) in the contiguous United States” (July 2018). We are making the EA available to the public for review and comment. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before the date listed under the heading 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     at the beginning of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EA may be viewed on the 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     website or in our reading room (see ADDRESSES above for a link to 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     and information on the location and hours of the reading room). You may also request paper copies of the EA by calling or writing to the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . Please refer to the title of the EA when requesting copies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EA has been prepared in accordance with: (1) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), (2) regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality for implementing the procedural provisions of NEPA (40 CFR parts 1500-1508), (3) USDA regulations implementing NEPA (7 CFR part 1b), and (4) APHIS' NEPA Implementing Procedures (7 CFR part 372).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 21st day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kevin Shea,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11027 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2019-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Availability of an Environmental Assessment for the Release of Aphalara Itadori for the Biological Control of Japanese, Giant, and Bohemian Knotweeds</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are advising the public that the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has prepared an environmental assessment relative to permitting the release of 
                        <E T="03">Aphalara itadori</E>
                         for the biological control of Japanese, Giant, and Bohemian knotweeds (
                        <E T="03">Fallopia japonica, F. sachalinensis,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">F.</E>
                         x 
                        <E T="03">bohemica</E>
                        ), significant invasive weeds, within the contiguous United States. Based on the environmental assessment and other relevant data, we have reached a preliminary determination that the release of this biological control organism will not have a significant impact on the quality of the human environment. We are making the environmental assessment available to the public for review and comment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We will consider all comments that we receive on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2019-0002.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>
                         Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2019-0002, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, Station 3A-03.8, 4700 River Road, Unit 118, Riverdale, MD 20737-1238.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24464"/>
                        may be viewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov/#!docketDetail;D=APHIS-2019-0002</E>
                         or in our reading room, which is located in Room 1141 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 7997039 before coming.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. Colin D. Stewart, Assistant Director, Pests, Pathogens, and Biocontrol Permits, Permitting and Compliance Coordination, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2237; email: 
                        <E T="03">Colin.Stewart@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Invasive knotweeds in North America are a complex of three closely related species in the family Polygonaceae that were introduced from Japan during the late 19th century. They include 
                    <E T="03">Fallopia japonica</E>
                     (Japanese knotweed), 
                    <E T="03">F. sachalinensis</E>
                     (Giant knotweed), and the hybrid between the two, 
                    <E T="03">F.</E>
                     x 
                    <E T="03">bohemica</E>
                     (Bohemian knotweed). These large herbaceous perennials have spread throughout much of North America, with the greatest infestations in the Pacific Northwest, the northeast of the United States, and eastern Canada. While capable of growing in diverse habitats, the knotweeds have become especially problematic along the banks and floodplains of rivers and streams, where they crowd out native plants and potentially affect stream nutrients and food webs. While several States have active control programs against knotweeds, the inaccessibility of some of the infestations and the difficulty with which the plants are killed suggest that complete eradication of knotweeds within the United States is unlikely.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Hokkaido and Kyushu biotypes of the insect 
                    <E T="03">Aphalara itadori</E>
                     were chosen as potential biological control organisms. The biotypes are expected to reduce the severity of infestations of Japanese, Giant, and Bohemian knotweed, and are known to be highly host specific due to their intimate relationship with their host plants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's (APHIS') review and analysis of the potential environmental impacts associated with the proposed release are documented in detail in an environmental assessment (EA) entitled “Field Release of the Knotweed Psyllid 
                    <E T="03">Aphalara itadori</E>
                     (Hemiptera: Psyllidae) for Classical Biological Control of Japanese, Giant, and Bohemian Knotweeds, 
                    <E T="03">Fallopia japonica, F.</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">sachalinensis,</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">F.</E>
                     x 
                    <E T="03">bohemica</E>
                     (Polygonaceae), in the Contiguous United States, Environmental Assessment” (April 2018). We are making the EA available to the public for review and comment. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before the date listed under the heading DATES at the beginning of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EA may be viewed on the 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     website or in our reading room (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     above for a link to 
                    <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                     and information on the location and hours of the reading room). You may also request paper copies of the EA by calling or writing to the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . Please refer to the title of the EA when requesting copies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EA has been prepared in accordance with: (1) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), (2) regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality for implementing the procedural provisions of NEPA (40 CFR parts 1500-1508), (3) USDA regulations implementing NEPA (7 CFR part 1b), and (4) APHIS' NEPA Implementing Procedures (7 CFR part 372).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 21st day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kevin Shea,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11026 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Commodity Credit Corporation</SUBAGY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign Agricultural Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Funding Opportunity: Inviting Applications for the Foreign Market Development Cooperator Program</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC) announces that it is inviting proposals for the 2020 Foreign Market Development Cooperator (Cooperator) program. The Cooperator program is administered by personnel of the Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS) on behalf of CCC. The intended effect of this notice is to solicit applications from eligible applicants for fiscal year 2020 and to set out criteria for the awarding of funds under the program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>All applications must be received by 5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time, Friday, June 28, 2019. Applications received after this date will not be considered. FAS anticipates that the initial funding selections will be made by the end of October 2019, with the initial award dates estimated to be by the end of December 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Applicants needing assistance should contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service 
                        <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                         Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                        <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                         (202) 720-4327, or 
                        <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                         (202) 720-9361, or 
                        <E T="03">by email: uesadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                         Information, including a copy of the program regulations, is also available on the FAS website at the following URL address: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.fas.usda.gov/programs/foreign-market-development-program-fmd.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Funding Opportunity Description</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Announcement Type:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Award Instrument:</E>
                     Grant.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number:</E>
                     10.600.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authorizing Authority:</E>
                     The Cooperator program is authorized by Section 203(c) of the Agricultural Trade Act of 1978 (7 U.S.C. 5623(c)), as amended. Cooperator program regulations appear at 7 CFR part 1484.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Appropriation Authority:</E>
                     Funding for the Cooperator program is provided under 7 U.S.C. 5623(f).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose:</E>
                     The Cooperator program is designed to maintain and develop foreign markets for United States agricultural commodities and products through cost-share assistance. Financial assistance under the Cooperator program will be made available on a competitive basis and applications will be reviewed against the evaluation criteria contained herein and in the Cooperator program regulations. All U.S. agricultural commodities, except tobacco, are eligible for consideration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FAS allocates funds in a manner that effectively supports the strategic decision-making initiatives of the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA) of 1993. In deciding whether a proposed project will contribute to the effective creation, expansion, or maintenance of foreign markets, FAS considers whether the applicant provides a clear, long-term agricultural trade strategy and an effective program time line against which results can be measured at specific intervals using quantifiable product or country goals. FAS also considers the extent to which a proposed project targets markets with the greatest growth potential. These factors are part of the FAS resource allocation strategy to fund applicants who can demonstrate performance and address the objectives of the GPRA.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24465"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Funding Available:</E>
                     The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018 provides no less than $34.5 million for the Cooperator program for each of the fiscal years (FY) 2019 through FY 2023.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Eligibility Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Eligible Organizations:</E>
                     To participate in the Cooperator program, an applicant must be a nonprofit U.S. agricultural trade organization. Funding priority is given to organizations that have the broadest possible producer representation of the commodity being promoted and that are nationwide in membership and scope.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Eligible Activities:</E>
                     Under the Cooperator program, FAS enters into agreements with eligible nonprofit U.S. trade organizations to share the cost of certain overseas marketing and promotion activities. Cooperators may receive assistance only for generic activities that do not involve promotions targeted directly to consumers purchasing in their individual capacity. The Cooperator program generally operates on a reimbursement basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Limits on Activities:</E>
                     Cooperator program activities are approved for a single program year, with the approval dates specified in the allocation approval letter that is provided as part of the award approval package. Only those Cooperator program activities that are approved in each applicant's allocation approval letter may be implemented, and those activities must be implemented during the 12-month program year specified in the allocation approval letter. Requests for activity changes during the program year must be approved in advance by FAS. Cooperator program participants must re-apply for the program every year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Funding Restrictions:</E>
                     Certain types of expenses are not eligible for reimbursement by the program, and there are limits on other categories of expenses. FAS also will not reimburse unreasonable expenditures or expenditures made prior to approval. Full details are available in sections 1484.54 and 1484.55 of the Cooperator program regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">5. Cost-Sharing:</E>
                     To participate in the Cooperator program, an applicant must agree to contribute resources to its proposed promotional activities. The Cooperator program is intended to supplement, not supplant, the efforts of the U.S. private sector. The contribution must be at least 50 percent of the value of resources provided by FAS for activities conducted under the project agreement.
                </P>
                <P>The degree of commitment of an applicant to the promotional strategies contained in its application, as represented by the cost-share contributions specified therein, is considered by FAS when determining which applications will be approved for funding. Cost-share may be actual cash invested or in-kind contributions, such as professional staff time spent on the design and implementation of activities. The Cooperator program regulations, including sections 1484.50 and 1484.51, provide detailed discussion of eligible and ineligible cost-share contributions.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">6. Other:</E>
                     Applications should include a justification for funding assistance from the program—an explanation as to what specifically could not be accomplished without federal funding assistance and why participating organization(s) are unlikely to carry out the project without such assistance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">7. Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                     An intergovernmental review may be required. Applicants must contact their state's Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to comply with their state's process under Executive Order 12372 (see 
                    <E T="03">http://www.fws.gov/policy/library/rgeo12372.pdf</E>
                    ). To ensure currency, the names and addresses of the SPOCs are maintained at the Office of Management and Budget's home page at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/SPOC-Feb.-2018.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Award Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Projected Period of Performance Start Date(s):</E>
                     10/01/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Projected Period of Performance End Date(s):</E>
                     09/30/2023.
                </P>
                <P>It is anticipated that FAS will award approximately 25 awards under the 2020 Cooperator program, subject to programmatic approval and available funding. In general, all qualified proposals received before the submission deadline will compete for funding. FAS will review all proposals against the evaluation criteria contained in the program regulations.</P>
                <P>Funding for successful proposals will be provided through specific agreements. FAS must approve in advance any subsequent changes to the agreement.</P>
                <P>Within 90 days after the end of the period of performance, or after an amendment has been issued to close out a grant, whichever comes first, FAS will confirm that the participant has provided all of the required reports and will review the reports for completeness and content. Once the required reports are approved, FAS will prepare a closeout letter that advises the participant of the award closeout procedures. The notice will indicate the period of performance as closed, list any remaining funds that will be de-obligated, and address the requirement of maintaining the grant records for three years from the date of the final FFR.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Application and Submission Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Address to Submit Application Package:</E>
                     Organizations should submit their Cooperator program applications to FAS through the web-based Unified Export Strategy (UES) system. The UES allows applicants to submit a single consolidated and strategically coordinated proposal that incorporates requests for funding under all of the FAS market development programs. The suggested UES format encourages applicants to examine the constraints or barriers to trade that they face, identify activities that would help overcome such impediments, consider the entire pool of complementary marketing tools and program resources, and establish realistic export goals. Applicants planning to use the UES must first contact FAS' Program Operations Division to obtain site access information. The web-based application may be found at the following URL address: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fas.usda.gov/ues/webapp/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Applicants experiencing difficulty or otherwise needing assistance applying to the program should contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service 
                    <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                     Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                    <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                     (202) 720-4327, or 
                    <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                     (202) 720-9361, or 
                    <E T="03">by e-mail: uesadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Content and Form of Application Submission:</E>
                     To be considered for the Cooperator program, an applicant must submit to FAS an application package consisting of Standard Forms 424, “Application for Federal Assistance” (SF-424), and 424A, “Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs” (SF-424A), which are standard forms required for use as cover sheets for submission of applications and related information under discretionary programs, and the information required by Section 1484.20 of the Cooperator program regulations. Incomplete applications or applications that do not otherwise conform to this announcement and the FMD regulations will not be accepted for review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, any applicant that has not provided the following required certifications through the System for Award Management (SAM) must complete and provide them to FAS before the application can be approved for funding:
                    <PRTPAGE P="24466"/>
                </P>
                <P>1. SF-424B, “Assurances—Non-Construction Programs”</P>
                <P>2. AD-3030 and AD-3031, “Representations Regarding Felony Conviction and Tax Delinquent Status For Corporate Applicants”</P>
                <P>3. AD-1047, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, and Other Responsibility Matters”</P>
                <P>4. AD-1049 or AD-1052 (as appropriate), “Certification Regarding Drug-Free Workplace Requirements”</P>
                <P>5. Certification Regarding Lobbying. If paragraph 2 of the certification applies, then the form SF-LLL, “Disclosure of Lobbying Activities” must also be completed and submitted.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Other Required Information:</E>
                     In accordance with the Office of Management and Budget's policy (68 FR 38402 (June 27, 2003)) regarding the need to identify entities that are receiving government awards, all applicants must submit a Dun and Bradstreet Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number. An applicant may request a DUNS number at no cost by calling the dedicated toll-free DUNS number request line at (866) 705-5711.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, in accordance with 2 CFR part 25, each entity that applies to the Cooperator program and does not qualify for an exemption under 2 CFR 25.110 must:</P>
                <P>(i) Be registered in SAM prior to submitting an application or plan; and</P>
                <P>(ii) Maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which it has an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by FAS; and</P>
                <P>(iii) Provide its DUNS number in each application or plan it submits to FAS.</P>
                <P>FAS may not make an award to an applicant until the applicant has complied with all applicable unique entity identifier and SAM requirements, and if an applicant has not fully complied with the requirements by the time FAS is ready to make the award, FAS may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive an award and use that determination as a basis for making an award to another applicant.</P>
                <P>Similarly, in accordance with 2 CFR part 170, each entity that applies to the Cooperator program and does not qualify for an exception under 2 CFR 170.110(b) must ensure it has the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the applicable reporting requirements of 2 CFR part 170 should it receive funding under the Cooperator program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Submission Dates and Times:</E>
                     All applications must be received by 5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time, Friday, June 28, 2019. Applications received after the deadline will not be considered.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. Application Review Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Criteria and Review and Selection Process:</E>
                     A description of the FAS process for reviewing applications and the criteria for allocating available Cooperator program funds is as follows:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(1) Phase 1—Sufficiency Review and FAS Divisional Review</HD>
                <P>Applications received by the closing date will be reviewed by FAS to determine the eligibility of the applicants and the completeness of the applications. These requirements appear in sections 1484.14 and 1484.20 of the Cooperator program regulations as well as in this Notice. Applications that meet the requirements will be further evaluated by the appropriate Commodity Branch office of FAS' Cooperator Programs Division. The Commodity Branch will review each application against the criteria listed in section 1484.21 of the Cooperator program regulations as well as in this Notice. The purpose of this review is to identify meritorious proposals. The Commodity Branch then recommends an appropriate funding level for each application for consideration by the Office of the Deputy Administrator, Office of Trade Programs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(2) Phase 2—Competitive Review</HD>
                <P>Meritorious applications are passed on to the Office of the Deputy Administrator, Office of Trade Programs, for the purpose of allocating available funds among those applicants. Applicants will compete for funds on the basis of the following allocation criteria as appropriate (the number in parentheses represents the percentage weight factor):</P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Applicant's Contribution Level (40):</E>
                     The applicant's 6-year average share (2015-2020) of all contributions under the Cooperator program compared to the applicant's 6-year average share (2015-2020) of the funding level for all Cooperator program participants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Past U.S. Export Performance (20):</E>
                     The 6-year average share (2014-2019) of the value of U.S. exports promoted by the applicant compared to the applicant's 6-year average share (2014-2019) of the funding level for all Cooperator participants plus, for those groups participating in the MAP program, the 6-year average share (2014-2019) of all MAP budgets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Past Demand Expansion Performance (20):</E>
                     The 6-year average share (2014-2019) of the total value of world trade of the commodities promoted by the applicant compared to the applicant's 6-year average share (2014-2019) of all Cooperator program expenditures plus, for those groups participating in the MAP program, a 6-year average share (2014-2019) of all MAP expenditures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Future Demand Expansion Goals (10):</E>
                     The total dollar value of projected world trade of the commodities being promoted by the applicant for the year 2025 compared to the applicant's requested funding level.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">Accuracy of Past Demand Expansion Projections (10):</E>
                     The actual dollar value share of world trade of the commodities being promoted by the applicant for the year 2018 as reported in the 2020 Cooperator program application compared to the projection of world trade of the commodities being promoted by the applicant for 2018 as specified in the applicant's 2015 Cooperator program application.
                </P>
                <P>The Commodity Branches' recommended funding levels for each applicant are adjusted by each weight factor as described above to determine the amount of funds allocated to each applicant.</P>
                <P>In addition, FAS, prior to making a Federal award with a total amount of Federal share greater than the simplified acquisition threshold, is required to review and consider any information about the applicant that is in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM (currently FAPIIS) (see 41 U.S.C. 2313). An applicant, at its option, may review information in the designated integrity and performance systems accessible through SAM and comment on any information about itself that a Federal awarding agency previously entered and is currently in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM. FAS will consider any comments by the applicant, in addition to the other information in the designated integrity and performance system, in making a judgment about the applicant's integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards when completing the review of risk posed by applicants as described in 2 CFR 200.205 “Federal awarding agency review of risk posed by applicants.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">F. Award Administration Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Award Notices:</E>
                     FAS will notify each applicant in writing of the final disposition of its application. FAS will send an approval letter and project agreement to each approved applicant. The approval letter and project agreement will specify the terms and conditions applicable to the project, including the levels of Cooperator program funding and cost-share 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24467"/>
                    contribution requirements. All successful applicants for all grant and cooperative agreements are required to comply with the Standard Administrative Terms and Conditions, which are available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fas.usda.gov/grants/general_terms_and_conditions/default.asp.</E>
                     The applicable Standard Administrative Terms and Conditions will be those in effect for the year in which the award was originally made unless explicitly stated otherwise in subsequent mutually-agreed amendments to the award.
                </P>
                <P>Before accepting the award, the potential awardee should carefully read the approval letter and program agreement for instructions on administering the grant award and the terms and conditions associated with responsibilities under Federal Awards. Recipients must accept all conditions in this NOFA as well as any special terms and conditions in the approval letter and program agreement to receive an award under this program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Reporting:</E>
                     FAS requires various reports and evaluations from Cooperators. Required reports include an annual contributions report that identifies contributions made by the Cooperator and the U.S. industry during that marketing plan year. All Cooperators must also complete at least one program evaluation each year and must provide program success stories on an annual basis, or more often when appropriate or required by FAS. There are additional reporting requirements for trip reports, evaluation reports, and research reports. Reporting requirements are detailed in the Cooperator program regulations in sections 1484.53, 1484.70, and 1484.72 of the Cooperator program regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Federal Financial Reporting Requirements:</E>
                     The Federal Financial Reporting Form (FFR) is available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.gsa.gov/portal/forms/download/149786.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Monitoring:</E>
                     FAS through its authorized representatives, has the right, at all reasonable times, to make site visits to review project accomplishments and management control systems and to provide such technical assistance as may be required. During site visits, FAS will review grant recipients' files related to the grant-funded program.
                </P>
                <P>As part of any monitoring and program evaluation activities, grant recipients must permit FAS, upon reasonable notice, to review grant-related records and to interview the organization's staff and clients regarding the program, and to respond in a timely and accurate manner to FAS requests for information relating to their grant program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">G. Agency Contact(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Application Submission Contact(s) and Program Support:</E>
                     For additional information and assistance, contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture 
                    <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                     Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                    <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                     (202) 720-4327, or 
                    <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                     (202) 720-9361, or 
                    <E T="03">by e-mail: podadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Grants Management Contact(s):</E>
                     Eric Bozoian, Grants Management Specialist, Foreign Agricultural Service, United States, Department of Agriculture, Email: 
                    <E T="03">Eric.Bozoian@fas.usda.gov,</E>
                     Office: (202) 378-1054.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Clay Hamilton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Foreign Agricultural Service.</TITLE>
                    <P>Dated: May 21, 2019.</P>
                    <NAME>Bill Northey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>President, Commodity Credit Corporation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11023 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3410-10-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Commodity Credit Corporation</SUBAGY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign Agricultural Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Funding Opportunity: Inviting Applications for the Market Access Program</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC) announces that it is inviting applications for the 2020 Market Access Program (MAP). The MAP is administered by personnel of the Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS) on behalf of CCC. The intended effect of this notice is to solicit proposals from eligible applicants for fiscal year 2020 and to set out the criteria for the awarding of funds under the program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>All applications must be received by 5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time, Friday, June 28, 2019. Applications received after this date will not be considered. FAS anticipates that the initial funding selections will be made by the end of October 2019, with the initial award dates estimated to be by the end of December 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Applicants needing assistance should contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service 
                        <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                         Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                        <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                         (202) 720-4327, or 
                        <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                         (202) 720-9361, or 
                        <E T="03">by email: uesadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                         Information, including a copy of the program regulations, is also available on the FAS website at the following URL address: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.fas.usda.gov/programs/market-access-program-map.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Funding Opportunity Description</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Announcement Type:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Award Instrument:</E>
                     Grant.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number:</E>
                     10.601.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authorizing Authority:</E>
                     The MAP is authorized under Section 203(b) of the Agricultural Trade Act of 1978 (7 U.S.C. 5623(b)), as amended. MAP regulations appear at 7 CFR part 1485.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Appropriation Authority:</E>
                     Funding for the MAP is provided under 7 U.S.C. 5623(f).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose:</E>
                     The MAP is designed to encourage the development, maintenance, and expansion of commercial export markets for United States agricultural commodities and products through cost-share assistance. Under the MAP, FAS enters into agreements with eligible Participants to share the cost of certain overseas marketing and promotion activities. Financial assistance under the MAP is made available on a competitive basis, and applications are reviewed against the evaluation criteria contained herein and in the MAP regulations. All U.S. agricultural commodities, except tobacco, are eligible for consideration.
                </P>
                <P>FAS allocates funds in a manner that effectively supports the strategic decision-making initiatives of the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA) of 1993. In deciding whether a proposed project will contribute to the effective creation, expansion, or maintenance of foreign markets, FAS considers whether the applicant provides a clear, long-term agricultural trade strategy and an effective program time line against which results can be measured at specific intervals using quantifiable product or country goals. FAS also considers the extent to which a proposed project targets markets with the greatest growth potential. These factors are part of the FAS resource allocation strategy to fund applicants who can best demonstrate performance and address the objectives of the GPRA.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Funding Available:</E>
                     The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018 provides no less than $200 million for MAP for each of the fiscal years FY 2019 through FY 2023.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24468"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Eligibility Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Eligible Organizations:</E>
                     To participate in the MAP, an applicant must be a nonprofit U.S. agricultural trade organization, a nonprofit state regional trade group, a U.S. agricultural cooperative, or a state government agency. Small-sized private U.S. commercial entities may participate in a branded program through a MAP Participant.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Eligible Activities:</E>
                     MAP Participants may receive assistance for generic or brand promotion activities. For generic activities, funding priority is given to organizations that have the broadest possible producer representation of the commodity being promoted and that are nationwide in membership and scope. For branded activities, only nonprofit U.S. agricultural trade organizations, nonprofit state regional trade groups (SRTGs), U.S. agricultural cooperatives, and state government agencies can participate directly in the brand program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Limits on Activities:</E>
                     MAP activities are approved for a single program year, with the approval dates specified in the allocation approval letter that is provided as part of the award approval package. Only those MAP activities that are approved in each applicant's allocation approval letter may be implemented, and those activities must be implemented during the 12-month program year specified in the allocation approval letter. Requests for activity changes during the program year must be approved in advance by FAS. MAP Participants must re-apply for the program every year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Funding Restrictions:</E>
                     Certain types of expenses are not eligible for reimbursement by the program, and there are limits on other categories of expenses. FAS also will not reimburse unreasonable expenditures or expenditures made prior to approval. Full details and a list of eligible and ineligible expenses may be found in the MAP regulations in section 1485.17.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">5. Cost-Sharing:</E>
                     To participate in the MAP, an applicant must agree to contribute resources towards its proposed promotional activities. The MAP is intended to supplement, not supplant, the efforts of the U.S. private sector. In the case of generic promotion, the contribution must be at least 10 percent of the value of resources provided by FAS for such generic promotion. In the case of branded promotion, the contribution must be at least 50 percent of the total cost of such brand promotion.
                </P>
                <P>The degree of commitment of an applicant to the promotional strategies contained in its application, as represented by the cost-share contributions specified therein, is considered by FAS when determining which applications will be approved for funding. Cost-share may be actual cash invested or in-kind contributions, such as professional staff time spent on the design and implementation of activities. The MAP regulations, in section 1485.16, provide a detailed discussion of eligible and ineligible cost-share contributions.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">6. Other:</E>
                     Applications should include a justification for funding assistance from the program—an explanation as to what specifically could not be accomplished without federal funding assistance and why participating organizations are unlikely to carry out the project without such assistance. The MAP generally operates on a reimbursement basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">7. Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                     An intergovernmental review may be required. Applicants must contact their state's Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to comply with their state's process under Executive Order 12372 (see 
                    <E T="03">http://www.fws.gov/policy/library/rgeo12372.pdf</E>
                    ). The names and addresses of the SPOCs are maintained at the Office of Management and Budget's home page at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/SPOC-Feb.-2018.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Award Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Projected Period of Performance Start Date(s): 01/01/2020</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Projected Period of Performance End Date(s): 09/30/2023</HD>
                <P>It is anticipated that FAS will award approximately 70 awards under the 2020 MAP, subject to programmatic approval and available funding. In general, all qualified proposals received before the submission deadline will compete for funding. FAS will review all proposals against the evaluation criteria contained in the program regulations.</P>
                <P>Funding for successful proposals will be provided through specific agreements. FAS must approve in advance any subsequent changes to the agreement.</P>
                <P>Within 90 days after the end of the period of performance, or after an amendment has been issued to close out a grant, whichever comes first, FAS will confirm that the participant has provided all of the required reports and will review the reports for completeness and content. Once the required reports are approved, FAS will prepare a closeout letter that advises the participant of the award closeout procedures. The notice will indicate the period of performance as closed, list any remaining funds that will be de-obligated, and address the requirement of maintaining the grant records for three years from the date of the final FFR.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Application and Submission Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Address to Submit Application Package:</E>
                     Organizations should submit their MAP applications to FAS through the web-based Unified Export Strategy (UES) system. The UES allows interested applicants to submit a single consolidated and strategically coordinated proposal that incorporates requests for funding under all of the FAS market development programs. The suggested UES format encourages applicants to examine the constraints or barriers to trade that they face, identify activities that would help overcome such impediments, consider the entire pool of complementary marketing tools and program resources, and establish realistic export goals. Applicants planning to use the UES system must first contact FAS' Program Operations Division to obtain site access information. The web-based application may be found at the following URL address: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fas.usda.gov/ues/webapp/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Applicants experiencing difficulty or otherwise needing assistance applying to the program should contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service 
                    <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                     Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                    <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                     (202) 720-4327, or 
                    <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                     (202) 720-9361, or 
                    <E T="03">by email: uesadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Content and Form of Application Submission:</E>
                     To be considered for MAP, an applicant must submit to FAS an application package consisting of Standard Forms 424, “Application for Federal Assistance” (SF-424), and 424A, “Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs” (SF-424A), which are standard forms required for use as cover sheets for submission of applications and related information under discretionary programs, and the information required by Section 1485.13 of the MAP regulations. Incomplete applications or applications that do not otherwise conform to this announcement and the MAP regulations will not be accepted for review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, any applicant that has not provided the following required certifications through the System for Award Management (SAM) must 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24469"/>
                    complete and provide them to FAS before the application can be approved for funding:
                </P>
                <P>1. SF-424B, “Assurances—Non-Construction Programs”</P>
                <P>2. AD-3030 and AD-3031, “Representations Regarding Felony Conviction and Tax Delinquent Status For Corporate Applicants”</P>
                <P>3. AD-1047, “Certification Regarding Debarment, Suspension, and Other Responsibility Matters”</P>
                <P>4. AD-1049 or AD-1052 (as appropriate), “Certification Regarding Drug-Free Workplace Requirements”</P>
                <P>5. Certification Regarding Lobbying. If paragraph 2 of the certification applies, then the form SF-LLL, “Disclosure of Lobbying Activities” must also be completed and submitted.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Other Required Information:</E>
                     In accordance with the Office of Management and Budget's policy (68 FR 38402 (June 27, 2003)) regarding the need to identify entities that are receiving government awards, all applicants must submit a Dun and Bradstreet Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number. An applicant may request a DUNS number at no cost by calling the dedicated toll-free DUNS number request line at (866) 705-5711.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, in accordance with 2 CFR part 25, each entity that applies to the MAP and does not qualify for an exemption under 2 CFR 25.110 must:</P>
                <P>(i) Be registered in SAM prior to submitting an application or plan; and</P>
                <P>(ii) Maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which it has an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by FAS; and</P>
                <P>(iii) Provide its DUNS number in each application or plan it submits to FAS.</P>
                <P>FAS may not make an award to an applicant until the applicant has complied with all applicable unique entity identifier and SAM requirements, and, if an applicant has not fully complied with the requirements by the time FAS is ready to make the award, FAS may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive an award and use that determination as a basis for making an award to another applicant.</P>
                <P>Similarly, in accordance with 2 CFR part 170, each entity that applies to MAP and does not qualify for an exception under 2 CFR 170.110(b) must ensure it has the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the applicable reporting requirements of 2 CFR part 170 should it receive MAP funding.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Submission Dates and Times:</E>
                     All applications must be received by 5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time, Friday, June 28, 2019. Applications received after the deadline will not be considered.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. Application Review Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Criteria and Review Process:</E>
                     A description of the FAS process for reviewing applications and the criteria for allocating available MAP funds is as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(1) Phase 1—Sufficiency Review and FAS Divisional Review:</E>
                     Applications received by the closing date will be reviewed by FAS to determine the eligibility of the applicants and the completeness of the applications. These requirements appear in sections 1485.12 and 1485.13 of the MAP regulations. Applications that meet the requirements will then be further evaluated by the appropriate Commodity Branch office of FAS' Cooperator Programs Division. The Commodity Branches will review each application against the criteria listed in section 1485.14(b) and (c) of the MAP regulations as well as in this Notice. The purpose of this review is to identify meritorious proposals and to recommend an appropriate funding level for each application based upon these criteria.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(2) Phase 2—Competitive Review:</E>
                     Meritorious applications then will be passed on to the Office of the Deputy Administrator, Office of Trade Programs, for the purpose of allocating available funds among the applicants. Applicants will compete for funds on the basis of the following allocation criteria as applicable (the number in parentheses represents the percentage weight factor):
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(a) Applicant's Contribution Level (40):</E>
                     The applicant's 4-year average share (2017-2020) of all contributions under the MAP compared to the applicant's 4-year average share (2017-2020) of the funding level for all MAP Participants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(b) Past U.S. Export Performance (30):</E>
                     The 3-year average share (2016-2018) of the value of U.S. exports promoted by the applicant compared to the applicant's 2-year average share (2018-2019) of the funding level for all MAP Participants plus, for those groups participating in the Cooperator program, the 2-year average share (2018-2019) of all Cooperator program budgets.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(c) Projected U.S. Export Goals (15):</E>
                     The total dollar value of projected U.S. exports of the commodities being promoted by the applicant for the year 2020 compared to the applicant's requested funding level.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(d) Accuracy of Past U.S. Export Projections (15):</E>
                     The actual dollar value share of U.S. exports of the commodities being promoted by the applicant for the year 2018 as reported in the 2020 MAP application compared to the projection of U.S. exports for 2018 as specified in the 2018 MAP application.
                </P>
                <P>The Commodity Branches' recommended funding levels for each applicant are adjusted by each weight factor as described above to determine the amount of funds allocated to each applicant.</P>
                <P>In addition, FAS, prior to making a Federal award with a total amount of Federal share greater than the simplified acquisition threshold, is required to review and consider any information about the applicant that is in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM (currently FAPIIS) (see 41 U.S.C. 2313). An applicant, at its option, may review information in the designated integrity and performance systems accessible through SAM and comment on any information about itself that a Federal awarding agency previously entered and is currently in the designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM. FAS will consider any comments by the applicant, in addition to the other information in the designated integrity and performance system, in making a judgment about the applicant's integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards when completing the review of risk posed by applicants as described in 2 CFR 200.205 “Federal awarding agency review of risk posed by applicants.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">F. Award Administration Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Award Notices:</E>
                     FAS will notify each applicant in writing of the final disposition of its application. FAS will send an approval letter and program agreement to each approved applicant. The approval letter and program agreement will specify the terms and conditions applicable to the project, including the levels of MAP funding and cost-share contribution requirements. All successful applicants for all grant and cooperative agreements are required to comply with the Standard Administrative Terms and Conditions, which are available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fas.usda.gov/grants/general_terms_and_conditions/default.asp.</E>
                     The applicable Standard Administrative Terms and Conditions will be those in effect for the year in which the award was originally made unless explicitly stated otherwise in subsequent mutually-agreed amendments to the award.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Before accepting the award, the potential awardee should carefully read the approval letter and program agreement for instructions on administering the grant award and the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24470"/>
                    terms and conditions associated with responsibilities under Federal Awards. Recipients must accept all conditions in this NOFO as well as any special terms and conditions in the approval letter and program agreement to receive an award under this program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Reporting:</E>
                     FAS requires various reports and evaluations from MAP Participants. Required reports include an annual contributions report that identifies, by cost category and in U.S. dollar equivalents, contributions made by the Participant, the U.S. industry, and the States during that program year. All MAP Participants must also report annual results against their target market and/or regional constraint/opportunity performance measures and must provide program success stories on an annual basis, or more often when appropriate or required by FAS. There are additional reporting requirements for trip reports, evaluation reports, and research reports. Full reporting requirements are detailed in sections 1485.22 and 1485.23 of the MAP regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Federal Financial Reporting Requirements:</E>
                     The Federal Financial Reporting Form (FFR) is available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.gsa.gov/portal/forms/download/149786.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Monitoring:</E>
                     FAS through its authorized representatives, has the right, at all reasonable times, to make site visits to review project accomplishments and management control systems and to provide such technical assistance as may be required. During site visits, FAS will review grant recipients' files related to the grant-funded program.
                </P>
                <P>As part of any monitoring and program evaluation activities, grant recipients must permit FAS, upon reasonable notice, to review grant-related records and to interview the organization's staff and clients regarding the program, and to respond in a timely and accurate manner to FAS requests for information relating to their grant program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">G. Agency Contact(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Application Submission Contact(s) and Program Support:</E>
                     For additional information and assistance, contact the Program Operations Division, Office of Trade Programs, Foreign Agricultural Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture 
                    <E T="03">by courier:</E>
                     Room 6512, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250, or 
                    <E T="03">by phone:</E>
                     (202) 720-4327, or 
                    <E T="03">by fax:</E>
                     (202) 720-9361, or 
                    <E T="03">by email: podadmin@fas.usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Grants Management Contact(s):</E>
                     Eric Bozoian, Grants Management Specialist, Foreign Agricultural Service, United States, Department of Agriculture, Email: 
                    <E T="03">Eric.Bozoian@fas.usda.gov,</E>
                     Office: (202) 378-1054.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Clay Hamilton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator, Foreign Agricultural Service.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bill Northey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>President, Commodity Credit Corporation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11022 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-10-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting Notice</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Commission public business meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Friday, June 7, 2019, 11:30 a.m. EDT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Place: National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, 11th Floor, Suite 1150, Washington, DC 20425. (Entrance on F Street NW.)</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brian Walch: (202) 376-8371; TTY: (202) 376-8116; 
                        <E T="03">publicaffairs@usccr.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This business meeting is open to the public. There will also be a call-in line (listen-only) for individuals who desire to hear the meeting and presentations: 877-211-3430, conference ID 837-0177. The meeting will live-stream at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.youtube.com/user/USCCR/videos.</E>
                     (Subject to change.) Persons with disabilities who need accommodation should contact Pamela Dunston at (202) 376-8105 or at 
                    <E T="03">access@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least seven business days before the scheduled date of the meeting.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meeting Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Approval of Agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Business Meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Presentation by Connecticut State Advisory Committee (SAC) Chair on the Committee's recent Advisory Memorandum on Prosecutorial Practices</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Presentation by Rhode Island State Advisory Committee Chair on the Committee's recent Advisory Memorandum on Voting Rights</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Discussion and vote on project timeline for the Commission's project on Title IX and campus free speech</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Discussion and vote on statement deadlines for the Commission's project on stand your ground laws</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Discussion and vote on State Advisory Committee slates</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Virginia</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Kentucky</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Oregon</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• South Carolina</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Management and operations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Staff Director's Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                    G. [1:30 p.m. EDT] Speaker Series Presentation by historian David Carter: 
                    <E T="03">Stonewall at 50: The Movement for LGBT Civil Rights.</E>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Adjourn Meeting</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 23, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Walch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Communications and Public Engagement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11153 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Order No. 2081]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval of Subzone Status; Calsonic Kansei North America; Shelbyville and Lewisburg, Tennessee</SUBJECT>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Pursuant to its authority under the Foreign-Trade Zones Act of June 18, 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) adopts the following Order:</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Act provides for “. . . the establishment . . . of foreign-trade zones in ports of entry of the United States, to expedite and encourage foreign commerce, and for other purposes,” and authorizes the Foreign-Trade Zones Board to grant to qualified corporations the privilege of establishing foreign-trade zones in or adjacent to U.S. Customs and Border Protection ports of entry;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Board's regulations (15 CFR part 400) provide for the establishment of subzones for specific uses;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Metropolitan Government of Nashville and Davidson County, Tennessee, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 78, has made application to the Board for the establishment of a subzone at the facilities of Calsonic Kansei North America, located in Shelbyville and Lewisburg, Tennessee (FTZ Docket B-52-2018, docketed August 15, 2018);
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     notice inviting public comment has been given in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (83 FR 42868, August 24, 2018) and the application has been processed pursuant to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations; and,
                    <PRTPAGE P="24471"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Board adopts the findings and recommendations of the examiner's memorandum, and finds that the requirements of the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations are satisfied;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Now, therefore,</E>
                     the Board hereby approves subzone status at the facilities of Calsonic Kansei North America, located in Shelbyville and Lewisburg, Tennessee (Subzone 78M), as described in the application and 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, subject to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations, including Section 400.13.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey I. Kessler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, Alternate Chairman, Foreign-Trade Zones Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11018 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Order No. 2082]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval of Subzone Status; United Parcel Service, Inc.; Louisville, Kentucky</SUBJECT>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Pursuant to its authority under the Foreign-Trade Zones Act of June 18, 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) adopts the following Order:</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Act provides for “. . . the establishment . . . of foreign-trade zones in ports of entry of the United States, to expedite and encourage foreign commerce, and for other purposes,” and authorizes the Foreign-Trade Zones Board to grant to qualified corporations the privilege of establishing foreign-trade zones in or adjacent to U.S. Customs and Border Protection ports of entry;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Board's regulations (15 CFR part 400) provide for the establishment of subzones for specific uses;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Louisville and Jefferson County Riverport Authority, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 29, has made application to the Board for the establishment of a subzone at the facility of United Parcel Service, Inc., located in Louisville, Kentucky, (FTZ Docket B-61-2018, docketed October 1, 2018);
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     notice inviting public comment has been given in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (83 FR 50335-50336, October 5, 2018) and the application has been processed pursuant to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations; and,
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Whereas,</E>
                     the Board adopts the findings and recommendations of the examiner's memorandum, and finds that the requirements of the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations are satisfied;
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Now, therefore,</E>
                     the Board hereby approves subzone status at the facility of United Parcel Service, Inc., located in Louisville, Kentucky (Subzone 29O), as described in the application and 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, subject to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations, including Section 400.13.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey I. Kessler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, Alternate Chairman, Foreign-Trade Zones Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11019 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-580-880]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From the Republic of Korea: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Final Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that producers and/or exporters subject to this administrative review made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value during the period of review (POR), March 1, 2016 through August 31, 2017.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective May 28, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Alice Maldonado or Whitley Herndon, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4682 or (202) 482-6274, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>This review covers 14 producers and exporters of the subject merchandise. Commerce selected two companies, Dong-A Steel Company (DOSCO) and HiSteel Co., Ltd (HiSteel), for individual examination. The producers and or exporters not selected for individual examination are listed in the “Final Results of the Review” section of this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    On October 10, 2018, Commerce published the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In November and December 2018, the petitioners,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     DOSCO, and HiSteel submitted case and rebuttal briefs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea:</E>
                         Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017, 83 FR 50892 (October 10, 2018) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         These companies are Independence Tube Corporation and Southland Tube, Incorporated, Nucor companies; Atlas Tube, a division of Zekelman Industries; and Searing Industries.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce exercised its discretion to toll all deadlines affected by the partial federal government closure from December 22, 2018, through the resumption of operations on January 29, 2019.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On February 28, 2019, we postponed the final results by 60 days, until May 20, 2019.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Deadlines Affected by the Partial Shutdown of the Federal Government,” dated January 28, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea: Extension of Deadline for Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review,” dated February 28, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commerce conducted this administrative review in accordance with section 751 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>The merchandise subject to the order is certain heavy walled rectangular welded steel pipes and tubes of rectangular (including square) cross section, having a nominal wall thickness of not less than 4 mm. The merchandise includes, but is not limited to, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A-500, grade B specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. Included products are those in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and (3) none of the elements below exceeds the quantity, by weight, respectively indicated:</P>
                <P>• 2.50 percent of manganese, or</P>
                <P>• 3.30 percent of silicon, or</P>
                <P>• 1.50 percent of copper, or</P>
                <P>• 1.50 percent of aluminum, or</P>
                <P>• 1.25 percent of chromium, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of cobalt, or</P>
                <P>• 0.40 percent of lead, or</P>
                <P>• 2.0 percent of nickel, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of tungsten, or</P>
                <P>• 0.80 percent of molybdenum, or</P>
                <P>• 0.10 percent of niobium (also called columbium), or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of vanadium, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of zirconium.</P>
                <P>
                    The product is currently classified under following Harmonized Tariff 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24472"/>
                    Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) item numbers 7306.61.1000. Subject merchandise may also be classified under 7306.61.3000. Although the HTSUS numbers and ASTM specification are provided for convenience and for customs purposes, the written product description remains dispositive.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs are listed in the Appendix to this notice and addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Interested parties can find a complete discussion of these issues and the corresponding recommendations in this public memorandum, which is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">http://access.trade.gov,</E>
                     and is also available to all interested parties in the Central Records Unit, room B8024, of the main Department of Commerce building. In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">http://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/index.html.</E>
                     The signed and electronic versions of the Issues and Decision Memorandum are identical in content.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the 2016-2017 Administrative Review of the Antidumping Duty Order on Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea,” (dated concurrently with these results) (Issues and Decision Memorandum), which is hereby adopted by this notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Determination of No Shipments</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we received a no shipment claim from one company involved in this administrative review, SeAH Steel Corporation (SeAH). In the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we preliminarily determined that SeAH had no reviewable transactions during the POR. We received no comments from interested parties with respect to this claim. Therefore, because the record indicates that this company did not export subject merchandise to the United States during the POR, we continue to find that SeAH had no reviewable transactions during the POR.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we made certain changes to the preliminary weighted-average margin calculations for DOSCO and HiSteel, and those companies not selected for individual review.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of the Review</HD>
                <P>We are assigning the following weighted-average dumping margins to the firms listed below for the period March 1, 2016, through August 31, 2017:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,9">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exporter/producer</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Weighted-average dumping margin
                            <LI>(percent)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dong-A Steel Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>20.79</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HiSteel Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.74</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Review-Specific Average Rate Applicable to the Following Companies: 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         This rate is based on the rates for the respondents that were selected for individual review, excluding rates that are zero, 
                        <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                         or based entirely on facts available. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,9">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exporter/producer</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Weighted-average dumping margin
                            <LI>(percent)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ahshin Pipe &amp; Tube Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bookook Steel Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dongbu Steel Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Husteel Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hyundai Steel Pipe Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hyundai Steel Co</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Miju Steel Manufacturing Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NEXTEEL Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sam Kang Industries Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SeAH Steel Corporation</ENT>
                        <ENT>*</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Kukje Steel Co., Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Yujin Steel Industry Co. Ltd</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* No shipments or sales subject to this review.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>We intend to disclose the calculations performed within five days of the date of publication of this notice to parties in this proceeding, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), Commerce has determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), where DOSCO and HiSteel reported the entered value of their U.S. sales, we calculated importer-specific 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duty assessment rates based on the ratio of the total amount of dumping calculated for the examined sales to the total entered value of the sales for which entered value was reported. Where the respondents did not report entered value, we calculated the entered value in order to calculate the assessment rate. Where either the respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), or an importer-specific rate is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the companies which were not selected for individual review, we will assign an assessment rate based on the average 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the cash deposit rates calculated for DOSCO and HiSteel. The final results of this review shall be the basis for the assessment of antidumping duties on entries of merchandise covered by the final results of this review and for future deposits of estimated duties, where applicable.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         This rate was calculated as discussed in footnote 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We intend to issue liquidation instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this administrative review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for each specific company listed above will be that established in the final results of this review, except if the rate is less than 0.50 percent and, therefore, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), in which case the cash deposit rate will be zero; (2) for previously investigated companies not participating in this review, the cash deposit will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, or the original less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent segment for the manufacturer of the merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 3.24 percent, the all-others rate established 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24473"/>
                    in the LTFV investigation.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea, Mexico, and the Republic of Turkey: Antidumping Duty Orders,</E>
                         81 FR 62865, 62866 (September 13, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Importers</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification Regarding Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey I. Kessler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix—List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Margin Calculations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion of the Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">General Issues</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Existence of a Particular Market Situation (PMS)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Additional PMS Adjustments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 3: Home Market Viability Allegation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">DOSCO-Specific Issues</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 4: Weight Basis for DOSCO's Comparison Methodology</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 5: DOSCO's Constructed Export Price (CEP) Offset Claim</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 6: Cost Differences Unrelated to the Defined Physical Characteristics</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 7: Services Sourced from Affiliated Parties</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        <E T="03">HiSteel-Specific Issues</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 8: Differential Pricing</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Recommendation</FP>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11017 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-201-847]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From Mexico: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Final Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that producers and/or exporters subject to this administrative review made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value during the period of review (POR), March 1, 2016, through August 31, 2017.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective May 28, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David Crespo or Jacob Garten, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3693 or (202) 482-3342, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>This review covers 11 producers and exporters of the subject merchandise. Commerce selected two companies, Maquilacero S.A. de C.V. (Maquilacero) and Productos Laminados de Monterrey S.A. de C.V. (Prolamsa) (collectively, the respondents), for individual examination. The producers and or exporters not selected for individual examination are listed in the “Final Results of the Review” section of this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    On October 10, 2018, Commerce published the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In November 2018, the domestic parties,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Maquilacero, Prolamsa, and one of the companies not selected for individual examination (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Perfiles y Herrajes LM S.A. de C.V.) submitted case briefs and the domestic parties, Maquilacero, and Prolamsa submitted rebuttal briefs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from Mexico: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017,</E>
                         83 FR 50888 (October 10, 2018) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The petitioners are Independence Tube Corporation and Southland Tube, Incorporated, both Nucor companies; and domestic interested parties are Atlas Tube, a division of Zekelman Industries; and Searing Industries (collectively, domestic parties).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce exercised its discretion to toll all deadlines affected by the partial federal government closure from December 22, 2018, through the resumption of operations on January 29, 2019.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On February 28, 2019, we postponed the final results by 60 days, until May 20, 2019.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Deadlines Affected by the Partial Shutdown of the Federal Government,” dated January 28, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from Mexico: Extension of Deadline for Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review,” dated February 28, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commerce conducted this administrative review in accordance with section 751 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>The merchandise subject to the order is certain heavy walled rectangular welded steel pipes and tubes of rectangular (including square) cross section, having a nominal wall thickness of not less than 4 mm. The merchandise includes, but is not limited to, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A-500, grade B specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. Included products are those in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and (3) none of the elements below exceeds the quantity, by weight, respectively indicated:</P>
                <P>• 2.50 percent of manganese, or</P>
                <P>• 3.30 percent of silicon, or</P>
                <P>• 1.50 percent of copper, or</P>
                <P>• 1.50 percent of aluminum, or</P>
                <P>• 1.25 percent of chromium, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of cobalt, or</P>
                <P>• 0.40 percent of lead, or</P>
                <P>• 2.0 percent of nickel, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of tungsten, or</P>
                <P>• 0.80 percent of molybdenum, or</P>
                <P>• 0.10 percent of niobium (also called columbium), or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of vanadium, or</P>
                <P>• 0.30 percent of zirconium.</P>
                <P>
                    The product is currently classified under following Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24474"/>
                    item numbers 7306.61.1000. Subject merchandise may also be classified under 7306.61.3000. Although the HTSUS numbers and ASTM specification are provided for convenience and for customs purposes, the written product description remains dispositive.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs are listed in the Appendix to this notice and addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Interested parties can find a complete discussion of these issues and the corresponding recommendations in this public memorandum, which is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">http://access.trade.gov,</E>
                     and is also available to all interested parties in the Central Records Unit, room B8024, of the main Department of Commerce building. In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">http://enforcement.trade.gov/frn/index.html.</E>
                     The signed and electronic versions of the Issues and Decision Memorandum are identical in content.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the 2016-2017 Administrative Review of the Antidumping Duty Order on Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from Mexico,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by this notice (Issues and Decision Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination of No Shipments</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we received a no shipment claim from one company involved in this administrative review, Tuberia Nacional S.A. de C.V. (TUNA). In the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we preliminarily determined that TUNA had no reviewable transactions during the POR. We received no comments from interested parties with respect to this claim. Therefore, because the record indicates that this company did not export subject merchandise to the United States during the POR, we continue to find that TUNA had no reviewable transactions during the POR.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we made certain changes to the preliminary weighted-average margin calculations for Maquilacero and Prolamsa, and those companies not selected for individual review.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of the Review</HD>
                <P>We are assigning the following weighted-average dumping margins to the firms listed below for the period March 1, 2016, through August 31, 2017:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,9">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exporter/producer</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Weighted-average dumping margin (percent)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Maquilacero S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.43</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Productos Laminados de Monterrrey S.A. de C.V </ENT>
                        <ENT>8.09</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Review-Specific Average Rate Applicable to the Following Companies: 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         This rate is based on the rates for the respondents that were selected for individual review, excluding rates that are zero, 
                        <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                         or based entirely on facts available. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,9">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exporter/Producer</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Weighted-average dumping margin (percent)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Arco Metal S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Forza Steel S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Industrias Monterrey, S.A. de C.V </ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Perfiles y Herrajes LM S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PYTCO S.A. de C.V </ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Regiomontana de Perfiles y Tubos S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ternium S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tuberia Nacional S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>(*)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tuberia Procarsa S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* No shipments or sales subject to this review.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>We intend to disclose the calculations performed within five days of the date of publication of this notice to parties in this proceeding, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), Commerce has determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), where Maquilacero and Prolamsa reported the entered value of their U.S. sales, we calculated importer-specific 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duty assessment rates based on the ratio of the total amount of dumping calculated for the examined sales to the total entered value of the sales for which entered value was reported. Where the respondents did not report entered value, we calculated the entered value in order to calculate the assessment rate. Where either the respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), or an importer-specific rate is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the companies which were not selected for individual review, we will assign an assessment rate based on the average 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the cash deposit rates calculated for Maquilacero and Prolamsa. The final results of this review shall be the basis for the assessment of antidumping duties on entries of merchandise covered by the final results of this review and for future deposits of estimated duties, where applicable.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         This rate was calculated as discussed in footnote 7, above.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We intend to issue liquidation instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this administrative review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for each specific company listed above will be that established in the final results of this review, except if the rate is less than 0.50 percent and, therefore, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), in which case the cash deposit rate will be zero; (2) for previously investigated companies not participating in this review, the cash deposit will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, or the original less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent segment for the manufacturer of the merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 3.24 percent, the all-others rate established 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24475"/>
                    in the LTFV investigation.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea, Mexico, and the Republic of Turkey: Antidumping Duty Orders,</E>
                         81 FR 62865, 62866 (September 13, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Importers</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification Regarding Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey I. Kessler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Margin Calculations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion of Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">General Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Ministerial Errors</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Maquilacero-Specific Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Use of Adverse Facts Available (AFA)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 3: Further-Manufactured Products in the Home Market</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Prolamsa-Specific Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 4: Theoretical Weights</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 5: U.S. Indirect Selling Expenses (ISE)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 6: Home Market Level of Trade (LOT)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 7: U.S. Sales of Subject Merchandise Further Manufactured by an Unaffiliated Mexican Company</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Perfiles-Specific Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 8: Whether Commerce Correctly Determined the Dumping Margin for Perfiles</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Recommendation</FP>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11016 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XH042</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Western Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a public meeting and hearing.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold meetings of its American Samoa Archipelago Fishery Ecosystem Plan (FEP) Advisory Panel (AP) and Mariana Archipelago FEP-Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI) AP to discuss and make recommendations on fishery management issues in the Western Pacific Region.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The American Samoa Archipelago FEP AP will meet on Wednesday, June 12, 2019, between 5:30 p.m. and 7:30 p.m. and the Mariana Archipelago FEP-CNMI AP will meet on Thursday, June 13, 2019, between 6 p.m. and 8 p.m. All times listed are local island times.</P>
                    <P>
                        For specific times and agendas, see 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The American Samoa Archipelago FEP AP will meet at the Native American Samoa Advisory Council Building, Pava'ia'i Village, Tutuila, American Samoa, 96799 and the CNMI Mariana Archipelago FEP AP will meet at the Micronesian Environmental Services Conference Room, Garapan, Saipan, CNMI, 96950.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kitty M. Simonds, Executive Director, Western Pacific Fishery Management Council; telephone: (808) 522-8220.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Public comment periods will be provided in the agenda. The order in which agenda items are addressed may change. The meetings will run as late as necessary to complete scheduled business.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule and Agenda for the American Samoa AP Meeting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Wednesday, June 12, 2019, 5:30 p.m.-7:30 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Welcome and Introductions</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Review of the last AP meeting and recommendations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Council Issues</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. U.S. Territory Longline Bigeye Catch/Allocation Limits</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Annual SAFE Report Updates</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. American Samoa Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Community Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Education Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Island Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Legislative Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. Report on American Samoa FEP Advisory Panel Plan</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Island Fishery Issues and Activities</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Discussion and Recommendations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. Other Business</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule and Agenda for the Mariana Archipelago FEP-CNMI AP Meeting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, June 13, 2019, 6 p.m.-8 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Welcome and Introductions</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Review of the last AP meeting and recommendations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Council Issues</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. U.S. Territory Longline Bigeye Catch/Allocation Limits</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Annual SAFE Report Updates</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. CNMI Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Community Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Education Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Island Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Legislative Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. Report on Mariana Archipelago FEP Advisory Panel Plan</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Island Fishery Issues and Activities</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Discussion and Recommendations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. Other Business</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Kitty M. Simonds, (808) 522-8220 (voice) or (808) 522-8226 (fax), at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tracey L. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11043 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24476"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XH037</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Scientific &amp; Statistical Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This meeting will be held on Friday, June 7, 2019 beginning at 9:30 a.m.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn, Boston Logan, 100 Boardman Street, Boston, MA 02128; phone: (617) 567-6789.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Mill 2, Newburyport, MA 01950.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <P>The Scientific and Statistical Committee will hear and discuss presentations on preliminary research results on recruitment dynamics and modelling and on state space models and also discuss its tasks, organizational issues and meeting schedule for 2019. Other business will be discussed as needed.</P>
                <P>Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded, consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tracey L. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11039 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XG851</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Portsmouth Naval Shipyard Dry Dock 1 Modification and Expansion</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of an incidental harassment authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) as amended, notification is hereby given that we have issued an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to the U.S. Navy (Navy) to take small numbers of marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to Portsmouth Naval Shipyard Dry Dock 1 modification and expansion in Kittery, Maine.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This authorization is effective from October 1, 2019, through September 30, 2020.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shane Guan, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as the issued IHA, may be obtained online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/permit/incidental-take-authorizations-under-marine-mammal-protection-act.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed above.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) direct the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed incidental take authorization may be provided to the public for review.
                </P>
                <P>Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to in shorthand as “mitigation”); and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                <P>On November 1, 2018, NMFS received a request from the Navy for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to modification and expansion of dry dock 1 at Portsmouth Naval Shipyard in Kittery, Maine. The application was deemed adequate and complete on March 11, 2019. The Navy's request is for take of harbor porpoises, harbor seals, gray seals, harp seals, and hooded seals by Level B harassment and Level A harassment. Neither the Navy nor NMFS expects serious injury or mortality to result from this activity and, therefore, an IHA is appropriate.</P>
                <P>
                    NMFS previously issued two IHAs to the Navy for waterfront improvement work in 2017 (81 FR 85525; November 28, 2016) and 2018 (83 FR 3318; January 24, 2018). The Navy complied with all the requirements (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     mitigation, monitoring, and reporting) of the previous IHAs and information regarding their monitoring results may be found in the Estimated Take section.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NMFS has issued an IHA to the Navy for the take by Level A and Level B harassment of harbor porpoise (
                    <E T="03">Phocoena phocoena</E>
                    ), harbor seal (
                    <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                    ), gray seal (
                    <E T="03">Halichoerus grypus</E>
                    ), harp seal (
                    <E T="03">
                        Pagophilus 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24477"/>
                        groenlandicus
                    </E>
                    ), and hooded seal (
                    <E T="03">Cystophora cristata</E>
                    ) incidental to its dry dock modification and expansion project.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Proposed Activity</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                <P>The purpose of the Navy's construction project is to modernize and maximize dry dock capabilities for performing current and future missions efficiently and with maximum flexibility. The need for the proposed action is to modify and expand Dry Dock 1 at the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard by constructing two new dry docking positions capable of servicing Virginia class submarines within the super flood basin of the dry dock.</P>
                <P>The in-water portion of the dock modification and expansion work includes:</P>
                <P> Construction of the temporary structure for south closure wall;</P>
                <P> Construction of the super flood basin of the dry dock; and</P>
                <P> Extension of portal crane rail and utilities.</P>
                <P>Construction activities that could affect marine mammals are limited to in-water pile driving and removal activities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dates and Duration</HD>
                <P>Construction activities are expected to begin in July 2019. In-water construction activities are expected to begin in October 2019, with an estimated total of 212 days for pile driving and pile removal. All in-water construction work will be limited to daylight hours.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Specific Geographic Region</HD>
                <P>The Shipyard is located in the Piscataqua River in Kittery, Maine. The Piscataqua River originates at the boundary of Dover, New Hampshire, and Elliot, Maine. The river flows in a southeasterly direction for 13 miles before entering Portsmouth Harbor and emptying into the Atlantic Ocean. The lower Piscataqua River is part of the Great Bay Estuary system and varies in width and depth. Many large and small islands break up the straight-line flow of the river as it continues toward the Atlantic Ocean. Seavey Island, the location of the proposed action, is located in the lower Piscataqua River approximately 547 yards from its southwest bank, 219 yards from its north bank, and approximately 2.5 miles upstream from the mouth of the river.</P>
                <P>A map of the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard dock expansion action area is provided in Figure 1 below, and is also available in Figures 2 to 4 in the IHA application.</P>
                <P>Water depths in the proposed project area range from 21 feet (ft) to 39 ft at Berths 11, 12, and 13. Water depths in the lower Piscataqua River near the proposed project area range from 15 ft in the shallowest areas to 69 ft in the deepest areas. The river is approximately 3,300 ft wide near the proposed project area, measured from the Kittery shoreline north of Wattlebury Island to the Portsmouth shoreline west of Peirce Island. The furthest direct line of sight from the proposed project area would be 0.8 mile to the southeast and 0.26 mile to the northwest.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="562">
                    <PRTPAGE P="24478"/>
                    <GID>EN28MY19.000</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Description of Specific Activity</HD>
                <P>Under the planned action, the expansion and modification would occur as multiple construction projects. Prior to the start of construction, the entrance to Dry Dock 1 would be dredged to previously permitted maintenance dredge limits. This dredging effort is required to support the projects and additional project-related dredging would occur intermittently throughout the proposed action. Since dredging and disposal activities would be slow-moving and generate low noise levels, NMFS and the Navy do not consider its effects as likely to rise the level of take of marine mammals. Therefore, these activities are not further discussed in this document.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed 2019 through 2020 activities include pile driving (vibratory and impact) and rock drilling associated with construction of the super flood basin and Berth 2 improvements of the dry dock. The action will take place in and adjacent to Dry Dock 1 in the Controlled Industrial Area (CIA) that occupies the western extent of the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24479"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    To begin the project, a super flood basin will be created in front of the entrance of Dry Dock 1 by constructing closure walls that span from Berth 1 to Berth 11B. The super flood basin would operate like a navigation lock type structure: Artificially raising the elevation of the water within the basin and dry dock above the tidally controlled river in order to lift the submarines to an elevation where they can be safely transferred into the dry dock without the use of buoyancy assist tanks. The super flood basin would be located between Berths 1 and 11 and extend approximately 580 ft from the existing outer seat of the dry dock (approximately 175 ft beyond the waterside end of Berth 1). The super flood basin would consist of three primary components: South closure wall, entrance structure, and west closure wall. The closure wall would be approximately 320 ft long and have an opening for a caisson gate. The Dry Dock 3 caisson would be repurposed for use in the new closure wall. A weir structure or discharge pipe would be built into the closure wall or incorporated into the modified caisson to control over-topping and ensure the super flood elevation, which is the minimum water elevation required to provide sufficient depths and clearance to safely support transit of Los Angeles class submarines into Dry Dock 1, through the entire super flood evolution. The gross area of the super flood basin would be approximately 152,000 square feet (ft
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    ) (3.5 acres).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Concrete components for the closure walls, caisson seat, and sill would be cast in place or be pre-cast off-site then floated or hauled into place, as appropriate. The closure walls would be equipped with winches and mooring hardware on either side of the basin entrance to assist with vessel docking, and to support berthing of the caisson gate while not in place. Electrical utilities would be provided to support lighting along the closure wall and meet the electrical requirements of the caisson gate. Mooring hardware and electrical utilities would also support the berthing of ships force barges at the south closure wall. Ships force barges are where a group of sailors live and work during the overhaul. The south closure wall would consist of two, 70-ft diameter sheet pile cells that would be connected together and to the point of Berths 1 and 2 by interconnecting arcs. The sheeting for the two cells would be driven to bedrock to make up the shell of the structure south of the caisson and seat. By installing the sheets to bedrock, the cells would provide a barrier to exfiltration. Each of the cells would be filled with mass concrete and topped with a reinforced concrete cap that would act as the deck to the structure. To provide corrosion protection from the marine environment, a concrete facing would extend down the exterior of the sheets to below mudline. A sacrificial (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     does not provide structural support) sheet pile wall would be installed outboard of the structural sheets and would remain for the life of the structure.
                </P>
                <P>Before the closure walls are constructed, modifications to Berth 1 and Berth 11 are required. Improvements along Berth 1 includes driving steel sheet piles to create a bulkhead outboard of the existing quay wall, and placing concrete within the void between the sheet piles and the existing quay wall. This sheet pile bulkhead would provide a more impervious façade than the existing granite block quay wall to reduce water exfiltration from within the basin. The sheet pile bulkhead would be equipped with a concrete curb that would increase the height of Berth 1 by approximately 1 ft to an elevation of 15.6 ft above mean low-low-water (MLLW). To accommodate the super flood elevation improvements along Berth 11, bedrock grouting below the bulkhead from the west closure wall to the northwest corner of the basin would be installed to mitigate exfiltration along the berth. The stormwater drainage system at Berth 1 would be rerouted to a new outfall at the east end of Berth 2. The existing storm drain outfalls at Berth 11 within the limits of the basin have valves to prevent backflow of seawater into the storm drain collection system during super flood operations. The storm drain outlet piping would be modified to ensure landside drainage during super flood is accommodated.</P>
                <P>
                    Construction of the basin closure wall would bisect the existing Berth 11B resulting in loss of a fitting-out pier. As such, Berth 2 would replace Berth 11B for submarine outfitting. To accommodate this function, the existing fender system on Berth 2 would be relocated and expanded to accommodate fitting-out activities on the berth. Approximately 4,000 ft
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     (surface area) of additional fender panel would be required, including 3,550 ft
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     (surface area) below MLLW. The new fender panels would be approximately 6 inches (0.5 ft) thick and their installation below MLLW would result in a total fill volume of approximately 65 cubic yard. No in-water pile driving would be required at Berth 2 to support pier outfitting.
                </P>
                <P>Construction phasing would be required to minimize impacts on critical dry dock operations. Five notional construction phases were identified of which the first three would occur during the 2019 to 2020 period. This phasing schedule could change due to fleet mission requirements and boat schedules. The first phase of construction would occur when a boat is present and would be limited to site reconnaissance, field measurements, contractor submittals and general mobilization activities. Phase 2 would include construction of the southern closure wall and caisson seat foundation; Berth 1 and Berth 11 (A and B) improvements; Dry Dock 1 utility improvements; and dredging. Upland construction activities would include work on the Dry Dock 1 gallery improvements and commencement of the portal crane rail extension. Phase 3 would include construction of the west closure wall, caisson seat float-in, and additional Dry Dock 1 utility gallery improvements. Only the caisson seat float-in portion of Phase 3 would occur during year 1. Six temporary dolphins, comprised of eight, 14-inch H-Piles, would be installed to assist with float-in and placement of the caisson seat.</P>
                <P>Overall, the construction work is estimated to take approximately 12 months to complete, of which pile driving/extraction/drilling would take 212 days.</P>
                <P>A summary of in-water pile driving activity is provided in Table 1.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r25,12,r25,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of In-Water Pile Driving Activities</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile purpose</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pile size 
                            <LI>(inch)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile drive method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total piles</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Piles/day</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Work days</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Temporary structure</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel H</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory 
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>32</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            2
                            <LI>2</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sheet pile wall along Berth 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>320</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12
                            <LI>12</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="24480"/>
                        <ENT I="01">South Closure wall construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>310</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12
                            <LI>12</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>31</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel H pile removal</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                        <ENT>Vibratory</ENT>
                        <ENT>32</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12
                            <LI>12</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel H</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1
                            <LI>1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory 
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>280</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12
                            <LI>12</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel pipe casing</ENT>
                        <ENT>96</ENT>
                        <ENT>Down hole</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>32</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Caisson seat float-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel pipe</ENT>
                        <ENT>36</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            48
                            <LI>48</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1
                            <LI>1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>48</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Elevated deck support</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel pipe</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Vibratory
                            <LI>Impact</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            8
                            <LI>8</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,558</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>212</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Prescribed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Monitoring and Reporting</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Responses</HD>
                <P>
                    A notice of NMFS' proposal to issue an IHA was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 4, 2019 (84 FR 13252). During the 30-day public comment period, NMFS received a comment letter from the Marine Mammal Commission (Commission). Specific comments and responses are provided below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 1:</E>
                     Commission recommends that NMFS (1) ensure the Navy is aware of the requirements of the final incidental harassment authorization, particularly the reporting requirements for the marine mammal and hydroacoustic monitoring reports, and (2) require that the Navy provide the information that is missing but was required in both the 2017 and 2018 monitoring reports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     NMFS has contacted the Navy and emphasized the importance of following IHA requirements concerning marine mammal monitoring and hydroacoustic monitoring reports. NMFS has requested and received marine mammal monitoring information and data sheet required under the 2017 and 2018 IHAs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 2:</E>
                     The Commission recommends that NMFS authorize at least five harbor seal takes per day partitioned in the same proportions for Level A and B harassment as included in Table 8 of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     NMFS accepted the Commission's recommendation and recalculated harbor seal harassment. The revised take analysis is provided later in this document and is included in the IHA NMFS issued.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 3:</E>
                     The Commission recommends that NMFS require the Navy to implement full-time monitoring of the various Level A and B harassment zones during all proposed activities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     In the IHA issued to the Navy, NMFS requires the Navy to implement full-time monitoring of all Level A harassment zones during all in-water pile driving activities. However, for Level B harassment, NMFS has authorized the employment of a minimum of two PSOs employed on two-thirds of driving days due to the extent of the pile driving activities. NMFS believes that the number of marine mammals potentially affected by Level B harassment can be extrapolated from the two-thirds of the monitoring days.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 4:</E>
                     The Commission recommends that NMFS refrain from implementing its proposed renewal process and instead use abbreviated 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices and reference existing documents to streamline the IHA process. If NMFS adopts the proposed renewal process, the Commission recommends that NMFS provide the Commission and the public a legal analysis supporting its conclusion that the process is consistent with section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The notice of the proposed IHA expressly notifies the public that under certain, limited conditions an applicant could seek a renewal IHA for an additional year. The notice describes the conditions under which such a renewal request could be considered and expressly seeks public comment in the event such a renewal is sought. Additional reference to this solicitation of public comment has recently been added at the beginning of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices that consider renewals, requesting input specifically on the possible renewal itself. NMFS appreciates the streamlining achieved by the use of abbreviated 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices and intends to continue using them for proposed IHAs that include minor changes from previously issued IHAs, but which do not satisfy the renewal requirements. However, we believe our method for issuing renewals meets statutory requirements and maximizes efficiency. However, importantly, such renewals will be limited to circumstances where: The activities are identical or nearly identical to those analyzed in the proposed IHA; monitoring does not indicate impacts that were not previously analyzed and authorized; and, the mitigation and monitoring requirements remain the same, all of which allow the public to comment on the appropriateness and effects of a renewal at the same time the public provides comments on the initial IHA. NMFS has, however, modified the language for future proposed IHAs to clarify that all IHAs, including renewal IHAs, are valid for no more than one year and that the agency will consider only one renewal for a project at this time. In addition, notice of issuance or denial of a renewal IHA will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , as they are for all IHAs. The option for issuing renewal IHAs has been in NMFS' incidental take regulations since 1996.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24481"/>
                    and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history, of the potentially affected species. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS's Stock Assessment Reports (SARs; 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                    ) and more general information about these species (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     physical and behavioral descriptions) may be found on NMFS's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/find-species</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>Table 2 lists all species with expected potential for occurrence in the Piscataqua River in Kittery, Maine, and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and ESA and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2018). PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS's SARs). While no mortality is anticipated or authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species and other threats.</P>
                <P>
                    Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS's stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS's U.S. Atlantic Marine Mammal SARs. All values presented in Table 2 are the most recent available at the time of publication and are available in the 2017 SARs (Hayes 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2018) and draft 2018 SARs (available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/draft-marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r25,15,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2. Marine Mammals With Potential Presence Within the Proposed Project Area </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            ESA/MMPA
                            <LI>status; strategic</LI>
                            <LI>
                                (Y/N) 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Stock abundance (CV, N
                            <E T="52">min</E>
                            , most recent abundance survey) 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">PBR</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual M/SI 
                            <SU>3</SU>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Order Cetartiodactyla—Cetacea—Superfamily Odontoceti (toothed whales)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Family Phocoenidae (porpoises)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Phocoena phocoena</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Gulf of Maine/Bay of Fundy</ENT>
                        <ENT>-; N</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            79,833
                            <LI>(0.32, 61,415)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>706</ENT>
                        <ENT>255</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Order Carnivora—Superfamily Pinnipedia</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Family Phocidae (earless seals)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Western North Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>-; N</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            75,834
                            <LI>(0.15, 66,884)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,006</ENT>
                        <ENT>345</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Gray seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Halichoerus grypus</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Western North Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>-; N</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            27,131
                            <LI>(0.19, 23,158)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,688</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,389</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harp seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Pagophilus groenlandicus</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Western North Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>-; N</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             7,411,000;
                            <LI>(NA, NA)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>225,687</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hooded seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cystophora cristata</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Western North Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>-; N</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             593,500
                            <LI>(NA, NA)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,680</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Endangered Species Act (ESA) status: Endangered (E), Threatened (T)/MMPA status: Depleted (D). A dash (-) indicates that the species is not listed under the ESA or designated as depleted under the MMPA. Under the MMPA, a strategic stock is one for which the level of direct human-caused mortality exceeds PBR or which is determined to be declining and likely to be listed under the ESA within the foreseeable future. Any species or stock listed under the ESA is automatically designated under the MMPA as depleted and as a strategic stock.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         NMFS marine mammal stock assessment reports online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports-region#reports.</E>
                         CV is coefficient of variation; N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         is the minimum estimate of stock abundance.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         These values, found in NMFS's SARs, represent annual levels of human-caused mortality plus serious injury from all sources combined (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         commercial fisheries, ship strike). Annual M/SI often cannot be determined precisely and is in some cases presented as a minimum value or range. A CV associated with estimated mortality due to commercial fisheries is presented in some cases.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Based on the latest estimates made in 2012 in Bay of Fundy (Hayes 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         2018).
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Based on the latest estimates made in 2005 (Hammill and Stenson 2006).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    All species that could potentially occur in the proposed action area are included in Table 2. More detailed descriptions of marine mammals in the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard project area is provided in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice for the proposed IHA (84 FR 13252; April 4, 2019). Therefore, it is not repeated here.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Richardson 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     1995; Wartzok and Ketten, 1999; Au and Hastings, 2008). To reflect this, Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) recommended that marine mammals be divided into functional hearing groups based on directly measured or estimated hearing ranges on the basis of available behavioral response data, audiograms derived using auditory evoked potential techniques, anatomical modeling, and other data. Note that no direct measurements of hearing ability have been successfully completed for mysticetes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     low-frequency cetaceans). Subsequently, NMFS (2018) described generalized hearing ranges for these marine mammal hearing groups. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24482"/>
                    Generalized hearing ranges were chosen based on the approximately 65 decibel (dB) threshold from the normalized composite audiograms, with the exception for lower limits for low-frequency cetaceans where the lower bound was deemed to be biologically implausible and the lower bound from Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) retained. Marine mammal hearing groups and their associated hearing ranges are provided in Table 3.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,xs80">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Marine Mammal Hearing Groups</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[NMFS, 2018] </TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Generalized hearing range *</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Low-frequency (LF) cetaceans (baleen whales)</ENT>
                        <ENT>7 Hz to 35 kHz.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mid-frequency (MF) cetaceans (dolphins, toothed whales, beaked whales, bottlenose whales)</ENT>
                        <ENT>150 Hz to 160 kHz.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            High-frequency (HF) cetaceans (true porpoises,
                            <E T="03"> Kogia,</E>
                             river dolphins, cephalorhynchid, 
                            <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus cruciger</E>
                             &amp; 
                            <E T="03">L. australis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>275 Hz to 160 kHz.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phocid pinnipeds (PW) (underwater) (true seals)</ENT>
                        <ENT>50 Hz to 86 kHz.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Otariid pinnipeds (OW) (underwater) (sea lions and fur seals)</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 Hz to 39 kHz.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * Represents the generalized hearing range for the entire group as a composite (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         all species within the group), where individual species' hearing ranges are typically not as broad. Generalized hearing range chosen based on ~65 dB threshold from normalized composite audiogram, with the exception for lower limits for LF cetaceans (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         2007) and PW pinniped (approximation).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) on the basis of data indicating that phocid species have consistently demonstrated an extended frequency range of hearing compared to otariids, especially in the higher frequency range (Hemilä 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2006; Kastelein 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2009; Reichmuth and Holt, 2013).
                </P>
                <P>For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2018) for a review of available information. Five marine mammal species (one cetacean and four pinniped (all phocid) species) have the reasonable potential to co-occur with the proposed survey activities. Please refer to Table 2. Of the cetacean species that may be present, the harbor porpoise is classified as a high-frequency cetacean.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                <P>
                    This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Take</E>
                     section later in this document includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The 
                    <E T="03">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</E>
                     section considers the content of this section, the 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Take</E>
                     section, and the 
                    <E T="03">Proposed Mitigation</E>
                     section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Potential impacts to marine mammals from the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion project are from noise generated during in-water pile driving activities. Detailed analysis of the impacts is provided in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice for the proposed IHA (84 FR 13252; April 4, 2019). Therefore, it is not repeated here.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take</HD>
                <P>This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of “small numbers” and the negligible impact determination.</P>
                <P>Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                <P>Authorized takes would primarily be by Level B harassment, as noise generated from in-water pile driving (vibratory and impact) has the potential to result in disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals. There is also some potential for auditory injury (Level A harassment) to result for some harbor porpoises and harbor and gray seals. The proposed mitigation and monitoring measures are expected to minimize the severity of such taking to the extent practicable.</P>
                <P>As described previously, no mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.</P>
                <P>
                    Generally speaking, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) and the number of days of activities. We note that while these basic factors can contribute to a basic calculation to provide an initial prediction of takes, additional information that can qualitatively inform take estimates is also sometimes available (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     previous monitoring results or average group size). Below, we describe the factors considered here in more detail and present the proposed take estimate. 
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Thresholds</HD>
                <P>Using the best available science, NMFS has developed acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).</P>
                <P>
                    Level B Harassment for non-explosive sources—Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     frequency, predictability, duty cycle), the environment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     bathymetry), and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography, behavioral context) and can be difficult to predict (Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2007, Ellison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2012). Based on what the available science indicates and the practical need to use a threshold based on a factor that is both predictable and measurable for most activities, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24483"/>
                    NMFS uses a generalized acoustic threshold based on received level to estimate the onset of behavioral harassment. NMFS predicts that marine mammals are likely to be behaviorally harassed in a manner we consider Level B harassment when exposed to underwater anthropogenic noise above received levels of 120 dB re 1 μPa (rms) for continuous (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     vibratory pile-driving, drilling) and above 160 dB re 1 μPa (rms) for impulsive and/or intermittent (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     impact pile driving) sources.
                </P>
                <P>The Navy's Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion project includes the use of continuous (vibratory pile driving and down-the-hole driving by rock drilling) and impulsive (impact pile driving) sources, and therefore the 120 and 160 dB re 1 μPa (rms) are applicable.</P>
                <P>Level A harassment for non-explosive sources—NMFS' Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Version 2.0) (Technical Guidance, 2018) identifies dual criteria to assess auditory injury (Level A harassment) to five different marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). The Navy's Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion includes the use of impulsive (impact pile driving) and non-impulsive (vibratory pile driving and down-the-hole driving) sources.</P>
                <P>
                    These thresholds are provided in the table below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS' 2018 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance.</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Thresholds Identifying the Onset of Permanent Threshold Shift</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            PTS Onset acoustic thresholds 
                            <SU>*</SU>
                            <LI>(received level)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Impulsive</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Non-impulsive</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Low-Frequency (LF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 1:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             219 dB; 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">LF,24h:</E>
                             183 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 2:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">LF,24h:</E>
                             199 dB.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mid-Frequency (MF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 3:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             230 dB; 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">MF,24h</E>
                            : 185 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 4:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">MF,24h</E>
                            : 198 dB.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">High-Frequency (HF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 5:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             202 dB; 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                            : 155 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 6:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                            : 173 dB.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phocid Pinnipeds (PW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 7:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             218 dB; 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                            : 185 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 8:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                            : 201 dB.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Otariid Pinnipeds (OW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 9:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             232 dB; 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                            : 203 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Cell 10:</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                            : 219 dB.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Dual metric acoustic thresholds for impulsive sounds: Use whichever results in the largest isopleth for calculating PTS onset. If a non-impulsive sound has the potential of exceeding the peak sound pressure level thresholds associated with impulsive sounds, these thresholds should also be considered.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Note:</E>
                         Peak sound pressure (
                        <E T="03">L</E>
                          
                        <E T="0732">pk</E>
                        ) has a reference value of 1 µPa, and cumulative sound exposure level (
                        <E T="03">L</E>
                        <E T="0732">E</E>
                        ) has a reference value of 1µPa 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        s. In this Table, thresholds are abbreviated to reflect American National Standards Institute standards (ANSI 2013). However, peak sound pressure is defined by ANSI as incorporating frequency weighting, which is not the intent for this Technical Guidance. Hence, the subscript “flat” is being included to indicate peak sound pressure should be flat weighted or unweighted within the generalized hearing range. The subscript associated with cumulative sound exposure level thresholds indicates the designated marine mammal auditory weighting function (LF, MF, and HF cetaceans, and PW and OW pinnipeds) and that the recommended accumulation period is 24 hours. The cumulative sound exposure level thresholds could be exceeded in a multitude of ways (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         varying exposure levels and durations, duty cycle). When possible, it is valuable for action proponents to indicate the conditions under which these acoustic thresholds will be exceeded.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ensonified Area</HD>
                <P>Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that will feed into identifying the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds, which include source levels and transmission loss coefficient.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Source Levels</HD>
                <P>The project includes impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving and pile removal, and drilling for down-the-hole piling activities. Source levels of pile driving activities are based on reviews of measurements of the same or similar types and dimensions of piles available in the literature. Based on this review, the following source levels are assumed for the underwater noise produced by construction activities:</P>
                <P>
                    • Vibratory driving of 36-inch steel piles would be assumed to generate a root-mean-squared (rms) sound pressure level (SPL) and sound exposure level (SEL) of 175 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec at 10 m, based on the averaged source level of the same type of pile reported by California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) in a pile driving source level compendium document (Caltrans, 2015);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Impact driving of 36-inch steel piles would be assumed to generate an instantaneous peak SPL (SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                    ) of 209 dB re 1 μPa, an rms SPL of 198 dB re 1 μPa, and single-strike SEL (SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                    ) of 183 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec at the 10 m distance, based on the weighted average of similar pile driving at the Bangor Naval Base, Naval Base Point Loma, CA (NAVFAC 2012), Washington State Department of Transportation (WSDOT) Anacortes Ferry Terminal (Laughlin 2012), and WSDOT Mukilteo Ferry Terminal (Laughlin 2007) that was analyzed in the Navy New London Submarine Base dock construction IHA application (NAVFAC 2016);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Vibratory removal of 14-inch steel H-piles is conservatively assumed to have rms SPL and SEL values of 158 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec at 10 m distance based on a relatively large set of measurements from the vibratory installation of 14-inch H-piles reported by Caltrans (2015);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Impact driving of 14-inch steel H-piles is assumed to generate a SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                     of 194 dB re 1μPa, rms SPL of 177 dB re 1 μPa, and SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                     of 162 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec at 10 m distance based on measurements on the same piles conducted during the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard construction in 2018 (NAVFAC Mid-Atlantic, 2018);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Vibratory driving of 18- and 24-inch sheet pile is assumed to have an rms SPL and SEL of 163 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec based on measurements conducted at 10 m by the NAVFAC Mid-Atlantic (2018);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Impact driving of 18- and 24-inch sheet pile is assumed to have a SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                     of 205 dB re 1 μPa, an rms SPL of 190 dB re 1 μPa, and a SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                     of 180 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec based on data reported in the Caltrans compendium (Caltrans 2015) for the same piles;
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Down-the-hole drilling of 96-inch steel pile casing is assumed to have an rms SPL and SEL of 166.2 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec based on measurements conducted at the Kodiak Ferry Terminal, AK (Austin 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2016);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Vibratory pile driving of 16-inch steel pile is assumed to have an rms SPL 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24484"/>
                    and SEL of 162 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec based on measurements for the same piles at Naval Base Kitsap at Bangor, WA (Illingworth and Rodkin 2013); and
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Impact driving of 16-inch steel pile is assumed to have a SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                     of 182 dB re 1 μPa, an rms SPL of 163 dB re 1 μPa, and a SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                     of 158 dB re 1 μPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -sec based on levels from the same pile reported in the Caltrans compendium (Caltrans 2015).
                </P>
                <P>A summary of source levels from different pile driving activities is provided in Table 5.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,10,10,10,xs40,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Summary of In-Water Pile Driving Source Levels</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[At 10 m from source]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Pile type/size
                            <LI>(inch)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SEL, dB re 1 µPa
                            <SU>2</SU>
                            -s
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SPL
                            <E T="0732">rms</E>
                            , dB re 1 µPa
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SPL
                            <E T="0732">pk</E>
                            , dB re 1 µPa
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Measured distance</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Origin</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 36-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>175</ENT>
                        <ENT>175</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caltrans.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 36-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>183</ENT>
                        <ENT>198</ENT>
                        <ENT>209</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Navy New London.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel H, 14-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>158</ENT>
                        <ENT>158</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caltrans.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel H, 14-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>162</ENT>
                        <ENT>177</ENT>
                        <ENT>194</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Navy Portsmouth SSV.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet, 24-inch &amp; 18-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>163</ENT>
                        <ENT>163</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>NAVFAC Atlantic Fleet.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel sheet, 24-inch &amp; 18-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>180</ENT>
                        <ENT>190</ENT>
                        <ENT>205</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caltrans.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Down-the-hole piling</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel pile casing 96-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>166.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>166.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kodiak, AK.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 16-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>162</ENT>
                        <ENT>162</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Naval Base Kitsap Bangor, WA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact pile driving</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 16-inch</ENT>
                        <ENT>158</ENT>
                        <ENT>163</ENT>
                        <ENT>182</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 m</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caltrans.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>These source levels are used to compute the Level A harassment zones and to estimate the Level B harassment zones. For Level A harassment zones, since the peak source levels for are below the injury thresholds, cumulative SEL were used to do the calculations using the NMFS acoustic guidance (NMFS 2018).</P>
                <P>
                    The Level B harassment distances for pile driving are calculated using practical spreading with source levels provided in Table 5. Ensonified areas (
                    <E T="03">A</E>
                    ) are calculated using the following equation.
                </P>
                <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="18">
                    <GID>EN28MY19.001</GID>
                </GPH>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    where 
                    <E T="03">R</E>
                     is the harassment distance.
                </FP>
                <P>For some pile driving activities, up to two vibratory hammers could be operating concurrently. Given that specific arrangements of concurrent pile driving are unknown until pile driving starts, there is no way to calculate the exact distances and combined source levels. For Level B harassment, the impact zone distance from concurrent pile driving from more than one hammer would only be affected if the driving methods are vibratory and/or drilling running concurrently. In most cases, the vibratory distance would win out due to the higher source level, if they are closely located. If they are some distance apart (&lt;30m), separate zones from each hammer can be used.</P>
                <P>
                    For Level A harassment, energy summation is impossible to predict. However, the current method that treats each source independently, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     with its own Level A harassment zone, is more conservative than one larger zone assuming combined sources.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the relatively small, closed area of the construction site means that ensonified zones (particularly for Level B harassment) will be capped to a maximum distance of 10,000 m (6.2 miles) due to landmass interception in the surrounding area. For this reason, the maximum area that could be ensonified by noise from pile driving activities is mapped at 0.8544 km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     (0.33 square miles) Therefore, all calculated Level B harassment areas that are larger than 0.8544 km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     based on Equation (1) are corrected to this maximum value.
                </P>
                <P>When the original NMFS Technical Guidance (2016) was published, in recognition of the fact that ensonified area/volume could be more technically challenging to predict because of the duration component in the new thresholds, NMFS developed a User Spreadsheet that includes tools to help predict a simple isopleth that can be used in conjunction with marine mammal density or occurrence to help predict takes. We note that because of some of the assumptions included in the methods used for these tools, we anticipate that isopleths produced are typically going to be overestimates of some degree, which may result in some degree of overestimate of Level A harassment take. However, these tools offer the best way to predict appropriate isopleths when more sophisticated 3D modeling methods are not available, and NMFS continues to develop ways to quantitatively refine these tools, and will qualitatively address the output where appropriate. For stationary sources such as in-water vibratory and impact pile driving, NMFS User Spreadsheet predicts the closest distance at which, if a marine mammal remained at that distance the whole duration of the activity, it would not incur PTS. Inputs used in the User Spreadsheet (pile driving duration or number of strikes for each pile, and the number of piles installed or removed per day), and the resulting isopleths are reported below in Table 6.</P>
                <P>
                    For all calculations, the results based on SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                     are larger than SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                    , therefore, distances calculated using SEL
                    <E T="52">ss</E>
                     are used to calculate the areas. The Level A harassment areas are calculated using the same Equation (1), with corrections to reflect the largest possible area of 0.8544 km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     if the calculation value was larger.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The modeled distances to Level A and Level B harassment zones for various marine mammals are provided in Table 6. As discussed above, the only marine mammals that could occur in the vicinity of the project area are harbor porpoise (high-frequency cetacean) and four species of true seals (phocid).
                    <PRTPAGE P="24485"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,9,9,9,9,9,9">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Distances and Areas of Harassment Zones</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type, size &amp; driving method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Duration (sec) or # strikes per pile</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Level A harassment</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">HF cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="3">
                            Dist.
                            <LI>(m)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="3">
                            Area
                            <LI>
                                (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Phocid</CHED>
                        <CHED H="3">
                            Dist. 
                            <LI>(m)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="3">
                            Area 
                            <LI>
                                (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Level B harassment</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Dist. 
                            <LI>(m)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Area 
                            <LI>
                                (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 14-inch H-pile (2 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,414.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>*0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 14-inch H-pile (2 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>33.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.036</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.007</ENT>
                        <ENT>135.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.06</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 24-inch sheet pile (12 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,356.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 18-inch &amp; 24-inch sheet pile (12 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1763</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                        <ENT>792</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                        <ENT>1000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal 14-inch H-pile (8 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3414</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 14-inch H-pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3414</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 14-inch H-pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>21.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>135.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.06</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Down-hole drive 96-inch steel casing (0.5 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>28,800</ENT>
                        <ENT>56.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.010</ENT>
                        <ENT>23.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                        <ENT>10000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 36-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>10000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 36-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>533.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.439</ENT>
                        <ENT>239.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.123</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,414.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 16-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>6310</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 16-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.008</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * 0.854 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         is the maximum ensonified area in the project area due to landmass that blocks sound propagation.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Occurrence</HD>
                <P>In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.</P>
                <P>
                    Marine mammal density estimates for harbor porpoise and gray seal are derived based on marine mammal monitoring during 2017 and 2018 (CIANBRO 2018a, b). Density values were calculated from visual sightings of all marine mammals divided by the monitoring days (a total of 154 days) and the total ensonified area in the 2017 and 2018 activities (0.8401 km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    ). Details used for calculations are provided in Table 7 and described below.
                </P>
                <P>For harbor seal, due to its high abundance, based on discussion with the Marine Mammal Commission, we have determined it more appropriate to use the maximum observation of 5 seals from marine mammal monitoring during 2017 and 2018 (CIANBRO 2018a, b) as the basis for estimating potential takes per day. The take number is then calculated by multiplying the assumed daily take by total in-water construction days in the 2019 season (212 days). Further, takes by Level A and Level B harassment of harbor seals are prorated based on the Level A and Level B harassment ensonified areas.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Marine Mammal Sightings and Resulting Density in the Vicinity of Portsmouth Naval Shipyard Project Area</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2017 sighting
                            <LI>(96 days)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2018 sighting
                            <LI>(58 days)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>sighting</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Density
                            <LI>
                                (animal/day/km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>199</ENT>
                        <ENT>122</ENT>
                        <ENT>321</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 2.48</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Gray seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>26</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* For harbor seals, due to its much higher abundance and habituation to human activities, its maximum observation (5 seals/day) was used for take calculation (see below).</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    During construction monitoring in the project area 3 harbor porpoise were sighted between April and December of 2017 and 2 harbor porpoise were sighted in early August of 2018. From this data, density of harbor porpoise for the largest ensonified zone was determined to be 0.04/km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    . Sightings of gray seals were recorded during monthly surveys conducted in 2017 as well as during Berth 11 construction monitoring in 2017 and 2018. Density for harbor seals was based on the Berth 11 Waterfront Improvement Construction monitoring and was determined to be 0.20/km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    . Harbor seals are the most common pinniped in the Piscataqua River near the Shipyard. Sightings of this species were recorded during monthly surveys conducted in 2017 as well as during Berth 11 construction monitoring in 2017 and 2018. Density for harbor seals based on the Berth 11 Waterfront Improvement Construction was determined to be 2.48/km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    . However, due to its much higher occurrence in the project area, based on discussion with the Commission, its maximum daily sighting was used in take calculation (see below).
                </P>
                <P>Hooded and harp seals are much rarer than the harbor and gray seals in the Piscataqua River, and no density information for these two species is available. To date, marine mammal monitoring during prior IHAs has not recorded a sighting of a hooded or harp seal in the project area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Take Calculation and Estimation</HD>
                <P>Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate.</P>
                <P>
                    For marine mammals with calculated density information (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     harbor porpoise and gray seal), in general, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24486"/>
                    estimated Level A harassment take numbers are calculated using the following equation:
                </P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="22">
                    <GID>EN28MY19.002</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>For Level B harassment takes, the same equation (2) was used but then adjusted by subtracting the estimated Level A harassment takes. However, the estimated takes are calculated assuming the animals are uniformly distributed within the action area without forming groups. In reality, porpoises and seals are often active in small groups of two to three animals. Therefore, to account for potential group encounters during the construction activity, the estimated Level B harassment takes are adjusted upwards to form the basis of the proposed take authorization.</P>
                <P>For harbor seal, the total calculated take is calculated using the following equation:</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="22">
                    <GID>EN28MY19.003</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Further, the Level A and Level B harassment takes are prorated based on the sizes of Level A and Level B harassment zones.</P>
                <P>NMFS authorized one Level B harassment take per month each of a hooded seal and a harp seal for the Berth 11 Waterfront Improvements Construction project in 2018. The Navy is requesting authorization of one Level B harassment take each of hooded seal and harp seal per month of construction from January through May when these species may occur (Total of 5 Level B harassment takes for each species).</P>
                <P>A summary of estimated and proposed takes is presented in Table 8.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—Estimated and Proposed Takes of Marine Mammals</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>Level A take</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>Level B take</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>total take</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent
                            <LI>population</LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>284</ENT>
                        <ENT>776</ENT>
                        <ENT>1060</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Gray seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hooded seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harp seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Mitigation</HD>
                <P>In order to issue an IHA under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses. NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).</P>
                <P>In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:</P>
                <P>(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned), the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned), and;</P>
                <P>(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Time Restriction </HD>
                <P>Work would occur only during daylight hours, when visual monitoring of marine mammals can be conducted.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Establishing and Monitoring Level A and Level B Harassment Zones and Shutdown Zones </HD>
                <P>
                    Before the commencement of in-water construction activities, which include impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving and pile removal, and down-the-hole drilling, the Navy shall establish Level A harassment zones where received underwater SEL
                    <E T="52">cum</E>
                     could cause PTS (see Table 6 above).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Navy shall also establish Level B harassment zones where received underwater SPLs are higher than 160 dB
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     re 1 µPa for impulsive noise sources (impact pile driving) and 120 dB
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     re 1 µPa for continuous noise sources (vibratory pile driving, pile removal, and down-the-hole drilling) (see Table 6 above).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Navy shall establish shutdown zones based on Level A harassment distance up to a maximum of 110 m for harbor porpoise and 50 m for seals from 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24487"/>
                    the source but no less than 10 m for all in-water construction work. A summary of the shutdown zones is provided in Table 9.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 9—Shutdown Distances for Various Pile Driving Activities and Marine Mammal Hearing Groups</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type, size &amp; driving method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Shutdown distance (m)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">HF cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Phocid</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 14-inch H-pile (2 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 14-inch H-pile (2 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 24-inch sheet pile (12 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 18-inch &amp; 24-inch sheet pile (12 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>110</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal 14-inch H-pile (8 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 14-inch H-pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 14-inch H-pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Down-the-hole drilling 96-inch steel casing (0.5 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 36-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 36-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>110</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 16-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact drive 16-inch steel pipe pile (1 pile/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>If marine mammals are found within the exclusion zone, pile driving of the segment would be delayed until they move out of the area. If a marine mammal is seen above water and then dives below, the contractor would wait 15 minutes. If no marine mammals are seen by the observer in that time it can be assumed that the animal has moved beyond the exclusion zone.</P>
                <P>If pile driving of a segment ceases for 30 minutes or more and a marine mammal is sighted within the designated exclusion zone prior to commencement of pile driving, the observer(s) must notify the pile driving operator (or other authorized individual) immediately and continue to monitor the exclusion zone. Operations may not resume until the marine mammal has exited the exclusion zone or 15 minutes have elapsed since the last sighting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Shutdown Measures</HD>
                <P>The Navy shall implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected within the shutdown zones listed in Table 9.</P>
                <P>Further, the Navy shall implement shutdown measures if the number of authorized takes for any particular species reaches the limit under the IHA (if issued) and such marine mammals are sighted within the vicinity of the project area and are approaching the Level B harassment zone during in-water construction activities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Soft Start</HD>
                <P>The Navy shall implement soft start techniques for impact pile driving. The Navy shall conduct an initial set of three strikes from the impact hammer at 40 percent energy, followed by a 1-minute waiting period, then two subsequent three strike sets. Soft start shall be required for any impact driving, including at the beginning of the day, and at any time following a cessation of impact pile driving of thirty minutes or longer.</P>
                <P>Whenever there has been downtime of 30 minutes or more without impact driving, the contractor shall initiate impact driving with soft-start procedures described above.</P>
                <P>Based on our evaluation of the required measures, NMFS has determined that the prescribed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Monitoring and Reporting</HD>
                <P>In order to issue an IHA for an activity, Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.</P>
                <P>Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:</P>
                <P>
                    • Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     presence, abundance, distribution, density);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     source characterization, propagation, ambient noise); (2) affected species (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     life history, dive patterns); (3) co-occurrence of marine mammal species with the action; or (4) biological or behavioral context of exposure (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     age, calving or feeding areas);
                </P>
                <P>• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;</P>
                <P>• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;</P>
                <P>
                    • Effects on marine mammal habitat (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     marine mammal prey species, acoustic habitat, or other important physical components of marine mammal habitat); and
                </P>
                <P>• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Monitoring Measures</HD>
                <P>
                    The Navy shall employ trained protected species observers (PSOs) to conduct marine mammal monitoring for its Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion project. The purposes of marine mammal monitoring are to implement mitigation measures and learn more about impacts to marine mammals from the Navy's construction activities. The PSOs will observe and collect data on marine mammals in and around the project area for 30 minutes 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24488"/>
                    before, during, and for 30 minutes after all pile removal and pile installation work.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Protected Species Observer Qualifications</HD>
                <P>NMFS-approved PSOs shall meet the following requirements:</P>
                <P>
                    1. Independent observers (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not construction personnel) are required;
                </P>
                <P>2. At least one observer must have prior experience working as an observer;</P>
                <P>3. Other observers may substitute education (undergraduate degree in biological science or related field) or training for experience;</P>
                <P>4. Where a team of three or more observers are required, one observer should be designated as lead observer or monitoring coordinator. The lead observer must have prior experience working as an observer; and</P>
                <P>5. NMFS will require submission and approval of observer CVs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Marine Mammal Monitoring Protocols</HD>
                <P>The Navy shall conduct briefings between construction supervisors and crews and the PSO team prior to the start of all pile driving activities, and when new personnel join the work, in order to explain responsibilities, communication procedures, marine mammal monitoring protocol, and operational procedures. All personnel working in the project area shall watch the Navy's Marine Species Awareness Training video. An informal guide shall be included with the monitoring plan to aid in identifying species if they are observed in the vicinity of the project area.</P>
                <P>The Navy will monitor all Level A harassment zones and at least two-thirds of the Level B harassment zones before, during, and after pile driving activities. The Marine Mammal Monitoring Plan would include the following procedures:</P>
                <P>• PSOs will be primarily located on docks and piers at the best vantage point(s) in order to properly see the entire shutdown zone(s);</P>
                <P>• PSOs will be located at the best vantage point(s) to observe the zone associated with behavioral impact thresholds;</P>
                <P>• During all observation periods, PSOs will use high-magnification (25X), as well as standard handheld (7X) binoculars, and the naked eye to search continuously for marine mammals;</P>
                <P>• Monitoring distances will be measured with range finders. Distances to animals will be based on the best estimate of the PSO, relative to known distances to objects in the vicinity of the PSO;</P>
                <P>• Bearings to animals will be determined using a compass;</P>
                <P>
                    • Pile driving shall only take place when the shutdown zones are visible and can be adequately monitored. If conditions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     fog) prevent the visual detection of marine mammals, activities with the potential to result in Level A harassment shall not be initiated. If such conditions arise after the activity has begun, impact pile driving would be halted but vibratory pile driving or extraction would be allowed to continue;
                </P>
                <P>• At least two (2) PSOs shall be posted to monitor marine mammals during in-water pile driving and pile removal;</P>
                <P>• Pre-Activity Monitoring:</P>
                <P>The shutdown zones will be monitored for 30 minutes prior to in-water construction/demolition activities. If a marine mammal is present within a shutdown zone, the activity will be delayed until the animal(s) leaves the shutdown zone. Activity will resume only after the PSO has determined that, through sighting or by waiting 15 minutes, the animal(s) has moved outside the shutdown zone. If a marine mammal is observed approaching the shutdown zone, the PSO who sighted that animal will notify all other PSOs of its presence.</P>
                <P>• During Activity Monitoring:</P>
                <P>If a marine mammal is observed entering the Level A or Level B harassment zones outside the shutdown zone, the pile segment being worked on will be completed without cessation, unless the animal enters or approaches the shutdown zone, at which point all pile driving activities will be halted. If an animal is observed within the exclusion zone during pile driving, then pile driving will be stopped as soon as it is safe to do so. Pile driving can only resume once the animal has left the shutdown zone of its own volition or has not been re-sighted for a period of 15 minutes.</P>
                <P>• Post-Activity Monitoring:</P>
                <P>Monitoring of all Level A harassment zones and two-thirds of the Level B harassment zones will continue for 30 minutes following the completion of the activity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Information Collection</HD>
                <P>PSOs shall collect the following information during marine mammal monitoring:</P>
                <P>• Date and time that monitored activity begins and ends for each day conducted (monitoring period);</P>
                <P>• Construction activities occurring during each daily observation period, including how many and what type of piles driven;</P>
                <P>• Deviation from initial proposal in pile numbers, pile types, average driving times, etc.;</P>
                <P>
                    • Weather parameters in each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     wind speed, percent cloud cover, visibility);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Water conditions in each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     sea state, tide state);
                </P>
                <P>• For each marine mammal sighting:</P>
                <P>○ Species, numbers, and, if possible, sex and age class of marine mammals;</P>
                <P>○ Description of any observable marine mammal behavior patterns, including bearing and direction of travel and distance from pile driving activity;</P>
                <P>○ Location and distance from pile driving activities to marine mammals and distance from the marine mammals to the observation point; and</P>
                <P>○ Estimated amount of time that the animals remained in the Level B zone;</P>
                <P>
                    • Description of implementation of mitigation measures within each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     shutdown or delay);
                </P>
                <P>• Other human activity in the area within each monitoring period</P>
                <P>To verify the required monitoring distance, the shutdown zones and harassment zones will be determined by using a range finder or hand-held global positioning system device.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reporting Measures</HD>
                <P>The Navy is required to submit a draft monitoring report within 90 days after completion of the construction work or the expiration of the IHA (if issued), whichever comes earlier. If Navy intends to renew the IHA (if issued) in a subsequent year, a monitoring report should be submitted no less than 60 days before the expiration of the current IHA (if issued). This report would detail the monitoring protocol, summarize the data recorded during monitoring, and estimate the number of marine mammals that may have been harassed. NMFS would have an opportunity to provide comments on the report, and if NMFS has comments, The Navy would address the comments and submit a final report to NMFS within 30 days.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, NMFS would require the Navy to notify NMFS' Office of Protected Resources and NMFS' Greater Atlantic Stranding Coordinator within 48 hours of sighting an injured or dead marine mammal in the construction site. The Navy shall provide NMFS and the Stranding Network with the species or description of the animal(s), the condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition, if the animal is dead), location, time of first discovery, observed behaviors (if alive), and photo or video (if available).
                    <PRTPAGE P="24489"/>
                </P>
                <P>In the event that the Navy finds an injured or dead marine mammal that is not in the construction area, the Navy would report the same information as listed above to NMFS as soon as operationally feasible.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be “taken” through harassment, NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any responses (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     intensity, duration), the context of any responses (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     critical reproductive time or location, migration), as well as effects on habitat, and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS's implementing regulations (54 FR 40338; September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the environmental baseline (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, or ambient noise levels).
                </P>
                <P>To avoid repetition, this introductory discussion of our analysis applies to all of the species listed in Table 2, given that the anticipated effects of the Navy's Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion construction project activities involving pile driving and pile removal on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. There is no information about the nature or severity of the impacts, or the size, status, or structure of any species or stock that would lead to a different analysis by species for this activity, or else species-specific factors would be identified and analyzed.</P>
                <P>
                    Although some individual harbor porpoises and harbor and gray seals are estimated to experience Level A harassment in the form of PTS if they stay within the Level A harassment zone during the entire pile driving for the day, the degree of injury is expected to be mild and is not likely to affect the reproduction or survival of the individual animals. It is expected that, if hearing impairments occurs, most likely the affected animal would lose a few dB in its hearing sensitivity, which in most cases is not likely to affect its survival and recruitment. Hearing impairment that might occur for these individual animals would be limited to the dominant frequency of the noise sources, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     in the low-frequency region below 2 kHz. Nevertheless, as for all marine mammal species, it is known that in general these pinnipeds will avoid areas where sound levels could cause hearing impairment. Therefore it is not likely that an animal would stay in an area with intense noise that could cause severe levels of hearing damage.
                </P>
                <P>Under the majority of the circumstances, anticipated takes are expected to be limited to short-term Level B harassment. Marine mammals present in the vicinity of the action area and taken by Level B harassment would most likely show overt brief disturbance (startle reaction) and avoidance of the area from elevated noise levels during pile driving and pile removal. Given the limited estimated number of incidents of Level A and Level B harassment and the limited, short-term nature of the responses by the individuals, the impacts of the estimated take cannot be reasonably expected to, and are not reasonably likely to, rise to the level that they would adversely affect either species at the population level, through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                <P>
                    There are no known important habitats, such as rookeries or haulouts, in the vicinity of the Navy's proposed Portsmouth Naval Shipyard modification and expansion construction project. The project also is not expected to have significant adverse effects on affected marine mammals' habitat, including prey, as analyzed in detail in the 
                    <E T="03">Anticipated Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:</P>
                <P>• No mortality is anticipated or authorized;</P>
                <P>• Some individual marine mammals are anticipated to experience a mild level of PTS, but the degree of PTS is not expected to affect their survival;</P>
                <P>• Most adverse effects to marine mammals are temporary behavioral harassment; and</P>
                <P>• No biologically important area is present in or near the proposed construction area.</P>
                <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers</HD>
                <P>As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals.</P>
                <P>The estimated takes are below 1.5 percent of the population for all marine mammals (Table 8).</P>
                <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the prescribed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                <P>There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the issuance of an incidental harassment authorization) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24490"/>
                    Categorical Exclusion B4 (incidental harassment authorizations with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NOAA Administrative Order 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS has determined that the issuance of the proposed IHA qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act (ESA)</HD>
                <P>No incidental take of ESA-listed species is proposed for authorization or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>As a result of these determinations, NMFS has issued an IHA to the Navy for conducting Portsmouth Naval Shipyard Dry Dock 1 Modification and Expansion in Kittery, Maine, between October 1, 2019, and September 30, 2010, provided the previously prescribed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Catherine Marzin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10980 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-XG799</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to City of Juneau Waterfront Improvement Project</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of an incidental harassment authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) as amended, notification is hereby given that we have issued an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to the City and Borough of Juneau (CBJ), Alaska, to take small numbers of marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to the Juneau dock and harbor waterfront improvement project.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This authorization is effective from July 15, 2019, through July 14, 2020.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shane Guan, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as the issued IHA, may be obtained online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/permit/incidental-take-authorizations-under-marine-mammal-protection-act.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed above.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) direct the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed incidental take authorization may be provided to the public for review.
                </P>
                <P>Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to in shorthand as “mitigation”); and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                <P>
                    On October 25, 2018, City and Borough of Juneau (CBJ) submitted a request to NMFS requesting an IHA for the possible harassment of small numbers of harbor seals incidental to the City of Juneau Dock and Harbor waterfront improvement project in Juneau, Alaska, from June 15, 2019 to June 14, 2020. After receiving the revised project description and the revised IHA application, NMFS determined that the IHA application is adequate and complete on January 30, 2019. Neither the CBJ nor NMFS expect mortality or serious injury to result from this activity and, therefore, an IHA is appropriate. On April 17, 2019, CBJ sent a request to NMFS to change the IHA dates to cover the period between July 15, 2019, and July 14, 2020. NMFS has issued an IHA to CBJ for the take by Level B harassment of harbor seal (
                    <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                    ) incidental to its waterfront improvement project.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Proposed Activity</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                <P>The purpose of the CBJ's project is to improve the downtown waterfront area within Gastineau Channel in Juneau, Alaska, to accommodate the needs of the growing cruise ship visitor industry and its passengers while creating a waterfront that meets the expectations of a world-class facility. The project would meet the needs of an expanding cruise ship industry and its passengers by creating ample open space thereby decreasing congestion and improving pedestrian circulation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dates and Duration</HD>
                <P>Construction of the CBJ waterfront improvements project is planned to occur between May 15, 2019 and August 31, 2020. CBJ is requesting an IHA for one year with an effective date of July 15, 2019 as in-water work will not proceed until July 15 or later and it is anticipated all in-water work will be completed prior to July 15, 2020.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Specified Geographic Region</HD>
                <P>The project area is at downtown waterfront within the Gastineau Channel in Juneau, Alaska (Figure 1 of the IHA application). The channel separates Juneau on the mainland side from Douglas (now part of Juneau), on Douglas Island. The channel is navigable by large ships, only from the southeast, as far as the Douglas Bridge, which is approximately 0.5 mile north of the project area. The channel north of the bridge is navigable by smaller craft and only at high tide. The channel at the project area is approximately 0.7 mile wide. It is located within Section 23, Township 41 South, Range 67 East of the Copper River Meridian.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Description of the CBJ Waterfront Improvement Project</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed CBJ waterfront improvements project would construct a pile supported deck along the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24491"/>
                    waterfront to meet the needs of an expanding cruise ship industry and its passengers by creating ample open space thereby decreasing congestion and improving pedestrian circulation. More details of the CBJ waterfront improvement project are provided in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice for the proposed IHA (84 FR 7880; March 5, 2019) and are not repeated here. There is no change from the description of the project activities that is provided in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice for the proposed IHA.
                </P>
                <P>A list of pile driving and removal activities is provided in Table 1. The total number of days that involve in-water pile driving is estimated to be 82 days.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s125,r125,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of In-Water Pile Driving Activities</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type and size</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI># piles</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"># piles/day</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile driving/removal duration (sec.) per pile (vibratory) or strikes per pile (impact)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Work days</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile removal</ENT>
                        <ENT>Timber piles, unknown diameter but assumed to be no more than 14-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>900</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory piling for supported dock</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 16-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>*42</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact proofing for supported dock</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 16-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>*42</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory piling for supported dock</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>*45</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact proofing for supported dock</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>*45</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory piling for temporary piles</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>87</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,400</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory pile removal for temporary piles</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel piles, 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>87</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>900</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>274</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>82</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Vibratory driving and impact proofing will occur on separate days.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Responses</HD>
                <P>
                    A notice of NMFS' proposal to issue an IHA was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 5, 2019 (84 FR 7880). During the 30-day public comment period, NMFS received a comment letter from the Marine Mammal Commission (Commission). Specific comments and responses are provided below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment 1:</E>
                     The Commission recommends that NMFS refrain from implementing its proposed renewal process and instead use abbreviated 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices and reference existing documents to streamline the IHA process. If NMFS adopts the proposed renewal process, the Commission recommends that NMFS provide the Commission and the public a legal analysis supporting its conclusion that the process is consistent with section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The notice of the proposed IHA expressly notifies the public that under certain, limited conditions an applicant could seek a renewal IHA for an additional year. The notice describes the conditions under which such a renewal request could be considered and expressly seeks public comment in the event such a renewal is sought. Additional reference to this solicitation of public comment has recently been added at the beginning of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices that consider renewals, requesting input specifically on the possible renewal itself. NMFS appreciates the streamlining achieved by the use of abbreviated 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices and intends to continue using them for proposed IHAs that include minor changes from previously issued IHAs, but which do not satisfy the renewal requirements. However, we believe our method for issuing renewals meets statutory requirements and maximizes efficiency. However, importantly, such renewals will be limited to circumstances where: The activities are identical or nearly identical to those analyzed in the proposed IHA; monitoring does not indicate impacts that were not previously analyzed and authorized; and, the mitigation and monitoring requirements remain the same, all of which allow the public to comment on the appropriateness and effects of a renewal at the same time the public provides comments on the initial IHA. NMFS has, however, modified the language for future proposed IHAs to clarify that all IHAs, including renewal IHAs, are valid for no more than one year and that the agency will consider only one renewal for a project at this time. In addition, notice of issuance or denial of a renewal IHA will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , as they are for all IHAs. The option for issuing renewal IHAs has been in NMFS' incidental take regulations since 1996. We will provide any additional information to the Commission and consider posting a description of the renewal process on our website before any renewal is issued utilizing this process.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history, of the potentially affected species. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS's Stock Assessment Reports (SAR; 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Table 2 lists all species with expected potential for occurrence in the Southeast Alaskan waters and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and ESA and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2018). PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS's SARs). While no mortality is anticipated or authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species and other threats.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24492"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS's stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS's U.S. Alaska Marine Mammal SARs (Carretta 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2017). All values presented in Table 2 are the most recent available at the time of publication and are available in the 2017 SARs (Muto 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2018); and draft 2018 SARs (available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/draft-marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,xls30,r50,8,8">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Marine Mammals With Potential Presence Within the Proposed Project Area</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            ESA/
                            <LI>MMPA </LI>
                            <LI>status; </LI>
                            <LI>strategic </LI>
                            <LI>
                                (Y/N) 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Stock abundance 
                            <LI>
                                (CV, N
                                <E T="0732">min</E>
                                , most recent 
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                abundance survey) 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">PBR</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual 
                            <LI>
                                M/SI 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Order Cetartiodactyla—Cetacea—Superfamily Mysticeti (baleen whales)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="22">Family Balaenopteridae:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Humpback whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Megaptera novaneagliae</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Central North Pacific</ENT>
                        <ENT>E/D; Y</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,103 (0.300, 7,890)</ENT>
                        <ENT>82</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Family Delphinidae:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Killer whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Orcinus orca</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Eastern N. Pacific Northern Resident
                            <LI>Eastern N. Pacific Alaska Resident</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            N
                            <LI>N</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            261 (NA, 261)
                            <LI>2,347 (NA, 2,347)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1.96
                            <LI>24</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            0
                            <LI>1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Order Carnivora—Superfamily Pinnipedia</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="22">Family Phocidae (earless seals):</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Harbor seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Lynn Canal/Stephens Passage</ENT>
                        <ENT>N</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,478 (NA, 8,605)</ENT>
                        <ENT>155</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Endangered Species Act (ESA) status: Endangered (E), Threatened (T)/MMPA status: Depleted (D). A dash (-) indicates that the species is not listed under the ESA or designated as depleted under the MMPA. Under the MMPA, a strategic stock is one for which the level of direct human-caused mortality exceeds PBR or which is determined to be declining and likely to be listed under the ESA within the foreseeable future. Any species or stock listed under the ESA is automatically designated under the MMPA as depleted and as a strategic stock.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         NMFS marine mammal stock assessment reports online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports-region.</E>
                         CV is coefficient of variation; N
                        <E T="0732">min</E>
                         is the minimum estimate of stock abundance.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>All species that could potentially occur in the proposed survey areas are included in Table 2. However, the presence of humpback whale and killer whale are extremely rare, and the implementation of monitoring and mitigation measures are such that take is not expected to occur, and they are not discussed further beyond the explanation provided here. Although these two species have been sighted within the Gastineau Channel near the vicinity of the project area, CBJ proposes to implement strict monitoring and mitigation measures and implement shutdown to prevent any takes of these two species. Thus, the take of this marine mammal stock can be avoided, as their occurrence would be considered unlikely and mitigation and monitoring is expected to prevent take should they occur (see details in Mitigation section).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Richardson 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     1995; Wartzok and Ketten, 1999; Au and Hastings, 2008). To reflect this, Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) recommended that marine mammals be divided into functional hearing groups based on directly measured or estimated hearing ranges on the basis of available behavioral response data, audiograms derived using auditory evoked potential techniques, anatomical modeling, and other data. Note that no direct measurements of hearing ability have been successfully completed for mysticetes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     low-frequency cetaceans). Subsequently, NMFS (2016) described generalized hearing ranges for these marine mammal hearing groups. Generalized hearing ranges were chosen based on the approximately 65 decibel (dB) threshold from the normalized composite audiograms, with the exception for lower limits for low-frequency cetaceans where the lower bound was deemed to be biologically implausible and the lower bound from Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) retained. The functional groups and the associated frequencies are indicated below (note that these frequency ranges correspond to the range for the composite group, with the entire range not necessarily reflecting the capabilities of every species within that group):
                </P>
                <P>• Low-frequency cetaceans (mysticetes): generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 hertz (Hz) and 35 kilohertz (kHz);</P>
                <P>• Mid-frequency cetaceans (larger toothed whales, beaked whales, and most delphinids): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz;</P>
                <P>• High-frequency cetaceans (porpoises, river dolphins, and members of the genera Kogia and Cephalorhynchus; including two members of the genus Lagenorhynchus, on the basis of recent echolocation data and genetic data): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 275 Hz and 160 kHz;</P>
                <P>• Pinnipeds in water; Phocidae (true seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 50 Hz to 86 kHz; and</P>
                <P>• Pinnipeds in water; Otariidae (eared seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between 60 Hz and 39 kHz.</P>
                <P>
                    The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     (2007) on the basis of data indicating that phocid species have consistently demonstrated an extended frequency range of hearing compared to otariids, especially in the higher frequency range 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24493"/>
                    (Hemilä 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2006; Kastelein 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2009; Reichmuth 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2013).
                </P>
                <P>
                    For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2018) for a review of available information. Three marine mammal species (two cetacean and one pinniped (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     harbor seal) species) have the reasonable potential to co-occur with the proposed construction activity. Please refer to Table 2. Of the cetacean species that may be present, one species is classified as low-frequency cetaceans (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     humpback whale) and one is classified as mid-frequency cetacean (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     killer whale). However, as mentioned earlier, monitoring and mitigation measures will be implemented to avoid the take of these cetacean species.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                <P>
                    This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment</E>
                     section later in this document includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The 
                    <E T="03">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</E>
                     section considers the content of this section, the 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment</E>
                     section, and the 
                    <E T="03">Mitigation</E>
                     section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Potential impacts to marine mammals from the proposed CBJ waterfront improvement project are from noise generated during in-water pile driving and pile removal activities. A detailed analysis of these effects is provided in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice of the proposed IHA (84 FR 7880; March 5, 2019) and is not repeated here.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take</HD>
                <P>This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes authorized through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of whether the number of takes is “small” and the negligible impact determination.</P>
                <P>Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                <P>
                    Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to noise generated from vibratory pile driving and removal. Based on the nature of the activity and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     shutdown measures—discussed in detail below in Proposed Mitigation section), Level A harassment is neither anticipated nor proposed to be authorized.
                </P>
                <P>As described previously, no mortality is anticipated or authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.</P>
                <P>Described in the most basic way, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) and the number of days of activities. Below, we describe these components in more detail and present the take estimate. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Thresholds</HD>
                <P>Using the best available science, NMFS has developed acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).</P>
                <P>
                    Level B Harassment for non-explosive sources—Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     frequency, predictability, duty cycle), the environment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     bathymetry), and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography, behavioral context) and can be difficult to predict (Southall 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2007, Ellison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2012). Based on what the available science indicates and the practical need to use a threshold based on a factor that is both predictable and measurable for most activities, NMFS uses a generalized acoustic threshold based on received level to estimate the onset of behavioral harassment. NMFS predicts that marine mammals are likely to be behaviorally harassed in a manner we consider Level B harassment when exposed to underwater anthropogenic noise above received levels of 120 dB re 1 μPa (rms) for continuous (
                    <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                     vibratory pile-driving, drilling) and above 160 dB re 1 μPa (rms) for non-explosive impulsive (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     seismic airguns) or intermittent (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     scientific sonar) sources.
                </P>
                <P>Applicant's proposed activity includes the generation of impulse (impact pile driving) and continuous (vibratory pile driving and removal) sources; and, therefore, both 160- and 120-dB re 1 μPa (rms) are used.</P>
                <P>Level A harassment for non-explosive sources—NMFS' Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Technical Guidance, 2016 and 2018) identifies dual criteria to assess auditory injury (Level A harassment) to five different marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). Applicant's proposed activity would generate and non-impulsive (vibratory pile driving and pile removal) noises.</P>
                <P>
                    These thresholds were developed by compiling and synthesizing the best available science and soliciting input multiple times from both the public and peer reviewers to inform the final product and are provided in the table below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS 2018 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance.</E>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24494"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs66p,xs66,xs66">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Current Acoustic Exposure Criteria for Non-Explosive Sound Underwater</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">PTS onset thresholds</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Impulsive</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Non-impulsive</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Behavioral thresholds</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Impulsive</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Non-impulsive</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Low-Frequency (LF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             219 dB, 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">LF,24h:</E>
                             183 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">LF,24h:</E>
                             199 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">rms,</E>
                            <E T="0732">flat:</E>
                             160 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">rms,</E>
                            <E T="0732">flat:</E>
                             120 dB
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mid-Frequency (MF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             230 dB, 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">MF,24h</E>
                            : 185 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">MF,24h</E>
                            : 198 dB
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">High-Frequency (HF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             202 dB, 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                            : 155 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">HF,24h</E>
                            : 173 dB
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phocid Pinnipeds (PW), (Underwater)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             218 dB 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                            : 185 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">PW,24h</E>
                            : 201 dB
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Otariid Pinnipeds (OW), (Underwater)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">pk,flat:</E>
                             232 dB, 
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                            : 203 dB
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,</E>
                            <E T="0732">OW,24h</E>
                            : 219 dB
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Dual metric acoustic thresholds for impulsive sounds: Use whichever results in the largest isopleth for calculating PTS onset. If a non-impulsive sound has the potential of exceeding the peak sound pressure level thresholds associated with impulsive sounds, these thresholds should also be considered.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Note:</E>
                         Peak sound pressure (Lpk) has a reference value of 1 μPa, and cumulative sound exposure level (LE) has a reference value of 1μPa2s. In this Table, thresholds are abbreviated to reflect American National Standards Institute standards (ANSI 2013). However, peak sound pressure is defined by ANSI as incorporating frequency weighting, which is not the intent for this Technical Guidance. Hence, the subscript “flat” is being included to indicate peak sound pressure should be flat weighted or unweighted within the generalized hearing range. The subscript associated with cumulative sound exposure level thresholds indicates the designated marine mammal auditory weighting function (LF, MF, and HF cetaceans, and PW and OW pinnipeds) and that the recommended accumulation period is 24 hours. The cumulative sound exposure level thresholds could be exceeded in a multitude of ways (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         varying exposure levels and durations, duty cycle). When possible, it is valuable for action proponents to indicate the conditions under which these acoustic thresholds will be exceeded.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ensonified Area</HD>
                <P>Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that will feed into identifying the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Source Levels</HD>
                <P>
                    Source levels for vibratory driving and removal of 16- and 18-inch (in) steel piles are based on measurement of vibratory pile removal of 16- and 24-in steel piles by the Navy in Puget Sound (NAVFAC 2015). The measured SPL
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     at 10 meters (m) was 161 dB re 1 µPa. This source level is revised from the proposed IHA where a different measurement of 156.2 dB at 7 m from Kake, Alaska, was used. This change reflects our discussion with the Commission that the Kake's measurement could be underestimated due to soft substrate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Source levels for impact pile driving of 16-in and 18-in steel piles are based on JASCO's pile driving review for a 24-in steel pile (Yurk 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2015). The values are 175 dB re 1 µPa
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    -s, 190 dB re 1 µPa, and 205 dB re 1 µPa for single strike SEL, SPL
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                    , and SPL
                    <E T="52">pk</E>
                    , respectively.
                </P>
                <P>Source level for vibratory timber pile removal is based on measurements of vibratory pile removal at Port Townsend, Washington (WSDOT, 2011). The measured level was 150 dB re 1 µPa at 52 ft, and is corrected to 153 dB re 1 µPa at 10 m.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A summary of the source levels are provided in Table 4.</HD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Summary of In-Water Pile Driving Source Levels</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[at 10 m from source]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type/size (inch)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SEL, dB re 1 µPa
                            <SU>2</SU>
                            -s
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SPL
                            <E T="0732">rms</E>
                            , dB re 1 µPa
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            SPL
                            <E T="0732">pk</E>
                            , dB re 1 µPa
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory driving/removal</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 16- and 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>161</ENT>
                        <ENT>161</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal</ENT>
                        <ENT>Timber</ENT>
                        <ENT>153</ENT>
                        <ENT>153</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact pile driving (proof)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel, 16- and 18-in</ENT>
                        <ENT>175</ENT>
                        <ENT>190</ENT>
                        <ENT>205</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>These source levels are used to compute the Level A harassment zones and to estimate the Level B harassment zones. For Level A harassment zones, since the peak source levels for both pile driving are below the injury thresholds, cumulative SEL were used to do the calculations using the NMFS acoustic guidance (NMFS 2018).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Estimating Harassment Zones</HD>
                <P>
                    The Level B harassment ensonified areas for vibratory removal of timber piles are based on the above source level of 153 dB
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     re 1 µPa at 10 m, applying practical spreading loss of 15*log(R) for transmission loss calculation. The derived distance to the 120-dB Level B zone is 1,585 m.
                </P>
                <P>For Level B harassment ensonified areas for vibratory pile driving and removal of the 16- and 18-in steel piles, the distance is based on source level of 161 dB re 1 µPa at 10 m, applying practical spreading loss of 15*log(R) for transmission loss calculation. The derived distance to the 120-dB zone is 5,412 m. This is an increase from 1,585 m provided in the proposed IHA when a lower source level of 156.2 dB at 7 m was used. However, the land mass from the opposite shore intercept the sound propagation at about 2,000 m, therefore, the distance of 2,000 m is considered as the maximum distance for Level B harassment for vibratory pile driving of 16- and 18-in piles.</P>
                <P>For Level B harassment ensonified areas for impact proofing of 16-in and 18-in steel piles, the distance is based on source level of 190 dB re 1 µPa at 10 m, applying practical spreading loss of 15*log(R) for transmission loss calculation. The derived distance to the 160-dB zone is 1,000 m.</P>
                <P>For Level A harassment, calculation is based on pile driving duration of each pile and the number of piles installed or removed per day, using NMFS optional spreadsheet.</P>
                <P>
                    The modeled distances to Level A and Level B harassment zones for various marine mammals are provided in Table 5. As discussed above, the only marine mammal that could occur in the vicinity of the project area is the harbor seal (phocid), and, on rare occasions, humpback and killer whales (mid-frequency cetacean). The inclusion of other marine mammal hearing groups in Table 5 is for information purposes.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24495"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Modeled Distances to Harassment Zones</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type, size &amp; pile driving method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Injury distance (m)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">LF cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">MF cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">HF cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Phocid</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Otariid</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Level B ZOI (m)</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive 16- &amp; 18-in pile (5,400 s/pile, 5 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal 16- &amp; 18-in temporary pile (900 s/pile, 5 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal timber pile (900 s/pile, 10 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,585</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact proof of 16- &amp; 18-in pile (150 strikes/pile, 5 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>241.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>287.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>129.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Occurrence</HD>
                <P>In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.</P>
                <P>There are no reliable density estimates for marine mammals (harbor seal, humpback whale, and killer whale) in the project area. However, there are good observations of harbor seal numbers that generally occur in the project area.</P>
                <P>Harbor seals are residents in the project vicinity and observed within the action area on a regular basis. Typically there are one to two harbor seals present near the new Port of Juneau Cruise Ship Berths and can be found there year round. In addition, a smaller amount of harbor seals have been observed near the Douglas Island Pink and Chum, Inc. (DIPAC) salmon hatchery which is approximately five km north of the project area. The applicant states that based on observations and discussion with the hatchery personnel, a maximum of 41 harbor seals have been observed transiting in nearby areas between the hatchery and the project area. This number in addition to the 1-2 resident harbor seals at the project area makes a total maximum harbor sea that could be affected by in-water pile driving during a typical day to be 43.</P>
                <P>Humpback whale and killer whale are rarely seen in the vicinity of the project area. CBJ will implement shutdown measures if these species are sighted moving towards the Level B harassment zone.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Take Calculation and Estimation</HD>
                <P>Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate.</P>
                <P>For harbor seal takes, the total take number is calculated as: Take = animal number in a typical day near the project area × operating days = 43 × 82 = 3,526 animals. However, 18 of these pile driving days will involve impact pile proofing that results in a larger Level A harassment zone (129 m). If a harbor seal would be missed during marine mammal monitoring and slip into the Level A harassment zone during impact pile proofing, Level A harassment could occur. Based on discussion with the Commission, we estimated that up to 4 individual harbor seals could be exposed by Level A harassment each day during these 18 days. Therefore, we estimate that 72 incidents of Level A harassment of harbor seal could occur.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A summary of estimated takes in relation to population percentage is provided in Table 6.</HD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Estimated Take Numbers</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated Level A take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated Level B take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated total take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Abundance</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                        <ENT>72</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,454</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,526</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,478</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Mitigation</HD>
                <P>In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).</P>
                <P>In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:</P>
                <P>(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned) the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned); and</P>
                <P>(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mitigation for Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                <P>1. Time Restriction.</P>
                <P>Work would occur only during daylight hours, when visual monitoring of marine mammals can be conducted.</P>
                <P>
                    2. Establishing and Monitoring Level A and Level B Harassment Zones and Shutdown Zones.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24496"/>
                </P>
                <P>CBJ shall establish shutdown zones that encompass the distances within which marine mammals except harbor seal could be taken by Level B harassment (see Table 5 above).</P>
                <P>For harbor seals, CBJ shall establish shutdown zones that encompass the distances within which a seal could be taken by Level A harassment (see Table 5 above). For Level A harassment zones that are less than 10 m from the source, a minimum of 10 m distance should be established as a shutdown zone.</P>
                <P>A summary of shutdown zones is provided in Table 7.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Shutdown Zones for Various Pile Driving Activities and Marine Mammal Hearing Groups</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Pile type, size &amp; pile driving method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Shutdown distance (m)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Cetacean</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Phocid</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory drive and removal of 16- &amp; 18-in steel piles</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vibratory removal timber pile (900 s/pile, 10 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,585</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Impact proof of 16- &amp; 18-in pile (150 strikes/pile, 5 piles/day)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>130</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    CBJ shall also establish a Zone of Influence (ZOI) for harbor seals based on the Level B harassment zones for take monitoring where received underwater SPLs are higher than 160 dB
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     re 1 µPa for impulsive noise sources (impact pile driving) and 120 dB
                    <E T="52">rms</E>
                     re 1 µPa for continuous noise sources (vibratory pile driving and pile removal). For all other marine mammals, the ZOI is the same as the shutdown zones.
                </P>
                <P>NMFS-approved protected species observers (PSO) shall conduct an initial 30-minute survey of the shutdown zones to ensure that no marine mammals are seen within the zones before pile driving and pile removal of a pile segment begins. If marine mammals are found within the shutdown zone, pile driving of the segment would be delayed until they move out of the area. If a marine mammal is seen above water and then dives below, the contractor would wait 15 minutes. If no marine mammals are seen by the observer in that time it can be assumed that the animal has moved beyond the shutdown zone.</P>
                <P>3. Soft-start.</P>
                <P>A “soft-start” technique is intended to allow marine mammals to vacate the area before the impact pile driver reaches full power. Whenever there has been downtime of 30 minutes or more without impact pile driving, the contractor will initiate the driving with ramp-up procedures described below.</P>
                <P>Soft start for impact hammers requires contractors to provide an initial set of three strikes from the impact hammer at 40 percent energy, followed by a 1-minute waiting period, then two subsequent three-strike sets. Each day, CBJ will use the soft-start technique at the beginning of impact pile driving, or if impact pile driving has ceased for more than 30 minutes.</P>
                <P>4. Shutdown Measures.</P>
                <P>CBJ shall implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected within or enters a shutdown zone listed in Table 7.</P>
                <P>Further, CBJ shall implement shutdown measures if the number of authorized takes for harbor seals reaches the limit under the IHA and if seals are sighted within the vicinity of the project area and are approaching the Level B harassment zone during in-water construction activities.</P>
                <P>Based on our evaluation of the required measures, NMFS has determined that the prescribed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Monitoring and Reporting</HD>
                <P>In order to issue an IHA for an activity, Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.</P>
                <P>Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:</P>
                <P>
                    • Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     presence, abundance, distribution, density);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     source characterization, propagation, ambient noise); (2) affected species (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     life history, dive patterns); (3) co-occurrence of marine mammal species with the action; or (4) biological or behavioral context of exposure (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     age, calving or feeding areas);
                </P>
                <P>• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;</P>
                <P>• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;</P>
                <P>
                    • Effects on marine mammal habitat (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     marine mammal prey species, acoustic habitat, or other important physical components of marine mammal habitat); and
                </P>
                <P>• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Monitoring Measures</HD>
                <P>CBJ shall employ NMFS-approved PSOs to conduct marine mammal monitoring for its waterfront improvement project at Juneau Dock and Harbor. The purposes of marine mammal monitoring are to implement mitigation measures and learn more about impacts to marine mammals from CBJ's construction activities. The PSOs will observe and collect data on marine mammals in and around the project area for 30 minutes before, during, and for 30 minutes after all pile removal and pile installation work. NMFS-approved PSOs shall meet the following requirements:</P>
                <P>
                    1. Independent observers (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not construction personnel) are required;
                </P>
                <P>2. At least one observer must have prior experience working as an observer;</P>
                <P>3. Other observers may substitute education (undergraduate degree in biological science or related field) or training for experience;</P>
                <P>
                    4. Where a team of three or more observers are required, one observer 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24497"/>
                    should be designated as lead observer or monitoring coordinator. The lead observer must have prior experience working as an observer; and
                </P>
                <P>5. NMFS will require submission and approval of observer CVs.</P>
                <P>
                    Monitoring of marine mammals around the construction site shall be conducted using high-quality binoculars (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Zeiss, 10 x 42 power).
                </P>
                <P>CBJ shall employ a minimum of 2 PSOs to observe and collect data on marine mammals in and around the pile driving vicinity.</P>
                <P>PSOs shall be placed at high evaluation locations such as the boardwalk and the observation deck of the City Library to conduct marine mammal monitoring.</P>
                <P>PSOs will work shifts of a maximum of four consecutive hours and will work no more than 12 hours in any 24-hour period.</P>
                <P>6. PSOs shall collect the following information during marine mammal monitoring:</P>
                <P>• Date and time that monitored activity begins and ends for each day conducted (monitoring period);</P>
                <P>• Construction activities occurring during each daily observation period, including how many and what type of piles driven;</P>
                <P>• Deviation from initial proposal in pile numbers, pile types, average driving times, etc.;</P>
                <P>
                    • Weather parameters in each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     wind speed, percent cloud cover, visibility);
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Water conditions in each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     sea state, tide state);
                </P>
                <P>• For each marine mammal sighting:</P>
                <P>○ Species, numbers, and, if possible, sex and age class of marine mammals;</P>
                <P>○ Description of any observable marine mammal behavior patterns, including bearing and direction of travel and distance from pile driving activity;</P>
                <P>○ Location and distance from pile driving activities to marine mammals and distance from the marine mammals to the observation point; and</P>
                <P>○ Estimated amount of time that the animals remained in the Level B zone;</P>
                <P>
                    • Description of implementation of mitigation measures within each monitoring period (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     shutdown or delay);
                </P>
                <P>• Other human activity in the area within each monitoring period</P>
                <P>To verify the required monitoring distance, the shutdown zones and ZOIs will be determined by using a range finder or hand-held global positioning system device.</P>
                <P>CBJ is required to submit a draft monitoring report within 90 days after completion of the construction work or the expiration of the IHA (if issued), whichever comes earlier. In the case if CBJ intends to renew the IHA (if issued) in a subsequent year, a monitoring report should be submitted 60 days before the expiration of the current IHA (if issued). This report would detail the monitoring protocol, summarize the data recorded during monitoring, and estimate the number of marine mammals that may have been harassed. NMFS would have an opportunity to provide comments on the report, and if NMFS has comments, CBJ would address the comments and submit a final report to NMFS within 30 days.</P>
                <P>In addition, NMFS would require CBJ to notify NMFS' Office of Protected Resources and NMFS' Alaska Stranding Coordinator within 48 hours of sighting an injured or dead marine mammal in the construction site. CBJ shall provide NMFS and the Stranding Network with the species or description of the animal(s), the condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition, if the animal is dead), location, time of first discovery, observed behaviors (if alive), and photo or video (if available).</P>
                <P>In the event that CBJ finds an injured or dead marine mammal that is not in the construction area, CBJ would report the same information as listed above to NMFS as soon as operationally feasible.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be “taken” through harassment, NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any responses (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     intensity, duration), the context of any responses (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     critical reproductive time or location, migration), as well as effects on habitat, and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS's implementing regulations (54 FR 40338; September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the environmental baseline (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, or ambient noise levels).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Although some individual harbor seals are estimated to experience Level A harassment in the form of PTS if they stay within the Level A harassment zone during the entire pile driving for the day, the degree of injury is expected to be mild and is not likely to affect the reproduction or survival of the individual animals. It is expected that, if hearing impairment occurs, most likely the affected animal would lose a few dB in its hearing sensitivity, which in most cases is not likely to affect its survival and recruitment. Hearing impairment that might occur for these individual animals would be limited to the dominant frequency of the noise sources, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     in the low-frequency region below 2 kHz. Nevertheless, as for all marine mammal species, it is known that in general these seals will avoid areas where sound levels could cause hearing impairment. Therefore it is not likely that an animal would stay in an area with intense noise that could cause severe levels of hearing damage.
                </P>
                <P>Under the majority of the circumstances, anticipated takes are expected to be limited to short-term Level B harassment. Harbor seals present in the vicinity of the action area and taken by Level B harassment would most likely show overt brief disturbance (startle reaction) and avoidance of the area from elevated noise levels during pile driving and pile removal. Given the limited estimated number of incidents of Level A and Level B harassment and the limited, short-term nature of the responses by the individuals, the impacts of the estimated take cannot be reasonably expected to, and are not reasonably likely to, rise to the level that they would adversely affect the species at the population level, through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                <P>There are no known important habitats, such as rookeries or haulouts, in the vicinity of the CBJ's waterfront improvement construction project. The project also is not expected to have significant adverse effects on affected marine mammals' habitat, including prey, as analyzed in detail in the “Anticipated Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat” section.</P>
                <P>
                    In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24498"/>
                    expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
                </P>
                <P>• No mortality is anticipated or authorized;</P>
                <P>• Some individual harbor seals are anticipated to experience a mild level of PTS, but the degree of PTS is not expected to affect their fitness;</P>
                <P>• Most adverse effects to harbor seals are temporary behavioral harassment; and</P>
                <P>• No biologically important area is present in or near the proposed construction area.</P>
                <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers</HD>
                <P>As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, NMFS compares the number of individuals anticipated to be taken to the most appropriate estimation of the relevant species or stock size in our determination of whether an authorization would be limited to small numbers of marine mammals.</P>
                <P>The estimated take of harbor seal would be 35 percent of the population, if each single take were a unique individual. However, this is highly unlikely because the harbor seal in the vicinity of the project area shows site fidelity to small areas for periods of time that can extend between seasons. As discussed earlier, there are one to two resident harbor seals in the project vicinity and are observed within the action area on a regular basis. In addition, a smaller amount of harbor seals have been observed near the DIPAC salmon hatchery which is approximately 5 km north of the project area. Therefore, the total maximum number of individual harbor seals at the project area that could be affect by in-water pile driving during a typical day is assumed to be 43 individuals.</P>
                <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the prescribed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that small numbers of each species or stock will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Subsistence Analysis and Determination</HD>
                <P>The proposed construction project will occur near but not overlap the subsistence areas in Juneau. The Alaska Department of Fish and Game (ADF&amp;G) was contacted by CBJ regarding subsistence uses in Gastineau Channel and it was confirmed that Gastineau Channel is not a subsistence use area for harbor seals (CBJ, 2018). Therefore, the proposed project will not adversely impact the availability of any marine mammal species or stocks that are commonly used for subsistence purposes in the Juneau area.</P>
                <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on subsistence activities, and taking into consideration the implementation of the monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the proposed activity will not have unmitigable adverse impact on subsistence use of marine mammals in the project area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the issuance of an incidental harassment authorization) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (incidental harassment authorizations with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NOAA Administrative Order 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS has determined that the issuance of the proposed IHA qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act (ESA)</HD>
                <P>No incidental take of ESA-listed species is authorized or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>As a result of these determinations, NMFS has issued an IHA to the City and Borough of Juneau for the Juneau Dock and Harbor waterfront improvement project in Juneau, Alaska, provided the previously described mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Catherine Marzin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10973 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">BUREAU OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CFPB-2019-0027]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) is requesting to renew the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing information collection, titled, “Truth In Lending Act (Regulation Z) 12 CFR 1026.”</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments are encouraged and must be received on or before July 29, 2019 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by the title of the information collection, OMB Control Number (see below), and docket number (see above), by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: PRA_Comments@cfpb.gov.</E>
                         Include Docket No. CFPB-2019-0027 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Comment Intake, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Attention: PRA Office), 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                         Comment Intake, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Attention: PRA Office), 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Please note that comments submitted after the comment period will not be accepted.</E>
                         In general, all comments received will become public records, including any personal information provided. Sensitive personal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24499"/>
                        information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Documentation prepared in support of this information collection request is available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Requests for additional information should be directed to Darrin King, PRA Officer, at (202) 435-9575, or email: 
                        <E T="03">CFPB_PRA@cfpb.gov.</E>
                         If you require this document in an alternative electronic format, please contact 
                        <E T="03">CFPB_Accessibility@cfpb.gov.</E>
                         Please do not submit comments to these email boxes.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P SOURCE="NPAR">
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Truth In Lending Act (Regulation Z) 12 CFR 1026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3170-0015.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses and other for-profit entities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     20,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,265,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Truth in Lending Act (TILA), 15 U.S.C. 1601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     was enacted to foster comparison credit shopping and informed credit decision making by requiring accurate disclosure of the costs and terms of credit to consumers and to protect consumers against inaccurate and unfair credit billing practices. Creditors are subject to disclosure and other requirements that apply to open-end credit (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     revolving credit or credit lines) and closed-end credit (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     installment financing). TILA imposes disclosure requirements on all types of creditors in connection with consumer credit, including mortgage companies, finance companies, retailers, and credit card issuers, to ensure that consumers are fully apprised of the terms of financing prior to consummation of the transaction and, as applicable, during the loan term.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Request for Comments:</E>
                     Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) The accuracy of the Bureau's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methods and the assumptions used; (c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darrin A. King,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10972 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4810-AM-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OE Docket No. EA-475]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Application To Export Electric Energy; Idaho Power Company</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Electricity, Department of Energy (DOE).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Idaho Power Company (Applicant or Idaho Power) has applied for authorization to transmit electric energy from the United States to Canada pursuant to the Federal Power Act.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">Electricity.Exports@hq.doe.gov,</E>
                         or by facsimile to 202-586-8008.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department of Energy (DOE) regulates exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country, pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b) and 7172(f)). Such exports require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).</P>
                <P>On May 13, 2019, DOE received an application from Idaho Power for authorization to transmit electric energy from the United States to Canada as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities. Idaho Power's application “requests authorization only to export excess generated or purchased energy that will not impair its ability to meet native load demands, regional load obligations, or prospective wholesale power-supply responsibilities.”</P>
                <P>In its application, Idaho Power states that it is “engaged in the business of generating, purchasing, transmitting, and distributing electrical energy.” The electric energy that Idaho Power proposes to export to Canada would be surplus energy sold pursuant to voluntary bilateral contracts with electric utilities and other suppliers within the United States. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Procedural Matters:</E>
                     Any person desiring to be heard in this proceeding should file a comment or protest to the application at the address provided above. Protests should be filed in accordance with Rule 211 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (FERC) Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211). Any person desiring to become a party to this proceeding should file a motion to intervene at the above address in accordance with FERC Rule 214 (18 CFR 385.214). Five (5) copies of such comments, protests, or motions to intervene should be sent to the address provided above on or before the date listed above.
                </P>
                <P>Comments and other filings concerning Idaho Power's application to export electric energy to Canada should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-475. An additional copy is to be provided directly to both Julia Hilton, Idaho Power Company, 1221 West Idaho Street, Boise, Idaho 83702 and Jaren Wieland, Mooney Wieland PLLC, 405 South 8th Street, Suite 295, Boise, Idaho 83702.</P>
                <P>A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after DOE determines that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.</P>
                <P>
                    Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program website at 
                    <E T="03">http://energy.gov/node/11845,</E>
                     or by emailing Angela Troy at 
                    <E T="03">Angela.Troy@hq.doe.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Lawrence,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Management and Program Analyst, Transmission Permitting and Technical Assistance, Office of Electricity.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11044 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24500"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #2</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1137-003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Request for Deferral of Effective Date—East Texas Cooperatives Stated Rate to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5091.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1912-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 3551 Rainbow Energy Marketing &amp; Sunflower Meter Agent Agr to be effective 5/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5087.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1913-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Cancellation: Notice of Cancellation of ISA, SA No. 5258; Queue No. AC1-085 to be effective 5/7/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5098.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1914-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arizona Public Service Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Rate Schedule No. 292, Cochise County Joint Participation to be effective 7/21/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5104.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1915-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Arizona Public Service Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Service Agreement No. 372, Cochise County Mutual Standby Agreement to be effective 7/21/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5105.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1916-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Louisville Gas and Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Order No. 845 Compliance Filing to be effective 5/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5106.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1917-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Liberty Utilities (Granite State Electric) Corp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Borderline Sales Rate Sheet Update 2019 to be effective 5/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5107.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1918-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Duke Energy Florida, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: DEF-Seminole Electric Cooperative, Inc. Revised Rate Sch. No. 194 to be effective 6/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5108.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1920-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tampa Electric Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: LGIP and LGIA Revisions per Order No. 845 to be effective 5/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5114.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.</P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nathaniel J. Davis, Sr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11159 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. ER19-1889-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Antrim Wind Energy LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization</SUBJECT>
                <P>This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Antrim Wind Energy LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.</P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.</P>
                <P>Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 10, 2019.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                     To facilitate electronic service, persons with internet access who will eFile a document and/or be listed as a contact for an intervenor must create and validate an eRegistration account using the eRegistration link. Select the eFiling link to log on and submit the intervention or protests.
                </P>
                <P>Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.</P>
                <P>
                    The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the website that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24501"/>
                    Online service, please email 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                     or call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nathaniel J. Davis, Sr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11165 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <P>Filings Instituting Proceedings</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP19-888-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Trailblazer Pipeline Company LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Report Filing: 2019-05-15 2019 Refund Report RP19-888.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/15/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190515-5215.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 5/28/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP19-1229-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tennessee Gas Pipeline Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Volume No.2—Neg Rate Agmt—Macquarie Energy SP348769 &amp; SP348770 to be effective 6/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/20/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190520-5058.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/3/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP19-1230-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Bear Creek Storage Company, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: 2019 Settlement Filing to be effective 12/31/9998.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/20/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190520-5116.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/3/19.
                </P>
                <P>The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.</P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nathaniel J. Davis, Sr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11161 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER16-1255-008; ER15-1579-012; ER15-1582-013; ER15-1914-014; ER15-2679-010; ER15-2680-010; ER15-760-013; ER15-762-014; ER16-1609-004; ER16-1738-008; ER16-1901-008; ER16-1955-008; ER16-1956-008; ER16-1973-008; ER16-2201-007; ER16-2224-007; ER16-2541-007; ER16-2578-008; ER16-468-008; ER16-474-009; ER16-890-009; ER17-1864-006; ER17-1871-006; ER17-1909-006; ER17-306-007; ER17-544-007; ER18-2492-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Antelope Big Sky Ranch LLC, Antelope DSR 1, LLC, Antelope DSR 2, LLC, Bayshore Solar A, LLC, Bayshore Solar B, LLC, Bayshore Solar C, LLC, Beacon Solar 1, LLC, Beacon Solar 3, LLC, Beacon Solar 4, LLC, Central Antelope Dry Ranch C LLC, Elevation Solar C LLC, FTS Master Tenant 1, LLC, FTS Master Tenant 2, LLC, ID Solar 1, LLC, Latigo Wind Park, LLC, North Lancaster Ranch LLC, Pioneer Wind Park I, LLC, Sandstone Solar LLC, Sierra Solar Greenworks LLC, Solverde 1, LLC, Summer Solar LLC, Western Antelope Blue Sky Ranch A LLC, Western Antelope Blue Sky Ranch B LLC, Western Antelope Dry Ranch LLC, 65HK 8me LLC, 67RK 8me LLC, 87RL 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of AES MBR Affiliates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/17/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190517-5221.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/7/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER16-1255-009; ER15-1579-013; ER15-1582-014; ER15-1914-015; ER15-2679-011; ER15-2680-011; ER15-760-014; ER15-762-015; ER16-1609-005; ER16-1738-009; ER16-1901-009; ER16-1955-009; ER16-1956-009; ER16-1973-009; ER16-2201-008; ER16-2224-008; ER16-2541-008; ER16-2578-009; ER16-468-009; ER16-474-010; ER16-890-010; ER17-1864-007; ER17-1871-007; ER17-1909-007; ER17-306-008; ER17-544-008; ER18-1667-002; ER18-2327-001; ER18-2492-003; ER19-846-002; ER19-847-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Antelope Big Sky Ranch LLC, Antelope DSR 1, LLC, Antelope DSR 2, LLC, Antelope DSR 3, LLC, Antelope Expansion 2, LLC, Bayshore Solar A, LLC, Bayshore Solar B, LLC, Bayshore Solar C, LLC, Beacon Solar 1, LLC, Beacon Solar 3, LLC, Beacon Solar 4, LLC, Central Antelope Dry Ranch C LLC, Elevation Solar C LLC, FTS Master Tenant 1, LLC, FTS Master Tenant 2, LLC, ID Solar 1, LLC, Latigo Wind Park, LLC, North Lancaster Ranch LLC, Riverhead Solar Farm, LLC, San Pablo Raceway, LLC, Sandstone Solar LLC, Solverde 1, LLC, Summer Solar LLC, Sierra Solar Greenworks, LLC, Pioneer Wind Park I, LLC, Western Antelope Blue Sky Ranch A LLC, Western Antelope Blue Sky Ranch B LLC, Western Antelope Dry Ranch LLC, 65HK 8me LLC, 67RK 8me LLC, 87RL 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of Antelope Big Sky Ranch LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/17/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190517-5228.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/7/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1904-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Nevada Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: OATT Revision to Tarifffs 05.20.19 to be effective 5/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/20/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190520-5111.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/10/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1905-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C., Duke Energy Progress, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to the Duke Energy Progress/PJM Joint Operating Agreement to be effective 7/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/20/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190520-5112.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/10/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1906-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Cancellation: Notice of Cancellation of WMPA SA No. 4693; Queue No. AA2-130 to be effective 6/15/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/20/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190520-5129.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/10/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1907-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2824R6 KMEA &amp; Sunflower Meter Agent Agreement to be effective 5/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5021.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24502"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1908-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 3552 TEA and MEAN Meter Agent Agreement to be effective 5/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5022.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1909-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of Colorado.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: PSCo-TSGT-UPA-Slvr Sdl SS COM Agrmt 478—0.0.0 to be effective 5/22/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1911-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     The United Illuminating Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Localized Costs Sharing Agreement No. 19 to be effective 4/1/2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     5/21/19.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20190521-5066.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 6/11/19.
                </P>
                <P>The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.</P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nathaniel J. Davis, Sr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11156 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-ORD-2012-0830; FRL-9994-24-ORD]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Availability of the Updated Problem Formulation and Protocol for the Inorganic Arsenic IRIS Assessment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing a 30-day public comment period associated with the release of the Updated Problem Formulation and Protocol for the Inorganic Arsenic IRIS Assessment. This document summarizes the Agency needs for the assessment and presents the refined focus based on problem formulation activities conducted since the last assessment plan released to the National Academy of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NAS) in 2015. EPA is releasing this document for public comment in advance of an NAS public meeting on July 16, 2019.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The 30-day public comment period begins May 28, 2019 and ends June 27, 2019. Comments must be received on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Updated Problem Formulation and Protocol document will be available via the internet on IRIS' website at 
                        <E T="03">https://cfpub.epa.gov/ncea/iris2/chemicalLanding.cfm?&amp;substance_nmbr=278</E>
                         and in the public docket at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         Docket ID: EPA-HQ-ORD-2012-0830.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For information on the docket, contact the ORD Docket at the EPA Headquarters Docket Center; telephone: 202-566-1752; facsimile: 202-566-9744; or email: Docket_ORD@epa.gov.</P>
                    <P>
                        For technical information on the protocol, contact Dr. James Avery, NCEA; telephone: 202-564-1494; or email: 
                        <E T="03">avery.james@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Information on the IRIS Program and Systematic Review Protocols</HD>
                <P>EPA's IRIS Program is a human health assessment program that evaluates quantitative and qualitative risk information on effects that may result from exposure to chemicals found in the environment. Through the IRIS Program, EPA strives to provide high quality science-based human health assessments to support the Agency's regulatory activities and decisions to protect public health.</P>
                <P>The IRIS Program is developing an updated Toxicological Review of Inorganic Arsenic. Given the size and complexity of the evidence base for this chemical, input on the scope of this assessment has been sought from the National Academy of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine (NAS), EPA Program and Regional Offices, other federal agencies, and public stakeholders to help focus the objectives of the assessment and ensure it is transparently conducted. The Updated Problem Formulation and Protocol summarizes the Agency's need for the assessment and presents the refined focus based on problem formulation activities conducted since the last assessment plan released to the NAS in 2015. In July 2019, an NAS ad hoc committee will conduct a peer review of the revised scope of the assessment and determine whether the proposed methods are appropriate to synthesize the scientific evidence and develop conclusions. The peer review charge questions will be available in the docket prior to the NAS meeting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                    II. How To Submit Technical Comments to the Docket at 
                    <E T="7462">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                </HD>
                <P>Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-ORD-2012-0830 for Inorganic Arsenic, by one of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov:</E>
                     Follow the on-line instructions for submitting comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Email: Docket_ORD@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                     202-566-9744.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                     U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Docket Center (ORD Docket), Mail Code: 28221T, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460. The phone number is 202-566-1752.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                     The ORD Docket is located in the EPA Headquarters Docket Center, EPA West Building, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20004.
                </P>
                <P>The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is 202-566-1744. Deliveries are only accepted during the docket's normal hours of operation, and special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. If you provide comments by mail or hand delivery, please submit three copies of the comments. For attachments, provide an index, number pages consecutively with the comments, and submit an unbound original and three copies.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     Direct your comments to Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-ORD-2012-0830 for Inorganic Arsenic. Please ensure that your comments are submitted within the specified comment period. Comments received after the closing date will be marked “late,” and may only be considered if time permits. It is EPA's policy to include all comments it receives in the public docket without change and to make the comments available online at 
                    <E T="03">
                        https://
                        <PRTPAGE P="24503"/>
                        www.regulations.gov,
                    </E>
                     including any personal information provided, unless a comment includes information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information for which disclosure is restricted by statute. Do not submit information through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or email that you consider to be CBI or otherwise protected. The 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website is an “anonymous access” system, which means EPA will not know your identity or contact information unless you provide it in the body of your comment. If you send an email comment directly to EPA without going through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     your email address will be automatically captured and included as part of the comment that is placed in the public docket and made available on the internet. If you submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name and other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD-ROM you submit. If EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA may not be able to consider your comment. Electronic files should avoid the use of special characters, any form of encryption, and be free of any defects or viruses. For additional information about EPA's public docket visit the EPA Docket Center homepage at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other materials, such as copyrighted material, are publicly available only in hard copy. Publicly available docket materials are available either electronically in 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or hard copy at the ORD Docket in the EPA Headquarters Docket Center.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 16, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tina Bahadori,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, National Center for Environmental Assessment. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11072 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0828; FRL9994-23-OW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Final Modification to National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) General Permit for Stormwater Discharges From Construction Activities</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final permit modification.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All ten of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Regions today are issuing a final modification to the 2017 National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) general permit for stormwater discharges from construction activities, also referred to as the “2017 Construction General Permit (CGP)” or “2017 CGP,” which became effective on February 16, 2017. The modified permit, hereinafter known as the “modified 2017 CGP” or “final modified permit,” replaces several conditions in the original 2017 CGP and relevant fact sheet sections. The scope of the modification is limited to only these conditions; all other conditions remain the same. The permit term also remains the same, meaning the modified 2017 CGP will still expire on February 16, 2022. This 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice describes the final permit modification and changes that were made from the proposed modified permit to the final modified permit based on public comments. The modified 2017 CGP and accompanying fact sheet can be found in the Docket (EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0828) as well as on the EPA's construction stormwater website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/npdes/stormwater-discharges-construction-activities.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The modified 2017 CGP will become effective on June 27, 2019. In accordance with 40 CFR part 23, specifically 23.2, this modified permit shall be considered issued for the purpose of judicial review on May 28, 2019. Under section 509(b) of the Clean Water Act, judicial review of this modified general permit can be requested by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals within 120 days after the modified permit is considered issued. Under section 509(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, this modified permit may not be challenged later in civil or criminal proceedings to enforce this permit. In addition, this modified permit may not be challenged in any other agency proceedings. Deadlines for submittal of Notices of Intent are provided in Part 1.4.3 of the permit. The permit also provides additional dates for compliance with the terms of the permit.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information on the permit, contact the appropriate EPA Regional office listed in Section I.F of this notice, or Emily Halter, EPA Headquarters, Office of Water, Office of Wastewater Management at tel.: 202-564-3324 or email: 
                        <E T="03">halter.emily@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This section is organized as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. General Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Does this Action Apply to Me?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. How Can I Get Copies of these Documents and Other Related Information?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Who are the EPA Regional Contacts for the Final Modified Permit?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background on the Permit and Final Modification</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary of the Final Modification</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Analysis of Economic Impacts</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Executive Order 12898: Federal Actions To Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Entities Covered by This Permit</HD>
                <P>
                    The scope of EPA's action to modify the 2017 CGP did not include the types of entities eligible to be covered under the original 2017 CGP. The CGP continues to be available to cover the following entities, as categorized in the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS):
                    <PRTPAGE P="24504"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Entities Covered by This Permit</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Examples of affected entities</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            North 
                            <LI>American </LI>
                            <LI>Industry Classification System (NAICS) code</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Industry</ENT>
                        <ENT A="01">Construction site operators disturbing 1 or more acres of land, or less than 1 acre but part of a larger common plan of development or sale if the larger common plan will ultimately disturb 1 acre or more, and performing the following activities:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Construction of Buildings</ENT>
                        <ENT>236</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Heavy and Civil Engineering Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>237</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The EPA does not intend the preceding table to be exhaustive, but provides it as a guide for readers regarding the types of activities of which the Agency is now aware that could potentially be affected by this action. Other types of entities not listed in the table could also be affected. To determine whether your site could be affected by this action, you should carefully examine the definition of “construction activity” and “small construction activity” in existing EPA regulations at 40 CFR 122.26(b)(14)(x) and 122.26(b)(15), respectively. If you have questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed for technical information in the preceding 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Coverage Area of the Permit</HD>
                <P>The scope of EPA's action to modify the 2017 CGP did not include the coverage area of the permit under the original 2017 CGP. Coverage remains available to operators of eligible projects for stormwater discharges from construction activities located in those areas where the EPA is the NPDES permitting authority. A list of eligible areas can be found in Appendix B of the modified 2017 CGP and includes the states of New Hampshire, Massachusetts, New Mexico, and Idaho, as well as most Indian country lands, and areas in selected states operated by a federal operator. Permit coverage is also available to operators in Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, and the Pacific Island territories, among others.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get copies of these documents and other related information?</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket.</E>
                     The EPA has established an official public docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0828. The official public docket is the collection of materials that is available for public viewing at the Water Docket in the EPA Docket Center, (EPA/DC) WJC West Building, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460. Although all documents in the docket are listed in an index, some information is not publicly available, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Publicly available docket materials are available in hard copy at the EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room, open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744 and the telephone number for the Water Docket is (202) 566-2426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access.</E>
                     You may access this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice electronically through the United States government on-line source for Federal regulations at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Electronic versions of this final modified permit and accompanying fact sheet are available on the EPA's NPDES website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/npdes/stormwater-discharges-construction-activities.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    An electronic version of the public docket is available through the EPA's electronic public docket and comment system, EPA Dockets. You may use EPA Dockets at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     to view public comments, access the index listing of the contents of the official public docket, and to access those documents in the public docket that are available electronically. For additional information about the EPA's public docket, visit the Agency's Docket Center homepage at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                     Although not all docket materials may be available electronically, you may still access any of the publicly available docket materials through the Docket Facility identified in Section I.B.1.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Who are the EPA regional contacts for the final modified permit?</HD>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 1, contact Suzanne Warner at tel.: (617) 918-1383 or email at 
                    <E T="03">warner.suzanne@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 2, contact Stephen Venezia at tel.: (212) 637-3856 or email at 
                    <E T="03">venezia.stephen@epa.gov,</E>
                     or for Puerto Rico, contact Sergio Bosques at tel.: (787) 977-5838 or email at 
                    <E T="03">bosques.sergio@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 3, contact Carissa Moncavage at tel.: (215) 814-5798 or email at 
                    <E T="03">moncavage.carissa@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 4, contact Michael Mitchell at tel.: (404) 562-9303 or email at 
                    <E T="03">mitchell.michael@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 5, contact Brian Bell at tel.: (312) 886-0981 or email at 
                    <E T="03">bell.brianc@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 6, contact Suzanna Perea at tel.: (214) 665-7217 or email at: 
                    <E T="03">perea.suzanna@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 7, contact Mark Matthews at tel.: (913) 551-7635 or email at: 
                    <E T="03">matthews.mark@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 8, contact Amy Clark at tel.: (303) 312-7014 or email at: 
                    <E T="03">clark.amy@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 9, contact Eugene Bromley at tel.: (415) 972-3510 or email at 
                    <E T="03">bromley.eugene@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For EPA Region 10, contact Margaret McCauley at tel.: (206) 553-1772 or email at 
                    <E T="03">mccauley.margaret@epa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background on the Permit and Final Modification</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 402(p) of the Clean Water Act (CWA) directs the EPA to regulate certain stormwater discharges under the NPDES program, including discharges from regulated construction sites. The EPA's NPDES regulations further specify that permits are required for stormwater discharges from construction activities that disturb at least one acre, including smaller sites that are part of a larger common plan of development or sale that will ultimately disturb at least one acre. See 40 CFR 122.26(a)(1)(ii), (a)(9)(i)(B), (b)(14)(x), and (b)(15)(i). Under the statutory and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24505"/>
                    regulatory authority cited above, the EPA issued the original 2017 CGP on January 19, 2017 (82 FR 6534) and the permit became effective on February 16, 2017.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with 40 CFR 23.2, the original 2017 CGP was considered issued for the purposes of judicial review on January 25, 2017. Within the 120-day period of judicial review under section 509(b) of the CWA, both the National Association of Home Builders (NAHB) and the Chesapeake Bay Foundation (CBF) filed petitions for review of the original 2017 CGP in the United States Court of Appeals in the D.C. Circuit.</P>
                <P>After receiving the petitions for review, the EPA engaged in multiple discussions with both NAHB and CBF in which the parties discussed their concerns and provided new information to the Agency on how certain permit requirements might be misinterpreted by construction site operators permitted under the original 2017 CGP. Under 40 CFR 122.62(a)(2), the EPA may modify a permit if the Agency is presented with new information during the permit term that was not available at the time of issuance and would have justified the application of different permit conditions at the time of issuance. Based on the information the petitioners provided to the EPA following the issuance of the original 2017 CGP, the Agency proposed a permit modification for a 45-day public comment period beginning on December 12, 2018 and ending on January 28, 2019. The purpose of the proposed modification was to clarify the Agency's intent of certain permit requirements.</P>
                <P>In the proposed permit modification, the EPA proposed to remove examples of operators in the definition of operator; align three permit requirements that implement the Effluent Limitations Guidelines (ELGs) and New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) for Construction and Development (40 CFR part 450) (referred to collectively as “the C&amp;D rule”) more closely with the ELG text; and clarify the roles and responsibilities of individual operators on construction sites with multiple operators. The proposed changes were intended to simplify the permit language and accompanying fact sheet explanation without changing the underlying requirements, applicability, implementation, or enforceability of the original permit's requirements. Only those requirements that the EPA proposed to modify were reopened in the proposed modified permit for public comment (40 CFR 122.62).</P>
                <P>The final modified 2017 CGP is substantially similar to the proposed modified permit. The final modified 2017 CGP replaces several existing conditions in the original 2017 CGP and relevant fact sheet sections, but retains all other terms and conditions of the original permit unchanged. For instance, the modified 2017 CGP does not affect the eligible coverage area, the number or type of entities eligible to be covered by the permit, nor the five-year permit term of the original 2017 CGP, meaning the modified 2017 CGP will still expire on February 16, 2022. The final modification is summarized in more detail below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary of the Final Modification</HD>
                <P>During the public comment period for the proposed permit modification, the EPA received a total of 14 comment letters. Three industry groups, one environmental group, three states, and seven anonymous commenters submitted comments to the Agency. The majority of comments were generally supportive of the proposed modification, with some commenters suggesting further changes to the wording or phrasing of some elements of the proposed modification. The EPA considered all comments before finalizing the permit modification. The EPA's response to comments is available in the Docket (EPA-HQ-OW-2015-0828). The modified 2017 CGP contains the following finalized changes from the original 2017 CGP:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Removed examples in the definition of “operator”</E>
                    —The EPA removed two parenthetical examples that appeared in Part 1.1.1 of the original 2017 CGP showing examples of the type of entity that would be considered an “operator” and therefore would be eligible for coverage under the permit. The EPA has determined after further consideration that providing these examples may cause unintended confusion since there may be instances where a party technically fits the description used in the example yet would not qualify as an operator as intended by the permit. Therefore, rather than suggesting who might be considered an operator “in most cases,” the EPA removed the examples from both Part 1.1.1(a) and (b) so that entities determining if they should seek permit coverage under the modified 2017 CGP can focus solely on the substantive definition of operator. See Part 1.1.1 of the final modified permit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Aligned language of three requirements with the C&amp;D rule</E>
                    —The EPA adjusted the wording of two erosion and sediment control requirements and one pollution prevention requirement in the permit to clarify their intent and to align their text with the C&amp;D ELG at 40 CFR part 450. See Part 2.2.6 on minimizing dust; Part 2.2.11 on minimizing channel and streambank erosion and scour in the immediate vicinity of discharge points; and Part 2.3.3(a) on storage, handling, and disposal of building products, materials, and wastes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Clarified individual operator responsibility in multiple operator arrangements</E>
                    —The EPA clarified an individual operator's legal responsibility for permit compliance in situations where there are multiple operators who divide permit responsibilities among themselves. In particular, the EPA removed references to “joint and several liability” from the original permit since they may have provided, in the Agency's view, an inaccurate explanation of what the permit compliance duties are for multiple operators who share implementation responsibilities under the permit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the EPA clarified that, where multiple operators divide permit responsibilities among themselves, each operator remains responsible for compliance with the permit, but that they do not have to duplicate those permit-related functions if one of the other operators is appropriately implementing the relevant requirement in full compliance with the permit. The EPA received some public comments indicating that the italicized part of the following sentence proposed in the permit footnote 52 and in the fact sheet may be construed in ways that the EPA did not intend: “Regardless of whether there is a group SWPPP or multiple individual SWPPPs, each operator is responsible for compliance with the permit's terms and conditions, 
                    <E T="03">notwithstanding how the SWPPP(s) may divide each operator's responsibilities.”</E>
                     Given that this phrase is not imperative to the objective of the sentence, which describes that all operators have an individual responsibility to comply with the permit, the EPA agreed to remove it in the final modified permit. Additionally, the EPA added the “Operator A/B” example that was proposed in the fact sheet, which explains how operators do not have to duplicate divided responsibilities, to the permit footnote 52 to reinforce the Agency's position. The example reads, “In other words, if Operator A relies on Operator B to satisfy its permit obligations, Operator A does not have to duplicate those permit-related functions if Operator B is implementing them for both operators to be in compliance with the permit. However, Operator A 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24506"/>
                    remains responsible for permit compliance if Operator B fails to implement any measures necessary for Operator A to comply with the permit.” See Part 1.1.1, footnote 1; Part 7.1, footnote 52; and Appendix A definition for “shared control”; and the accompanying fact sheet explanation for these Parts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Analysis of Economic Impacts</HD>
                <P>Due to the narrow scope of this permit modification and the focus on clarifying the intent of certain requirements rather than changing the underlying requirement itself, the EPA does not expect any change in economic impact from this permit modification. It is therefore unnecessary for the EPA to revise the economic analysis that was prepared for the original 2017 CGP. A copy of the EPA's economic analysis, titled “Cost Impact Analysis for the 2017 Construction General Permit (CGP),” is available in the docket for this permit modification.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) determined that this action is not significant under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Executive Order 12898: Federal Actions To Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations</HD>
                <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12898 (59 FR 7629 (February 16, 1994)) establishes federal executive policy on environmental justice. Its main provision directs federal agencies, to the greatest extent practicable and permitted by law, to make environmental justice part of their mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income populations in the United States.</P>
                <P>Consistent with the EPA's previous determination for the original 2017 CGP, this final modification to the 2017 CGP will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations because the requirements in the modified permit apply equally to all construction projects that disturb one or more acres in areas where the Agency is the permitting authority, and the erosion and sediment control provisions increase the level of environmental protection for all affected populations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. It does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.</P>
                <P>
                    In compliance with Executive Order 13175, the EPA consulted with tribal officials during the development of the original 2017 CGP to gain an understanding of and, where necessary, address any areas of the original draft permit that may affect tribal interest. In the course of this consultation, the EPA conducted several outreach activities with tribal officials which are detailed in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice for the final 2017 CGP (82 FR 6534). During the finalization of the original 2017 CGP, the EPA also completed the CWA Section 401 certification procedures with all applicable tribes where the permit applies (see Appendix B of the modified 2017 CGP).
                </P>
                <P>As part of the proposal for this modification, the EPA reviewed the tribal conditions that were incorporated into the original 2017 CGP under Section 401 certifications to identify any requirements that the proposed action might affect. See Part 9 of the original 2017 CGP. Only two tribal conditions referenced a permit requirement that was the subject of the proposed modification, Part 2.2.11 (Minimize erosion of stormwater conveyance channels and their embankments . . .). The EPA also completed the CWA Section 401 certification procedures with all applicable tribes where the permit applies for the final permit modification. Due to the narrow scope of the permit modification and the focus on clarifying the intent of certain requirements rather than changing the underlying requirement itself, the EPA determined that the final action will not change the interpretation or implementation of the tribal conditions referencing Part 2.2.11, and therefore any tribal impacts from this modification will be limited.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Deborah A. Szaro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Regional Administrator, EPA Region 1.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeff Gratz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Water Division, EPA Region 2.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jose C. Font,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Caribbean Environmental Protection Division, EPA Region 2.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Catharine McManus,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Water Division, EPA Region 3.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeaneanne M. Gettle,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 4.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Joan M. Tanaka,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Water Division, EPA Region 5.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Charles W. Maguire,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 6.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffery Robichaud,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 7.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darcy O'Connor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 8.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tomás Torres,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 9.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 14, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Daniel D. Opalski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Water Division, EPA Region 10.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11075 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FRL-9994-45-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Allocations of Cross-State Air Pollution Rule Allowances From New Unit Set-Asides for 2019 Control Periods</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of data availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is providing notice of the availability of data on emission allowance allocations to certain units under the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) trading programs. EPA has completed preliminary calculations for the first round of allocations of allowances from the CSAPR new unit set-asides (NUSAs) for the 2019 control periods and has posted spreadsheets 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24507"/>
                        containing the calculations on EPA's website. EPA will consider timely objections to the preliminary calculations (including objections concerning the identification of units eligible for allocations) before determining the final amounts of the first-round allocations.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Objections to the information referenced in this document must be received on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your objections via email to 
                        <E T="03">CSAPR_NUSA@epa.gov.</E>
                         Include “2019 NUSA allocations” in the email subject line and include your name, title, affiliation, address, phone number, and email address in the body of the email.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Questions concerning this action should be addressed to Kenon Smith at (202) 343-9164 or 
                        <E T="03">smith.kenon@epa.gov</E>
                         or Jason Kuhns at (202) 564-3236 or 
                        <E T="03">kuhns.jason@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under each CSAPR trading program where EPA is responsible for determining emission allowance allocations, a portion of each state's emissions budget for the program for each control period is reserved in a NUSA (and in an additional Indian country NUSA in the case of states with Indian country within their borders) for allocation to certain units that would not otherwise receive allowance allocations. The procedures for identifying the eligible units for each control period and for allocating allowances from the NUSAs and Indian country NUSAs to these units are set forth in the CSAPR trading program regulations at 40 CFR 97.411(b) and 97.412 (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Annual), 97.511(b) and 97.512 (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season Group 1), 97.611(b) and 97.612 (SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Group 1), 97.711(b) and 97.712 (SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Group 2), and 97.811(b) and 97.812 (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season Group 2). Each NUSA allowance allocation process involves up to two rounds of allocations to eligible units, termed “new” units, followed by the allocation to “existing” units of any allowances not allocated to new units.
                </P>
                <P>This document concerns preliminary calculations for the first round of NUSA allowance allocations for the 2019 control periods. Generally, the allocation procedures call for each eligible unit to receive a first-round 2019 NUSA allocation equal to its 2018 control period emissions as reported under 40 CFR part 75 unless the total of such allocations to all eligible units would exceed the amount of allowances in the NUSA, in which case the allocations are reduced on a pro-rata basis. EPA notes that, under 40 CFR 97.406(c)(3), 97.506(c)(3), 97.606(c)(3), 97.706(c)(3), and 97.806(c)(3), a unit's emissions occuring before its monitor certification deadline are not considered to have occurred during a control period and consequently are not included in the emission amounts used to determine NUSA allocations.</P>
                <P>
                    The detailed unit-by-unit data and preliminary allowance allocation calculations are set forth in Excel spreadsheets titled “CSAPR_NUSA_2019_NOx_Annual_1st_Round_Prelim_Data”, “CSAPR_NUSA_2019_NOx_OS_1st_Round_Prelim_Data”, and “CSAPR_NUSA_2019_SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    _1st_Round_Prelim_Data,” available on EPA's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/csapr/new-unit-set-aside-notices-data-availability-nusa-noda-cross-state-air-pollution-rule.</E>
                     Each of the spreadsheets contains a separate worksheet for each state covered by that program showing, for each unit identified as eligible for a first-round NUSA allocation, (1) the unit's emissions in the 2018 control period (annual or ozone season as applicable), (2) the maximum first-round 2019 NUSA allowance allocation for which the unit is eligible (typically the unit's emissions in the 2018 control period), (3) various adjustments to the unit's maximum allocation, many of which are necessary only if the NUSA pool is oversubscribed, and (4) the preliminary calculation of the unit's first-round 2019 NUSA allowance allocation.
                </P>
                <P>Each state worksheet also contains a summary showing (1) the quantity of allowances initially available in that state's 2019 NUSA, (2) the sum of the first-round 2019 NUSA allowance allocations that will be made to new units in that state, assuming there are no corrections to the data, and (3) the quantity of allowances that would remain in the 2019 NUSA for use in second-round allocations to new units (or ultimately for allocation to existing units), again assuming there are no corrections to the data.</P>
                <P>
                    Objections should be strictly limited to the data and calculations upon which the NUSA allowance allocations are based and should be emailed to the address identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Objections must include: (1) Precise identification of the specific data and/or calculations the commenter believes are inaccurate, (2) new proposed data and/or calculations upon which the commenter believes EPA should rely instead to determine allowance allocations, and (3) the reasons why EPA should rely on the commenter's proposed data and/or calculations and not the data referenced in this document.
                </P>
                <P>EPA notes that an allocation or lack of allocation of allowances to a given unit does not constitute a determination that CSAPR does or does not apply to the unit. EPA also notes that, under 40 CFR 97.411(c), 97.511(c), 97.611(c), 97.711(c), and 97.811(c), allocations are subject to potential correction if a unit to which allowances have been allocated for a given control period is not actually an affected unit as of the start of that control period.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>40 CFR 97.411(b), 97.511(b), 97.611(b), 97.711(b), and 97.811(b).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 1, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Reid P. Harvey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Clean Air Markets Division, Office of Atmospheric Programs, Office of Air and Radiation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11167 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2019-0058; FRL-9994-09]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pesticide Program Dialogue Committee; Request for Nominations to the Pesticide Program Dialogue Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA's) Office of Pesticide Programs is inviting nominations from a diverse range of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment to the Pesticide Program Dialogue Committee (PPDC). The PPDC is chartered to provide policy advice, information, and recommendations to the EPA on a wide variety of pesticide regulatory developments and reform initiatives, evolving public policy, and program implementation issues associated with evaluating and reducing risks from pesticide use. To maintain the representation outlined by the charter, nominees will be selected to represent: Environmental/public interest and animal rights groups; farm worker organizations; pesticide industry and trade associations; pesticide user, grower, and commodity groups; federal/state/local and tribal governments; academia; and public health organizations. Vacancies are expected to be filled by September 2019. Sources in addition to this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice may be utilized in the solicitation of nominees.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Nominations should be submitted no later than June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit nominations in the format and containing the information specified in Unit III., identified by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24508"/>
                        “PPDC Membership 2019” in the subject line, using one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronically (preferred):</E>
                         By email to 
                        <E T="03">jewell.shannon@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         By mail to: Shannon Jewell, PPDC Designated Federal Officer, Office of Pesticide Programs (7501P), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shannon Jewell, Designated Federal Officer for the PPDC, telephone number: (703) 3347-0109; email address: 
                        <E T="03">jewell.shannon@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>
                    This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of particular interest to persons who work in agricultural settings or persons who are concerned about implementation of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), 7 U.S.C. 136 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     the amendments to both of these major pesticide laws by the Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA) of 1996, Public Law 104-170 (1996); and the series of Pesticide Registration Improvement Act (PRIA) amendments, including PRIA4, Public Law 116-8 (2019). Potentially affected entities may include, but are not limited to: Agricultural workers and farmers; pesticide industry and trade associations; environmental, consumer, and farmworker groups; pesticide users and growers; animal rights groups; pest consultants; State, local and Tribal governments; academia; public health organizations; and the public. If you have questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get copies of this document and other related information?</HD>
                <P>
                    The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2019-0058, is available at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Office of Pesticide Programs Regulatory Public Docket (OPP Docket) in the Environmental Protection Agency Docket Center (EPA/DC), West William Jefferson Clinton Bldg., Rm. 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001. The Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744, and the telephone number for the OPP Docket is (703) 305-5805. Please review the visitor instructions and additional information about the docket available at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>The PPDC is a federal advisory committee chartered under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C. Appendix 2. EPA established the PPDC in September 1995 to provide policy advice, information and recommendations to the EPA Administrator through the Director of the Office of Pesticide Programs, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention. The PPDC provides a public forum to discuss a wide variety of pesticide regulatory developments and reform initiatives, evolving public policy and program implementation issues associated with evaluating and reducing risks from the use of pesticides. The EPA will consider candidates from the following sectors: Environmental/public interest and animal rights groups; farm worker organizations; pesticide industry and trade associations; pesticide user, grower, and commodity groups; federal and state/local/tribal governments; the general public; academia; and public health organizations.</P>
                <P>The PPDC usually meets face-to-face twice a year, generally in the spring and the fall. Additionally, members may be asked to serve on work groups to develop recommendations to address specific policy issues. The average workload for members is approximately 4 to 6 hours per month. PPDC members may receive travel and per diem allowances where appropriate and according to applicable federal travel regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Nominations</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA values and welcomes diversity. In an effort to obtain nominations of diverse candidates, the agency encourages nominations of women and men of all racial and ethnic groups. All nominations will be fully considered, but applicants need to be aware of the specific representation sought as outlined in the Summary above. Any interested person or organization may nominate qualified persons to be considered for appointment to this advisory committee. Individuals may self-nominate. Nominations may be submitted in electronic format (preferred) or mailed in accordance with the instructions under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>To be considered, all nominations should include the following information:</P>
                <P>• Current contact information for the nominee, including the nominee's name, organization (and position within that organization), current business address, email address, and daytime telephone number;</P>
                <P>• Brief Statement describing the nominee's interest and availability in serving on the PPDC;</P>
                <P>• Résumé and a short biography (no more than 2 paragraphs) describing the professional and educational qualifications of the nominee, including a list of relevant activities, or any current or previous experience on advisory committees; and</P>
                <P>• Letter[s] of recommendation from a third party supporting the nomination. The letter should describe how the nominee's experience and knowledge will bring value to the work of the PPDC.</P>
                <P>
                    Other sources, in addition to this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, may also be utilized in the solicitation of nominees.
                </P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>5 U.S.C. Appendix 2.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Richard Keigwin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11010 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FRL-9994-03-ORD]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Ambient Air Monitoring Reference and Equivalent Methods; Designation of One New Reference Method</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of the designation of a new reference method for monitoring ambient air quality.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has designated one new reference method for measuring concentrations of carbon monoxide (CO) in ambient air.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Vanderpool, Exposure Methods and Measurement Division (MD-D205-03), National Exposure Research Laboratory, U.S. EPA, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711. Phone: 919-541-7877. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Vanderpool.Robert@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with regulations at 40 CFR part 53, the EPA evaluates various methods for monitoring the concentrations of those ambient air 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24509"/>
                    pollutants for which EPA has established National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) as set forth in 40 CFR part 50. Monitoring methods that are determined to meet specific requirements for adequacy are designated by the EPA as either reference or equivalent methods (as applicable), thereby permitting their use under 40 CFR part 58 by States and other agencies for determining compliance with the NAAQS. A list of all reference or equivalent methods that have been previously designated by EPA may be found at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/ttn/amtic/criteria.html.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The EPA hereby announces the designation of one new reference method for measuring concentrations of CO in ambient air. This designation is made under the provisions of 40 CFR part 53, as amended on October 26, 2015(80 FR 65291-65468).</P>
                <P>The new reference method for CO is an automated method (analyzer) utilizing the measurement principle based on non-dispersive infrared (NDIR) spectroscopy. This newly designated reference method is identified as follows:</P>
                <P>RFCA-0419-252, “Focused Photonics Inc. AQMS-400 CO Analyzer” non-dispersive infrared (NDIR) analyzer operated in the range of 0-50 ppm, with 5 µm, 47 mm diameter Teflon®(PTFE) filter installed, operated at temperatures between 20 °C and 30 °C, at nominal input line voltage of 220±10% VAC and frequency of 50 Hz, at a nominal sampling flow rate of 800±80 cc/min, and operated according to the FPI AQMS-400 User Manual.”</P>
                <P>This application for a reference method determination for this CO method was received by the Office of Research and Development on April 10, 2017. This analyzer is commercially available from the applicant, Focused Photonics Inc. (FPI), 760 Bin`an Road, Binjiang District, Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.</P>
                <P>A representative test analyzer was tested in accordance with the applicable test procedures specified in 40 CFR part 53, as amended on October 26, 2015. After reviewing the results of those tests and other information submitted by the applicant, EPA has determined, in accordance with part 53, that this method should be designated as a reference method.</P>
                <P>
                    As a designated reference method, this method is acceptable for use by states and other air monitoring agencies under the requirements of 40 CFR part 58, Ambient Air Quality Surveillance. For such purposes, this method must be used in strict accordance with the operation or instruction manual associated with the method and subject to any specifications and limitations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     configuration or operational settings) specified in the designated method description (see the identification of the method above).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Use of the method also should be in general accordance with the guidance and recommendations of applicable sections of the “Quality Assurance Handbook for Air Pollution Measurement Systems, Volume I,” EPA/600/R-94/038a and “Quality Assurance Handbook for Air Pollution Measurement Systems, Volume II, Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Program,” EPA-454/B-13-003, (both available at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/ttn/amtic/qalist.html</E>
                    ). Provisions concerning modification of such methods by users are specified under Section 2.8 (Modifications of Methods by Users) of Appendix C to 40 CFR part 58.
                </P>
                <P>Consistent or repeated noncompliance with any of these conditions should be reported to: Director, Exposure Methods and Measurement Division (MD-E205-01), National Exposure Research Laboratory, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711.</P>
                <P>Designation of this reference method is intended to assist the States in establishing and operating their air quality surveillance systems under 40 CFR part 58. Questions concerning the commercial availability or technical aspects of the method should be directed to the applicant.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 10, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Timothy Watkins,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, National Exposure Research Laboratory.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11073 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-0405, OMB 3060-XXXX]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to Office of Management and Budget</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”</P>
                    <P>The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be submitted on or before June 27, 2019. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so with the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email 
                        <E T="03">Nicholas_A._Fraser@OMB.eop.gov;</E>
                         and to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">Cathy.Williams@fcc.gov.</E>
                         Include in the comments the OMB control number as shown in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the web page 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         (2) look for the section of the web page called “Currently Under Review,” (3) click on the downward-pointing arrow in the “Select Agency” box below the “Currently Under Review” heading, (4) select “Federal Communications Commission” from the list of agencies presented in the “Select Agency” box, (5) click the “Submit” button to the right of the “Select Agency” box, (6) when the list of FCC ICRs currently under review appears, look for the Title of this ICR and then click on the ICR Reference Number. A copy of the FCC submission to OMB will be displayed.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24510"/>
                    for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-XXXX.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Sections 74.1203(a)(3), Interference, and 74.1204(f), Protection of FM broadcast, FM Translator and LP100 stations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities; Not-for-profit institutions; State, Local or Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     270 respondents; 270 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     3-5 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Third party disclosure requirement and on occasion reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     1,080 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $924,100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in Sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 316, and 319 of the Communications Act, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), 301, 303, 307, 308, 309, 316, and 319.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Nature and Extent of Confidentiality:</E>
                     There is no need for confidentiality with this collection of information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy Act Impact Assessment:</E>
                     No impact(s).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On May 9, 2019, the Commission adopted a Report and Order, Amendment of Part 74 of the Commission's Rules Regarding FM Translator Interference, FCC 19-40, MB Docket No. 18-119 (FM Translator Interference Report and Order), adopting proposals to streamline the rules relating to interference caused by FM translators and to expedite the translator interference complaint resolution process. These measures are designed to limit or avoid protracted and contentious interference disputes, provide translator licensees additional investment certainty and flexibility to remediate interference, and provide affected stations earlier and expedited resolution of interference complaints. Under this new information collection, the following information collection requirements require OMB approval.
                </P>
                <P>Specifically, the FM Translator Interference Report and Order pertains to this new Information Collection as it codifies the translator interference listener complaint requirements under section 74.1201(k) and sections 74.1203(a)(3) (actual interference) and 74.1204(f) (predicted interference) of the rules. The Commission defines the requirements for a listener complaint submitted with a translator interference claim in section 74.1201(k) as a complaint that is signed and dated by the listener and contains the following information: (1) The complainant's full name, address, and phone number; (2) a clear, concise, and accurate description of the location where the interference is alleged to occur; (3) a statement that the complainant listens to the desired station using an over-the-air signal at least twice a month, to demonstrate the complainant is a regular listener; and (4) a statement that the complainant has no legal, employment, financial, or familial affiliation or relationship with the desired station, to demonstrate the complainant is disinterested. Electronic signatures are acceptable for this purpose.</P>
                <P>The FM Translator Interference Report and Order establishes a minimum number of listener complaints ranging from 6 to 25 depending on the population served within the protected contour of the complaining station. The Commission explains that a proportionate approach, which was supported by multiple commenters, would be fairer and more effective than a single minimum number for all complaining stations. In addition to the required minimum number of valid listener statements, a station submitting a translator interference claim package pursuant to either section 74.1203(a)(3) or 74.1204(f) must include: (1) A map plotting the specific locations of the alleged interference in relation to the 45 dBu contour of the complaining station; (2) a statement that the complaining station is operating within its licensed parameters; (3) a statement that the complaining station licensee has used commercially reasonable efforts to inform the relevant translator licensee of the claimed interference and attempted private resolution; and (4) U/D data demonstrating that at each listener location the ratio of undesired to desired signal strength exceeds −20 dB for co-channel situations, −6 dB for first-adjacent channel situations or 40 dB for second- or third-adjacent channel situations, calculated using the Commission's standard contour prediction methodology set out in Section 73.313.</P>
                <P>
                    In the FM Translator Interference Report and Order, the Commission outlines two paths for resolving interference if the translator decides to continue operation on its original channel. First, a translator operator may resolve each listener complaint by working with a willing listener to resolve reception issues. The translator operator must then document and certify that the desired station can now be heard on the listener's receiver, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     that the adjustment to or replacement of the listener's receiving equipment actually resolved the interference. Second, the translator operator may work with the complaining station to resolve station signal interference issues using rule-compliant suitable technical techniques. (The Commission provides flexibility to the parties to determine the testing parameters for demonstrating that the interference has been resolved, for example, the use of on-off testing or field strength measurements.) Once agreement is reached, the translator operator submits the agreed-upon remediation showing to the Commission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0405.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Form 2100, Schedule 349—FM Translator or FM Booster Station Construction Permit Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 2100, Schedule 349.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities; State, Local or Tribal Government; Not-for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     1,350 respondents; 2,775 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1-1.5 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     On occasion reporting requirement; Third party disclosure requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this information collection is contained in Sections 154(i), 303 and 308 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     3,775 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $3,950,725.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy Act Impact Assessment:</E>
                     No impact(s).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Nature and Extent of Confidentiality:</E>
                     There is no need for confidentiality with this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On May 9, 2019, the Commission adopted a Report and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24511"/>
                    Order, Amendment of Part 74 of the Commission's Rules Regarding FM Translator Interference, FCC 19-40, MB Docket No. 18-119, adopting proposals to streamline the rules relating to interference caused by FM translators and to expedite the translator interference complaint resolution process. These measures are designed to limit or avoid protracted and contentious interference disputes, provide translator licensees additional investment certainty and flexibility to remediate interference, and provide affected stations earlier and expedited resolution of interference complaints.
                </P>
                <P>In the FM Translator Interference Report and Order, the Commission adopted its proposal to offer additional flexibility to FM translator licensees, by allowing them to resolve interference issues using the effective and low-cost method of submitting a minor modification application to change frequency to any available same-band FM channel. This method will reduce the number of opposition pleadings filed and the obligation to defend an interference claim.</P>
                <P>Specifically, the FM Translator Interference Report and Order pertains to this Information Collection as it modifies Section 74.1233(a)(1) of the rules to define an FM translator station's change to any available same-band frequency using a minor modification application, filed using FCC Form 2100, Schedule 349, upon a showing of interference to or from any other broadcast station. Prior to the FM Translator Interference Report and Order, if an existing FM translator caused actual interference, as prohibited by Section 74.1203(a), it was limited to remedial channel changes, filing FCC Form 2100, Schedule 349 as a minor change application, to only first, second, or third adjacent, or IF channels. A change to any other channel was considered a major change on FCC Form 2100, Schedule 349, which could only be submitted during a filing window. The FM Translator Interference Report and Order enables more translator stations to cure interference by simply changing channels within the same band by filing FCC Form 2100, Schedule 349 as a minor change application, rather than other costlier and less efficient remedies.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11048 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (HOLA), Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238), and Regulation MM (12 CFR part 239), and all other applicable statutes and regulations to become a savings and loan holding company and/or to acquire the assets or the ownership of, control of, or the power to vote shares of a savings association and nonbanking companies owned by the savings and loan holding company, including the companies listed below.
                </P>
                <P>The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The application also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B)). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.</P>
                <P>Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than June 20, 2019.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Federal Reserve Bank of Cleveland</E>
                     (Nadine Wallman, Vice President) 1455 East Sixth Street, Cleveland, Ohio 44101-2566. Comments can also be sent electronically to 
                    <E T="03">Comments.applications@clev.frb.org:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Valley Central, MHC, and Valley Central Bancorp, Inc., both of Liberty Township, Ohio;</E>
                     to acquire control of American Savings Bank, Middletown, Ohio. Additionally, for Valley Central, MHC, to acquire control of the newly formed New Valley Central Bank, to be located in Liberty Township, Ohio; and for Valley Central, MHC, to transfer to its subsidiary Valley Central Bancorp, Inc., ownership of New Valley Central Bank. Under the proposal, Valley Central, MHC, would form New Valley Central Bank as an interim Ohio-chartered savings association. American Savings Bank and the applicants' existing subsidiary savings association, Valley Central Bank, Liberty Township, Ohio, would then each be merged with and into New Valley Central Bank. The surviving institution would be known thereafter as Valley Central Bank.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Yao-Chin Chao,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10974 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (BHC Act), Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), and all other applicable statutes and regulations to become a bank holding company and/or to acquire the assets or the ownership of, control of, or the power to vote shares of a bank or bank holding company and all of the banks and nonbanking companies owned by the bank holding company, including the companies listed below.
                </P>
                <P>The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.</P>
                <P>Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than June 21, 2019.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Federal Reserve Bank of Minneapolis</E>
                     (Mark A. Rauzi, Vice President), 90 Hennepin Avenue, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55480-0291:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Financial Services of Lowry, Inc., Lowry, Minnesota;</E>
                     to acquire 100 percent of the voting shares of The First National Bank of Osakis, Osakis, Minnesota.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24512"/>
                    <DATED>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Yao-Chin Chao,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10978 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6210-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Trade Commission (FTC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FTC requests that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend for three years the current PRA clearance for information collection requirements contained in the agency's Mail, internet, or Telephone Order Merchandise Rule (MITOR or Rule). The existing clearance expires on May 31, 2019. The public should address comments to this notice to the OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments in response to this notice should be submitted to the OMB Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission within 30 days of this notice. You may submit comments using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronic:</E>
                         Write “MITOR: PRA Comment, P072108,” on your comment and file your comment online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         by following the instructions on the web-based form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email: Wendy_L._Liberante@omb.eop.gov</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Susan_M._Minson@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 395-5806.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jock Chung, 202-326-2984, Attorney, Enforcement Division, Bureau of Consumer Protection, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Mail Drop CC-9528, Washington, DC 20580.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Mail, internet, or Telephone Order Merchandise Rule (MITOR or Rule), 16 CFR part 435.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3084-0106.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Generally, the MITOR requires a seller (or merchant) to: (1) Have a reasonable basis for any express or implied shipment representation made in soliciting the sale (if no express time period is promised, the implied shipment representation is 30 days); (2) notify the buyer (or consumer) and obtain the buyer's consent to any delay in shipment; and (3) make prompt and full refunds when the buyer exercises a cancellation option or the seller is unable to meet the Rule's other requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On March 19, 2019, the FTC sought comment on the information collection requirements associated with the Rule. 84 FR 10072. The FTC received no comments during the public comment period. Pursuant to OMB regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, that implement the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     the FTC is providing this second opportunity for public comment while seeking OMB approval to renew the pre-existing clearance for the Rule. For more details about the Rule requirements and the basis for the calculations summarized below, see 84 FR 10072.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Businesses engaged in the sale of merchandise by mail, internet or telephone.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Hours Burden:</E>
                     2,692,350 hours.
                </P>
                <P>Third Party Disclosure: [(44,946 established businesses × 50 hours) + (1,935 new entrants × 230 hours) = 2,692,350 hours.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Cost Burden:</E>
                     $66,501,045, which is derived from 2,692,350 hours × $24.70/hour.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The hourly wage rates for sales and related workers are updated from the 60-Day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice and are based on mean hourly wages found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/ocwage.htm</E>
                         (“Occupational Employment and Wages-May 2018,” U.S. Department of Labor, released March 2019, Table 1 (“National employment and wage data from the Occupational Employment Statistics survey by occupation, May 2018”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding at the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, such as anyone's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including in particular competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Heather Hippsley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10994 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6750-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3090-0306; Docket No. 2019-0001; Sequence No. 4]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Information Collection; Transactional Data Reporting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division is submitting a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) clauses 552.216-75 Transactional Data Reporting and 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting, Alternate I.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         GSA uses this information to establish price reasonableness on certain Government-wide contracts, inform category management activities, collect fees due from buying agencies, and administer the respective programs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This clause was formerly found at GSAR 552.238-74 but was amended to GSAR 552.238-80 per GSAR case 2016-G502, effective May 23, 2019. See 84 FR 17030 from April 23, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before: July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments identified by Information Collection 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Submit comments 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24513"/>
                        via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information Collection 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting.” Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting” on your attached document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Ms. Mandell/IC 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Please submit comments only and cite Information Collection 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting, in all correspondence related to this collection. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal and/or business confidential information provided.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Matthew McFarland, Office of Acquisition Policy, (301) 758-5880 or 
                        <E T="03">matthew.mcfarland@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Purpose</HD>
                <P>Transactional data is generated when a transaction is made between a buyer and seller and shows details of transactions at the line-item level, such as descriptions, quantities, and the prices paid for the items purchased. The Government is increasingly using this data to gain insight into its purchasing patterns, allowing it to identify the most efficient solutions, channels, and sources to meet its mission critical needs. This data is particularly critical to the Government's use of category management, the business practice of buying common goods and services as an enterprise to eliminate redundancies, increase efficiency, and deliver more value and savings from acquisition programs. Moreover, individual buyers benefit from this data when conducting market research, price analysis, and negotiations.</P>
                <P>Transactional data is typically possessed by the buyer and seller in a transaction. On the Government (buyer) side, this data is often found in contract writing systems and financial systems. However, these systems are not shared across agencies; in fact, some agencies use multiple versions of these systems. Hence, no mechanism currently exists to compile and analyze transactional data from a wide-range of purchases made across the Government.</P>
                <P>
                    GSA sought to improve the Government's access to this data through the Transactional Data Reporting final rule, published on June 23, 2016.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The rule amended the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) by establishing two contract clauses requiring vendors to report transactional data from orders placed against GSA's Government-wide contract vehicles:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See GSAR Case 2013-G504; Docket 2014-0020; Sequence 1 [81 FR 41104 (June 23, 2016)].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting has been introduced to the Federal Supply Schedule (FSS) program on a pilot basis, along with corresponding reductions to existing pricing disclosure requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    • GSAR clause 552.216-75 Transactional Data Reporting is applicable to GSA's Government-wide Acquisition Contract (GWAC) and other Government-wide indefinite-delivery indefinite-quantity (IDIQ) contract vehicles established after June 23, 2016.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As of May 2019, Alliant 2 (unrestricted) is the only vehicle in this class that has been required to, and is using, the Transactional Data Reporting clause.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The rule does not apply to FSS contracts administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This information collection primarily applies to GSA's FSS contracts, commonly known as GSA Schedules or Multiple Award Schedules (MAS). These Government-wide contracts provide federal agencies with a simplified process for acquiring commercial supplies and services. The GSA FSS program is the Government's preeminent commercial contracting vehicle, accounting for about 10 percent of all federal contract dollars with approximately $33 billion of purchases made through the program in fiscal year 2018.</P>
                <P>
                    GSA establishes the pricing and terms of each GSA Schedule contract with commercial vendors. Federal agencies then follow GSA's competitive procedures when placing orders against these contracts and thereby satisfy statutory competition requirements to provide “the lowest overall cost alternative to meet the needs of the Federal Government.” 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In turn, those agencies must pay an Industrial Funding Fee (IFF) that covers GSA's costs of operating the FSS program. The fee is currently set at 0.75% and is included in the prices ordering activities pay vendors when purchasing from an FSS contract.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FSS vendors then report GSA Schedule sales data and remit the IFF collected from ordering activities to GSA once a quarter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         41 U.S.C. 152(3)(B) requires FSS ordering procedures to “result in the lowest overall cost alternative to meet the needs of the Federal Government.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The IFF for Schedule 599, Special Item Number 599-2 is $1.50 per transaction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    There were a total of 16,215 FSS contracts in fiscal year 2018. This information collection pertains to the 2,063 contracts that participated in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot. The remaining 14,152 contracts are subject to legacy sales reporting requirements and pricing disclosure requirements associated with Commercial Sales Practices (CSP) and GSAR clause 552.238-81 Price Reductions, otherwise known as the Price Reductions Clause (PRC); those requirements are accounted for under separate information collection identified by OMB control number 3090-0235.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The PRC was formerly found at GSAR 552.238-75 but was amended to GSAR 552.238-81 per GSAR case 2016-G502, effective May 23, 2019. See 84 FR 17030 from April 23, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    GSA believes Transactional Data Reporting offers a meaningful burden reduction for FSS vendors. GSA estimates the combined burden of this information collection is 49% less per contract than the legacy sales reporting requirements and CSP and PRC disclosures associated with OMB control number 3090-0235. GSA estimates if all FSS vendors participated in Transactional Data Reporting, they would realize an estimated annual burden reduction of $30.8 million.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On the other hand, GSA estimates ending the FSS pilot will cost participating vendors nearly $15 million and GSA approximately $3 million to transition to the legacy sales reporting and CSP and PRC disclosure requirements unless an alternate method is created to collect the IFF, monitor program sales and establish and monitor contract pricing.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The estimated burden for this information collection, which applied to the 14,152 contracts not participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot, is estimated to be $94.2 million. This equates to a per-contract burden of $6,662/year. The estimated burden for the Transactional Data Reporting information collection is $9.2 million/year for the 2,063 contracts participating in the FSS pilot; this equates to a per-contract the burden of $4,483/year. The estimated $30.8 million/year burden reduction is calculated by taking the updated 3090-0235 burden estimate ($94.2 million/year) and subtracting the product of the number of contracts included in 3090-0235 multiplied by the average per-contract burden of Transactional Data Reporting (14,152 contracts × $4,483), which equals $63.4 million/year ($94.2M−$63.4M = $30.8M). More information about the Transactional Data Reporting burden can be found under Information Collection 3090-0306 at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public</E>
                         by searching “ICR” for “3090-0306”.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Vendors transitioning back to the CSP/PRC framework would have to submit CSPs to establish 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        basis of award pricing. As of December 2018, 2,158 vendors were participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot. Using the framework for new offer CSPs in this information collection, 2,158 new offer CSPs would equate to a burden of $11.5 million. This same framework would show increased costs of $3 million for GSA to process 2,158 new offer CSPs. Additionally, these vendors would also need to establish sales tracking systems to comply with the sales reporting requirements of the basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-80. Using the sales reporting cost estimation framework for establishing new systems from OMB control number 3090-0235, this would cost these vendors $3.1 million.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24514"/>
                <P>
                    The Paperwork Reduction Act generally requires information collections to be renewed every three years.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Both this information collection (OMB control number 3090-0306) and the information collection associated with legacy sales reporting and CSP and PRC disclosure requirements (OMB control number 3090-0235) were last approved in 2016, so GSA is now obtaining extensions to both information collections.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         44 U.S.C. 3507(g).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         GSA is consolidating a separate information collection for IFF and sales reporting (OMB control number 3090-0121) with the pricing disclosures information collection (OMB control number 3090-0235) because the burdens are interdependent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This request for comments only pertains to the information collection requirements associated with Transactional Data Reporting (OMB control number 3090-0306). GSA has also posted a separate notice requesting comments on the information collection associated with legacy sales reporting and CSP and PRC disclosure requirements (OMB control number 3090-0235).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Information Collection Changes and Updates</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Adjustments for Actual Number of Contracts:</E>
                     The Transactional Data Reporting pilot had yet to launch when these burden estimates were previously calculated in 2016, so GSA based its estimates for the number of contracts that would participate on the total number of contracts under the Schedules and Special Item Numbers eligible for the pilot:
                </P>
                <P>• The ratio of GSA Schedule contracts that would continue to require legacy sales reporting and CSP and PRC disclosures was estimated to be 56.8%, which was based on the percentage of the program's sales in fiscal year 2015 for contracts that would not be eligible to participate in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot.</P>
                <P>• The ratio of GSA Schedule contracts slated to be included in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot was estimated to account for the remaining 43.2%.</P>
                <P>However, pilot participation became optional in 2017 and the number of contracts that eventually joined the pilot was far lower than anticipated in 2016. Of the 16,215 contracts that were active in FY 2018—</P>
                <P>• 14,152 contracts, or 87.28% of the total, were required to conduct legacy sales reporting and provide CSP and PRC disclosures.</P>
                <P>• 2,063 contracts, or 12.72% of the total, participated in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot.</P>
                <P>Additionally, only one non-FSS contract vehicle, Alliant 2 (unrestricted), currently uses the non-FSS Transactional Data Reporting clause. The last revision of these burden estimates relied upon the total number of non-FSS contracts (537) that would be eligible had they been awarded after the Transactional Data Reporting rule was promulgated. As a result, the number of non-FSS contracts was lowered from 537 to the actual number of contracts using the applicable clause, 53.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, the revised participation figures resulted in significantly lower burden estimates for this information collection. On the other hand, the FSS pilot participation revisions resulted in significantly higher burden estimates for the information collection accounting for CSP and PRC disclosures and legacy sales reporting (OMB Control Number 3090-0235).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Revised Labor Rates:</E>
                     The previous burden estimates used a fully burdened labor rate of $68/hour. This included a $50/hour base rate, which was based on professional judgment, and 36% for fringe benefits, which was rounded down from the 36.25% fringe benefit factor included in OMB Circular A-76. The revised burden estimates attempt to align with the Department of Defense's Regulatory Cost Analysis Tool (RCAT), which was developed to prepare economic analyses in compliance with Executive Order 13771 and uses various Government labor category rates as the basis for cost estimates. As such, GSA determined—
                </P>
                <P>• The GS-12, Step 5 labor rate from the RCAT ($55.19/hour) was the most appropriate for the tasks performed by vendors to comply with monthly reporting requirements; and</P>
                <P>• The GS-14, Step 5 labor rate from the RCAT ($77.25/hour) was the most appropriate for the tasks performed by vendors to comply with the initial setup.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>This information collection applies to GSA FSS contracts that include GSAR clauses 552.216-75 Transactional Data Reporting and 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting, Alternate I. In FY 2018, vendors held 53 Alliant 2 contracts subject to clause 552.216-75 and 2,063 GSA FSS contracts subject to Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.238-80.</P>
                <P>Both clauses require vendors to report the data elements outlined in each clause, such as item descriptions and prices paid, to a GSA website. This data must be reported monthly within 30 calendar days after the end of each calendar month, meaning vendors will furnish 12 reports over the course of a year for each contract containing one of these clauses. Vendors also remit applicable fees, such as the IFF for Schedule contracts, when submitting these reports.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Cost Burden Calculation</HD>
                <P>The two primary activities associated with this information collection are the initial setup and monthly reporting. GSA calculated the cost burden for each as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Initial Setup:</E>
                     The duties required for these activities will generally be completely by a senior-level subject matter expert. For the purposes of establishing an hourly rate, GSA equates these duties to those of a GS-14, Step 5 employee, whose hourly rate in 2019 for the “Rest of U.S.” locality is $56.92 an hour.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When factoring a 36.25 percent overhead rate for fringe benefits, the fully burdened rate is $77.55 an hour.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         General Schedule (GS) labor rates may be viewed on the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) under Pay &amp; Leave: Salaries and Wages, SALARY TABLE 2019-RUS at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/salaries-wages/salary-tables/19Tables/html/RUS_h.aspx.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         36.25% overhead rate was used in reference to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-76. Circular A-76 requires agencies to use standard cost factors to estimate certain costs of Government performance. These cost factors ensure that specific government costs are calculated in a standard and consistent manner to reasonably reflect the cost of performing commercial activities with government personnel.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Quarterly Reporting:</E>
                     The duties required for these activities will generally be completed by mid-level personnel. For the purposes of establishing an hourly rate, GSA equates these duties to those of a GS-12, Step 5 employee, whose hourly rate in 2019 for the “Rest of U.S.” locality is $40.51 an hour. When factoring a 36.25 percent overhead rate for fringe benefits, the fully burdened rate is $55.19 an hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Categorization of Vendors by Monthly Sales Revenue:</E>
                     Transactional Data Reporting imposes a progressive burden—one that increases with a contractor's sales volume. Monthly 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24515"/>
                    reporting times increase with a vendor's applicable sales volume, as vendors with lower to no reportable sales spend relatively little time on monthly reporting, while those with more reportable sales with face a higher reporting burden.
                </P>
                <P>GSA separated vendors into categories based on annual sales volume in order to account for the differences in reporting burden. These categories are:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 1: No sales activity (annual of $0)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 2: Annual sales between $0 and $25,000</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 3: Annual sales between $25,000 and $250,000</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 4: Annual sales between $250,000 and $1 million</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 5: Annual sales over $1 million</FP>
                <P>The distribution of vendors by sales category is as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>FSS and Non-FSS Vendors by Sales Category</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            FSS vendors
                            <LI>(count)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            FSS vendors
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Non-FSS
                            <LI>vendors</LI>
                            <LI>(count)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Non-FSS
                            <LI>vendors</LI>
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total vendor
                            <LI>count by </LI>
                            <LI>category</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>318</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>37</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT>355</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>197</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>197</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>619</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>619</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>407</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>409</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>522</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                        <ENT>26</ENT>
                        <ENT>536</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,063</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>53</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,116</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Automated vs. Manual Reporting Systems:</E>
                     Vendors subject to these clauses must create systems or processes to produce and report accurate data. Generally, vendors will use automated or manual systems to identify the transactional data to be reported each month. An automated system is one that relies on information technology, such as an accounting system or data management software, to identify and compile reportable data. These systems can tremendously streamline the reporting process but require upfront configuration to perform the tasks, such as coding the data elements to be retrieved. Conversely, a manual system is one that incorporates little to no automation and instead relies on personnel to manually identify and compile the reportable data. An example of a manual system would be an accountant reviewing invoices to identify the reportable data and then transferring the findings to a spreadsheet. In contrast to automation, a manual system requires relatively little setup time but the reporting effort will generally increase with the vendor's sales volume.
                </P>
                <P>The likelihood of a vendor adopting an automated system increases with their applicable sales volume. Vendors with little to no reportable data are unlikely to expend the effort needed to establish an automated reporting system since it will be relatively easy to identify and report a limited amount of data. In fiscal year 2018, 15% of FSS contracts in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot had $0 sales, while another 10% reported annual sales between $1 and $25,000 per month. However, as a vendor's applicable average monthly sales increase, it will be increasingly likely to establish an automated system to reduce the monthly reporting burden. Consequently, vendors with higher reportable sales will likely bear a higher setup burden to create an automated system, or absorb a high monthly reporting burden if they choose to rely on manual reporting methods.</P>
                <P>The following chart depicts the likelihood of the current population adopting manual and automated reporting systems:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Vendors by Reporting System Type</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Manual vs. Automated]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual 
                            <LI>system </LI>
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated 
                            <LI>system </LI>
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual 
                            <LI>system </LI>
                            <LI>vendor count</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated
                            <LI>system </LI>
                            <LI>vendor count</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>355</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>197</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>557</ENT>
                        <ENT>62</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>205</ENT>
                        <ENT>205</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT>482</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Count of Vendors by System Type</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,367</ENT>
                        <ENT>749</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Percentage of Vendors by System Type</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>65%</ENT>
                        <ENT>35%</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Initial Setup:</E>
                     Vendors complying with this rule will absorb a one-time setup burden to establish reporting systems. The estimated setup time varies between automated and manual reporting systems. Vendors implementing a manual system must acclimate themselves with the new reporting requirements and train their staff accordingly, while those with automated systems must perform these tasks in addition to configuring information technology resources. GSA estimates the average one-time setup burden is 8 hours for vendors with a manual system and 240 hours for those with an automated system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Monthly Reporting:</E>
                     After initial setup, vendors subject to these clauses are required to report sales within 30 calendar days after the end of each calendar month. The average reporting times vary by system type (manual or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24516"/>
                    automated) and by sales categories. GSA estimates vendors using a manual system will have average monthly reporting times ranging from 15 minutes (0.25 hours) for vendors with $0 sales to an average of 48 hours for vendors with monthly sales over $1 million. On the other hand, GSA projects vendors with automated systems will have reporting times of 2 hours per month, irrespective of monthly sales volume, as a result of efficiencies achieved through automated processes. The following table shows GSA's projected monthly reporting times per sales category and system type:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Monthly Reporting Hours by System Type and Category</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual
                            <LI>systems</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated
                            <LI>systems</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FSS Burden Estimates:</E>
                     A total of 376 FSS contracts joined the Transactional Data Reporting pilot in FY 2018, including 139 newly awarded contracts and 237 existing contracts that voluntarily joined the pilot. The initial setup burden was split between manual and automated systems, the number of which was estimated based on the ratio for all pilot contracts (64% manual, 36% automated). The initial setup burden for those contracts is illustrated below:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Initial Setup</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     34,412.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $2,668,613.
                </P>
                <P>Transactional data was reported for 2,063 FSS contracts in FY 2018. As previously noted, the reporting burden for vendors using manual systems increases with their reported sales while the reporting burden for vendors using automated systems remains constant regardless of the reported sales volume. The reporting burden for those contracts is illustrated below:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Quarterly Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     119,207.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $6,579,023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Non-FSS Burden Estimates:</E>
                     The only non-FSS contract vehicle currently using the clause is the Alliant 2 unrestricted contract. 53 Alliant 2 contracts were awarded in FY 2018, meaning each of the contract holders incurred initial setup costs. The initial setup burden was split between manual and automated systems, the number of which was estimated based on the ratio for the Alliant 2 contracts (74% manual, 26% automated). The initial setup burden for those contracts is illustrated below:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Initial Setup</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     3,672.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $284,764.
                </P>
                <P>As previously noted, the reporting burden for vendors using manual systems increases with their reported sales while the reporting burden for vendors using automated systems remains constant regardless of the reported sales volume. The reporting burden for those contracts is as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Quarterly Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     1,445.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $79,772.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Total Annual Burden</HD>
                <P>The total estimated burden imposed by Transactional Data Reporting is as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Estimated Annual Time Burden (Hours)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FSS Vendors:</E>
                     153,619.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Non-FSS Vendors:</E>
                     5,117.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     158,736.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Estimated Annual Cost Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FSS Vendors:</E>
                     $9,247,636.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Non-FSS Vendors:</E>
                     $364,535.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost Burden:</E>
                     $9,612,171.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obtaining Copies of Proposals:</E>
                     Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755. Please cite Information Collection 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting, in all correspondence.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11030 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 9000-0073; Docket No. 2019-0003; Sequence No. 15]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Advance Payments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve a revision and renewal of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding advanced payments.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submit comments on or before:</E>
                         June 27, 2019.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0073 by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24517"/>
                        Collection 9000-0073, Advance Payments”. Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0073, Advance Payments” on your attached document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Ms. Mandell/IC 9000-0073, Advance Payments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Please submit comments only and cite Information Collection 9000-0073, Advance Payments, in all correspondence related to this collection. Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal and/or business confidential information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two to three days after submission to verify posting (except allow 30 days for posting of comments submitted by mail).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Kevin Funk, Procurement Analyst, at telephone 202-357-5805, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">kevin.funk@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. OMB Number, Title, and Any Associated Form(s)</HD>
                <P>9000-0073, Advance Payments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Needs and Uses</HD>
                <P>Advance payments may be authorized under Federal contracts and subcontracts. Advance payments are the least preferred method of contract financing and require special determinations by the agency head or designee. Specific financial information about the contractor is required before such payments can be authorized (see FAR 32.4 and 52.232-12). The information is used to determine if advance payments should be provided to the contractor.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     73.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     12.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     876.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Hours per Response:</E>
                     1.42.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,244.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60 day notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 84 FR 8332, on March 7, 2019. No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obtaining Copies:</E>
                     Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405, at 202-501-4755. Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0073, Advance Payments, in all correspondence.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Janet Fry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Governmentwide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11003 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6820-EP-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3090-0235; Docket No. 2019-0001; Sequence No. 1]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Information Collection; Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division is submitting a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding Commercial Sales Practices disclosures and General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) clause 552.238-81 Price Reductions.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The information collected is used to establish and maintain Federal Supply Schedule (FSS) pricing and price-related terms and conditions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This clause was formerly found at GSAR 552.238-75 but was amended to GSAR 552.238-81 per GSAR case 2016-G502, effective May 23, 2019. See 84 FR 17030 from April 23, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before: July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments identified by Information Collection 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “Information Collection 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting.” Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting” on your attached document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Ms. Mandell/IC 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Please submit comments only and cite Information Collection 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting, in all correspondence related to this collection. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal and/or business confidential information provided.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Matthew McFarland, Office of Acquisition Policy, (301) 758-5880 or 
                        <E T="03">matthew.mcfarland@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The extension has been renamed “Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting” because it now includes a burden estimate associated with the basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     GSA uses this information to collect the Industrial Funding Fee and administer the FSS program. This burden was included under a separate approved information collection identified by OMB control number 3090-0121.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         This clause was formerly found at GSAR 552.238-74 but was amended to GSAR 552.238-80 per GSAR case 2016-G502, effective May 23, 2019. See 84 FR 17030 from April 23, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>GSA's Federal Supply Schedules, commonly known as GSA Schedules or Multiple Award Schedules (MAS), are Government-wide contracts providing federal agencies with a simplified process for acquiring commercial supplies and services. The FSS program is the Government's preeminent commercial contracting vehicle, accounting for about 10 percent of all federal contract dollars with approximately $33 billion of purchases made through the program in fiscal year 2018.</P>
                <P>
                    GSA establishes the pricing and terms of each GSA Schedule contract with commercial vendors. Federal agencies then follow GSA's competitive procedures when placing orders against 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24518"/>
                    these contracts and thereby satisfy statutory competition requirements to provide “the lowest overall cost alternative to meet the needs of the Federal Government.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In turn, those agencies must pay an Industrial Funding Fee (IFF) that covers GSA's costs of operating the FSS program. The fee is currently set at 0.75% and is included in the prices ordering activities pay vendors when purchasing from an FSS contract.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FSS vendors then report GSA Schedule sales data and remit the IFF collected from ordering activities to GSA once a quarter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         41 U.S.C. 152(3)(B) requires FSS ordering procedures to “result in the lowest overall cost alternative to meet the needs of the Federal Government.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The IFF for Schedule 599, Special Item Number 599-2 is $1.50 per transaction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>There were a total of 16,215 GSA FSS contracts in fiscal year 2018. This information collection pertains to the pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements for 14,152 of these contracts. The remaining 2,063 contracts participated in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot and were subject to a separate information collection identified by OMB control number 3090-0306.</P>
                <P>
                    GSA believes Transactional Data Reporting offers a meaningful burden reduction for FSS vendors. GSA estimates the combined burden of this information collection is 49% more per contract than the Transactional Data Reporting burden. If all FSS vendors participated in Transactional Data Reporting, rather than being subject to the sales reporting and pricing disclosure requirements of this information collection, they would realize an estimated annual burden reduction of $30.8 million.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On the other hand, vendors will absorb costs when reverting back to the requirements of this information collection, including costs associated with establishing a basis of award customer and monitoring system for PRC compliance, if GSA ends the Transactional Data Reporting pilot without an alternative means of collecting the IFF, monitoring program sales and establishing and monitoring contract pricing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The estimated burden for this information collection, which applied to the 14,152 contracts not participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot, is estimated to be $94.2 million. This equates to a per-contract burden of $6,662/year. The estimated burden for the Transactional Data Reporting information collection is $9.2 million/year for the 2,063 contracts participating in the FSS pilot; this equates to a per-contract the burden of $4,483/year. The estimated $30.8 million/year burden reduction is calculated by taking the updated 3090-0235 burden estimate ($94.2 million/year) and subtracting the product of the number of contracts included in 3090-0235 multiplied by the average per-contract burden of Transactional Data Reporting (14,152 contracts × $4,483), which equals $63.4 million/year ($94.2M−$63.4M = $30.8M). More information about the Transactional Data Reporting burden can be found under Information Collection 3090-0306 at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public</E>
                         by searching “ICR” for “3090-0306”.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Paperwork Reduction Act generally requires information collections to be renewed every three years.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Both this information collection (OMB control number 3090-0235) and the Transactional Data Reporting information collection (OMB control number 3090-0306) were last approved in 2016, so GSA is now obtaining extensions to both information collections. Additionally, GSA is consolidating a separate information collection for IFF and sales reporting (OMB control number 3090-0121) with this information collection because the burdens are interdependent.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         44 U.S.C. 3507(g).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This request for comments only pertains to the information collection requirements associated with the basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-80 and CSP and PRC disclosure requirements. GSA has also posted a separate notice requesting comments on the Transactional Data Reporting information collection (OMB control number 3090-0306).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sales Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) clause 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting is included in every GSA Schedule contract. The basic version of the clause requires vendors to report their FSS contract sales to GSA within 30 days after the end of the quarter. GSA then calculates the IFF due based on the total amount of sales reported and the vendor must also remit that amount within 30 days after the end of the quarter.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Alternate I of the clause applies to FSS contracts participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot and falls under the information collection identified by OMB control number 3090-0306.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">FSS Pricing Disclosures</HD>
                <P>The basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting also dictates the pricing procedures GSA will use to establish contract pricing. These pricing procedures require GSA to determine price reasonableness on its FSS contracts by comparing a vendor's prices and price-related terms and conditions with those offered to their other customers. Through analysis and negotiations, GSA establishes a favorable pricing relationship in comparison to one of the vendor's customers (or category of customers) and then maintains that pricing relationship for the life of the contract. In order to carry out this practice, GSA collects pricing information through CSP disclosures and enforces the pricing relationship through the PRC.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Commercial Sales Practices (CSP):</E>
                     In accordance with GSAR 515.408(a)(2), offerors must submit information in the Commercial Sales Practices Format provided in the solicitation, following the instructions at GSAR Figure 515.4-2, or submit information in their own format. In addition to when an offer is submitted, CSP disclosures are also required prior to executing bilateral modifications for exercising a contract option period, adding items to the contract, or increasing pricing under the Economic Price Adjustment clause (GSAR 552.216-70).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Price Reductions Clause (PRC):</E>
                     GSAR 538.273 (b)(2) prescribes the PRC for use in all FSS solicitations and contracts. The clause is intended to ensure the Government maintains its price/discount (and/or term and condition) advantage in relation to the vendor's customer (or category of customer) upon which the FSS contract is based. The basis of award customer (or category of customer) is identified at the conclusion of negotiations and noted in the contract. Thereafter, the PRC requires FSS vendors to inform the contracting officer of price reductions within 15 calendar days. Per GSAR 552.238-81(c)(1),
                </P>
                <P>A price reduction shall apply to purchases under this contract if, after the date negotiations conclude, the Contractor—</P>
                <P>(i) Revises the commercial catalog, pricelist, schedule or other document upon which contract award was predicated to reduce prices;</P>
                <P>(ii) Grants more favorable discounts or terms and conditions than those contained in the commercial catalog, pricelist, schedule or other documents upon which contract award was predicated; or</P>
                <P>(iii) Grants special discounts to the customer (or category of customers) that formed the basis of award, and the change disturbs the price/discount relationship of the Government to the customer (or category of customers) that was the basis of award.</P>
                <P>
                    FSS ordering procedures are required by law to “result in the lowest overall cost alternative to meet the needs of the Federal Government.” 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CSP disclosures and the PRC provide GSA a mechanism for meeting this objective by giving it insight into a vendor's pricing practices, which is proprietary information that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24519"/>
                    can only be obtained directly from the vendor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         41 U.S.C. 152(3)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Information Collection Changes and Updates</HD>
                <P>The burden estimates from the previous approval have been adjusted to include updates to sales reporting estimates previously included under OMB control number 3090-0121; reflect actual participation in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot; and revised labor rates used to calculate cost estimates. The number of respondents and applicable actions has also been updated.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sales Reporting:</E>
                     The basic version of the Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting clause has traditionally been associated with OMB control number 3090-0121, which was last extended in June 2017. GSA determined this information collection should be consolidated with the FSS Pricing Disclosures information collection (OMB control number 3090-0235) because they apply to the same population within the GSA Schedules program.
                </P>
                <P>The estimation methodology for the sales reporting calculations is the same as what was used for the 2017 renewal of OMB control number 3090-0121 except the sales categories were revised to align with those used for the Transactional Data Reporting information collection (OMB control number 3090-0306).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Adjustments for Transactional Data Reporting Pilot:</E>
                     GSA Schedule contracts included in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot are no longer subject to this information collection; the separate reporting requirements for those contracts are covered by OMB control number 3090-0306.
                </P>
                <P>The Transactional Data Reporting pilot had yet to launch when these burden estimates were previously calculated in 2016, so GSA based its estimates for the number of contracts that would participate on the total number of contracts under the Schedules and Special Item Numbers eligible for the pilot:</P>
                <P>• The ratio of GSA Schedule contracts that would continue under this information collection was estimated to be 56.8%, which was based on the percentage of the program's sales in fiscal year 2015 for contracts that would not be eligible to participate in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot.</P>
                <P>• The ratio of GSA Schedule contracts slated to be included in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot was estimated to account for the remaining 43.2%.</P>
                <P>Consequently, the 2016 burden estimates for the CSP and PRC renewal and the 2017 IFF and sales reporting renewal relied upon these Transactional Data Reporting pilot participation projections. However, pilot participation became optional in 2017 and the number of contracts that eventually joined the pilot was lower than anticipated in 2016. Of the 16,215 contracts that were active in FY 2018,</P>
                <P>• 14,152 contracts, or 87.28% of the total, are subject to this information collection.</P>
                <P>• 2,063 contracts, or 12.72% of the total, participated in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot.</P>
                <P>Consequently, the revised participation figures resulted in significantly higher burden estimates for this information collection and lower burden estimates for the Transactional Data Reporting information collection (OMB control number 3090-0306).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Revised Labor Rates:</E>
                     The previous burden estimates used a fully burdened labor rate of $68/hour. This included a $50/hour base rate, which was based on professional judgment, and 36% for fringe benefits, which was rounded down from the 36.25% fringe benefit factor included in OMB Circular A-76.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         36.25% overhead rate was used in reference to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-76. Circular A-76 requires agencies to use standard cost factors to estimate certain costs of Government performance. These cost factors ensure that specific government costs are calculated in a standard and consistent manner to reasonably reflect the cost of performing commercial activities with government personnel.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The revised burden estimates attempt to align with the Department of Defense's Regulatory Cost Analysis Tool (RCAT), which was developed to prepare economic analyses in compliance with Executive Order 13771 and uses various Government labor category rates as the basis for cost estimates. GSA determined—</P>
                <P>• The GS-14, Step 5 labor rate from the RCAT ($77.25/hour) was the most appropriate for the tasks performed by vendors to comply with CSP and PRC disclosure requirements and perform the initial setup for sales reporting systems.</P>
                <P>• The GS-12, Step 5 labor rate from the RCAT ($55.19/hour) was the most appropriate for the tasks performed by vendors for quarterly sales reporting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    This information collection applies to GSA FSS contracts that include the basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-80 Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting. In FY 2018, 13,828 vendors held a total of 16,215 GSA FSS contracts; 12,151 of these vendors held a total of 14,152 contracts containing the basic version of clause 552.238-80.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These contracts accounted for approximately 77.8% of GSA FSS sales in fiscal year 2018. The 2,063 GSA FSS contracts subject to Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.238-80—those participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot—are covered by a separate information collection identified under OMB control number 3090-0306.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Some vendors hold multiple contracts and may have contracts participating in the Transactional Data Reporting pilot and other contracts that are subject to CSP and PRC disclosure requirements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Cost Burden Calculation</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sales Reporting:</E>
                     The two primary activities associated with sales reporting are initial setup and quarterly reporting. GSA calculated the cost burden for each as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Initial Setup:</E>
                     The duties required for these activities will generally be completely by a senior-level subject matter expert. For the purposes of establishing an hourly rate, GSA equates these duties to those of a GS-14, Step 5 employee, whose hourly rate in 2019 for the “Rest of U.S.” locality is $56.92 an hour.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When factoring a 36.25 percent overhead rate for fringe benefits, the fully burdened rate is $77.55 an hour.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         General Schedule (GS) labor rates may be viewed on the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) under Pay &amp; Leave: Salaries and Wages, SALARY TABLE 2019-RUS at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/salaries-wages/salary-tables/19Tables/html/RUS_h.aspx.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         36.25% overhead rate was used in reference to Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-76. Circular A-76 requires agencies to use standard cost factors to estimate certain costs of Government performance. These cost factors ensure that specific government costs are calculated in a standard and consistent manner to reasonably reflect the cost of performing commercial activities with government personnel.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Quarterly Reporting:</E>
                     The duties required for these activities will generally be completed by mid-level personnel. For the purposes of establishing an hourly rate, GSA equates these duties to those of a GS-12, Step 5 employee, whose hourly rate in 2019 for the “Rest of U.S.” locality is $40.51 an hour. When factoring a 36.25 percent overhead rate for fringe benefits, the fully burdened rate is $55.19 an hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Pricing Disclosures:</E>
                     The duties required for these activities will generally be completed by a senior-level subject matter expert. For the purposes of establishing an hourly rate, GSA equates these duties to those of a GS-14, Step 5 employee, whose hourly rate in 2019 for the “Rest of U.S.” locality is $56.92 an hour. When factoring a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24520"/>
                    36.25 percent rate for fringe benefits, the fully burdened rate is $77.55 an hour.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Heavier Lifts and Lighter Lifts</HD>
                <P>Due to the diversity among the FSS vendor population, the burden associated with many of the CSP and PRC components of this information collection cannot be equally attributed to all FSS contracts. In these areas, GSA is categorizing contracts into those with a “heavier lift” or “lighter lift.”</P>
                <P>FSS contracts are held by a diverse set of companies, which vary in terms of business size, offerings, and FSS sales volume. For example, in FY 2018:</P>
                <P>• 30.7 percent, or 4,975 contracts had $0 in reported FSS sales.</P>
                <P>• 6.8 percent, or 1,100 contracts, accounted for about 80 percent of all FSS sales.</P>
                <P>• The top 20 percent of FSS contracts (in terms of FY 2018 sales) accounted for 94.6 percent of FSS sales.</P>
                <P>• Only 19.7 percent of FSS contracts had more than $1 million in FSS sales.</P>
                <P>• 68.7 percent of FSS contracts were held by small businesses and had less than $1 million in FSS sales.</P>
                <P>• Small businesses held 81 percent of the FSS contracts but accounted for 37 percent of FSS sales.</P>
                <P>In general, a vendor's sales volume will have the greatest effect on the associated burden of these requirements, although the number and type of offerings, and business structure, can also be significant factors. As previously shown, a relatively small number of FSS contracts account for the vast majority of FSS sales and therefore likely bear a heavier burden for these requirements. Conversely, the majority of FSS contracts, which are typically held by small businesses with lower sales volume, absorb less of the burden for these requirements.</P>
                <P>To account for the differences among FSS contracts, GSA is utilizing the Pareto principle, or “80/20 rule,” which states 80 percent of effects comes from 20 percent of the population. Accordingly, GSA is categorizing FSS contracts by those with a heavier lift (20 percent) and those with a lighter lift (80 percent). Contracts with heavier lifts are those with the characteristics leading to increased burden—more sales volume, higher number of contract items, more complex offerings, more transactions, more complex transactions, and/or intricate business structures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Sales Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    The basic version of the Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting clause requires vendors to report their total sales by Special Item Number once a quarter in the 72A Reporting System.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Vendors must file these reports within 30 days after the end of each of the following quarters:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://72a.gsa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• January 1 to March 31</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• April 1 to June 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• July 1 to September 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• October 1 to December 31</FP>
                <P>After vendors report their sales, the 72A Reporting System calculates the IFF due for the quarter. The system then prompts users to “Pay Now” or “Pay Later.” Vendors can remit IFF payments via credit card, online check, or paper check. Regardless of whether a vendor remits the IFF at the time sales are reported or at a later date, the IFF due must be remitted within the same 30 day deadline following the end of the reporting quarters.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Categorization of Vendors by Quarterly Sales Revenue:</E>
                     Sales reporting imposes a progressive burden—one that increases with a vendor's sales volume. Quarterly reporting times will increase with a vendor's applicable sales volume, as vendors with lower to no reportable sales will spend little time on quarterly reporting, while those with more reportable sales with face a higher reporting burden.
                </P>
                <P>GSA separated contracts into categories based on reported annual sales volume in order to account for the differences in reporting burden. These categories are:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Category 1: No sales activity</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">• Category 2: Sales between $0 and $25,000</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">• Category 3: Sales between $25,000 and $250,000</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">• Category 4: Sales between $250,000 and $1 million</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">• Category 5: Sales over $1 million</FP>
                <P>The distribution of contracts by sales category is as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s150,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Contracts by Sales Category</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            FSS contracts
                            <LI>(count)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            FSS contracts
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,657</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,188</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,469</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,168</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,670</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,152</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Automated vs. Manual Reporting Systems:</E>
                     Vendors subject to these clauses must create systems or processes to produce and report accurate data. Generally, vendors will use automated or manual systems to identify the quarter's reportable sales. An automated system is one that relies on information technology, such as an accounting system or data management software, to identify and compile reportable data. These systems can tremendously streamline the reporting process but require upfront configuration to perform the tasks, such as coding the sales types to be retrieved. Conversely, a manual system is one that incorporates little to no automation and instead relies on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24521"/>
                    personnel to manually identify and compile the reportable data. An example of a manual system would be an accountant reviewing invoices to identify the reportable data and then transferring the findings to a spreadsheet. In contrast to automation, a manual system requires relatively little setup time but the reporting effort will generally increase with the vendor's sales volume.
                </P>
                <P>The likelihood of a vendor adopting an automated system increases with their applicable sales volume. Vendors with little to no reportable data are unlikely to expend the effort needed to establish an automated reporting system since it will be relatively easy to identify and report a limited amount of data. However, as a vendor's applicable sales increase, they will be increasingly likely to establish an automated system to reduce the quarterly reporting burden. Consequently, vendors with higher reportable sales will likely bear a higher setup burden to create an automated system, or absorb a high quarterly reporting burden if they choose to rely on manual reporting methods.</P>
                <P>The following chart depicts the likelihood of the population of contracts operating under manual and automated reporting systems:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Contracts by Reporting System Type</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Manual vs. Automated]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual
                            <LI>system</LI>
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated
                            <LI>system</LI>
                            <LI>(percentage)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual
                            <LI>system—</LI>
                            <LI>vendor count</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated
                            <LI>system—</LI>
                            <LI>vendor count</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,657</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,188</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,122</ENT>
                        <ENT>347</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,084</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,084</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>267</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,403</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total Count of Contracts by System Type</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>10,318</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,834</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Percentage of Contracts by System Type</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>73%</ENT>
                        <ENT>27%</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Initial Setup:</E>
                     Vendors with active FSS contracts already have procedures in place to meet these longstanding reporting requirements. However, new FSS vendors will absorb a one-time setup burden to establish reporting systems. The estimated setup time varies between automated and manual reporting systems. Vendors implementing a manual system must acclimate themselves with the new reporting requirements and train their staff accordingly, while those with automated systems must perform these tasks in addition to configuring information technology resources.
                </P>
                <P>GSA estimates the average one-time setup burden is 8 hours for vendors with a manual system and 40 hours for those with an automated system. GSA also attributes the same system type probabilities (manual system 73%, automated system 27%) to the population of new vendors. These estimates apply to the 1,220 vendors awarded FSS contracts in fiscal year 2018.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Quarterly Reporting:</E>
                     Vendors are required to report sales within 30 calendar days after the end of each quarter. The average reporting times vary by system type (manual or automated) and sales volume. GSA estimates vendors using a manual system will have average quarterly reporting times ranging from 15 minutes (0.25 hours) per quarter for vendors with $0 sales to an average of 8 hours per quarter for vendors with quarterly sales over $1 million. On the other hand, GSA projects vendors with automated systems will have reporting times of 2 hours per quarter, irrespective of quarterly sales volume, as a result of efficiencies achieved through automated processes. The following table shows GSA's projected quarterly reporting times per sales category and system type:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s150,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Quarterly Reporting Hours by System Type and Category</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual
                            <LI>systems</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated
                            <LI>systems</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annualized Public Burden Estimates for Sales Reporting:</E>
                     The burden estimates consist of quarterly reporting times for all 14,152 participating contracts and a one-time setup burden for the 1,220 new contracts:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Quarterly Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     90,945.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $5,019,255.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Initial Setup</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Hours):</E>
                     20,336.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden (Cost):</E>
                     $1,577,078.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Price Reductions Clause</HD>
                <P>GSA attributes the PRC-related burden to training, compliance systems, and notifying GSA of price reductions within 15 calendar days after their occurrence.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Training:</E>
                     FSS vendors provide training to their employees to ensure compliance with FSS pricing disclosure requirements. GSA is basing these burden estimates on the number of vendors, not the number of contracts, because vendors with multiple contracts 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24522"/>
                    subject to this requirement will likely not have to provide separate training for each contract.
                </P>
                <P>In FY 2018, there were 12,151 vendors subject to PRC notification requirements, 2,830 (20%) with a heavier lift and 9,721 (80%) with a lighter lift. Vendors within the heavier lift category may need to develop formal training programs and conduct training for numerous divisions and offices, while vendors in the lighter lift category may have no need for training design and administration due to having as few as one person responsible for PRC compliance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Training—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     2,430.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     97,208.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $7,538,480.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Training—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     9,721.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     20.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     194,416.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $15,076,961.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Compliance Systems:</E>
                     FSS vendors must develop systems to control discount relationships with other customers/categories of customer to ensure the basis of award pricing relationship is not disturbed. In public comments submitted on this information collection renewal in 2016, a respondent stated PRC monitoring burden should be 1,290 hours to establish a compliance system in the first year and 1,100 hours each year thereafter for monitoring activities. However, GSA believes the amount of investment into a compliance system is inversely related to the amount of time needed to carry out ongoing monitoring activities. Specifically, vendors making high upfront investments, such as programming a quotation tool to control discounts, will have a lower ongoing monitoring reporting burden. On the other hand, vendors not making upfront investments to establish a compliance system will have a higher ongoing reporting burden.
                </P>
                <P>As a result, GSA is using the 1,290 hour estimate but allocating it across the 20-year life of a contract for heavier lift vendors using automated systems to carry out monitoring activities, resulting in an annual burden of 65 hours. GSA estimates heavier lift vendors that spend less time implementing an automated system will incur a similar burden for monitoring activities, meaning GSA is estimating the same 65 hour/year burden for those vendors. For lighter lift vendors, GSA is attributing an average burden of 700 hours for the 20-year life of the contract, which equates to 35 hours a year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Compliance Systems—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     2,430.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     65.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     156,748.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $12,155,800.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Compliance Systems—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     9,721.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     30.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     341,995.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $26,521,745.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Price Reduction Notifications:</E>
                     1,035 price reduction modifications were completed in FY 2018, with each modification requiring a notification from the vendor. In a survey conducted among GSA FSS contracting officers, respondents estimated it took an average of 4.25 hours to complete a price reduction modification. GSA believes FSS vendors bear a similar burden for this task and is therefore using the same burden estimate.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Price Reduction Notifications</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,035.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     4.25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     4,399.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $341,123.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Commercial Sales Practices Disclosures</HD>
                <P>The CSP burden results from disclosures required of any vendor submitting an offer for an FSS contract or modifying an FSS contract to increase prices, add items and Special Item Numbers, or exercise options.</P>
                <P>The burden estimates for CSP disclosures are based upon the estimates provided by respondents to the GSA FSS contracting officer survey. The 77 survey respondents provided estimates regarding the amount of time it takes FSS contracting officers to complete CSP-related tasks and GSA believes these responses can be used as a benchmark for vendor burden estimates.</P>
                <P>In calculating these burden estimates, GSA acknowledges a vendor's tasks are more complex than simply comparing offered prices to discounts given to other categories of customers. In addition to collecting and analyzing data, GSA expects offerors to provide data that is current, accurate and complete. GSA recognizes this due diligence places an additional burden on offerors. Also, similar to the PRC, factors such as sales volume, the number of contract items, complexity of offerings, and business structures has a significant effect on the burden but can vary widely from vendor to vendor. Consequently, GSA is using the heavier lift and lighter lift methodology for the CSP burden estimates.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Pre-award Disclosures:</E>
                     In fiscal year 2018, vendors submitted 2,503 offers for FSS contracts with CSP disclosure requirements. GSA recognizes the complexity of this task varies with the type and number of offerings, business structure, and expected revenue, so for this burden estimate, these offers are separated between offerors with heavier lifts (20 percent or 501 offers) and those with lighter lifts (80 percent or 2,002 offers).
                </P>
                <P>Prior to receiving comments on this information collection in 2016, GSA based its burden estimates for this function directly on the results from the FAS survey of its FSS contracting officers. However, after receiving public comments stating the pre-award disclosure burden for vendors exceeds that for contracting officers, GSA doubled its vendor estimates, resulting in increases for heavier lift vendors from 41.48 hours/year to 82.96 hours/year and for lighter lift vendors from 32.41 hours/year to 64.82 hours/year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pre-Award Disclosures—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     501.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     82.96.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     41,532.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $3,909,407.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pre-Award Disclosures—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     2,002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     64.82.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     129,801.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $10,066,090.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Price Increase Modifications:</E>
                     In FY 2018, 1,457 price increase modifications were processed, including 492 (20 percent) with a heavier lift and 1,967 (80 percent) with a lighter lift. The time burden for these modifications varies mainly with the type and number of offerings. GSA is basing its burden estimates for this function directly on the results from the FAS survey of its FSS contracting officers.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Price Increases—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     492.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     10.45.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     5,139.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden</E>
                    : $398,553.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Price Increases—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,967.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     9.71.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     18,039.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $1,398,942.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Adding Items and Special Item Numbers (SINs):</E>
                     In FY 2018, 4,209 addition modifications were processed, including 1,275 (20 percent) with a heavier lift and 5,099 (80 percent) with a lighter lift. The time burden for these modifications varies with the type and number of offerings. GSA is basing its 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24523"/>
                    burden estimates for this function directly on the results from the FAS survey of its FSS contracting officers.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Addition Modifications—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,275.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     11.13.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     14,189.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $1,100,320.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Addition Modifications—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     5,099.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     10.65.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     54,306.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $4,211,468.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Exercising Options:</E>
                     In FY 2018, 2,468 option modifications were processed, including 494 (20 percent) with a heavier lift and 1,974 (80 percent) with a lighter lift. The time burden for these modifications varies with the type and number of offerings, business structure, and expected revenue. GSA is basing its burden estimates for this function directly on the results from the FAS survey of its FSS contracting officers because while the associated tasks with processing an option CSP are similar to that of a pre-award CSP, the option CSP requires less time because of familiarity and precedents created during the preceding contract period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Option Modifications—Heavier Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     494.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     26.14.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     12,903.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $1,000,605.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Option Modifications—Lighter Lift</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,974.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     22.32.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     44,069.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $3,417,521.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">GSA Office of Inspector General Audits</HD>
                <P>
                    The GSA Office of Inspector General (OIG) regularly audits GSA Schedule contracts for compliance with PRC and CSP requirements. The GSA OIG performed 48 contract audits in FY 2018.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Survey responses included with public comments submitted for the 2012 renewal of this information collection noted vendors estimated spending approximately 440-470 hours preparing for audits involving the PRC. This burden still applied in 2018, so GSA is taking the median point of that range (455) and multiplying it by 48 audits, to reach the sum of 21,840 hours expended preparing for audits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The GSA OIG's audit findings are outlined in their Semiannual Reports to the Congress. The report covering October 1, 2017 to March 31, 2018 stated the OIG performed 21 contract audits and the report covering April 1, 2018 to September 30, 2018 stated the GSA OIG performed 27 contract audits.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">GSA OIG Audits</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     48.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     455.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Time Burden (Hours):</E>
                     21,840.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Cost Burden:</E>
                     $1,226,316.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Total Annual Burden</HD>
                <P>The total estimated burden imposed by Federal Supply Schedule pricing disclosures is as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Annual Time Burden (Hours)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sales Reporting:</E>
                     111,281.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Price Reductions Clause:</E>
                     794,766.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">CSP Disclosures:</E>
                     319,978.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">GSA OIG Audits:</E>
                     21,840.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     1,247,865.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Annual Cost Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sales Reporting:</E>
                     $6,141,614.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Price Reductions Clause:</E>
                     $61,634,109.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">CSP Disclosures:</E>
                     $24,814,275.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">GSA OIG Audits:</E>
                     $1,693,692.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost Burden:</E>
                     $94,283,689.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obtaining Copies of Proposals:</E>
                     Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755. Please cite OMB Control No. 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting, in all correspondence.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11029 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 9000-0193; Docket No. 2019-0003; Sequence No. 22]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection; FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations, DoD, GSA, and NASA invite the public to comment on a revision and renewal concerning the responsibility of prospective contractors. OMB has approved this information collection for use through August 31, 2019. DoD, GSA, and NASA propose that OMB extend its approval for use for three additional years beyond the current expiration date.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>DoD, GSA, and NASA will consider all comments received by July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAR Council invites interested persons to submit comments on this collection by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         This website provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field or attach a file for lengthier comments. Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the instructions on the site.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Lois Mandell/IC 9000-0193, FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All items submitted must cite Information Collection 9000-0193, FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters. Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal and/or business confidential information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two to three days after submission to verify posting (except allow 30 days for posting of comments submitted by mail). This information collection is pending at the FAR Council. The Council will submit it to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Mahruba Uddowla, Procurement Analyst, at telephone 703-605-2868, or 
                        <E T="03">mahruba.uddowla@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. OMB number:</E>
                     9000-0193.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title, and any Associated Form(s):</E>
                     FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24524"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision/Renewal of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Solicitation of Public Comment</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Purpose</HD>
                <P>DoD, GSA, and NASA are in the process of combining OMB Control Nos. for the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) by FAR part. This consolidation is expected to improve industry's ability to easily and efficiently identify all burdens associated with a given FAR part. The review of the information collections by FAR part allows improved oversight to ensure there is no redundant or unaccounted for burden placed on the public. Lastly, combining information collections in a given FAR part is also expected to reduce the administrative burden associated with reviewing, processing, or commenting on multiple information collections.</P>
                <P>This justification supports renewal of OMB Control No. 9000-0193 and combines it with the previously approved information collections OMB Control No(s). 9000-0094, with the new title “FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters”. Upon approval of this consolidated information collection, OMB Control No(s). 9000-0094 will be discontinued. The burden requirements previously approved under the discontinued Number(s) will be covered under OMB Control No. 9000-0193.</P>
                <P>This clearance covers the information that offerors and contractors must submit to comply with the following FAR requirements:</P>
                <P>1. Prohibition on Contracting With Corporations with Delinquent Taxes or a Felony Conviction (FAR 52.209-11, 52.209-12, and 52.212-3(q)). FAR provision 52.209-11, Representation by Corporations Regarding Delinquent Tax Liability or a Felony Conviction under any Federal Law, and its equivalent for commercial acquisitions at FAR provision 52.212-3(q), implement sections 744 and 745 of Division E of the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 (Pub. L. 113-235). Sections 744 and 745 prohibit agencies from entering into a contract with any corporation with any delinquent Federal tax liability or a felony conviction, unless the agency has considered suspension or debarment of the corporation and has made a determination that this further action is not necessary to protect the interests of the Government.</P>
                <P>FAR provision 52.209-12, Certification Regarding Tax Matters, implements section 523 of the Commerce, Justice, Science, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2015 (Division B) and the same provision in subsequent appropriations acts. Agencies funded by these acts include the Department of Commerce, the Department of Justice, NASA, as well as some smaller agencies. This section prohibits award of any contract in an amount greater than $5,000,000 by those covered agencies, unless the offeror affirmatively certifies that it has filed all Federal tax returns required during the three years preceding the certification; has not been convicted of a criminal offense under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and has not, more than 90 days prior to certification, been notified of any unpaid Federal tax assessment for which the liability remains unsatisfied, unless the assessment is the subject of an installment agreement or offer in compromise that has been approved by the Internal Revenue Service and is not in default, or the assessment is the subject of a non-frivolous administrative or judicial proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    2. Debarment, Suspension, and Other Responsibility Matters (FAR 52.209-5, 52.209-6, and 52.212-3(h)). The Competition in Contracting Act of 1984 requires that contract awards be made to responsible prospective contractors only. To be determined responsible, a prospective contractor must meet a series of general standards. The standards include having a satisfactory record of integrity and business ethics, and being otherwise qualified and eligible to receive an award under applicable laws and regulations. FAR provision 52.209-5, Certification Regarding Responsibility Matters, and its equivalent for commercial acquisitions at FAR provision 52.212-3(h), require the disclosure of certain critical factors by an offeror to be considered by the contracting officer in making a responsibility determination. These critical factors, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                     suspended, debarred, criminal offense conviction, etc, determine whether the offeror is eligible for an award. The provision also requires offerors to provide immediate written notice to the contracting officer if, at any time prior to contract award, the offeror learns that its certification was erroneous when submitted or has become erroneous by reason of changed circumstances.
                </P>
                <P>FAR clause 52.209-6, Protecting the Government's Interest When Subcontracting with Contractor's Debarred, Suspended, or Proposed for Debarment, similarly ensures that the Government deals with responsible subcontractors. Paragraph (b) of 52.209-6 prohibits contractors from entering into any subcontract in excess of $35,000 with a subcontractor that is debarred, suspended, or proposed for debarment by any executive agency unless there is a compelling reason to do so. Paragraph (c) of the clause requires the contractor to require each proposed subcontractor whose subcontract will exceed $35,000, to disclose to the contractor in writing, whether as of the time of award of the subcontract, the subcontractor, or its principals, is or is not debarred, suspended, or proposed for debarment by the Government. Paragraph (d) of clause requires that before entering into a subcontract with a party that is debarred, suspended, or proposed for debarment, a corporate officer or designee of the contractor must notify the contracting officer, in writing, of the name of the subcontractor; why the subcontractor is debarred, suspended, or ineligible; the compelling reason(s) for doing business with the subcontractor; and how the contractor will protect the Government's interests when dealing with such subcontractor. For any subcontract subject to Government consent, contracting officers shall not consent to such subcontracts, unless the agency head or a designee states in writing the compelling reasons for approving such subcontract.</P>
                <P>
                    3. Information Regarding Responsibility Matters and Updates to That Publicly Available Information (FAR 52.209-7 and 52.209-9). Section 872 of the Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 110-417), enacted on October 14, 2008, required the development and maintenance of an information system that contains specific information on the integrity and performance of covered Federal agency contractors and grantees. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24525"/>
                    The Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) was developed to address these requirements. FAPIIS provides users access to integrity and performance information from the FAPIIS reporting module in the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS), as well as proceedings information and suspension/debarment information from SAM. FAR provision 52.209-7, Information Regarding Responsibility Matters, requires information that is necessary to: (1) Determine the responsibility of prospective contractors; and (2) ensure that contractors maintain for accuracy and completeness, their integrity and performance information upon which responsibility determinations rely. Paragraph (b) of the provision contains a check box to be completed by the offeror indicating whether or not it has current active Federal contracts and grants with total value greater than $10,000,000. Paragraph (c) of the provision states that, if the offeror indicated in paragraph (b) that it has current active Federal contracts and grants with total value greater than $10,000,000, then, by submission of the offer, the offeror represents that the information entered into FAPIIS is current, accurate, and complete as of the date of submission of the offer.
                </P>
                <P>FAR clause 52.209-9, Updates of Publicly Available Information Regarding Responsibility Matters, implements the requirement to keep FAPIIS up-to-date and the requirement of section 3010 of the Supplemental Appropriations Act, 2010 (Pub. L. 111-212), to make all information posted in FAPIIS on or after April 15, 2011, except past performance reviews, publicly available. Paragraph (a) of the clause at 52.209-9 requires the contractor to update responsibility information on a semiannual basis, throughout the life of the contract, by posting the information in SAM. Paragraph (c) of the clause lets contractors know of their ability to provide feedback on information posted by the Government in FAPIIS and the procedure to follow in the event information exempt from public disclosure is slated to become publicly available information in FAPIIS.</P>
                <P>4. Prohibition on Contracting with Inverted Domestic Corporations (FAR 52.209-2, 52.209-10, and 52.212-3(n)). Section 745 of Division D of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2008 (Pub. L. 110-161) and its successor provisions in subsequent appropriations acts (and as extended in continuing resolutions) prohibit, on a Governmentwide basis, the use of appropriated (or otherwise made available) funds for contracts with either an inverted domestic corporation, or a subsidiary of such a corporation.</P>
                <P>FAR provision 52.209-2,Prohibition on Contracting with Inverted Domestic Corporations-Representation, and its equivalent for commercial acquisitions at FAR provision 52.212-3(n), requires each offeror to represent whether it is, or is not, an inverted domestic corporation or a subsidiary of an inverted domestic corporation.</P>
                <P>FAR clause 52.209-10, Prohibition on Contracting with Inverted Domestic Corporations, requires the contractor to promptly notify the contracting officer in the event the contractor becomes an inverted domestic corporation or a subsidiary of an inverted domestic corporation during the period of performance of the contract.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Recordkeepers:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">1,333,801.</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">1,328,450</E>
                     respondents + 5,351 recordkeepers).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">1,437,826.4.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">1,511,005. (975,905 reporting</E>
                     hours + 535,100 recordkeeping hours).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obtaining Copies:</E>
                     Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755. Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0193, FAR Part 9 Responsibility Matters, in all correspondence.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Janet Fry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Governmentwide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11007 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6820-EP-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 9000-0057; Docket No. 2019-0003; Sequence No. 5]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Evaluation of Export Offers</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve a revision and renewal of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning evaluation of export offers.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         This website provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field or attach a file for lengthier comments. Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the instructions on the site.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Ms. Mandell/IC 9000-0057, Evaluation of Export Offers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Please submit comments only and cite Information Collection “Information Collection 9000-0057, Evaluation of Export Offers” in all correspondence related to this collection. Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal and/or business confidential information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two-to-three days after submission to verify posting (except allow 30 days for posting of comments submitted by mail).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Curtis E. Glover, Sr., Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, 202-501-4082 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Curtis.glover@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. OMB Number, Title, and Any Associated Form(s)</HD>
                <P>9000-0057, Evaluation of Export Offers</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Needs and Uses</HD>
                <P>
                    Offers submitted in response to Government solicitations must be evaluated and awards made on the basis of the lowest laid down cost to the Government at the overseas port of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24526"/>
                    discharge, via methods and ports compatible with required delivery dates and conditions affecting transportation known at the time of evaluation. FAR provision 52.247-51, “Evaluation of Export Offers,” is required for insertion in Government solicitations when supplies are to be exported through Contiguous United States (CONUS) ports and offers are solicited on a free onboard (f.o.b.) origin or f.o.b. destination basis. The provision has three alternates, to be used (1) when the CONUS ports of export are DoD water terminals, (2) when offers are solicited on an f.o.b. origin only basis, and (3) when offers are solicited on an f.o.b. destination only basis. The provision collects information regarding the offeror's preference for delivery ports. The information is used to evaluate offers [on the basis of shipment through the port resulting in the lowest cost to the Government.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     4.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     400.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Hours per Response:</E>
                     0.25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     100.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Public Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 84 FR 5084 on February 20, 2019. No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obtaining Copies:</E>
                     Requesters may obtain a copy of the information collection documents from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW, Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755.
                </P>
                <P>Please cite OMB Control Number “9000-0057, Evaluation of Export Offers,” in all correspondence.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Janet Fry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Governmentwide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11004 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6820-EP-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2019-D-0914]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards; Extension of Comment Period</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; extension of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is extending the comment period for the notice of availability that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on March 29, 2019. FDA requested comments on the draft guidance for industry entitled “Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards.” The Agency is taking this action in response to a request for an extension to allow interested persons additional time to submit comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>FDA is extending the comment period on the document published March 29, 2019 (84 FR 11983). Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by June 27, 2019, to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will be posted to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions):</E>
                     Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     All submissions received must include the Docket No. FDA-2019-D-0914 for “Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards.” Received comments will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify this information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed except in accordance with 21 CFR 10.20 and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the information at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     For access to the docket to read background documents or the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24527"/>
                    electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tiffany Kelley, Office of Regulatory Affairs, Division of Operational Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-348-1970, 
                        <E T="03">Tiffany.Kelley@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 29, 2019, FDA published a notice of availability with a 60-day comment period to request comments on the draft guidance for industry entitled “Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards.”
                </P>
                <P>The Agency has received a request for a 30-day extension of the comment period. The request conveyed concern that the current 60-day comment period does not allow sufficient time to develop thoughtful and detailed input.</P>
                <P>FDA has considered the request and is extending the comment period for the notice of availability for 30 days, until June 27, 2019. The Agency believes that a 30-day extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments without significantly delaying guidance on these important issues.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Significance of Draft Guidance</HD>
                <P>FDA is issuing this draft guidance consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on this topic. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>This draft guidance refers to currently approved collections of information. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 803 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0437. The collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0073.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Electronic Access</HD>
                <P>
                    Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the internet at either 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/MedicalDevices/DeviceRegulationandGuidance/GuidanceDocuments/default.htm, https://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/GuidanceComplianceRegulatoryInformation/default.htm,</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Persons unable to download an electronic copy of “Review and Update of Device Establishment Inspection Processes and Standards; Draft Guidance for Industry” may send an email request to 
                    <E T="03">ORAPolicyStaffs@fda.hhs.gov</E>
                     to receive an electronic copy of the document.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lowell J. Schiller,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Associate Commissioner for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11012 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program Performance, OMB No. 0915-0363—Extension</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this ICR should be received no later than June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, including the ICR Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to 
                        <E T="03">OIRA_submission@omb.eop.gov</E>
                         or by fax to (202) 395-5806.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email Lisa Wright-Solomon, the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or call (301) 443-1984.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collection Request Title:</E>
                     Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program Performance Measures, OMB No. 0915-0363—Extension
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This information collection comment request is for continued approval of the Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program Performance Measures. HRSA is proposing to continue this data collection with no changes. The current performance measures are collected electronically in the Performance Improvement and Measurement System, which awardees access securely through the HRSA Electronic Handbooks.
                </P>
                <P>The Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program (Flex Program) is authorized by Section 1820 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395i-4), as amended. The purpose of the Flex Program is to enable state designated entities to support critical access hospitals in quality improvement, quality reporting, performance improvement, and benchmarking; to assist facilities seeking designation as critical access hospitals; and to create a program to establish or expand the provision of rural emergency medical services.</P>
                <P>
                    A 60-day 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on February 5, 2019, vol. 84, No. 24; pp. 1751-1752. There were no public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Proposed Use of the Information:</E>
                     For this program, performance measures were developed to provide data useful to the Flex program and to enable HRSA to provide aggregate program data required by Congress under the Government Performance and Results Modernization Act of 2010 (GPRA). These measures cover principal topic areas of interest to the Federal Office of Rural Health Policy including: (a) Quality reporting, (b) quality improvement interventions, (c) financial and operational improvement initiatives, (d) population health management, and (e) innovative care models. Several measures will be used for this program and will inform the Office's progress toward meeting the goals set in GPRA. Furthermore, obtained information is important in identifying and understanding programmatic improvement across program areas, as well as guiding future iterations of the Flex Program and prioritizing areas of need and support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Respondents are the Flex Program coordinator for the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24528"/>
                    states participating in the Flex Program. There are currently 45 states participating in the Flex Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Statement:</E>
                     Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s40,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total burden
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,150</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Estimated Annualized Burden—Hours</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,150</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy P. McNulty,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Division of the Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11050 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel Member Conflict: Radiation Therapeutics and Biology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 14, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         12:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (Telephone Conference Call).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Syed M. Quadri, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6210, MSC 7804, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-1211, 
                        <E T="03">quadris@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Accelerating the Pace of Drug Abuse Research Using Existing Data.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 19, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Karen Nieves Lugo, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">karen.nieveslugo@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Biochemistry and Biophysics of Biological Macromolecules Fellowship Applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Sudha Veeraraghavan, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-1504, 
                        <E T="03">sudha.veeraraghavan@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Cancer Diagnostics and Treatments (CDT).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Warwick Denver, 1776 Grant Street, Denver, CO 80203.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Zhang-Zhi Hu, MD, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6186, MSC 7804, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 437-8135, 
                        <E T="03">huzhuang@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Disease Prevention and Management, Risk Reduction and Health Behavior Change.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         The Westgate Hotel, 1055 Second Avenue, San Diego, CA 92101.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michael J. McQuestion, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3114, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-480-1276, 
                        <E T="03">mike.mcquestion@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Oncology 1-Basic Translational Integrated Review Group; Tumor Microenvironment Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         The Crowne Plaza Seattle, 1113 6th Avenue, Seattle, WA 98101.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Angela Y. Ng, Ph.D., MBA, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6200, MSC 7804, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-1715, 
                        <E T="03">ngan@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Biobehavioral and Behavioral Processes Integrated Review Group; Child Psychopathology and Developmental Disabilities Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Wyndham Grand Chicago Riverfront, 71, East Wacker Dr., Chicago, IL 60601.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Katherine Colona Morasch, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3170, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">moraschkc@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Musculoskeletal, Oral and Skin Sciences Integrated Review Group; Skeletal Muscle and Exercise Physiology Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Virginian Suites, 1500 Arlington Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22209.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Richard Ingraham, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 4116, MSC 7814, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-8551, 
                        <E T="03">ingrahamrh@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel PAR Panel; Academic-Industrial Partnerships for Translation of Medical Technologies.
                        <PRTPAGE P="24529"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Hyatt Regency Bethesda, Bethesda, MD 20814.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Guo Feng Xu, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5122, MSC 7854, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-237-9870, 
                        <E T="03">xuguofen@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Healthcare Delivery and Methodologies Integrated Review Group; Health Services Organization and Delivery Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 24-25, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Embassy Suites at the Chevy Chase Pavilion, 4300 Military Road NW, Washington, DC 20015.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jacinta Bronte-Tinkew, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3164, MSC 7770, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 806-0009, 
                        <E T="03">brontetinkewjm@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sylvia L. Neal,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10976 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering Special Emphasis Panel.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering Special Emphasis Panel; P41 BTRC Review E SEP.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 2, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Two Democracy Plaza, Suite 920, 6707 Democracy Boulevard, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         John P. Holden, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering, National Institutes of Health, Two Democracy Boulevard, Suite 920, 6707 Democracy Blvd., Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-8775, 
                        <E T="03">john.holden@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sylvia L. Neal,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10984 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Surgical Sciences, Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering Integrated Review Group; Emerging Imaging Technologies and Applications Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Ritz-Carlton Hotel, 1700 Tysons Boulevard, McLean, VA 22102.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Songtao Liu, MD, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5118, Bethesda, MD 20817, 301-827-6828, 
                        <E T="03">songtao.liu@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Brain Disorders and Clinical Neuroscience Integrated Review Group; Diseases and Pathophysiology of the Visual System Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Residence Inn Bethesda, 7335 Wisconsin Avenue, Bethesda, MD 20814.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Nataliya Gordiyenko, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5202, MSC 7846, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301.435.1265, 
                        <E T="03">gordiyenkon@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Brain Disorders and Clinical Neuroscience Integrated Review Group; Acute Neural Injury and Epilepsy Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Wyndham Grand Chicago Riverfront, 71 E Wacker, Chicago, IL 60601.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Paula Elyse Schauwecker, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5201, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-760-8207, 
                        <E T="03">schauweckerpe@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Cardiovascular and Respiratory Sciences Integrated Review Group; Myocardial Ischemia and Metabolism Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Warwick Denver, 1776 Grant St., Denver, CO 80203.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kimm Hamann, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 4118A, MSC 7814, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-5575, 
                        <E T="03">hamannkj@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Population Sciences and Epidemiology Integrated Review Group; Biostatistical Methods and Research Design Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Hotel Solamar, 435 6th Avenue, San Diego, CA 92101.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Chittari V. Shivakumar, Scientific Review Officer, National Institutes of Health, Center for Scientific Review, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-408-9098, 
                        <E T="03">chittari.shivakumar@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Oncology 2—Translational Clinical Integrated Review Group; Drug Discovery and Molecular Pharmacology Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Hyatt Regency Bethesda, One Bethesda Metro Center, 7400 Wisconsin Avenue, Bethesda, MD 20814.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jeffrey Smiley, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6194, MSC 7804, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-7945, 
                        <E T="03">smileyja@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24530"/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Oncology 2—Translational Clinical Integrated Review Group; Cancer Prevention Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 20-21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Sir Francis Drake Hotel, 450 Powell Street at Sutter, San Francisco, CA 94102.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Svetlana Kotliarova, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6214, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-7945, 
                        <E T="03">kotliars@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Integrative, Functional and Cognitive Neuroscience Integrated Review Group; Chemosensory Systems Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         June 21, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         John Bishop, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5182, MSC 7844, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 408-9664, 
                        <E T="03">bishopj@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sylvia L. Neal,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10979 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2019-0254]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for applications.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Coast Guard seeks applications for membership on the Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee. The Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee provides advice and makes recommendations to the Coast Guard and the Department of Homeland Security on various matters relating to the safe operation of commercial fishing industry vessels.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Completed applications should reach the U.S. Coast Guard on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicants should send a cover letter expressing interest in an appointment to the Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee and a resume detailing the applicant's experience. We will not accept a biography. Incomplete applications will not be considered. The cover letter and/or resume should include the following:</P>
                    <P>• Membership category the applicant is seeking an appointment for;</P>
                    <P>• Your home address, phone number and email address;</P>
                    <P>• Your employer's name and address (if applicable); and</P>
                    <P>• Your work phone number and email address (if applicable).</P>
                    <P>Applications should be submitted via one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">By Email: Jonathan.G.Wendland@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Subject line:</E>
                         The Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee (preferred).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">By Mail:</E>
                         Commandant (CG-CVC-3)/CFSAC, Attn: Mr. Jonathan Wendland, U.S. Coast Guard, 2703 Martin Luther King Ave. SE, Stop 7501, Washington, DC 20593-7501.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Jonathan Wendland, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee, 202-372-1245 or 
                        <E T="03">Jonathan.G.Wendland@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee is a federal advisory committee which operates under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, (Title 5, U.S.C. Appendix 2). The U.S. Coast Guard chartered the Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee to provide advice on issues related to the safety of commercial fishing industry vessels regulated under Chapter 45 of title 46, United States Code, which includes uninspected fish catching vessels, fish processing vessels, and fish tender vessels. (See Title 46 U.S.C. 15102)</P>
                <P>The Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee meets at least once a year. It may also meet for other extraordinary purposes. Its subcommittees or working groups may communicate throughout the year to prepare for meetings or develop proposals for the committee as a whole or to address specific tasks.</P>
                <P>Each member serves for a term of three years. An individual may be appointed to a term as a member more than once, but not more than two terms consecutively. All members serve at their own expense and receive no salary or other compensation from the Federal Government, although travel reimbursement and per diem may be provided for called meetings.</P>
                <P>The U.S. Coast Guard will consider applications for seven positions that will be vacant on June 2019 in the following categories:</P>
                <P>(a) Individuals who represent the Commercial Fishing Industry(five Positions);</P>
                <P>(b) Naval Architect/Marine Engineer (one position);</P>
                <P>(c) An individual who represents the general public, a person familiar with issues affecting fishing communities and families of fishermen (one position).</P>
                <P>
                    If you are selected as a member from the general public (c above), you will be appointed and serve as a Special Government Employee as defined in Section 202(a) of Title 18, U.S.C. Applicants for appointment as a Special Government Employee are required to complete a New Entrant Confidential Financial Disclosure Report (OGE Form 450) prior to appointment and each year they serve thereafter. The U.S. Coast Guard may not release the reports or the information in them to the public except under an order issued by a Federal court or as otherwise provided under the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a). Only the Designated U.S. Coast Guard Ethics Official or his or her designee may release a Confidential Financial Disclosure Report. Applicants can obtain this form by going to the website of the Office of Government Ethics (
                    <E T="03">www.oge.gov</E>
                    ), or by contacting the individual listed in 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>Registered lobbyists are not eligible to serve on federal advisory committees in an individual capacity. See “Revised Guidance on Appointment of Lobbyist to Federal Advisory Committees, Boards, and Commissions” (79 CFR 47482, August 13, 2014). Registered lobbyists are lobbyists as defined in Title 2, U.S.C. 1602 who are required by Title 2 U.S.C. 1603 to register with the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives. The position we list for a member from the general public would be someone appointed in their individual capacity and would be designated as a Special Government Employee as defined in Section 202(a), Title 18, U.S.C.</P>
                <P>
                    The Department of Homeland Security does not discriminate in selection of Committee members on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, political affiliation, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital status, disability and genetic information, age, membership in an employee organization, or any other non-merit factor. The Department of Homeland Security strives to achieve a widely diverse candidate pool for all of its recruitment actions.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24531"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you are interested in applying to become a member of the Committee, send your cover letter and resume to Mr. Jonathan Wendland, Commercial Fishing Safety Advisory Committee Alternate Designated Federal Officer, via one of the transmittal methods in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section by the deadline in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section. All email submittals will receive an email receipt confirmation.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer F. Williams,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Director of Inspections and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11057 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2019-0261]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0067</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Sixty-day notice requesting comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0067, Claims under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2019-0261] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         See the “Public participation and request for comments” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for further instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Additionally, copies are available from: COMMANDANT (CG-612), ATTN: PAPERWORK REDUCTION ACT MANAGER, U.S. COAST GUARD, 2703 MARTIN LUTHER KING JR AVE SE, STOP 7710, WASHINGTON, DC 20593-7710.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P> Contact Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consistent with the requirements of Executive Order 13771, Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, and Executive Order 13777, Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda, the Coast Guard is also requesting comments on the extent to which this request for information could be modified to reduce the burden on respondents. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.</P>
                <P>We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2019-0261], and must be received by July 29, 2019.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If your material cannot be submitted using 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     contact the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document for alternate instructions. Documents mentioned in this notice, and all public comments, are in our online docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and can be viewed by following that website's instructions. Additionally, if you go to the online docket and sign up for email alerts, you will be notified when comments are posted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and will include any personal information you have provided. For more about privacy and the docket, you may review a Privacy Act notice regarding the Federal Docket Management System in the March 24, 2005, issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (70 FR 15086).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection Request</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Claims under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1625-0067.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                     This information collection provides the means to develop and submit a claim to the National Pollution Funds Center to seek compensation for removal costs and damages incurred resulting from an oil discharge or substantial threat of discharge. This collection also provides an opportunity for a responsible party to advertise where claims may be sent after an incident occurs, as required by regulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need:</E>
                     This information collection is required by 33 CFR part 136, for implementing 33 U.S.C. 2713(e) and 33 U.S.C. 2714(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Forms:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Claimants.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Hour Burden Estimate:</E>
                     The estimated burden has decreased from 9,370 hours to 2,620 hours a year, due to a decrease in the estimated annual number of responses.
                </P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James D. Roppel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE> Chief, U.S. Coast Guard, Office of Information Management.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11021 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24532"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2019-0348]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Request to Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0037</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Sixty-day notice requesting comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0037, Certificates of Compliance, Boiler/Pressure Vessel Repairs, Cargo Gear Records, Shipping Papers, and NFPA 10 Certificates; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2019-0348] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         See the “Public participation and request for comments” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for further instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Additionally, copies are available from: COMMANDANT (CG-612), ATTN: PAPERWORK REDUCTION ACT MANAGER, U.S. COAST GUARD, 2703 MARTIN LUTHER KING JR AVE SE, STOP 7710, WASHINGTON, DC 20593-7710.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consistent with the requirements of Executive Order 13771, Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, and Executive Order 13777, Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda, the Coast Guard is also requesting comments on the extent to which this request for information could be modified to reduce the burden on respondents. In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.</P>
                <P>We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, [USCG-2019-0348], and must be received by July 29, 2019.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Submitting comments</HD>
                <P>
                    We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If your material cannot be submitted using 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     contact the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document for alternate instructions. Documents mentioned in this notice, and all public comments, are in our online docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and can be viewed by following that website's instructions. Additionally, if you go to the online docket and sign up for email alerts, you will be notified when comments are posted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and will include any personal information you have provided. For more about privacy and the docket, you may review a Privacy Act notice regarding the Federal Docket Management System in the March 24, 2005, issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (70 FR 15086).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection Request</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Certificates of Compliance, Boiler/Pressure Vessel Repairs, Cargo Gear Records, Shipping Papers, and NFPA 10 Certificates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1625-0037.
                    <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                </P>
                <P>This information is needed to enable the Coast Guard to fulfill its responsibilities for maritime safety under Title 46, U.S. Code.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need:</E>
                     Title 46 U.S. Code 3301, 3305, 3306, 3702, 3703, 3711, and 3714 authorizes the Coast Guard to establish marine safety regulations to protect life, property, and the environment. These regulations are prescribed in Title 46 Code of Federal Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>The requirements for reporting Boiler/Pressure Valve Repairs, maintaining Cargo Gear Records, maintaining Shipping Papers, issuance of Certificates of Compliance (CG-3585), and maintaining NFPA 10 Certification provide the marine inspector with available information as to the condition of a vessel and its equipment. It also contains information on the vessel owner and lists the type and amount of cargo that has been or is being transported. These requirements are relate to the promotion of safety of life at sea and protection of the marine environment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Forms:</E>
                     CG-3585, Certificate of Compliance; CG-5437A, Port State Control Report of Inspection—Form A; CG-5437B, Port State Control Report of Inspection—Form B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Owners and operators of vessels.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Hour Burden Estimate:</E>
                     The estimated burden has increased from 14,793 hours to 18,703 hours a year, due to an increase in the estimated annual number of responses.
                </P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James D. Roppel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>U.S. Coast Guard, Chief, Office of Information Management.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11020 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24533"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[CISA-2019-0003]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of the President's National Infrastructure Advisory Council Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security, (DHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), (CISA) announces a meeting of the President's National Infrastructure Advisory Council (NIAC). The meeting will be a joint session with the President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee (NSTAC) and will allow NIAC and NSTAC members to discuss and coordinate critical infrastructure activities and pertinent Government cybersecurity initiatives and national security and emergency preparedness priorities with DHS leadership and other senior Government officials. The meeting will also allow NSTAC and NIAC members to engage in a collaborative discussion and provide feedback on each committee's examinations. This will be the first time that the committees have held a joint meeting. The NSTAC has issued a separate, contemporaneous 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice announcing its participation in the joint meeting. CISA invites public comment on the agenda items to be considered by both committees at the meeting.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Registration:</E>
                         Registration to attend the meeting in person must be received by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on June 5, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Comments:</E>
                         Written comments are due by 12:00 p.m. ET on June 12, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting:</E>
                         The meeting will be held on June 13, 2019 from 8:30 a.m.-3:15 p.m. Pacific Time (PT).
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The joint meeting will be held at Microsoft Studio H/1022-Chinook Facility, 3850 148th Ave. NE, Redmond, WA 98052.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Registration:</E>
                         To register, send an email to 
                        <E T="03">NIAC@hq.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Include “NIAC/NSTAC Meeting Registration” in the subject line of the message. You may register either through the NIAC or NSTAC, but it is not necessary to register with both committees to attend the meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Comments:</E>
                         Written comments may be submitted on the issues to be considered by the NIAC and NSTAC as described in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below. Any associated briefing materials for the public session of the meeting will be made publicly available at both of the following website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/national-infrastructure-advisory-councilandhttps://www.dhs.gov/cisa/national-security-telecommunications-advisory-committeeon</E>
                         Friday, May 30, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments identified by docket number “
                        <E T="03">CISA-2019-0003”</E>
                         may be submitted by:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting written comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this notice. All written comments received will be posted without alteration at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. For detailed instructions on sending comments and additional information on participating in the upcoming NIAC and NSTAC meeting, see the “Public Participation” heading of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket and to read comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ginger K. Norris, NIAC Designated Federal Officer, 202-441-5885, 
                        <E T="03">ginger.norris@hq.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Notice of this meeting is given under the (FACA), 5 U.S.C. Appendix (Pub. L. 92-463). The NIAC provides the President, through the Secretary of Homeland Security, with advice on the security and resilience of the Nation's critical infrastructure sectors.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The NSTAC advises the President on matters related to National Security and Emergency Preparedness (NS/EP) telecommunications and cybersecurity policy.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The meeting will be the first joint meeting with the NSTAC and will allow NIAC and NSTAC members to discuss and coordinate critical infrastructure activities and pertinent Government cybersecurity initiatives and national security and emergency preparedness priorities with DHS leadership and other senior Government officials. The meeting will also allow NSTAC and NIAC members to engage in a collaborative discussion and provide feedback on each committee's examinations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The NIAC was established under Section 10 of E.O. 13231, 66 FR 53063 (Oct. 16, 2001) and was most recently amended and continued under E.O. 13811, 82 FR 46363 (Sep. 29, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The NSTAC was established by E.O. 12382, 47 FR 40531 (Sept. 15, 1982), amended by E.O. 13286, 68 FR 10619 (Mar. 5, 2003), and most recently continued under E.O. 13811, 82 FR 46363 (Sept. 29, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                     The NSTAC and NIAC will meet in an open session from 12:30 p.m.-3:15 p.m. on June 13, 2019, and receive remarks from DHS leadership and other senior Government officials regarding the Government's current cybersecurity initiatives and critical infrastructure priorities. The meeting will include a keynote address and a panel discussion on foreign economic industrial policies and the U.S. supply chain. Participants will also discuss advancing resiliency and fostering innovation in the Information and Communication Technology (ICT) ecosystem, which relates to the NSTAC's study examining what technology capabilities the United States needs to support robust and resilient networks and other NS/EP functions, and how the Government is managing risks associated with those dependencies.
                </P>
                <P>The committees will also meet in a closed session from 8:30 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. to discuss adversarial threats to critical infrastructure and cybersecurity systems and potential NSTAC and NIAC study topics.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Basis for Closure:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(B), The Government in the Sunshine Act, it has been determined that two agenda items require closure because disclosure of the information that will be discussed would not be in the public interest.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the agenda items include an adversarial threat discussion and a discussion of potential NSTAC and NIAC study topics. These discussions will address areas of critical cybersecurity vulnerabilities and critical infrastructure priorities for Government. Government officials will share data with NSTAC and NIAC members on initiatives, assessments, and future security requirements across public and private sector networks. The information will include specific vulnerabilities within cyberspace that affect the United States' ICT infrastructures and proposed mitigation strategies. Disclosure of this information to the public would provide adversaries with an incentive to focus on these vulnerabilities to increase attacks on the Nation's critical infrastructure and communications networks. As disclosure of this portion of the meeting is likely to significantly frustrate implementation of proposed DHS 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24534"/>
                    actions, it is required to be closed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(B).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Registration Information:</E>
                     Due to limited seating, requests to attend in person will be accepted and processed in the order in which they are received.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comment:</E>
                     While this meeting is open to the public, participation in FACA deliberations are limited to council members. A public comment period will be held during the meeting from approximately 2:45 p.m.-3:15 p.m. PT. Speakers who wish to comment during the meeting must register in advance and can do so by emailing 
                    <E T="03">NIAC@hq.dhs.gov</E>
                     no later than Wednesday, June 5, 2019, at 5:00 p.m. ET. You may register to comment either through the NIAC or NSTAC, but it is not necessary to register with both committees. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to three minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information on Services for Individuals With Disabilities:</E>
                     For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact 
                    <E T="03">NIAC@hq.dhs.gov</E>
                     as soon as possible.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 20, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ginger K. Norris,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Designated Federal Officer, National Infrastructure Advisory Counsel, Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10992 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-9P-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[DHS-2019-0024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of the President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), CISA announces a meeting of the President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee (NSTAC). The meeting will be a joint session with the President's National Infrastructure Advisory Council (NIAC) and will allow NIAC and NSTAC members to discuss and coordinate critical infrastructure activities and pertinent Government cybersecurity initiatives and national security and emergency preparedness priorities with DHS leadership and other senior Government officials. The meeting will also allow NSTAC and NIAC members to engage in a collaborative discussion and provide feedback on each committee's examinations. This will be the first time that the committees have held a joint meeting. The NIAC has issued a separate, contemporaneous 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice announcing its participation in the joint meeting. CISA invites public comment on the agenda items to be considered by both committees at the meeting.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Registration:</E>
                         Registration to attend the meeting in person must be received by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on June 5, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Comments:</E>
                         Written comments are due by 12:00 p.m. ET on June 12, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting:</E>
                         The meeting will be held on June 13, 2019 from 8:30 a.m.-3:15 p.m. Pacific Time (PT).
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The joint meeting will be held at Microsoft Studio H/1022-Chinook Facility, 3850 148th Ave. NE, Redmond, WA 98052.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Registration:</E>
                         To register, send an email to 
                        <E T="03">NSTAC@hq.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Include “NIAC/NSTAC Meeting Registration” in the subject line of the message. You may register either through the NIAC or NSTAC, but it is not necessary to register with both committees to attend the meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Comments:</E>
                         Written comments may be submitted on the issues to be considered by the NIAC and NSTAC as described in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below. Any associated briefing materials for the public session of the meeting will be made publicly available at both of the following website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/national-infrastructure-advisory-councilandhttps://www.dhs.gov/cisa/national-security-telecommunications-advisory-committeeon</E>
                         Friday, May 30, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments identified by docket number “
                        <E T="03">DHS-2019-0024</E>
                        ” may be submitted by:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting written comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this notice. All written comments received will be posted without alteration at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. For detailed instructions on sending comments and additional information on participating in the upcoming NIAC and NSTAC meeting, see the “PUBLIC PARTICIPATION” heading of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket and to read comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Helen Jackson, NSTAC Designated Federal Officer, 703-705-6276, 
                        <E T="03">helen.jackson@hq.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Notice of this meeting is given under the FACA, 5 U.S.C. Appendix (Pub. L. 92-463). The NIAC provides the President, through the Secretary of Homeland Security, with advice on the security and resilience of the Nation's critical infrastructure sectors.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The NSTAC advises the President on matters related to National Security and Emergency Preparedness (NS/EP) telecommunications and cybersecurity policy.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The meeting will be the first joint meeting with the NIAC and will allow NIAC and NSTAC members to discuss and coordinate critical infrastructure activities and pertinent Government cybersecurity initiatives and NS/EP priorities with DHS leadership and other senior Government officials. The meeting will also allow NSTAC and NIAC members to engage in a collaborative discussion and provide feedback on each committee's examinations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The NIAC was established under Section 10 of E.O. 13231, 66 FR 53063 (Oct. 16, 2001) and was most recently amended and continued under E.O. 13811, 82 FR 46363 (Sep. 29, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The NSTAC was established by E.O. 12382, 47 FR 40531 (Sept. 15, 1982), amended by E.O. 13286, 68 FR 10619 (Mar. 5, 2003), and most recently continued under E.O. 13811, 82 FR 46363 (Sept. 29, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                     The NSTAC and NIAC will meet in an open session from 12:30 p.m.-3:15 p.m. on June 13, 2019, and receive remarks from DHS leadership and other senior Government officials regarding the Government's current cybersecurity initiatives and critical infrastructure priorities. The meeting will include a keynote address and a panel discussion on foreign economic industrial policies and the U.S. supply chain. Participants will also discuss advancing resiliency and fostering innovation in the Information and Communication Technology (ICT) ecosystem, which relates to the NSTAC's study examining what technology capabilities the United 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24535"/>
                    States needs to support robust and resilient networks and other NS/EP functions, and how the Government is managing risks associated with those dependencies.
                </P>
                <P>The committees will also meet in a closed session from 8:30 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. to discuss adversarial threats to critical infrastructure and cybersecurity systems and potential NSTAC and NIAC study topics.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Basis for Closure:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(B), The Government in the Sunshine Act, it has been determined that two agenda items require closure because disclosure of the information that will be discussed would not be in the public interest.
                </P>
                <P>Specifically, the agenda items include an adversarial threat discussion and a discussion of potential NSTAC and NIAC study topics. These discussions will address areas of critical cybersecurity vulnerabilities and critical infrastructure priorities for Government. Government officials will share data with NSTAC and NIAC members on initiatives, assessments, and future security requirements across public and private sector networks. The information will include specific vulnerabilities within cyberspace that affect the United States' ICT infrastructures and proposed mitigation strategies. Disclosure of this information to the public would provide adversaries with an incentive to focus on these vulnerabilities to increase attacks on the Nation's critical infrastructure and communications networks. As disclosure of this portion of the meeting is likely to significantly frustrate implementation of proposed DHS actions, it is required to be closed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(B).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Registration Information:</E>
                     Due to limited seating, requests to attend in person will be accepted and processed in the order in which they are received.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comment:</E>
                     While this meeting is open to the public, participation in FACA deliberations are limited to council members. A public comment period will be held during the meeting from approximately 2:45 p.m.-3:15 p.m. PT. Speakers who wish to comment during the meeting must register in advance and can do so by emailing 
                    <E T="03">NSTAC@hq.dhs.gov</E>
                     no later than Wednesday, June 5, 2019, at 5:00 p.m. ET. You may register to comment either through the NIAC or NSTAC, but it is not necessary to register with both committees. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to three minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information on Services for Individuals With Disabilities:</E>
                     For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact 
                    <E T="03">NSTAC@hq.dhs.gov</E>
                     as soon as possible.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sandra Benevides,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Designated Federal Officer, National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee, Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10991 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-9P-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[GX18RB00FXBA100; OMB Control Number 1028-NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Forests, Wildfire Risk, and Watershed Health in the Rio Grande River Basin</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) are proposing a new information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on the information collection request (ICR) by mail to the U.S. Geological Survey, Information Collections Clearance Officer, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 159, Reston, VA 20192; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">gs-info_collections@usgs.gov.</E>
                         Please reference OMB Control Number 1028-NEW in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Rudy Schuster by email at 
                        <E T="03">schusterr@usgs.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (970) 226-9165.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the USGS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the USGS enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the USGS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The USGS is investigating public values for changes in forest restoration treatments within the upper Rio Grande watershed in New Mexico and Colorado. The Rio Grande watershed supplies water to half of New Mexico's population, including Albuquerque, Santa Fe, and many rural communities, but it also is threatened by the risk of high-severity wildfires. Forest restoration treatments can reduce the risks from high-severity wildfires, including threats to water security, private property, habitat for fish and wildlife, and air quality. USGS economists are partnering with an economic researcher with Northern Arizona University to review private citizens' attitudes, perceptions, and the economic values associated with the different potential benefits of these forest restoration treatments. These values will be estimated via a survey instrument. Previous studies in the study area have established the public benefit of conducting forest restoration treatments overall; the focus of this study is the relevant benefits of different impacts of these treatments. The primary goal of conducting this valuation study is to improve the ability of federal, state, local, and non-
                    <PRTPAGE P="24536"/>
                    governmental organizations to maximize public benefits when planning and implementing these forest restoration treatments across the landscape.
                </P>
                <P>The information collection process will be conducted by scientists and staff in the Social and Economic Analysis Branch of the USGS Fort Collins Science Center and partnering researchers in The W.A. Franke College of Business at Northern Arizona University. This information collection will be conducted through an online survey with an optional paper survey. Letters and postcards will be mailed to potential respondents to encourage participation in the survey. We will protect information from respondents considered proprietary under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and its implementing regulations (43 CFR part 2), and under regulations at 30 CFR 250.197, “Data and information to be made available to the public or for limited inspection.” Responses are voluntary. No questions of a “sensitive” nature are asked.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Forests, wildfire risk, and watershed health in the Rio Grande river basin.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     individuals/households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     3,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     333 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Non-hour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None/not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authorities for this action are the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sharon Taylor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Fort Collins Science Center Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10998 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4338-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NRSS-SSB-FR00000042; PPWONRANDE2, PMP00E105.YP0000 (199); OMB Control Number 1024-0224]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Programmatic Clearance for NPS-Sponsored Public Surveys</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the National Park Service (NPS) are proposing to renew an information collection request (ICR) with revisions.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this Information Collection Request (ICR) by mail to Phadrea Ponds, Acting NPS Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1201 Oakridge Drive, Fort Collins, CO 80525; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">phadrea_ponds@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 970-267-7231. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0224 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Bret Meldrum, Chief, Social Science Program National Park Service, 1201 Oakridge Drive, Fort Collins, CO 80525; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">bret_meldrum@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the NPS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the NPS enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the NPS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The NPS is authorized by the National Park Service Protection Interpretation and research in System (54 U.S.C. 100701) to collect this information. Since 1998, the NPS Social Science program has relied heavily on this generic approval to navigate the PRA process in an expedited manner. This process significantly streamlines the information collection requests to OMB in a manner that allows the NPS to submit at least 25 requests per year, which is four times as many as possible using the regular submission route. The Programmatic Clearance applies to all NPS social science collections (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     questionnaires, focus groups, interviews, etc.) designed to furnish usable information to NPS managers and planners concerning visitor experiences, perceptions of services, programs, and planning efforts in areas managed by the NPS. To qualify for the NPS generic programmatic review process each information request must show clear ties to NPS management and planning needs in areas managed by the NPS or involve research that will directly benefit the NPS. The scope of the programmatic review process is limited to issues that are non-controversial or unlikely to attract significant public interest. All collections must be reviewed by the NPS and approved by OMB before a collection is administered. At least 80% of the questions in an individual collection must be taken from the OMB approved 
                    <E T="03">Pool of Known Questions (PKQ).</E>
                     We acknowledge that the 
                    <E T="03">PKQ</E>
                     is not a comprehensive collection of all possible survey questions; therefore, we allow leeway for requestors to add park or research specific questions not in the PKQ. However all questions must fit within the scope of the approved Topic Areas. The Social Science Program will continue to conduct necessary quality control and will submit each information collection request to OMB 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24537"/>
                    for expedited review before the collection is administered.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Programmatic Clearance for NPS-Sponsored Public Surveys.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1024-0224.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals/Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     41,500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     41,500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     Response times will average 15 to 60 minutes. 15 minutes per mail back survey; 3 minutes per non response survey, 30 minutes per telephone survey; 60 minutes per focus group/interview 60 minutes; Other 15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     11,283.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>completion</LI>
                            <LI>time per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">On-site Surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mail-back surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,333</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All non-response surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>325</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Telephone Surveys</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Focus Groups/In person interviews</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Other</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>625</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>41,500</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>11,283</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Phadrea D. Ponds,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11064 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NRNHL-DTS#-27975; PPWOCRADI0, PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before May 11, 2019, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments should be submitted by June 12, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.</P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before May 11, 2019. Pursuant to Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.</P>
                <P>Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>Nominations submitted by State Historic Preservation Officers:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">CONNECTICUT</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Middlesex County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Shore Line Electric Railway Powerhouse, 2-20 Ferry Place, Old Saybrook, SG100004086</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">DELAWARE</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Kent County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Downtown Harrington Historic District, Various, Harrington, SG100004082</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">New Castle County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Taylor's Bridge School, 121 Flemings Landing Rd., Townsend vicinity, SG100004079</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Eleutherian Mills-Hagley Historic District (Boundary Increase), 200 Hagley Creek Rd., Wilmington, BC100004080</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Sussex County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Allen, Richard, School, 316 Railroad Ave., Georgetown, SG100004083</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">KENTUCKY</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Jefferson County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Reilly, J.J., Manufacturing Building, 1234 Rowan St., Louisville, SG100004097</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">MONTANA</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Glacier County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Glacier Park Women's Club, SE Corner of US Highway 2 and Glacier Ave., East Glacier Park, SG100004092</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">NEW HAMPSHIRE</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Coos County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nansen Ski Jump, 83 Milan Rd., Milan, SG100004084</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Grafton County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Camp Mowglis, 6 Mowglis Dr., Hebron, SG100004085</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">NEW YORK</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Orange County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hawkins, Jacob &amp; Caroline, House, 3764 NY 208, Campbell Hall, SG100004088</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Westchester County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Winged Foot Golf Club, 851 Fenimore Rd., Mamaroneck, SG100004089</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">TEXAS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Lavaca County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Yoakum Commercial Historic District, Yoakum, DeWitt and Lavaca Counties, Texas, Roughly bounded by Nelson St., South St., Culpepper St., and Forrest St., Yoakum, SG100004095</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIRGINIA</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Lee County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Duff Mansion House, 4354 Kane Gap Rd., Duffield, SG100004096</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24538"/>
                <P>Additional documentation has been received for the following resources:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">DELAWARE</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">New Castle County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Eleutherian Mills-Hagley Historic District (Boundary Increase), 200 Hagley Creek Rd., Wilmington, AD100004080</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">District of Columbia</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Folger Shakespeare Library, 201 E. Capitol St. SE, Washington, AD69000294</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>Nomination submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:</P>
                <P>The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination and supports listing the property in the National Register of Historic Places.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">TENNESSEE</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cocke County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mount Cammerer Fire Lookout, (Great Smoky Mountains National Park MPS), Great Smoky Mountains National Park (GRSM)—end of Mount Cammerer, Cosby, MP100004091</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 16, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kathryn G. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief, National Register of Historic Places/National Historic Landmarks Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11052 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-VRP-REGS-NPS0027442; PPWOVPADU0, POPFR2021.XZ0000 (199); OMB Control Number 1024-0026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Special Park Use Applications</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the National Park Service (NPS) are proposing to renew an information collection with revisions.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Phadrea Ponds, Acting NPS Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1201 Oakridge Drive Fort Collins, CO 80525; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">phadrea_ponds@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 970-267-7231. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0026 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR by mail contact Lee Dickinson, Special Park Uses National Manager, National Park Service Special Park Uses Program, 1849 C Street NW, Main Interior Building—Rm 2474, Washington D.C 20240; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">lee_dickinson@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 202-513-7092. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0026 in the subject line of your comments
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the NPS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the NPS enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the NPS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Under 54 U.S.C. 100101 (National Park Service Act Organic Act), we must preserve America's natural wonders unimpaired for future generations, while also making them available for the enjoyment of the visitor. Meeting this mandate requires that we balance preservation with use. Maintaining a good balance requires both information and limits. In accordance with regulations at 36 CFR parts 1-7, 13, 20, and 34, we issue permits for special park uses.
                </P>
                <P>Special park uses cover a wide range of activities including, but not limited to, special events, First Amendment activities, grazing and agricultural use, commercial filming, still photography, construction and vehicle access. Permits are issued for varying amounts of time based on the requested use, but generally do not exceed 5 years. A new application must be submitted in order to request the renewal of an existing permit.</P>
                <P>The information we collect in the special use applications allows park managers to determine if the requested use is consistent with the laws and NPS regulations referenced above and with the public interest. The park manager must also determine that the requested activity will not cause unacceptable impacts to park resources and values. The information is collected using the following NPS forms:</P>
                <P>• 10-930—Application for Special Use Permit;</P>
                <P>• 10-930s—Application for Special Use Permit (short form);</P>
                <P>• 10-931—Application for Special Use Permit—Commercial Filming/Still Photography Permit (short);</P>
                <P>• 10-932—Application for Special Use Permit—Commercial Filming/Still Photography Permit (long); and,</P>
                <P>• 10-933—Application for Special Use Permit—Vehicle/Watercraft Use.</P>
                <P>We will review the forms currently approved by OMB to determine whether any changes will be made. If we determine changes need to be made, we will solicit feedback on the updated forms as part of the required outreach process with the renewal and will explain the changes in our submission to OMB.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Special Park Use Applications (portions of 36 CFR 1-7, 13, 20, and 34).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1024-0026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     NPS Forms 10-930, 10-930s, 10-931, 10-932, and, 10-933.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or households; businesses or other for-profit entities; and Federal, State, local and tribal governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain a benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24539"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $2,530,125 for application fees.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>completion</LI>
                            <LI>time per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">10-930—Application for Special Use Permit</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals/Households</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,763</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,763</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,382</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Private Sector</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,559</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,559</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,780</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">State/Local/Tribal Governments</ENT>
                        <ENT>516</ENT>
                        <ENT>516</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">930s—Application for Special Use Permit (short form)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals/Households</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,110</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,110</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>778</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Private Sector</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,441</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,441</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">State/Local/Tribal Governments</ENT>
                        <ENT>310</ENT>
                        <ENT>310</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>78</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">10-931—Application for Special Use Permit—Commercial Filming/Still Photography Permit (short)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals/Households</ENT>
                        <ENT>412</ENT>
                        <ENT>412</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>103</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Private Sector</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,226</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,226</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>307</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">State/Local/Tribal Governments</ENT>
                        <ENT>42</ENT>
                        <ENT>42</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">10-932—Application for Special Use Permit—Commercial Filming/Still Photography Permit (long)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals/Households</ENT>
                        <ENT>109</ENT>
                        <ENT>109</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Private Sector</ENT>
                        <ENT>945</ENT>
                        <ENT>945</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>473</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">State/Local/Tribal Governments</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">10-933—Application for Special Use Permit—Vehicle/Watercraft Use</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals/Households</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,050</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,050</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,263</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Private Sector</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>57</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">State/Local/Tribal Governments</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>33,735</ENT>
                        <ENT>33,735</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>11,916</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Rounded.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Phadrea Ponds,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11063 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-BSD-CONC-20037; PPWOBSADC0, PPMVSCS1Y.Y00000 (199), OMB Control Number 1024-0268]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Commercial Use Authorizations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the National Park Service (NPS) are proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Phadrea Ponds, Acting NPS Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1201 Oakridge Drive Fort Collins, CO 80525; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">phadrea_ponds@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 970-267-7231. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0268 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR by mail contact Samantha Towery, National Park Service, 12795 West Alameda Parkway, Lakewood, CO 80228; or by email at Samantha_
                        <E T="03">Towery@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 303-987-6908. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0268 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>
                    We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the NPS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the NPS enhance the quality, utility, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24540"/>
                    clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the NPS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The purpose of this information collection is to assist the NPS in managing the Commercial Use Authorization Program. Conducting commercial operations in a unit of the National Park System without a contract, permit, commercial use authorization, or some other written agreement is prohibited. Section 418, Public Law 105-391 (54 U.S.C. 101925) gives the Secretary of the Interior the authority to authorize a private person, corporation, or other entity to provide services to visitors in units of the National Park System through a Commercial Use Authorization (CUA). Such authorizations are not considered concession contracts. We authorize commercial operations that originate and operate entirely within a park; commercial operations that provide services originating and terminating outside of the park boundaries; organized children's camps, outdoor clubs, and nonprofit institutions; and other uses as the Secretary determines appropriate. The commercial operations include a range of services, such as mountain climbing guides, boat repair services, transportation services and tours, canoe livery operations, hunting guides, retail sales, equipment rentals, catering services, and dozens of other visitor services. Section 418 limits CUAs to:
                </P>
                <P>• Commercial operations with annual gross receipts of not more than $25,000 resulting from services originating and provided solely within a unit of the National Park System;</P>
                <P>• Incidental use of resources of the unit by commercial operations which provide services originating and terminating outside of the boundaries of the unit; or</P>
                <P>• Uses by organized children's camps, outdoor clubs and nonprofit institutions (including back country use) and such other uses as the Secretary determines appropriate.</P>
                <P>We collect information on the CUA Application (Form 10-550), the CUA Annual Report (Form 10-660), and CUA Monthly Report (Form 10-660A). We use the information from these forms to:</P>
                <P>• Manage the program and operations.</P>
                <P>• Determine the qualifications and abilities of the commercial operators to provide a high quality, safe, and enjoyable experience for park visitors.</P>
                <P>• Determine the impact on the park's natural and cultural resources.</P>
                <P>• Manage the use and impact of multiple operators.</P>
                <P>The information requested will allow the NPS to evaluate requests for a commercial use authorization and determine the suitability of the applicants to safely and effectively provide an appropriate service to the visiting public. It will also enable the NPS to manage the activity in a manner that protects the natural and cultural resources and the park visitor. Management includes, but is not limited to, managing the number of permits issued, determining the location and time that the activity occurs, and requiring the appropriate visitor protections including insurance, equipment, training, and procedures.</P>
                <P>Regulations resulting in information collection required for a Commercial Use Authorization include: 36 CFR 1.6—Permits; 36 CFR 2—Resource Protection, Public Use and Recreation; 36 CFR 5—Commercial and Private Operations; and 36 CFR 7—Special Regulations; 36 CFR 13—National Park System Units in Alaska.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Commercial Use Authorizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1024-0268.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     10-550 Commercial Use Authorization Application and Instructions; 10-660 Commercial Use Authorization Annual Report and Instructions; and 10-660A Commercial Use Authorization Monthly Report and Instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or small businesses that wish to provide commercial services to visitors in areas of the National Park System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to Obtain or Retain a Benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     $590,000 ($100 × 5,900 Forms 10-550, “Commercial Use Authorization Application and Instructions” per year).
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Completion
                            <LI>time per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>total annual</LI>
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Form 10-660 Commercial Use Authorization Application and Instructions</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,750</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Form 10-660 Commercial Use Authorization Annual Report and Instructions</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,375</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Form 10-660 A Commercial Use Authorization Monthly Report and Instructions</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,900</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,100</ENT>
                        <ENT>.75</ENT>
                        <ENT>39,825</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>64,900</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>61,950</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="24541"/>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Phadrea Ponds,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11066 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-NER-NPS0027438; PPNEHATUC0, PPMRSCR1Y.CU0000 (199); OMB Control Number 1024-0232]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the National Park Service (NPS) are proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to Phadrea Ponds, Acting NPS Information Collection Clearance Officer, 1201 Oakridge Drive, Fort Collins, CO 80525; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">phadrea_ponds@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 970-267-7231. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0232 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR by mail contact Diane Miller, National Manager, National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Program, National Park Service, Harriet Tubman Underground Railroad Visitor Center, 4068 Golden Hill Road, Church Creek, Maryland 21622; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">diane_miller@nps.gov;</E>
                         or by telephone at 410-221-2290. Please reference OMB Control Number 1024-0232 in the subject line of your comments.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.</P>
                <P>We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the NPS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the NPS enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the NPS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Act of 1998 (54 U.S.C. 308301, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes this information collection. The NPS uses this information to coordinate the preservation and education efforts nationwide that integrates local historical places, museums, and interpretive programs associated with the Underground Railroad into a mosaic of community, regional, and national stories.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All entities that want to join the Network must have a verifiable association with the historic Underground Railroad movement and complete NPS Form 10-946 (National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Application) available on our website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.nps.gov/subjects/ugrr/index.htm.</E>
                     Respondents must (1) verify associations and characteristics through descriptive texts that are the result of historical research and (2) submit supporting documentation; 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copies of rare documents, photographs, and maps. Much of the information is submitted in electronic format and used to determine eligibility to become part of the Network.
                </P>
                <P>Network to Freedom Program Partners work with the NPS to help validate the efforts of local and regional organizations, making it easier for them to share their expertise and communicate with us and each other. Prospective partners must submit a letter with the following information:</P>
                <P>• Name and address of the agency, company or organization;</P>
                <P>• Name, address, and phone, fax, and email information of principal contact;</P>
                <P>• Abstract not to exceed 200 words describing the partner's activity or mission statement; and</P>
                <P>• Brief description of the entity's association to the Underground Railroad.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1024-0232.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     NPS Form 10-946—National Underground Railroad Network to Freedom Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals; businesses; nonprofit organizations; and Federal, State, tribal, and local governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain a benefit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity/requirement</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Completion
                            <LI>time per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>total annual</LI>
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Network Applications (Form 10-946)</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,400</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="24542"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Partner Requests</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>37</ENT>
                        <ENT>37</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,401</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Phadrea Ponds,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11065 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation No. 337-TA-1057]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Consolidated Advisory Opinion and Enforcement Proceeding; Certain Robotic Vacuum Cleaning Devices and Components Thereof Such as Spare Parts Commission's Determination Not to Review an Initial Determination Terminating the Advisory Opinion Proceeding; Termination of Advisory Opinion Proceeding</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission (“the Commission”) has determined not to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 52) issued by the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) that terminates the advisory opinion proceeding.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Needham, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 708-5468. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing-impaired persons are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission instituted an investigation on May 23, 2017, based on a complaint filed by iRobot Corporation of Bedford, Massachusetts (“iRobot”). 82 FR 23593-94. The complaint, as supplemented, alleged violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain robotic vacuum cleaning devices and components thereof that infringe certain claims of, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     U.S. Patent No. 9,038,233 (“the '233 patent”). 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     The Commission's notice of investigation named as respondents, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     Shenzhen Silver Star Intelligent Technology Co., Ltd., of Shenzhen, China (“Silver Star”), and bObsweep USA, of Henderson, Nevada, and bObsweep Inc., of Toronto, Canada (together, “bObsweep”). 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 23593. The Office of Unfair Import Investigations did not participate in the investigation. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    On November 30, 2018, the Commission found, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     that Silver Star and bObsweep violated section 337 with respect to the '233 patent, and issued a limited exclusion order (“LEO”) against, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     Silver Star and bObsweep, with respect to certain claims of the '233 patent. 83 FR 63186-87 (Dec. 7, 2018).
                </P>
                <P>On January 30, 2019, Silver Star filed a request for an advisory opinion that eight of its new products do not violate the LEO. On March 21, 2019, the Commission instituted an advisory opinion proceeding, and named as parties iRobot, Silver Star, and the Office of Unfair Import Investigations (“OUII”). 84 FR 10531 (Mar. 21, 2019).</P>
                <P>On February 21, 2019, iRobot filed an enforcement complaint against bObsweep. On April 1, 2019, the Commission instituted a formal enforcement proceeding, and named as parties iRobot, bObsweep, and OUII. 84 FR 12289 (Apr. 1, 2019). The Commission consolidated the formal enforcement proceeding with the advisory opinion proceeding described above.</P>
                <P>On April 12, 2019, iRobot and Silver Star filed a joint motion to terminate the advisory opinion proceeding based on a settlement agreement. On April 24, 2019, OUII filed a response in support of the motion.</P>
                <P>On April 25, 2019, the ALJ issued the subject ID, granting the motion and terminating the advisory opinion proceeding. The ALJ found that the motion complied with Rule 210.21(b) and that there is no evidence that termination by settlement has any adverse effect on the public interest. No petitions for review of the ID were filed.</P>
                <P>The Commission has determined not to review the subject ID and terminates the advisory opinion proceeding. The Commission clarifies that this notice does not terminate the enforcement proceeding that was consolidated with the advisory opinion proceeding.</P>
                <P>The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: May 15, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10996 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24543"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N"> DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Antitrust Division</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993—Cooperative Research Group on Energy Storage System Evaluation and Safety II</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that, on April 30, 2019, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     (“the Act”), Southwest Research Institute—Cooperative Research Group on Energy Storage System Evaluation and Safety II (“EssEs-II”) has filed written notifications simultaneously with the Attorney General and the Federal Trade Commission disclosing changes in its membership. The notifications were filed for the purpose of extending the Act's provisions limiting the recovery of antitrust plaintiffs to actual damages under specified circumstances. Specifically, ANSYS, Inc., Canonsburg, PA; and KOMATSU America Corp., Peoria, IL, have been added as parties to this venture.
                </P>
                <P>No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and EssEs-II intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.</P>
                <P>
                    On September 21, 2016, EssEs-II filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     pursuant to Section 6(b) of the Act on November 15, 2016 (81 FR 80087).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The last notification was filed with the Department on February 11, 2019. A notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     pursuant to Section 6(b) of the Act on February 28, 2019 (84 FR 6822).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Suzanne Morris,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Premerger and Division Statistics Unit, Antitrust Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11141 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4410-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Labor Statistics</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Activities; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Labor Statistics, Department of Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is soliciting comments concerning the proposed extension of the “Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries.” A copy of the proposed information collection request (ICR) can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section of this notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section of this notice on or before July 29, 2019.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments to Nora Kincaid, BLS Clearance Officer, Division of Management Systems, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Room 4080, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE, Washington, DC 20212. Written comments also may be transmitted by fax to (202) 691-5111 (this is not a toll free number).</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nora Kincaid, BLS Clearance Officer, at (202)691-7628. (See 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section.)
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) was delegated responsibility by the Secretary of Labor for implementing Section 24(a) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970. This section states that “the Secretary shall compile accurate statistics on work injuries and illnesses which shall include all disabling, serious, or significant injuries and illnesses . . .”</P>
                <P>Prior to the implementation of the Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries (CFOI), the BLS generated estimates of occupational fatalities for private sector employers from a sample survey of about 280,000 establishments. Studies showed that occupational fatalities were underreported in those estimates as well as in those compiled by regulatory, vital statistics, and workers' compensation systems. Estimates prior to the CFOI varied widely, ranging from 3,000 to 10,000 fatal work injuries annually. In addition, information needed to develop prevention strategies were often missing from these earlier programs.</P>
                <P>
                    In the late 1980s, the National Academy of Sciences study, 
                    <E T="03">Counting Injuries and Illnesses in the Workplace,</E>
                     and another report, 
                    <E T="03">Keystone National Policy Dialogue on Work-Related Illness and Injury Recordkeeping,</E>
                     emphasized the need for the BLS to compile a complete roster of work-related fatalities because of concern over the accuracy of using a sample survey to estimate the incidence of occupational fatalities. These studies also recommended the use of all available data sources to compile detailed information for fatality prevention efforts.
                </P>
                <P>The BLS tested the feasibility of collecting fatality data in this manner in 1989 and 1990. The resulting CFOI was implemented in 32 States in 1991. National data covering all 50 States, New York City, and the District of Columbia have been compiled and published annually for years 1992 through 2014, approximately eight months after the end of each calendar year, with final data being published 16 months after the end of each calendar year. Since 2015, CFOI has moved to a single release of final data, 12 months after the end of each calendar year.</P>
                <P>The CFOI compiles comprehensive, accurate, and timely information on work-injury fatalities needed to develop effective prevention strategies. The system collects information concerning the incident, the demographic information of the deceased, and the characteristics of the employer.</P>
                <P>Data are used to:</P>
                <P>• Develop employee safety training programs.</P>
                <P>• Develop and assess the effectiveness of safety standards.</P>
                <P>• Conduct research for developing prevention strategies.</P>
                <P>In addition, State partners use the data to publish State reports, to identify State-specific hazards, to allocate resources for promoting safety in the workplace, and to evaluate the quality of work life in the State.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Current Action</HD>
                <P>Office of Management and Budget clearance is being sought for the Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2017, 5,147 workers lost their lives as a result of injuries received on the job. This official systematic, verifiable count mutes controversy over the various counts from different sources. The CFOI count has been adopted by the National Safety Council and other organizations as the sole source of a comprehensive count of fatal work 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24544"/>
                    injuries for the U.S. If this information were not collected, the confusion over the number and patterns in fatal occupational injuries would hamper prevention efforts. By providing timely occupational fatality data, the CFOI provides safety and health managers the information necessary to respond to emerging workplace hazards.
                </P>
                <P>During 2018, BLS national office responded to over 400 requests for CFOI data from various organizations. (This figure excludes requests received by the States for State-specific data.) In addition, the CFOI page of the BLS website averaged about 11,300 users per month in 2017.</P>
                <P>
                    National office staff also responded to numerous requests from safety organizations for staff members to participate in safety conferences and seminars. The CFOI research file, made available to safety and health groups, is being used by 14 organizations. Study topics include fatalities by worker demographic category (young workers, older workers, Hispanic workers); by occupation or industry (construction workers, police officers, firefighters, landscaping workers, workers in oil and gas extraction); by event (heat-related fatalities, fatalities from workplace violence, suicides, falls from ladders); or other research such as safety and health program effectiveness and the impact of fatality risk on wages. A current list of research articles and reports that include CFOI data can be found here: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/iif/publications.htm.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Desired Focus of Comments</HD>
                <P>The Bureau of Labor Statistics is particularly interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>
                    • Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submissions of responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1220-0133.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Federal government; Individuals or households; Private sector (Business or other for-profits, Not-for-profit institutions, Farms); State, local, or tribal governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,r30">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of form</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Average response time</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">BLS CFOI-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>837</ENT>
                        <ENT>837</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>20 minutes per document.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Source documents—Federal</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>70</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 hours per year per agency.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Source documents—State, local, and tribal</ENT>
                        <ENT>220</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,756</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,459</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 minutes per document.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,064</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,604</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,808</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Cost (capital/startup):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Cost (operating/maintenance):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <P>Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they also will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark Staniorski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Division of Management Systems.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11001 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4510-24-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Mine Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Brookwood-Sago Mine Safety Grants</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Mine Safety and Health Administration, Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA); extension of closing date for applications.</P>
                </ACT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Announcement Type</E>
                    : New
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Funding Opportunity Number:</E>
                     FOA BS-2019-1
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number:</E>
                     17.603
                </FP>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>On March 25, 2019, MSHA published a Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA) that provides grant funds for education and training programs to help identify, avoid, and prevent unsafe working conditions in and around mines. The notice announced the closing date for applications was 60 days after the FOA was published on March 25, 2019. MSHA is extending the closing date to June 28, 2019.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The closing date for applications will be June 28, 2019, (no later than 11:59 p.m. EDT). MSHA will award grants on or before September 30, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Grant applications for this competition must be submitted electronically through the 
                        <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                         site at 
                        <E T="03">www.grants.gov.</E>
                         If applying online poses a hardship to any applicant, the MSHA Directorate of Educational Policy and Development will provide.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Any questions regarding this FOA BS-2019-1 should be directed to Janice Oates at 
                        <E T="03">oates.janice@dol.gov</E>
                         or 202-693-9573 (this is not a toll-free number) or Cindy Hennigan at 
                        <E T="03">hennigan.cindy@dol.gov</E>
                         or 202-693-9570 (this is not a toll-free number).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 25, 2019, MSHA published a notice announcing that the Agency is providing up to $400,000 for the 2019 Brookwood-Sago grant program (84 FR 11127). The focus of these grants will be training programs and training materials on powered haulage safety (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     reducing vehicle-on-vehicle collisions, increasing seat belt use, and improving belt conveyor safety), examinations of working places at metal and nonmetal mines, mine emergency prevention and preparedness, or other programs to prevent unsafe conditions in and around mines. The FOA published on March 25, 2019, provides the background information and the requirements for the projects funded under the solicitation.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>David G. Zatezalo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of Labor for Mine Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11036 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4510-43-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24545"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">LEGAL SERVICES CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting Notice</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATE AND TIME: </HD>
                    <P>The Legal Services Corporation's Finance Committee will meet telephonically on June 6, 2019. The meeting will commence at 4:00 p.m., EDT, and will continue until the conclusion of the Committee's agenda.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">LOCATION: </HD>
                    <P>John N. Erlenborn Conference Room, Legal Services Corporation Headquarters, 3333 K Street NW, Washington DC 20007.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PUBLIC OBSERVATION: </HD>
                    <P>Members of the public who are unable to attend in person but wish to listen to the public proceedings may do so by following the telephone call-in directions provided below.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Call-In Directions for Open Sessions</HD>
                <P>• Call toll-free number: 1-866-451-4981;</P>
                <P>• When prompted, enter the following numeric pass code: 5907707348.</P>
                <P>• When connected to the call, please immediately “MUTE” your telephone.</P>
                <P>Members of the public are asked to keep their telephones muted to eliminate background noises. To avoid disrupting the meeting, please refrain from placing the call on hold if doing so will trigger recorded music or other sound. From time to time, the Chair may solicit comments from the public.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS OF MEETING: </HD>
                    <P>Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Approval of agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Approval of minutes of the Committee's meeting of April 7, 2019</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Public comment regarding LSC's fiscal year 2021 budget request</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• Presentation by a representative of the American Bar Association's Standing  Committee on Legal Aid and Indigent Defendants (SCLAID)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• Presentation by a representative of National Legal Aid and Defender Association (NLADA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• Other Interested Parties</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. Public comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. Consider and act on other business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Consider and act on adjournment of meeting</FP>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>
                        Katherine Ward, Executive Assistant to the Vice President &amp; General Counsel, at (202) 295-1500. Questions may be sent by electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">FR_NOTICE_QUESTIONS@lsc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACCESSIBILITY:</HD>
                    <P>
                         LSC complies with the Americans with Disabilities Act and Section 504 of the 1973 Rehabilitation Act. Upon request, meeting notices and materials will be made available in alternative formats to accommodate individuals with disabilities. Individuals needing other accommodations due to disability in order to attend the meeting in person or telephonically should contact Katherine Ward, at (202) 295-1500 or 
                        <E T="03">FR_NOTICE_QUESTIONS@lsc.gov,</E>
                         at least 2 business days in advance of the meeting. If a request is made without advance notice, LSC will make every effort to accommodate the request but cannot guarantee that all requests can be fulfilled.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 23, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Katherine Ward,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Assistant to the Vice President for Legal Affairs and General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11196 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7050-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL ARCHIVES AND RECORDS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Information Security Oversight Office</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NARA-2019-025]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC); Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We are announcing an upcoming meeting of the National Industrial Security Program Policy Advisory Committee (NISPPAC).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be on July 18, 2019, from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Location:</E>
                         National Archives and Records Administration; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, McGowan Theater, Washington, DC 20408.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Tringali, Program Analyst, ISOO, by mail at National Archives and Records Administration; 700 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20408, by telephone at 202.357.5335, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">robert.tringali@nara.gov.</E>
                         Contact ISOO at 
                        <E T="03">ISOO@nara.gov</E>
                         and the NISPPAC at 
                        <E T="03">NISPPAC@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The purpose of this meeting is to discuss National Industrial Security Program policy matters.</P>
                <P>This meeting will be open to the public, in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app 2) and implementing regulations. However, due to space limitations and access procedures, you must submit the name and telephone number of individuals planning to attend to the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) no later than Friday, July 12, 2019. ISOO will provide additional instructions for accessing the meeting's location. Note: Please enter through the Constitution Ave. special events entrance.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Miranda J. Andreacchio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Committee Management Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11058 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7515-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NATIONAL ARCHIVES AND RECORDS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NARA-2019-024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Advisory Committee on the Records of Congress; Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We are announcing an upcoming meeting of the Advisory Committee on the Records of Congress. The committee advises NARA on the full range of programs, policies, and plans for the Center for Legislative Archives in NARA's Office of Legislative Archives, Presidential Libraries, and Museum Services (LPM).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be on June 21, 2019, from 10:00 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Location:</E>
                         Russell Senate Office Building; 2 Constitution Avenue NE; Room SR-385; Washington, DC 20002.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sharon Shaver, Center for Legislative Archives, by telephone at 202.357.6802, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">sharon.shaver@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This meeting is open to the public in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app 2) and implementing regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(1) Chair's opening remarks—Secretary of the U.S. Senate</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(2) Recognition of Co-chair—Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(3) Recognition of the Archivist of the United States</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(4) Approval of the minutes of the last meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(5) House Archivist's report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(6) Senate Archivist's report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    (7) Center for Legislative Archives update
                    <PRTPAGE P="24546"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">(8) Other current issues and new business</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Miranda J. Andreacchio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Committee Management Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11056 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7515-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL SCIENCE FOUNDATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting; National Science Board</SUBJECT>
                <P>The National Science Board's Committee on National Science and Engineering Policy (SEP), pursuant to NSF regulations (45 CFR part 614), the National Science Foundation Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 1862n-5), and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice of the scheduling of a teleconference for the transaction of National Science Board business, as follows:</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Friday, May 31, 2019 at 12:00-12:30 p.m. EDT</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Thursday, June 6, 2019 at 2:00-2:30 p.m. EDT</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Friday, June 7, 2019 at 11:30 a.m.-12:00 noon EDT</FP>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>
                        These meetings will be held by teleconference at the National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314. An audio link will be available for the public. Members of the public must contact the Board Office to request the public audio link by sending an email to 
                        <E T="03">nationalsciencebrd@nsf.gov</E>
                         at least 24 hours prior to the teleconference.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        Friday, May 31, 2019: Committee chair's remarks; discussion of the draft 
                        <E T="03">Science and Engineering Indicators 2020</E>
                         Thematic Report 3, S&amp;E Labor Force.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Thursday, June 6, 2019: Committee chair's remarks; discussion of the draft 
                        <E T="03">Science and Engineering Indicators 2020</E>
                         Thematic Report 1, K-12 Education.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Friday, June 7, 2019: Committee chair's remarks; discussion of the draft 
                        <E T="03">Science and Engineering Indicators 2020</E>
                         Thematic Report 2, Higher Education.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>
                        Point of contact for these meetings is: Reba Bandyopadhyay, (
                        <E T="03">rbandyop@nsf.gov</E>
                        ), 703/292-7000.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Meeting information and updates (time, place, subject matter or status of meeting) may be found at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.nsf.gov/nsb/meetings/notices.jsp#sunshine.</E>
                         Please refer to the National Science Board website 
                        <E T="03">www.nsf.gov/nsb</E>
                         for additional information.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Christopher Blair,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Assistant, National Science Board Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11155 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7555-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2019-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>Weeks of May 27, June 3, 10, 17, 24, July 1, 2019.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Public and Closed.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of May 27, 2019</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, May 30, 2019</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8:55 a.m.—Affirmation Session (Public Meeting) (Tentative)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Crow Butte Resources, Inc. (In Situ Leach Uranium Recovery Facility), Crow Butte Petition for Review Of LBP-15-11 And LBP-16-13 (Tentative).</FP>
                <P>
                    This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9:00 a.m.—Briefing on Nuclear Regulatory Research Program (Public Meeting) (Contact: Nicholas DiFrancesco: 301-415-1115).</FP>
                <P>
                    This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of June 3, 2019—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of June 3, 2019.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of June 10, 2019—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of June 10, 2019.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of June 17, 2019—Tentative</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Tuesday, June 18, 2019</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10:00 a.m.—Briefing on Human Capital and Equal Employment Opportunity (Public Meeting), (Contact: Jason Lising: 301-287-0569).</FP>
                <P>
                    This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, June 20, 2019</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10:00 a.m.—Briefing on Results of the Agency Action Review Meeting (Public Meeting), (Contact: Andrea Mayer: 301-415-1081)</FP>
                <P>
                    This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of June 24, 2019—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of June 24, 2019.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of July 1, 2019—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of July 1, 2019.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Denise.McGovern@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the internet at: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/public-involve/public-meetings/schedule.html.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         braille, large print), please notify Kimberly Meyer-Chambers, NRC Disability Program Manager, at 301-287-0739, by videophone at 240-428-3217, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Kimberly.Meyer-Chambers@nrc.gov.</E>
                         Determinations on requests for reasonable accommodation will be made on a case-by-case basis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Wendy.Moore@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 23rd day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Denise L. McGovern,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Policy Coordinator, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11154 Filed 5-23-19; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. 52-025 and 52-026; NRC-2008-0252]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc.; Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Power Operated Relief Valve Noise Mitigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24547"/>
                        exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment No. 159 for Unit 3 and No. 157 for Unit 4 to Combined Licenses (COLs), NPF-91 and NPF-92. The COLs were issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (collectively SNC); for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP) Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia.
                    </P>
                    <P>The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption and amendment were issued on April 18, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2008-0252. Address questions about NRC dockets in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Jennifer Borges; telephone: 301-287-9127; email: 
                        <E T="03">Jennifer.Borges@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “ADAMS Public Documents” and then select “
                        <E T="03">Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.”</E>
                         For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">pdr.resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that it is mentioned in this document. The request for the amendment and exemption was submitted by letter dated August 10, 2018, revised October 11, 2018, and supplemented February 15, 2019, and available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML18222A599, ML18284A447, and ML19046A172, respectively.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                         You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Billy Gleaves, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-5848; email: 
                        <E T="03">Bill.Gleaves@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC is issuing License Amendment Nos. 159 and 157 to COLs NPF 91 and NPF-92 and is granting an exemption from Tier 1 information in the plant-specific DCD for the AP1000. The AP1000 is incorporated by reference in appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR). The exemption, granted pursuant to Paragraph A.4 of Section VIII, “Processes for Changes and Departures,” of 10 CFR part 52, appendix D, allows the licensee to depart from the Tier 1 information. With the requested amendment, SNC sought proposed changes that would revise the COLs to relocate the power operated relief valve (PORV) branch lines upstream of the main steam safety valves in Inspections, Tests, Analyses, and Acceptance Criteria (ITAAC) Figure 2.2.4-1 (Sheets 1 of 2) of the COL Appendix C (and plant-specific Tier 1 information). In addition to relocate the PORV branch lines upstream of the main steam safety valves in the main steam lines. In addition to the relocation of the PORV branch lines, the PORV block valves would be changed from gate valves to globe valves in the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report (UFSAR). The requested amendment proposes changes to the UFSAR in the form of departures from the incorporated plant-specific DCD Tier 2 information in the UFSAR and involves changes to COL Appendix C, and corresponding changes to plant-specific Tier 1 information.
                </P>
                <P>Part of the justification for granting the exemption was provided by the review of the amendment. Because the exemption is necessary in order to issue the requested license amendment, the NRC granted the exemption and issued the amendment concurrently, rather than in sequence. This included issuing a combined safety evaluation containing the NRC staff's review of both the exemption request and the license amendment. The exemption met all applicable regulatory criteria set forth in §§ 50.12, 52.7, and section VIII.A.4 of appendix D to 10 CFR part 52. The license amendment was found to be acceptable as well. The combined safety evaluation is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML19063A894.</P>
                <P>Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to SNC for VEGP Units 3 and 4 (COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92). The exemption documents for VEGP Units 3 and 4 can be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML19063A888 and ML19063A889, respectively. The exemption is reproduced (with the exception of abbreviated titles and additional citations) in Section II of this document. The amendment documents for COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML19063A890 and ML19063A892, respectively. A summary of the amendment documents is provided in Section III of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Exemption</HD>
                <P>Reproduced below is the exemption document issued to VEGP Units 3 and Unit 4. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:</P>
                <P>1. In an application dated August 10, 2018, revised October 11, 2018, and supplemented February 15, 2019, SNC requested from the Commission an exemption to allow departures from Tier 1 information in the certified DCD incorporated by reference in 10 CFR part 52, appendix D, as part of license amendment request 18-021, “Power Operated Relief Valve Noise Mitigation.”</P>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in Section 3.2 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation, which can be found in ADAMS under Accession No. ML19063A894, the Commission finds that:</P>
                <P>A. The exemption is authorized by law;</P>
                <P>B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;</P>
                <P>C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;</P>
                <P>D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;</P>
                <P>E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and</P>
                <P>
                    F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24548"/>
                </P>
                <P>2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1 information, with corresponding information in COL Appendix C of the Facility Combined License as described in the licensee's request dated August 10, 2018, revised October 11, 2018, and supplemented February 15, 2019. This exemption is related to, and necessary for the granting of License Amendment No. 159 [for Unit 3 and No. 157 for Unit 4] which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.</P>
                <P>3. As explained in Section 5.0 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation (ADAMS Accession No. ML19063A894), this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.</P>
                <P>4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. License Amendment Request</HD>
                <P>
                    By letter dated August 10, 2018, revised October 11, 2018, and supplemented February 15, 2019 (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML18222A599, ML18284A447, and ML19046A172, respectively), SNC requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VEGP, Units 3 and 4, COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.</P>
                <P>
                    A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or COL, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 19, 2018 (83 FR 47375). Subsequently, by letter dated October 11, 2018, SNC provided additional information that expanded the scope of the amendment request as originally noticed in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The additional information provided in the October 11, 2018, revision related to structural and piping analyses that were not included in the original submittal. Accordingly, the NRC published a second proposed no significant hazards consideration (NSHC) determination in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 20, 2018 (83 FR 58607), which superseded the original notice in its entirety. The supplement dated February 15, 2019, provided additional information that clarified the application, did not expand the scope of the application as originally noticed, and did not change the staff's second proposed NSHC determination as published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 20, 2018 (83 FR 58607). No comments were received during the 30-day comment period.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the staff granted the exemption and issued the amendment that SNC requested on August 10, 2018, revised October 11, 2018, and supplemented February 15, 2019.</P>
                <P>The exemption and amendment were issued to SNC on April 18, 2019, as part of a combined package (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML19063A886).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Rockville, Maryland, this 22nd day of May 2019.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Jennifer L. Dixon-Herrity,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Licensing Branch 2, Division of Licensing, Siting, and Environmental Analysis, Office of New Reactors.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11008 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. MC2019-141 and CP2019-156]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Product</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         May 29, 2019.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Docketed Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.</P>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3007.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24549"/>
                    deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Docketed Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2019-141 and CP2019-156; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 101 to Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     May 21, 2019; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3020.30 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and 39 CFR 3015.5; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher C. Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     May 29, 2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Stacy L. Ruble,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11037 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85907; File No. SR-ICEEU-2019-013]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice Relating to the ICE Clear Europe Recovery Plan</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on May 10, 2019, ICE Clear Europe Limited (“ICE Clear Europe” or the “Clearing House”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule changes described in Items I, II and III below, which Items have been prepared by ICE Clear Europe. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission, or Advance Notice</HD>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe proposes to adopt a new Recovery Plan (the “Revised Recovery Plan”). The revisions do not involve any changes to the ICE Clear Europe Clearing Rules or Procedures.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Capitalized terms used but not defined herein have the meanings specified in the ICE Clear Europe Clearing Rules (the “Rules”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, ICE Clear Europe included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICE Clear Europe has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(A) Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe is proposing to adopt the Revised Recovery Plan, which would supersede its current recovery plan (the “Existing Recovery Plan”) in order to make certain overall enhancements, as discussed herein. The Revised Recovery Plan, among other aspects, identifies certain critical clearing services and addresses the Clearing House's tools, procedures and options for addressing recovery from scenarios that threaten its ability to continue to provide clearing services. The Recovery Plan is based on, and is intended to be consistent with, the Rules and Procedures, as well as Clearing House's existing risk management frameworks, policies and procedures.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Revised Recovery Plan reflects the amendments to the Rules and Procedures submitted to the Commission with respect to default management, recovery and wind-down for the CDS Contract Category, SR-ICEEU-2019-003 (submitted April 29, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Summary of Revisions</HD>
                <P>The proposed Revised Recovery Plan is intended to enhance the Clearing House's recovery plan in the following general respects:</P>
                <P>• Specify more clearly ICE Clear Europe's framework for governance and decision making in recovery scenarios;</P>
                <P>• More clearly link the different elements of the plan;</P>
                <P>• Present the assessment of recovery tools in a way that clearly and comprehensively addresses the characteristics set out in the Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures and the International Organization of Securities Commissions Final Report on Resilience of Central Counterparties (CCPs): Further guidance on the PFMI dated June 2017 (the “CPMI-IOSCO recovery guidance”);</P>
                <P>• Focus on recovery-specific scenarios and tools, as opposed to the business as usual (“BAU”) management of risks, which is addressed in other procedures and policies;</P>
                <P>• Address intragroup and external interdependencies in greater depth;</P>
                <P>• Address ICE Clear Europe's plan for communication and coordination of action to regulators and other stakeholders; and</P>
                <P>• Provide for periodic testing of the recovery plan.</P>
                <P>The proposed Revised Recovery Plan would make certain specific modifications to the Existing Recovery Plan in furtherance of these general goals, as follows:</P>
                <P>1. The appendices in the Existing Recovery Plan would be removed as unnecessary, except for the appendices on committee and organizational structure and stress scenario analysis.</P>
                <P>2. The Revised Recovery Plan would more clearly address decision-making during recovery. More specifically:</P>
                <P>a. The role and interaction with the Board would be clarified, requiring (i) the Board to convene before enacting the Revised Recovery Plan and before deciding to exercise recovery options, or (ii) if the Board could not be convened in a timely manner, then the President to convene the Board after the decision for ratification;</P>
                <P>b. Decision-making considerations for each recovery option would be included, including the management information that would be used, such as relevant regulatory capital information in a non-default loss scenario; and</P>
                <P>c. Plans relating to communication with regulators would be incorporated, including the manner in which ICE Clear Europe would inform regulators before enacting the plan or exercising recovery options.</P>
                <P>3. The Revised Recovery Plan would be restructured for ease of use of the plan by management and the Board in a recovery situation. In particular:</P>
                <P>a. The plan would include a playbook setting out the progression of actions in recovery for default loss and non-default loss scenarios, which would be subject to annual testing; and</P>
                <P>b. The triggers for recovery would be made clear and central to the plan.</P>
                <P>4. The Revised Recovery Plan would present an assessment of its recovery tools in a manner that more explicitly and comprehensively addresses the characteristics set out in the CPMI-IOSCO recovery guidance.</P>
                <P>
                    5. The Revised Recovery Plan would more clearly focus on recovery-specific scenarios and tools and would make the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24550"/>
                    boundary between BAU tools and recovery tools clearer by:
                </P>
                <P>a. Focusing on situations in which the firm's viability would be under threat; and</P>
                <P>b. Excluding the operational risk scenarios to ensure the focus is on recovery, not other business continuity scenarios.</P>
                <P>6. The Revised Recovery Plan would provide increased focus on intragroup and external interdependencies for critical services and would document its plans for related communication and coordination of action through:</P>
                <P>a. Addressing the implications of interdependencies on its critical services, which primarily relate to its capital replenishment framework which depends upon continued financial support from the Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. group (“ICE Group”);</P>
                <P>b. Including further analysis of its dependencies on third-party services and mitigations, which largely relate to services provided through ICE Group, but also include SWIFT access;</P>
                <P>c. Describing how potential coordination with other CCPs and financial market infrastructures (“FMIs”) would be approached (both for ICE Group CCPs and FMIs and non-ICE Group CCPs and FMIs); and</P>
                <P>d. Giving greater consideration to procyclicality and financial stability implications for Clearing Members due to ICE Clear Europe's exercise of its recovery options.</P>
                <P>7. The Revised Recovery Plan would require annual testing of the plan via a table-top exercise to ensure ICE Clear Europe staff's understanding of the plan and its implementation. The testing would work through specific scenarios which would take into consideration the playbook, management information, practical implementation of recovery options, communication pathways to be used, the necessity of additional resources and which systems would be involved in each recovery option.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">II. Summary of the Revised Recovery Plan</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(i) Overview</HD>
                <P>As with the Existing Recovery Plan, the Revised Recovery Plan would identify the critical services that ICE Clear Europe provides, and the business functions that support those services. In ICE Clear Europe's view, its clearing services (for both the F&amp;O and CDS product categories), and its related treasury and banking services, represent its critical services. The Revised Recovery Plan would also identify the market participants that rely on ICE Clear Europe's services and the service providers supporting its critical services. The Revised Recovery Plan would also address recovery triggers, scenarios, early-warning indicators, recovery options, decision-making governance, limitations, assumptions and testing of the plan. The Revised Recovery Plan would not incorporate day-to-day risk management processes and tools already in place in the Rules and Procedures, as those do not relate to recovery scenarios. Wind-down and resolution scenarios would be covered in separate policies and procedures. The Revised Recovery Plan would not address recovery plans for exchanges or markets cleared by ICE Clear Europe, or the recovery of other FMIs that it interacts with.</P>
                <P>The recovery options set out in the Revised Recovery Plan are intended to be extensive, giving the Clearing House the ability to cover default losses (through eliminating any remaining variation margin and mark-to-market payment obligations by, in effect, margin haircutting and tear-up of remaining positions), liquidity shortfalls (by delaying payment obligations) and investment losses (after a $90 million threshold, by allocating such losses up to the level of margin and guaranty fund across all Clearing Members). The Revised Recovery Plan would also take into account the Clearing House's powers of assessment as well as pre-funded resources.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(ii) Critical Services, Service Providers, and Interdependencies</HD>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would identify ICE Clear Europe's critical services: F&amp;O clearing; CDS clearing; and treasury and banking services (“TBS”). The plan would describe the entities that depend on ICE Clear Europe's critical services, the need to consider capital and liquidity impacts on market participants when assessing the appropriate recovery options, and the importance of early and ongoing communication with regulators and other FMIs via regulators.</P>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would also describe the critical services that the Clearing House relies upon from investment agents, APS banks, central banks, data providers, custodians, physical delivery agents, ICE Group exchanges, ICE Group clearing houses and ICE technology and operations groups. It would detail how the Clearing House mitigates dependence on service providers through using multiple substitutable providers, providers who prioritize operational continuity through multiple levels of resilience and redundancy, and contractual protections through appropriate termination periods and limiting clauses that would permit service providers to alter or terminate contracts if ICE Clear Europe were under financial stress. In general, under the plan, investment agents, APS banks, central banks and data providers would not be dependencies because of their substitutability. If necessary, for such service providers, ICE Clear Europe could run certain processes itself or apply alternative processes to achieve similar results.</P>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would address the Clearing House's dependencies on custodians, physical delivery agents, ICE Group exchanges, other ICE Group clearing houses, and ICE Group technology and operations services. The plan would also address key systems and technological infrastructure on which the Clearing House relies. The plan would detail how the risk of these services being withdrawn are mitigated through multiple redundancies, business continuity and disaster recovery arrangements that are regularly tested, incident follow-up, regular performance metrics, veto rights over proposed changes and long notice periods. The plan would further address the possibility of Clearing Members defaulting on obligations to other ICE Group CCPs or third party CCPs and would note that ICE Clear Europe would coordinate with other CCPs through various means.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iii) Recovery Scenarios, Triggers and Early Warning Indicators</HD>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would address two principal recovery scenarios: (i) Default losses, in which case the plan would be triggered when the guaranty fund is (or is likely to be) exhausted and there are still losses to cover; and (ii) non-default losses, in which case the plan would be triggered when ICE Clear Europe's base capital is (or is likely to be) breached.</P>
                <P>
                    The Revised Recovery Plan would distinguish between BAU risk management and recovery scenarios (in which, by definition, BAU risk management is insufficient to address the relevant losses), and relevant options and tools available for each. The Revised Recovery Plan would also address scenarios in which operational events (which are normally addressed through business continuity and disaster recovery plans) could trigger operation of the recovery plan, such as if the capital that ICE Clear Europe needs to fix an operational or technology problem breaches, or is likely to breach, its base capital and hit the non-default loss trigger.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24551"/>
                </P>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan considers cases where ICE Clear Europe's early warning metrics and indicators may indicate that a recovery trigger would be hit. Early warning indicators for default loss scenarios would be based on default management information showing the size of the Clearing Members' exposures compared to the collateral ICE Clear Europe holds against them and the size and complexity of their positions, which, together with market volatility information, would help ICE Clear Europe assess whether auctions would be likely to be successful in balancing the book before running the auctions. With respect to non-default losses, ICE Clear Europe would monitor its eligible capital against target thresholds each day through risk appetite metrics, which provide alerts and escalation to management or the ICE Clear Europe Board before ICE Clear Europe breaches its base capital.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iv) Recovery Options</HD>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe's recovery options are generally set out in the Rules and Procedures. The Revised Recovery Plan would describe key aspects of these options as follows:</P>
                <P>• Powers of assessment (“PoA”) (Rules 909)—which enables ICE Clear Europe to require Clearing Members to pay additional funds to further mutualize default losses, up to the cap specified in the Rules. PoA can only be used in a default loss scenario.</P>
                <P>• Reduced Gains Distribution (“RGD”) (Rule 914)—which allows ICE Clear Europe to withhold mark-to-market margin gains instead of paying them out to the relevant Clearing Members, in order to cover losses. This would likely need to be used in conjunction with other recovery options as it would not remove the source of the risk. This could only be used in a default loss scenario and only after PoA have been called.</P>
                <P>• Partial Tear-Ups (Rule 915)—which allows ICE Clear Europe to `tear up' positions, in effect cancelling them or reducing or removing the payment obligations due on those positions. This could only be used in a default loss scenario and only after an auction has been attempted.</P>
                <P>• Payment Delays (Rule 110)—which allows ICE Clear Europe to delay transfers, deposits and payments to help alleviate liquidity shortfalls and likely needs to be used in conjunction with other recovery options. This could be used in both default and non-default loss scenarios.</P>
                <P>• Investment Loss Allocation (Rule 919)—which allows ICE Clear Europe to allocate investment losses to Clearing Members provided it has invested in accordance with its investment management policy. This could only be used where there are investment losses.</P>
                <P>• Invoicing Back (Rule 104)—which allows ICE Clear Europe to cancel positions in certain non-default loss situations, limited to force majeure, illegality and impossibility.</P>
                <P>• Capital Replenishment Framework (“CRF”)—which covers ICE Clear Europe's options for replenishing capital, including raising additional capital through the ICE Group and third parties, as well as insurance coverage. This could be used in both default and non-default loss scenarios. The timing of receipt of additional capital would depend on the specific source of additional capital and would not be guaranteed.</P>
                <P>The proposed Revised Recovery Plan would describe the goals and procedures for designing recovery options, including that recovery options are designed to be comprehensive, effective, transparent, measurable, manageable and controllable. They are intended to create appropriate incentives and minimize negative impact. The plan would also describe the governance process for development of recovery options that impact Clearing Members. The process would include input from stakeholders, including Clearing Members, customers, regulators and ICE Clear Europe's shareholder. The plan also reflects the existing governance procedures for changes to the Rules (including recovery options therein).</P>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would discuss the manner in which ICE Clear Europe's recovery options meet its standards for being comprehensive and effective, reliable, enforceable, transparent and measurable and for creating appropriate incentives and minimizing negative impact both individually and collectively, as they would give ICE Clear Europe the ability to fully cover default losses, liquidity shortfalls and investment losses (above the relevant threshold).</P>
                <P>The plan would also set out in detail the decision-making considerations for each recovery option. These include the scenarios in which recovery options may be used and the expected effectiveness or scope of coverage for those options, whether the option can be used alone or in conjunction with other options, the time at which use of the option may be considered, expected impacts on market participants and others and effects on confidence in ICE Clear Europe or its clearing system, among other considerations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(v) Decision-Making, Governance and Communications</HD>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would require that the President attempt to convene the Board for approval of material recovery decisions and keep regulators informed in advance of material decisions, assuming this could be done in a timely manner. If the Board could not be convened in advance of such a decision, it would be convened thereafter to ratify or modify the decision. The President would be supported by the Default Management Committees in a default loss scenario and by the Executive Risk Committee in a non-default loss scenario. Consistent with the Rules and Procedures, exercising the recovery options would not require the approval of Clearing Members, exchanges or any other external stakeholders. In making decisions regarding the use of recovery options, however, the President and the Board would need to take into consideration the interests of ICE Clear Europe, Clearing Members, customers, other stakeholders and the broader goal of providing safe and sound CCP services to reduce systemic risk in an efficient and legally compliant manner.</P>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would state ICE Clear Europe's communication and coordination objectives in recovery to (i) provide Clearing Members, regulators and the wider market with timely and accurate information and (ii) ensure effective coordination and escalation across affiliated ICE Group exchanges, clearing houses and FMIs. The Revised Recovery Plan would also address coordination with other ICE Group exchanges, clearing houses and FMIs. The plan would also contemplate wider communications with Clearing Members and other market participants.</P>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe would aim to keep regulators informed in advance of triggering the Revised Recovery Plan or exercising recovery options, while being mindful of the need to take timely action. ICE Clear Europe would seek to maintain close and continuous engagement with the regulators during the implementation of the Revised Recovery Plan until ICE Clear Europe returns to normal operational conditions or activates the Wind-Down Plan (in which case other regulatory coordination procedures apply). ICE Clear Europe would participate in coordination and communication with other relevant stakeholders organized by the regulators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(vi) Recovery Playbook</HD>
                <P>
                    The Revised Recovery Plan would set out the recovery approach in a default 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24552"/>
                    loss and non-default loss scenario through a recovery playbook. The playbook is intended as an example for how recoveries might progress, rather than a prescriptive instruction manual for all recovery situations. The playbook identifies key steps in the recovery process, including declaring a default event and determining the likely scope of losses, Board consultation, triggering the plan, communicating with regulators, and selecting the particular recovery options.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(vii) Limitations and Assumptions</HD>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would identify the key assumptions and limitations that could reduce its effectiveness and may fall outside of ICE Clear Europe's control. These include the following: (i) The plan is based on legal certainty of the framework in which the Clearing House operates; (ii) the plan relies on market infrastructure ICE Clear Europe does not control and for which there are no practical alternatives; (iii) the plan assumes (for the most part) the continued support of ICE Inc.; and (iv) certain recovery options are time limited or time dependent. The plan would review the reasons why these assumptions and limitations are appropriate, and certain determinations it has made in respect thereof.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(viii) Appendices</HD>
                <P>The Revised Recovery Plan would include the following appendices: (i) ICE Clear Europe Committee Structure setting out board and executive level governance; and (ii) stress scenario analysis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe believes that the Revised Recovery Plan is consistent with the requirements of Section 17A of the Act 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations thereunder applicable to it, including the standards under Rule 17Ad-22.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires, among other things, that the rules of a clearing agency be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and, to the extent applicable, derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions, the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of the clearing agency or for which it is responsible, and the protection of investors and the public interest. In addition, Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii) 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires that each covered clearing agency shall establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to, as applicable, maintain a sound risk management framework for comprehensively managing legal, credit, liquidity, operational, general business, investment, custody, and other risks that arise in or are borne by the covered clearing agency, which includes plans for the recovery and orderly wind-down of the covered clearing agency necessitated by credit losses, liquidity shortfalls, losses from general business risk, or any other losses.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Revised Recovery Plan is intended to meet the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii), and be consistent with the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act. The Revised Recovery Plan is designed to enhance the Clearing House's Existing Recovery Plan, among other matters, by being clearer and easier to apply, more clearly distinguishing recovery scenarios from BAU scenarios, addressing governance requirements generally and for particular recovery options, and more clearly addressing certain critical dependencies faced by the Clearing House. The Revised Recovery Plan does not itself modify the recovery options themselves, which are largely set out in the Clearing House's Rules and Procedures. The Revised Recovery Plan, like the Existing Recovery Plan, would build on these provisions of the Rules and Procedures to set out the recovery options that may be used to address both default loss scenarios and non-default loss scenarios (such as liquidity shortfalls, investment losses and losses from general business risk), so that the Clearing House could restore normal clearing operations. The plan would address coordination with regulators and other stakeholders. Overall, the plan would form a key part of the risk management of the Clearing House, and build on the existing risk management processes and procedures applicable to BAU scenarios. As a result, in ICE Clear Europe's view, the Revised Recovery Plan would satisfy the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The plan would also further the Clearing House's ability to maintain the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of transactions and the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of the Clearing House or for which it is responsible, including in severe default and non-default loss scenarios, and thereby promote the protection of investors and the public interest, within the meaning of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 270.17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe further notes the requirement in Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to hold sufficient liquid net assets funded by equity to cover potential general business losses so that the covered clearing agency can continue operations and services as a going concern if those losses materialize, including by (i) determining the amount of liquid net assets funded by equity based upon its general business risk profile and the length of time required to achieve a recovery or orderly wind-down, as appropriate, of its critical operations and services if such action is taken, and (ii) holding liquid net assets funded by equity equal to the greater of either (x) six months of the covered clearing agency's current operating expenses, or (y) the amount determined by the board of directors to be sufficient to ensure a recovery or orderly wind-down of critical operations and services of the covered clearing agency, as contemplated by the recovery and wind-down plans established under Rule 17Ad-22(e)(3)(ii).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(15).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe has determined that it holds equity capital at least sufficient to cover the costs of a recovery of its critical clearing services under the Revised Recovery Plan, consistent with the requirements of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(15).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In compliance with Rules 17Ad-22(e)(2),
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the proposed Revised Recovery Plan would provide greater detail with respect to decision-making during recovery as well as the role and interaction with the Board, other executives, regulators and other stakeholders, providing greater clarity with respect to ICE Clear Europe's governance arrangements and lines of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24553"/>
                    responsibility and ensuring that the interests of other stakeholders are considered.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         17 CFR 270.17Ad-22(e)(2). Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2) requires the covered clearing agency to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that:
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) Are clear and transparent;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Clearly prioritize the safety and efficiency of the covered clearing agency;</P>
                    <P>(iii) Support the public interest requirements in Section 17A of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) applicable to clearing agencies, and the objectives of owners and participants;</P>
                    <P>(iv) Establish that the board of directors and senior management have appropriate experience and skills to discharge their duties and responsibilities;</P>
                    <P>(v) Specify clear and direct lines of responsibility; and</P>
                    <P>(vi) Consider the interests of participants' customers, securities issuers and holders, and other relevant stakeholders of the covered clearing agency.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(B) Clearing Agency's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe does not believe the proposed Revised Recovery Plan would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Revised Recovery Plan would provide greater clarity and make certain enhancements with respect to ICE Clear Europe's recovery planning. The plan does not itself change the rights or obligations of the Clearing House or Clearing Members, and is based on the recovery options established in the Rules and Procedures. The Revised Recovery Plan has been designed to meet specific regulatory requirements concerning recovery planning, and is applicable to all clearing activities. ICE Clear Europe does not believe the amendments would impact competition among Clearing Members or other market participants, or affect the ability of market participants to access clearing generally. While implementation of the Recovery Plan, and in particular implementation of the plan in a severe loss scenario, would likely impose costs on Clearing Members or other market participants, such costs are consistent with the Rules and Procedures, and are, in ICE Clear Europe's view, appropriate in light of the goals of recovery and maintenance of critical clearing service in accordance with applicable regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(C) Clearing Agency's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants or Others</HD>
                <P>Written comments relating to the proposed amendments have not been solicited or received by ICE Clear Europe. ICE Clear Europe will notify the Commission of any written comments received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission and Advance Notice and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ) or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-013 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-013. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of such filings will also be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of ICE Clear Europe and on ICE Clear Europe's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.theice.com/clear-credit/regulation.</E>
                     All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-013 and should be submitted on or before June 18,
                    <FTREF/>
                     2019.
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                    </P>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10986 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investment Company Act Release No. 33480; 812-14955]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>BlackRock Capital Investment Corporation, et al.</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <P>Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Summary of Application:</HD>
                    <P> Applicants request an order to permit certain business development companies and closed-end management investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with affiliated investment funds.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Applicants:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Blackrock Capital Investment Corporation (“BCIC”), BlackRock Credit Strategies Fund (“BCSF”), Blackrock Capital Investment Advisors, LLC (“Blackrock Capital Advisor”), BlackRock Advisors, LLC (“BAL”), Middle Market Senior Fund, L.P., BlackRock TCP Capital Corp. (“TCPC”), Special Value Continuation Partners LLC (“SVCP”), Tennenbaum Opportunities Partners V, LP, Tennenbaum Opportunities Fund V, LLC, SVOF/MM, LLC (“SVOF/MM”), Tennenbaum Capital Partners, LLC (“TCP”), Tennenbaum Heartland Co-Invest, LP, SEB DIP Investor, LP, Special Value Expansion Fund, LLC, Special Value Opportunities Fund, LLC, TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII—L (Ireland), TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII—U (Ireland), TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII-S, LLC, TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII-T, LLC, TCP DLF VIII 2018 CLO LLC, TCP Enhanced Yield Funding I, LLC, TCP Rainier, LLC, TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII, LLC, TCP Direct 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24554"/>
                        Lending Fund VIII-L, LLC, TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII-A, LLC, TCPC SBIC, LP (“TCPC SBIC”), Tennenbaum Energy Opportunities Co., LLC, Tennenbaum Energy Opportunities Fund, LP, Tennenbaum Enhanced Yield Fund I, LLC, Tennenbaum Opportunities Fund VI, LLC, TCP Waterman Fund, LLC, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Fund III, LP, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Funding III, LLC, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Fund IV-A, LP, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Fund IV-B, LP, Tennenbaum Special Situations Fund IX, LLC, Tennenbaum Special Situations Fund IX-A, LLC, Tennenbaum Special Situations IX-C, L.P., Tennenbaum Special Situations IX-O, L.P., Tennenbaum Special Situations Fund IX-S, L.P., Tennenbaum Senior Loan Fund II, LP, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Fund V, LLC, TCPC Funding I, LLC (“TCPC Funding”), Tennenbaum Enhanced Yield Operating I, LLC, TCP Waterman CLO, LLC, TCP Whitney CLO, LLC, TCP Whitney CLO, Ltd, Tennenbaum Senior Loan Operating III, LLC, Tennenbaum Senior Loan SPV IV-A, LLC, TCPC SBIC GP, LLC (“TCPC SBIC GP”), TCP Direct Lending Fund VIII-N, LLC
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Filing Dates:</HD>
                    <P> The application was filed on September 21, 2018, and amended on January 11, 2019, and March 19, 2019. Applicants have agreed to file an amendment during the notice period, the substance of which is reflected in this notice.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Hearing or Notification of Hearing:</HD>
                    <P> An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on June 17, 2019, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Laurence D. Paredes, General Counsel, BlackRock Capital Investment Corporation, 40 East 52nd Street New York, NY 10022 and Howard M. Levkowitz, Managing Director and Elizabeth Greenwood, Managing Director, Tennenbaum Capital Partners, LLC, 2951 28th Street, Suite 1000, Santa Monica, California 90405.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kieran G. Brown, Senior Counsel, at 202-551-6773, or David J. Marcinkus, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/search/search.htm</E>
                     or by calling (202) 551-8090.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    1. The applicants request an order of the Commission under sections 17(d) and 57(i) and rule 17d-1 thereunder (the “Order”) to permit, subject to the terms and conditions set forth in the application (the “Conditions”), a Regulated Fund 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to enter into Co-Investment Transactions with each other. “Co-Investment Transaction” means any transaction in which a Regulated Fund (or its Wholly-Owned Investment Sub (as defined below)) participated together with one or more Affiliated Funds and/or one or more other Regulated Funds in reliance on the Order. “Potential Co-Investment Transaction” means any investment opportunity in which a Regulated Fund (or its Wholly-Owned Investment Sub) could not participate together with one or more Affiliated Funds and/or one or more other Regulated Funds without obtaining and relying on the Order.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         “Regulated Funds” means BCIC, BCSF, TCPC, the Future Regulated Funds and the BDC Downstream Funds. “Future Regulated Fund” means a closed-end management investment company (a) that is registered under the Act or has elected to be regulated as a BDC, (b) whose investment adviser or sub-adviser is an Adviser, and (c) that intends to participate in the proposed co-investment program (the “Co-Investment Program”). 
                    </P>
                    <P>“Adviser” means BlackRock Capital Advisor, TCP and SVOF/MM and any Future Adviser. The term Adviser does not include BAL or any other investment adviser to an Affiliated Fund or a Regulated Fund whose sub-adviser is an Adviser (a “Sub-Advised Fund”), except that such investment adviser is deemed to be an Adviser for purposes of Conditions 2(c)(iv), 13 and 14 only. BAL and any investment adviser to a Sub-Advised Fund will not be the source of any Potential Co-Investment Transactions under the Order.</P>
                    <P>“Future Adviser” means any future investment adviser that (i) is controlled by BlackRock Capital Advisor, (ii) (a) is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act or (b) is a relying adviser of an investment adviser that is registered under the Advisers Act and that is controlled by BlackRock Capital Advisor, and (iii) is not a Regulated Fund or a subsidiary of a Regulated Fund.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Affiliated Fund” means any Existing Affiliated Fund (identified in Appendix A to the application) or any entity (a) whose investment adviser or sub-adviser is an Adviser, (b) that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1), 3(c)(5)(C) or 3(c)(7) of the Act, (c) that is not a BDC Downstream Fund, and (d) that intends to participate in the Co-Investment Program; provided that an entity sub-advised by an Adviser is not included in this term if: (i) Such Adviser serving as sub-adviser does not control the entity, and (ii) the primary investment adviser is not an Adviser. Applicants represent that no Existing Affiliated Fund is a BDC Downstream Fund.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         All existing entities that currently intend to rely on the Order have been named as applicants and any existing or future entities that may rely on the Order in the future will comply with its terms and Conditions set forth in the application.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    2. The Order sought by the application would supersede the exemptive orders issued by the Commission to BlackRock Capital Investment Corporation, 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     on January 16, 2018 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act and to Tennenbaum Capital Partners, LLC, 
                    <E T="03">et al.</E>
                     on May 9, 2006 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     under rule 17d-1 under the Act (the “Prior Orders”), with the result that no person will continue to rely on the Prior Orders if the Order is granted.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">BlackRock Capital Investment Corporation, et al.</E>
                         (File No. 812-14582) Investment Company Act Release Nos. 32943 (December 19, 2017) (notice) and 32968 (January 16, 2018) (order).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Special Value Opportunities Fund, LLC, et al.</E>
                         (File No. 812-13068) Investment Company Act Release Nos. IC-27287 (April 11, 2006) (notice) and 27316 (May 9, 2006) (order).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicants</HD>
                <P>
                    3. BCIC is a Delaware corporation organized as a closed-end management investment company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company (“BDC”) under the Act.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BCIC is managed by a Board 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     currently comprised of seven persons, six of whom are Independent Directors.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Section 2(a)(48) defines a BDC to be any closed-end investment company that operates for the purpose of making investments in securities described in section 55(a)(1) through 55(a)(3) and makes available significant managerial assistance with respect to the issuers of such securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         “Board” means (i) with respect to a Regulated Fund other than a BDC Downstream Fund, the board of directors (or the equivalent) of the Regulated Fund and (ii) with respect to a BDC Downstream Fund, the Independent Party of the BDC Downstream Fund.
                    </P>
                    <P>“Independent Party” means, with respect to a BDC Downstream Fund, (i) if the BDC Downstream Fund has a board of directors (or the equivalent), the board or (ii) if the BDC Downstream Fund does not have a board of directors (or the equivalent), a transaction committee or advisory committee of the BDC Downstream Fund.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         “Independent Director” means a member of the Board of any relevant entity who is not an “interested person” as defined in section 2(a)(19) of the Act. No Independent Director of a Regulated Fund (including any non-interested member of an Independent Party) will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        indirectly through share ownership in one of the Regulated Funds.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24555"/>
                <P>4. BCSF is a statutory trust under the laws of Delaware. BCSF is registered as a non-diversified, closed-end management investment company under the Act. BCSF will be managed by a board of trustees. A majority of BCSF's trustees will be independent trustees.</P>
                <P>5. TCPC is a BDC incorporated in Delaware and its common stock is traded on the NASDAQ Global Select Market. TCPC's business and affairs are managed under the direction of its Board. TCPC has an eight-member Board, six of whom are Independent Directors.</P>
                <P>6. SVCP is a limited liability company under the laws of the State of Delaware. SVCP is a wholly-owned subsidiary of TCPC.</P>
                <P>7. TCPC Funding is a limited liability company under the laws of the State of Delaware and is a wholly-owned subsidiary of SVCP.</P>
                <P>10. TCPC SBIC is a limited partnership under the laws of the state of Delaware. SVCP directly owns a 100% limited partnership interest in TCPC SBIC. TCPC SBIC will not be registered under the Act based on the exclusion from the definition of investment company contained in section 3(c)(7). TCPC SBIC is a wholly-owned consolidated subsidiary that is licensed by the Small Business Administration (the “SBA”) to operate under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (the “SBA Act”) as a small business investment company (such a subsidiary, an “SBIC Subsidiary”).</P>
                <P>12. TCPC SBIC GP is a limited liability company under the laws of the state of Delaware, and is a wholly-owned subsidiary of SVCP, which is the sole member of the TCPC SBIC GP. TCPC SBIC GP is the sole general partner of TCPC SBIC.</P>
                <P>13. TCPC effectively controls TCPC SBIC because TCPC SBIC GP is a wholly-owned subsidiary of SVCP.</P>
                <P>14. BlackRock Capital Advisor is an indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of BlackRock, Inc., which is a New York based global investment management firm. BlackRock Capital Advisor is a Delaware limited liability company and an investment adviser that is registered with the Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (the “Advisers Act”). BlackRock Capital Advisor serves as the investment adviser to BCIC and will serve as the investment adviser to Middle Market Senior Fund, L.P. and sub-adviser to BCSF.</P>
                <P>15. BAL is a Delaware limited liability company that is registered with the Commission as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. BAL will serve as the investment adviser to BCSF and may serve as the investment adviser to Future Regulated Funds and future Affiliated Funds that are sub-advised by an Adviser. BAL is an indirect wholly-owned subsidiary of BlackRock, Inc.</P>
                <P>16. TCP is a wholly-owned subsidiary of BlackRock Capital Advisor. TCP, a Delaware limited liability company registered under the Advisers Act, serves as the investment adviser to TCPC.</P>
                <P>17. SVOF/MM is a controlled subsidiary of TCP. SVOF/MM is an investment adviser registered under the Advisers Act. Certain classes and series of SVOF/MM also serve as managing member and/or investment adviser to certain Existing Affiliated Funds.</P>
                <P>18. The Existing Affiliated Funds are the investment funds identified in Appendix A to the application. Applicants represent that each Existing Affiliated Fund is a separate and distinct legal entity and would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act. TCP is the investment adviser to all the Existing Affiliated Funds, except for four, three of which have Series I of SVOF/MM as their respective investment adviser and the other of which has BlackRock Capital Advisor as its investment adviser.</P>
                <P>
                    19. Applicants state that a Regulated Fund may, from time to time, form one or more Wholly-Owned Investment Subs.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Such a subsidiary may be prohibited from investing in a Co-Investment Transaction with a Regulated Fund (other than its parent) or any Affiliated Fund because it would be a company controlled by its parent Regulated Fund for purposes of section 57(a)(4) and rule 17d-1. Applicants request that each Wholly-Owned Investment Sub be permitted to participate in Co-Investment Transactions in lieu of the Regulated Fund that owns it and that the Wholly-Owned Investment Sub's participation in any such transaction be treated, for purposes of the Order, as though the parent Regulated Fund were participating directly.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         “Wholly-Owned Investment Sub” means an entity (i) that is wholly-owned by a Regulated Fund (with such Regulated Fund at all times holding, beneficially and of record, directly or indirectly, 100% of the voting and economic interests); (ii) whose sole business purpose is to hold one or more investments on behalf of such Regulated Fund (and, in the case of an SBIC Subsidiary, maintain a license under the SBA Act and issue debentures guaranteed by the SBA); (iii) with respect to which such Regulated Fund's Board has the sole authority to make all determinations with respect to the entity's participation under the Conditions; and (iv) that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicants' Representations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Allocation Process</HD>
                <P>20. Applicants represent that the Advisers have established processes for ensuring compliance with the Prior Orders and for allocating initial investment opportunities, opportunities for subsequent investments in an issuer and dispositions of securities holdings reasonably designed to treat all clients fairly and equitably. Further, applicants represent that these processes will be extended and modified in a manner reasonably designed to ensure that the additional transactions permitted under the Order will both (i) be fair and equitable to the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds and (ii) comply with the Conditions.</P>
                <P>
                    21. Specifically, applicants state that the Advisers are organized and managed such that the individual portfolio managers, as well as the teams and committees of portfolio managers, analysts and senior management (“Investment Teams” and “Investment Committees”), responsible for evaluating investment opportunities and making investment decisions on behalf of clients are promptly notified of the opportunities. If the Order is granted, the Advisers will establish, maintain and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that, when such opportunities arise, the Advisers to the relevant Regulated Funds are promptly notified and receive the same information about the opportunity as any other Advisers considering the opportunity for their clients. The Advisers will undertake to perform these duties regardless of whether the Advisers serve as investment adviser or sub-adviser to the Regulated Fund or Affiliated Funds. In particular, consistent with Condition 1, if a Potential Co-Investment Transaction falls within the then-current Objectives and Strategies 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any Board-Established Criteria 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of a Regulated 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24556"/>
                    Fund, the policies and procedures will require that the relevant portfolio managers, Investment Teams and/or Investment Committees responsible for that Regulated Fund receive sufficient information to allow the Regulated Fund's Adviser to make its independent determination and recommendations under the Conditions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         “Objectives and Strategies” means (i) with respect to any Regulated Fund other than a BDC Downstream Fund, its investment objectives and strategies, as described in its most current registration statement on Form N-2, other current filings with the Commission under the Securities Act of 1933 (the “Securities Act”) or under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, and its most current report to stockholders, and (ii) with respect to any BDC Downstream Fund, those investment objectives and strategies described in its disclosure documents (including private placement memoranda and reports to equity holders) and organizational documents (including operating agreements).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         “Board-Established Criteria” means criteria that the Board of a Regulated Fund may establish 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        from time to time to describe the characteristics of Potential Co-Investment Transactions regarding which the Adviser to the Regulated Fund should be notified under Condition 1. The Board-Established Criteria will be consistent with the Regulated Fund's Objectives and Strategies. If no Board-Established Criteria are in effect, then the Regulated Fund's Adviser will be notified of all Potential Co-Investment Transactions that fall within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies. Board-Established Criteria will be objective and testable, meaning that they will be based on observable information, such as industry/sector of the issuer, minimum EBITDA of the issuer, asset class of the investment opportunity or required commitment size, and not on characteristics that involve a discretionary assessment. The Adviser to the Regulated Fund may from time to time recommend criteria for the Board's consideration, but Board-Established Criteria will only become effective if approved by a majority of the Independent Directors. The Independent Directors of a Regulated Fund may at any time rescind, suspend or qualify their approval of any Board-Established Criteria, though applicants anticipate that, under normal circumstances, the Board would not modify these criteria more often than quarterly.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>22. The Adviser to each applicable Regulated Fund will then make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for the Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances. If the Adviser to a Regulated Fund deems the Regulated Fund's participation in such Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate, then it will formulate a recommendation regarding the proposed order amount for the Regulated Fund.</P>
                <P>
                    23. Applicants state that, for each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund whose Adviser recommends participating in a Potential Co-Investment Transaction, the Adviser will formulate a proposed order amount. Prior to the External Submission (as defined below), each proposed order amount may be reviewed and adjusted, in accordance with the Advisers' written allocation policies and procedures, by an allocation committee for the area in question (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     credit, private equity, real estate) on which senior management, legal and compliance personnel from that area participate or, in the case of issues involving multiple areas, an Adviser-wide allocation committee on which senior management, legal and compliance personnel for the Advisers participate.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The order of a Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund resulting from this process is referred to as its “Internal Order”. The Internal Order will be submitted for approval by the Required Majority of any participating Regulated Funds in accordance with the Conditions.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The reason for any such adjustment to a proposed order amount will be documented in writing and preserved in the records of the Advisers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         “Required Majority” means a required majority, as defined in section 57(o) of the Act. In the case of a Regulated Fund that is a registered closed-end fund, the Board members that make up the Required Majority will be determined as if the Regulated Fund were a BDC subject to section 57(o). In the case of a BDC Downstream Fund with a board of directors (or the equivalent), the members that make up the Required Majority will be determined as if the BDC Downstream Fund were a BDC subject to section 57(o). In the case of a BDC Downstream Fund with a transaction committee or advisory committee, the committee members that make up the Required Majority will be determined as if the BDC Downstream Fund were a BDC subject to section 57(o) and as if the committee members were directors of the fund.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    24. If the aggregate Internal Orders for a Potential Co-Investment Transaction do not exceed the size of the investment opportunity immediately prior to the submission of the orders to the underwriter, broker, dealer or issuer, as applicable (the “External Submission”), then each Internal Order will be fulfilled as placed. If, on the other hand, the aggregate Internal Orders for a Potential Co-Investment Transaction exceed the size of the investment opportunity immediately prior to the External Submission, then the allocation of the opportunity will be made pro rata on the basis of the size of the Internal Orders.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If, subsequent to such External Submission, the size of the opportunity is increased or decreased, or if the terms of such opportunity, or the facts and circumstances applicable to the Regulated Funds' or the Affiliated Funds' consideration of the opportunity, change, the participants will be permitted to submit revised Internal Orders in accordance with written allocation policies and procedures that the Advisers will establish, implement and maintain.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The Advisers will maintain records of all proposed order amounts, Internal Orders and External Submissions in conjunction with Potential Co-Investment Transactions. Each applicable Adviser will provide the Eligible Directors with information concerning the Affiliated Funds' and Regulated Funds' order sizes to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the applicable Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with the Conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>“Eligible Directors” means, with respect to a Regulated Fund and a Potential Co-Investment Transaction, the members of the Regulated Fund's Board eligible to vote on that Potential Co-Investment Transaction under section 57(o) of the Act (treating any registered investment company or series thereof as a BDC for this purpose).</P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Board of the Regulated Fund will then either approve or disapprove of the investment opportunity in accordance with Condition 2, 6, 7, 8 or 9, as applicable.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Follow-On Investments</HD>
                <P>
                    25. Applicants state that from time to time the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds may have opportunities to make Follow-On Investments 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in an issuer in which a Regulated Fund and one or more other Regulated Funds and/or Affiliated Funds previously have invested.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         “Follow-On Investment” means an additional investment in the same issuer, including, but not limited to, through the exercise of warrants, conversion privileges or other rights to purchase securities of the issuer.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    26. Applicants propose that Follow-On Investments would be divided into two categories depending on whether the prior investment was a Co-Investment Transaction or a Pre-Boarding Investment.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds had previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer and only such funds are participating in the Follow-On Investment, then the terms and approval of the Follow-On Investment would be subject to the Standard Review Follow-Ons described in Condition 8. If the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds have not previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer but hold a Pre-Boarding Investment and only such funds are participating in the Follow-On Investment, then the terms and approval of the Follow-On Investment would be subject to the Enhanced-Review Follow-Ons described in Condition 9. All Enhanced Review Follow-Ons require the approval of the Required Majority. For a given issuer, the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds would need to comply with the requirements of Enhanced-Review Follow-Ons only for the first Co-Investment Transaction. Subsequent Co-Investment Transactions with respect to the issuer would be governed by the requirements of Standard Review Follow-Ons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         “Pre-Boarding Investments” are investments in an issuer held by a Regulated Fund as well as one or more Affiliated Funds and/or one or more other Regulated Funds that were acquired prior to participating in any Co-Investment Transaction: (i) In transactions in which the only term negotiated by or on behalf of such funds was price in reliance on one of the JT No-Action Letters; (ii) in transactions occurring at least 90 days apart and without coordination between the Regulated Fund and any Affiliated Fund or other Regulated Fund.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    27. A Regulated Fund would be permitted to invest in Standard Review Follow-Ons either with the approval of the Required Majority under Condition 8(c) or without Board approval under Condition 8(b) if it is (i) a Pro Rata 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24557"/>
                    Follow-On Investment 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) a Non-Negotiated Follow-On Investment.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Applicants believe that these Pro Rata and Non-Negotiated Follow-On Investments do not present a significant opportunity for overreaching on the part of any Adviser and thus do not warrant the time or the attention of the Board. Pro Rata Follow-On Investments and Non-Negotiated Follow-On Investments remain subject to the Board's periodic review in accordance with Condition 10.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         A “Pro Rata Follow-On Investment” is a Follow-On Investment (i) in which the participation of each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer or security, as appropriate, immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment, and (ii) in the case of a Regulated Fund, a majority of the Board has approved the Regulated Fund's participation in the pro rata Follow-On Investments as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. The Regulated Fund's Board may refuse to approve, or at any time rescind, suspend or qualify, its approval of Pro Rata Follow-On Investments, in which case all subsequent Follow-On Investments will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors in accordance with Condition 8(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         A “Non-Negotiated Follow-On Investment” is a Follow-On Investment in which a Regulated Fund participates together with one or more Affiliated Funds and/or one or more other Regulated Funds (i) in which the only term negotiated by or on behalf of the funds is price and (ii) with respect to which, if the transaction were considered on its own, the funds would be entitled to rely on one of the JT No-Action Letters. 
                    </P>
                    <P>“JT No-Action Letters” means SMC Capital, Inc., SEC No-Action Letter (pub. avail. Sept. 5, 1995) and Massachusetts Mutual Life Insurance Company, SEC No-Action Letter (pub. avail. June 7, 2000).</P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Dispositions</HD>
                <P>
                    28. Applicants propose that Dispositions 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     would be divided into two categories. If the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds holding investments in the issuer had previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer, then the terms and approval of the Disposition would be subject to the Standard Review Dispositions described in Condition 6. If the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds have not previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer but hold a Pre-Boarding Investment, then the terms and approval of the Disposition would be subject to the Enhanced Review Dispositions described in Condition 7. Subsequent Dispositions with respect to the same issuer would be governed by Condition 6 under the Standard Review Dispositions.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         “Disposition” means the sale, exchange or other disposition of an interest in a security of an issuer.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         However, with respect to an issuer, if a Regulated Fund's first Co-Investment Transaction is an Enhanced Review Disposition, and the Regulated Fund does not dispose of its entire position in the Enhanced Review Disposition, then before such Regulated Fund may complete its first Standard Review Follow-On in such issuer, the Eligible Directors must review the proposed Follow-On Investment not only on a stand-alone basis but also in relation to the total economic exposure in such issuer (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in combination with the portion of the Pre-Boarding Investment not disposed of in the Enhanced Review Disposition), and the other terms of the investments. This additional review would be required because such findings would not have been required in connection with the prior Enhanced Review Disposition, but they would have been required had the first Co-Investment Transaction been an Enhanced Review Follow-On.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    29. A Regulated Fund may participate in a Standard Review Disposition either with the approval of the Required Majority under Condition 6(d) or without Board approval under Condition 6(c) if (i) the Disposition is a Pro Rata Disposition 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) the securities are Tradable Securities 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Disposition meets the other requirements of Condition 6(c)(ii). Pro Rata Dispositions and Dispositions of a Tradable Security remain subject to the Board's periodic review in accordance with Condition 10.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         A “Pro Rata Disposition” is a Disposition (i) in which the participation of each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund is proportionate to its outstanding investment in the security subject to Disposition immediately preceding the Disposition; and (ii) in the case of a Regulated Fund, a majority of the Board has approved the Regulated Fund's participation in pro rata Dispositions as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. The Regulated Fund's Board may refuse to approve, or at any time rescind, suspend or qualify, its approval of Pro Rata Dispositions, in which case all subsequent Dispositions will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         “Tradable Security” means a security that meets the following criteria at the time of Disposition: (i) It trades on a national securities exchange or designated offshore securities market as defined in rule 902(b) under the Securities Act; (ii) it is not subject to restrictive agreements with the issuer or other security holders; and (iii) it trades with sufficient volume and liquidity (findings as to which are documented by the Advisers to any Regulated Funds holding investments in the issuer and retained for the life of the Regulated Fund) to allow each Regulated Fund to dispose of its entire position remaining after the proposed Disposition within a short period of time not exceeding 30 days at approximately the value (as defined by section 2(a)(41) of the Act) at which the Regulated Fund has valued the investment.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Delayed Settlement</HD>
                <P>30. Applicants represent that under the terms and Conditions of the application, all Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds participating in a Co-Investment Transaction will invest at the same time, for the same price and with the same terms, conditions, class, registration rights and any other rights, so that none of them receives terms more favorable than any other. However, the settlement date for an Affiliated Fund in a Co-Investment Transaction may occur up to ten business days after the settlement date for the Regulated Fund, and vice versa. Nevertheless, in all cases, (i) the date on which the commitment of the Affiliated Funds and Regulated Funds is made will be the same even where the settlement date is not and (ii) the earliest settlement date and the latest settlement date of any Affiliated Fund or Regulated Fund participating in the transaction will occur within ten business days of each other.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Holders</HD>
                <P>31. Under Condition 15, if an Adviser, its principals, or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Adviser or its principals, and the Affiliated Funds (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting shares of a Regulated Fund (the “Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on matters specified in the Condition. Applicants believe that this Condition will ensure that the Independent Directors will act independently in evaluating Co-Investment Transactions, because the ability of the Adviser or its principals to influence the Independent Directors by a suggestion, explicit or implied, that the Independent Directors can be removed will be limited significantly. The Independent Directors shall evaluate and approve any independent party, taking into account its qualifications, reputation for independence, cost to the shareholders, and other factors that they deem relevant.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicants' Legal Analysis</HD>
                <P>1. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit participation by a registered investment company and an affiliated person in any “joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan,” as defined in the rule, without prior approval by the Commission by order upon application. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act are applicable to Regulated Funds that are registered closed-end investment companies.</P>
                <P>
                    2. Similarly, with regard to BDCs, section 57(a)(4) of the Act generally prohibits certain persons specified in section 57(b) from participating in joint transactions with the BDC or a company controlled by the BDC in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24558"/>
                    be deemed to apply to transactions subject to section 57(a)(4). Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 also applies to joint transactions with Regulated Funds that are BDCs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. Co-Investment Transactions are prohibited by either or both of rule 17d-1 and section 57(a)(4) without a prior exemptive order of the Commission to the extent that the Affiliated Funds and the Regulated Funds participating in such transactions fall within the category of persons described by rule 17d-1 and/or section 57(b), as modified by rule 57b-1 thereunder, as applicable, vis-à-vis each participating Regulated Fund. Each of the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds may be deemed to be affiliated persons vis-à-vis a Regulated Fund within the meaning of section 2(a)(3) by reason of common control because (i) BlackRock Capital Advisor or an Adviser controlled by BlackRock Capital Advisor manages each of the Existing Affiliated Funds and may be deemed to control the Existing Affiliated Funds, and an Adviser will advise or sub-advise and will control any future Affiliated Fund, (ii) BlackRock Capital Advisor or an Adviser controlled by BlackRock Capital Advisor serves or will serve an investment adviser or sub-adviser to each of the Regulated Funds, including BCIC, TCPC and BCSF and may be deemed to control the Regulated Funds, and (iii) each BDC Downstream Fund 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     will be, deemed to be controlled by an Adviser, its parent BDC or certain of its parent BDC's subsidiaries. Thus, each of the Affiliated Funds could be deemed to be a person related to the BDC Regulated Funds or the BDC Downstream Funds in a manner described by section 57(b) and related to other Regulated Funds in a manner described by rule 17d-1; and therefore the prohibitions of rule 17d-1 and section 57(a)(4) would apply respectively to prohibit the Affiliated Funds from participating in Co-Investment Transactions with the Regulated Funds. Each Regulated Fund would also be related to each other Regulated Fund in a manner described by 57(b) or rule 17d-1, as applicable, and thus prohibited from participating in Co-Investment Transactions with each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         “BDC Downstream Fund” means, with respect to any Regulated Fund that is a BDC, an entity (i) that the BDC directly or indirectly controls, (ii) that is not controlled by any person other than the BDC (except a person that indirectly controls the entity solely because it controls the BDC), (iii) that would be an investment company but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Act, (iv) whose investment adviser or sub-adviser is an Adviser, (v) that is not a Wholly-Owned Investment Sub and (vi) that intends to participate in the Co-Investment Program.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>4. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.</P>
                <P>5. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, in many circumstances the Regulated Funds would be limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants state that, as required by rule 17d-1(b), the Conditions ensure that the terms on which Co-Investment Transactions may be made will be consistent with the participation of the Regulated Funds being on a basis that it is neither different from nor less advantageous than other participants, thus protecting the equity holders of any participant from being disadvantaged. Applicants further state that the Conditions ensure that all Co-Investment Transactions are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Funds and their shareholders and do not involve overreaching by any person concerned, including the Advisers. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions in accordance with the Conditions will be consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and would be done in a manner that is not different from, or less advantageous than, that of other participants.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Applicants' Conditions</HD>
                <P>Applicants agree that the Order will be subject to the following Conditions:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Identification and Referral of Potential Co-Investment Transactions.</E>
                </P>
                <P>(a) The Advisers will establish, maintain and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that each Adviser is promptly notified of all Potential Co-Investment Transactions that fall within the then-current Objectives and Strategies and Board-Established Criteria of any Regulated Fund the Adviser manages.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) When an Adviser to a Regulated Fund is notified of a Potential Co-Investment Transaction under Condition 1(a), the Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for the Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         BAL and any investment adviser to a Sub-Advised Fund will not be the source of any Potential Co-Investment Transactions under the Order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>2. Board Approvals of Co-Investment Transactions.</P>
                <P>(a) If the Adviser deems a Regulated Fund's participation in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine an appropriate level of investment for the Regulated Fund.</P>
                <P>(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by the Advisers to be invested in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction by the participating Regulated Funds and any participating Affiliated Funds, collectively, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on the size of the Internal Orders, as described in section III.A.1.b. of the application. Each Adviser to a participating Regulated Fund will promptly notify and provide the Eligible Directors with information concerning the Affiliated Funds' and Regulated Funds' order sizes to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the applicable Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with these Conditions.</P>
                <P>(c) After making the determinations required in Condition 1(b) above, each Adviser to a participating Regulated Fund will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction (including the amount proposed to be invested by each participating Regulated Fund and each participating Affiliated Fund) to the Eligible Directors of its participating Regulated Fund(s) for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will enter into a Co-Investment Transaction with one or more other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds only if, prior to the Regulated Fund's participation in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, a Required Majority concludes that:</P>
                <P>(i) The terms of the transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its equity holders and do not involve overreaching in respect of the Regulated Fund or its equity holders on the part of any person concerned;</P>
                <P>(ii) the transaction is consistent with:</P>
                <P>(A) The interests of the Regulated Fund's equity holders; and</P>
                <P>(B) the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;</P>
                <P>
                    (iii) the investment by any other Regulated Fund(s) or Affiliated Fund(s) would not disadvantage the Regulated Fund, and participation by the Regulated Fund would not be on a basis different from, or less advantageous than, that of any other Regulated 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24559"/>
                    Fund(s) or Affiliated Fund(s) participating in the transaction; provided that the Required Majority shall not be prohibited from reaching the conclusions required by this Condition 2(c)(iii) if:
                </P>
                <P>(A) The settlement date for another Regulated Fund or an Affiliated Fund in a Co-Investment Transaction is later than the settlement date for the Regulated Fund by no more than ten business days or earlier than the settlement date for the Regulated Fund by no more than ten business days, in either case, so long as: (x) The date on which the commitment of the Affiliated Funds and Regulated Funds is made is the same; and (y) the earliest settlement date and the latest settlement date of any Affiliated Fund or Regulated Fund participating in the transaction will occur within ten business days of each other; or</P>
                <P>(B) any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund itself, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have a board observer or any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company so long as: (x) The Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any; (y) the Adviser agrees to, and does, provide periodic reports to the Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company; and (z) any fees or other compensation that any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund or any affiliated person of any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund receives in connection with the right of one or more Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among any participating Affiliated Funds (who may, in turn, share their portion with their affiliated persons) and any participating Regulated Fund(s) in accordance with the amount of each such party's investment; and</P>
                <P>
                    (iv) the proposed investment by the Regulated Fund will not involve compensation, remuneration or a direct or indirect 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     financial benefit to the Advisers, any other Regulated Fund, the Affiliated Funds or any affiliated person of any of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by Condition 14, (B) to the extent permitted by section 17(e) or 57(k), as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in Condition 2(c)(iii)(B)(z).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         For example, procuring the Regulated Fund's investment in a Potential Co-Investment Transaction to permit an affiliate to complete or obtain better terms in a separate transaction would constitute an indirect financial benefit.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Right to Decline.</E>
                     Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">General Limitation.</E>
                     Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with Conditions 8 and 9 below,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a Regulated Fund will not invest in reliance on the Order in any issuer in which a Related Party has an investment.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         This exception applies only to Follow-On Investments by a Regulated Fund in issuers in which that Regulated Fund already holds investments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         “Related Party” means (i) any Close Affiliate and (ii) in respect of matters as to which any Adviser has knowledge, any Remote Affiliate.
                    </P>
                    <P> “Close Affiliate” means the Advisers, the other Regulated Funds, the Affiliated Funds and any other person described in section 57(b) (after giving effect to rule 57b-1) in respect of any Regulated Fund (treating any registered investment company or series thereof as a BDC for this purpose) except for limited partners included solely by reason of the reference in section 57(b) to section 2(a)(3)(D).</P>
                    <P>“Remote Affiliate” means any person described in section 57(e) in respect of any Regulated Fund (treating any registered investment company or series thereof as a BDC for this purpose) and any limited partner holding 5% or more of the relevant limited partner interests that would be a Close Affiliate but for the exclusion in that definition.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Same Terms and Conditions.</E>
                     A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless (i) the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, date on which the commitment is entered into and registration rights (if any) will be the same for each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund and (ii) the earliest settlement date and the latest settlement date of any participating Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund will occur as close in time as practicable and in no event more than ten business days apart. The grant to one or more Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds, but not the respective Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this Condition 5, if Condition 2(c)(iii)(B) is met.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Standard Review Dispositions.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                     If any Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security and one or more Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds have previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer, then:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The Adviser to such Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund will notify each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer of the proposed Disposition at the earliest practical time; and</P>
                <P>(ii) the Adviser to each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer will formulate a recommendation as to participation by such Regulated Fund in the Disposition.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Same Terms and Conditions.</E>
                     Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such Disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the Affiliated Funds and any other Regulated Fund.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">No Board Approval Required.</E>
                     A Regulated Fund may participate in such a Disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (i) (A) the participation of each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund in such Disposition is proportionate to its then-current holding of the security (or securities) of the issuer that is (or are) the subject of the Disposition; 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (B) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in such Dispositions on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); and (C) the Board of the Regulated Fund is provided on a quarterly basis with a list of all Dispositions made in accordance with this Condition; or
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         In the case of any Disposition, proportionality will be measured by each participating Regulated Fund's and Affiliated Fund's outstanding investment in the security in question immediately preceding the Disposition.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(ii) each security is a Tradable Security and (A) the Disposition is not to the issuer or any affiliated person of the issuer; and (B) the security is sold for cash in a transaction in which the only term negotiated by or on behalf of the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds is price.</P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Standard Board Approval.</E>
                     In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24560"/>
                    Eligible Directors and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Enhanced Review Dispositions.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                     If any Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of a Pre-Boarding Investment in a Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds have not previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The Adviser to such Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund will notify each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer of the proposed Disposition at the earliest practical time;</P>
                <P>(ii) the Adviser to each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer will formulate a recommendation as to participation by such Regulated Fund in the Disposition; and</P>
                <P>(iii) the Advisers will provide to the Board of each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer all information relating to the existing investments in the issuer of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, including the terms of such investments and how they were made, that is necessary for the Required Majority to make the findings required by this Condition.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Enhanced Board Approval.</E>
                     The Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The Disposition complies with Condition 2(c)(i), (ii), (iii)(A), and (iv).</P>
                <P>(ii) the making and holding of the Pre-Boarding Investments were not prohibited by section 57 or rule 17d-1, as applicable, and records the basis for the finding in the Board minutes.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Additional Requirements.</E>
                     The Disposition may only be completed in reliance on the Order if:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (i) 
                    <E T="03">Same Terms and Conditions.</E>
                     Each Regulated Fund has the right to participate in such Disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and Conditions as those applicable to the Affiliated Funds and any other Regulated Fund;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (ii) 
                    <E T="03">Original Investments.</E>
                     All of the Affiliated Funds' and Regulated Funds' investments in the issuer are Pre-Boarding Investments;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (iii) 
                    <E T="03">Advice of counsel.</E>
                     Independent counsel to the Board advises that the making and holding of the investments in the Pre-Boarding Investments were not prohibited by section 57 (as modified by rule 57b-1) or rule 17d-1, as applicable;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (iv) 
                    <E T="03">Multiple Classes of Securities.</E>
                     All Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds that hold Pre-Boarding Investments in the issuer immediately before the time of completion of the Co-Investment Transaction hold the same security or securities of the issuer. For the purpose of determining whether the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds hold the same security or securities, they may disregard any security held by some but not all of them if, prior to relying on the Order, the Required Majority is presented with all information necessary to make a finding, and finds, that: (x) Any Regulated Fund's or Affiliated Fund's holding of a different class of securities (including for this purpose a security with a different maturity date) is immaterial 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in amount, including immaterial relative to the size of the issuer; and (y) the Board records the basis for any such finding in its minutes. In addition, securities that differ only in respect of issuance date, currency, or denominations may be treated as the same security; and
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         In determining whether a holding is “immaterial” for purposes of the Order, the Required Majority will consider whether the nature and extent of the interest in the transaction or arrangement is sufficiently small that a reasonable person would not believe that the interest affected the determination of whether to enter into the transaction or arrangement or the terms of the transaction or arrangement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    (v) 
                    <E T="03">No control.</E>
                     The Affiliated Funds, the other Regulated Funds and their affiliated persons (within the meaning of section 2(a)(3)(C) of the Act), individually or in the aggregate, do not control the issuer of the securities (within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act).
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Standard Review Follow-Ons.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                     If any Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in an issuer and the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds holding investments in the issuer previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The Adviser to each such Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund will notify each Regulated Fund that holds securities of the portfolio company of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and</P>
                <P>(ii) the Adviser to each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer will formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed investment, by such Regulated Fund.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">No Board Approval Required.</E>
                     A Regulated Fund may participate in the Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (i) (A) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer or the security at issue, as appropriate,
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and 
                </P>
                <P>(B) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); or</P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         To the extent that a Follow-On Investment opportunity is in a security or arises in respect of a security held by the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, proportionality will be measured by each participating Regulated Fund's and Affiliated Fund's outstanding investment in the security in question immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment using the most recent available valuation thereof. To the extent that a Follow-On Investment opportunity relates to an opportunity to invest in a security that is not in respect of any security held by any of the participating Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds, proportionality will be measured by each participating Regulated Fund's and Affiliated Fund's outstanding investment in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment using the most recent available valuation thereof.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(ii) it is a Non-Negotiated Follow-On Investment.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Standard Board Approval.</E>
                     In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority makes the determinations set forth in Condition 2(c). If the only previous Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer was an Enhanced Review Disposition the Eligible Directors must complete this review of the proposed Follow-On Investment both on a stand-alone basis and together with the Pre-Boarding Investments in relation to the total economic exposure and other terms of the investment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Allocation.</E>
                     If, with respect to any such Follow-On Investment:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The amount of the opportunity proposed to be made available to any Regulated Fund is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments in the issuer or the security at issue, as appropriate, immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and</P>
                <P>
                    (ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the Advisers to be invested in the Follow-On Investment by the participating Regulated Funds 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24561"/>
                    and any participating Affiliated Funds, collectively, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, then the Follow-On Investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on the size of the Internal Orders, as described in section III.A.1.b. of the application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">Other Conditions.</E>
                     The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this Condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other Conditions set forth in the application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Enhanced Review Follow-Ons.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                     If any Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in an issuer that is a Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds holding investments in the issuer have not previously participated in a Co-Investment Transaction with respect to the issuer:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The Adviser to each such Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund will notify each Regulated Fund that holds securities of the portfolio company of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time;</P>
                <P>(ii) the Adviser to each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer will formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed investment, by such Regulated Fund; and</P>
                <P>(iii) the Advisers will provide to the Board of each Regulated Fund that holds an investment in the issuer all information relating to the existing investments in the issuer of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, including the terms of such investments and how they were made, that is necessary for the Required Majority to make the findings required by this Condition.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Enhanced Board Approval.</E>
                     The Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority reviews the proposed Follow-On Investment both on a stand-alone basis and together with the Pre-Boarding Investments in relation to the total economic exposure and other terms and makes the determinations set forth in Condition 2(c). In addition, the Follow-On Investment may only be completed in reliance on the Order if the Required Majority of each participating Regulated Fund determines that the making and holding of the Pre-Boarding Investments were not prohibited by section 57 (as modified by rule 57b-1) or rule 17d-1, as applicable. The basis for the Board's findings will be recorded in its minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Additional Requirements.</E>
                     The Follow-On Investment may only be completed in reliance on the Order if:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (i) 
                    <E T="03">Original Investments.</E>
                     All of the Affiliated Funds' and Regulated Funds' investments in the issuer are Pre-Boarding Investments;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (ii) 
                    <E T="03">Advice of counsel.</E>
                     Independent counsel to the Board advises that the making and holding of the investments in the Pre-Boarding Investments were not prohibited by section 57 (as modified by rule 57b-1) or rule 17d-1, as applicable;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (iii) 
                    <E T="03">Multiple Classes of Securities.</E>
                     All Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds that hold Pre-Boarding Investments in the issuer immediately before the time of completion of the Co-Investment Transaction hold the same security or securities of the issuer. For the purpose of determining whether the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds hold the same security or securities, they may disregard any security held by some but not all of them if, prior to relying on the Order, the Required Majority is presented with all information necessary to make a finding, and finds, that: (x) Any Regulated Fund's or Affiliated Fund's holding of a different class of securities (including for this purpose a security with a different maturity date) is immaterial in amount, including immaterial relative to the size of the issuer; and (y) the Board records the basis for any such finding in its minutes. In addition, securities that differ only in respect of issuance date, currency, or denominations may be treated as the same security; and
                </P>
                <P>
                    (iv) 
                    <E T="03">No control.</E>
                     The Affiliated Funds, the other Regulated Funds and their affiliated persons (within the meaning of section 2(a)(3)(C) of the Act), individually or in the aggregate, do not control the issuer of the securities (within the meaning of section 2(a)(9) of the Act).
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Allocation.</E>
                     If, with respect to any such Follow-On Investment:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The amount of the opportunity proposed to be made available to any Regulated Fund is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments in the issuer or the security at issue, as appropriate, immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and</P>
                <P>(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the Advisers to be invested in the Follow-On Investment by the participating Regulated Funds and any participating Affiliated Funds, collectively, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, then the Follow-On Investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on the size of the Internal Orders, as described in section III.A.1.b. of the application.</P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">Other Conditions.</E>
                     The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this Condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other Conditions set forth in the application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Board Reporting, Compliance and Annual Re-Approval.</E>
                </P>
                <P>(a) Each Adviser to a Regulated Fund will present to the Board of each Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, and at such other times as the Board may request, (i) a record of all investments in Potential Co-Investment Transactions made by any of the other Regulated Funds or any of the Affiliated Funds during the preceding quarter that fell within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies and Board-Established Criteria that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why such investment opportunities were not made available to the Regulated Fund; (ii) a record of all Follow-On Investments in and Dispositions of investments in any issuer in which the Regulated Fund holds any investments by any Affiliated Fund or other Regulated Fund during the prior quarter; and (iii) all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Independent Directors, may determine whether all Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions during the preceding quarter, including those investments that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the Conditions.</P>
                <P>(b) All information presented to the Regulated Fund's Board pursuant to this Condition will be kept for the life of the Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) Each Regulated Fund's chief compliance officer, as defined in rule 38a-1(a)(4), will prepare an annual report for its Board each year that evaluates (and documents the basis of that evaluation) the Regulated Fund's compliance with the terms and Conditions of the application and the procedures established to achieve such compliance. In the case of a BDC Downstream Fund that does not have a chief compliance officer, the chief 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24562"/>
                    compliance officer of the BDC that controls the BDC Downstream Fund will prepare the report for the relevant Independent Party.
                </P>
                <P>(d) The Eligible Directors will consider at least annually: (i) The continued appropriateness for the Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions; and (ii) the continued appropriateness of any Board-Established Criteria.</P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Record Keeping.</E>
                     Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these Conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f).
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Director Independence.</E>
                     No Independent Director (including the non-interested members of any Independent Party) of a Regulated Fund will also be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise be an “affiliated person” (as defined in the Act) of any Affiliated Fund.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Expenses.</E>
                     The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the Advisers under their respective advisory agreements with the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds, be shared by the Regulated Funds and the participating Affiliated Funds in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or being acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Transaction Fees.</E>
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any transaction fee (including break-up, structuring, monitoring or commitment fees but excluding brokerage or underwriting compensation permitted by section 17(e) or 57(k)) received in connection with any Co-Investment Transaction will be distributed to the participants on a pro rata basis based on the amounts they invested or committed, as the case may be, in such Co-Investment Transaction. If any transaction fee is to be held by an Adviser pending consummation of the transaction, the fee will be deposited into an account maintained by the Adviser at a bank or banks having the qualifications prescribed in section 26(a)(1), and the account will earn a competitive rate of interest that will also be divided pro rata among the participants. None of the Advisers, the Affiliated Funds, the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of the Affiliated Funds or the Regulated Funds will receive any additional compensation or remuneration of any kind as a result of or in connection with a Co-Investment Transaction other than (i) in the case of the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds, the pro rata transaction fees described above and fees or other compensation described in Condition 2(c)(iii)(B)(z), (ii) brokerage or underwriting compensation permitted by section 17(e) or 57(k) or (iii) in the case of the Advisers, investment advisory compensation paid in accordance with investment advisory agreements between the applicable Regulated Fund(s) or Affiliated Fund(s) and its Adviser.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Applicants are not requesting and the Commission is not providing any relief for transaction fees received in connection with any Co-Investment Transaction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Independence.</E>
                     If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any other matter under either the Act or applicable State law affecting the Board's composition, size or manner of election.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.</P>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10975 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[SEC File No. 270-42, OMB Control No. 3235-0047]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Extension:</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Rule 204-3</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) is soliciting comments on the collection of information summarized below. The Commission plans to submit this existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget for extension and approval.
                </P>
                <P>The title for the collection of information is “Rule 204-3 (17 CFR 275.204-3) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.” (15 U.S.C. 80b). Rule 204-3, the “brochure rule,” requires advisers to deliver their brochures and brochure supplements at the start of an advisory relationship and to deliver annually thereafter the full updated brochure or a summary of material changes to their brochure. The rule also requires that advisers deliver an amended brochure or brochure supplement (or just a statement describing the amendment) to clients only when disciplinary information in the brochure or supplement becomes materially inaccurate. The brochure assists the client in determining whether to retain, or continue employing, the adviser. The information that Rule 204-3 requires to be contained in the brochure is also used by the Commission and staff in its enforcement, regulatory, and examination programs. This collection of information is found at 17 CFR 275.204-3 and is mandatory.</P>
                <P>The respondents to this information collection are investment advisers registered with the Commission. Our latest data indicate that there were 13,173 advisers registered with the Commission as of March 31, 2019. The Commission has estimated that compliance with rule 204-3 imposes a burden of approximately 3.7 hours annually based on advisers having a median of 78 clients each. Based on this figure, the Commission estimates a total annual burden of 49,090 hours for this collection of information.</P>
                <P>Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.</P>
                <P>
                    Please direct your written comments to Charles Riddle, Acting Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Candace Kenner, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to: 
                    <E T="03">PRA_Mailbox@sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24563"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10981 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85906; File No. S7-05-18]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice Establishing the Commencement and Termination Dates of the Pre-Pilot Period of the Transaction Fee Pilot for National Market System Stocks</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    The Securities and Exchange Commission is hereby designating, pursuant to Rule 610T(c)(2) of Regulation NMS, the commencement and termination dates of the pre-Pilot period of the Transaction Fee Pilot for National Market System stocks (“Pilot”).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.610T(c)(2). On December 19, 2018, the Commission adopted Rule 610T of Regulation NMS to conduct the Pilot. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 84875 (December 19, 2018), 84 FR 5202 (February 20, 2019). On February 15, 2019, the New York Stock Exchange LLC, the NASDAQ Stock Market, LLC, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc., and other affiliated entities (collectively, the “petitioners”) filed petitions in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (“Court of Appeals”) to review the validity of Rule 610T. Petitioners also filed with the Commission motions to stay implementation of Rule 610T pending resolution of their petitions for review. On March 28, 2019, the Commission issued an order granting, in part, petitioners' motions for a stay of Rule 610T pending a decision by the Court of Appeals and further order of the Commission. That order stayed the Pilot and post-Pilot periods identified in Rule 610T(c)(1)(ii) and (iii) in their entirety, stayed the pre-Pilot period's data-reporting and public disclosure requirements, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Rule 610T(d), but provided that the remainder of Rule 610T—including the pre-Pilot period identified in Rule 610T(c)(i)(1)—otherwise would become effective in the ordinary course and on further notice by the Commission. 
                        <E T="03">See In the Matter of Rule 610T of Regulation NMS,</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">Order Issuing Stay,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85447 (March 28, 2019) (“Partial Stay Order”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Rule 610T(c)(1) provides that the Pilot shall include, among other things, a six month pre-Pilot period.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 610T(c)(2) further provides that the Commission shall designate by notice the commencement and termination dates of, among other things, the pre-Pilot period.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.610T(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.610T(c)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Accordingly, the Commission is issuing this notice to designate:</P>
                <P>1. July 1, 2019 as the pre-Pilot period's commencement date, and</P>
                <P>2. December 31, 2019 as the pre-Pilot period's termination date.</P>
                <P>
                    During the pre-Pilot period, national securities exchanges subject to Rule 610T are required to comply with the data compilation requirements of Rule 610T(d) and (e).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, pursuant to the Commission's Partial Stay Order of March 28, 2019, pending a decision by the Court of Appeals regarding the petitions to review Rule 610T's validity and further order of the Commission, these exchanges will not be required to transmit order routing data to the Commission, or to publicly post Exchange Transaction Fee Summaries.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Partial Stay Order, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 1, at 2.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Partial Stay Order at 2; Rule 610T(d), (e). As noted in the Partial Stay Order, however, exchanges subject to Rule 610T may transmit pre-Pilot data to Commission staff on a voluntary basis for quality control purposes during the pendency of the stay. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Partial Stay Order at 1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Following a decision by the Court of Appeals regarding the petitions for review, the Commission may issue further notices in accordance with Rule 610T(b)(1) and (c)(2).
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.610T(b)(1) (concerning the Initial List of Pilot Securities) and (c)(2) (concerning the commencement and termination dates of the Pilot and post-Pilot periods), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(84).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Jill M. Peterson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10997 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85899; File No. SR-NYSEArca-2019-36]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To List and Trade Shares of JPMorgan Income Builder Blend ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that, on May 10, 2019, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares of the following under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (“Managed Fund Shares”): JPMorgan Income Builder Blend ETF. The proposed change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to list and trade shares (“Shares”) of the following under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     on the Exchange: JPMorgan Income Builder Blend ETF (the “Fund”).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A Managed Fund Share is a security that represents an interest in an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) (“1940 Act”) organized as an open-end investment company or similar entity that invests in a portfolio of securities selected by its investment adviser consistent with its investment objectives and policies. In contrast, an open-end investment company that issues Investment Company Units, listed and traded on the Exchange under NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3), seeks to provide investment results that correspond generally to the price and yield performance of a specific foreign or domestic stock index, fixed income securities index or combination thereof.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Trust is registered under the 1940 Act. On July 31, 2018, the Trust filed with the Commission an amendment to its registration statement on Form N-1A under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a) (“Securities Act”) and the 1940 Act relating to the Fund (File Nos. 333-191837 and 811-22903) (the “Registration Statement”). The description of the operation of the Trust and the Fund herein is based, in part, on the Registration Statement. The Trust will file an amendment to the Registration Statement as necessary to conform to representations in this filing. In addition, the Commission has issued an order granting certain exemptive relief to the Trust under the 1940 Act. 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Investment Company Act Release No. 31990 (February 9, 2016) (“Exemptive Order”). Investments made by the Fund will comply with the conditions set forth in the Exemptive Order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24564"/>
                <P>The Fund is a series of J.P. Morgan Exchange-Traded Fund Trust (“Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust. J.P. Morgan Investment Management Inc. (“Adviser” or “Administrator”) will be the investment adviser to the Fund and also provide administrative services for and oversee the other service providers for the Fund. The Adviser is a wholly-owned subsidiary of JPMorgan Asset Management Holdings Inc., which is an indirect, wholly-owned subsidiary of JPMorgan Chase &amp; Co. (“JPMorgan Chase”), a bank holding company. JPMorgan Distribution Services, Inc. (“Distributor”) will be the distributor of the Fund's Shares.</P>
                <P>
                    Commentary .06 to Rule 8.600-E provides that, if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect and maintain a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, Commentary .06 further requires that personnel who make decisions on the open-end fund's portfolio composition must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material nonpublic information regarding the open-end fund's portfolio. The Adviser is not registered as a broker-dealer but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio. In the event (a) the Adviser becomes registered as a broker-dealer or newly affiliated with one or more broker-dealers, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer or becomes affiliated with a broker-dealer, it will implement and maintain a fire wall with respect to its relevant personnel or its broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio, and will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         An investment adviser to an open-end fund is required to be registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). As a result, the Adviser and its related personnel are subject to the provisions of Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act relating to codes of ethics. This Rule requires investment advisers to adopt a code of ethics that reflects the fiduciary nature of the relationship to clients as well as compliance with other applicable securities laws. Accordingly, procedures designed to prevent the communication and misuse of non-public information by an investment adviser must be consistent with Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act. In addition, Rule 206(4)-7 under the Advisers Act makes it unlawful for an investment adviser to provide investment advice to clients unless such investment adviser has (i) adopted and implemented written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violation, by the investment adviser and its supervised persons, of the Advisers Act and the Commission rules adopted thereunder; (ii) implemented, at a minimum, an annual review regarding the adequacy of the policies and procedures established pursuant to subparagraph (i) above and the effectiveness of their implementation; and (iii) designated an individual (who is a supervised person) responsible for administering the policies and procedures adopted under subparagraph (i) above.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">JPMorgan Income Builder Blend ETF</HD>
                <P>According to the Registration Statement, the Fund seeks to maximize income on a risk-adjusted basis as the primary objective, while maintaining prospects for capital appreciation as a secondary objective. The Adviser will buy and sell securities and other investments for the Fund based on the Adviser's view of strategies, sectors, and overall portfolio construction taking into account income generation, risk/return analyses, and relative value considerations.</P>
                <P>
                    Under normal market conditions,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Fund may invest in the fixed income securities, equity securities, derivative instruments and other financial instruments described below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The term “normal market conditions” is defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may invest in the following “Fixed Income Securities”:</P>
                <P>
                    • U.S. Government obligations; 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         U.S. Government obligations may include direct obligations of the U.S. Treasury, including Treasury bills, notes and bonds, all of which are backed as to principal and interest payments by the full faith and credit of the United States, and separately traded principal and interest component parts of such obligations that are transferable through the Federal book-entry system known as Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities (“STRIPS”) and Coupons Under Book Entry Safekeeping (“CUBES”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • U.S. Government Agency Securities; 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         U.S. Government Agency Securities include securities issued or guaranteed by agencies and instrumentalities of the U.S. government. These include all types of securities issued by the Government National Mortgage Association (“Ginnie Mae”), the Federal National Mortgage Association (“Fannie Mae”) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (“Freddie Mac”), including funding notes, subordinated benchmark notes, collateralized mortgage obligations (“CMOs”) and Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduits (“REMICs”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Treasury Receipts;
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Treasury Receipts are interests in separately traded interest and principal component parts of U.S. Treasury obligations that are issued by banks or brokerage firms and that are created by depositing U.S. Treasury notes and U.S. Treasury bonds into a special account at a custodian bank. Receipts include Treasury Receipts (“TRs”), Treasury Investment Growth Receipts (“TIGRs”), and Certificates of Accrual on Treasury Securities (“CATS”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Trust preferred securities;</P>
                <P>
                    • Zero-coupon, pay-in-kind and deferred payment securities;
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Zero-coupon securities are securities that are sold at a discount to par value and on which interest payments are not made during the life of the security. Pay-in-kind securities are securities that have interest payable by delivery of additional securities. Deferred payment securities are zero-coupon debt securities which convert on a specified date to interest bearing debt securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Variable and floating rate instruments;</P>
                <P>• Inverse floating rate securities;</P>
                <P>
                    • Synthetic variable rate instruments;
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Synthetic variable rate instruments are instruments that generally involve the deposit of a long-term tax exempt bond in a custody or trust arrangement and the creation of a mechanism to adjust the long-term interest rate on the bond to a variable short-term rate and a right (subject to certain conditions) on the part of the purchaser to tender it periodically to a third party at par.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Municipal securities;</P>
                <P>• Auction rate municipal securities and auction rate preferred securities;</P>
                <P>• Brady bonds;</P>
                <P>
                    • Agency and non-agency asset-backed securities (“ABS”);
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         ABS may include collateralized bond obligations (“CBOs”), collateralized loan obligations (“CLOs”), and other collateralized debt obligations (“CDOs”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Agency and non-agency mortgage-backed securities (“MBS”);
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         MBS may include agency and non-agency collateralized mortgage obligations (“CMOs”); collateralized mortgage-backed securities (“CMBS”); residential mortgage-backed securities (“RMBS”) and principal-only (PO) and interest-only (IO) stripped MBS. Non-agency ABS and non-agency MBS are referred to herein as “Private ABS/MBS.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Stripped MBS;
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Stripped MBS are derivative multi-class mortgage securities which are usually structured with two classes of shares that receive different proportions of the interest and principal from a pool of mortgage assets. These include IO and PO securities issued outside a Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduit (“REMIC”) or CMO structure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Custodial receipts;
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The Fund may acquire securities in the form of custodial receipts that evidence ownership of future interest payments, principal payments or both on certain U.S. Treasury notes or bonds in connection with programs sponsored by banks and brokerage firms.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Inflation-linked securities, including Treasury Inflation Protected Securities (“TIPS”);</P>
                <P>• Loan assignments and participations, and commitments to purchase loan assignments;</P>
                <P>• Adjustable rate mortgage loans (“ARMs”);</P>
                <P>
                    • Mortgages (directly held);
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Directly held mortgages are debt instruments secured by real property.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Sovereign obligations and obligations of supranational agencies;
                    <PRTPAGE P="24565"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Corporate debt securities of U.S. and foreign issuers; and</P>
                <P>• Convertible securities.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold cash and cash equivalents.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, cash equivalents include the securities included in Commentary .01(c) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may purchase and sell securities on a when-issued, delayed delivery, or forward commitment basis.</P>
                <P>The Fund may enter into short-term funding agreements, which are agreements issued by banks and highly rated U.S. insurance companies such as Guaranteed Investment Contracts (“GICs”) and Bank Investment Contracts (“BICs”).</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in private placements, restricted securities and Rule 144A securities.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in the following exchange-listed equity securities: U.S. and foreign exchange-listed common stocks of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed preferred stocks of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed warrants of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed rights of U.S. and foreign corporations, U.S. and foreign exchange-listed master limited partnerships (“MLPs”), U.S. and foreign exchange-listed real estate investment trusts (“REITs”), U.S. and foreign exchange-listed convertible securities.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may invest in U.S. and foreign exchange-listed and non-exchange-traded Depositary Receipts.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Depositary Receipts include American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”), Global Depositary Receipts (“GDRs”) and European Depositary Receipts (“EDRs”). ADRs are receipts typically issued by an American bank or trust company that evidence ownership of underlying securities issued by a foreign corporation. EDRs are receipts issued by a European bank or trust company evidencing ownership of securities issued by a foreign corporation. GDRs are receipts issued throughout the world that evidence a similar arrangement. ADRs, EDRs and GDRs may trade in foreign currencies that differ from the currency the underlying security for each ADR, EDR or GDR principally trades in. Generally, ADRs, in registered form, are designed for use in the U.S. securities markets. EDRs, in registered form, are used to access European markets. GDRs, in registered form, are tradable both in the United States and in Europe and are designed for use throughout the world. No more than 10% of the equity weight of the Fund's portfolio will be invested in non-exchange-traded ADRs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”),
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and U.S. exchange-traded closed-end funds.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, “ETFs” are Investment Company Units (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)); Portfolio Depositary Receipts (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.100-E); and Managed Fund Shares (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E). All ETFs will be listed and traded in the U.S. on a national securities exchange. While the Fund may invest in inverse ETFs, the Fund will not invest in leveraged (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         2X, -2X, 3X or -3X) ETFs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may invest in securities of non-exchange-traded investment company securities, subject to applicable limitations under Section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold structured investments.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         A structured investment is a security having a return tied to an underlying index or other security or asset class. Structured investments generally are individually negotiated agreements and may be traded OTC. Structured investments are organized and operated to restructure the investment characteristics of the underlying index, currency, commodity or financial instrument. Structured investments that are equities may include OTC rights, OTC warrants and OTC equity-linked notes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may hold the following U.S. and non-U.S. exchange-listed and over-the-counter (“OTC”) derivative instruments: OTC foreign currency forwards; U.S. and non-U.S. exchange-listed futures and options on stocks, Fixed Income Securities, interest rates, credit, currencies, commodities or related indices; and OTC options on stocks, Fixed Income Securities, interest rates, credit, currencies, commodities or related indices.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in exchange-traded or OTC total return swaps on U.S. and foreign equities, U.S. and foreign equity indices, currencies, interest rates, inflation, commodities, Fixed Income Securities and Fixed Income Securities indexes.</P>
                <P>The Fund may engage in foreign currency transactions which involve strategies used to hedge against currency risks, for other risk management purposes or to increase income or gain to the Fund. These strategies may consist of use of any of the following: options on currencies, currency futures, options on such futures, forward foreign currency transactions (including non-deliverable forwards (“NDFs”)), forward rate agreements, spot currency transactions, and currency swaps, caps and floors.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in mortgage dollar rolls.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold exchange-traded or non-exchange-traded contingent value rights (“CVRs”).
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, CVRs are rights provided to shareholders of a company in connection with a corporate restructuring or acquisition. These rights relate to additional benefits to shareholders if a certain event occurs. CVRs frequently have an expiration date relating to the times that contingent events must occur. CVRs related to a company's stock are generally related to the price performance of such stock. The Adviser represents that the Fund will not actively invest in such securities but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in non-exchange-traded CVRs, if any, would not be utilized to further the Fund's investment objective and would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may engage in short sales of any financial instruments in which it may invest.</P>
                <P>The Fund will not invest in securities or other financial instruments that have not been described in this proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Other Restrictions</HD>
                <P>The Fund may invest up to 20% of the Fund's assets in non-exchange-traded investment company securities.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest up to 15% of the Fund's assets in the aggregate in OTC equity-linked notes, OTC rights, OTC warrants and OTC CVRs.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     2Xs and 3Xs) of the Fund's primary broad-based securities benchmark index (as defined in Form N-1A).
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         The Fund's broad-based securities benchmark index will be identified in a future amendment to the Registration Statement following the Fund's first full calendar year of performance.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Fund's Use of Derivatives</HD>
                <P>Investments in derivative instruments will be made in accordance with the Fund's investment objective and policies.</P>
                <P>To limit the potential risk associated with such transactions, the Fund will enter into offsetting transactions or segregate or “earmark” assets determined to be liquid by the Adviser in accordance with procedures established by the Trust's Board of Trustees (the “Board”). In addition, the Fund has included appropriate risk disclosure in its offering documents, including leveraging risk. Leveraging risk is the risk that certain transactions of the Fund, including the Fund's use of derivatives, may give rise to leverage, causing the Fund to be more volatile than if it had not been leveraged.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Creation and Redemption of Shares</HD>
                <P>
                    The consideration for a purchase of Creation Units will generally be cash, but may consist of an in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of equity securities and other investments (the “Deposit Instruments”) and an amount of cash computed as described below (the “Cash Amount”) under some 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24566"/>
                    circumstances. The Cash Amount together with the Deposit Instruments, as applicable, are referred to as the “Portfolio Deposit,” which represents the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund. The size of a Creation Unit will be 50,000 Shares and will be subject to change.
                </P>
                <P>In the event the Fund requires Deposit Instruments and a Cash Amount in consideration for purchasing a Creation Unit, the function of the Cash Amount is to compensate for any differences between the net asset value (“NAV”) per Creation Unit and the Deposit Amount (as defined below). The Cash Amount would be an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares (per Creation Unit) and the “Deposit Amount,” which is an amount equal to the aggregate market value of the Deposit Instruments. If the Cash Amount is a positive number (the NAV per Creation Unit exceeds the Deposit Amount), the Authorized Participant will deliver the Cash Amount. If the Cash Amount is a negative number (the NAV per Creation Unit is less than the Deposit Amount), the Authorized Participant will receive the Cash Amount. The Administrator, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. Eastern time (“E.T.”)), the list of the names and the required number of shares of each Deposit Instrument to be included in the current Portfolio Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day), as well as information regarding the Cash Amount for the Fund.</P>
                <P>
                    The identity and number of the Deposit Instruments and Cash Amount required for the Portfolio Deposit for the Fund changes as rebalancing adjustments and corporate action events are reflected from time to time by the Adviser with a view to the investment objective of the Fund. In addition, the Trust reserves the right to accept a basket of securities or cash that differs from Deposit Instruments or to permit the substitution of an amount of cash (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a “cash in lieu” amount) to be added to the Cash Amount to replace any Deposit Instrument which may, among other reasons, not be available in sufficient quantity for delivery, not be permitted to be re-registered in the name of the Trust as a result of an in-kind creation order pursuant to local law or market convention or for other reasons as described in the Registration Statement, or which may not be eligible for trading by a Participating Party (defined below).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Procedures for Creation of Creation Units</HD>
                <P>
                    To be eligible to place orders with the Distributor to create Creation Units of the Fund, an entity or person either must be (1) a “Participating Party,” 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a broker-dealer or other participant in the clearing process through the Continuous Net Settlement System of the NSCC; or (2) a Depositary Trust Company (“DTC”) Participant, which, in either case, must have executed an agreement with the Distributor (“Participant Agreement”). Such Participating Party and DTC Participant are collectively referred to as an “Authorized Participant.” All orders to create Creation Units must be received by the Distributor no later than the closing time of the regular trading session on the Exchange (“Closing Time”) (ordinarily 4:00 p.m. E.T.), in each case on the date such order is placed in order for creation of Creation Units to be effected based on the NAV of the Fund as determined on such date.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Redemption of Creation Units</HD>
                <P>Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form by the Distributor, only on a business day and only through a Participating Party or DTC Participant who has executed a Participant Agreement. All orders to redeem Creation Units must be received by the Distributor no later than the Exchange Closing Time (ordinarily 4:00 p.m. E.T.).</P>
                <P>
                    Although the Fund will generally pay redemption proceeds in cash, there may be instances when it will make redemptions in-kind.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In these instances, the Administrator, through NSCC, makes available immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (currently 9:30 a.m. E.T.) on each day that the Exchange is open for business, the identity of the Fund's assets and/or an amount of cash that will be applicable (subject to possible amendment or correction) to redemption requests received in proper form on that day. With respect to redemptions in-kind, the redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit generally consist of “Redemption Instruments” (which are securities received on redemption) as announced by the Administrator on the business day of the request for redemption, plus cash in an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares being redeemed, as next determined after a receipt of a request in proper form, and the value of the Redemption Instruments.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         The Adviser represents that, to the extent the Trust effects the creation or redemption of Shares in cash, such transactions will be effected in the same manner for all Authorized Participants.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Disclosed Portfolio</HD>
                <P>The Fund's disclosure of derivative positions in the applicable Disclosed Portfolio includes information that market participants can use to value these positions intraday. On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose the information regarding the Disclosed Portfolio required under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (c)(2) to the extent applicable. The Fund's website information will be publicly available at no charge.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Impact on Arbitrage Mechanism</HD>
                <P>The Adviser believes there will be minimal impact to the arbitrage mechanism as a result of the use of derivatives. Market makers and participants should be able to value derivatives as long as the positions are disclosed with relevant information. The Adviser believes that the price at which Shares trade will continue to be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities created by the ability to purchase or redeem Shares at their NAV, which should ensure that Shares will not trade at a material discount or premium in relation to their NAV.</P>
                <P>The Adviser does not believe there will be any significant impacts to the settlement or operational aspects of the Fund's arbitrage mechanism due to the use of derivatives. Because derivatives generally are not eligible for in-kind transfer, they will typically be substituted with a “cash in lieu” amount when the Fund processes purchases or redemptions of creation units in-kind.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application of Generic Listing Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange is submitting this proposed rule change because the portfolio for the Fund will not meet all of the “generic” listing requirements of Commentary .01 to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E applicable to the listing of Managed Fund Shares. The Fund's portfolio would meet all such requirements except for those set forth in Commentary .01(a), Commentary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24567"/>
                    .01(b)(4),
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Commentary .01(b)(4) provides that component securities that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio must be either: (a) from issuers that are required to file reports pursuant to Sections 13 and 15(d) of the Act; (b) from issuers that have a worldwide market value of its outstanding common equity held by non-affiliates of $700 million or more; (c) from issuers that have outstanding securities that are notes, bonds debentures, or evidence of indebtedness having a total remaining principal amount of at least $1 billion; (d) exempted securities as defined in Section 3(a)(12) of the Act; or (e) from issuers that are a government of a foreign country or a political subdivision of a foreign country.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Commentary .01(b)(5) provides that non-agency, non-government-sponsored entity (“GSE”) and privately-issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities components of a portfolio shall not account, in the aggregate, for more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the portfolio.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to Commentary .01(a) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, as noted above, the Fund may hold OTC equity-linked notes, rights, warrants and CVRs, which are deemed non-exchange-traded equity securities for purposes of this filing.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because such securities are not listed on a national securities exchange or an exchange that has last-sale reporting, such securities would not meet the criteria of Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and (a)(2)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E applicable to U.S. Component Stocks and Non-U.S. Component Stocks. As noted above, the Fund may invest up to 15% of the Fund's assets in the aggregate in OTC equity-linked notes, rights, warrants and CVRs. The Exchange believes that this limitation is appropriate in that OTC warrants, rights, equity-linked notes and CVRs are providing debt or equity-oriented exposures or are received in connection with the Fund's previous investment in fixed income securities or equities. All of the other equity securities held by the Fund will comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and (a)(2)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. With respect to OTC CVRs, the Adviser represents that the Fund will not actively invest in such securities but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in non-exchange-traded CVRs, if any, would not be utilized to further the Fund's investment objective and would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Commentary .01(a) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides criteria applicable to exchange-traded equity securities held by a series of Managed Fund Shares. Among such criteria, equity securities that are U.S. Component Stocks as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5-2-E(j)(3) shall be listed on a national securities exchange and shall be NMS Stocks as defined in Rule 600 of Regulation NMS under the Act (with a limited exception for certain ADRs). Equity securities that are Non-U.S. Component Stocks as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5-2-E(j)(3) shall be listed and traded on an exchange that has last-sale reporting.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund may invest in non-exchange-traded investment company securities, which are equity securities. Because such securities have a net asset value based on the value of securities and financial assets the investment company holds, the Exchange believes it is both unnecessary and inappropriate to apply to such investment company securities the criteria in Commentary .01(a)(1).
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As noted above, the Fund may invest up to 20% of the Fund's assets in non-exchange-traded investment company securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         The Commission has previously approved proposed rule changes under Section 19(b) of the Act for series of Managed Fund Shares that may invest in non-exchange traded investment company securities. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85244 (March 4, 2019), 84 FR 8553 (March 8, 2019) (SR-NYSEArca-2018-82) (Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, Regarding Certain Changes Relating to Investments of the PGIM Active High Yield Bond ETF).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (D) to Rule 8.600-E exclude application of those provisions to certain “Derivative Securities Products” that are exchange-traded investment company securities, including Investment Company Units (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)), Portfolio Depositary Receipts (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.100-E) and Managed Fund Shares (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E).
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In its 2008 Approval Order approving amendments to Commentary .01(a) to Rule 5.2(j)(3) that exclude Derivative Securities Products from certain provisions of Commentary .01(a) (which exclusions are similar to those in Commentary .01(a)(1) to Rule 8.600-E), the Commission stated that “based on the trading characteristics of Derivative Securities Products, it may be difficult for component Derivative Securities Products to satisfy certain quantitative index criteria, such as the minimum market value and trading volume limitations.” The Exchange notes that it would be difficult or impossible to apply to non-exchange-traded investment company securities the generic quantitative criteria (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     market capitalization, trading volume, or portfolio criteria) in Commentary .01 (a) through (d) applicable to U.S. Component Stocks. For example, the requirement for U.S. Component Stocks in Commentary .01(a)(1)(B) that there be minimum monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months is tailored to exchange-traded securities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     U.S. Component Stocks) and not to mutual fund shares, which do not trade in the secondary market. Moreover, application of such criteria would not serve the purpose served with respect to U.S. Component Stocks, namely, to establish minimum liquidity and diversification criteria for U.S. Component Stocks held by series of Managed Fund Shares.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         The Commission initially approved the Exchange's proposed rule change to exclude “Derivative Securities Products” (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Investment Company Units and securities described in Section 2 of Rule 8) and “Index-Linked Securities (as described in Rule 5.2-E(j)(6)) from Commentary .01(a)(A)(1) through (4) to Rule 5.2-E(j)(3) in Securities Exchange Act Release No. 57751 (May 1, 2008), 73 FR 25818 (May 7, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2008-29) (Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, to Amend the Eligibility Criteria for Components of an Index Underlying Investment Company Units) (“2008 Approval Order”). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 57561 (March 26, 2008), 73 FR 17390 (April 1, 2008) (Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change and Amendment No. 1 Thereto to Amend the Eligibility Criteria for Components of an Index Underlying Investment Company Units). The Commission subsequently approved generic criteria applicable to listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares, including exclusions for Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities in Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (D), in Securities Exchange Act Release No. 78397 (July 22, 2016), 81 FR 49320 (July 27, 2016) (Order Granting Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 7 Thereto, Amending NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 To Adopt Generic Listing Standards for Managed Fund Shares). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Amendment No. 7 to SR-NYSEArca-2015-110, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/sr-nysearca-2015-110/nysearca2015110-9.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved listing and trading of an issue of Managed Fund Shares that may invest in equity securities that are non-exchange-traded securities of other open-end investment company securities notwithstanding that the fund would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E with respect to such fund's investments in such securities.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate to permit the Fund to invest in non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities, as described above.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83319 (May 24, 2018) (SR-NYSEArca-2018-15) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, to Continue Listing and Trading Shares of the PGIM Ultra Short Bond ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirements in Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E that component securities that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio meet one of the criteria specified in Commentary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24568"/>
                    .01(b)(4), because certain Private ABS/MBS by their nature cannot satisfy the criteria in Commentary .01(b)(4).
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Instead, the Exchange proposes that the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities other than Private ABS/MBS will be required to comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(b)(4), and Private ABS/MBS will be limited to 20% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio. The Exchange believes that excluding Private ABS/MBS from the 90% calculation in Commentary .01(b)(4) is consistent with the Act because the Fund's portfolio will minimize the risk to the overall Fund associated with any particular holding of the Fund as a result of the diversification provided by the investments and the Adviser's selection process, which closely monitors investments to ensure maintenance of credit and liquidity standards. Further, the Exchange believes that this alternative limitation is appropriate because Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E is not designed for structured finance vehicles such as Private ABS/MBS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         Private ABS/MBS are generally issued by special purpose vehicles, so the criteria in Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E regarding an issuer's market capitalization and the remaining principal amount of an issuer's securities are typically unavailable with respect to Private ABS/MBS, even though such Private ABS/MBS may own significant assets.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved the listing of Managed Fund Shares with similar investment objectives and strategies without imposing requirements that a certain percentage of such funds' securities meet one of the criteria set forth in Commentary .01(b)(4).
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Exchange Act Release Nos. 67894 (September 20, 2012) 77 FR 59227 (September 26, 2012) (SR-BATS-2012-033) (order approving the listing and trading of shares of the iShares Short Maturity Bond Fund); 70342 (September 6, 2013), 78 FR 56256 (September 12, 2013) (SR-NYSEArca-2013-71) (order approving the listing and trading of shares of the SPDR SSgA Ultra Short Term Bond ETF, SPDR SSgA Conservative Ultra Short Term Bond ETF and SPDR SSgA Aggressive Ultra Short Term Bond ETF). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 84047 (September 6, 2018), 83 FR 46200 (September 12, 2018) (SR-NASDAQ-2017-128) (Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 3 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 3, To List and Trade Shares of the Western Asset Total Return ETF); 85022 (January 31, 2019), 25 FR 2265 (February 6, 2019) (SR-NASDAQ-2018-080) (Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 3 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 2 and 3, To List and Trade Shares of the BrandywineGLOBAL-Global Total Return ETF).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund will not comply with the requirements in Commentary .01(b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E that non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities components of a portfolio shall not account, in the aggregate, for more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the portfolio. The Exchange proposes that Private ABS/MBS will be limited to 20% of the weight of the Fund's entire portfolio rather than to only the fixed income portion of the portfolio.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes this exception from Commentary .01(b)(5) is appropriate because the Fund's investment in non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other ABS may provide the Fund with benefits associated with increased diversification, as such investments may be less correlated to interest rates than other Fixed Income Securities. The Exchange notes that application of the 20% limitation only to the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio may impose a much more restrictive percentage limit on permitted holdings of non-agency ABS and non-agency MBS for the Fund, which has a more diversified investment portfolio compared to series of Managed Fund Shares that hold principally or exclusively fixed income securities. For example, a fund holding 100% of its assets in fixed income securities can hold 20% of its entire portfolio's weight in non-agency ABS. In contrast, a fund holding 25% of its assets in fixed income securities, 25% in U.S. Component Stocks, and 50% in cash and cash equivalents is limited to a 5% (25% * 20% = 5%) allocation to non-agency ABS. The Exchange, therefore, believes application of the 20% limitation to the Fund's entire portfolio would be more equitable for the Fund compared to series of Managed Fund Shares with different investment objectives and holdings.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved the listing of actively managed exchange-traded funds that can invest 20% of their total assets in non-agency, non-GSE and other privately issued ABS and MBS.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Commission has previously approved listing and trading of shares of an issue of Managed Fund Shares where such fund's investments in non-agency, non-GSE and other privately issued ABS and MBS (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Private ABS/MBS) will, in the aggregate, not exceed 20% of the total assets of the fund, rather than the weight of the fixed income portion of the fund's portfolio.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to apply the 20% limitation to the Fund's investment in non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other ABS components of the Fund's portfolio to the Fund's total assets.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 80946 (June 15, 2017) 82 FR 28126 (June 20, 2017) (SR-NASDAQ-2017-039) (permitting the Guggenheim Limited Duration ETF to invest up to 20% of its total assets in privately-issued, non-agency and non-GSE ABS and MBS); 76412 (November 10, 2015), 80 FR 71880 (November 17, 2015) (SR-NYSEArca-2015-111) (permitting the RiverFront Strategic Income Fund to invest up to 20% of its assets in privately-issued, non-agency and non-GSE ABS and MBS); 74814 (April 27, 2015), 80 FR 24986 (May 1, 2015) (SR-NYSEArca-2014-107) (permitting the Guggenheim Enhanced Short Duration ETF to invest up to 20% of its assets in privately-issued, non-agency and non-GSE ABS and MBS); 74109 (January 21, 2015), 80 FR 4327 (January 27, 2015) (SR-NYSEArca-2014-134) (permitting the IQ Wilshire Alternative Strategies ETF to invest up to 20% of its total assets in MBS and other ABS, without any limit on the type of such MBS and ABS).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83319 (May 24, 2018), 83 FR 25097 (May 31, 2018) (SR-NYSEArca-2018-15) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, to Continue Listing and Trading Shares of the PGIM Ultra Short Bond ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Deviations from the generic requirements are necessary for the Fund to achieve its investment objective in a manner that is cost-effective and that maximizes investors' returns. Further, the proposed alternative requirements are narrowly tailored to allow the Fund to achieve its investment objective in manner that is consistent with the principles of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act. As a result, it is in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange pursuant to the requirements set forth herein.</P>
                <P>The Exchange notes that, other than Commentary .01(a), (b)(4) and (b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E, as described above, the Fund's portfolio will meet all other requirements of Rule 8.600-E.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Availability of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund's website (
                    <E T="03">www.jpmorganfunds.com</E>
                    ), which will be publicly available prior to the public offering of Shares, will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded. The Fund's website will include additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis, including, for the Fund, (1) daily trading volume, the prior business day's reported closing price, NAV and mid-point of the bid/ask spread at the time of calculation of such NAV (the “Bid/Ask Price”),
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and a calculation of the premium and discount of the Bid/Ask Price against the NAV, and (2) data in chart format displaying the frequency 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24569"/>
                    distribution of discounts and premiums of the daily Bid/Ask Price against the NAV, within appropriate ranges, for each of the four previous calendar quarters. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Core Trading Session on the Exchange, the Adviser will disclose on the Fund's website the Disclosed Portfolio for the Fund as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(2) that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         The Bid/Ask Price of the Fund's Shares will be determined using the mid-point of the highest bid and the lowest offer on the Exchange as of the time of calculation of the Fund's NAV. The records relating to Bid/Ask Prices will be retained by the Fund and its service providers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Under accounting procedures to be followed by the Fund, trades made on the prior business day (“T”) will be booked and reflected in NAV on the current business day (“T+1”). Accordingly, the Fund will be able to disclose at the beginning of the business day the portfolio that will form the basis for the NAV calculation at the end of the business day.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Trust's SAI and Shareholder Reports are available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Quotation and last sale information for the Shares and for portfolio holdings of the Fund that are U.S. exchange-listed, including common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights, MLPs, REITs, convertible securities, ETFs, closed-end funds, and Depositary Receipts will be available via the CTA high speed line. Price information for U.S. and foreign exchange-traded futures and options on futures will be available from the exchange on which they are listed. Quotation and last sale information for exchange-listed options cleared via the Options Clearing Corporation will be available via the Options Price Reporting Authority. Quotation and last sale information for foreign exchange-listed equity securities will be available from the exchanges on which they trade and from major market data vendors, as applicable. Information regarding market price and trading volume for the Shares will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. Information regarding the previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers.</P>
                <P>Quotation information for OTC options, cash equivalents, swaps, and Fixed Income Securities may be obtained from brokers and dealers who make markets in such securities or through nationally recognized pricing services through subscription agreements. Forwards and spot currency price information will be available from major market data vendors. Price information for OTC equity-linked notes, OTC warrants, non-exchange-traded CVRs, OTC Depositary Receipts, 144A securities, private placement securities and restricted securities is available from major market data vendors.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the PIV, as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The dissemination of the PIV, together with the Disclosed Portfolio, will allow investors to determine the approximate value of the underlying portfolio of the Fund on a daily basis and will provide a close estimate of that value throughout the trading day.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         Currently, it is the Exchange's understanding that several major market data vendors display and/or make widely available PIVs taken from the CTA or other data feeds.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Halts</HD>
                <P>
                    With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares of the Fund inadvisable.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Rules</HD>
                <P>The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the NYSE Arca Marketplace from 4:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. E.T. in accordance with NYSE Arca Rule 7.34-E (Early, Core, and Late Trading Sessions). The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NYSE Arca Rule 7.6-E, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00 for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001.</P>
                <P>
                    Except as described herein, the Shares of the Fund will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     under the Act, as provided by NYSE Arca Rule 5.3-E. A minimum of 100,000 Shares of the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares of the Fund that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         17 CFR 240 10A-3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Surveillance</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange, as well as cross-market surveillances administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange represents that these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         FINRA conducts cross-market surveillances on behalf of the Exchange pursuant to a regulatory services agreement. The Exchange is responsible for FINRA's performance under this regulatory services agreement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24570"/>
                    addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (“TRACE”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         For a list of the current members of ISG, 
                        <E T="03">see www.isgportal.org.</E>
                         The Exchange notes that not all components of the Disclosed Portfolio for the Fund may trade on markets that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.</P>
                <P>All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio holdings or reference asset, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange listing rules specified in this rule filing shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If the Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under NYSE Arca Rule 5.5-E(m).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Information Bulletin</HD>
                <P>Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit (“ETP”) Holders in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares of the Fund. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) NYSE Arca 9.2-E(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its ETP Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (3) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Early and Late Trading Sessions when an updated PIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (4) how information regarding the PIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (5) the requirement that ETP Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.</P>
                <P>In addition, the Bulletin will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Bulletin will discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act. The Bulletin will also disclose that the NAV for the Shares of the Fund will be calculated after 4:00 p.m. E.T. each trading day.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that an exchange have rules that are designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Adviser is not registered as a broker-dealer but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio. The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange, as well as cross-market surveillances administered by FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange represents that these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to FINRA's TRACE.</P>
                <P>The PIV, as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session. The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance.</P>
                <P>Except as described herein, the Shares of the Fund will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act, as provided by NYSE Arca Rule 5.3-E. A minimum of 100,000 Shares of the Fund will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares of the Fund that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information is publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. The Fund's portfolio holdings will be disclosed on its website daily after the close of trading on the Exchange and prior to the opening of trading on the Exchange the following day. On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose the information regarding the Disclosed Portfolio required under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (c)(2) to the extent applicable. The Fund's website information will be publicly available at no charge.</P>
                <P>
                    Investors can also obtain the Trust's SAI, the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Trust's SAI and Shareholder Reports are available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24571"/>
                    Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The website for the Fund will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information. Moreover, prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its ETP Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares of the Fund. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable, and trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the PIV, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares. The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     2Xs and 3Xs) of the Fund's primary broad-based securities benchmark index (as defined in Form N-1A).
                </P>
                <P>With respect to the Fund's investment in Private ABS/MBS, the proposed non-compliance with the requirements in Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E that component securities that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio meet one of the criteria specified in Commentary .01(b)(4) is appropriate because certain Private ABS/MBS by their nature cannot satisfy the criteria in Commentary .01(b)(4). Instead, the Exchange proposes that the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities other than Private ABS/MBS will be required to comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(b)(4), and Private ABS/MBS will be limited to 20% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio. The Exchange believes that excluding Private ABS/MBS from the 90% calculation in Commentary .01(b)(4) is consistent with the Act because the Fund's portfolio will minimize the risk to the overall Fund associated with any particular holding of the Fund as a result of the diversification provided by the investments and the Adviser's selection process, which closely monitors investments to ensure maintenance of credit and liquidity standards. Further, the Exchange believes that this alternative limitation is appropriate because Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E is not designed for structured finance vehicles such as Private ABS/MBS.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved the listing of Managed Fund Shares with similar investment objectives and strategies without imposing requirements that a certain percentage of such funds' securities meet one of the criteria set forth in Commentary .01(b)(4).
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 32, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed exception from Commentary .01(b)(5) is appropriate because the Fund's investment in non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other ABS may provide the Fund with benefits associated with increased diversification, as such investments may be less correlated to interest rates than other Fixed Income Securities. The Exchange notes that application of the 20% limitation only to the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio may impose a much more restrictive percentage limit on permitted holdings of non-agency ABS and non-agency MBS for the Fund, which has a more diversified investment portfolio compared to series of Managed Fund Shares that hold principally or exclusively fixed income securities. The Exchange believes application of the 20% limitation to the Fund's entire portfolio would be more equitable for the Fund compared to series of Managed Fund Shares with different investment objectives and holdings.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in shares of non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities, which are equity securities. Therefore, the Fund will not comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (U.S. Component Stocks) with respect to its equity securities holdings. It is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings in such securities would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E. The Fund's investment in non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities will not exceed 20% of the Fund's assets. The Fund's investment in shares of non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities will be utilized in order to obtain income on short-term cash balances while awaiting attractive investment opportunities, to provide liquidity in preparation for anticipated redemptions or for defensive purposes, which will allow the Fund to obtain the benefits of a more diversified portfolio available in the shares of non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities than might otherwise be available. Moreover, such investments, which may include mutual funds that invest, for example, principally in fixed income securities, would be utilized to help the Fund meet its investment objective and to equitize cash in the short term. The Fund will invest in such securities only to the extent that those investments would be consistent with the requirements of Section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act and the rules thereunder. Because such securities must satisfy applicable 1940 Act diversification requirements, and have a net asset value based on the value of securities and financial assets the investment company holds, it is both unnecessary and inappropriate to apply to such investment company securities the criteria in Commentary .01(a)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that it would be difficult or impossible to apply to mutual fund shares certain of the generic quantitative criteria (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     market capitalization, trading volume, or portfolio criteria) in Commentary .01 (A) through (D) applicable to U.S. Component Stocks. For example, the requirements for U.S. Component Stocks in Commentary .01(a)(1)(B) that there be minimum monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months are tailored to exchange-traded securities (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     U.S. Component Stocks) and not to mutual fund shares, which do not trade in the secondary market and for which no such volume information is reported. In addition, Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) relating to minimum market value of portfolio component stocks, Commentary .01(a)(1)(C) relating to weighting of portfolio component stocks, and Commentary .01(a)(1)(D) relating to minimum number of portfolio components are not appropriately applied to open-end management investment company securities; open-end investment companies hold multiple individual securities as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24572"/>
                    disclosed publicly in accordance with the 1940 Act, and application of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (D) would not serve the purposes served with respect to U.S. Component Stocks, namely, to establish minimum liquidity and diversification criteria for U.S. Component Stocks held by series of Managed Fund Shares.
                </P>
                <P>To the extent the Fund invests in OTC equity-linked notes, OTC rights, OTC warrants and non-exchange traded CVRs, the Fund will not comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (U.S. Component Stocks) and/or Commentary .01(a)(2) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (Non-U.S. Component Stocks) with respect to its equity securities holdings. As noted above, the Fund may invest up to 15% of the Fund's assets in the aggregate in OTC equity-linked notes, rights, warrants and CVRs. The Exchange believes that this limitation is appropriate in that OTC warrants, rights, equity-linked notes and CVRs are providing debt or equity-oriented exposures or are received in connection with the Fund's previous investment in fixed income securities or equities. All of the other equity securities held by the Fund will comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(E) and (a)(2)(E) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. With respect to OTC CVRs, the Adviser represents that the Fund will not actively invest in such securities but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in non-exchange-traded CVRs, if any, would not be utilized to further the Fund's investment objective and would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions.</P>
                <P>The Exchange accordingly believes that it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange notwithstanding that the Fund would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a), (b)(4) and (b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange notes that, other than Commentary .01(a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(4) and (b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E, the Fund's portfolio will meet all other requirements of Rule 8.600-E.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that that holds fixed income securities, equity securities and derivatives and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares of the Fund and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the PIV, the Disclosed Portfolio for the Fund, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares of the Fund.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that holds fixed income securities, equity securities and derivatives and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-36 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to: Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-36. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-36 and should be submitted on or before June 18, 2019.
                    <FTREF/>
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                    </P>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10988 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24573"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[SEC File No. 270-572, OMB Control No. 3235-0636]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Extension:</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Rule 0-2</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) is soliciting comments on the collections of information summarized below. The Commission plans to submit this existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget for extension and approval.</P>
                <P>
                    Several sections of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act” or “Investment Company Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     give the Commission the authority to issue orders granting exemptions from the Act's provisions. The section that grants broadest authority is section 6(c), which provides the Commission with authority to conditionally or unconditionally exempt persons, securities or transactions from any provision of the Investment Company Act, or the rules or regulations thereunder, if and to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 80a-1 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 80a-6(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Rule 0-2 under the Investment Company Act,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     entitled “General Requirements of Papers and Applications,” prescribes general instructions for filing an application seeking exemptive relief with the Commission for which a form is not specifically prescribed. Rule 0-2 requires that each application filed with the commission have (a) a statement of authorization to file and sign the application on behalf of the applicant, (b) a verification of application and statements of fact, (c) a brief statement of the grounds for application, and (d) the name and address of each applicant and of any person to whom questions should be directed. The Commission uses the information required by rule 0-2 to decide whether the applicant should be deemed to be entitled to the action requested by the application.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Applicants for orders can include registered investment companies, affiliated persons of registered investment companies, and issuers seeking to avoid investment company status, among other entities. Commission staff estimates that it receives approximately 184 applications per year under the Act. Although each application typically is submitted on behalf of multiple entities, the entities in the vast majority of cases are related companies and are treated as a single respondent for purposes of this analysis.</P>
                <P>The time to prepare an application depends on the complexity and/or novelty of the issues covered by the application. We estimate that the Commission receives 25 of the most time-consuming applications annually, 125 applications of medium difficulty, and 34 of the least difficult applications. Based on conversations with applicants, we estimate that in-house counsel would spend from ten to fifty hours helping to draft and review an application. We estimate a total annual hour burden to all respondents of 5,340 hours [(50 hours × 25 applications) + (30 hours × 125 applications) + (10 hours × 34 applications)].</P>
                <P>Much of the work of preparing an application is performed by outside counsel. The cost outside counsel charges applicants depends on the complexity of the issues covered by the application and the time required for preparation. Based on conversations with attorneys who serve as outside counsel, the cost ranges from approximately $10,000 for preparing a well-precedented, routine application to approximately $150,000 to prepare a complex and/or novel application. This distribution gives a total estimated annual cost burden to applicants of filing all applications of $14,090,000 [(25 × $150,000) + (125 × $80,000) + (34 × $10,000)].</P>
                <P>We request written comment on: (a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burdens of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.</P>
                <P>
                    Please direct your written comments to Charles Riddle, Acting Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Candace Kenner, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to: 
                    <E T="03">PRA_Mailbox@sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10983 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85908; File No. SR-ICEEU-2019-010]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice Relating to Amendments to the ICE Clear Europe Membership Policy</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on May 13, 2019, ICE Clear Europe Limited (“ICE Clear Europe” or the “Clearing House”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule changes described in Items I, II and III below, which Items have been prepared by ICE Clear Europe. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission, or Advance Notice</HD>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe proposes to amend its Clearing Membership Policy (the “Policy”) to provide further clarification for the Clearing Membership requirements and to update certain ICE Clear Europe internal governance requirements applicable to all Clearing Membership applications.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, ICE Clear Europe included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24574"/>
                    the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICE Clear Europe has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(A) Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission or Advance Notice</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Purpose</HD>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe is amending its Clearing Membership Policy. The proposed update allows for (i) the introduction of internal standards to be used by the Clearing House to assess the CDS Clearing Members' operational abilities to adhere to the existing CDS Clearing Membership requirements in relation to the end-of-day pricing submission obligations, (ii) the removal of the references to the F&amp;O and CDS Product Risk Committees' (collectively, the “Product Risk Committees”) role from the ICE Clear Europe internal governance steps to approve or reject new Clearing Members, as the Executive Risk Committee has obtained the authority from the ICE Clear Europe Board of Directors to approve or reject applications, and (iii) the introduction of an explicit requirement for the Clearing Risk Department to consider the performance of the applicant Clearing Members in the Default Management Test and to review such applicants' internal policies and procedures to assess the efficacy of their default management process, as part of the on boarding process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    ICE Clear Europe believes that the proposed Policy changes would be consistent with the requirements of Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act 1934 (the “Act”) 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations thereunder applicable to it, including the standards under Rule 17Ad-22 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    .
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires, among other things, that the rules of a clearing agency be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and, to the extent applicable, derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions, the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of the clearing agency or for which it is responsible, and the protection of investors and the public interest. The proposed changes to the Policy would both (i) enhance the ability of ICE Clear Europe to assess the capacity of applicant Clearing Members to adhere to the rules of the Clearing House and (ii) streamline the on boarding approval process of applicant Clearing Members. The changes would thus facilitate continued clearing by Clearing Members in compliance with the applicable rules of the Clearing House and promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of transactions by these persons. Through enhancing risk management processes relating to Clearing Member pricing capability and default management, the amendments may also enhance the safeguarding of securities and funds in the custody or control of the Clearing House or for which it is responsible as well as the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires, among other things, that the rules of a clearing agency are not designed to permit unfair discrimination in the admission of participants or among participants in the use of the clearing agency, or to regulate matters not related to the purposes of the Section of the Act 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or the administration of the clearing agency.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes would be aligned with such requirements as they introduce further clarity on how ICE Clear Europe shall test the ability of the CDS applicant Clearing Members to provide the required information on the end of day prices to the Clearing House, in line with the relevant rules of the Clearing House, and on the elements that ICE Clear Europe shall consider to assess the effectiveness of the applicant Clearing Members' default management process. The other set of the proposed changes, which refer to certain changes to the internal governance process for the approval or rejection of applicant Clearing Members, would apply uniformly to all applicant Clearing Members, ensuring that a consistent and non-discriminatory internal governance process is followed for the approval or rejection of applicant Clearing Members.</P>
                <P>
                    The amendments would also satisfy the specific relevant requirements of Rule 17Ad-22,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as set forth in the following discussion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2) 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires, among other things, that the written policies and procedures of a clearing agency be designed to provide for governance arrangements that are clear and transparent.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe believes the proposed amendment to remove the references to the Product Risk Committees' role in the new Clearing Members approval process, as the ICE Clear Europe Executive Risk Committee has obtained the authority from the ICE Clear Europe Board of Directors to approve or reject applications, would allow for a more accurate description in the Policy of the actual internal governance process followed by ICE Clear Europe.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, Rule 17Ad-22(e)(18) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires, among other things, that the written policies and procedures of a clearing agency be designed to establish objective, risk-based, and publicly disclosed criteria for participation, which permit fair and open access by direct and, where relevant, indirect participants and other financial market utilities, and to require participants to have sufficient financial resources and robust operational capacity to meet obligations arising from participation in the clearing agency, and monitor compliance with such participation requirements on an ongoing basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(18).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe believes the proposed amendments would be consistent with such requirements. Indeed, the additional clarifications on the end-of-day pricing requirements for CDS Clearing Members and on the elements that ICE Clear Europe shall consider to assess the effectiveness of the applicant Clearing Members' default management process allow for the introduction of clearer and more objective parameters for the ICE Clear Europe Clearing Risk Department to make a determination on the Clearing Member's ability to adhere to the ICE Clear Europe Clearing Membership requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    In relation to the requirement on the public disclosure of the criteria for participation to the Clearing House, ICE Clear Europe achieves compliance with such requirement by making the ICE Clear Europe Membership Procedures available on its website.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed amendments do not trigger any change to the ICE Clear Europe Membership Procedures, as the amendments do not refer to any of the four areas covered by the ICE Clear Europe Membership Procedures: Application Process, Resignation Process, Capital 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24575"/>
                    Requirements and Matters Requiring Notification by Clearing Members.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.theice.com/clear-europe/regulation.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As a result, in ICE Clear Europe's view, the amendments would be consistent with the obligations of Rule 17Ad-22(e)(18) 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that require clearing agencies to have objective, risk-based, and publicly disclosed criteria for participation of Clearing Members.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17Ad-22(e)(18).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(B) Clearing Agency's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>ICE Clear Europe does not believe the proposed rule changes would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>The proposed amendments related to the changes for CDS Membership shall be applied uniformly to all CDS Clearing Members. Additionally, the proposed changes on the elements to be considered by the Clearing House to assess the effectiveness of the applicant Clearing Members' default management process and the proposed changes to the internal governance approval process of new Clearing Members shall apply uniformly to all new Clearing Members. Therefore, ICE Clear Europe does not believe the amendments would adversely affect competition among Clearing Members, materially affect the cost of clearing, adversely affect access to clearing in Contracts for Clearing Members or their customers, or otherwise adversely affect competition in clearing services. Accordingly, ICE Clear Europe does not believe that the amendments would impose any impact or burden on competition that is not ate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(C) Clearing Agency's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants or Others</HD>
                <P>Written comments relating to the proposed amendments have not been solicited or received by ICE Clear Europe. ICE Clear Europe will notify the Commission of any comments received with respect to the proposed amendments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change, Security-Based Swap Submission and Advance Notice and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ) or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-010 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-010. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change, security-based swap submission or advance notice between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of such filings will also be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of ICE Clear Europe and on ICE Clear Europe's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.theice.com/clear-europe/regulation.</E>
                     All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICEEU-2019-010 and should be submitted on or before June 18, 2019.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10989 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[SEC File No. 270-447, OMB Control No. 3235-0504]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736.
                </FP>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Extension: </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Rule 19b-4(e) and Form 19b-4(e).</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) is soliciting comments on the existing collection of information provided for in Rule 19b-4(e) (17 CFR 240.19b-4(e)) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C 78a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (the “Act”). The Commission plans to submit this existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for extension and approval.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Rule 19b-4(e) permits a self-regulatory organization (“SRO”) to list and trade a new derivative securities product without submitting a proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78s(b)), so long as such product meets the criteria of Rule 19b-4(e) under the Act. However, in order for the Commission to maintain an accurate record of all new derivative securities products traded on the SROs, Rule 19b-4(e) requires an SRO to file a summary form, Form 19b-4(e), to notify the Commission when the SRO begins trading a new derivative securities product that is not required to be submitted as a proposed rule change to the Commission. Form 19b-4(e) should be submitted within five business days after an SRO begins trading a new derivative securities product that is not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24576"/>
                    required to be submitted as a proposed rule change. In addition, Rule 19b-4(e) requires an SRO to maintain, on-site, a copy of Form 19b-4(e) for a prescribed period of time.
                </P>
                <P>This collection of information is designed to allow the Commission to maintain an accurate record of all new derivative securities products traded on the SROs that are not deemed to be proposed rule changes and to determine whether an SRO has properly availed itself of the permission granted by Rule 19b-4(e). The Commission reviews SRO compliance with Rule 19b-4(e) through its routine inspections of the SROs.</P>
                <P>The respondents to the collection of information are SROs (as defined by the Act), all of which are national securities exchanges. As of March 29, 2019 there are twenty-two entities registered as national securities exchanges with the Commission. The Commission receives an average total of 5,122 responses per year, which corresponds to an estimated annual response burden of 5,122 hours. At an average hourly cost of $71, the aggregate related internal cost of compliance with Rule 19b-4(e) is $363,662 (5,122 burden hours multiplied by $71/hour).</P>
                <P>Compliance with Rule 19b-4(e) is mandatory. Information received in response to Rule 19b-4(e) shall not be kept confidential; the information collected is public information.</P>
                <P>Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    Please direct your written comments to: Charles Riddle, Acting Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Candace Kenner, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to: 
                    <E T="03">PRA_Mailbox@sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10982 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85903; File No. SR-NYSEArca-2019-33]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Regarding Certain Changes to Investments of the First Trust TCW Unconstrained Plus Bond ETF</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on May 6, 2019, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. On May 16, 2019, the Exchange filed Amendment No. 1 to the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         As the Exchange states in Item I, Amendment No. 1 replaces and supersedes the original filing in its entirety.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to certain changes regarding investments of the First Trust TCW Unconstrained Plus Bond ETF, shares of which are currently listed and traded on the Exchange under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (“Managed Fund Shares”). This Amendment No. 1 to SR-NYSEArca-2019-33 replaces SR-NYSEArca-2019-33 as originally filed and supersedes such filing in its entirety. The proposed change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes certain changes, described below under “Application of Generic Listing Requirements”, regarding investments of the First Trust TCW Unconstrained Plus Bond ETF (“Fund”), shares (“Shares”) of which are currently listed and traded on the Exchange under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     on the Exchange. Shares of the Fund commenced trading on the Exchange on June 5, 2018 in accordance with the generic listing standards in Commentary .01 to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         A Managed Fund Share is a security that represents an interest in an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) (“1940 Act”) organized as an open-end investment company or similar entity that invests in a portfolio of securities selected by its investment adviser consistent with its investment objectives and policies. In contrast, an open-end investment company that issues Investment Company Units, listed and traded on the Exchange under NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3), seeks to provide investment results that correspond generally to the price and yield performance of a specific foreign or domestic stock index, fixed income securities index or combination thereof.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Shares are offered by First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund VIII (the “Trust”), which is registered with the Commission as an open-end management investment company.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Fund is a series of the Trust.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Trust is registered under the 1940 Act. On May 29, 2018, the Trust filed with the Commission its registration statement on Form N-1A under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a), and under the 1940 Act relating to the Fund (File Nos. 333-210186 and 811-23147) (“Registration Statement”). The description of the operation of the Trust and the Fund herein is based, in part, on the Registration Statement. In addition, the Commission has issued an order upon which the Trust may rely, granting certain exemptive relief under the 1940 Act. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Investment Company Act Release No. 30029 (April 10, 2012) (File No. 812-13795).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="24577"/>
                <P>First Trust Advisors L.P. is the investment adviser (“First Trust” or “Adviser”) to the Fund. TCW Investment Management Company LLC (“TCW” or the “Sub-Adviser”), serves as the Fund's investment sub-adviser. First Trust Portfolios L.P. is the distributor (“Distributor”) for the Fund's Shares. The Bank of New York Mellon acts as the administrator, custodian and transfer agent (“Custodian” or “Transfer Agent”) for the Fund.</P>
                <P>
                    Commentary .06 to Rule 8.600-E provides that, if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect and maintain a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, Commentary .06 further requires that personnel who make decisions on the open-end fund's portfolio composition must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material nonpublic information regarding the open-end fund's portfolio. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser are not registered as broker-dealers. The Adviser is affiliated with First Trust Portfolios L.P., a broker-dealer, and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to its broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio. The Sub-Adviser is affiliated with multiple broker-dealers and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to its broker-dealer affiliates regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio. In the event (a) the Adviser or the Sub-Adviser becomes registered as a broker-dealer or newly affiliated with a broker-dealer, or (b) any new adviser or sub-adviser is a registered broker-dealer or becomes affiliated with a broker-dealer, it will implement and maintain a fire wall with respect to relevant personnel and any broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio, and will be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding such portfolio.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         An investment adviser to an open-end fund is required to be registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). As a result, the Adviser and Sub-Adviser and their related personnel are subject to the provisions of Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act relating to codes of ethics. This Rule requires investment advisers to adopt a code of ethics that reflects the fiduciary nature of the relationship to clients as well as compliance with other applicable securities laws. Accordingly, procedures designed to prevent the communication and misuse of non-public information by an investment adviser must be consistent with Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act. In addition, Rule 206(4)-7 under the Advisers Act makes it unlawful for an investment adviser to provide investment advice to clients unless such investment adviser has (i) adopted and implemented written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violation, by the investment adviser and its supervised persons, of the Advisers Act and the Commission rules adopted thereunder; (ii) implemented, at a minimum, an annual review regarding the adequacy of the policies and procedures established pursuant to subparagraph (i) above and the effectiveness of their implementation; and (iii) designated an individual (who is a supervised person) responsible for administering the policies and procedures adopted under subparagraph (i) above.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">First Trust TCW Unconstrained Plus Bond ETF</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Principal Investments</HD>
                <P>
                    According to the Registration Statement, the investment objective of the Fund is to seek to maximize long-term total return. Under normal market conditions,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Fund intends to invest at least 80% of its net assets (including investment borrowings) in a portfolio of “Fixed Income Securities” (described below).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         The term “normal market conditions” is defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(5). On a temporary basis, including for defensive purposes, during the initial invest-up period (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the six-week period following the commencement of trading of Shares on the Exchange) and during periods of high cash inflows or outflows (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         rolling periods of seven calendar days during which inflows or outflows of cash, in the aggregate, exceed 10% of the Fund's net assets as of the opening of business on the first day of such periods), the Fund may depart from its principal investment strategies; for example, it may hold a higher than normal proportion of its assets in cash. During such periods, the Fund may not be able to achieve its investment objective. The Fund may adopt a defensive strategy when the Adviser and/or the Sub-Adviser believes securities in which the Fund normally invests have elevated risks due to market, political or economic factors and in other extraordinary circumstances.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In managing the Fund's portfolio, TCW intends to employ a flexible approach that allocates the Fund's investments across a range of global investment opportunities and actively manage exposure to interest rates, credit sectors and currencies. TCW seeks to utilize independent, bottom-up research to identify securities that are undervalued and that offer a superior risk/return profile. Pursuant to this investment strategy, the Fund may invest in the following Fixed Income Securities, which may be represented by derivatives relating to such securities, as discussed below:</P>
                <P>• Securities issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government or its agencies, instrumentalities or U.S. government-sponsored entities (“U.S. government securities”);</P>
                <P>• Treasury Inflation Protected Securities (“TIPS”);</P>
                <P>
                    • The following non-agency, non-government-sponsored entity (“GSE”) and privately-issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities: Residential mortgage-backed securities (“RMBS”), commercial mortgage-backed securities (“CMBS”), asset-backed securities (“ABS”), and collateralized loan obligations (“CLOs” and, together with such RMBS, CMBS and ABS, “Private ABS/MBS”); 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         For avoidance of doubt, “Private ABS/MBS” as referenced herein are non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities as stated in Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Agency RMBS, agency CMBS, and agency ABS;</P>
                <P>• Domestic corporate bonds;</P>
                <P>• Fixed Income Securities issued by non-U.S. corporations and non-U.S. governments;</P>
                <P>• Bank loans, including first lien senior secured floating rate bank loans (“Senior Loans”), secured and unsecured loans, second lien or more junior loans, and bridge loans;</P>
                <P>• Fixed income convertible securities;</P>
                <P>• Fixed income preferred securities;</P>
                <P>• Municipal bonds; and</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in agency RMBS and CMBS by investing in to-be-announced transactions (“TBA Transactions”).</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold cash and cash equivalents.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Fund may hold the following short-term instruments with maturities of three months or more: Certificates of deposit; bankers' acceptances; repurchase agreements and reverse repurchase agreements; bank time deposits; and commercial paper.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, cash equivalents are the short-term instruments with maturities of less than 3 months enumerated in Commentary .01(c) to Rule 8.600-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may enter into short sales of any securities in which the Fund may invest.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may utilize exchange-listed and over-the-counter (“OTC”) traded derivatives instruments for duration/yield curve management and/or hedging purposes, for risk management purposes or as part of its investment strategies. The Fund will use derivative instruments primarily to hedge interest rate risk, actively manage interest rate exposure, hedge foreign currency risk and actively manage foreign currency exposure. The Fund may also use derivative instruments to enhance returns, as a substitute for, or to gain exposure to, a position in an underlying 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24578"/>
                    asset, to reduce transaction costs, to maintain full market exposure, to manage cash flows or to preserve capital. Derivatives may also be used to hedge risks associated with the Fund's other portfolio investments. The Fund will not use derivative instruments to gain exposure to Private ABS/MBS, and derivative instruments linked to such securities will be used for hedging purposes only. Derivatives that the Fund may enter into are the following: futures on interest rates, currencies, Fixed Income Securities and fixed income indices; exchange-traded and OTC options on interest rates, currencies, Fixed Income Securities and fixed income indices; swap agreements on interest rates, currencies, Fixed Income Securities and fixed income indices; credit default swaps (“CDX”); and currency forward contracts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Other Investments</HD>
                <P>While the Fund, under normal market conditions, invests at least 80% of its net assets in the Principal Investments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in the following “Non-Principal Investments.”</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest in exchange-traded common stock, exchange-traded preferred stock, and exchange-traded real estate investment trusts (“REITs”).</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund may invest in the securities of other investment companies registered under the 1940 Act, including money market funds, exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”), open-end funds (other than money market funds and other ETFs), and U.S. exchange-traded closed-end funds.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, the term “ETFs” are Investment Company Units (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)); Portfolio Depositary Receipts (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.100-E); and Managed Fund Shares (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E). All ETFs will be listed and traded in the U.S. on a national securities exchange. While the Fund may invest in inverse ETFs, the Fund will not invest in leveraged (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         2X, -2X, 3X or -3X) ETFs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold exchange-traded notes (“ETNs”).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         ETNs are Index-Linked Securities (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(6)). While the Fund may invest in inverse ETNs, the Fund will not invest in leveraged or inverse leveraged ETNs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         2X or -3X).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund may hold exchange-traded or OTC “Work Out Securities.” 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         For purposes of this filing, Work Out Securities are U.S. or foreign equity securities of any type acquired in connection with restructurings related to issuers of Fixed Income Securities held by the Fund. Work Out Securities are generally traded OTC, but may be traded on a U.S. or foreign exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Fund may hold exchange-traded or OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Investment Restrictions</HD>
                <P>The Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis. The Fund's holdings in derivative instruments for hedging purposes would be excluded from the determination of compliance with this 2% limitation. The total gross notional value of the Fund's holdings in derivative instruments used to gain exposure to a specific asset is limited to 2% of the Fund's total assets.</P>
                <P>The Fund may invest up to 50% of its total assets in the aggregate in Private ABS/MBS, provided that the Fund (1) may not invest more than 30% of its total assets in non-agency RMBS; (2) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency CMBS and CLOs; and (3) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency ABS.</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to the Fund's investments in up to 30% of its total assets in Private ABS/MBS that exceed the 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio that may be invested in Private ABS/MBS under Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the following restrictions will apply:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides that non-agency, non-GSE and privately-issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities components of a portfolio shall not account, in the aggregate, for more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the portfolio.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Non-agency RMBS shall have an average loan maturity of 84 months or more;</P>
                <P>• Non-agency CMBS and CLOs shall have an average loan maturity of 60 months or more; and</P>
                <P>
                    • Non-agency ABS shall have an average loan maturity of 12 months or more.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Information relating to average loan maturity for non-agency RMBS, non-agency CMBS, CLOs and non-agency ABS is widely available from major market data vendors such as Bloomberg.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange proposes that up to 25% of the Fund's assets may be invested in OTC derivatives that are used to reduce currency, interest rate or credit risk arising from the Fund's investments (that is, “hedge”). The Fund's investments in OTC derivatives other than OTC derivatives used to hedge the Fund's portfolio against currency, interest rate or credit risk will be limited to 20% of the assets in the Fund's portfolio. For purposes of these percentage limitations on OTC derivatives, the weight of such OTC derivatives will be calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives.</P>
                <P>The Fund's holdings of bank loans will not exceed 15% of the Fund's total assets, and the Fund's holdings of bank loans other than Senior Loans will not exceed 5% of the Fund's total assets.</P>
                <P>The Fund's holdings in fixed income convertible securities and in equity securities issued upon conversion of such convertible securities will not exceed 10% of the Fund's total assets.</P>
                <P>The Fund's holdings in Work Out Securities will not exceed 5% of the Fund's total assets.</P>
                <P>The Fund will not invest in securities or other financial instruments that have not been described in this proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Other Restrictions</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives and other investments may result in leverage). That is, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     2X or -3X) of the Fund's primary broad-based securities benchmark index (as defined in Form N-1A).
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The Fund's broad-based securities benchmark index will be identified in a future amendment to the Registration Statement following the Fund's first full calendar year of performance.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Use of Derivatives by the Fund</HD>
                <P>The Fund may invest in the types of derivatives described in the “Principal Investments” section above for the purposes described in that section. Investments in derivative instruments will be made in accordance with the Fund's investment objective and policies.</P>
                <P>
                    To limit the potential risk associated with such transactions, the Fund will enter into offsetting transactions or segregate or “earmark” assets determined to be liquid by the Adviser in accordance with procedures established by the Trust's Board of Trustees (the “Board”). In addition, the Fund has included appropriate risk disclosure in its offering documents, including leveraging risk. Leveraging risk is the risk that certain transactions of the Fund, including the Fund's use of derivatives, may give rise to leverage, causing the Fund to be more volatile than if it had not been leveraged. Because the markets for certain assets, or the assets themselves, may be unavailable or cost prohibitive as compared to derivative instruments, suitable derivative transactions may be an efficient alternative for the Fund to obtain the desired asset exposure.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24579"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Impact on Arbitrage Mechanism</HD>
                <P>The Adviser and the Sub-Adviser believe there will be minimal, if any, impact to the arbitrage mechanism as a result of the Fund's use of derivatives and Private ABS/MBS. The Adviser and the Sub-Adviser understand that market makers and participants should be able to value derivatives and Private ABS/MBS as long as the positions are disclosed with relevant information. The Adviser and the Sub-Adviser believe that the price at which Shares of the Fund trade will continue to be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities created by the ability to purchase or redeem Shares of the Fund at their net asset value (“NAV”), which should ensure that Shares of the Fund will not trade at a material discount or premium in relation to their NAV.</P>
                <P>The Adviser and Sub-Adviser do not believe there will be any significant impacts to the settlement or operational aspects of the Fund's arbitrage mechanism due to the use of derivatives and Private ABS/MBS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Creation and Redemption of Shares</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund will issue and redeem Shares on a continuous basis at NAV 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     only in large blocks of Shares (“Creation Units”) in transactions with authorized participants, generally including broker-dealers and large institutional investors (“Authorized Participants”). Creation Units generally will consist of 50,000 Shares. The size of a Creation Unit is subject to change. As described in the Registration Statement, the Fund will issue and redeem Creation Units in exchange for an in-kind portfolio of instruments and/or cash in lieu of such instruments (the “Creation Basket”).
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, if there is a difference between the NAV attributable to a Creation Unit and the market value of the Creation Basket exchanged for the Creation Unit, the party conveying instruments (which may include cash-in-lieu amounts) with the lower value will pay to the other an amount in cash equal to the difference (referred to as the “Cash Component”). Creations and redemptions must be made by or through an Authorized Participant that has executed an agreement that has been agreed to by the Distributor and the Transfer Agent with respect to creations and redemptions of Creation Units. All standard orders to create Creation Units must be received by the Transfer Agent no later than the closing time of the regular trading session on the NYSE (ordinarily 4:00 p.m., E.T.) (the “Closing Time”) in each case on the date such order is placed in order for the creation of Creation Units to be effected based on the NAV of Shares as next determined on such date after receipt of the order in proper form. Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt not later than the Closing Time of a redemption request in proper form by the Fund through the Transfer Agent and only on a business day. The Custodian, through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”), will make available on each business day, prior to the opening of business of the Exchange, the list of the names and quantities of the instruments comprising the Creation Basket, as well as the estimated Cash Component (if any), for that day. The published Creation Basket will apply until a new Creation Basket is announced on the following business day prior to commencement of trading in the Shares.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         The NAV of the Fund's Shares generally will be calculated once daily Monday through Friday as of the close of regular trading on the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”), generally 4:00 p.m., Eastern Time (“E.T.”). NAV per Share will be calculated by dividing the Fund's net assets by the number of Fund Shares outstanding.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         It is expected that the Fund will typically issue and redeem Creation Units on a cash basis; however, at times, the Fund may issue and redeem Creation Units on an in-kind (or partially in-kind) (or partially cash) basis.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application of Generic Listing Requirements</HD>
                <P>The Exchange is submitting this proposed rule change because the portfolio for the Fund will not meet all of the “generic” listing requirements of Commentary .01 to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E applicable to the listing of Managed Fund Shares. The Fund's portfolio will meet all such requirements except for those set forth in Commentary .01(a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (b)(4), (b)(5), and (e), as described below.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(a)(1) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (a)(2) 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to NYSE Arca 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24580"/>
                    Rule 8.600-E with respect to the Fund's investments in equity securities.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Instead, the Exchange proposes that (i) the Fund's investments in equity securities will meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a) with the exception of Commentary .01(a)(1)(C) and .01(a)(1)(D) (with respect to U.S. Component Stocks) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(C) and .01(a)(2)(D) (with respect to Non-U.S. Component Stocks). Any Fund investment in exchange-traded common stocks, preferred stocks, REITS, ETFs, ETNs, exchange-traded equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, exchange-traded Work Out Securities and U.S. exchange-traded closed-end funds would provide for enhanced diversification of the Fund's portfolio and, in any case, would be Non-Principal Investments and would not exceed 20% of the Fund's net assets in the aggregate. With respect to any Fund holdings of exchange-traded equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and exchange-traded Work Out Securities, such securities will not exceed 10% and 5%, respectively, of the Fund's total assets. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that the Fund generally will not actively invest in equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities or Work Out Securities, but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and Work Out Securities generally would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that, under these circumstances, application of the weighting requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(C) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(C) and the minimum number of components requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(D) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(D) would impose an unnecessary burden on the Fund's ability to hold such equity securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Commentary .01(a)(1) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides that the component stocks of the equity portion of a portfolio that are U.S. Component Stocks shall meet the following criteria initially and on a continuing basis:
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the equity weight of the portfolio (excluding such Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) each shall have a minimum market value of at least $75 million;</P>
                    <P>(B) Component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) that in the aggregate account for at least 70% of the equity weight of the portfolio (excluding such Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) each shall have a minimum monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months;</P>
                    <P>(C) The most heavily weighted component stock (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) shall not exceed 30% of the equity weight of the portfolio, and, to the extent applicable, the five most heavily weighted component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities) shall not exceed 65% of the equity weight of the portfolio;</P>
                    <P>(D) Where the equity portion of the portfolio does not include Non-U.S. Component Stocks, the equity portion of the portfolio shall include a minimum of 13 component stocks; provided, however, that there shall be no minimum number of component stocks if (i) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Index-Linked Securities constitute, at least in part, components underlying a series of Managed Fund Shares, or (ii) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Index-Linked Securities account for 100% of the equity weight of the portfolio of a series of Managed Fund Shares;</P>
                    <P>(E) Except as provided herein, equity securities in the portfolio shall be U.S. Component Stocks listed on a national securities exchange and shall be NMS Stocks as defined in Rule 600 of Regulation NMS under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; and</P>
                    <P>(F) American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”) in a portfolio may be exchange-traded or non-exchange-traded. However, no more than 10% of the equity weight of a portfolio shall consist of non-exchange-traded ADRs.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Commentary .01(a)(2) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides that the component stocks of the equity portion of a portfolio that are Non-U.S. Component Stocks shall meet the following criteria initially and on a continuing basis:
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Non-U.S. Component Stocks each shall have a minimum market value of at least $100 million;</P>
                    <P>(B) Non-U.S. Component Stocks each shall have a minimum global monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum global notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months;</P>
                    <P>(C) The most heavily weighted Non-U.S. Component stock shall not exceed 25% of the equity weight of the portfolio, and, to the extent applicable, the five most heavily weighted Non-U.S. Component Stocks shall not exceed 60% of the equity weight of the portfolio;</P>
                    <P>
                        (D) Where the equity portion of the portfolio includes Non-U.S. Component Stocks, the equity portion of the portfolio shall include a minimum of 20 component stocks; provided, however, that there shall be no minimum number of component stocks if (i) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Index-Linked Securities constitute, at least in part, components underlying a series of Managed Fund Shares, or (ii) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Index-Linked Securities account for 100% of the equity weight of the portfolio of a series of Managed Fund Shares; and
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(E) Each Non-U.S. Component Stock shall be listed and traded on an exchange that has last-sale reporting.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         For purposes of these exceptions, investments in equity securities that are OTC Work Out Securities, OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, or non-exchange-traded securities of other open-end investment companies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         mutual funds) are excluded and are discussed further below.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirement in Commentary .01(b)(1) to Rule 8.600-E that components that in the aggregate account for at least 75% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio each shall have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $100 million or more. Instead, the Exchange proposes that components that in the aggregate account for at least 50% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio each shall have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $50 million or more. As noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis. In addition, at least 50% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio would continue to be subject to a substantial minimum (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $50 million) original principal amount outstanding. The Exchange believes this limitation would provide significant additional diversification to the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities, and reduce concerns that the Fund's investments in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirements in Commentary .01(b)(4) to Rule 8.600-E that component securities that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio meet one of the criteria specified in Commentary .01(b)(4), because certain Private ABS/MBS cannot satisfy the criteria in Commentary .01(b)(4).
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Instead, the Exchange proposes that the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities other than Private ABS/MBS will be required to comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(b)(4). As noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis. The Exchange believes this limitation would provide additional diversification to the Fund's investments in Private ABS/MBS, and reduce concerns that the Fund's investment in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Commentary .01(b)(4) provides that component securities that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio must be either: (a) From issuers that are required to file reports pursuant to Sections 13 and 15(d) of the Act; (b) from issuers that have a worldwide market value of its outstanding common equity held by non-affiliates of $700 million or more; (c) from issuers that have outstanding securities that are notes, bonds debentures, or evidence of indebtedness having a total remaining principal amount of at least $1 billion; (d) exempted securities as defined in Section 3(a)(12) of the Act; or (e) from issuers that are a government of a foreign country or a political subdivision of a foreign country.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved the listing of Managed Fund Shares with similar investment objectives and strategies without imposing requirements that a certain percentage of such funds' securities meet one of the criteria set forth in Commentary .01(b)(4).
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Exchange Act Release Nos. 67894 (September 20, 2012) 77 FR 59227 (September 26, 2012) (SR-BATS-2012-033) (order approving the listing and trading of shares of the iShares Short Maturity Bond Fund); 70342 (September 6, 2013), 78 FR 56256 (September 12, 2013) (SR-NYSEArca-2013-71) (order approving the listing and trading of shares of the SPDR SSgA Ultra Short Term Bond ETF, SPDR SSgA Conservative Ultra Short Term Bond ETF and SPDR SSgA Aggressive Ultra Short Term Bond ETF).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirement in Commentary .01(b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E that Private ABS/MBS in the Fund's portfolio account, in the aggregate, for no more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Instead, the Exchange proposes that, in order to enable the portfolio to be more diversified and provide the Fund with an opportunity to earn higher returns, the Fund may invest up to 50% of its total assets in the aggregate in Private ABS/MBS, provided that the Fund (1) may not invest more than 30% of its total assets in non-agency RMBS; (2) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency CMBS and CLOs; and (3) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency ABS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 14, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to the Fund's investments in up to 30% of its total assets in Private ABS/MBS that exceed the 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio that may be invested in Private ABS/MBS under Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E,
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the following restrictions will apply:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 14, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Non-agency RMBS shall have an average loan maturity of 84 months or more;</P>
                <P>• Non-agency CMBS and CLOs shall have an average loan maturity of 60 months or more; and</P>
                <P>• Non-agency ABS shall have an average loan maturity of 12 months or more.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, as noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24581"/>
                    Exchange believes these limitations would provide additional diversification to the Fund's Private ABS/MBS investments and reduce concerns that the Fund's investment in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         As noted above, the Fund's holdings in derivative instruments for hedging purposes would 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        be excluded from the determination of compliance with this 2% limitation. The total gross notional value of the Fund's holdings in derivative instruments used to gain exposure to a specific asset is limited to 2% of the Fund's total assets.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that the RMBS sector can be an important component of the Fund's investment strategy because of the potential for attractive risk-adjusted returns relative to other fixed income sectors and the potential to add significantly to the diversification in the Fund's portfolio. Similarly, the Private ABS/MBS sectors also have the potential for attractive risk-adjusted returns and added portfolio diversification.</P>
                <P>
                    The Fund's portfolio will not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives may exceed 20% of Fund assets, calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives. The Exchange proposes that up to 25% of the Fund's assets (calculated as the aggregate gross notional value) may be invested in OTC derivatives that are used to reduce currency, interest rate or credit risk arising from the Fund's investments (that is, “hedge”). The Fund's investments in OTC derivatives other than OTC derivatives used to hedge the Fund's portfolio against currency, interest rate or credit risk will be limited to 20% of the assets in the Fund's portfolio, calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E provides that the portfolio may hold OTC derivatives, including forwards, options and swaps on commodities, currencies and financial instruments (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         stocks, fixed income, interest rates, and volatility) or a basket or index of any of the foregoing; however, on both an initial and continuing basis, no more than 20% of the assets in the portfolio may be invested in OTC derivatives. For purposes of calculating this limitation, a portfolio's investment in OTC derivatives will be calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of the OTC derivatives.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Adviser and Sub-Adviser believe that it is important to provide the Fund with additional flexibility to manage risk associated with its investments. Depending on market conditions, it may be critical that the Fund be able to utilize available OTC derivatives for this purpose to attempt to reduce impact of currency, interest rate or credit fluctuations on Fund assets. Therefore, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to apply a limit of up to 25% of the Fund's assets to the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives (calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives), including forwards, options and swaps, that are used for hedging purposes, as described above.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         The Commission has previously approved an exception from requirements set forth in Commentary .01(e) relating to investments in OTC derivatives similar to those proposed with respect to the Fund in Securities Exchange Act Release No. 80657 (May 11, 2017), 82 FR 22702 (May 17, 2017) (SR-NYSEArca-2017-09) (Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 2 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 2, Regarding Investments of the Janus Short Duration Income ETF Listed Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Fund may hold equity securities that are Work Out Securities, which generally are traded OTC (but that may be traded on a U.S. or foreign exchange), exchange-traded or OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, and non-exchange-traded securities of other open-end investment company securities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     mutual funds). The Exchange believes that it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange notwithstanding that the Fund would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E with respect to the Fund's investments in non-exchange-traded securities of open-end investment company securities,
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings of OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and OTC Work Out Securities would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E. Investments in non-exchange-traded securities of open-end investment company securities will not be principal investments of the Fund.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Such investments, which may include mutual funds that invest, for example, principally in fixed income securities, would be utilized to help the Fund meet its investment objective and to equitize cash in the short term. With respect to any Fund holdings of OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and OTC Work Out Securities, such securities will not exceed 10% and 5%, respectively, of the Fund's total assets. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that the Fund generally will not actively invest in OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities or OTC Work Out Securities, but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and Work Out Securities generally would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions. With respect to investments in non-exchange-traded investment company securities, because such securities have a net asset value based on the value of securities and financial assets the investment company holds, the Exchange believes it is both unnecessary and inappropriate to apply to such investment company securities the criteria in Commentary .01(a)(1).
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Commentary .01 (a) to Rule 8.600-E specifies the equity securities accommodated by the generic criteria in Commentary .01(a), namely, U.S. Component Stocks (as described in Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)); Non-U.S. Component Stocks (as described in Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)); Derivative Securities Products (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Investment Company Units and securities described in Section 2 of Rule 8-E); and Index-Linked Securities that qualify for Exchange listing and trading under Rule 5.2-E(j)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         For purposes of this section of the filing, non-exchange-traded securities of other registered investment companies do not include money market funds, which are cash equivalents under Commentary .01(c) to Rule 8.600-E and for which there is no limitation in the percentage of the portfolio invested in such securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         The Commission has previously approved proposed rule changes under Section 19(b) of the Act for series of Managed Fund Shares that may invest in non-exchange traded investment company securities. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 78414 (July 26, 2016), 81 FR 50576 (August 1, 2016) (SR-NYSEArca-2016-79) (order approving listing and trading of shares of the Virtus Japan Alpha ETF under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that Commentary .01(a) through (d) to Rule 8.600-E exclude application of those provisions to certain “Derivative Securities Products” that are exchange-traded investment company securities, including Investment Company Units (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 5.2-E(j)(3)), Portfolio Depositary Receipts (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.100-E) and Managed Fund Shares (as described in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E).
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In its 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24582"/>
                    2008 Approval Order approving amendments to Commentary .01(a) to Rule 5.2(j)(3) that exclude Derivative Securities Products from certain provisions of Commentary .01(a) (which exclusions are similar to those in Commentary .01(a)(1) to Rule 8.600-E), the Commission stated that “based on the trading characteristics of Derivative Securities Products, it may be difficult for component Derivative Securities Products to satisfy certain quantitative index criteria, such as the minimum market value and trading volume limitations.” The Exchange notes that it would be difficult or impossible to apply to non-exchange-traded investment company securities the generic quantitative criteria (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     market capitalization, trading volume, or portfolio criteria) in Commentary .01 (a) through (d) applicable to U.S. Component Stocks. For example, the requirement for U.S. Component Stocks in Commentary .01(a)(1)(B) that there be minimum monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months is tailored to exchange-traded securities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     U.S. Component Stocks) and not to mutual fund shares, which do not trade in the secondary market. Moreover, application of such criteria would not serve the purpose served with respect to U.S. Component Stocks, namely, to establish minimum liquidity and diversification criteria for U.S. Component Stocks held by series of Managed Fund Shares.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         The Commission initially approved the Exchange's proposed rule change to exclude “Derivative Securities Products” (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Investment Company Units and securities described in Section 2 of Rule 8) and “Index-Linked Securities (as described in Rule 5.2-E (j)(6)) from Commentary .01(a)(A) (1) through (4) to Rule 5.2-E(j)(3 in Securities Exchange Act Release No. 57751 (May 1, 2008), 73 FR 25818 (May 7, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2008-29) (Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, to Amend the Eligibility Criteria for Components of an Index Underlying Investment Company Units) (“2008 Approval Order”). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 57561 (March 26, 2008), 73 FR 17390 (April 1, 2008) (Notice of 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Filing of Proposed Rule Change and Amendment No. 1 Thereto to Amend the Eligibility Criteria for Components of an Index Underlying Investment Company Units). The Commission subsequently approved generic criteria applicable to listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares, including exclusions for Derivative Securities Products and Index-Linked Securities in Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (D), in Securities Exchange Act Release No. 78397 (July 22, 2016), 81 FR 49320 (July 27, 2016) (Order Granting Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 7 Thereto, Amending NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 To Adopt Generic Listing Standards for Managed Fund Shares). 
                        <E T="03">See also,</E>
                         Amendment No. 7 to SR-NYSEArca-2015-110, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/sr-nyseArca-2015-110/nysearca2015110-9.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved listing and trading of an issue of Managed Fund Shares that may invest in equity securities that are non-exchange-traded securities of other open-end investment company securities notwithstanding that the fund would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E with respect to such fund's investments in such securities.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate to permit the Fund to invest in non-exchange-traded open-end management investment company securities, as described above.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83319 (May 24, 2018) (SR-NYSEArca-2018-15) (Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, to Continue Listing and Trading Shares of the PGIM Ultra Short Bond ETF Under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Deviations from the generic requirements are necessary for the Fund to achieve its investment objective in a manner that is cost-effective and that maximizes investors' returns. Further, the proposed alternative requirements are narrowly tailored to allow the Fund to achieve its investment objective in manner that is consistent with the principles of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act. As a result, it is in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange pursuant to the requirements set forth herein.</P>
                <P>The Exchange notes that, other than Commentary .01(a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (b)(4), (b)(5), and (e) to Rule 8.600-E, as described above, the Fund's portfolio will meet all other requirements of Rule 8.600-E.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Availability of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    The Fund's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ftportfolios.com</E>
                    ) will include the prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded. The Fund's website will include additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis including, for the Fund, (1) daily trading volume, the prior business day's reported closing price, NAV and midpoint of the bid/ask spread at the time of calculation of such NAV (the “Bid/Ask Price”),
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and a calculation of the premium and discount of the Bid/Ask Price against the NAV, and (2) data in chart format displaying the frequency distribution of discounts and premiums of the daily Bid/Ask Price against the NAV, within appropriate ranges, for each of the four previous calendar quarters. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Core Trading Session on the Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its website the Disclosed Portfolio as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(2) that forms the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         The Bid/Ask Price of the Fund's Shares will be determined using the mid-point of the highest bid and the lowest offer on the Exchange as of the time of calculation of the Fund's NAV. The records relating to Bid/Ask Prices will be retained by the Fund and its service providers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Under accounting procedures followed by the Fund, trades made on the prior business day (“T”) will be booked and reflected in NAV on the current business day (“T+1”). Accordingly, the Fund will be able to disclose at the beginning of the business day the portfolio that will form the basis for the NAV calculation at the end of the business day.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose the information required under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(2) to the extent applicable. The website information will be publicly available at no charge.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, a basket composition file, which includes the security names and share quantities, if applicable, required to be delivered in exchange for the Fund's Shares, together with estimates and actual cash components, will be publicly disseminated daily prior to the opening of the Exchange via the NSCC. The basket represents one Creation Unit of the Fund. Authorized Participants may refer to the basket composition file for information regarding Fixed Income Securities, and any other instrument that may comprise the Fund's basket on a given day. Investors can also obtain the Trust's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and the Fund's Forms N-CSR and Forms N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Fund's SAI and Shareholder Reports will be available free upon request from the Trust, and those documents and the Form N-CSR, Form N-PX and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.sec.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Intra-day and closing price information regarding exchange-traded options will be available from the exchange on which such instruments are traded. Intra-day and closing price information regarding Fixed Income Securities will be available from major market data vendors. Price information relating to OTC options, forwards and swaps will be available from major market data vendors. Intra-day price information for exchange-traded derivative instruments will be available from the applicable exchange and from major market data vendors. Intraday and other price information for the Fixed Income Securities in which the Fund will invest will be available through subscription services, such as Bloomberg, Markit and Thomson Reuters, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other market participants. Additionally, the Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (“TRACE”) of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) will be a source of price information for corporate bonds, and Private ABS/MBS, to the extent transactions in such securities are reported to TRACE.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>36</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="24583"/>
                    Trade price and other information relating to municipal bonds is available through the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board's Electronic Municipal Market Access (“EMMA”) system. Non-exchange-traded open-end investment company securities are typically priced once each business day and their prices will be available through the applicable fund's website or from major market data vendors. Price information regarding U.S. government securities, bank loans, Private ABS/MBS, cash equivalents and short-term instruments with maturities of three months or more generally may be obtained from brokers and dealers who make markets in such securities or through nationally recognized pricing services through subscription agreements. Information relating to average loan maturity for Private ABS/MBS is widely available from major market data vendors such as Bloomberg.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Broker-dealers that are FINRA member firms have an obligation to report transactions in specified debt securities to TRACE to the extent 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        required under applicable FINRA rules. Generally, such debt securities will have at issuance a maturity that exceeds one calendar year. For Fixed Income Securities that are not reported to TRACE, (i) intraday price quotations will generally be available from broker-dealers and trading platforms (as applicable) and (ii) price information will be available from feeds from market data vendors, published or other public sources, or online information services, as described above.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares, ETFs, ETNs, common stocks, preferred stocks, REITs, equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, Work-Out Securities and closed-end funds will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. Information regarding the previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers.</P>
                <P>Quotation and last sale information for the Shares, ETFs, ETNs, closed-end funds, REITs, certain common stocks, certain preferred stocks, certain equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, and certain Work-Out Securities will be available via the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) high-speed line. Exchange-traded options quotation and last sale information for options cleared via the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) are available via the Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”). In addition, the Portfolio Indicative Value (“PIV”), as defined in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Halts</HD>
                <P>
                    With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached. Trading also may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. Trading in the Fund's Shares also will be subject to Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D) (“Trading Halts”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trading Rules</HD>
                <P>The Exchange deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Shares will trade on the NYSE Arca Marketplace from 4 a.m. to 8 p.m., E.T. in accordance with NYSE Arca Rule 7.34-E (Early, Core, and Late Trading Sessions). The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in NYSE Arca Rule 7.6-E, the minimum price variation (“MPV”) for quoting and entry of orders in equity securities traded on the NYSE Arca Marketplace is $0.01, with the exception of securities that are priced less than $1.00 for which the MPV for order entry is $0.0001.</P>
                <P>With the exception of the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (b)(4), (b)(5), and (e) to Rule 8.600-E as described above in “Application of Generic Listing Requirements,” the Shares of the Fund will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. Consistent with NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(B)(ii), the Adviser and Sub-Adviser will implement and maintain, or be subject to, procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material non-public information regarding the actual components of the Fund's portfolio.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange represents that, for initial and continued listing, the Fund will be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     under the Act, as provided by NYSE Arca Rule 5.3-E. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. The Fund's investments will be consistent with its investment goal and will not be used to provide multiple returns of a benchmark or to produce leveraged returns.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.10A-3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Surveillance</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, or by regulatory staff of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange represents that these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and federal securities laws applicable to trading on the Exchange.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         FINRA conducts cross-market surveillances on behalf of the Exchange pursuant to a regulatory services agreement. The Exchange is responsible for FINRA's performance under this regulatory services agreement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity. When such situations are detected, surveillance analysis follows and investigations are opened, where appropriate, to review the behavior of all relevant parties for all relevant trading violations.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-traded options and certain exchange-traded futures, ETFs, ETNs, closed-end funds, certain common stocks, certain preferred stocks, certain REITs, certain equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, certain Work-Out Securities with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”), and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a CSSA. In addition, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24584"/>
                    reported to FINRA's TRACE. FINRA also can access data obtained from the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board relating to municipal bond trading activity for surveillance purposes in connection with trading in the Shares.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         For a list of the current members of ISG, 
                        <E T="03">see www.isgportal.org.</E>
                         The Exchange notes that not all components of the Disclosed Portfolio may trade on markets that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement (“CSSA”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees.</P>
                <P>All statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio or reference asset, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange listing rules specified in this rule filing shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares of the Fund on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>The issuer must notify the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If the Fund is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under NYSE Arca Rule 5.5-E(m).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Information Bulletin</HD>
                <P>The Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Unit aggregations (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) NYSE Arca Rule 9.2-E(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its Equity Trading Permit Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (3) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Early and Late Trading Sessions when an updated PIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (4) how information regarding the PIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (5) the requirement that Equity Trading Permit Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.</P>
                <P>In addition, the Bulletin will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Bulletin will discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act. The Bulletin will also disclose that the NAV for the Shares will be calculated after 4:00 p.m., E.T. each trading day.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that an exchange have rules that are designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares are listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange has in place surveillance procedures that are adequate to properly monitor trading in the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws. The Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-traded options and certain exchange-traded futures, ETFs, ETNs, closed-end funds, certain common stocks, certain preferred stocks, certain REITs, certain equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and certain Work-Out Securities with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. The Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a CSSA. In addition, FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, is able to access, as needed, trade information for certain fixed income securities held by the Fund reported to TRACE. FINRA also can access data obtained from the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board relating to municipal bond trading activity for surveillance purposes in connection with trading in the Shares. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser are not registered as broker-dealers. The Adviser is affiliated with First Trust Portfolios L.P., a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to its broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolios. The Sub-Adviser is affiliated with multiple broker-dealers and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to its broker-dealer affiliates regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the portfolio.</P>
                <P>The Exchange notes that, other than Commentary .01(a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (b)(4), (b)(5), and (e) to Rule 8.600-E, as described above, the Fund's portfolio will meet all other requirements of Rule 8.600-E.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of  trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information will be publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares, ETFs, ETNs, closed-end funds, certain REITs, certain common stocks, certain preferred stocks, certain equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, and certain Work-Out Securities will be available via the CTA high-speed line. Exchange-traded options quotation and last sale information for options cleared via the OCC are available via OPRA. The Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Rule 7.12-E have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. Trading in the Shares will be subject to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, NAV, the PIV, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24585"/>
                    generally will principally hold fixed income securities and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a CSSA. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, NAV, Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
                </P>
                <P>Deviations from the generic requirements, as described above, are necessary for the Fund to achieve its investment objective in a manner that is cost-effective and that maximizes investors' returns. Further, the proposed alternative requirements are narrowly tailored to allow the Fund to achieve its investment objective in a manner that is consistent with the principles of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act. As a result, it is in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange pursuant to the requirements set forth herein.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Fund will not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(a)(1) and (a)(2) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E with respect to the Fund's investments in equity securities. Instead, the Exchange proposes that (i) the Fund's investments in equity securities will meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a) with the exception of Commentary .01(a)(1)(C) and .01(a)(1)(D) (with respect to U.S. Component Stocks) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(C) and .01(a)(2)(D) (with respect to Non-U.S. Component Stocks).
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings in such equity securities do not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(a)(1) and (a)(2) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E in that any Fund investment in exchange-traded common stocks, preferred stocks, REITS, ETFs, ETNs, U.S. exchange-traded closed-end funds, exchange-traded equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities, and exchange-traded Work Out Securities would provide for enhanced diversification of the Fund's portfolio. Such securities would be Non-Principal Investments, not exceeding 20% of the Fund's net assets in the aggregate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         notes 19 and 20, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Fund will not comply with the requirement in Commentary .01(b)(1) to Rule 8.600-E that components that in the aggregate account for at least 75% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio each shall have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $100 million or more. Instead, the Exchange proposes that components that in the aggregate account for at least 50% of the fixed income weight of the portfolio each shall have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $50 million or more. As noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis. In addition, at least 50% of the weight of the Fund's portfolio would continue to be subject to a substantial minimum (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $50 million) original principal amount outstanding. The Exchange believes this limitation would provide significant additional diversification to the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities, and reduce concerns that the Fund's investments in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes that Private ABS/MBS will not be required to comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(b)(4) because certain Private ABS/MBS cannot satisfy the criteria in Commentary .01(b)(4). Instead, the Exchange proposes that the Fund's investments in Fixed Income Securities other than Private ABS/MBS will be required to comply with the requirements of Commentary .01(b)(4). The Exchange believes that this is appropriate because Commentary .01(b)(4) does not appear to be designed for structured finance vehicles such as Private ABS/MBS. As noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis. The Exchange believes this limitation would provide additional diversification to the Fund's investments in Private ABS/MBS, and reduce concerns that the Fund's investment in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Fund will not comply with the requirement in Commentary .01(b)(5) to Rule 8.600-E that Private ABS/MBS in the Fund's portfolio account, in the aggregate, for no more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio. Instead, the Exchange proposes that, in order to enable the portfolio to be more diversified and provide the Fund with an opportunity to earn higher returns, the Fund may invest up to 50% of its total assets in the aggregate in Private ABS/MBS, provided that the Fund (1) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency ABS; (2) may not invest more than 30% of its total assets in non-agency RMBS; and (3) may not invest more than 25% of its total assets in non-agency CMBS and CLOs. With respect to the Fund's investments in up to 30% of its total assets in Private ABS/MBS that exceed the 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Fund's portfolio that may be invested in Private ABS/MBS under Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E, the Fund's holdings in Private ABS/MBS will be subject to minimum average loan maturity restrictions described above.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, as noted above, the Fund may not invest more than 2% of its total assets in any one Fixed Income Security (excluding U.S. government securities and TIPS) on a per CUSIP basis.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes these limitations would provide additional diversification to the Fund's Private ABS/MBS investments and reduce concerns that the Fund's investment in such securities would be readily susceptible to market manipulation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 14 and accompanying text, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 26, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings in such Private ABS/MBS do not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(b)(5) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E in that the Fund's investment in Private ABS/MBS is expected to provide the Fund with benefits associated with increased diversification, as Private ABS/MBS investments tend to be less correlated to interest rates than many other fixed income securities. The Fund's investment in Private ABS/MBS will be subject to the Fund's liquidity procedures as adopted by the Board, and the Adviser and Sub-Adviser do not expect that investments in Private ABS/MBS of up to 50% of the total assets of the Fund will have any material impact on the liquidity of the Fund's investments.</P>
                <P>
                    The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that the RMBS sector can be an important component of the Fund's investment strategy because of the potential for attractive risk-adjusted returns relative to other fixed income sectors and the potential to add 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24586"/>
                    significantly to the diversification in the Fund's portfolio. Similarly, the Private ABS/MBS sectors also have the potential for attractive risk-adjusted returns and added portfolio diversification.
                </P>
                <P>As noted above, the Fund's portfolio will not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange proposes that up to 25% of the Fund's assets (calculated as the aggregate gross notional value) may be invested in OTC derivatives that are used to reduce currency, interest rate or credit risk arising from the Fund's investments (that is, “hedge”), and that the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives other than OTC derivatives used to hedge the Fund's portfolio against currency, interest rate or credit risk will be limited to 20% of the assets in the Fund's portfolio, calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives. As noted above, the Fund will not use derivative instruments to gain exposure to Private ABS/MBS, and derivative instruments linked to such securities will be used for hedging purposes only.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings in OTC derivatives do not comply with the requirements set forth in Commentary .01(e) to NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E in that, depending on market conditions, it may be critical that the Fund be able to utilize available OTC derivatives to attempt to reduce impact of currency, interest rate or credit fluctuations on Fund assets. Therefore, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to apply a limit of up to 25% of the Fund's assets to the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives (calculated as the aggregate gross notional value of such OTC derivatives), including forwards, options and swaps, that are used for hedging purposes, as described above.</P>
                <P>The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that OTC derivatives can be tailored to hedge the specific risk arising from the Fund's investments and frequently may be a more efficient hedging vehicle than listed derivatives. For example, the Fund could obtain an OTC foreign currency derivative in a notional amount that exactly matches the notional amount of the Fund's investments. If the Fund were limited to investing up to 20% of assets in OTC derivatives, the Fund might have to “over hedge” or “under hedge” if round lot sizes in listed derivatives were not available. In addition, for example, an OTC CDX option can be structured to provide protection tailored to the Fund's credit exposure and can be a more efficient way to hedge credit risk with respect to specific exposures than listed derivatives. Similarly, OTC interest rate derivatives can be more effective hedges of interest rate exposure because they can be customized to match the basis risk arising from the term of the investments held by the Fund.</P>
                <P>Because the Fund, in furtherance of its investment objective, may invest a substantial percentage of its investments in foreign currency denominated Fixed Income Securities, the 20% limit in Commentary .01(e) to Rule 8.600-E could result in the Fund being unable to fully pursue its investment objective while attempting to sufficiently mitigate investment risks. The inability of the Fund to adequately hedge its holdings would effectively limit the Fund's ability to invest in certain instruments, or could expose the Fund to additional investment risk. For example, if the Fund's assets (on a gross notional value basis) were $100 million and no listed derivative were suitable to hedge the Fund's risk, under the generic standards the Fund would be limited to holding up to $20 million gross notional value in OTC derivatives ($100 million * 20%). Accordingly, the maximum amount the Fund would be able to invest in foreign currency denominated Fixed Income Securities while remaining adequately hedged would be $20 million. The Fund then would hold $60 million in assets that could not be hedged, other than with listed derivatives, which, as noted above, might not be sufficiently tailored to the specific instruments to be hedged.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, by applying the 20% limitation in Commentary .01(e) to Rule 8.600-E, the Fund would be less able to protect its holdings from more than one risk simultaneously. For example, if the Fund's assets (on a gross notional basis) were $100 million and the Fund held $20 million in foreign currency denominated Fixed Income Instruments with two types of risks (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     currency and credit risk) which could not be hedged using listed derivatives, the Fund would be faced with the choice of either holding $20 million aggregate gross notional value in OTC derivatives to mitigate one of the risks while passing the other risk to its shareholders, or, for example, holding $10 million aggregate gross notional value in OTC derivatives on each of the risks while passing the remaining portion of each risk to the Fund's shareholders.
                </P>
                <P>The Adviser and Sub-Adviser believe that it is in the best interests of the Fund's shareholders for the Fund to be allowed to reduce the currency, interest rate or credit risk arising from the Fund's investments using the most efficient financial instrument. While certain risks can be hedged via listed derivatives, OTC derivatives (such as forwards, options and swaps) can be customized to hedge against precise risks. Accordingly, the Adviser and Sub-Adviser believe that OTC derivatives may frequently be a more efficient hedging vehicle than listed derivatives. Therefore, the Exchange believes that increasing the percentage limit in Commentary .01(e), as described above, to the Fund's investments in OTC derivatives, including forwards, options and swaps, that are used specifically for hedging purposes would help protect investors and the public interest.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Fund's portfolio will not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E with respect to the Fund's investments in non-exchange-traded securities of open-end investment company securities, and, with respect to the Fund's holdings of OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and OTC Work Out Securities, would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E. The Exchange believes that it is appropriate and in the public interest to approve listing and trading of Shares of the Fund on the Exchange notwithstanding that the Fund would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E with respect to the Fund's investments in non-exchange-traded securities of open-end investment company securities, and notwithstanding that the Fund's holdings of OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and OTC Work Out Securities would not meet the requirements of Commentary .01(a)(1)(A) through (E) and Commentary .01(a)(2)(A) through (E) to Rule 8.600-E. Investments in non-exchange-traded securities of open-end investment company securities will not be principal investments of the Fund.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Such investments, which may include mutual funds that invest, for example, principally in fixed income securities, would be utilized to help the Fund meet its investment objective and to equitize cash in the short term.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 30, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to any Fund holdings of exchange-traded or OTC equity securities issued upon conversion of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24587"/>
                    fixed income convertible securities and Work Out Securities, such securities will not exceed 10% and 5%, respectively, of the Fund's total assets. The Adviser and Sub-Adviser represent that the Fund generally will not actively invest in equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities or Work Out Securities, but may, at times, receive a distribution of such securities in connection with the Fund's holdings in other securities. Therefore, the Fund's holdings in equity securities issued upon conversion of fixed income convertible securities and Work Out Securities generally would not be acquired as the result of the Fund's voluntary investment decisions.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of shares of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purpose of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that generally will principally hold fixed income securities and that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-33 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-33. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSEArca-2019-33, and should
                    <FTREF/>
                     be submitted on or before June 18, 2019.
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                    </P>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10987 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-85909; File No. SR-EMERALD-2019-21]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; MIAX Emerald, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>May 21, 2019.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on May 8, 2019, MIAX Emerald, LLC (“MIAX Emerald” or “Exchange”), filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Emerald Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”).</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.miaxoptions.com/rule-filings/emerald,</E>
                     at MIAX's principal office, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="24588"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to adopt Section (1)(a)vi to the Fee Schedule to adopt a stock handling fee for stock-option orders (including stock-option eQuotes 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ) executed against other stock-option orders in the complex order book, which the Exchange must route to an outside venue.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An eQuote is a quote with a specific time in force that does not automatically cancel and replace a previous Standard quote or eQuote. An eQuote can be cancelled by the Market Maker at any time, or can be replaced by another eQuote that contains specific instructions to cancel an existing eQuote. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Rule 517(a)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange originally adopted Exchange Rule 518, Complex Orders, to implement trading on the Exchange in complex orders in an identical fashion, and with an identical rule, as the Exchange's affiliate, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC (“MIAX).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     MIAX Emerald Rules, in their current form, were filed as Exhibit B to its Form 1 on August 16, 2018. At that time, stock-option orders as described in MIAX Rule 518 were being implemented on MIAX and MIAX Rule 518 was undergoing revisions to support the implementation and trading of stock-option orders, therefore the revised MIAX Rule 518 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     was not included in MIAX Emerald's Form 1 filing. In connection with the implementation by MIAX of stock-option orders, MIAX also adopted a stock handling fee for stock-option orders (including stock-option eQuotes) executed against other stock-option orders in the complex order book, which MIAX must route to an outside venue.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     MIAX Emerald recently amended Exchange Rule 518, Complex Orders, to update its rule text regarding the handling of stock-option orders, in connection with the upcoming launch of such orders on the Exchange.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Rule 518.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83726 (July 27, 2018), 83 FR 37849 (August 2, 2018) (SR-MIAX-2018-16).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83788 (August 7, 2018), 83 FR 40110 (August 13, 2018) (SR-MIAX-2018-18).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85345 (March 18, 2019), 84 FR 10848 (March 22, 2019) (SR-EMERALD-2019-13).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to adopt a stock handling fee of $0.0010 per share for the stock leg of stock-option orders executed against other stock-option orders in the complex order book, which are routed to an outside venue. This stock handling fee to be assessed by the Exchange will cover all fees charged by the outside venue that prints the trade, and it is also intended to compensate the Exchange for matching these stock-option orders against other stock-option orders on the complex order book. A maximum of $50 per order, per day, per Member, will be assessed under this fee. The cap is intended to give market participants assurance that they will not pay more than the capped amount for the execution of the stock leg of their stock-option orders. The Exchange believes that by limiting this fee to a maximum of $50 per order, per day, the Exchange addresses the possibility that a Good `Til Cancelled (“GTC”) 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     order could be executed over multiple days. For example, if such an order was partially-executed on a Monday, and then the remainder was fully-executed on a Tuesday, the total maximum fee charged to the market participant would be $100 ($50 per day). In addition to the Exchange's fee, the Exchange will also pass through to the Member any fees assessed by the routing broker-dealer utilized by the Exchange with respect to the execution of the stock leg of any such order (with such fees to be passed through at cost). For example, the Exchange anticipates that the routing broker-dealer will bill the Exchange for Section 31 fees and FINRA Trading Activity Fees with respect to the execution of the stock leg of any such order. The Exchange will pass such fees through to the Member, at cost (that is, without any additional mark-up).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         A Good `til Cancelled or “GTC” Order is an order to buy or sell which remains in effect until it is either executed, cancelled or the underlying option expires. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Rule 516(l).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed stock-option handling fee is similar to the stock handling fee charged by the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Fee Schedule is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(4) of the Act 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is an equitable allocation of reasonable fees and other charges among its members and issuers and other persons using its facilities. The Exchange also believes the proposal furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general to protect investors and the public interest and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers and dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed stock handling fee for stock-option orders (including stock-option eQuotes) is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act in that it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes the proposed stock handling fee for stock-option orders is reasonable and equitable as the proposed fee will cover the costs of developing and maintaining the systems that allow for the matching and processing of the stock legs of stock-option orders executed in the complex order book, as well as all fees charged by the outside venue that prints the trade. The Exchange also believes it is reasonable and equitable to pass through to the Member any fees assessed by the routing broker-dealer utilized by the Exchange with respect to the execution of the stock leg of any such order (with such fees to be passed through at cost). The Exchange notes that the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE”) have comparable fees for the handling of the stock leg of stock-option orders. ISE also charges a stock handling fee of $0.0010 per share which is capped at $50 per order.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange also believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     because it will be uniformly applied to all Members that execute stock-option orders in the complex order book on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Nasdaq ISE Pricing Schedule, Options 7, Section 4, Complex Order Fees and Rebates, 12; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 74117 (January 22, 2015), 80 FR 4600 (January 28, 2015) (SR-ISE-2015-03).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    MIAX Emerald does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed fee is similar to and within the range of fees charged by the Exchange's affiliate, MIAX,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Exchange's competitor, ISE.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and to attract order flow to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24589"/>
                    the Exchange. For the reasons stated above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>Written comments were neither solicited nor received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(2) 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-EMERALD-2019-21 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-EMERALD-2019-21. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street, NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-EMERALD-2019-21 and should be submitted on or before June 18, 2019.
                    <FTREF/>
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10985 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice 10776]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of State will conduct an open meeting at 1:30 p.m. on Thursday, June 20, 2019, in Room 5Y23-21 of the Douglas A. Munro Coast Guard Headquarters Building at St. Elizabeth's, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20593. The primary purpose of the meeting is to prepare for the sixth session of the International Maritime Organizations (IMO) Sub-Committee on Implementation of IMO Instruments (III 6) to be held at the IMO headquarters, London, United Kingdom, on July 01-05, 2019.</P>
                <P>The agenda items to be considered include:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Decisions of other IMO bodies;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Consideration and analysis of reports on alleged inadequacy of port reception facilities;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Lessons learned and safety issues identified from the analysis of marine safety investigation reports;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Measures to harmonize port state control (PSC) activities and procedures worldwide;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Identified issues related to the implementation of IMO instruments from the analysis of PSC data;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Analysis of consolidated audit summary reports;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Updated survey guidelines under the Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC);</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Non-exhaustive list of obligations under the instruments relevant to the IMO Instruments Implementation Code (III Code); and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Unified interpretation of provisions of IMO safety, security, and environment related conventions.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Finalization of a non-mandatory instrument on regulations for non-convention ships.</FP>
                <P>
                    The public meeting will focus on answering any questions from the public that are directly related to the meeting documents submitted for this meeting. The public may attend this meeting up to the seating capacity of the room. However, due to the size of the room and security protocols at Coast Guard Headquarters, members of the public are encouraged to participate via teleconference. To access the teleconference line or request physical access to the meeting or reasonable accommodation, participants should contact the meeting coordinator, Mr. Christopher Gagnon, by email at 
                    <E T="03">christopher.j.gagnon@uscg.mil</E>
                     or by phone at (202) 372-1231. Physical access to the meeting requires that all attendees respond to the meeting coordinator not later than June 13, 2019, five working days prior to the meeting. Responses made after June 13, 2019 might result in not being able to participate in person at the meeting. Please note that due to security considerations, two valid, government issued photo identifications must be presented to gain entrance to the Coast Guard Headquarters building. The building is accessible by public transportation or taxi.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Joel C. Coito,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Coast Guard Liaison Officer, Office of Ocean and Polar Affairs, Department of State. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11046 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-09-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24590"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice 10742]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Application for a U.S. Passport</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for public comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Department will accept comments from the public up to July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Web:</E>
                         Persons with access to the internet may comment on this notice by going to 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        . You can search for the document by entering “Docket Number: DOS-2019-0007” in the Search field. Then click the “Comment Now” button and complete the comment form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: PPTFormsOfficer@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Regular Mail:</E>
                         Send written comments to: PPT Forms Officer, U.S. Department of State, CA/PPT/S/PMO, 44132 Mercure Cir, P.O. Box 1199, Sterling, VA 20166-1199.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Application for a U.S. Passport.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1405-0004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of a Currently Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Originating Office:</E>
                     Bureau of Consular Affairs, Passport Services (CA/PPT).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     DS-11.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     United States Citizens and Nationals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     11,015,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     11,015,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     85 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Burden Time:</E>
                     15,604,583 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to Obtain a Benefit.
                </P>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Proposed Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    The DS-11 solicits data necessary for Passport Services to issue a United States passport (book and/or card format) pursuant to authorities granted to the Secretary of State by 22 U.S.C. 211a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and Executive Order (E.O.) 11295 (August 5, 1966) for the issuance of passports to U.S. nationals.
                </P>
                <P>The issuance of U.S. passports requires the determination of identity, nationality, and entitlement with reference to the provisions of Title III of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA) (8 U.S.C. 1401-1504), the 14th Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, other applicable treaties and laws, and implementing regulations at 22 CFR parts 50 and 51. The specific regulations pertaining to the Application for a U.S. Passport are at 22 CFR 51.20 through 51.28.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>The information collected on the DS-11 is used to facilitate the issuance of passports to U.S. citizens and nationals. The primary purpose of soliciting the information is to establish citizenship, identity, and entitlement to the issuance of a U.S. passport, and to properly administer and enforce the laws pertaining to the issuance thereof.</P>
                <P>Passport Services collects information from U.S. citizens and non-citizen nationals when they complete and submit the Application for a U.S. Passport. Passport applicants can either download the DS-11 from the internet or obtain one from an Acceptance Facility/Passport Agency. The form must be completed and executed at an acceptance facility or passport agency, and submitted with evidence of citizenship and identity.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Barry J. Conway,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Passport Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10990 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4710-06-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 10774]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Overseas Schools Advisory Council; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Overseas Schools Advisory Council, Department of State, will hold its June Committee Meeting on Wednesday, June 19, 2019, at the Melrose Hotel, 2430 Pennsylvania Ave., Clifton Room, from 1:00 p.m. until 4:00 p.m. and again on Thursday, June 20, 2019, from 9:00 a.m. until approximately 2:00 p.m. in Conference Room 1482, Department of State, 2201 C Street NW, Washington, DC. These meetings are open to the public.</P>
                <P>The Overseas Schools Advisory Council works closely with the U.S. business community on improving those American-sponsored schools overseas that are assisted by the Department of State and attended by dependents of U.S. government employees, and the children of employees of U.S. corporations and foundations abroad.</P>
                <P>These meetings will deal with issues related to the work and the support provided by the Overseas Schools Advisory Council to the American-sponsored overseas schools. There will be a report and discussion about the status of the Council-sponsored projects: Child Protection Project and Special Needs Project. Moreover, the Regional Education Officers in the Office of Overseas Schools will make presentations on the activities and initiatives in the American-sponsored overseas schools.</P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public may attend the meetings and join in the discussion, subject to the instructions of the Chair. Admittance of public members will be limited to the seating available. Access to the Department of State is controlled, and individual building passes are required for all attendees. Persons who plan to attend should advise the office of Mr. Thomas Shearer, Department of State, Office of Overseas Schools, telephone 202-261-8200, prior to June 12, 2019. Each visitor to the Department of State meeting will be asked to provide his/her date of birth and either driver's license or passport number at the time of registration and attendance, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24591"/>
                    and must carry a valid photo ID to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Personal data is requested pursuant to Public Law 99-399 (Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Antiterrorism Act of 1986), as amended; Public Law 107-56 (USA PATRIOT Act); and Executive Order 13356. The purpose of the collection is to validate the identity of individuals who enter Department facilities. The data will be entered into the Visitor Access Control System (VACS-D) database. Please see the Security Records System of Records Notice (State-36) at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.state.gov/documents/organization/242611.pdf</E>
                     for additional information.
                </P>
                <P>Any requests for reasonable accommodation should be made at the time of registration. All such requests will be considered, however, requests made after June 12 might not be possible to fill. All attendees must use the 21st Street entrance to the building for Thursday's meeting.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Thomas P Shearer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary, Overseas Schools Advisory Council, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-10995 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4710-24-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2019-0154]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of New Approval of Information Collection: Airspace Authorizations in Controlled Airspace Under 49 U.S.C. 44809(a)(5)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a new information collection. The 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the following collection of information was published on March 11, 2019 at Volume 84, pages 8778-79. The FAA received no comments during the 60-day comment period. The FAA proposes collecting information pursuant to new requirements under the U.S.C. that limited recreational operations of unmanned aircraft must now apply for airspace authorizations in controlled airspace. The FAA will use the collected information to make determinations whether to authorize or deny the requested operation of UAS in controlled airspace. The proposed information collection is necessary to issue such authorizations or denials consistent with the FAA's mandate to ensure safe and efficient use of national airspace.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be submitted by June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the Desk Officer, Department of Transportation/FAA, and sent via electronic mail to 
                        <E T="03">oira_submission@omb.eop.gov,</E>
                         or faxed to (202) 395-6974, or mailed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Casey Nair, FAA's UAS Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC) Program Manager by email at: 
                        <E T="03">casey.nair@faa.gov;</E>
                         phone: (202) 267-0369
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for FAA's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for FAA to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     This is a new collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Airspace Authorizations in Controlled Airspace under 49 U.S.C. 44809(a)(5).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     There are no FAA forms associated with this collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the following collection of information was published on March 11, 2019 (84 FR 8778). There were no comments made during the comment period. Congress recently enacted the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (the Act), which was signed into law by the President on October 5, 2018. Included within the Act is 49 U.S.C. 44809(a), which established limited recreational operations of unmanned aircraft. Limited recreational operations are those operations otherwise excepted from FAA certification and operating authority by adhering to all of the limitations listed in 49 U.S.C. 44809(a)(1) thru (8). Among the listed limitations that must be met, 49 U.S.C. 44809(a)(5) requires that these operations receive an authorization from the FAA prior to conducting any small UAS flight in Class B, Class C, Class D, or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport. This is a new requirement. Previously, only persons operating under part 107 have been required to request these authorizations pursuant to OMB Control Number 2120-0768.
                </P>
                <P>In order to process airspace authorization requests, the FAA requires the operator's name, the operator's contact information, and information related to the date, place, and time of the requested small UAS operation. This information is necessary for the FAA to meet its statutory mandate of maintaining a safe and efficient national airspace. See 49 U.S.C. 40103, 44701, and 44807. Similar to the existing process for part 107 operations, the FAA proposes to use LAANC and a web portal to process airspace authorization requests for limited recreational operations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Limited recreational operators of small unmanned aircraft seeking to conduct flights within Class B, Class C, Class D, or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport. The FAA estimates that between 2019-2021 that it will receive 1,019,964 requests for airspace authorizations or 339,988 per year. This number is a decrease from the 1,165,387 or 388,462 annual that was estimated in the 60-Day Notice due to the change in forecast of UAS growth that was published in the FAA Aerospace Forecast for Fiscal Years 2019-2039.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     The requested information will need to be provided each time a limited recreational operator respondent requests an airspace authorization to conduct a limited recreational operation of a small UAS in controlled airspace.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     5 minutes per response for members of the public using LAANC and 30 minutes per response for members of the public using the web portal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     Because the FAA has not previously collected airspace authorization requests from users under 49 U.S.C 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24592"/>
                    § 44809(a)(5), the FAA used historical data related to airspace authorization requests submitted by part 107 operators. Under part 107, the FAA has received .318 requests per UAS registered and 85.2% of those requests were made through LAANC and 14.8% of the requests were made through the web portal. Applying these ratios to 49 U.S.C. 44809 respondents, the FAA estimates that the annual burden hours on respondents will be 49,299 hours (24,139 hours for 289,669 LAANC respondents and 25,160 hours for 50,319 web portal respondents) for airspace authorizations. To determine this calculation, the FAA estimates that a respondent will require 5 minutes (or .08 hours) to complete the authorization request form using LAANC and 30 minutes (or .5 hours) using the web portal. The estimated annual burden hours decreased from the 55,224 hours published in the 60-Day Notice to 49,299 due to the change in forecast of UAS growth that was published in the FAA Aerospace Forecast for Fiscal Years 2019-2039.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on May 22, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Casey Nair,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>UAS LAANC Program Manager. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11060 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2019-0106]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Hours of Service of Drivers: Kimble Recycling &amp; Disposal, Inc.; Application for Exemption</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces that it has received an application from Kimble Recycling &amp; Disposal, Inc. (KRD) requesting an exemption from the provisions of the hours-of-service (HOS) short-haul exception. Specifically, KRD is requesting that its short-haul CMV drivers be permitted to return within 14 hours without losing their short-haul status instead of returning within 12 hours. FMCSA requests public comment on KRD's application for exemption.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System Number FMCSA-2019-0106 by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         See the 
                        <E T="03">Public Participation and Request for Comments</E>
                         section below for further information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. E.T., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number of this notice. DOT posts all comments received without change to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including personal information in a comment. Please see the 
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act</E>
                         heading below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read background documents or comments, go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or visit Room W12-140 on the ground level of the West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The on-line FDMS is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS) at 
                        <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For information concerning this notice, please contact Ms. Pearlie Robinson, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Telephone: (202) 366-4325; Email: 
                        <E T="03">MCPSD@dot.gov.</E>
                         If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2019-0106), the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide reasons for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions about your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comments online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and put the docket number, “FMCSA-2019-0106” in the “Keyword” box, and click “Search.” When the new screen appears, click on the “Submit a Formal Comment” button and type your comment into the text box in the following screen. Indicate whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit. If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period and may grant or deny this application based on your comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including any safety analyses that have been conducted. The Agency must also provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)) with the reasons for denying or granting the application and, if granted, the name of the person or class of persons receiving the exemption, and the regulatory provision from which the exemption is granted. The notice must also specify the effective period (up to 5 years) and explain the terms and conditions of the exemption. The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                    <PRTPAGE P="24593"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Request for Exemption</HD>
                <P>KRD seeks an exemption for approximately 320 drivers who operate CMVs to collect waste and recycling materials. These drivers routinely qualify for the short-haul exception in 49 CFR 395.1(e)(1); however, occasionally they cannot complete their duty day within 12 hours. KRD seeks an exemption to allow its drivers to continue to qualify for the short-haul exception up to the 14th hour after coming on duty.</P>
                <P>KRD states that ELDs delay and distract its drivers working to collect waste and recycling materials because they require excessive interaction. The exemption application states that, as a result of frequent stops to pick up trash, its drivers are required to interact with the ELD “hundreds if not thousands of times a day. KRD asserts that ELDs are not designed to accommodate operations such as theirs.</P>
                <P>KRD notes that certain CMV drivers already operate up to 14 hours without forfeiting short-haul status such as those in the ready-mixed concrete industry [49 CFR 395.1(e)(1)(ii)(B)] or the asphalt-paving business [83 FR 3864, Jan. 26, 2018]. It asserts that KRD's operations are similar to these industries because its drivers spend a significant portion of their days conducting non-driving duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Method To Ensure an Equivalent or Greater Level of Safety</HD>
                <P>KRD listed the following fatigue management programs and processes it would implement if the exemption were granted: Observation Program; Routeware DriveCam Video Event Recorder Program; and the KRD Fatigued Driver Process. Details of these plans are provided in KRD's application for exemption which is available for review in the docket for this notice. KRD is requesting a 5-year exemption</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11035 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PHMSA-2018-0026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pipeline Safety: Public Meeting on Unusually Sensitive Area Definitions and Pipeline Awareness and Engagement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces a two-part public meeting to discuss (1) amending the applicable Unusually Sensitive Areas (USA) definition for the Great Lakes, coastal beaches, and marine coastal waters and (2) public awareness and engagement. During this meeting, PHMSA will provide updates on amending the applicable USA and/or high consequences area (HCA) definitions to include the Great Lakes, coastal beaches and marine coastal waters and seek input on applicable definition options and available geospatial information system (GIS) data. In addition, PHMSA will seek input to determine the most effective methods to inform all stakeholders on their shared responsibilities in relation to pipeline safety.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public meeting will be held on June 12-13, 2019, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. ET. Both parts of the meeting will be webcast. The discussion on amending the USA and HCA definition will take place on June 12, 2019, from 8:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. ET. The discussion on public awareness and engagement will take place on June 12, 2019, from 1:30 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. ET and on June 13, 2019, from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. ET. Members of the public who wish to attend in person should register no later than May 28, 2019. Individuals requiring accommodations, such as sign language interpretation or other ancillary aids, may notify PHMSA by May 28, 2019. For additional information, see the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held at the U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building Atrium, 1200 New Jersey Ave SE, Washington, DC 20590. The agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be published on the following registration page at 
                        <E T="03">https://primis.phmsa.dot.gov/meetings/MtgHome.mtg?mtg=142</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Members of the public who wish to attend in person should register at 
                        <E T="03">https://primis.phmsa.dot.gov/meetings/MtgHome.mtg?mtg=142</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be webcast and presentations will be available on the meeting registration website and posted on the E-Gov website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         under docket number PHMSA-2017-0094 for the USA Definition meeting and docket number PHMSA-2018-0026 for the Public Awareness and Engagement meeting, within 30 days following the meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Participation:</E>
                         The meeting will be open to the public. Members of the public who attend in person will also be provided an opportunity to make a statement during the meetings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Written comments:</E>
                         Persons who wish to submit written comments on the meetings may submit them to the docket in the following ways:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">E-Gov website: https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . This site allows the public to enter comments on any 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice issued by any agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility; U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Room W12-140 on the ground level of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Identify the docket number PHMSA-2017-0094 for the USA definition meeting and docket number PHMSA-2018-0026 for the Public Awareness and Engagement meeting at the beginning of your comments. Note that all comments received will be posted without change at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        , including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Anyone can search the electronic form of all comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Therefore, consider reviewing DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         published on April 11, 2000, (65 FR 19477), or view the Privacy Notice at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        , before submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For docket access or to read background documents or comments, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         at any time or to Room W12-140 on the ground level of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9:00 a.m. and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24594"/>
                        5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>If you wish to receive confirmation of receipt of your written comments, please include a self-addressed, stamped postcard with the following statement: “Comments on PHMSA-2017-0094” for the USA definitions and/or “Comments on PHMSA-2018-0026” for public awareness and engagement. The docket clerk will date stamp the postcard prior to returning it to you via the U.S. mail.</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Privacy Act Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    DOT may solicit comments from the public regarding certain general notices. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    , as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.dot.gov/privacy</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Services for Individuals with Disabilities:</E>
                     The public meeting will be physically accessible to people with disabilities. Individuals requiring accommodations, such as sign language interpretation or other ancillary aids, are asked to notify Dr. Christie Murray at 
                    <E T="03">christie.murray@dot.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For information about the meeting, contact Dr. Christie Murray by phone at 202-366-4996 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">christie.murray@dot.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>Section 19 of the Protecting our Infrastructure of Pipelines and Enhancing Safety Act of 2016 (Pub. L. 114-183) required PHMSA to amend the USA definition to include the Great Lakes, coastal beaches and marine coastal waters. Proximity to a USA is one method to determine whether a pipeline could affect an HCA. GIS data of USAs are available by request for liquid pipeline operators. The definition of a USA is established in 49 CFR 195.6. Hazardous liquid pipelines that could affect HCA areas are subject to certain integrity management and reporting regulations. To address this mandate, PHMSA must define, identify data sources, and maintain a map of these areas in the National Pipeline Mapping System. In November 2017, PHMSA held a public meeting where stakeholders provided feedback on definition and data source options. Since then, PHMSA conducted research to determine the availability and quality of source data recommended at the November 2017 public meeting, and the level of effort to create and maintain the proposed GIS data. Additionally, PHMSA analyzed HCA data, including a July 2018 update to the Ecological USA data, to identify existing gaps and overlaps of coverage in the coastal areas of interest.</P>
                <P>PHMSA advances pipeline safety by providing oversight of public awareness safety regulations and sets the national safety outreach and engagement agenda by engaging with pipeline stakeholders to proactively determine the most effective methods to inform the public, emergency responders, excavators, land use planners and others regarding the shared responsibility of pipeline safety. Sections 192.616 and 195.440 require pipeline operators to develop and implement public awareness programs that follow the guidance provided by the American Petroleum Institute (API) Recommended Practice 1162, “Public Awareness Programs for Pipeline Operators.” Stakeholders will have an opportunity to participate in pipeline safety discussions, including federal and state regulators, trade associations, pipeline operators, the public, emergency response officials, land planners, and excavators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Meeting Details and Agenda</HD>
                <P>The meeting agenda will include briefings on topics such as amending applicable USA definitions, pipeline safety, public awareness and engagement, risk communications, API RP 1162, voluntary information sharing, risk communications, national pipeline mapping system, and more.</P>
                <P>
                    PHMSA will publish the agenda on the PHMSA meeting page at 
                    <E T="03">https://primis.phmsa.dot.gov/meetings/MtgHome.mtg?mtg=142,</E>
                     once it is finalized.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on May 22, 2019, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.97.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Alan K. Mayberry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Pipeline Safety.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11042 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-60-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PHMSA-2017-0044; Docket No. PHMSA-2017-0045; Docket No. PHMSA-2017-0046; Docket No. PHMSA-2017-0047]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pipeline Safety: Request for Special Permit; Alaska Gasline Development Corporation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>PHMSA is publishing this notice to seek public comments on four special permit requests received from the Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC). AGDC is seeking compliance relief from certain requirements in the federal pipeline safety regulations for the construction of an integrated liquefied natural gas project with interdependent facilities for transporting and liquefying supplies of natural gas in Alaska.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit any comments regarding this special permit request by July 29, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments should reference the docket number for the specific special permit request and may be submitted in the following ways:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">E-Gov website:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        . This site allows the public to enter comments on any 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice issued by any agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management System: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Docket Management System: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         At the beginning of your comments, you should identify the docket number for the special permit request you are commenting on. If you submit your comments by mail, please submit two copies. To receive confirmation that PHMSA has received your comments, please include a self-addressed stamped postcard. Internet users may submit comments at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Comments are posted including any personal information provided, without changes or edits to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        . There is a privacy statement published on 
                        <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </NOTE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General:</E>
                         Ms. Kay McIver by telephone at 202-366-0113, or email at 
                        <E T="03">kay.mciver@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Technical:</E>
                         Mr. Joshua Johnson by telephone at 816-329-3825, or email at 
                        <E T="03">Joshua.Johnson@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    AGDC plans to construct one integrated liquefied natural gas (LNG) project 
                    <PRTPAGE P="24595"/>
                    (Project) with interdependent facilities for transporting and liquefying supplies of natural gas in Alaska, from the Point Thompson Unit (PTU) and Prudhoe Bay Unit (PBU) production fields on the Alaska North Slope to the proposed LNG Liquefaction Facility located in the Kenai Peninsula of Alaska.
                </P>
                <P>The overall proposed LNG Project includes:</P>
                <P>• Approximately 807-miles of 42-inch gas pipeline (Mainline Pipeline);</P>
                <P>• A LNG liquefaction facility located in the Kenai Peninsula Borough and Cook Inlet Area of Alaska;</P>
                <P>• A gas treatment plant (GTP) with the Prudhoe Bay Unit (PBU) on the North Slope;</P>
                <P>• Approximately 63-mile gas transmission line connecting the GTP to the PTU gas production facility, and</P>
                <P>• Approximately 1-mile gas transmission line connecting GTP to the PBU gas production facility.</P>
                <P>The route of the 42-inch pipeline originates in the North Slope Borough and traverses the Yukon-Koyukuk Census Area, the Fairbanks North Star Borough, the Denali Borough, the Matanuska-Susitna Borough, the Kenai Peninsula Borough, and terminates at the LNG Liquefaction Facility. The LNG Project will offer natural gas that has been processed into LNG for export in foreign commerce and opportunities for in-state deliveries of natural gas. The maximum allowable operating pressure (MAOP) of the Mainline Pipeline will be 2,075 psi. The Mainline Pipeline is essential for the export of natural gas in foreign commerce and will have a nominal design life of 30 years.</P>
                <P>PHMSA has received four special permit requests from the AGDC seeking relief from compliance with certain Federal pipeline safety regulations. The requests apply to the following areas:</P>
                <P>(1) Strain Based Design;</P>
                <P>(2) Transmission Mainline Block Valve Spacing;</P>
                <P>(3) Crack Arrestor Spacing; and</P>
                <P>(4) Three-Layer Polyethylene Coating.</P>
                <P>
                    Each request includes technical analysis, draft special permit conditions, draft environmental assessments, and location maps (other details deemed necessary) provided by the operator and filed at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                    , under the assigned docket numbers. We invite interested persons to participate by reviewing these special permit requests and their associated draft environmental assessments and a PHMSA prepared draft special permit with conditions at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.Regulations.gov</E>
                    , and by submitting written comments, data or other views. Please include any comments on potential safety and environmental impacts that may result if these special permits are granted.
                </P>
                <P>Before issuing a decision on these special permit requests, PHMSA will evaluate all comments received on or before the 60-day comment period closing date. If it is possible to do so without incurring additional expense or delays, comments received after the closing date will be evaluated.</P>
                <P>The four special permit requests are as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs80,r50,r50,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Requester</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Regulation(s)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Nature of special permit</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PHMSA-2017-0044</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>49 CFR 192.103, 192.105, 192.317, and 192.620</ENT>
                        <ENT>To authorize AGDC to use Strain-Based Design (SBD) for the construction of discrete and specified segments of the pipeline. The proposed SBD segments would consist of a 42-inch diameter pipe with a 0.862-inch wall thickness, constructed in accordance with API 5L Grade X70 specifications. The segments are in the Yukon-Kuyokuk and Denali boroughs, are entirely within Class 1 locations, and not in any high consequence areas.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>The Project will be a new 42-inch diameter natural gas pipeline of approximately 807 miles. It will originate at the Gas Treatment Plant on the Alaska North Slope site and terminate at the LNG Liquefaction Facility in the Cook Inlet, Alaska.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>The proposed SBD segments would have a MAOP of 2,075 psi. 49 CFR 192.103 requires pipe to be designed with sufficient wall thickness, or must be installed with adequate protection, to withstand anticipated external pressures and loads that will be imposed on the pipe after installation.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PHMSA-2017-0045</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>49 CFR 192.197(a)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>To authorize AGDC to use alternatives to mainline block valve spacing of up to 50 miles in the very sparsely populated region north of Fairbanks borough in Alaska, and up to 30 miles spacing south of Fairbanks in Class 1 locations. 49 CFR 192.179(a)(4) requires a maximum Class 1 location valve spacing of 20-miles.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PHMSA-2017-0046</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>49 CFR 192.112(f)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>To authorize AGDC to use three-layer polyethylene coatings on all Mainline pipeline segments that are built to comply with alternative MAOP requirements. 49 CFR 192.112(f)(1) requires a non-shielding external pipe coating.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PHMSA-2017-0047</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>49 CFR 192.112(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>To authorize AGDC to use crack arrestor spacing of up to 1,600 feet on all Mainline pipeline segments that are built to comply with alternative MAOP pressure requirements. 49 CFR 192.112(b)(2)(iii) gives requirements for fracture arrest based upon pipe lengths. 49 CFR 192.112(b)(3) outlines alternative arrest methods.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on May 22, 2019, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.97.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Alan K. Mayberry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Pipeline Safety.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11041 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4910-60-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="24596"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Comptroller of the Currency</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Renewal; Submission for OMB Review; Domestic First Lien Residential Mortgage Data</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of an information collection as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).</P>
                    <P>In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and respondents are not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. The OCC is soliciting comment concerning the renewal of its information collection titled “Domestic First Lien Residential Mortgage Data.” The OCC also is giving notice that it has sent the collection to OMB for review.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by: June 27, 2019.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. You may submit comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: prainfo@occ.treas.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Chief Counsel's Office, Attention: 1557-0331, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                         400 7th Street SW, Suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (571) 465-4326.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         You must include “OCC” as the agency name and “1557-0331” in your comment. In general, the OCC will publish comments on 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         without change, including any business or personal information provided, such as name and address information, email addresses, or phone numbers. Comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0331, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW, #10235, Washington, DC 20503 or by email to 
                        <E T="03">oira_submission@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may review comments and other related materials that pertain to this information collection 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         following the close of the 30-day comment period for this notice by any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             On February 5, 2019 the OCC published a 60-day notice for this information collection, 84 FR 1823.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Viewing Comments Electronically: Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                         Click on the “Information Collection Review” tab. Underneath the “Currently under Review” section heading, from the drop-down menu select “Department of Treasury” and then click “submit.” This information collection can be located by searching by OMB control number “1557-0331” or “Domestic First Lien Residential Mortgage Data.” Upon finding the appropriate information collection, click on the related “ICR Reference Number.” On the next screen, select “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” and then click on the link to any comment listed at the bottom of the screen.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For assistance in navigating 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov,</E>
                         please contact the Regulatory Information Service Center at (202) 482-7340.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Viewing Comments Personally:</E>
                         You may personally inspect comments at the OCC, 400 7th Street SW, Washington, DC. For security reasons, the OCC requires that visitors make an appointment to inspect comments. You may do so by calling (202) 649-6700 or, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597. Upon arrival, visitors will be required to present valid government-issued photo identification and submit to security screening in order to inspect comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Shaquita Merritt, Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490 or, for persons who are deaf or hearing impaired, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Chief Counsel's Office, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20219.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), federal agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information that they conduct or sponsor. Collection of information is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) to include agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. The OCC asks that OMB extend its approval of this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Domestic First Lien Residential Mortgage Data.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     1557-0331.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Section 104(a) of the Helping Families Save Their Homes Act of 2009 (12 U.S.C. 1715z-25(a) (Act), as amended by section 1493(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, requires the OCC to submit a quarterly report to Congress on mortgage modification activity in the federal banking system. Section 104(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1715z-25(b)) requires the OCC to collect mortgage modification data from national banks and federal savings associations and provides for the collection of all data necessary to fulfill the reporting requirements of section 104(a). Those requirements include information on the number of mortgage modifications in each state that have certain characteristics, such as changes to the principal amount of a loan or changes to a homeowner's total monthly principal and interest payment.
                </P>
                <P>The OCC currently collects aggregate data on first-lien residential mortgage loans serviced by seven national banks with large mortgage-servicing portfolios. The required aggregate data are industry standard measures of portfolio performance, including: (1) Outstanding loan count and unpaid principal balance; (2) delinquency and liquidation ratios; and (3) the number of loss mitigation actions completed.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses or other for-profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     61.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     29,280 hours.
                </P>
                <P>On February 5, 2019, the OCC issued a notice for 60 days of comment concerning this collection, 84 FR 1823. No comments were received. Comments continue to be invited on:</P>
                <P>(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information shall have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;</P>
                <P>(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;</P>
                <P>
                    (d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
                    <PRTPAGE P="24597"/>
                </P>
                <P>(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 21, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Theodore J. Dowd,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Chief Counsel, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11051 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4810-33-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons and vessels that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons and these vessels, are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance &amp; Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel.: 202-622-4855; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel: Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Action(s)</HD>
                <P>On April 5, 2019, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons and the following vessels subject to U.S. jurisdiction are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>1. BALLITO BAY SHIPPING INCORPORATED (a.k.a. BALLITO BAY SHIPPING INC), 80 Broad Street, Monrovia, Liberia; Identification Number IMO 5804961 [VENEZUELA-EO13850].</P>
                    <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of Executive Order 13850 of November 1, 2018, “Blocking Property of Additional Persons Contributing to the Situation in Venezuela,” as amended by Executive Order 13857, “Taking Additional Steps to Address the National Emergency with Respect to Venezuela,” of January 25, 2019 (“E.O. 13850”), for operating in the oil sector of the Venezuelan economy.</P>
                    <P>2. PROPER IN MANAGEMENT INCORPORATED (a.k.a. PROPER IN MANAGEMENT INC), 2, Gounari Street, Piraeus, Athens 185 31, Greece; 2 D Gounari Street, Piraeus, Greece; Identification Number IMO 5766343 [VENEZUELA-EO13850].</P>
                    <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 13850 for operating in the oil sector of the Venezuelan economy.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Vessels</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>1. BICENTENARIO I Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9584762 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>2. BICENTENARIO II Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513323 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>3. BICENTENARIO III Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9585819 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>4. BICENTENARIO IV Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9556947 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>5. BICENTENARIO IX Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9557915 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>6. BICENTENARIO V Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9542518 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>7. BICENTENARIO VI Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9557549 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>8. BICENTENARIO VII Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9588990 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>9. BICENTENARIO VIII Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9564695 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>10. BICENTENARIO X Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9564126 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>11. BICENTENARIO XI Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513311 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>12. BICENTENARIO XII Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513282 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>
                        13. BICENTENARIO XIII Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513294 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24598"/>
                        (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).
                    </P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>14. BICENTENARIO XIV Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513270 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>15. BICENTENARIO XV Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513268 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>16. BICENTENARIO XVI Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9513309 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>17. DESPINA ANDRIANNA Crude Oil Tanker Liberia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9182667 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: BALLITO BAY SHIPPING INCORPORATED).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which BALLITO BAY SHIPPING INCORPORATED, a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>18. AMAPOLA 1 Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9717357 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>19. AMUAY Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9432658 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>20. CARIBE Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9540895 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>21. CAYAURIMA Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9688805 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>22. CUMANAGOTO Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9540883 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>23. GARDENIA Tug Panama flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9739898 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>24. GP-21 Drilling Ship Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8767953 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>25. GP-23 Drilling Ship Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8767977 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>26. JAZMIN Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9662643 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>27. L-409 Drilling Ship Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8772049 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>28. MANAURE Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9670987 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>29. MARA Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9670999 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>30. MARGARITA 1 Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9671668 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>31. PDVSA CARDON Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9432660 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>32. SABANETA Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9667813 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>33. TRIBILIN Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9693240 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>34. URDANETA Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 7912111 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                    <P>35. YORACO Tug Venezuela flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9688790 (vessel) [VENEZUELA-EO13850] (Linked To: PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A.).</P>
                    <P>Identified pursuant to E.O. 13850 as property in which PETROLEOS DE VENEZUELA, S.A., a person whose property and interested in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13850, has an interest.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: May 15, 2019.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Andrea Gacki,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-11024 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="24599"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Securities and Exchange Commission</AGENCY>
            <CFR>17 CFR Parts 210, 230, 239, et al.</CFR>
            <TITLE>Amendments to Financial Disclosures About Acquired and Disposed Businesses; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24600"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>17 CFR Parts 210, 230, 239, 240, 249, 270, and 274</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Release No. 33-10635; 34-85765; IC-33465; File No. S7-05-19]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 3235-AL77</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Amendments to Financial Disclosures About Acquired and Disposed Businesses</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Securities and Exchange Commission.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>We are proposing amendments to our rules and forms to improve the disclosure requirements for financial statements relating to acquisitions and dispositions of businesses, including real estate operations and investment companies. The proposed changes are intended to improve for investors the financial information about acquired or disposed businesses, facilitate more timely access to capital, and reduce the complexity and costs to prepare the disclosure.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <DATES>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments should be received on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                    </DATES>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                    </ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        • Use our internet comment form (
                        <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/other.shtml</E>
                        );
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Send an email to 
                        <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                         Please include File Number S7-05-19 on the subject line; or
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                    <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission,  100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                    <FP>
                        All submissions should refer to File Number S7-05-19. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help us process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method of submission. We will post all comments on our website (
                        <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/other.shtml</E>
                        ). Comments also are available for website viewing and printing in our Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
                    </FP>
                    <P>
                        We or the staff may add studies, memoranda, or other substantive items to the comment file during this rulemaking. A notification of the inclusion in the comment file of any such materials will be made available on our website. To ensure direct electronic receipt of such notifications, sign up through the “Stay Connected” option at 
                        <E T="03">www.sec.gov</E>
                         to receive notifications by email.
                    </P>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Todd E. Hardiman, Associate Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-3516, or Jessica Barberich, Associate Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-3782 or Craig Olinger, Senior Advisor to the Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-3400, or Steven G. Hearne, Senior Special Counsel at (202) 551-3430 in the Division of Corporation Finance; Jenson Wayne, Assistant Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-6918, or Mark T. Uyeda, Senior Special Counsel, at (202) 551-6792, in the Division of Investment Management, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is proposing to amend:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs52">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Commission
                                <LI>reference</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                CFR citation
                                <LI>(17 CFR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Regulation S-X:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">
                                Rules 1-01 
                                <E T="03">et seq</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                § 210.01 
                                <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 1-02(w)</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.1-02(w)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 3-05</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.3-05</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 3-06</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.3-06</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 3-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.3-14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 3-18</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.3-18</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 5-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.5-01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 6-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.6-01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 6-02</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.6-02</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 6-03</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.6-03</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Article 8:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.8-01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8-03</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.8-03</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8-04</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.8-04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8-05</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.8-05</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8-06</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.8-06</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Article 11:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 11-01</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.11-01</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 11-02</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.11-02</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 11-03</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 210.11-03</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                Securities Act of 1933 (Securities Act): 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Securities Act Rule 405</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 230.405</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 405 of Regulation S-T</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 232.405</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Form N-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 239.14 and § 274.11a-1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Form N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 239.23</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act): 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 12b-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 240.12b-2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 14a-101</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 240.14a-101</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Form 8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 249.308</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Form 10-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 249.310</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                Investment Company Act of 1940 (Investment Company Act): 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Rule 8b-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 270.8b-2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 77a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 80a-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>We also are proposing to add 17 CFR 210.6-11 (new “Rule 6-11”) to Regulation S-X.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction and Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Discussion of Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Proposed Amendments to Generally Applicable Financial Statement Requirements for Acquired Businesses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Significance Tests</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Investment Test</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Income Test</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Audited Financial Statements for Significant Acquisitions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Financial Statements for Net Assets That Constitute a Business</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Financial Statements of a Business That Includes Oil and Gas Producing Activities</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Timing and Terminology of Financial Statement Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Foreign Businesses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Definition</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Reconciliation Requirement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Proposed Amendments Relating to Rule 3-05 Financial Statements Included in Registration Statements and Proxy Statements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Omission of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for Businesses That Have Been Included in the Registrant's Financial Statements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Use of Pro Forma Financial Information To Measure Significance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Disclosure Requirements for Individually Insignificant Acquisitions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Rule 3-14—Financial Statements of Real Estate Operations Acquired or To Be Acquired</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Align Rule 3-14 With Rule 3-05</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Definition of Real Estate Operation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Significance Tests</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Interim Financial Statements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Blind Pool Real Estate Offerings</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7. Triple Net Leases</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Pro Forma Financial Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Adjustment Criteria and Presentation Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Significance and Business Dispositions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Amendments to Financial Disclosure About Acquisitions Specific to Investment Companies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Amendments to Significance Tests for Investment Companies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Investment Test</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Asset Test</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Income Test</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Proposed Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Pro Forma Financial Information and Supplemental Financial Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Amendments to Form N-14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. General Request for Comment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Economic Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Introduction</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Baseline and Affected Parties</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Potential Benefits and Costs of the Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                            1. Significance Tests
                            <PRTPAGE P="24601"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Audited Financial Statements for Significant Acquisitions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Financial Statements for Net Assets That Constitute a Business and Financial Statements of a Business That includes Oil-and-Gas-Producing Activities</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Timing and Terminology of Financial Statement Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Foreign Businesses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Omission of Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements and Related Pro Forma Financial Information for Businesses That Have Been Included in the Registrant's Financial Statements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">7. Use of Pro Forma Financial Information To Measure Significance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">8. Disclosure Requirements for Individually Insignificant Acquisitions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">9. Rule 3-14—Financial Statements of Real Estate Operations Acquired or To Be Acquired</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">10. Pro Forma Financial Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">11. Significance and Business Dispositions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">12. Smaller Reporting Companies and Regulation A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">13. Amendments to Financial Disclosure About Acquisitions Specific to Investment Companies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. The Effects on Efficiency, Competition, and Capital Formation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Alternatives Considered</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Approaches to the Significance Tests</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Approaches to Proposed Financial Statement Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Approaches to Proposed Pro Forma Adjustments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Alternatives to the Proposed Income Test for Investment Companies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Summary of the Collection of Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Proposed Amendments' Effect on Existing Collections of Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Estimated Effects of the Proposed Amendments on Paperwork Burdens for Registrants Other Than Investment Companies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Proposed Amendments to Rules 3-05 and 3-14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Proposed Amendments to Pro Forma Financial Information Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Estimated Effects of the Proposed Amendments on Paperwork Burdens for Investment Company Registrants</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Aggregate Burden and Cost Estimates for the Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Reasons for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Legal Basis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Small Entities Subject to the Proposed Rules</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Significant Alternatives</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Statutory Authority</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction and Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing changes to the requirements for financial statements relating to acquisitions and dispositions of businesses, including real estate operations, in Rule 3-05,
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                          
                        <E T="03">Financial Statements of Businesses Acquired or to be Acquired,</E>
                         Rule 3-14, 
                        <E T="03">Special Instructions for Real Estate Operations to be Acquired,</E>
                         Article 11, 
                        <E T="03">Pro Forma Financial Information</E>
                         of Regulation S-X and other related rules and forms.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We are also proposing new Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X and amendments to Form N-14 to specifically govern financial reporting for acquisitions involving investment companies. The proposed amendments are intended to improve for investors the financial information about acquired or disposed businesses, facilitate more timely access to capital, and reduce the complexity and costs to prepare the disclosure.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             Unless otherwise noted, references in this release to “Rule” or “Rules” are to the rules under Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             We are also proposing related amendments in Regulation S-X to the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in Rule 1-02(w); Rule 3-06, 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements covering a period of nine to twelve months;</E>
                             and Article 8, 
                            <E T="03">Smaller Reporting Companies.</E>
                             In addition, we are proposing amendments to Form 8-K for current reports, Form 10-K for annual and transition reports, and the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in Rule 12b-2 under the Exchange Act, Rule 405 under the Securities Act, and Rule 8b-2 under the Investment Company Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             The proposed amendments would not apply to financial statements related to the acquisition of a business that is the subject of a proxy statement or registration statement on Form S-4 (17 CFR 239.25) or Form F-4 (17 CFR 239.34), but would apply to pro forma information provided pursuant to Article 11 and financial information for acquisitions and dispositions otherwise required to be disclosed pursuant to Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14. These amendments also would not affect the requirements in 17 CFR 210.3-02 (“Rule 3-02”) or 17 CFR 210.8-01 relating to predecessor companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This proposal results from an ongoing, comprehensive evaluation of our disclosure requirements.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of this evaluation, in September 2015, the Commission issued a 
                        <E T="03">Request for Comment on the Effectiveness of Financial Disclosures About Entities Other Than the Registrant</E>
                         (“2015 Request for Comment”).
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The 2015 Request for Comment sought feedback on, among other things, the financial disclosure requirements in Regulation S-X for certain entities other than the registrant. More specifically, the Commission solicited comment on how investors use the disclosures required by these rules to make investment decisions, the challenges that registrants and others face in providing the required disclosures, and potential changes to these requirements that could enhance the information provided to investors and promote efficiency, competition, and capital formation. We received approximately 50 comment letters discussing Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, Article 8, and Article 11 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and these comments were considered carefully in developing these proposals.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             The staff, under its Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative, is reviewing the disclosure requirements in Regulation S-X and 17 CFR 229.10 through 1208 (“Regulation S-K”) and is considering ways to improve the disclosure regime for the benefit of both companies and investors. The goal is to comprehensively review the requirements and make recommendations on how to update them to facilitate timely, material disclosure by companies and shareholders' access to that information. 
                            <E T="03">See https://www.sec.gov/spotlight/disclosure-effectiveness.shtml.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Request for Comment on the Effectiveness of Financial Disclosures About Entities Other Than the Registrant,</E>
                             Release No. 33-9929 (Sept. 25, 2015) [80 FR 59083 (Oct. 1, 2015)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Comments that we received in response to the 2015 Request for Comment are available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/s7-20-15/s72015.shtml.</E>
                             References to comment letters in this release refer to the comments on the 2015 Request for Comment unless otherwise specified.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        When a registrant acquires a business 
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         other than a real estate operation, Rule 3-05 of Regulation S-X generally requires a registrant to provide separate audited annual and unaudited interim pre-acquisition financial statements of the business if it is significant to the registrant (“Rule 3-05 Financial Statements”). Recognizing that certain acquisitions have a greater impact on a registrant than others, the Commission adopted Rule 3-05 to address the reporting requirements for businesses acquired or to be acquired based on the significant subsidiary definition in Rule 1-02(w) using a sliding scale approach.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rule 3-05 also applies to registrants that are registered investment companies and business development companies. The Commission later adopted Rule 8-04, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24602"/>
                        <E T="03">Financial Statements of Businesses Acquired or to be Acquired,</E>
                         in order to provide comparable requirements for smaller reporting companies.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             Rule 3-05 requires disclosure if the “business combination has occurred or is probable.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.3-05(a). Registrants determine whether a “business” has been acquired by applying Rule 11-01(d) of Regulation S-X. The definition of “business” in Regulation S-X focuses primarily on whether the nature of the revenue-producing activity of the acquired business will remain generally the same as before the transaction. This determination is separate and distinct from a determination made under the applicable accounting standards. Because the definitions serve different purposes, we have not proposed to conform our rules with the applicable accounting standards.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Instructions for the Presentation and Preparation of Pro Forma Financial Information and Requirements for Financial Statements of Businesses Acquired or To Be Acquired,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6413 (Jun. 24, 1982) [47 FR 29832 (Jul. 9, 1982)] (“Rule 3-05 Adopting Release”). The requirements are based on the significant subsidiary tests using a sliding scale so that the requirements for filing such financial statements as well as the periods covered by such financial statements will vary with the percentage impact of the acquisition on the registrant. In adopting the sliding scale approach, the Commission stated its belief that the selected percentages “meet the objectives of providing adequate financial information to investors, shareholders and other users while at the same time reducing the reporting burdens of registrants involved in acquisitions.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Smaller Reporting Company Regulatory Relief and Simplification,</E>
                             Release No. 33-8876 (Dec. 19, 2007) [73 FR 934 (Jan. 4, 2008)] (“SRC Relief Adopting Release”). For financial disclosure requirements, the SRC Relief Adopting Release predominantly effectuated a relocation of the requirements in 17 CFR 228, Regulation S-B, into Regulation S-K and Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Whether an acquisition is significant under Rule 3-05 is determined by applying the investment, asset, and income tests provided in the “significant subsidiary” definition in Rule 1-02(w).
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These tests generally can be described as follows:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Rule 3-05 provides for use of a 20% significance threshold, rather than the 10% threshold indicated in Rule 1-02(w). The Commission raised the threshold in Rule 3-05 from 10% to 20% in 1996 in order to reduce compliance burdens in response to concerns that the requirement to obtain audited financial statements for a business acquisition may have caused companies to forgo public offerings in favor of private or offshore offerings. 
                            <E T="03">See Streamlining Disclosure Requirements Relating to Significant Business Acquisitions,</E>
                             Release No. 33-7355 (Oct. 10, 1996) [61 FR 54509 (Oct. 18, 1996)] (“1996 Streamlining Release”). As a result of this amendment, the significance thresholds in Rule 3-05 diverged from those used for Rule 3-14 and for dispositions at that time.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• “Investment Test”—the investment in and advances to the acquired business are compared to the total assets of a registrant reflected in its most recent annual financial statements required to be filed at or prior to the acquisition date;</P>
                    <P>• “Asset Test”—a registrant's proportionate share of the acquired business's total assets reflected in the business's most recent annual pre-acquisition financial statements is compared to the total assets of the registrant reflected in its most recent annual financial statements required to be filed at or prior to the acquisition date; and</P>
                    <P>• “Income Test”—a registrant's equity in the income from continuing operations of the acquired business before income taxes, exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests, as reflected in the business's most recent annual pre-acquisition financial statements, is compared to the same measure of the registrant reflected in its most recent annual financial statements required to be filed at or prior to the acquisition date.</P>
                    <P>
                        If none of the Rule 3-05 significance tests exceeds 20%, a registrant is not required to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If any of the Rule 3-05 significance tests exceeds 20%, but none exceeds 40%, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required for the most recent fiscal year and any required interim periods. If any Rule 3-05 significance test exceeds 40%, but none exceeds 50%, a second fiscal year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements is required. When at least one Rule 3-05 significance test exceeds 50%, a third fiscal year 
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements is required unless net revenues of the acquired business were less than $100 million in its most recent fiscal year.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are not required once the operating results of the acquired business have been reflected in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year, unless the financial statements have not been previously filed or the acquisition is of major significance.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An acquisition is considered to be of major significance when the acquired business is of such significance to the registrant that omission of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements would materially impair an investor's ability to understand the historical financial results of the registrant; for example, if, at the date of acquisition, the acquired business met at least one of the conditions in the significance tests at the 80% level.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Rule 3-05 contains an additional requirement for certain registration statements and proxy statements related to the aggregate effect of individually insignificant businesses, which may trigger a requirement for Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for a business for which none of the significance tests exceed 20%. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             further discussion at note 118 below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             A smaller reporting company is subject to similar requirements under Rule 8-04 of Regulation S-X, but financial statements are only required for up to two fiscal years.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.3-05(b)(2). The revenue threshold to this exception is based on the “smaller reporting company” definition. The threshold was recently increased from $50 million to $100 million as part of amendments to the “smaller reporting company” definition. 
                            <E T="03">See Amendments to Smaller Reporting Company Definition,</E>
                             Release No. 33-10513 (June 28, 2018) [83 FR 31992 (July 10, 2018)] (“2018 SRC Amendments”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.3-05(b)(4)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under Rule 3-14, a registrant that has acquired (and in the case of certain registration statements and proxy statements, proposes to acquire) a significant real estate operation similarly must file financial statements with respect to such operations; however, the required financial statements only include separate audited annual and unaudited interim abbreviated income statements (“Rule 3-14 Financial Statements”).
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While Rule 3-14 refers to real estate acquisitions that are “significant,” it does not refer specifically to the conditions in the definition of “significant subsidiary” in Rule 1-02(w).
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, Rule 3-14 generally only requires one year of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-14. Rule 3-14 was adopted as part of the Commission's effort to establish a centralized set of instructions in Regulation S-X and is based on the disclosure requirements in Item 6(b) for Form S-11 (17 CFR 239.18) as adopted in 1961. 
                            <E T="03">See Uniform Instructions as to Financial Statements—Regulation S-X,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6234 (Sept. 2, 1980) [45 FR 63682 (Sept. 25, 1980)]. Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are abbreviated because the rule requires that they exclude historical items that are not comparable to the proposed future operations of the real estate operation such as mortgage interest, leasehold rental, depreciation, corporate expenses, and federal and state income taxes. While Rule 3-14 does not require interim financial information, in practice registrants relying on Rule 3-14 also provide unaudited interim pre-acquisition income statements for the most recent year-to-date interim period because they are substantially required in most circumstances by Article 11 of Regulation S-X to provide pro forma information for the most recent year-to-date interim period. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section II.D. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             Neither “significant property” nor “significant real estate operation” is defined in Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-14(a)(1). Only one year of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements is required if the real estate operation is not acquired from a related party, the registrant discloses the material factors considered in assessing the real estate operation, and the registrant indicates it is not aware of material factors that would cause the reported financial information not to be indicative of future operating results. If the registrant does not meet these conditions, three years of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are required. A smaller reporting company is subject to similar requirements under Rule 8-06 of Regulation S-X, but financial statements are only required for up to two fiscal years for acquisitions from related parties, instead of three years.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Registrants required to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are additionally required to file unaudited pro forma financial information as prescribed by Article 11 of Regulation S-X.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pro forma financial information typically includes a pro forma balance sheet as of the end of the most recent period for which a consolidated balance sheet of the registrant is required and pro forma income statements for the registrant's most recent fiscal year and for the period from the most recent fiscal year end to the most recent interim date for which a balance sheet is required. The pro forma financial information is based on the historical financial statements of the registrant and the acquired or disposed business, and generally includes adjustments intended to show how the acquisition or disposition might have affected those financial 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24603"/>
                        statements had the transaction occurred at an earlier time.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             See Rules 11-01 and 11-02. A smaller reporting company provides the pro forma financial information described in Rule 8-05 of Regulation S-X. Although the preliminary notes to Article 8 indicate that smaller reporting companies may wish to consider the enhanced guidelines in Article 11, smaller reporting companies are not required to comply with these items.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Form 8-K generally requires registrants to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, Rule 3-14 Financial Statements, and related pro forma financial information within 75 days after consummation of the acquisition.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A similar 75-day filing period exists in registration statements and proxy statements for acquired or to be acquired businesses requiring Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, but not for acquired or to be acquired businesses requiring Rule 3-14 Financial Statements.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             Item 2.01 of Form 8-K requires that registrants make certain disclosures upon the acquisition or disposition of a significant amount of assets, including assets that constitute a business, within four business days of the consummation of the transaction. It does not require reporting for probable acquisitions or dispositions. Item 9.01 of Form 8-K provides that the required financial statements and pro forma financial information for the acquired business (including a real estate operation) may be filed not later than 71 calendar days after the initial report on Form 8-K is required to be filed, providing approximately 75 calendar days to file the acquired business financial statements and related pro forma financial information. A registrant may need to update the periods presented in Form 8-K in certain subsequently filed registration statements and proxy statements. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.3-12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(4) and Rule 11-01(c) provide that registration statements not subject to the provisions of 17 CFR 230.419 and proxy statements need not include separate financial statements of the acquired or to be acquired business and related pro forma financial information if the business does not exceed any of the conditions of significance in the definition of “significant subsidiary” in Rule 1-02(w) at the 50% level, and either (A) the consummation of the acquisition has not yet occurred; or (B) the date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement relating to an offering as filed with the Commission pursuant to 17 CFR 230.424(b) or the mailing date in the case of a proxy statement, is no more than 74 days after consummation of the business combination, and the financial statements have not previously been filed by the registrant. A similar provision applies to smaller reporting companies, but it is linked to the effective date of the registration statement instead of the date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 8-04(c)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, certain registration statements 
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and proxy statements require audited financial statements and unaudited pro forma financial information for the substantial majority of individually insignificant consummated and probable acquisitions since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet if a significance test exceeds 50% for any combination of acquisitions subject to Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Also, Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are required when the registrant has acquired or proposes to acquire a group of properties which in the aggregate are significant.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             This additional requirement does not apply to all registration statements, such as registration statements filed on Form S-8 (17 CFR 239.16b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(2)(i). Smaller reporting companies provide the same disclosure under Rule 8-04(c)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-14(a) and, for smaller reporting companies, Rule 8-06.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion of Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing changes to the requirements in Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, and Article 11 of Regulation S-X and related rules and forms to improve the financial disclosure requirements about significant business acquisitions and dispositions.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed amendments would generally:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             As discussed in Section II.D.2., 
                            <E T="03">infra,</E>
                             Rule 11-01(a)(4) requires registrants to provide pro forma financial information upon the disposition or probable disposition of a significant portion of a business. Rule 11-01(b)(2) requires significance of a disposition to be determined by applying the definition of a significant subsidiary under Rule 1-02(w). Throughout this release, we discuss how the proposed amendments to the definition of significant subsidiary would impact disclosures for business dispositions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Update the significance tests under these rules by:</P>
                    <P>○ Revising the Investment Test and the Income Test;</P>
                    <P>○ expanding the use of pro forma financial information in measuring significance; and</P>
                    <P>○ conforming the significance threshold and tests for a disposed business;</P>
                    <P>• require the financial statements of the acquired business to cover up to the two most recent fiscal years rather than up to the three most recent fiscal years;</P>
                    <P>• permit disclosure of financial statements that omit certain expenses for certain acquisitions of a component of an entity;</P>
                    <P>• clarify when financial statements and pro forma financial information are required and update the language used in our rules;</P>
                    <P>• permit the use of, or reconciliation to, International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (“IFRS-IASB”) in certain circumstances;</P>
                    <P>• no longer require separate acquired business financial statements once the business has been included in the registrant's post-acquisition financial statements for a complete fiscal year;</P>
                    <P>• modify and enhance the required disclosure for the aggregate effect of acquisitions for which financial statements are not required or are not yet required;</P>
                    <P>• align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 where no unique industry considerations exist;</P>
                    <P>• clarify the application of Rule 3-14 regarding the determination of significance, the need for interim income statements, special provisions for blind pool offerings, and the scope of the rule's requirements;</P>
                    <P>• amend the pro forma financial information requirements to improve the content and relevance of such information; and</P>
                    <P>• make corresponding changes to the smaller reporting company requirements in Article 8 of Regulation S-X.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, we are proposing regulatory requirements specific to investment companies registered under the Investment Company Act and business development companies 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (collectively, “investment companies”) to address the unique attributes of this group of registrants as discussed in more detail in Section II.E. below.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             “Business development company” is defined in Section 2(a)(48) of the Investment Company Act, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(48).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposed Amendments to Generally Applicable Financial Statement Requirements for Acquired Businesses</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing amendments to the requirements in Rule 3-05 and related requirements in Rule 1-02(w), as described below.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             In addition to the proposed changes to the significance tests, we are proposing clarifying amendments to the definition of “significant subsidiary” to label the conditions as the Investment Test, the Asset Test, and the Income Test.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Significance Tests</HD>
                    <P>
                        We propose to revise the significance tests provided in Rule 1-02(w) 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to improve their application and to assist registrants in making more meaningful significance determinations. Specifically, we propose to revise the Investment Test and the Income Test.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, for investment companies, we are proposing amendments to each of the Investment Test, Asset Test, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24604"/>
                        Income Test as described in Section II.E.1 below.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             The term “significant subsidiary” is also defined in Securities Act Rule 405, Exchange Act Rule 12b-2, and Investment Company Act Rule 8b-2. The Rule 405 and Rule 12b-2 definitions historically have been generally consistent with the Rule 1-02(w) definition. Accordingly, we are proposing to conform the definitions of significant subsidiary in Rule 405 and Rule 12b-2 to the proposed definition in Rule 1-02(w). However, as under the existing rules, the proposed amendments to Rule 1-02(w) that are only applicable to disclosure requirements under Regulation S-X, specifically proposed Rule 1-02(w)(1)(iii)(b)(3), would continue to be excluded from the proposed definitions in Rule 405 or Rule 12b-2. Unlike the other definitions, the definition in Rule 8b-2 has differed from the Rule 1-02(w) definition. We are proposing to conform the Rule 8b-2 definition of “significant subsidiary” to the proposed definition in Rule 1-02(w)(2) that is specifically tailored for investment companies. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section II.E below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             We are not proposing to substantively revise the Asset Test; however, we are proposing a number of non-substantive revisions to the significance tests generally, such as clarifying that the significance tests compare the “tested” subsidiary's amounts to the registrant's.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We note that, in addition to Rule 3-05, several of our other rules and forms require disclosure related to “significant subsidiaries” or otherwise rely on the significance tests in Rule 1-02(w) to determine the disclosure required.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe it is appropriate to apply consistent significance tests for each of these purposes. The proposed amendments are intended to reflect more accurately the relative significance to the registrant of the acquired business and to reduce anomalous results in the application of the definition of “significant subsidiary.” In addition, maintaining the historical conformity between the “significant subsidiary” definitions would avoid unnecessary regulatory complexity through consistent application of significance determinations made at the acquisition date and those made post-acquisition when the acquired business is a subsidiary of the registrant.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             17 CFR 210.9-03, which requires bank holding companies and banks to reflect on their balance sheets certain loans and indebtedness of their significant subsidiaries as defined in Rule 1-02(w); 17 CFR 210.3-09, 17 CFR 210.4-08(g), and Item 17(c)(2) of 17 CFR 249.220f (“Form 20-F”), which rely on the significance tests in Rule 1-02(w) to determine the financial statements and summarized financial information required for the registrant's equity method investees; 17 CFR 229.601(b)(21) and Instruction 8 as to Exhibits of Form 20-F, which both rely on Rule1-02(w) to determine the subsidiaries that must be included in the list of subsidiaries required as an exhibit; Item 17(b)(6)(3) of Form F-4, which relies on the significance tests in Rule 1-02(w) to determine the financial statements required for foreign companies being acquired that do not meet the requirements to use 17 CFR 239.34 (“Form F-3”); Item 4.C of Form 20-F, which requires a detailed list of the registrant's significant subsidiaries; 17 CFR 229.304(a)(1) and (2), Item 9(d) of 17 CFR 240.14a-101 (“Schedule 14A”), Item 4.01 of Form 8-K, Item 4 of 17 CFR 239.93 (“Form 1-U”), and Item 16F of Form 20-F, which require disclosure about changes in the auditors of the registrant (or issuer, as applicable) or its significant subsidiaries; Item 3 of 17 CFR 249.308a (“Form 10-Q”) and Item 13 of Form 20-F, which require disclosure about defaults of the registrant and its significant subsidiaries and material arrearages/delinquencies in the payment of dividends on preferred stock of the registrant or any of its significant subsidiaries; 17 CFR 229.101(a)(1), which requires certain disclosures, such as year and form of organization, bankruptcy, and others, for the registrant and any of its significant subsidiaries; 17 CFR 229.103, which requires disclosure of certain legal proceedings, including bankruptcy and similar proceedings, for the registrant and any of its significant subsidiaries; and Item 4.A.4 of Form 20-F, which requires general disclosure about the development of and structural changes in the business of the registrant and its significant subsidiaries. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Rule 11-01(b) and Proposed Rule 11-01(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Investment Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the Investment Test compares the registrant's investment in and advances to the acquired business to the carrying value of the registrant's total assets. We propose to revise the Investment Test to compare the registrant's investment in and advances to the acquired business to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity (“aggregate worldwide market value”), when available.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the registrant does not have an aggregate worldwide market value, we propose to retain the existing test.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             The value under the proposed rule differs from the value currently used by registrants to determine accelerated filer status under Rule 12b-2 because it includes the value of common equity held by affiliates and it is determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year. By contrast, Rule 12b-2 looks to the value of common equity held by non-affiliates and is determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed second fiscal quarter. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 12b-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We believe that using the registrant's aggregate worldwide market value would align the Investment Test more closely with the economic significance of the acquisition to the registrant. While the purchase price for a recent or probable acquisition is generally consistent with the fair value of the underlying business, the measure against which the purchase price is compared under the current test (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         total assets) may not fully reflect the registrant's current fair value.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, commenters supported revising the Investment Test to use a measure of the registrant's fair value instead of its total assets.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While commenters recommended various methods of determining fair value, we are proposing aggregate worldwide market value because it is readily available and objectively determined by the market.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             For example, the Investment Test uses the carrying value of a registrant's total assets as of the most recent balance sheet date, which represents a combination of fair value for certain assets (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             financial instruments) and historical cost for other assets (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             property, plant and equipment and intangible assets). The test further excludes the value of certain assets not permitted to be recognized (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             certain internally developed intangible assets) and is not reduced by the value of liabilities.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from the American Bar Association (Nov. 14, 2014) (“ABA”), BDO USA, LLP (Dec. 7, 2015) (“BDO”), Center for Audit Quality (Nov. 25, 2015) (“CAQ”), CFA Institute (Mar. 2, 2016) (“CFA”), Davis Polk &amp; Wardwell LLP (Nov. 30, 2015) (“Davis Polk”) Polk, Deloitte &amp; Touche LLP (Nov. 23, 2015) (“DT”), Ernst &amp; Young LLP (Nov. 20, 2015) (“EY”), Grant Thornton LLP (Dec. 1, 2015) (“Grant”), KPMG LLP (Nov. 30, 2015) (“KPMG”), and PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP (Nov. 30, 2015) (“PwC”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In order to further improve the Investment Test, we propose to address when the registrant's aggregate worldwide market value shall be determined, 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provide further instructions on a registrant's “investments in” the tested subsidiary 
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for acquisitions and dispositions,
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and clarify the applicability of the test to combinations between entities under common control.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These proposed amendments 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24605"/>
                        would address certain practical questions 
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that may arise when applying the proposed Investment Test and should therefore simplify compliance by registrants.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             We propose Paragraph (w)(1)(i)(A) to provide that aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity shall be determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year, which for acquisitions and dispositions shall be at or prior to the date of acquisition or disposition.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             Rule 1-02(w) defines the term “significant subsidiary.” Rules 3-05 and 3-14 use the conditions in Rule 1-02(w) when establishing the test for registrants to determine whether financial statements are required for businesses acquired or to be acquired. While we recognize that acquired businesses are often not subsidiaries, we use the term “tested subsidiary” throughout this release, rather than “tested business” or another term, to avoid confusion when using the conditions in Rule 1-02(w) in connection with the determination in Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             We propose Paragraph (w)(1)(i)(C) to require that the “investment in” the tested subsidiary in an acquisition include the fair value of contingent consideration required to be recognized at fair value by the registrant at the acquisition date under U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable. If recognition at fair value is not required, the proposed amendment would require all contingent consideration to be included, except sales-based milestones and royalties, unless the likelihood of payment is remote. The “investment in” the tested subsidiary also would exclude the registrant's proportionate interest in the carrying value of assets transferred by the registrant to the tested subsidiary that will remain with the combined entity after the acquisition because we believe this would provide a more accurate measure of the tested subsidiary's relative significance. We believe our proposal is consistent with FASB standard setting for business combinations that clarified that for acquisition accounting the consideration transferred should exclude such amounts. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC 805-30-30-8. For similar reasons, we also propose providing in Paragraph (w)(1)(i)(D) that the “investment in” the tested subsidiary in a disposition equal the fair value of the consideration, which would include contingent consideration, for the disposed subsidiary when comparing it to the registrant's aggregate worldwide market value or the carrying value of the disposed subsidiary when comparing it to the registrant's total assets.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             Rule 1-02(w)(1) provides that for a proposed combination between entities under common control, when the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged exceeds 10% of the registrant's common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated, the Investment Test for significance is met. We are proposing Rule 1-02(w)(1)(i)(B) to similarly provide that the Investment Test would be met when either net book value of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10% of the registrants' and its subsidiaries consolidated total assets or the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged by the registrant exceeds 10% of its total common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated. The addition of net book value to the test as proposed recognizes that such combinations may be effected by transferring net assets, rather than exchanging shares, and that the resulting accounting by the registrant typically recognizes the combination using the parent's historical carrying value of the transferred entity or business. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FASB ASC 805-50. We also propose to add a reference to “businesses” in Rule 1-02(w) such that the resulting phrasing is “combinations between entities or businesses under common control” for circumstances where the significant subsidiary definition is referenced by 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            rules establishing requirements for acquired businesses.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             Commission staff has provided informal guidance to address practical questions. For example, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             U.S. Sec. &amp; Exch. Comm'n., Division of Corporation Finance's Financial Reporting Manual, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/divisions/corpfin/cffinancialreportingmanual.pdf</E>
                             (last updated Dec. 1, 2017) (“FRM”). The FRM sets forth the informal guidance of the staff in the Division of Corporation Finance related to various financial reporting matters. The FRM is not a rule, regulation, or statement of the Commission.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Sections 2015.5 “
                            <E T="03">Investment Test—Acquisition Accounting”</E>
                             and 2015.7 “
                            <E T="03">Investment Test—Reorganization of Entities Under Common Control.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Income Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the Income Test focuses on a single component, net income,
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which can include infrequent expenses, gains or losses that can distort the determination of relative significance. For registrants with marginal or break-even net income or loss in a recent fiscal year, the use of a net income component by itself can also have the effect of requiring financial statements for acquisitions that otherwise would not be considered material to investors. In these circumstances comparatively small entities may trigger the requirement for Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, which can be costly to prepare. Commission staff regularly receives and grants under delegated authority requests for relief in these circumstances where the disclosure of these acquisitions would not be material to investors.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A number of commenters expressed concern with the existing Income Test, with many of these commenters recommending replacing or supplementing the net income test with a revenue component.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Specifically, the current Income Test uses income from continuing operations before income taxes. Prior to 1981, the “significant subsidiary” definition included a revenue test. The Commission eliminated the revenue test in favor of the net income test noting in part that “. . . the presentation of additional financial disclosures of an affiliated entity may not be meaningful if the affiliate has a high sales volume but a relatively low profit margin” and observing that in such circumstances, the affiliate has little financial effect on the operating results of the consolidated group. 
                            <E T="03">See Separate Financial Statements Required by Regulation S-X,</E>
                             Rels. No. 33-6359 (Nov. 6, 1981)[46 FR 56171 (Nov. 16, 1981)]. For these reasons, we believe it is important to retain a net income component as part of the Income Test rather than rely exclusively on a revenue component.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             Pursuant to 17 CFR 210.3-13 (“Rule 3-13”) of Regulation S-X, the Commission may, upon the request of the registrant, and where consistent with the protection of investors, permit the omission of one or more required financial statements or the filing in substitution therefor of appropriate statements of comparable character. The Commission has delegated authority to the staff in the Division of Corporation Finance to grant requests for relief under Rule 3-13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from ABA, CAQ, U.S. Chamber of Commerce (Nov. 30, 2015), Davis Polk, EY, and PWC. Two commenters specifically recommended supplementing the Income Test with a revenue component. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letters from CFA and KPMG.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose to revise the Income Test by adding a new revenue component 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and to simplify the calculation of the net income component by using income or loss from continuing operations 
                        <E T="03">after</E>
                         income taxes. We expect adding a revenue component would reduce the anomalous results that may occur by relying solely on net income.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that this change, along with simplifying these calculations, would reduce complexity and preparation costs without sacrificing material information that investors may need to evaluate these transactions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             The proposed revenue component would compare the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the tested subsidiary's consolidated total revenues (after intercompany elimination) to such consolidated total revenues for the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             We believe that revenue is an important indicator of the operations of a business and generally has less variability than net income. For example, expenses related to historical capitalization (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             interest expense) as well as infrequent expenses, such as those for litigation or impairment, can affect net income and the existing Income Test. That impact may be to either deem as insignificant an acquired business that is expected to have material future impact on the registrant or deem as significant an acquired business that is not expected to have a material future impact on the registrant. The potential for these effects suggests that the Income Test should be revised to include an income statement metric that is less subject to such effects. Because not all registrants report metrics such as “profit margin” and “operating income,” and these metrics could also have similar potential variability, we believe “revenue” is a more appropriate indicator. Consistent with the Commission's past observations about a revenue test that is not linked to net income (
                            <E T="03">see supra</E>
                             note 42), we propose to retain net income and add a revenue component when both the registrant and tested subsidiary have recurring annual revenues.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed amendments, the Income Test would require that, where the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated and the tested subsidiary have recurring annual revenue, the tested subsidiary must meet both the new revenue component and the net income component. In this case, the registrant would use the lower of the revenue component and the net income component to determine the number of periods for which Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Where a registrant or tested subsidiary does not have recurring annual revenues, the revenue component is less likely to produce a meaningful assessment and therefore only the net income component would apply. To reduce anomalous results in these circumstances, we also propose revising the Income Test to use the average of the absolute value of net income when the existing 10% threshold in Computational Note 2 to Rule 1-02(w) 
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         is met and the proposed revenue component of the Income Test does not apply.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(2) of Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Computational Note 2 to Rule 1-02(w) of Regulation S-X. Average income should be substituted for purposes of the computation if income of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10% lower than the average of the income for the last five fiscal years. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 1-02(w)(1)(iii)(B)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>By revising the Income Test to require that the registrant exceed both revenue and net income components when the registrant and the tested subsidiary have recurring annual revenue, we believe the test would more accurately determine whether a business is significant to the registrant and would reduce the frequency of the anomalous result of immaterial acquisitions being deemed significant.</P>
                    <P>
                        We also propose to revise the net income component calculation so that it is based on income or loss from continuing operations 
                        <E T="03">after</E>
                         income taxes. Income tax is a recurring and often material line item. Further, the current calculation, which is based on income from continuing operations 
                        <E T="03">before</E>
                         income taxes, may require additional calculations for components of net income that are presented on a post-tax basis 
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         with the result that a registrant may not be able to use amounts directly from the financial statements. Instead, the proposed amendments refer to income or loss from continuing operations after income taxes, which would permit a registrant to use line item disclosure from its financial statements, simplifying the determination.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We are also proposing to clarify the net income component by inserting a reference to the 
                        <E T="03">absolute value</E>
                         of equity in the tested subsidiary's consolidated income or loss from continuing operations, which we believe will mitigate the potential for misinterpretation that may result from inclusion of a negative amount in the computation.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We propose to calculate net income and average net income using absolute values. For net income, we believe this would serve to clarify that the test applies when a net loss 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24606"/>
                        exists, and is to be used when either the tested subsidiary or the registrant, but not both, has a net loss. For average income, our proposal differs from current staff interpretation, which indicates that “zero” should be used for loss years in computing the average.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe calculating average net income using the absolute value of the loss or income amounts for each year and then calculating the average would make the average income test more indicative of relative significance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             17 CFR 210.5-03(b)12 (“Rule 5-03(b)12”). Rule 5-03(b)12, 
                            <E T="03">Equity in Earnings of Unconsolidated Subsidiaries and 50 Percent or Less Owned Persons,</E>
                             provides for a component of net income from continuing operations to be presented net of tax.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 1-02(w)(1)(iii)(B)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             See FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2015.8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, proposed Rules 3-05(b)(3) and 11-01(b)(3) will also clarify that the Income Test may be determined using the acquired business's revenues less the expenses permitted to be omitted by proposed Rules 3-05(e) and 3-05(f) if the business meets the conditions in those proposed rules.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, we are proposing additional non-substantive amendments to the net income component that we believe will simplify the description and application of the test.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             discussion relating to Rule 3-05(e) in Section II.A.3 and Rule 3-05(f) in Section II.A.4. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Specifically, we are proposing to replace the phrase “exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests” in the net income component with the phrase “attributable to the controlling interests.” We are also proposing to revise Rule 1-02(w) to remove the Computational Note designation but retain the substance of the notes in the rule and make conforming amendments consistent with the proposed amendments to the revised Income Test. Additionally, Paragraph (w)(1)(iii)(B)(3) would clarify that the rule is not intended to modify the existing Rule 3-05(a)(3) requirement that acquisitions of a group of related businesses shall be treated as if they are a single acquisition. Finally, we are incorporating the Note to Paragraph (w) into Paragraph (w).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>1. We are proposing to revise the significance tests to improve their application and assist registrants in making more meaningful significance determinations. Are the proposed revisions appropriate? Are there additional revisions we should consider to further improve the significance tests?</P>
                    <P>2. We are proposing to revise the Investment Test to use aggregate worldwide market value to reflect the size of the acquirer while retaining investment in and advances to the acquired business to reflect the size of the acquired business. Are these measures sufficiently comparable? Are there particular types of transactions for which these measures would lead to a less-informative indicator of significance? Does our proposed use of aggregate worldwide market value in the Investment Test more closely reflect the relative significance of the acquisition to the registrant? Is there a better proxy that we could use for fair value in the Investment Test? For example, would aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity held by its non-affiliates, a value based on the expected offering price in an initial public offering, enterprise value, or some other market valuation be a more appropriate proxy? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>3. We have proposed to require that the “investment in” the tested subsidiary in an acquisition include the fair value of contingent consideration required to be recognized at fair value by the registrant at the acquisition date under U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable. If recognition at fair value is not required, the proposed amendment would require all contingent consideration to be included, except sales-based milestones and royalties, unless the likelihood of payment is remote. Generally, would the inclusion of contingent consideration provide a more accurate determination of significance? Why or why not? Are there practical impediments to our proposed approach to the inclusion of contingent consideration? If so, what are they and how would they best be mitigated? For example, should we require the gross amount of contingent consideration, rather than its fair value, be used in significance determinations regardless of the accounting the registrant is required to apply at the acquisition date? Why or why not? If contingent consideration is not required to be recognized at fair value, would inclusion of contingent consideration unless the likelihood of payment is remote provide a more accurate determination of significance? In this circumstance, is the exclusion of sales-based milestones and royalties an appropriate practical expedient to the determination of significance? Alternatively, should we require registrants to estimate these amounts in order to determine significance? Why or why not? Does the phrase “sales-based milestones or royalties” capture consideration that is contingent on sales or should it be further refined or defined?</P>
                    <P>4. For dispositions, would the use of the fair value of consideration, which would include contingent consideration, provide a more accurate determination of significance than the gross amount of consideration when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant? Why or why not? Are there practical impediments to our proposed approach to the inclusion of contingent consideration? If so, what are they and how would they best be mitigated? Should we exclude contingent consideration from the determination of the significance of a disposed business when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant? Why or why not? Should we exclude from the determination of significance contingent consideration in the form of sale-based milestones or royalties when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant? Why or why not? When the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, will comparing the carrying value of the disposed subsidiary to total assets of the registrant appropriately reflect the relative significance of the disposed business to the registrant? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>5. We have proposed to add a revenue component to the Income Test. Would this approach more accurately reflect the significance of the acquisition or could it result in material acquisitions not triggering financial statement disclosures? Would it reduce incidents of otherwise insignificant acquisitions being deemed significant by registrants that have marginal or break-even net income?</P>
                    <P>6. Would using different percentage thresholds for the revenue component and the income component mitigate the potential that the proposed Income Test would under-identify transactions? Why or why not? For example, would the proposed Income Test be a better indicator of relative significance if the revenue component used a lower percentage threshold, for example 15% or 10%, than that used for the income component? Why or why not? If the revenue component and income component were to have different percentage thresholds, what should those percentages be? Are there other ways to modify the Income Test that would better address this issue?</P>
                    <P>7. Will our proposal to require recurring annual revenue appropriately limit the circumstances when the revenue component would not provide a meaningful result? Should we instead provide that the revenue component would not apply if either the registrant or tested subsidiary had no or nominal revenue? Why or why not? If so, should we define nominal revenue and what definition should we propose?</P>
                    <P>
                        8. We are proposing that registrants use the lower of the total revenue or the net income components of the proposed Income Test to determine the number of years of required audited financial statements. Would the use of the lower of the two components provide an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24607"/>
                        appropriate number of periods of pre-acquisition financial statements when an acquired business is significant? If not, why not? Is there a more appropriate way to determine the number of periods that should be presented if the Income Test is met? If yes, why would this alternative approach be more appropriate?
                    </P>
                    <P>9. Would the Income Test better determine relative significance if we eliminated the net income component entirely and relied solely on the proposed revenue component? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>10. Would the Income Test better determine relative significance if we required using the proposed revenue component in place of the proposed income component only when the acquirer's income or loss is small? Why or why not? If we required use of the revenue component only when the acquirer's income or loss is small, how should we define when this switch from the income component to the revenue component must occur? For example, should we require use of the revenue component when the absolute value of the acquirer's return on assets was less than 1%? Why or why not? Would a “less than 1%” standard be appropriate or would a different percentage be a more appropriate standard? If we required the switch to be made based on the acquirer's return on assets, how could we mitigate the inconsistent results that might occur across industries depending on the extent of an acquirer's reliance on human capital versus material capital? For acquirers that have large asset bases, would a return on asset approach be subsumed by the existing Asset Test?</P>
                    <P>11. Would the Income Test be improved by using a different income statement-metric test like gross profit (loss) or operating income (loss) in place of our proposed revenue component? Why or why not? If we eliminated the net income component and replaced it with a gross profit (loss) or operating income (loss) test, how would it apply to tested subsidiaries and registrants that do not report gross profit (loss) or operating income (loss)?</P>
                    <P>12. We are proposing to simplify the net income component of the Income Test by using after-tax net income and absolute values. Would the proposed revision to use after tax net income and absolute values simplify the determination while still accurately identifying significance? Why or why not? Should we retain use of pre-tax net income? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>13. Under our proposal, average income must be used to calculate the income component of the Income Test if the registrant or the tested subsidiary does not have recurring annual revenue and the absolute value of the registrant's income or loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10% lower than the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant for each of its last five fiscal years.</P>
                    <P>○ Would it be appropriate to require income averaging where the 10% threshold is met and registrants are able to rely on the revenue component? Are there modifications that we should consider to the average income computation? Are there other circumstances where the determination would be more accurate by removing the revenue component or applying income averaging?</P>
                    <P>○ If the 10% threshold is retained, calculating the average using absolute values may increase the frequency with which the average must be used. Does calculating average income using the absolute value of losses rather than the current practice of assigning a value of zero to those years result in a better indicator of relative significance? Why or why not? Would modifying the existing 10% threshold in Computational Note 2 to Rule 1-02(w) in lieu of our proposal to use absolute values better reflect when an average should be used? If so, what percentage should we use and why? Are there other ways to modify the calculation of average income to be a better indicator of relative significance in the circumstances to which we propose to apply it?</P>
                    <P>14. Are there other revisions to the Investment Test, Income Test or Asset Test that we should consider?</P>
                    <P>15. Are there other tests that would be a more appropriate indicator of relative significance? For example, should we add a test based on cash flows from operating, investing or financing activities? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>16. The term “significant subsidiary” is defined in Rule 1-02(w) and also in Securities Act Rule 405 and Exchange Act Rule 12b-2. These definitions historically have been generally consistent with the exception of current Computational Note 3 relating to the aggregation of combined entities, which is generally not relevant for purposes of Rule 405 or 12b-2. Is it appropriate to consistently apply the definition of significant subsidiary across these rules while continuing to exclude the language relating to aggregation of combined entities? Would these rules be better implemented if the definitions further diverged? If so, how?</P>
                    <P>17. Is it clear that “significant subsidiary” determinations should be made using amounts derived from consolidated financial statements of the tested subsidiary and consolidated financial statements of the registrant? Should we revise our rules to more explicitly state that?</P>
                    <P>18. Should we revise the “significant subsidiary” determination to deem a subsidiary as significant if it is material to the registrant rather than using specific percentage conditions? Why or why not? If we should revise the determination to use a materiality standard, how should that standard be applied? Would a materiality standard yield consistent determinations between registrants? How would a materiality standard impact the disclosure provided and a registrant's ability to timely access capital?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Audited Financial Statements for Significant Acquisitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements may be required for up to three years depending on the relative significance of the acquired or to be acquired business. We propose to revise Rule 3-05 to require up to two years depending on the relative significance. Unlike the historical financial statements of the registrant upon which investors rely to make investment decisions about the registrant, the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are used, along with pro forma financial information, to discern how the acquired business may affect the registrant. We believe two years of pre-acquisition financial statements, would be sufficient to allow investors to understand the possible effects of the acquired business on the registrant. Relatedly, we are also proposing to require the inclusion of certain forward-looking information in pro forma financial information.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the discussion in Section II.D.1. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We note that older financial statements, such as the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, can be less relevant for evaluating an acquisition because, due to their age, they are less likely to be indicative of the current financial condition, changes in financial condition and results of operations of the acquired business.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pre-acquisition financial statements can also have less utility because they do 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24608"/>
                        not reflect the changes in the acquired business or combined entity that occur post-acquisition or the accounting required by the registrant's comprehensive basis of accounting. Moreover, regardless of the number of years presented, if trends depicted in Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are not indicative or are otherwise incomplete, 17 CFR 210.4-01(a) (“Rule 4-01(a)”) requires that a registrant provide “such further material information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.” Further, the requirement to prepare and obtain an audit of the third year of pre-acquisition financial statements can add significant incremental cost and time to the preparation of required disclosure, which is further exacerbated if a change in the acquired business's management or independent auditor has occurred, and may delay a registrant's time to market and access to capital.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             In some circumstances, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements can depict a year beginning more than four years before consummation of the acquisition. For example, the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for a calendar year-end business acquired on February 27, 2018 would be 2014. If the business were acquired at a later date in 2018, the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements would be 2015.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, we propose eliminating the requirement to file the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for an acquisition that exceeds 50% significance.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, several commenters recommended eliminating the requirement to provide three years of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements,
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while only one recommended retaining the current periods.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letters from BDO, CAQ, Crowe Horwath LLP (Nov. 30, 2015) (“Crowe”), DT, Edison Electric Institute and American Gas Association (Nov. 30, 2015) (“EEI/AGA”), EY, Grant, KPMG, and RSM US LLP (Nov. 30, 2015) (“RSM”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letter from California Public Employees' Retirement System (Nov. 30, 2015) (“CalPERS”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We also propose to revise Rule 3-05 for acquisitions where a significance test exceeds 20%, but none exceeds 40%, to require financial statements for the “most recent” interim period specified in Rule 3-01 and 3-02 rather than “any” interim period. This proposed revision would eliminate the need to provide a comparative interim period when only one year of audited Rule 3-05 Financial Statements is required. Providing a comparative interim period when there is no requirement for a corresponding comparative annual period may have limited utility for investors and creates an additional burden on registrants to prepare such information. Moreover, we believe that focusing on the most recent interim period would provide the most relevant and material information to investors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>19. Is our proposal to eliminate the third year of pre-acquisition audited financial statements required for business acquisitions exceeding 50% significance in Rule 3-05(b)(2)(iv) appropriate? Why or why not? Are there other changes that we should consider that would reduce compliance burdens for issuers but continue to provide the material information investors need to make informed investment decisions?</P>
                    <P>20. Is our proposal to eliminate the comparative interim period when only one year of audited Rule 3-05 Financial Statements is required appropriate? Why or why not? Are there other changes that we should consider?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Financial Statements for Net Assets That Constitute a Business</HD>
                    <P>Registrants frequently acquire a component of an entity, such as a product line or a line of business contained in more than one subsidiary of the selling entity, that is a business as defined in Rule 11-01(d) but does not constitute a separate entity, subsidiary, or division. These businesses may not have separate financial statements or maintain separate and distinct accounts necessary to prepare Rule 3-05 Financial Statements because they often represent only a small portion of the selling entity. In these circumstances, making relevant allocations of the selling entity's corporate overhead, interest, and income tax expenses necessary to provide Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for the business may be impracticable.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose to permit 
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         registrants to provide audited financial statements of assets acquired and liabilities assumed, and statements of revenues and expenses (exclusive of corporate overhead, interest and income tax expenses) 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         if:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(e). Our proposal is generally consistent with Commission staff's exercise of delegated authority pursuant to Rule 3-13 of Regulation S-X in these circumstances. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             also FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2065 “
                            <E T="03">Acquisition of Selected Parts of an Entity may Result in Less than Full Financial Statements.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             The proposed rule clarifies that federal and state income tax may be excluded.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• The business constitutes less than substantially all of the assets and liabilities of the seller and was not a separate entity, subsidiary, segment, or division during the periods for which the acquired business financial statements would be required;</P>
                    <P>• separate financial statements for the business have not previously been prepared;</P>
                    <P>• the seller has not maintained the distinct and separate accounts necessary to present financial statements that include the omitted expenses and it is impracticable to prepare such financial statements;</P>
                    <P>• interest expense may only be excluded from the statements if the debt to which the interest expense relates will not be assumed by the registrant or its subsidiaries consolidated;</P>
                    <P>• the statements of revenues and expenses do not omit selling, distribution, marketing, general and administrative, and research and development expenses incurred by or on behalf of the acquired business during the periods to be presented; and</P>
                    <P>• the notes to the financial statements include certain additional disclosures, specifically: The type of omitted expenses and the reasons why they are excluded from the financial statements; information about the business's operating, investing, and financing cash flows, to the extent available; an explanation of the impracticability of preparing financial statements that include the omitted expenses; and a description of how the financial statements presented are not indicative of the financial condition or results of operations of the acquired business going forward because of the omitted expenses.</P>
                    <P>
                        Recognizing the difficulty registrants face in obtaining and the cost of preparing financial statements that include the expenses proposed to be omitted, we believe permitting registrants to provide abbreviated financial statements as proposed, while requiring the proposed additional disclosures, appropriately balances the cost of preparing financial disclosure with the protection of investors. In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, commenters generally supported permitting the use of abbreviated financial statements without first seeking relief from the Commission.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from ABA-Committees, BDO, CAQ, Cyprus Energy Partners, L.P. (Nov. 30, 2015), DT, EEI/AGA, EY, Grant, KPMG, and RSM.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>21. Are the proposed conditions for permitting registrants to provide abbreviated financial statements appropriate? Are there other conditions that should be applied or other disclosures that should be required? Are any of the conditions unnecessary or counterproductive?</P>
                    <P>
                        22. Acquired product lines typically meet the definition of a business, but can have minimal historical balance sheet information associated with them, such as the carrying value of acquired 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24609"/>
                        inventory. Similarly, income statement information beyond revenue and costs of sales may have limited utility when the selling effort relates to a larger product portfolio that includes the acquired product line, rather than the acquired product line itself, and when historical research and development expense is not specific to the acquired product line. In these and similar circumstances, should we permit registrants to provide other information, such as revenue and cost of revenues, in lieu of abbreviated financial statements? Why or why not? Should we require the other information to be audited? Why or why not? Is it practicable to audit the other information? Why or why not? If the other information is unaudited, how would that affect investors and other market participants that use the information? If we should permit other information, what conditions best identify and limit the circumstances when it would be appropriate to permit the other information? If we permit other information, should the 75-day filing period specified in Rule 3-05 for registration statements and proxy statements and in Item 9.01 of Form 8-K apply? Should Article 11 of Regulation S-X pro forma financial information be required?
                    </P>
                    <P>23. As proposed, statements of revenues and expenses must include selling, distribution, marketing, general and administrative, and research and development expenses incurred to generate the revenue reflected in the statements. Does the proposed requirement provide sufficient clarity regarding the expenses that must be included? Does the proposed requirement provide sufficient clarity regarding the expenses that may be omitted? Why or why not? If not, how can we better make these distinctions?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Financial Statements of a Business That Includes Oil and Gas Producing Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rule 3-05 applies to acquisitions of a significant business 
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that includes oil and gas producing activities.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, Rule 3-05 does not specify industry-specific disclosures that may be useful to understand such activities. In the absence of specific requirements, registrants generally provide certain industry-specific disclosures specified in FASB ASC Topic 932 
                        <E T="03">Extractive Activities—Oil and Gas</E>
                         (“ASC 932 Disclosures”) 
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on an unaudited basis for each full year of operations presented for the acquired business.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 11-01(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the definition of “oil and gas producing activities” at § 210.4-10(a)(16).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC Topic 932 
                            <E T="03">Extractive Activities—Oil and Gas,</E>
                             932-235-50-3 through 50-11 and 932-235-50-29 through 50-36, and FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2065.12. These supplemental disclosures are required in the financial statements of publicly traded companies with significant oil- and gas- producing activities and provide additional context for those financial statements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Rule 3-05 also does not specify the form and content of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements when the acquired business generates substantially all of its revenues from oil and gas producing activities. Often, this type of business represents a component of an entity that does not constitute a separate entity, subsidiary, segment, or division for which separate financial statements exist and for which historical depreciation, depletion, and amortization expense is likely not meaningful to an understanding of the potential effects of the acquired business on the registrant.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In these circumstances and when certain additional criteria are met, pursuant to Rule 3-13 and delegated authority, Commission staff has permitted registrants to provide abbreviated financial statements that consist of income statements modified to exclude expenses not comparable to future operations.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             Historical depreciation, depletion, and amortization expense is frequently not maintained at the property level and does not reflect the acquiring company's basis in the properties.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2065.6, 2065.11, and 2065.12. Permitting registrants in these circumstances to substitute abbreviated income statements that omit expenses not comparable to future operations is consistent with the financial statement requirements specified in Rule 3-14 for acquired real estate operations. Rule 3-14 specifies that Rule 3-14 Financial Statements must omit depreciation expenses not comparable to future operations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Proposed Rule 3-05(f) would codify these reporting practices. Specifically, for a significant acquired business that includes 
                        <E T="03">significant oil- and gas-producing activities</E>
                         (as defined in the FASB ASC Master Glossary), we propose that Rule 3-05 Financial Statements include the ASC 932 Disclosures on an unaudited basis for each full year of operations presented for the acquired business.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, we propose that the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements may be audited statements of revenues and expenses that exclude depletion, depreciation, and amortization expense, corporate overhead expense, income taxes, and interest expense that are not comparable to the proposed future operations if: (1) Substantially all of the revenues of the business are generated from oil and gas producing activities,
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (2) the conditions of proposed Rule 3-05(e)(1) through (4) and (e)(6) are met.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe these conditions would appropriately balance the cost of preparing the disclosure with the protection of investors. We also believe codifying these practices would provide clarity for registrants regarding the application of Commission rules in these circumstances and could facilitate compliance to the benefit of both registrants and investors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             ASC 932-235-50-3 through 50-11 and 932-235-50-29 through 50-36, which may be presented as unaudited supplemental information. We are proposing this definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant oil- and gas-producing activities</E>
                             to be consistent with current practice whereby the FASB's significance threshold is applied in determining whether to present the ASC 932 Disclosures in Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, even if the acquired business is not a publicly-traded company.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             Under our proposal, “oil and gas producing activities” would be defined by reference to § 210.4-10(a)(16).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             discussion in Section II.A.3 above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>24. Are the proposed conditions for permitting businesses that have oil and gas producing activities to provide abbreviated financial statements and requiring them to provide industry-specific supplemental information appropriate? Are there other conditions that should be applied or other disclosures that should be required?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Timing and Terminology of Financial Statement Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        We propose revising Rule 3-05 and Article 11 to clarify when financial statements 
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and pro forma financial information are required, and to update the language to take into account concepts that have developed since adoption of the rules over 30 years ago.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, the proposed amendments would specify that financial statements are required if a business acquisition has occurred during the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period for which a balance sheet is required by 17 CFR 210.3-01 of Regulation S-X (“Rule 3-01”), or if a business acquisition has occurred or is probable after the date that the most recent balance sheet has 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24610"/>
                        been filed.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We also propose to clarify that Rule 3-05 applies when the fair value option is used in lieu of the equity method to account for an acquisition because the disclosure required by U.S. GAAP on a post-acquisition basis, and related requirements in Rules 4-08(g) and 3-09, includes summarized financial information or separate financial statements of the business after the acquisition.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We further propose replacing the term “furnish” with “file” throughout Rule 3-05 and Article 11 to make clear that the information required by Rule 3-05 and Article 11 must be filed with the Commission, as we believe that, at the time of adoption, the use of the term “furnished” in Rule 3-05 and Article 11 was not intended to mean that those disclosures were “not filed.” 
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, Rule 3-05 requires “financial statements prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation.” 
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consistent with current practice, the proposed amendments to Rule 3-05 would clarify that references to “this regulation” include the independence standards in Rule § 210.2-01 unless the business is not a registrant, in which case the applicable independence standards would apply. We are also proposing conforming clarifications in Rule 3-14 and proposed Rule 6-11.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             We additionally propose to clarify that “financial statements” need not include related schedules specified in Article 12 (17 CFR 210.12). Item 9.01(a)(2) of Form 8-K already provides that supporting schedules of financial statements need not be filed in these circumstances. The staff further applies this approach to acquired business financial statements required in registration statements and proxy statements. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2005.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             In addition we are proposing changes to Rule 8-05 for smaller reporting companies to conform with the proposed changes to Article 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             As discussed in Section II.B.1 below, we are proposing to no longer require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements in Securities Act registration statements and proxy statements once the acquired business is reflected in filed post-acquisition registrant financial statements for a complete fiscal year. In conjunction with that proposal, we are proposing conforming amendments to Rule 3-05(a)(1) to clarify when financial statements are required and to conform the language in those requirements with the current requirements in Rule 11-01(a). Additionally, in conforming Rule 3-05(a)(1) with Rule 11-01(a), we propose to move the explanation that the acquisition of a business encompasses the acquisition of an interest in a business accounted for by the equity method from Rule 3-05(a)(1)(i) to proposed Rule 3-05(a)(2)(ii). Finally, we propose to clarify that a “business” that is a real estate operation is subject to Rule 3-14 instead of Rule 3-05.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(a)(2)(ii) and 3-14(a)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             Throughout Rule 3-05 and Article 11, the regulatory text indicates that financial statements “shall be furnished.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(a)(1), (b)(1), (b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), (b)(2)(iv), (b)4)(ii), (b)(4)(iii), Rule 11-01(a) and Instruction 2 to Rule 11-02(b). At the time the Commission adopted Rule 3-05, there was no distinction between “furnished” and “filed.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05 Adopting Release. As Securities Act and Exchange Act rules subsequently began to converge, with documents filed pursuant to the Exchange Act having exposure to Securities Act liability, some disclosure was required or permitted to be furnished but “not filed” for certain purposes. We believe that replacing the use of the term “furnished” with “filed” in the proposed amendment is consistent with the original intent and application of the securities laws.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(a)(1), 3-14(a)(1), and 6-11(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As another clarification, we propose to replace references to “business combination” with the term “business acquisition” to make clear that Rule 3-05 and Article 11 are not limited to “business combinations” as that term is used in U.S. GAAP and IFRS-IASB.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The term “business combination” is defined by reference to the term “business,” which has developed differently under U.S. GAAP and IFRS-IASB from that term as defined in Rule 11-01(d). Because “business acquisition” also encompasses a “combination between entities under common control,” the proposed amendments would also replace this term in Rule 3-05 and Article 11.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 10. We similarly propose to replace the term in the Instruction to Item 9.01 of Form 8-K.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with current practice, the proposed amendments would further provide that a registrant may continue to determine significance using amounts reported in its Form 10-K for the most recent fiscal year when the registrant has filed its Form 10-K after the acquisition consummation date, but before the date the registrant is required to file financial statements of the acquired business on Form 8-K.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We propose to permit rather than require use of the more recent Form 10-K in this circumstance to avoid creating an incentive for registrants to delay the filing of their Form 10-K.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(b)(3) and 11-01(b)(3)(ii). Pursuant to Rule 3-13, registrants have been permitted to omit Rule 3-05 Financial Statements if an acquired business is not significant using these amounts.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, the proposed amendments would replace the term “majority-owned” as used in Item 2.01 of Form 8-K with the term “subsidiaries consolidated,” as that term more accurately conveys which subsidiaries are required to be included in the registrant's financial statements.
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe these changes would not substantively alter the current Rule 3-05 requirements, but would facilitate compliance by providing clarity, codifying current practice, and updating the terminology used in our rules.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             Proposed Rule 3-05 uses the term “subsidiaries consolidated” to conform with the term as it is used elsewhere in Regulation S-X. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Rule 1-02(w), Rule 3-01, and Rule 3-02.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>25. We propose to clarify when financial statements and pro forma financial information are required and to update the language used in our rules. Are the proposed clarifications and updates appropriate? Are there further clarifications or other updates we should consider?</P>
                    <P>26. Is the proposed language related to independence standards sufficiently clear? Should we specify the “applicable independence standards”? If so, how should the “applicable independence standards” be specified? Are there circumstances where there are no “applicable independence standards”? In those circumstances, which independence standards should apply?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Foreign Businesses</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulation S-X permits the use of IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP in financial statements of foreign private issuers.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rule 3-05 similarly permits the use of IFRS-IASB in financial statements of foreign businesses. We are proposing limited modifications to Rule 3-05 to permit Rule 3-05 Financial Statements to be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP if the acquired business would qualify to use IFRS-IASB if it were a registrant,
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and to permit foreign private issuers that prepare their financial statements using IFRS-IASB to provide Rule 3-05 Financial Statements prepared using home country GAAP to be reconciled to IFRS-IASB rather than U.S. GAAP. In response to the 2015 Request for Comments, commenters generally supported expanding use of IFRS-IASB in financial statements of acquired businesses.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.4-01.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             This proposed amendment would be applicable to domestic and foreign registrants.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from BDO, CalPERS, CAQ, DT, EY, Grant, KPMG, and PwC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Definition</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the definitions of “foreign private issuer” 
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and “foreign business” 
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         have different ownership requirements such that an acquired business could qualify to be a “foreign private issuer,” but not qualify to be a “foreign business.” For example, an acquired business may be majority-owned by persons who are U.S. citizens or residents and still qualify to be a “foreign private issuer” if it were a registrant and certain additional criteria 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24611"/>
                        were met,
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         but to qualify as a “foreign business,” it must be majority-owned by persons who are not U.S. citizens or residents. The divergent ownership criteria in the two definitions has created a circumstance where an acquired business that does not meet the definition of foreign business, but would otherwise be permitted to present its financial statements using IFRS-IASB as a foreign private issuer, is not permitted to use financial statements prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB for its Rule 3-05 Financial Statements even when those financial statements are already available. Instead, the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements must be prepared in accordance with U.S. GAAP,
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which can result in a significant cost to the registrant. In circumstances where the acquired business has a sufficient foreign nexus to meet the definition of a foreign private issuer, we believe financial statements prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB would provide sufficient information for investors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 405. The term “foreign private issuer” means any foreign issuer, other than a foreign government, that does not meet the following criteria as of the last business day of its most recently completed second fiscal quarter: (i) More than 50% of the outstanding voting securities of such issuer are directly or indirectly owned of record by residents of the United States; and (ii) any of the following: (a) The majority of the executive officers or directors are United States citizens or residents; (b) more than 50% of the assets of the issuer are located in the United States; or (c) the business of the issuer is administered principally in the United States.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.1-02(l).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 83.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             Alternatively, the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements may be prepared in accordance with a basis of accounting other than U.S. GAAP provided a reconciliation to U.S. GAAP under Item 18 of Form 20-F is included. 
                            <E T="03">See Financial Statements of Significant Foreign Equity Investees and Acquired Foreign Businesses of Domestic Issuers and Financial Schedules,</E>
                             Release No. 33-7118 (Dec. 13, 1994) [59 FR 65632 (Dec. 20, 1994)] (“1994 Acquired Foreign Business Release”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We therefore propose to revise Rule 3-05 to permit Rule 3-05 Financial Statements to be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP 
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         if the acquired business would qualify to use IFRS-IASB if it were a registrant.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In circumstances where the registrant presents its financial statements in U.S. GAAP, the pro forma financial information reflecting the acquisition will continue to be required to be presented in U.S. GAAP.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             Under the existing and the proposed rule, acquired foreign business financial statements may use IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP, even when the registrant prepares its financial statement using U.S. GAAP.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Reconciliation Requirement</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, if Rule 3-05 Financial Statements of a foreign business are prepared on a basis of accounting other than U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, such as home-country GAAP, the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements must be reconciled to U.S. GAAP.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the registrant in this case were a foreign private issuer that presents its financial statements using IFRS-IASB, this one-time presentation of the U.S. GAAP reconciling information in financial statements of the acquired business would likely be the only required U.S. GAAP information in any of the registrant's filings and could be costly to produce. We believe that Rule 3-05 Financial Statements that include IFRS-IASB reconciling information of the acquired foreign business would provide more comparable information and better facilitate analysis of the financial statements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Item 17 of Form 20-F and 1994 Acquired Foreign Business Release.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We therefore propose to permit foreign private issuers that prepare their financial statements using IFRS-IASB to reconcile Rule 3-05 Financial Statements prepared using home country GAAP to IFRS-IASB rather than U.S. GAAP.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The reconciliation to IFRS-IASB would be required generally to follow the form and content requirements in Item 17(c) of Form 20-F.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>27. Is the proposed revision to permit in certain circumstances Rule 3-05 Financial Statements to be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP appropriate? Are there other requirements that could improve the information to investors?</P>
                    <P>28. Is the proposed revision to permit foreign private issuers that prepare their financial statements using IFRS-IASB to reconcile acquired foreign business financial statements to IFRS-IASB appropriate? Would continuing to require reconciliation to U.S. GAAP provide better information to investors? Are there other requirements that could improve the information to investors?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</HD>
                    <P>Rule 8-04 provides smaller reporting company disclosure requirements for the financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired that substantively differ from the existing requirements in Rule 3-05 in four ways:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Rule 8-04 permits acquired business financial statements to be prepared in accordance with the form and content required by Article 8, rather than the form and content specified elsewhere in Regulation S-X; 
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Article 8 allows smaller reporting companies to, among other things, omit certain footnote disclosures that would be required by Article 4. Article 8 also requires fewer line items on the face of interim financial statements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Rule 8-04 only requires up to two years of acquired business historical financial statements;</P>
                    <P>• Rule 8-04 does not explicitly permit the omission of previously filed financial statements once the operating results of the acquired business have been included in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year; and</P>
                    <P>• the ability to exclude from a registration statement separate financial statements of the acquired or to be acquired business in certain circumstances is based on the effective date of the registration statement rather than the date of the relevant final prospectus or prospectus supplement.</P>
                    <P>
                        In connection with offerings made pursuant to Regulation A,
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Part F/S of Form 1-A (“Part F/S”) 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         directs an entity relying on Regulation A to present financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired,
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as specified by Rule 8-04, but permits the periods presented to be those applicable to Regulation A issuers rather than the periods specified by Article 8.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             17 CFR 230.251 through 263.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.90.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             paragraph (b)(7)(iii) of Part F/S.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             As mandated by the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296 (2018)), the Commission in December 2018 revised Rule 251(b) under the Securities Act to permit entities subject to the reporting requirements of Section 13 or 15(d) of the Exchange Act to conduct exempt offerings under Regulation A. 
                            <E T="03">See Amendments to Regulation A,</E>
                             Release No. 33-10591 (Dec. 19, 2018) [84 FR 520 (Jan. 31, 2019)]. Such reporting companies are required, at a minimum, to comply with the requirements of Part F/S of Form 1-A. However, if at the time a reporting company files a Form 1-A, it has made publicly available more recent audited or reviewed financial statements prepared in accordance with the standard required for the registrant's Exchange Act reports, including such financial statements in the offering statement may be necessary to make the required statements therein, in light of the circumstances under which they are being made, not misleading. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 230.252.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In order to simplify the application of our rules by focusing registrants on the more detailed and better understood provisions of Rule 3-05, we propose to revise Rule 8-04 to direct registrants to Rule 3-05 for the requirements relating to the financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired, other than for form and content requirements for such financial statements, which would continue to be prepared in accordance with Rules 8-02 and 8-03.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>96</SU>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="24612"/>
                        Additionally, because Part F/S of Form 1-A refers to Rule 8-04, the proposed revisions to Rule 8-04 would apply to issuers relying on Regulation A. As a result, under the proposed amendments, smaller reporting companies would continue to be required to provide up to two years of acquired business historical financial statements and Regulation A issuers would continue to be permitted to present the periods applicable under Regulation A.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(1) currently requires financial statements specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 for the business to be acquired. Similarly, Rule 3-05(b)(2) also references §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02. Under our proposal, smaller reporting companies would apply § 210.3-05 but would substitute §§ 210.8-02 and 210.8-03, as applicable, wherever § 210.3-05 references §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02. In this way, our proposal is intended to apply the election permitted for smaller reporting companies 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            to prepare their financial statements in accordance with the form and content requirements in Article 8 rather than the other form and content requirements specified elsewhere in Regulation S-X (subject to the exceptions noted in § 210.8-01 Preliminary Note 2 to Article 8) to businesses acquired by smaller reporting companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             Additionally, in accordance with current practice, the proposed rule would expressly permit smaller reporting companies to omit such financial statements if the acquired business has been included in the registrant's results for a complete fiscal year. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             further discussion of omission of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements in Section II.B.1 above. We also propose to add references to Rule 8-04 in Rule 3-06 and to Rule 3-06 in Note 6 to Article 8 to expressly permit smaller reporting companies to file financial statements covering a period of nine to 12 months to satisfy the requirement for filing financial statements for a period of one year for an acquired business.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, under the proposed amendments, a smaller reporting company would be eligible to exclude acquired business financial statements from a registration statement if the business acquisition was consummated no more than 74 days prior to the date of the relevant final prospectus or prospectus supplement, rather than 74 days prior to the effective date of the registration statement as under current Rule 8-04(c)(4).
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe it is appropriate to consistently look to the date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement,
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as Rule 3-05 currently does, because that date could be later than the effective date, particularly in the case of a delayed offering, which some smaller reporting companies are now permitted to conduct.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(4)(i)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             1996 Streamlining Release, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13 (noting that the date of an offering is specified as the date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement relating to the offering).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             General Instruction I.B.6 of Form S-3 and 2018 SRC Amendments, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 16.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>29. Would the proposed revisions to Rule 8-04 to direct smaller reporting companies and Regulation A issuers to Rule 3-05 while still permitting them to rely on the form and content requirements in Rules 8-02 and 8-03 simplify the application of our rules by focusing registrants on the more detailed and better understood provisions of Rule 3-05? Are there other changes to the Rule 8-04 requirements that we should consider?</P>
                    <P>30. For purposes of excluding acquired business financial statements from a registration statement, is the proposed revision to require smaller reporting companies to look to the date of the relevant final prospectus or prospectus supplement instead of the effective date of the registration statement appropriate? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>
                        31. Our proposal to no longer require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements once the operating results of the acquired business have been included in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Section II.B.1 above) would also apply to smaller reporting companies pursuant to our proposed revisions to Rule 8-04. Is permitting smaller reporting companies to omit financial statements under these circumstances appropriate? Are there specific revisions or information requirements we should consider for smaller reporting companies?
                    </P>
                    <P>32. Should the proposed changes to Rule 8-04 apply to offerings made pursuant to Regulation A? Should we revise the proposals to better accommodate Regulation A issuers and investors? If so, what revisions should we make and why?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Amendments Relating to Rule 3-05 Financial Statements Included in Registration Statements and Proxy Statements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Omission of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for Businesses That Have Been Included in the Registrant's Financial Statements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Overview of the Application of the Current Rule</HD>
                    <P>Current Rule 3-05(b)(4)(iii) generally permits Rule 3-05 Financial Statements to be omitted once the operating results of the acquired business have been reflected in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year. However, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required to be included when they have not been previously filed or when the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements have been previously filed, but the acquired business is of major significance to the registrant.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Rule 3-05 Financial Statements Not Previously Filed</HD>
                    <P>
                        If Rule 3-05 Financial Statements have not been previously filed, they must be provided even if the acquired business is included in post-acquisition audited results. Thus, a registrant that acquired a significant business during the earliest of the three years for which it presents financial statements, and has reported the combined results in audited financial statements since the acquisition, would still be required to file separate Rule 3-05 Financial Statements for that acquired business if the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements have not been previously filed.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The staff has historically not objected, however, to registrants reducing the Rule 3-05 Financial Statement periods presented by the equivalent period that the acquired business is included in the registrant's post-acquisition audited results.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             This issue arises most often for initial registration statements under the Securities Act and Exchange Act since an existing Exchange Act reporting company would generally have been required to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements on a Form 8-K within approximately 75 days after acquisition of a significant business.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             This is limited to circumstances where there is no gap between the latest date of the pre-acquisition audited financial statements of the acquired business and the earliest date of the registrant's audited post-acquisition results. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2030.4 “
                            <E T="03">Initial Registration Statements—Using Pre-Acquisition and Post-Acquisition Audited Results.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Rule 3-05 Financial Statements Previously Filed for an Acquisition That Was of Major Significance</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under current Rule 3-05(b)(4)(iii), registrants must also continue to present Rule 3-05 Financial Statements that have been previously filed if the acquired business is of such significance to the registrant that omission of those Rule 3-05 Financial Statements would materially impair an investor's ability to understand the historical financial results of the registrant. Rule 3-05 provides as an example that an acquired business that met at least one of the significance tests at the 80% level at the date of the acquisition would require the registrant to continue to file the financial statements of the acquired business for such periods prior to the purchase as may be necessary when added to the time for which audited income statements after the purchase are filed to cover the equivalent of the period specified in Rule 3-02.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Notwithstanding the rule's reference to materiality, in practice the rule is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24613"/>
                        typically applied, consistent with this example, on the basis of quantitative significance determinations.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The result of the practical application of the “major significance” exception is that, for example, if an acquisition that occurred two years ago was significant at the 80% level at the time of the acquisition, one year of previously filed Rule 3-05 Financial Statements will continue to be provided regardless of whether post-acquisition activities have diminished the relative significance of the acquired business.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(4)(iii). Rule 3-02 states that there shall be filed, for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated and for its predecessors, audited statements of income and cash flows for each of the three fiscal years preceding the date of the most recent audited balance sheet being filed or such shorter period as the registrant (including predecessors) has been in existence. An emerging growth company may provide audited statements of income and cash flows for each of the two fiscal years preceding the date of the most recent audited balance sheet (or such shorter period as the registrant has been in existence) in its initial registration statement.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2040.2 “
                            <E T="03">Major Significance” and “Previously Filed Acquiree Financial Statements.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Amendments Regarding the Omission of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing to no longer require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements in registration statements and proxy statements once the acquired business is reflected in filed post-acquisition registrant financial statements for a complete fiscal year.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This change would eliminate the requirement that Rule 3-05 Financial Statements be provided when they have not been previously filed or when they have been previously filed but the acquired business is of major significance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             The proposed amendments would require inclusion in all twelve months of the registrant's most recently completed audited fiscal year. They do not permit reducing the twelve month period through analogy to Rule 3-06 or by the number of months of pre-acquisition historical financial statements that may be provided.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The “not previously filed” exception requires those registrants filing initial registration statements to test the significance of acquisitions that occurred during the earliest years for which the registrant is required to provide its historical financial statements and, if significant, to provide pre-acquisition financial statements of the acquired business. This requirement can delay a registrant's offering and thereby its access to capital while providing information that is often less meaningful to investors because the utility of pre-acquisition periods diminishes over time after the acquired business is reflected in post-acquisition results and the post-acquisition results of the combined business are generally not comparable to the pre-acquisition results of the acquired business.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2030.4. The accommodation currently provided by Commission staff does not sufficiently ameliorate these effects and often results in financial statements of the acquired business for a pre-acquisition stub period ending at a date during a fiscal period such that the financial statements depict partial, rather than complete, reporting periods that do not coincide with the end of either the acquired business's or the registrant's fiscal periods. Moreover, because these are staff accommodations, they lack the legal significance of a Commission rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We also propose to eliminate the “major significance” exception. As with not previously filed information, the utility of pre-acquisition periods diminishes over time after the acquired business is reflected in post-acquisition results. We further observe that the “major significance” exception was established prior to requirements for electronic filing, which has made previously filed financial information about the acquired business more readily accessible through the Commission's EDGAR filing system. Consequently, we believe this exception is no longer necessary.</P>
                    <P>
                        We believe inclusion of post-acquisition results in the registrant's audited financial statements for a complete fiscal year should generally provide investors with sufficient information to make informed investment decisions about the registrant.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The requirement for management to prepare Rule 3-05 Financial Statements and a third party to audit those financial statements can be costly and adds preparation time for the financial statements, which can affect a registrant's time to market and delay its access to capital. Where the significant acquisition will have occurred over a year before, and information about the acquired business that is material to the registrant would generally have been incorporated into the registrant's audited historical financial statements for a complete fiscal year or otherwise provided pursuant to the requirements of 17 CFR 210.4-01(a) and 17 CFR 229.303, we do not believe it is necessary to require registrants to provide Rule 3-05 Financial Statements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             Further, even without the major significance requirement to include some, but not all, of the previously filed pre-acquisition financial statements of the acquired business, Regulation S-X provides that a registrant shall provide “such further material information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.4-01(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>33. Is our proposal to no longer require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements once the acquired business is reflected in filed post-acquisition audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year appropriate? Would the proposed revisions simplify the application of the rule and reduce costs for registrants?</P>
                    <P>34. Would the proposed amendments affect the sufficiency of information available to investors? If so, should we continue to require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements if they have not been previously filed or if the acquisition was of major significance? Alternatively, what information about an acquired business is most important to investors once the acquired business has been depicted in the registrant's post-acquisition audited consolidated financial statements for a complete fiscal year that is not otherwise provided pursuant to existing requirements, like those for management's discussion and analysis, and what changes could we make to ensure that investors receive such information while reducing the burden on registrants of preparing unnecessary disclosure?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Use of Pro Forma Financial Information To Measure Significance</HD>
                    <P>
                        Significance determinations are required to be made by comparing the most recent annual consolidated financial statements of the acquired business to those of the registrant filed at or prior to the date of acquisition. A registrant is permitted to use pro forma, rather than historical, financial information if the registrant made a significant acquisition subsequent to the latest fiscal year-end and filed its Rule 3-05 Financial Statements and pro forma financial information on Form 8-K.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         There is no analogous provision in Rule 3-05 for registrants to use pro forma financial information depicting significant dispositions or for registrants filing initial registration statements. In considering whether, pursuant to Rule 3-13 and delegated authority, to permit omission or substitution of acquired business financial statements in initial registration statements of registrants growing through acquisition, Commission staff has considered the results of significance tests using pro forma financial information.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, some commenters 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24614"/>
                        recommended establishing requirements to determine significance in these circumstances in a manner that reduces complexity and provides financial statements that are meaningful to investors.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.3-05(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 43. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Staff Accounting Bulletin No. 80, 
                            <E T="03">Application of Rule 3-05 in Initial Public Offerings</E>
                             (“SAB 80”). Consistent with the staff's exercise of delegated authority in response to requests under Rule 3-13, SAB 80 states that the staff will not object if significance is measured using the alternative method specified in SAB 80. The SAB 80 method is similar to Rule 3-05 in its use of more recent pro forma financial information of the registrant. It differs from Rule 3-05 in that it: Uses pro forma rather than historical financial information of the acquired business; uses pro forma financial information of the registrant that was not previously filed; and does not reflect the current, higher significance thresholds in Rule 3-05. The accommodations in SAB 80 are complex and seldom used by registrants, in part because they require the acquired businesses to remain discrete and substantially intact after acquisition.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from ABA-Committees, CAQ, DT, EY, and Grant.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We propose to expand the circumstances in which a registrant can use pro forma financial information for significance testing. Specifically, for all filings that require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements, we propose to permit registrants to measure significance using filed pro forma financial information that only depicts significant business acquisitions and dispositions consummated after the latest fiscal year-end for which the registrant's financial statements are required to be filed, subject to the following conditions:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—The registrant has filed Rule 3-05 Financial Statements or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for any such acquired business; and</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        —the registrant has filed the pro forma financial information required by Article 11 for any such acquired or disposed business.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </FP>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             We propose to include these provisions in Rule 11-01(b)(3) and to further revise Rule 3-05(b)(3) and Rule 3-14(b)(2) to replace the existing guidance with a specific reference to Rule 11-01(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We additionally propose to revise Rule 11-01(b)(1) to add a reference to Rule 11-02 to clarify that registrants may not include Management's Adjustments 
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         when using pro forma financial information to determine significance. Rather, the pro forma financial information must be limited to the applicable subtotals that combine the historical financial information of the registrant and the acquired business and Transaction Accounting Adjustments.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section II.D.1. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             We also are proposing amendments to Rule 11-01(b)(3) to indicate that the pro forma information that is used to measure significance may only give effect to the subsequently acquired or disposed business and may not give effect to other transactions, such as the use of proceeds from an offering.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We believe that these proposed amendments and clarifications would provide registrants with the flexibility to more accurately determine the relative significance of an acquired or disposed business to the ongoing operations of the registrant, including for those filing an initial registration statement, without inadvertently delaying or accelerating the filing of pro forma financial information that might occur if we required use of such pro forma financial information to determine significance. The proposed amendments would also simplify the application of the rule by including in a single location the description of the financial statements used to measure significance for purposes of Rules 3-05 and 3-14 and Form 8-K.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>35. Are the proposed revisions to permit significance testing based on pro forma financial information in these circumstances appropriate? Are the proposed revisions to permit the use of pro forma financial information for all filings that require Rule 3-05 Financial Statements and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements appropriate? Should certain filings that require such financial statements be precluded from using pro forma financial information to measure significance?</P>
                    <P>36. Would the amendments provide flexibility to make a more accurate determination of significance without delaying or accelerating the required filing of pro forma financial information? Should we require significance to be determined using pro forma financial information in the circumstances we describe? Why or why not? If yes, how could we modify our proposal so that it does not delay or accelerate the required filing of pro forma financial information? Would the amendments simplify application of the rule? Would they reduce costs for registrants?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Disclosure Requirements for Individually Insignificant Acquisitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the existing rules, audited historical pre-acquisition financial statements are generally not required if an acquired or to be acquired business: (1) Does not exceed 20% significance, or (2) does not exceed 50% significance and the acquisition has not yet occurred or the date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement relating to an offering as filed with the Commission pursuant to § 230.424(b) of this chapter is no more than 74 days after consummation and the financial statements have not been previously filed.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, if the aggregate impact of “individually insignificant businesses” 
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         acquired since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet filed for the registrant exceeds 50%, audited historical pre-acquisition financial statements covering at least the substantial majority of the businesses acquired must be included in a registration statement or proxy statement.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Registrants also must provide related pro forma financial information based on the requirements of Article 11.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(4)(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             In the 1996 Streamlining Release, Rule 3-05 was amended to permit the exclusion of historical financial statements for certain significant acquisitions that did not exceed 50% significance. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(4)(i). However, we believe that Rule 3-05(b)(4) was not intended to circumvent the requirement in Rule 3-05(b)(2) to consider the aggregate significance of all acquired businesses for which financial statements were not yet filed. To do otherwise could lead to the presentation of financial statements for less than a mathematical majority of businesses acquired since the most recent audited balance sheet that have an aggregate significance in excess of 50%. For these reasons, the proposals would codify staff interpretation that “individually insignificant businesses” include: (a) Any acquisition consummated after the registrant's audited balance sheet date whose significance does not exceed 20%; (b) any probable acquisition whose significance does not exceed 50%; and (c) any consummated acquisition whose significance exceeds 20%, but does not exceed 50%, for which financial statements are not yet required by Rule 3-05(b)(4) because of the 75-day filing period. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2035.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.3-05(b)(2)(i). “Substantial majority” has been applied in practice to be the mathematical majority (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             businesses constituting more than 50% of the relevant test (investment, asset or income) on which the businesses were determined to be significant in the aggregate) 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2035.3 “
                            <E T="03">Financial Statements Required—Mathematical Majority.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             Rule 11-01(a) specifies conditions for which pro forma financial information must be presented. Those conditions do not explicitly discuss the aggregate significance of individually insignificant businesses, however they do include, “consummation of a significant business combination or a combination of entities under common control [that] has occurred or is probable” and “consummation of other events or transactions has occurred or is probable for which disclosure of pro forma financial information would be material to investors.” Further, Rule 11-01(c) links the requirement for pro forma financial information for a significant business acquisition to the presentation of separate financial statements of the acquired business. Taken together, these requirements provide that if separate financial statements of the substantial majority of individually insignificant businesses are presented, pro forma financial information depicting their effects must also be presented.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The practical effect of this requirement is that registrants often provide separate, audited historical financial statements for acquired businesses that are individually not material to the registrant, and pro forma financial information that does not fully depict the aggregate effect of the “individually insignificant businesses.” 
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24615"/>
                        requirements can have implications for business acquisition negotiations, as registrants may need to negotiate a requirement for the seller to timely provide historical financial statements of an insignificant business to cover the possibility that a future acquisition may trigger the Rule 3-05 “individually insignificant businesses” requirements.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, commenters questioned the utility of audited financial statement requirements for individually insignificant acquisitions.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some of these commenters recommended more frequent and timely reporting of pro forma financial information for individually insignificant acquisitions instead of the current requirements.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             Article 11 only requires pro forma financial information for an acquisition for which Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required, and the pro forma financial information will only reflect the acquisitions selected for the Rule 3-05 Financial Statements. Thus, for example, if the aggregate of 16 individually insignificant acquisitions is 80% significant, with each at 5%, a registrant would currently be required to provide pre-acquisition audited historical financial statements for nine of the individually insignificant businesses. Thus, the pro forma financial information would only depict the effect of those nine acquisitions constituting 45% of the registrant's post-acquisition assets or income.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             Under the proposal, registrants would have to negotiate the timely provision of historical balance sheet and income statement information for each acquisition necessary to present pro forma financial information depicting their aggregate effects in all material respects when aggregate significance exceeds 50%, but historical financial statements only for acquisitions that are required to be reported on Form 8-K (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             individual significance exceeds 20%). However, the proposed rule could accelerate reporting of historical financial statements for these acquisitions (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             individual significance exceeds 20%) in certain registration statements and proxy statements if the combined acquisitions exceed the 50% threshold.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letters from ABA, BDO, CAQ, DT, EEI/AGA, EY, Grant, and PwC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letters from ABA, EY, and PwC. ABA and EY indicated that a registrant should provide pro forma information when the aggregate effect of individually insignificant acquisitions completed in a fiscal year becomes significant to the registrant.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose revising our rules to improve the information provided to investors, reduce immaterial disclosure and clarify the requirements. Similar to existing requirements, proposed Rule 3-05(b)(2)(iv) would require disclosure if the aggregate impact of businesses acquired or to be acquired since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet filed for the registrant, for which financial statements are either not required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) or are not yet required based on paragraph (b)(4)(i), exceeds 50%.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed rule, however, would require registrants to provide pro forma financial information depicting the aggregate effects of all such businesses in all material respects and pre-acquisition historical financial statements only for those businesses whose individual significance exceeds 20% but are not yet required to file financial statements.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             For clarity, we are proposing to specifically describe the affected businesses in the rule without reference to the term “individually insignificant businesses.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(2)(iv) and proposed revisions to Rule 11-01(c). Further, we propose to revise Rule 11-01(c) to clarify that the exception that would otherwise permit pro forma financial information not to be provided when separate financial statements of the acquired business are not included in the filing does not apply where the aggregate impact is significant as determined by proposed Rules 3-05(b)(2)(iv) or 3-14(b)(2)(i)(C).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We believe the proposed amendments would both improve the information provided to investors and reduce burdens on registrants of providing audited historical financial statements for immaterial acquisitions. Preparing disclosure about immaterial acquisitions and negotiating with sellers to timely provide historical financial statements for them can increase the cost of registration and delay access to capital. In addition, requiring pro forma financial information that shows the aggregate effect of the acquired businesses for which financial statements are either not required or not yet required in all material respects rather than only giving effect to a mathematical majority of such businesses, would make it easier for investors to understand the overall effect of those acquisitions on the registrant.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>37. Is the proposed amendment to require registrants to provide Rule 3-05 Financial Statements only for those acquisitions whose individual significance exceeds 20% appropriate? Would the proposed amendment improve the information provided to investors? Would it instead reduce the amount of material information that is available? If so, would this reduction be mitigated by the proposal to require pro forma financial information depicting the aggregate impact of the acquisitions for which financial statements are either not required or not yet required in all material respects? Would the proposed amendment simplify the application of the rule and reduce the burden of preparing the information for registrants?</P>
                    <P>38. Is the proposed amendment to require registrants to provide pro forma financial information depicting the aggregate impact of the acquisitions for which financial statements are either not required or not yet required in all material respects appropriate? Would the proposed revision improve the information provided to investors? Would the proposed amendment simplify the application of the rule and reduce the burden of preparing the information for registrants?</P>
                    <P>39. As proposed, the aggregate impact determination in Rule 3-05(b)(2)(iv) would exclude acquired businesses subject to Rule 3-14. Similarly, the proposed Rule 3-14(b)(2)(i)(C) aggregate impact determination described in Section II.C. below would exclude acquired businesses subject to Rule 3-05. Since a registrant could have both types of acquisitions within a reporting period, should we revise the proposed aggregate impact determinations in Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 to include all such acquired business?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Rule 3-14—Financial Statements of Real Estate Operations Acquired or To Be Acquired</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rule 3-14 differs from Rule 3-05, in part, because unique industry considerations warrant differentiated disclosure. For example, in previous amendments to Rule 3-14 to require only one year of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements to be provided in most circumstances, the Commission recognized that audited financial statements for a real estate operation are rarely available from the seller without additional effort and expense because most real estate managers do not maintain their books on a U.S. GAAP basis or obtain audits.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission further noted that historical financial statements for real property do not usually provide significant information about the trends and factors that are most likely to affect future operations, such as demographic information, application of managerial techniques, and competition.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result, in addition to requiring Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for one year in most circumstances, Rule 3-14 also requires the registrant to describe with specificity in the filing the material factors it considered in assessing the real estate operation, including sources of revenue (including, but not limited to, competition in the rental market, comparative rents, and occupancy rates) and expense (including, but not limited to, utility rates, property tax rates, maintenance expenses, and capital improvements anticipated). The disclosure must also indicate that the registrant is not aware of any other material factors relating to the specific real estate operation that would cause the reported financial statements not to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24616"/>
                        be indicative of future operating results.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Publication of Revisions to the Division of Corporation Finance's Guide 5 and Amendment of Related Disclosure Provisions,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6405 (June 3, 1982) [47 FR 25120 (June 10, 1982)] and 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Revision of Guide 60 and Related Disclosure Provisions,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6354 (Oct. 7, 1981) [46 FR 50553 (Oct. 14, 1981)]. When Rule 3-14 was initially adopted, it required audited abbreviated income statements for the three most recent years. The requirements have not been substantively modified since they were first introduced in Form S-11 in 1961, except to reduce the number of years of financial statements required in most circumstances from three to one.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                             at 50558.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rules 3-14(a)(1)(ii) and 3-14(a)(1)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We propose to align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 where no unique industry considerations exist because the rules have similar objectives. We also propose to establish or clarify the application of Rule 3-14 regarding scope of the requirements, determination of significance, need for interim income statements, and special provisions for blind pool offerings.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Align Rule 3-14 With Rule 3-05</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing amendments to Rule 3-14 consistent with the new proposals for Rule 3-05 discussed above.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We have found no unique industry considerations that warrant differentiated treatment of real estate operations in these areas, and believe that aligning Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 will reduce complexity by standardizing the requirements for acquired businesses overall while retaining the industry specific disclosure necessary for investors to make informed investment decisions. In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, commenters generally supported aligning these rules where appropriate.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             We are also proposing to align the rules regarding the timing of financial statements and use of the term “furnished” discussed in Section II.A.5 and note 74; the Investment Test discussed in Section II.A.1; and the required disclosures discussed in Section II.A.4, II.A.6, II.B.1, II.B.2, and II. B.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from CAQ, DT, EY, Grant, and PwC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Significance Thresholds.</E>
                         We propose to align the Rule 3-14 significance threshold for individual acquisitions to the 20% threshold 
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for acquired businesses in Rule 3-05. We also propose to align the Rule 3-14 significance threshold for the aggregate impact of acquisitions for which financial statements are not required or not yet required and for individual probable acquisitions to the exceeds 50% level for registration statements and proxy statements.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When the Commission last increased the significance thresholds for Rule 3-05 in 1996, it noted that commenters supported modification of Rule 3-14 as well, but it deferred any changes until the rule could be evaluated as part of a more comprehensive disclosure scheme.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that these significance thresholds should be the same for all acquired and to be acquired businesses, regardless of whether the business is a real estate operation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Rule 3-14 refers to acquisitions that are “significant;” however, neither “significant property” nor “significant real estate operation” are defined in Regulation S-X. Current practice looks to the 10% significance threshold in the definition of “significant subsidiary” in Rule 1-02(w) when determining “significance” under Rule 3-14. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2310.1 “
                            <E T="03">Registration Statements and Proxy Statements—Requirements.”</E>
                             The proposed amendments would make the 20% threshold explicit in Rule 3-14.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are currently required when the registrant has acquired or proposes to acquire a group of properties which in the aggregate are significant. In practice, consummated and probable acquisitions since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet that are less than 10% significant are aggregated and, if the significance of the aggregated group exceeds 10%, Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are provided for each acquisition that is 5% or more significant and for enough other acquisitions in order to cover the substantial majority of the group. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2320. By aligning proposed Rule 3-14 with proposed Rule 3-05, the proposals would remove ambiguity by defining which businesses must be aggregated and the significance threshold that applies and by clarifying that this requirement applies only to certain registration statements and proxy statements and not to Form 8-K.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             1996 Streamlining Release, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Years of Required Financial Statements for Acquisitions from Related Parties.</E>
                         We propose to eliminate the Rule 3-14 requirement to provide three years of financial statements for acquisitions from related parties to conform it to Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Rule 3-05 Adopting Release states that because certain acquisitions have a greater impact on a registrant than others, the number of years of financial statements required for Rule 3-05 Financial Statements is based on significance using a sliding scale approach.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, the release does not identify the source of acquisitions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from related parties versus third parties) as a factor driving the potential impact of acquisitions on the registrant. Thus, because we are not aware of any unique industry considerations that warrant different requirements in Rule 3-14 for acquisitions from related parties, we believe that acquisitions of real estate operations should be treated similarly to other businesses 
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and conformed to Rule 3-05, which does not differentiate the number of periods for which historical financial statements are required based on whether the seller is a related party or not.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             When the Commission adopted Rule 3-14 in 1980, it was based on Item 6(b) of Form S-11. Item 6(b) required audited summary financial data of a property or group of properties in an abbreviated form similar to what is required today in Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. In 1982, when the Commission reduced the number of years of required Rule 3-14 Financial Statements from three years to one year for most acquisitions, the Commission retained the requirement for three years for acquisitions from related parties.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05 Adopting Release, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             It is common for transactions in initial registration statements in the real estate industry to involve the combination of multiple entities with related or common ownership. In those circumstances, certain acquired entities may be designated as a predecessor of the registrant. For purposes of financial statements, an acquired business is designated as a predecessor when a registrant succeeds to substantially all of the business (or a separately identifiable line of business) of another entity (or group of entities) and the registrant's own operations before the succession appear insignificant relative to the operations assumed or acquired. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the definition of “predecessor” in Securities Act Rule 405. Financial statements specified in Rules 3-01 and 3-02 are required for acquisitions of a predecessor, including those from related parties, rather than Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. This proposal will not affect those requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             While the need for Rule 3-14 Financial Statements is based on significance, Rule 3-14 does not use a sliding scale type requirement; rather, due to the nature of the acquisitions, only one year of financial statements is required, if significant, along with supplemental information disclosing the material factors considered by the registrant in assessing the real estate operation. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 124.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Application of Rule 3-06.</E>
                         We propose to align the application of Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 by revising Rule 3-06 to permit the filing of financial statements covering a period of nine to 12 months to satisfy the requirement for filing financial statements for a period of one year for an acquired or to be acquired real estate operation.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission adopted Rule 3-06 in 1989 to codify staff practice at the time regarding Rule 3-05 Financial Statements.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although Rule 3-06 only addresses financial statements of business acquisitions under Rule 3-05, we believe that there are no industry-specific reasons for applying Rule 3-14 differently and therefore that Rule 3-06 should equally apply to Rule 3-14 Financial Statements due to the similar purposes of Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-06.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Reporting Requirements for Issuer's Change of Fiscal Year; Financial Reporting Changes; Period to be Covered by First Quarterly Report After Effective Date of Initial Registration Statement,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6823 (Mar. 2, 1989) [54 FR 10306 (Mar. 13, 1989)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Timing of filings.</E>
                         We propose to amend Rule 3-14 to include the same period for the filing of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements in registration statements and proxy statements as exists under Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When the Commission adopted the current filing period for Rule 3-05 in 1996,
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         it noted that commenters supported modification of Rule 3-14 as well, but deferred any changes to the rule. As with the other conforming amendments to Rule 3-14, we see no reason to provide a different regulatory treatment for acquisitions of real estate operations in this regard.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             discussion of the Rule 3-05 filing period in Section I.A. above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">
                            Omission of Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for Real Estate Operations 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24617"/>
                            That Have Been Included in the Registrant's Financial Statements.
                        </E>
                         We propose to align the application of Rule 3-14 with the proposed amendments to Rule 3-05 by no longer requiring Rule 3-14 Financial Statements in registration statements and proxy statements once the acquired real estate operation is reflected in filed post-acquisition registrant financial statements for a complete fiscal year.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As with the other conforming amendments to Rule 3-14, we see no reason to provide a different regulatory treatment for acquisitions of real estate operations in this regard.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-14(b)(3)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Additional Amendments.</E>
                         We are also proposing other, less significant changes to align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 where there are no unique industry considerations that suggest a business subject to Rule 3-14 should be treated differently than a business subject to Rule 3-05. We do not expect these proposed changes to affect how Rule 3-14 is applied in the following areas because existing practice already analogizes to Rule 3-05 for guidance. Specifically, we propose to clarify that:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • To be acquired real estate operations should be evaluated under the rule only if they are probable of acquisition; 
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             Rule 3-14 currently uses the phrase “proposes to acquire” when discussing “to be acquired” real estate operations and does not explicitly limit the scope to acquisitions probable of acquisition. The Commission's proposed amendment would codify the current practice of interpreting this phrase to mean “probable of acquisition.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2310.1
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • The acquisition of an interest in a real estate operation accounted for using the equity method 
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or, in lieu of the equity method, the fair value option, should be considered the acquisition of a real estate operation;
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2305.4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Rule 3-14 should not apply to a real estate operation which is totally held by the registrant prior to consummation of the transaction; 
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(a)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Where a real estate operation to be acquired is the subject of a proxy statement or registration statement on Forms S-4 or F-4, the financial statement periods to be presented are those specified by Rules 3-01 and 3-02 of Regulation S-X.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, in regard to significance testing, we propose to clarify that:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Related real estate operations should be treated as a single acquisition for significance testing; 
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(a)(3) and proposed Rule 3-14(a)(3). Real estate operations are considered related if they are under common control or management, the acquisition of one real estate operation is conditional on the acquisition of each other real estate operation, or each acquisition is conditioned on a single common event.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • pro forma amounts are permitted for significance testing in certain circumstances consistent with the application in Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(b)(3) and 11-01(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We also propose to clarify that Rule 3-14 Financial Statements should be prepared and audited in accordance with Regulation S-X and that they should be for the period that the real estate operation has been in existence, if that period is shorter than the period explicitly required for the financial statements.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, the proposed amendments would conform the requirements related to acquisitions of foreign real estate operations in Rule 3-14 to the analogous provision in Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(a)(1), 3-05(b)(2), 3-14(a)(1), and 3-14(b)(2). 
                            <E T="03">See also,</E>
                             discussion at note 76 above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 3-05(c) and 3-14(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Aside from the substance of the rules, the proposed amendments would also conform the organization and format of certain related rules and forms, as appropriate. For example, Item 8 of Form 10-K currently excepts registrants from complying with Rule 3-05 and Article 11, but does not mention Rule 3-14.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Instead, the exception exists in Rule 3-14 itself.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We propose to move this exception to Form 10-K for consistency. We also propose to conform the general format and wording of Rule 3-14 to Rule 3-05, as appropriate, for consistency and to make the rule easier to follow.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Item 8(a) of Form 10-K.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             Rule 3-14(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             The proposed changes in Rule 3-14 to conform wording include the addition of a paragraph similar to 3-05(b)(1) about financial statements for certain proxy statements and registration statements on Forms S-4 and F-4 as well as the elimination of outdated industry-specific paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3), which specify certain disclosures for circumstances that seldom occur today.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We are also proposing to revise Form 8-K, as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Clarify that Item 2.01 requires the disclosure of the acquisition or disposition of assets that constitute a significant real estate operation as defined in Rule 3-14; 
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             While Item 2.01 currently only requires that significant acquisitions and dispositions be reported if they are not in the ordinary course of business, registrants provide Item 2.01 disclosure for acquisitions of significant real estate operations regardless of whether the acquisition or disposition was in the ordinary course of business. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Note to FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2310.3. We propose to revise Item 2.01 to achieve this same reporting outcome, because we believe this information is generally material to investors.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• address the filing requirements in Item 9.01(a) consistently for all business acquisitions, including real estate operations; and</P>
                    <P>• revise Item 2.01 Instruction 4 to reference Rule 3-14 to make clear that, as with Rule 3-05, the aggregate impact of acquisitions of real estate operations is not required to be reported unless these acquisitions are related real estate operations and significant in the aggregate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>40. We are proposing to align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 where no unique industry considerations warrant differentiated requirements. Are the proposed significance thresholds appropriate for acquisitions of real estate operations? Are the other changes we have proposed to Rule 3-14 appropriate? Are there unique industry considerations that suggest we should not make certain of the proposed amendments? If so, what are those considerations and which amendments should we not make? In these instances, are there different amendments we should consider?</P>
                    <P>41. Would the proposed amendments to align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 assist preparers in the application of Rule 3-14? Would such amendments provide investors with more consistent disclosure for acquisitions of all types of businesses?</P>
                    <P>42. Are there other areas that we should consider for further alignment?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Definition of Real Estate Operation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Neither Regulation S-X nor any other Securities Act or Exchange Act rule provides a definition of a real estate operation or an explanation of what is meant by the reference to properties in Rule 3-14. Because the terms are open to interpretation, Commission staff has provided guidance as to the meaning of a real estate operation and regarding properties subject to the rule.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission staff has interpreted, for purposes of Rule 3-14, a real estate operation to refer to properties that generate revenues solely through leasing,
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         but has not interpreted this definition to preclude a property that includes a limited amount of non-leasing revenues (like property management or other services related to the leasing) from being considered a real estate operation. Examples of such properties include office, apartment, and industrial buildings, as well as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24618"/>
                        shopping centers and malls. A real estate operation excludes properties that generate revenues from operations other than leasing, such as nursing homes, hotels, motels, golf courses, auto dealerships, and equipment rental operations because these operations are more susceptible to variations in revenues and costs over shorter periods due to market and managerial factors. The Commission staff has additionally provided guidance that a real estate operation includes real properties that will be held directly by the registrant or through an equity interest in a pre-existing legal entity that holds the real property under lease and related debt.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2305.1 “
                            <E T="03">Applicability of S-X 3-14,”</E>
                             and Section 2305.2, “
                            <E T="03">Nature of Real Estate Operations.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2305.2 “
                            <E T="03">Nature of Real Estate Operations.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2305.3 “
                            <E T="03">Investment in a Pre-Existing Legal Entity.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing to amend Rule 3-14 to define a real estate operation as “a business that generates substantially all of its revenues through the leasing of real property,” which is consistent with current practice described above.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that adding this definition to Rule 3-14 would appropriately limit the application of Rule 3-14, reduce uncertainty regarding the meaning of the term, and serve to clarify the rule without changing the substance of how it is currently applied. In addition, this change would make clear that a real estate operation is a “business” as that term is used in Article 11. We therefore further propose to remove the unnecessary condition in Rule 11-01(a)(5) that clarifies that Article 11 applies to real estate operations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-14(a)(2). The proposed amendment uses the term “business (as set forth in § 210.11-01(d))” in the definition of a real estate operation to address the fact that the acquisition of a real estate operation may be of an entity holding real property under lease or a direct interest in the real property.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>43. We propose to define a real estate operation in Rule 3-14 as “a business that generates substantially all of its revenues through the leasing of real property.” Is the proposed definition and scope of the rule appropriate? Are there revisions we should consider to the definition to further clarify its meaning or alter the types of businesses to which it applies?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Significance Tests</HD>
                    <P>
                        Due to the nature of a real estate operation, staff interpretations have sought to focus registrants on the Investment Test in Rule 1-02(w), adapted to compare the registrant's investment in the real estate operation, including any debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the registrant, to the registrant's total assets at the last audited fiscal year end filed with the Commission when determining “significance” under Rule 3-14.
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When determining whether an acquisition is “significant,” the use of the Asset or Income Tests generally is not practical for a real estate operation, because the historical amounts of assets and income of the acquired or to be acquired real estate operation are not available.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2315 “
                            <E T="03">Real Estate Operations—Measuring Significance.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             The amounts are not available, because most real estate managers do not maintain their books on a U.S. GAAP basis or obtain audits. Furthermore, because Rule 3-14 only requires abbreviated income statements to be filed, additional financial statements would have to be prepared solely for purposes of significance testing if the Asset and Income Tests applied to acquisitions of real estate operations. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 124 and accompanying discussion.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose to amend Rule 3-14 to specify the use of a modified investment test, which is consistent with current practice described above.
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As with the definition of a real estate operation, we believe this proposed amendment would reduce uncertainty regarding the significance tests and clarify the rule without changing the substance of how it is currently applied. We also believe that a modified investment test is necessary to appropriately determine significance for acquisitions of real estate operations because it considers the unique structure of these types of acquisitions, which typically involve assumed debt that is secured by the real properties that offsets the value of the real estate operation being acquired.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-14(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>44. We propose to amend Rule 3-14 to quantify the applicable significance thresholds and specify the use of a modified investment test in applying those thresholds for real estate operations. Are the proposed revisions to clarify the applicable significance tests and thresholds appropriate for acquisitions of real estate operations? Are there any unique industry considerations that suggest we should use different tests of significance than we have proposed?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Interim Financial Statements</HD>
                    <P>
                        Unlike Rule 3-05,
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rule 3-14 does not include an express requirement for registrants to provide interim financial statements. Article 11, however, requires pro forma financial information to be filed when the registrant has acquired one or more real estate operations which in the aggregate are significant.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Article 11 further provides that the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall be filed for the most recent fiscal year and the period from the most recent fiscal year to the most recent interim date for which a balance sheet is required.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(2)(i)-(iv). The rule refers explicitly to the most recent fiscal year and any interim periods specified in Section 210.3-01 and 210.3-02.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.11-01.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             17 CFR 210.11-02(c)(2)(i). To meet this pro forma requirement, registrants must prepare and present substantially the same information for the most recent interim period, if applicable, that would be included in Rule 3-14 Financial Statements in most circumstances.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose to amend Rule 3-14 to specifically require Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for the most recent year-to-date interim period prior to the acquisition.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe requiring these financial statements, in addition to the annual financial statements, would enhance an investor's ability to understand the historical operating results of the acquisition without creating significant additional burden. It would also reflect existing registrant practice regarding the provision of interim financial statements to investors, which stems from Article 11 and related staff interpretation.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-14(b)(2)(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 11-02(c)(2)(i) and FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2330.2 “
                            <E T="03">Periods to be Presented—Properties Acquired from Related Parties”</E>
                             and Section 2330.3 “
                            <E T="03">Periods to be Presented—Properties Acquired from Third Parties.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>45. We propose to amend Rule 3-14 to specifically require historical financial statements for the most recent interim period prior to the acquisition. Are the proposed revisions appropriate for acquisitions of real estate operations? Are there any unique industry considerations that suggest we should consider alternatives to the inclusion of financial statements for the most recent interim period prior to the acquisition for real estate operations?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</HD>
                    <P>
                        We propose amendments to Article 8 to further simplify and conform the application of Rule 3-14 and our related proposals to smaller reporting companies. Rule 8-06 provides smaller reporting company disclosure requirements for the financial statements of real estate operations acquired or to be acquired that are substantially similar to the requirements in Rule 3-14. Part F/S of Form 1-A directs an entity relying on Regulation A to present financial statements of real estate operations acquired or to be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24619"/>
                        acquired as specified by Rule 8-06.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In order to simplify the application of our rules, we propose to revise Rule 8-06 to direct registrants to proposed Rule 3-14 for the requirements relating to financial statement disclosures of real estate operations acquired or to be acquired, while still permitting smaller reporting companies to rely on the form and content for annual and interim financial statements provided in Rules 8-02 and 8-03.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, because Part F/S of Form 1-A refers to Rule 8-06, the proposed revisions to Rule 8-06 would apply to issuers relying on Regulation A.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             paragraph (b)(7)(v) of Part F/S. Part F/S of Form 1-A permits the periods presented to be those applicable to Regulation A issuers rather than the periods specified by Article 8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             Under proposed Rule 8-06, there would be one change to the smaller reporting requirements for acquired real estate operations, namely that when financial statements are presented in Form S-11, the discussion of material factors that the registrant considered in assessing the acquisition shall be combined with the disclosure required by Item 15 of Form S-11. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the proposed Instruction to Paragraph (f) in proposed Rule 3-14. Since Item 15 of Form S-11 already applies to smaller reporting companies, the proposed Instruction would potentially change only the location of the discussion. We do not believe that it would require any new disclosure or add a burden to registrants. We additionally propose to add a reference to Rule 8-06 in Rule 3-06 to conform the requirements of proposed Rule 8-06 and proposed Rule 3-14 and to add a Note to Article 8 to expressly permit smaller reporting companies to file financial statements covering a period of nine to 12 months to satisfy the requirement for filing financial statements for a period of one year for an acquired real estate operation. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Note 6 to Article 8 and the discussion related to Rule 3-06 in Section II.C.1 above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We believe that simplifying these rules and using the more well-established practice and guidance applicable to Rule 3-14 would reduce burdens for smaller reporting companies and issuers relying on Regulation A.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>46. Would the proposed revisions to Rule 8-06 to direct smaller reporting companies to Rule 3-14 while still permitting them to rely on the relief in Rules 8-02 and 8-03 simplify the application of our rules and reduce costs for registrants? Would the proposed revisions improve the disclosure available to investors by focusing registrants on the more detailed and better understood provisions of Rule 3-14? Are there other changes to the Rule 8-06 requirements that we should consider?</P>
                    <P>47. Should the proposed changes to Rule 8-06 apply to offerings made pursuant to Regulation A? Should we revise the proposals to better accommodate Regulation A issuers and investors? If so, what revisions should we make and why?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Blind Pool Real Estate Offerings</HD>
                    <P>
                        Certain registrants 
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         conducting continuous offerings over an extended period of time follow the guidance provided under Industry Guide 5 
                        <E T="03">Preparation of Registration Statements Relating to Interests in Real Estate Limited Partnerships</E>
                         (“Industry Guide 5”).
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These registrants generally do not initially own any real estate assets, and the specific intended use of the proceeds raised from investors is not initially identified because such registrants have not yet selected any assets for their portfolios. Registrants in these “blind pool” offerings also typically provide only limited liquidity through restricted share redemption programs. However, these registrants provide certain undertakings 
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to disclose information about significant acquisitions to investors in addition to Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. Due to the nature of a blind pool investment as well as the supplemental undertakings provided, Commission staff has advised these registrants to apply adapted significance tests when making the determination of whether they are required to provide Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. Specifically, the staff has interpreted significance during the distribution period to be computed by comparing the registrant's investment in the real estate operation to the sum of: (1) The registrant's total assets as of the date of the acquisition, and (2) the proceeds (net of commissions) in good faith expected to be raised in the registered offering over the next 12 months.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         After the distribution period has ended, the staff has understood the registrant to be able to determine significance using the total assets as of the acquisition date until the registrant files its next Form 10-K. After that next Form 10-K is filed, the registrant, following the staff's guidance, can determine significance using total assets as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year included in the Form 10-K.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             These registrants are typically real estate investment trusts (“REITs”) that do not have securities listed for trading on a national securities exchange and often are referred to as “non-traded REITs.” Their purpose is to own and operate income-producing real estate or real estate-related assets.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             Industry Guide 5 was originally published as Securities Act Guide 60 in 1976 to provide disclosure guidance for preparing registration statements relating to offers and sales of interests in real estate limited partnerships. The Commission stated that the guide “is not a Commission rule nor is it published as bearing the Commission's official approval.” 
                            <E T="03">See Guide for Preparation of Registration Statements Relating to Interests In Real Estate Limited Partnerships,</E>
                             Release No. 33-5692 (Mar. 17, 1976) [41 FR 17403 (Apr. 26, 1976)] (“Guide 60 Release”). In 1982, Securities Act Guide 60 was redesignated as Securities Act Industry Guide 5. 
                            <E T="03">See Rescission of Guides and Redesignation of Industry Guides,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6384 (Mar. 16, 1982) [47 FR 11476 (Mar. 16, 1982)], 
                            <E T="03">Publication of Revisions to the Division of Corporation Finance's Guide 5 and Amendment of Related Disclosure Provisions,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6405 (June 3, 1982) [47 FR 25120 (June 10, 1982)]. While Industry Guide 5, by its terms, applies only to real estate limited partnerships, in 1991 the Commission stated that “the requirements contained in the Guide should be considered, as appropriate, in the preparation of registration statements for real estate investment trusts and for all other limited partnership offerings.” 
                            <E T="03">See Limited Partnership Reorganizations and Public Offerings of Limited Partnership Interests,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6900 (June 25, 1991) [56 FR 28979 (June 25, 1991)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Item 20.D. of Industry Guide 5, Disclosure Guidance: Topic No. 6—
                            <E T="03">Staff Observations Regarding Disclosures of Non-Traded Real Estate Investment Trusts</E>
                             and FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2325.2. “
                            <E T="03">`Blind Pool' Offerings—During the Distribution Period—Undertakings.”</E>
                             The undertakings include use of sticker supplements related to certain significant properties that will be acquired and post-effective amendments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2325.3 “
                            <E T="03">`Blind Pool' Offerings—During the Distribution Period—Significance.”</E>
                             Calculation of the investment includes any debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the purchaser. In addition, in estimating the offering proceeds, the registrant, following the staff's guidance, could consider the pace of fundraising as of the measurement date, the sponsor or dealer-manager's prior public fundraising experience, and offerings by similar companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2325.5 “
                            <E T="03">`Blind Pool' Offerings—After the Distribution Period.”</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose to codify staff interpretation in this area by revising Rule 3-14 to add Rule 3-14(b)(2)(iii) to provide that significance for blind pool offerings shall be computed as described above. Similar to proposed Rule 3-05, we are also proposing to permit the determination of significance for acquisitions of real estate operations in blind pool offerings to be made using pro forma total assets as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year included in the Form 10-K.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Otherwise, virtually all acquisitions in the early part of the distribution period would be deemed significant regardless of their size. Additionally, because blind pool investors are generally not able to freely sell their investments, basing the significance analysis only on total assets while the distribution is continuing is less useful to investors because the registrant is still growing its portfolio at this stage.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 11-01(b)(3)(i) and 11-01(b)(3)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>48. Are the amendments we propose for blind pool offerings appropriate? Are there changes to the requirements that we should consider?</P>
                    <P>
                        49. Is the scope of proposed Rule 3-14(b)(2)(iii) sufficiently clear?
                        <PRTPAGE P="24620"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>50. In certain circumstances, registrants in blind pool offerings acquire businesses that are within the scope of Rule 3-05 (for example, hotels) rather than Rule 3-14, but the registrants provide the Industry Guide 5 undertakings because they are conducting a blind pool offering. Currently, there is no special practice for measuring significance of Rule 3-05 acquisitions in these circumstances. Should we also consider applying the adapted significance tests described above for acquisitions of real estate operations in blind pool offerings to Rule 3-05 acquisitions in these circumstances? For example, as described in further detail above, should we permit adding the proceeds (net of commissions) in good faith expected to be raised in the registered offering over the next 12 months to the total assets of the registrant in computing the Investment and Asset Tests and permit registrants to exclude the Income Test from their significance determinations for part of the distribution period? Are there other modifications we should consider?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Triple Net Leases</HD>
                    <P>
                        In some circumstances, registrants acquire a real estate operation subject to a triple net lease with a single lessee. A triple net lease typically requires the lessee to pay costs normally associated with ownership of the property, such as property taxes, insurance, utilities, and maintenance costs. Based on these attributes, the arrangement is similar to a financing for the lessee. The Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for a real estate operation subject to a triple net lease will ordinarily consist only of lease revenues. Under existing practice, registrants often provide full audited financial statements of the lessee or guarantor of the lease, instead of the Rule 3-14 Financial Statements of the real estate operation, when the lessee is considered significant. Our proposal does not differentiate this type of acquisition or specify alternative requirements, because the activity depicted in the Rule 3-14 Financial Statements is consistent with how the triple net lease arrangement may affect the registrant's results of operations.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe financial statements of the acquired real estate operation more appropriately achieve Rule 3-14's objective to provide investors with information about how the acquired business may affect the registrant.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             The proposal diverges from staff interpretation with respect to time-of-acquisition reporting, which has indicated that when a real estate operation subject to a triple net lease represents a significant portion of the registrant's total assets, an investor may need to consider the lessee's financial statements in order to evaluate the risk to the registrant from the asset concentration. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 2340.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>51. Should we consider different financial statement requirements in Rule 3-14 for circumstances where a registrant acquires a real estate operation subject to a triple net lease with a single lessee where the lessee is significant to the registrant (for example, full audited financial statements of the lessee or guarantor of the lease)? If not, are there additional disclosures (for example, summarized unaudited financial information) we should require about the lessee or guarantor of the lease in addition to the Rule 3-14 Financial Statements?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Pro Forma Financial Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        The pro forma financial information described in Article 11 of Regulation S-X must accompany Rule 3-05 Financial Statements and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. Typically, pro forma financial information includes the most recent balance sheet and most recent annual and interim period income statements. Pro forma financial information for a business acquisition combines the historical financial statements of the registrant and the acquired business and is adjusted for certain items if specified criteria are met. As discussed above, pro forma financial information for an acquired business is required at the 20% and 10% significance thresholds under Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14, respectively.
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rules also require pro forma financial information for a significant disposed business at a 10% significance threshold for all registrants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             1996 Streamlining Release, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Adjustment Criteria and Presentation Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rule 11-02 contains rules and instructions for the presentation of pro forma financial information. The rules provide some flexibility to tailor pro forma disclosures to particular events and circumstances. The presentation requirements for the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income were designed to elicit disclosures that distinguish between the one-time impact and the on-going impact of a transaction.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rules call for the pro forma financial information to show the impact of the transaction on income from continuing operations of the registrant.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Instructions for the Presentation and Preparation of Pro Forma Financial Information and Requirements for Financial Statements of Businesses Acquired or To Be Acquired,</E>
                             Release No. 33-6413 (June 24, 1982) [47 FR 29832 (July 9, 1982)] indicating that “[t]he presentation requirements for the pro forma condensed statement of income are designed to elicit disclosures that clearly distinguish between the one-time impact and the on-going impact of the transaction and thereby assist investors in focusing on the transaction at hand.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             Discontinued operations would not be reflected in the condensed historical financial statements used as the starting point for the pro forma presentation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Article 11 provides that the only adjustments that are appropriate in the presentation of the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income are those that are:</P>
                    <P>• Directly attributable to the transaction,</P>
                    <P>• expected to have a continuing impact on the registrant, and</P>
                    <P>
                        • factually supportable.
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.11-02(b)(6). Material non-recurring charges or credits which result directly from the transaction and which will impact the income statement during the next 12 months are not reflected in the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FP>The pro forma condensed balance sheet, on the other hand, reflects pro forma adjustments that are directly attributable to the transaction and factually supportable, regardless of whether the impact is expected to be continuing or nonrecurring because the objective of the pro forma balance sheet is to reflect the impact of the transaction on the financial position of the registrant as of the balance sheet date.</FP>
                    <P>
                        We propose to revise Article 11 by replacing the existing pro forma adjustment criteria with simplified requirements to depict the accounting for the transaction and present the reasonably estimable synergies and other transaction effects that have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We are proposing to replace 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24621"/>
                        the existing pro forma adjustment criteria because they are not clearly defined nor easily applied and, in practice, can yield inconsistent presentations for similar fact patterns. The existing adjustments also preclude the inclusion of adjustments for the potential effects of post-acquisition actions expected to be taken by management, which can be important to investors. Commenters generally recommended allowing more flexibility with respect to the types of pro forma adjustments allowed.
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             We propose several other changes to simplify and clarify Article 11 and to provide more consistent use of terminology. For example, we propose to make changes throughout Article 11 to refer to “pro forma financial information,” “potential common stock” as defined in U.S. GAAP, and “pro forma basic” per share data. In a further effort to simplify and clarify, we propose deleting Rule 11-02(a), which describes the objectives of the preparation requirements, to avoid confusion and focus registrants on the requirements of the rule. We propose amending Rule 11-01(a)(8) to remove the reference to other “events” as we believe the concept of other events is encompassed by the reference to “other transactions.” We also propose amending Rule 11-02(b)(2), which relates to the introductory paragraph, to refer to “each transaction for which pro forma effect is being given” rather than “the transaction” in recognition that the information may be required to give effect to more than one transaction. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(2). Additionally, we propose revising Rule 11-02(b)(5) to require the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income to also disclose income (loss) from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests, in addition 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            to income (loss) from continuing operations, because that is the amount currently used to calculate earnings per share under U.S. GAAP. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             letters from ABA-Committees, CalPERS, CAQ, Comcast Corporation (Dec. 11, 2015), DT, EEI/AGA, EY, and Grant. One commenter noted, among other points, that the pro forma financial statements would be much more relevant if they allowed for more forward-looking information and articulation of management's expectations to be incorporated. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letter from CFA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed adjustments would be broken out into two categories:</P>
                    <P>(i) “Transaction Accounting Adjustments”; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) “Management's Adjustments.” 
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             Under these proposed revisions to Article 11, some of the current guidance and instructions would no longer apply. We propose to eliminate the instructions and incorporate the substance of the relevant instructions into other provisions, particularly proposed Rule 11-02(b) Implementation Guidance. We propose to eliminate the substance of the first sentence of Instruction 2 as well as Instruction 4 and Instruction 5 of Rule 11-02(b) as this guidance would be superseded by the requirements for Transaction Accounting Adjustments and Management's Adjustments. Similarly, Instruction 3 regarding business dispositions would no longer be necessary given the guidance in proposed Rules 11-02(a)(4), 11-02(a)(6), and 11-02(b)(3). We propose to incorporate, subject to revisions to update terminology and clarify language, the substance of Instruction 1, using income from continuing operations, into proposed Rule11-02(b)(1) and Instruction 2 guidance on financial institutions into proposed Rule 11-02(b)(2). We propose to add new Rule 11-02(b)(4) in place of Instruction 6 to clarify that each transaction for which pro forma effect is required to be given shall be presented in separate columns. We also propose to add new Rule 11-02(b)(5) to replace Instruction 7 to Rule 11-02(b) which would incorporate pro forma tax effect guidance from Staff Accounting Bulletin No. 1.B., 
                            <E T="03">Allocation Of Expenses And Related Disclosure In Financial Statements Of Subsidiaries, Divisions Or Lesser Business Components Of Another Entity, 1. Costs reflected in historical financial statements.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Transaction Accounting Adjustments would depict: (1) In the pro forma condensed balance sheet the accounting for the transaction required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB,
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (2) in the pro forma condensed income statements, the effects of those pro forma balance sheet adjustments assuming the adjustments were made as of the beginning of the fiscal year presented.
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Transaction Accounting Adjustments are intended to reflect only the application of required accounting to the acquisition, disposition, or other transaction. We believe the Transaction Accounting Adjustments would link the effects of the acquired business to the registrant's audited historical financial statements while the Management's Adjustments would provide flexibility to include forward-looking information that depicts the synergies and other transaction effects identified by management in determining to consummate or integrate the transaction for which pro forma effect is being given.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             If the condition in Rule 11-01(a) that is met does not have a balance sheet effect, then our proposal would require that Transaction Accounting Adjustments depict the accounting for the transaction required by U.S. GAAP or, if applicable, IFRS-IASB. Transaction Accounting Adjustments would be limited to adjustments to account for the transaction using the measurement date and method prescribed by the applicable accounting standard. For probable transactions, the measurement date would be as of the most recent practicable date prior to the effective date (for registration statements) or the mailing date (for proxy statements).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(6)(i)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Management's Adjustments would be required for and limited to synergies and other effects of the transaction, such as closing facilities, discontinuing product lines, terminating employees, and executing new or modifying existing agreements, that are both reasonably estimable and have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur.
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe it is appropriate to require disclosure of synergies and other transaction effects in these circumstances in order to provide investors insight into the potential effects of the acquisition and the post-acquisition plans expected to be taken by management. Limiting Management's Adjustments to those that are reasonably estimable and that have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur will serve to define the population of effects subject to inclusion in pro forma financial information. While not all information is appropriate for reflecting an adjustment in the pro forma financial information, some information where the synergies and other transaction effects are not reasonably estimable would still be important to investors. We believe that any information necessary to give a fair and balanced presentation of the pro forma financial information should be provided to investors. Thus, we propose to require registrants to additionally provide qualitative disclosure of such information in the explanatory notes to the pro forma financial information to further elicit appropriately balanced disclosure.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(6)(ii). However, if the registrant previously was a part of another entity and presentation of pro forma financial information is necessary to reflect operations and financial position of the registrant as an autonomous entity, the proposed rules would provide that the adjustments necessary to show the registrant as an autonomous entity be included in Management's Adjustments. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rules 11-01(a)(7) and 11-02(a)(6)(ii)(B). For example, where a company (the registrant) operates as a subsidiary of another entity and files a registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933 in connection with an initial public offering, and presentation of pro forma financial information is necessary to reflect the operations and financial position of the registrant as an autonomous entity, the registration statement would include Article 11 pro forma financial information, which under our proposal would include such adjustments in Management's Adjustments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We also propose to include presentation requirements for Management's Adjustments. The presentation requirements would provide that Management's Adjustments be presented through a separate column in the pro forma financial information after the presentation of the combined historical statements and Transaction Accounting Adjustments.
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This presentation would permit investors to distinguish the accounting effects on the registrant of the underlying acquired business from operational effects of management's plans that are subject to management's discretion or other uncertainties. Similarly, we propose that per share data be presented in two separate columns. One column would present the pro forma total depicting the combined historical statements with only the Transaction Accounting Adjustments, and the second column would present the combined historical statements with both the Transaction Accounting Adjustments and Management's Adjustments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             Management's Adjustments might contain forward-looking information. To the extent Management's Adjustments contain forward-looking information, the safe harbor provisions under 17 CFR 230.175 and 17 CFR 240.3b-6 would be available for the disclosures. We propose clarifying the availability of the safe harbor within Article 11. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             the Instruction to proposed Rule 11-02(a)(6)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To clarify the required disclosure in the explanatory notes accompanying the pro forma financial information, we propose to add requirements based on existing rules, practice, and staff interpretation that would require disclosure of:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Revenues, expenses, gains and losses, and related tax effects which will not recur in the income of the registrant beyond 12 months after the transaction; 
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(10)(i). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             current Rule 11-02(b)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • total consideration transferred or received, including its components and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24622"/>
                        how they were measured. If total consideration includes contingent consideration, the proposed amendments would require disclosure of the arrangement(s), the basis for determining the amount of payment(s) or receipt(s), and an estimate of the range of outcomes (undiscounted) or, if a range cannot be estimated, that fact and the reasons why; and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • information about Transaction Accounting Adjustments when the initial accounting is incomplete.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(10)(ii). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             FRM, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 40, at Section 3250 1.f., 3250 1.g., and 3250 1.h.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For each Management's Adjustment, we propose to require:</P>
                    <P>• A description, including the material uncertainties, of the synergy or other transaction effects;</P>
                    <P>• disclosure of the underlying material assumptions, the method of calculation, and the estimated time frame for completion;</P>
                    <P>• qualitative information necessary to give a fair and balanced presentation of the pro forma financial information; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • to the extent known, the reportable segments, products, services, and processes involved; the material resources required, if any; and the anticipated timing.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(10)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We believe these disclosures are necessary for an investor to be able to understand the Management's Adjustments. For synergies and other transaction effects that are not reasonably estimable and will not be included in Management's Adjustments, we additionally propose to require that qualitative information necessary for a fair and balanced presentation of the pro forma financial information also be provided.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(10)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FP>
                        We additionally propose to clarify that pro forma financial information must be appropriately labeled and presented as required by Article 11.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We also propose to require that each transaction for which pro forma effect is required to be given shall be presented in a separate column.
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, we propose to require that if pro forma financial information includes another entity's statement of comprehensive income, such as that of an acquired business, it shall be brought up to within one fiscal quarter, if practicable.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This change will better accommodate registrants and acquired businesses that have 52-53 week fiscal years than the current requirement to bring the financial information to within 93 days of the registrant's most recent fiscal year end, if practicable.
                    </FP>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(a)(11) and 11-02(c)(2). We propose to explicitly require this labeling and presentation in Article 11 to avoid confusing or inconsistent disclosure. The proposed rules would also generally preclude presentation of pro forma financial information on the face of the historical financial statements, except where such presentation is specifically required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, presentation of summaries of pro forma financial information that exclude material transactions, or presentations that give pro forma effect to the adoption of accounting standards.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(b)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-02(c)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>52. Are the proposed amendments to the pro forma financial information requirements appropriate? Is our Transaction Accounting Adjustments proposal sufficiently clear? Will our Transaction Accounting Adjustment proposal simplify preparation of pro forma financial information and improve consistency?</P>
                    <P>53. The proposed Transaction Accounting Adjustments would incorporate the accounting required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB. However, there remain areas where the pro forma disclosure requirements in the proposed amendments and U.S. GAAP are not the same. Is this likely to cause confusion among investors? If so, what could be done to remedy the confusion?</P>
                    <P>54. Are the criteria for determining when Management's Adjustments are required sufficiently clear? Are there other criteria we should consider?</P>
                    <P>55. Should we instead retain the existing pro forma adjustment criteria? Why or why not? If we retained the existing criteria, would they be operational if we deleted the existing “continuing impact” criterion? If we retained the existing criteria, would pro forma presentations be improved by eliminating the continuing impact adjustment criterion and replacing this criterion with a revised requirement to disclose revenues, expenses, gains and losses, and related tax effects which will not recur in the income of the registrant beyond 12 months after the transaction in the explanatory notes to the pro forma financial statements? For example, would that resolve diversity in practice related to adjustments to items like deferred revenue, costs of goods sold, and interest expense for short-term bridge financings that may be refinanced?</P>
                    <P>56. Under the proposed amendments, Management's Adjustments must be reasonably estimable and have occurred or be reasonably expected to occur. Do these conditions adequately serve to distinguish which Management's Adjustments can be made? Are they appropriate? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>57. Are the proposed Management's Adjustments appropriate? What other conditions, if any, should we consider establishing? For example, should we limit Management's Adjustments to synergies and other transaction effects that have previously been furnished or filed in disclosure with the Commission? If we limited Management's Adjustments in this way, how would we ensure that the adjustments are balanced to include both the positive and negative effects?</P>
                    <P>58. To the extent that Management's Adjustments require forward-looking information, what safe harbors should apply? As proposed, Securities Act Rule 175 and Exchange Act Rule 3b-6 would expressly apply. Are there different protections that would be appropriate?</P>
                    <P>59. Is the proposed amendment to require that pro forma financial information be brought up to within one fiscal quarter if the pro forma financial information includes another entity's statement of comprehensive income appropriate? Is there another more appropriate time frame we should consider?</P>
                    <P>60. Will the proposed disclosures in the explanatory notes provide material information for investors? Are the proposed requirements for the format and presentation of pro forma information appropriate? Are there other amendments we should consider to improve the presentation requirements of Article 11?</P>
                    <P>61. Rule 11-01(a)(8) requires presentation of pro forma financial information when, “[c]onsummation of other events or transactions has occurred or is probable for which disclosure of pro forma financial information would be material to investors.” We propose to delete the reference to “events.” Is deletion of the reference to “events” appropriate? Would its deletion unintentionally narrow the population of items for which pro forma financial information must be provided? If so, what items would not be captured, what term appropriately describes those items for which pro forma effect should be given, and why is it a better descriptor than “transactions?” If “events” is retained, should the term be included in other parts of our proposal? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>62. Should we further clarify that under the proposed amendments Management's Adjustments are only permitted when they relate to the transaction for which pro forma effect is being given? If so, what changes should we consider?</P>
                    <P>
                        63. Proposed Rule 11-02(b)(3) retains the existing guidance in current Rule 11-02(b)(3) for condensing information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24623"/>
                        on the face of the pro forma financial statements. This guidance differs from the guidance in Rules 10-01(a)(2) and 10-01(a)(3) for preparing the registrant's interim financial statements. Should we conform proposed Rule 11-02(b)(3) to Rules 10-01(a)(2) and 10-01(a)(3)? Why or why not? If so, should we limit the changes to selected parts of Rules 10-01(a)(2) and (a)(3), such as the percentage thresholds?
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Significance and Business Dispositions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rule 11-01(a)(4) provides that pro forma financial information is required upon the disposition or probable disposition of a significant portion of a business either by sale, abandonment, or distribution to shareholders by means of a spin-off, split-up, or split-off, if that disposition is not fully reflected in the financial statements of the registrant. Rule 11-01(b) further provides that a disposition of a business is significant if the business to be disposed of meets the conditions of a significant subsidiary under Rule 1-02(w). Rule 1-02(w) uses a 10% significance threshold, not the 20% threshold used for business acquisitions under Rules 3-05 and 11-01(b). When a registrant determines that it has an acquisition or disposition of a significant amount of assets that do not constitute a business, Item 2.01 of Form 8-K uses a 10% threshold for both acquisitions and dispositions to require disclosure of certain details of the transaction.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The terms “business” and “significant” used in Form 8-K specifically reference Article 11 of Regulation S-X.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             For acquisitions and dispositions of assets that do not constitute a business, Item 2.01 of Form 8-K specifies the tests to be used rather than referencing the tests in Rule 1-02(w). Specifically, Item 2.01 states that, “an acquisition or disposition shall be deemed to involve a significant amount of assets: (i) if the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the net book value of such assets or the amount paid or received for the assets upon such acquisition or disposition exceeded 10% of the total assets of the registrant and its consolidated subsidiaries; or (ii) if it involved a business (
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             17 CFR 210.11-01(d)) that is significant (
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             17 CFR 210.11-01(b)). ”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose revising Rule 11-01(b) to raise the significance threshold for the disposition of a business from 10% to 20%, to conform to the threshold at which an acquired business is significant under Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We also propose conforming, to the extent applicable, the tests used to determine significance of a disposed business to those used to determine significance of an acquired business.
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This change would be consistent with the symmetrical treatment in Form 8-K provided to acquisitions and dispositions of assets that do not constitute a business.
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, we propose revising Form 8-K and Article 8 to require smaller reporting companies to provide pro forma financial information for disposition of a significant business in Form 8-K and in certain registration statements and proxy statements when the disposition occurs during or after the most recently completed fiscal year.
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-01(b). We propose to revise Rule 11-01(b) to clearly provide for business acquisitions and dispositions, indicating that registrants should look to the conditions of a significant subsidiary in Rule 1-02(w), but substitute a 20% threshold for the 10% threshold provided in Rule 1-02(w) for both acquisitions and dispositions of businesses. We also propose to substitute a 20% threshold for the current 10% threshold for real estate operations. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-14(b)(2) and the related discussions in Section II.C. above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section II.D.2. and proposed Rule 11-01(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 192.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             The Form 8-K requirement for smaller reporting companies to provide pro forma financial information cites to Rule 8-05. Rule 8-05, however, only applies to acquisitions. While Article 8 has a requirement in Rule 8-03(b)(4) to provide pro forma financial information about dispositions of significant businesses, the provision only applies to the registrant's interim financial statements. In order to address the anomalous outcome where pro forma financial information is required when interim financial statements are presented but not when annual financial statements are presented, we propose to remove Rule 8-03(b)(4) and revise Rule 8-05 to require disclosure of pro forma financial information when any of the conditions in Rule 11-01 is met. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             further discussion in Section II.D.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed revisions would also apply to dispositions of real estate operations as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2).
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Unlike for acquisitions of real estate operations, the investment, asset, and income tests would apply. Where real estate operations have been included in the consolidated financial statements of the registrant, the information necessary to apply these tests would be available, and we are aware of no unique industry considerations that might warrant limiting the significance determination to only the investment test. However, similar to acquisitions of real estate operations, we propose that debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the buyer would be included in the investment test when the “investment in” real estate operations is being compared to total assets of the registrant.
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 11-01(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 1.02(w)(1)(i)(D).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We believe that having the same threshold and tests for the disposition of a business would simplify compliance for registrants. We further see no compelling reason why the subset of businesses for which investors need information should differ depending on whether the business is being acquired or disposed. The Commission previously raised the significance threshold for acquisitions to 20%,
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and we received no comment in response to the 2015 Request for Comment suggesting that the higher significance threshold has created issues for investors regarding the sufficiency of information provided. Rather, a number of commenters recommended conforming the significance threshold to present pro forma financial information for a material disposition to the threshold for acquisitions.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             1996 Streamlining Release, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">letters</E>
                             from ABA, BDO, CAQ, EY, Grant, and KPMG.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>64. Is our proposal to raise the significance threshold for the disposition of a business from 10% to 20% appropriate? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>
                        65. Is our proposal to conform the tests used to determine significance of a disposed business to those used to determine significance of an acquired business appropriate? Why or why not? Does the guidance in Instruction 4 of Item 2.01 of Form 8-K related to determining the significance of an asset acquisition or disposition that does not constitute a business (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Rule 11-01(d)) require clarification or adjustment? If so, what clarifications or adjustments are required and why?
                    </P>
                    <P>66. Are there other changes that we should consider with respect to the financial information required for a disposed business that would reduce compliance burdens for issuers but continue to provide the material information investors need to make informed investment decisions?</P>
                    <P>67. Should the investment, asset, and income tests apply to real estate operations in determining the significance for dispositions as proposed? Why or why not? Should the significance determination be limited to the investment test? If so, why?</P>
                    <P>68. Should debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the buyer be included in the investment test as proposed when the “investment in” a real estate operation is being compared to total assets of the registrant for purposes of measuring significance of a disposed real estate operation? Why or why not?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Smaller Reporting Companies and Issuers Relying on Regulation A</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rule 8-05 sets forth pro forma financial information requirements for business acquisitions by smaller reporting companies. Additionally, Part 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24624"/>
                        F/S of Form 1-A directs an entity relying on Regulation A to present the pro forma financial information specified by Rule 8-05.
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Like Article 11, Rule 8-05(a) requires pro forma financial information only if financial statements of a business acquired or to be acquired are presented. Like Article 11, Rule 8-05(b) provides that pro forma financial statements must consist of a pro forma balance sheet and a pro forma statement of comprehensive income presented in condensed, columnar form for the most recent year and interim period. Rule 8-05(b), however, does not provide further preparation guidance, such as the types of pro forma adjustments that can be made. Note 2 of the Preliminary Notes to Article 8 provides that, to the extent that Article 11-01 offers enhanced guidelines for the preparation, presentation, and disclosure of pro forma financial information, smaller reporting companies may wish to consider these items.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             paragraph (b)(7)(iv) of Part F/S. Part F/S of Form 1-A permits the periods presented to be those applicable to Regulation A issuers rather than the periods specified by Article 8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing to revise Rule 8-05 to require that the preparation, presentation, and disclosure of pro forma financial information by smaller reporting companies substantially comply with Article 11.
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, because Part F/S of Form 1-A refers to Rule 8-05, the proposed revisions to Rule 8-05 would apply to issuers relying on Regulation A. We believe the primary differences between Rule 8-05 and Article 11 relate to the types of pro forma adjustments that can be made and the number of periods required to be depicted.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed amendments would therefor provide the same benefits to smaller reporting companies and issuers relying on Regulation A with respect to pro forma financial information as would be available to other registrants under the proposed revisions to Article 11. For example, the proposed rules would permit smaller reporting companies and issuers relying on Regulation A to disclose Transaction Accounting Adjustments and Management's Adjustments on a basis consistent with other registrants.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These amendments would also provide investors with more uniform information upon which to make their investment decisions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 8-05(b). The one exception would relate to the requirement to present pro forma financial information in condensed format. Rule 8-05 requires presentation of pro forma financial information in condensed, columnar form, but does not define “condensed.” However, Rule 8-03(a) provides requirements for presenting interim financial statements of smaller reporting companies in condensed format. These requirements differ from the similar requirements in Rule 11-02(b)(3) for presenting “condensed” pro forma financial information under Article 11. Because pro forma financial information begins with the historical financial statements of the registrant, proposed Rule 8-05 would require application of Rule 8-03(a) requirements for condensed format rather than the requirement in Rule 11-02(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             Article 11 requires presentation of pro forma financial information for all periods for which historical income statements of the registrant are required when the transaction for which pro forma effect is being given will be reflected in the registrant's historical financial statements by retrospectively revising those financial statements for all periods presented. Rule 8-05 does not have a similar provision. One effect of conforming Rule 8-05 to Article 11 is that smaller reporting companies would have to provide pro forma financial information for two years in these circumstances. Because the circumstances requiring retrospective revision are generally within the registrant's control and the registrant must eventually revise its previously filed historical financial statements for all periods to reflect these circumstances, we do not believe our pro forma proposal will be a significant incremental burden to smaller reporting companies. We welcome commenters' views on whether our belief is correct.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section II.D.1. We believe the proposed Transaction Accounting Adjustments, which would depict in the pro forma condensed balance sheet the accounting for the transaction required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB and the effects of those pro forma balance sheet adjustments, would benefit smaller reporting companies and their investors by simplifying preparation of the pro forma financial information. The proposed Management's Adjustments, which would require information that depicts reasonably estimable synergies and other transaction effects that have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur, would also benefit smaller reporting companies and their investors by eliciting more transaction related disclosure, including forward-looking information.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are also proposing to revise Rule 8-05 to require presentation of pro forma financial information when the conditions in Rule 11-01 exist.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because Rule 8-05 currently requires pro forma financial information only for business acquisitions,
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         conforming the conditions would require smaller reporting companies and issuers relying on Regulation A to provide pro forma financial information whenever it is material to investors, regardless of the nature of the underlying transactions.
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on a staff analysis of 2017 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies, we believe that most already comply with the conditions in existing Rule 11-01.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 8-05(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section II.D.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             The incremental conditions that would require a smaller reporting company to present pro forma financial information under this proposal would include: Roll-up transactions as defined in 17 CFR 229.901(c); when such presentation is necessary to reflect the operations and financial position of the smaller reporting company as an autonomous entity; and other transactions for which disclosure of pro forma financial information would be material to investors.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             Commission staff found that out of 191 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies in 2017, 178 appeared to comply with Article 11 requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>69. Would the proposed revisions to Rule 8-05 to require Transaction Accounting Adjustments and Management's Adjustments simplify the application of our rules and reduce costs for registrants? Would the proposed revisions improve the disclosure available to investors without introducing significant incremental costs or burdens? Are there unique considerations that suggest smaller reporting companies should have different pro forma adjustment requirements? If so, what are those considerations, what different requirements should apply and why? Will the proposed Article 11 implementation guidance be beneficial to smaller reporting companies? Why or why not? Is there different implementation guidance that would be more beneficial? Are there other changes to the Rule 8-05 requirements that we should consider?</P>
                    <P>70. Our proposal to require pro forma financial information for disposition of a significant business in Form 8-K and in certain registration statements and proxy statements when the disposition occurs during or after the most recently completed fiscal year and to permit the use of pro forma financial information to determine significance in the context of business dispositions would also apply to smaller reporting companies based on our proposed revisions to Rule 8-05. Is requiring smaller reporting companies to provide pro forma information and permitting them to determine significance using pro forma financial information in the context of business dispositions appropriate? Are there other changes or information requirements we should consider for smaller reporting companies?</P>
                    <P>71. Is our proposal to require presentation of pro forma financial information when the conditions in Rule 11-01 exist, such that smaller reporting companies would be required to provide the information whenever it is material to investors, appropriate? If not, when should smaller reporting companies be required to provide pro forma financial information?</P>
                    <P>
                        72. Should the proposed changes to Rule 8-05 apply to offerings made pursuant to Regulation A? If not, how should we revise the proposals to better accommodate Regulation A issuers and investors?
                        <PRTPAGE P="24625"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Amendments to Financial Disclosure About Acquisitions Specific to Investment Companies</HD>
                    <P>
                        For financial reporting purposes, investment company registrants, including business development companies, must apply the general provisions in Articles 1, 2, 3, and 4 of Regulation S-X,
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         unless subject to the special rules 
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         set forth in 17 CFR 210.6-01 through 6-10 (“Article 6”). Investment company registrants differ from non-investment company registrants in several respects. Investment companies invest in securities principally for returns from capital appreciation and/or investment income. Investment companies are required to value 
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         their portfolio investments, with changes in value recognized in the statement of operations for each reporting period.
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Also, investment companies generally do not consolidate entities they control and do not account for portfolio investments using the equity method.
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             In October 2016, as part of a broader investment company reporting modernization rulemaking, the Commission adopted certain amendments to Regulation S-X that would expressly apply Article 6 to business development companies. 
                            <E T="03">See Investment Company Reporting Modernization,</E>
                             Release No. IC-32314 (Oct. 13, 2016) [81 FR 81870 (Nov. 18, 2016)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.6-03.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.6-02(b) (“the term value shall have the same meaning given in Section 2(a)(41)(B) of the Investment Company Act”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC 946-320-35, FASB ASC 946-323, FASB ASC 946-325-35, FASB ASC 946-810, and FASB ASC 815-10-35.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC 946-810-45-2 (general consolidation guidance) and FASB ASC 946-810-45-3 (the exception to that guidance when considering an investment in an operating company that provides services to the investment company).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments are designed to tailor the financial reporting requirements for investment companies with respect to acquisitions of investment companies and other types of funds (collectively, “acquired funds”).
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         There are no specific rules or requirements in Article 6 for investment companies relating to the financial statements of acquired funds. Instead, investment companies apply the general requirements of Rule 3-05 and the pro forma financial information requirements in Article 11, although it is often unclear how to apply these reporting requirements in the context of acquired funds. As a result, investment company registrants frequently consult with Commission staff on the application of Rule 3-05 and Article 11 as part of the registration or filing process to seek relief from those requirements pursuant to Rule 3-13 and delegated authority,
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         a time-consuming process for both the registrant and the staff. Currently, investment companies typically file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements in transactions in which an investment company with limited assets and operating history is created for the purpose of acquiring one or more private funds operating under the exemptions provided by Sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the Investment Company Act. This type of acquisition typically occurs early in the life of the acquiring investment company when it has few or no portfolio investment assets of its own. In these cases, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements of the acquired fund or funds may be the primary financial information considered by investors when making investment decisions with respect to the investment company.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             Because securities from acquired funds become part of the acquiring fund's investment portfolio, the concept of a disposition of a business is inapt for investment companies. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Rule 11-01(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 43. The Commission has delegated authority to the staff in the Division of Investment Management to grant requests for relief under Rule 3-13 with respect to investment companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing to add a definition of significant subsidiary in Regulation S-X that is specifically tailored for investment companies based on the current Rule 8b-2 definition with some modifications.
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment companies are required to use the significant subsidiary tests in Rule 1-02(w) when applying Rule 3-05 and other rules within Regulation S-X. However, the tests in Rule 1-02(w) were not written for the specific characteristics of investment companies.
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, there is a different definition of significant subsidiary set forth in Rule 8b-2 that is applicable to the filing of registration statements and reports under the Investment Company Act,
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which creates inconsistencies with the Regulation S-X definition.
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, the rules promulgated pursuant to Section 8 of the Investment Company Act are not applicable to business development companies.
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commission staff has previously described its views as to how certain Regulation S-X provisions apply to business development companies in connection with registration statements filed under the Securities Act.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In light of these circumstances, we believe that a specific test for investment companies would provide a more appropriate measure of significance given the differences in financial reporting of investment companies as compared to non-investment companies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 1-02(w)(2). We additionally propose to amend Rule 1-02(w) to provide that, with respect to the condition in proposed Rule 1-02(w)(2)(ii), the value of investments shall be determined in accordance with U.S. GAAP and, if applicable, Section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(41)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             For example, one condition of the significant subsidiary definition examines the investment company's “equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests” of the subsidiary, which are concepts not generally applicable for investment company financial reporting.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 270.8b-2 (stating that terms defined in the rule, when used in registration statements pursuant to Section 8 of the Investment Company Act and all reports pursuant to Section 30(a) or (b) of the Investment Company Act, shall have the meaning indicated in the rule). Investment Company Act forms that reference the term “significant subsidiary” include Form N-8B-4 for issuers of face-amount certificates, Form N-5 for small business investment companies, and Item B.11 of Form N-CEN.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             For example, Form N-14 used by registered investment companies and business development companies in connection with a business combination is a registration statement only under the Securities Act and not the Investment Company Act. Therefore, the definitions in Rule 8b-2 would not apply to a Form N-14 registration statement. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             General Instruction A to Form N-14.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section 59 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-58).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Investment Management Guidance Update No. 2013-07, 
                            <E T="03">Business Development Companies—Separate Financial Statements or Summarized Financial Information of Certain Subsidiaries,</E>
                             available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/divisions/investment/guidance/im-guidance-2013-07.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We also are proposing new Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X, which would specifically cover financial reporting in the event of a fund acquisition and is modeled after proposed Rules 3-05 and 3-14.
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Proposed Rule 6-11 would apply to the acquisition of another investment company, including a business development company, a private fund, and any private account managed by an investment adviser. Because the definition of business in Rule 11-01(d) is not readily applicable in the context of a fund acquisition, we propose a facts and circumstances test as to whether a fund acquisition has occurred, including when one fund acquires all or substantially all of another fund's portfolio investments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             In the event of a non-fund acquisition, investment companies would follow Rule 3-05.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Investment companies are also required to file audited financial statements for acquired funds, which can include private funds. Those private funds often have prepared audited financial statements in accordance with U.S. GAAP. However, private funds are not required to comply with the additional requirements set forth in Regulation S-X and therefore generally have not prepared their financial statements in accordance, nor had an audit conducted in compliance, with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24626"/>
                        Regulation S-X. In these situations, an investment company registrant typically must revise or re-audit the historical financial statements of acquired funds so that they comply with all applicable rules within Regulation S-X.
                    </P>
                    <P>We additionally propose to eliminate the current pro forma financial information requirement for investment companies and replace it with proposed Rule 6-11(d), which would require investment companies to provide supplemental financial information that we believe will be more relevant to investors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments to Significance Tests for Investment Companies</HD>
                    <P>As described in Section II.A.1, the definition of significant subsidiary in Rule 1-02(w) has three separate tests: The Investment Test, the Asset Test, and the Income Test. In contrast, the definition of significant subsidiary in Rule 8b-2 under the Investment Company Act has two tests:</P>
                    <P>• The Rule 8b-2 investment test, which looks to whether value of the investments in and advances to the subsidiary by its parent and the parent's other subsidiaries, if any exceed 10% of the value of the assets of the parent or, if a consolidated balance sheet is filed, the value of the assets of the parent and its consolidated subsidiaries; or</P>
                    <P>• the Rule 8b-2 income test, which looks to whether total investment income of the subsidiary or, in the case of a noninvestment company subsidiary, the net income exceeds 10% of the total investment income of the parent or, if consolidated statements are filed, 10% of the total investment income of the parent and its consolidated subsidiaries.</P>
                    <P>
                        Calculations for these tests are made using amounts determined under U.S. GAAP.
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rule 8b-2 does not include an asset test.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 1-02(w).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We propose to add new Rule 1-02(w)(2) to create a separate definition of significant subsidiary for investment companies in Regulation S-X, which would use an investment test and an income test, but not an asset test. The proposed definition would use a modified version of the current Rule 8b-2 tests. We also propose conforming amendments to Rule 8b-2 to make it consistent with proposed Rule 1-02(w)(2).
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The changes to the significant subsidiary definition in Regulation S-X would affect disclosures for fund acquisitions and also have effects on investment company application of Rule 3-09 regarding separate financial statements for significant subsidiaries and Rule 4-08(g) regarding summarized financial information of subsidiaries not consolidated. We believe that it is appropriate to apply consistent significance tests for each of these provisions, particularly as proposed Rule 1-02(w)(2) is intended to be specifically tailored for investment companies. We believe that the proposed definition would avoid unnecessary regulatory complexity and the potential confusion associated with the existing definitions and provide more appropriate standards for determining significance for financial disclosure.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             In conforming Rule 8b-2, we propose to eliminate paragraph (k)(3) of that rule and instead follow the syntax of proposed Rule 1-02(w) which more simply states that a significant subsidiary means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the specified conditions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Investment Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Investment Test for significant subsidiary in Regulation S-X determines significance by determining whether the investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary 
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         exceed 10% of the registrant's total assets. Rule 8b-2 similarly determines significance using an investment test. For investment companies, we propose to establish an investment test that compares whether the value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investment in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceeds 10% of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 37 (regarding the use of the term “tested subsidiary”). Rule 1-02(w) defines the term “significant subsidiary.” Proposed Rule 6-11 as well as Rules 3-09 and 4-08(g) use the conditions in Rule 1-02(w) when establishing the test for registrants to determine whether additional financial disclosures are required for investment company registrants.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Our proposed investment test would be similar to the existing Investment Test, but modified so that the comparison would be to the value of the registrant's total investments 
                        <SU>226</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         rather than total assets. Value of the investments would be determined in accordance with U.S. GAAP 
                        <SU>227</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and, if applicable, such as in the case of investment company registrants, Section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act. We believe that the proposed total investments measure would be more appropriate for investment companies and more relevant than the existing tests, because it would focus the significance determination on the impact to the registrant's investment portfolio as opposed to other non-investment assets that may be held.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 210.6-04.4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC 820 (fair value measurements).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, under Rule 6-05 of Regulation S-X, investment company registrants may substitute a statement of net assets in lieu of a balance sheet if at least 95% of total assets are represented by investments in securities of unaffiliated issuers. In such situations, the registrant will not file with the Commission a balance sheet that discloses total assets. We believe using total investments for the proposed investment test for investment companies would be a more transparent measure than total assets for registrants that use a statement of net assets instead of a balance sheet.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Asset Test</HD>
                    <P>The Asset Test in Rule 1-02(w) compares the proportionate share of the total assets (after intercompany eliminations) of the tested subsidiary to the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recent fiscal year. There is no equivalent test under the Rule 8b-2 definition of significant subsidiary. We propose eliminating the Asset Test from Regulation S-X as a measure of significance for investment companies because we believe doing so would simplify compliance without changing the information available to investors.</P>
                    <P>The Asset Test is generally not meaningful when applied to investment companies. For example, if the tested subsidiary is another investment company, comparing the value of the registrant's proportionate share in that subsidiary to the registrant's total assets creates a test nearly identical to the proposed investment test. Because total investments is a component of total assets on the balance sheet of an investment company, the condition under the proposed investment test would always be satisfied before the condition of the Asset Test. In this context, the Asset Test becomes superfluous.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, applying the Asset Test is less straightforward for investment companies than for non-investment companies when the tested subsidiary is not an investment company.
                        <SU>228</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The assets of non-investment companies are generally based on historical cost, while the assets of investment companies are based on market price or fair value. Thus, applying the Asset Test becomes less meaningful for investment companies as it requires comparing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24627"/>
                        assets measured under different methodologies and therefore may be a less reliable indicator of significance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             In the event the tested subsidiary is another investment company, the assets of that subsidiary would principally be portfolio investments valued under U.S. GAAP and, if applicable, Section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Income Test</HD>
                    <P>The Income Test in Rule 1-02(w) compares the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests. The income test in Rule 8b-2, however, compares the total investment income of the tested subsidiary with the total investment income of the parent and its consolidated subsidiaries. Both tests find significance if the result is greater than 10%. We believe that the income test in Rule 8b-2 is more appropriate because it uses income elements that are actually reported by investment companies. We propose to use that test, but modified to include any net realized gains and losses and net change in unrealized gains and losses.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed income test for investment companies specifically uses components from the statement of operations required by Rule 6-07. In particular, the proposed income test for investment companies would include, in the numerator, the following amounts for the most recently completed pre-acquisition fiscal year of the tested subsidiary: (1) Investment income, such as dividends, interest, and other income; (2) the net realized gains and losses on investments; and (3) the net change in unrealized gains and losses.
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that including changes in realized and unrealized gains/losses can better reflect the impact of the tested subsidiary on an investment portfolio rather than investment income alone, especially if volatility in the value of the investment portfolio is significantly greater than investment income or if there are significant holdings of securities that do not produce investment income. The sum of the absolute value of these amounts would be compared to the absolute value of the registrant and its subsidiaries' consolidated change in net assets resulting from operations.
                        <SU>230</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We propose using the change in net assets resulting from operations because it is the equivalent to net income for non-investment companies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             descriptions of these terms in Rules 6-07.1, 6-07.7(a), and 6-07.7(d) and equivalents under U.S. GAAP for non-registrants.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 6-07.9. The absolute value would be calculated using the amounts set forth in the statement of operations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We also propose to amend the significance threshold for the income test in Rule 1-02(w) as it applies to investment companies. We propose that a tested subsidiary will be deemed significant under the income test for investment companies if the test yields a condition of greater than either (1) 80% by itself or (2) 10% 
                        <E T="03">and</E>
                         the investment test for investment companies yields a result of greater than 5% (“alternate income test”). As with non-investment companies, the current Income Test may indicate significance and can result in additional financial information about the tested subsidiary being required 
                        <SU>231</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         even though the tested subsidiary represents a very small component of the registrant's investment portfolio. We believe that the proposed threshold changes would reduce the need to produce additional financial information in situations where a registrant's change in net assets resulting from operations is relatively small and better identify situations of significance in which additional disclosure is warranted.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rules 3-09 and 4-08(g).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We have proposed the 80% threshold based on the view that it represents a level of significance that more accurately indicates the need for additional financial disclosure, especially for funds with relatively small amounts of income.
                        <SU>232</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In these situations, the proposed income test threshold for investment companies, which is eight times greater, should result in fewer registrants with significance findings than under the current Income Test that uses a 10% threshold. To further mitigate the potential adverse effects of the proposed income test for investment companies with insignificant changes in net assets resulting from operations for the most recently completed fiscal year, we propose an instruction that permits the registrant to compute the income test for investment companies using the average of the absolute value of the changes in net assets for the past five fiscal years.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 3-05(b)(4)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             This approach is similar to that proposed when applying the revenue test for non-investment company registrants that have no recurring annual revenues. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 48 and accompanying text.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We believe that a bright-line threshold for the proposed income test for investment companies would be less costly to apply than a principles-based approach as an initial determination of significance. To the extent that an investment company registrant exceeds the 80% threshold under the income test for investment companies and believes that the tested subsidiary is not significant, the registrant can engage with our staff and seek to omit separate financial statements for that subsidiary or substitute financial statements, which the staff may grant pursuant to Rule 3-13 and delegated authority.
                        <SU>234</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For situations where the 80% threshold is not exceeded but the impact of a tested subsidiary's income may be significant, we believe that the proposed alternate income test would appropriately capture significance for financial reporting purposes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 215.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed alternate income test for investment companies would retain the existing 10% threshold for income significance but add an additional condition of more than 5% under the proposed investment test. We believe that the addition of a minimal percentage of the investment portfolio will eliminate many of the anomalous findings of significance as compared to the current 10% condition for net income alone. We have chosen 5% for the minimum because it is consistent with the 5% threshold utilized in Rule 6-05 for purposes of allowing the presentation of a statement of net assets in lieu of a balance sheet.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>73. Should we create a separate definition of significant subsidiary in Rule 1-02(w) of Regulation S-X specifically for investment companies? If so, is the proposed definition appropriate when used for Rules 3-09 and 4-08(g) and proposed Rule 6-11 with respect to investment companies?</P>
                    <P>74. Should we make corresponding changes to the definition of significant subsidiary in Rule 8b-2? Are there reasons, with respect to investment companies, that the definitions of significant subsidiary in Rule 8b-2 and Regulation S-X should differ?</P>
                    <P>75. Should we utilize the value of total investments of an investment company as a denominator rather than total assets for the proposed investment test for investment companies? Should we change the numerator to a different metric than value of investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary? If so, which metric and why? Should we use the definition of value from the Investment Company Act for purposes of the Regulation S-X definition of significant subsidiary?</P>
                    <P>
                        76. Should an asset test apply to investment companies? Are there situations in which an asset test would uniquely identify a significant subsidiary? If we were to retain an asset test for investment companies, how could it be modified to better reflect measures of significance relevant to investment companies?
                        <PRTPAGE P="24628"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>77. Should we establish an income test for investment companies to utilize the absolute value of the sum of: (1) Investment income, such as interest, dividend, and other income; (2) change in unrealized gain/loss; and (3) realized gain/loss as the numerator? If so, should we also change the denominator to be the investment company's absolute value of change in assets resulting from operations? Should we use absolute values of these entries from the statement of operations or should we use the absolute value of the gain or loss on each individual portfolio security? Are there other measures we should consider?</P>
                    <P>78. Should we increase the threshold of the income test for investment companies to 80%? Should we make the proposed income test for investment companies conjunctive with the proposed investment test for investment companies? Are the proposed thresholds of 10% and 5% appropriate or should they be different? If different, what thresholds should we use to make the proposed income test conjunctive with the proposed investment test?</P>
                    <P>79. Should we base the proposed income test for investment companies on the individual absolute value of the components rather than netting them out? For example, in a fund with significant investment income, that income could be offset by an equal amount of realized and unrealized losses, creating a relatively small change in net assets resulting from operations. If we were to use the absolute value of each of the components, should we reduce the threshold of the proposed income test?</P>
                    <P>80. Under our proposal, a five-year average would be used for the income test for investment companies if the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated has an insignificant change in net assets resulting from operations for the most recent fiscal year. Should the five-year average also be required for the tested subsidiary under similar circumstances? Should this proposed amendment be more similar to the one for non-investment company registrants? Should a five-year average be required only if the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10% lower than the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant for each of its last five years?</P>
                    <P>81. We are proposing amendments to Rule 1-02(w)(2) to assist investment company registrants in making significance determinations. Are the proposed amendments appropriate? If not, are there different or additional amendments we should consider?</P>
                    <P>82. Should we make further modifications to the proposed income test for investment companies in situations where the tested subsidiary is not an investment company? For example, should we require the use of net income for a non-investment company subsidiary when compared to the registrant's change in net assets resulting from operations?</P>
                    <P>83. Instead of having specific percentage conditions, should we adopt a materiality standard? For example, should we adopt a standard that deems a subsidiary as significant if it is material to an understanding of the registrant's financial condition?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposed Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X</HD>
                    <P>We are proposing new Rule 6-11 to address the financial statements of funds acquired or to be acquired, if probable, which would be based on proposed Rules 3-05 and 3-14 but modified to meet the needs of investment companies and their investors. Proposed Rule 6-11 would only apply to the acquisition of a fund, including any investment company as defined in Section 3(a) of the Investment Company Act, any private fund that would be an investment company but for the exclusions provided by Sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act, or any private account managed by an investment adviser. Proposed Rule 6-11 calls for a facts and circumstances evaluation as to whether a fund acquisition has occurred or is probable. We believe this approach captures the appropriate universe of fund acquisitions where additional disclosures may be appropriate, as it is based on the economic substance of a transaction rather than legal form. Under proposed Rule 6-11, the acquisition of all or substantially all portfolio investments held by another fund would be considered a fund acquisition; otherwise, potential disclosure obligations could be avoided by structuring an acquisition transaction as a sale of all assets rather than a merger.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose to require only one year of audited financial statements for fund acquisitions, a change from the existing Rule 3-05 requirements that require between one and three years of audited financial statements. This proposed change would make the obligations more aligned with the financial statement obligations applicable to investment company registration statements. Rule 3-18 allows registered investment management companies to file financial statements covering only the most recent fiscal year, except for an audited statement of changes in net assets which must cover the two most recent fiscal years.
                        <SU>235</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Older historical financial statements are generally less relevant to fund investors because the price of investment company shares or interests is established by the value of its investment portfolio, even for closed-end funds that may trade at a discount to net asset value and private funds that do not readily trade. Moreover, the proposed change would also be consistent with the practice of our disclosure review staff during consultations, which have permitted investment company registrants to provide financial statements for acquired funds for the periods set forth in Rule 3-18 rather than Rule 3-05.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             Business development companies are also permitted to use Rule 3-18 pursuant to the instructions set forth in Form N-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 215.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Under proposed Rule 6-11, the related schedules specified in Article 12 would need to be provided for an acquired or to be acquired fund. These schedules, such as the schedule of investments, are important for investment company registrants because they permit an investor to know the specific portfolio investments being acquired. The nature of investment companies, whose assets largely consist of portfolio investments that are carried at market value, if available, or fair value, makes other historical financial statement information less relevant than for non-investment companies.</P>
                    <P>
                        Acquisitions of a group of related funds would be considered as a single acquisition under proposed Rule 6-11(a)(3) 
                        <SU>237</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and a registrant would have the option of presenting the required financial statements either on an individual or combined basis for any periods they are under common control or management. This provision is comparable to the treatment of related businesses under current and proposed Rule 3-05 and for similar reasons we believe it would be appropriate in the context of fund acquisitions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             Funds are considered related if they are under common control or management, the acquisition of one fund is conditional on the acquisition of each other fund, or each acquisition is conditioned on a single common event.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the investment company context, we believe that information about the composition of the acquired fund's investment portfolio is the most important and relevant information for investors. We understand that a significant number of private funds currently prepare audited financial statements under U.S. GAAP due to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24629"/>
                        investor demand and for regulatory compliance purposes.
                        <SU>238</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, we propose to allow investment companies to provide financial statements for private funds that were prepared in accordance with U.S. GAAP. However, we also are proposing to require the investment company registrant to file schedules for the acquired fund that comply with Article 12 of Regulation S-X, which requires each investment to be listed separately. Because the proposed rule would require the schedule of investments as set forth in Article 12, a private fund would not be permitted to present a condensed schedule of investments. We believe that our proposed approach with respect to acquisitions of private funds will reduce the costs related to re-issuing audited financial statements in compliance with Regulation S-X, but still provide investors appropriate information about the acquired fund.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             For example, one reason would be to satisfy custody rule obligations under the Investment Advisers Act. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Private fund financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. GAAP do not require the same level of granular information or disclosure as financial statements prepared in compliance with Regulation S-X. For example, certain financial statements prepared in compliance with Regulation S-X require separate disclosure of major categories or accounts greater than a certain percentage of total assets, liabilities, income or expenses while U.S. GAAP requirements are less specific. Additionally, under Regulation S-X, registered investment companies and business development companies must separately show certain financial statement accounts within the financial statements, regardless of their materiality, based on their affiliate classification in relation to the fund.
                        <SU>239</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             the financial reporting requirements of Rule 6-07 and FASB ASC 946-210-50-4 and 946-210-50-6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Currently, a registrant that acquires a private fund typically must revise the historical financial statements of the acquired fund so that they comply with all applicable rules of Regulation S-X and possibly re-audit those statements. This is the case because the financial statements of private funds are generally prepared, in practice, in accordance with U.S. GAAP only. This can be costly both in terms of time and resources and, given the information contained in the acquired private fund audited financial statements that comply with U.S. GAAP, it is not clear that there is a commensurate benefit to investors by requiring financial statements of the acquired fund that comply with all provisions of Regulation S-X. Therefore, our proposal is intended to achieve an appropriate balance by permitting registrants to file U.S. GAAP financial statements for acquired private funds, but supplementing those financial statements with schedules listing each investment as required by Article 12.</P>
                    <P>To determine whether financial statements of a fund acquired or to be acquired must be provided under proposed Rule 6-11, the conditions specified in the definition of significant subsidiary under proposed Rule 1-02(w)(2) would be applied, using the investment test and the alternate income test for investment companies and substituting 20% for 10% for each place it appears therein. We have based the 20% significance test on comparable conditions in current Rule 3-05 and have not identified any reason to use a different threshold. The income test for investment companies with the 80% condition would not be used for purposes of proposed Rule 6-11 because we believe, in the acquisition context, significance matters principally with respect to the portfolio investments and the amount of assets being acquired, since investment income and realized and unrealized gains/losses from the investments acquired will be immediately reflected in the daily net asset value of the registrant. If either of the tests is satisfied at the 20% condition, the registrant would be required to file the financial statements for the acquired fund as set forth in proposed Rule 6-11. Otherwise, filing financial statements of the acquired fund would not be necessary.</P>
                    <P>If the aggregate impact of individually insignificant funds acquired or to be acquired since the most recent audited balance sheet exceeds the conditions of the investment test and the alternate income test for investment companies, substituting 50% for 10%, then the registrant would be required to provide the financial statements for each individually insignificant fund and the supplemental financial information. We have based the 50% condition on the provision in current Rule 3-05(b)(2)(i). Unlike the existing rule, however, proposed Rule 6-11 would require financial statements for each individually insignificant fund acquired or to be acquired, rather than the “substantial majority” requirement for businesses acquired under the current rule.</P>
                    <P>In determining whether financial statements of funds acquired or to be acquired must be filed, the registrant may use pro forma amounts that give effect to an acquisition consummated after the registrant's latest fiscal year-end for which the registrant has filed audited financial statements of such acquired fund as required by proposed Rule 6-11. Any requirement to file financial statements of an acquired fund would cease once an audited balance sheet required by Rules 3-01 or 3-18 is filed for a date after the date the acquisition was consummated. At such time, the acquired investments would be reflected on the balance sheet or statement of net assets and accompanying schedules. In these circumstances, we believe that historical financial statements of acquired funds would be of less importance to investors and continued filing obligations would impose unnecessary costs since any realized and unrealized gains/losses on the acquired investments would be reflected in the daily net asset value calculation as well as fund performance measures on a going-forward basis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>84. Should we adopt proposed Rule 6-11 for acquisitions of funds by registrants? Have we appropriately defined what constitutes a fund acquisition? Are there other types of private funds not covered by the Section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) exclusion that should be covered? Is it appropriate to use a facts and circumstances-based evaluation to determine whether a fund acquisition has or will occur? Are there are other factors that should be considered in defining a fund acquisition?</P>
                    <P>85. Should we permit the presentation of audited financial statements of acquired funds for only the most recent fiscal year? Should we require the same reporting periods required by Rule 3-18 instead? If so, should we permit any registered investment company registrant, such as unit investment trusts, to use Rule 3-18 and not limit it to only registered management investment companies?</P>
                    <P>86. Should we treat business development companies and registered investment companies the same? Should business development companies follow the reporting periods set forth in proposed Rule 3-05 instead of proposed Rule 6-11?</P>
                    <P>
                        87. Should we require registrants to provide the audited schedules required by Article 12 for an acquired private fund, including a schedule of investments that requires each investment to be listed separately? Should we require only a smaller set of schedules required by Article 12, such as those required by Rules 12-12, 12-12A, 12-12B, 12-12C, and 12-13? Should we allow registrants to provide 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24630"/>
                        schedules that are permitted under U.S. GAAP rather than Article 12?
                    </P>
                    <P>88. Is there any other disclosure by a registrant or an acquired fund that would be important to a fund investor? If so, please specify in detail.</P>
                    <P>89. Should we permit registrants to have the option to file financial statements on an individual or a combined basis for acquired funds that are part of a group of related funds for any periods they are under common control or management?</P>
                    <P>90. Should we continue to use the significant subsidiary definition as the basis for evaluating whether financial statements of an acquired fund should be filed? If so, is 20% the appropriate threshold? If not, what would be the appropriate threshold?</P>
                    <P>91. Should we not apply the 80% income test for purposes of determining whether financial statements of an acquired fund should be filed?</P>
                    <P>92. Should we permit a registrant to cease providing audited financial statements of the acquired fund once an audited balance sheet for the registrant is filed that reflects the assets of the acquired fund? Should the registrant be required to continue to file audited financial statements of the acquired fund until an audited statement of operations for a complete fiscal year reflecting the acquired fund has been filed?</P>
                    <P>93. Is it appropriate to permit the financial statements of an acquired private fund to comply with U.S. GAAP and only the schedule requirements in Article 12? Should we require Article 12 schedules to be filed with respect to the acquired private fund, even though it may be likely to result in additional costs?</P>
                    <P>94. Is the proposed language related to independence standards sufficiently clear? Should we specify the “applicable independence standards”? If so, how should they be specified? Are there circumstances where there are no “applicable independence standards”? In those circumstances, which independence standards should apply?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Pro Forma Financial Information and Supplemental Financial Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        We propose to eliminate the requirement to provide pro forma financial information for investment company registrants in connection with fund acquisitions and to provide more relevant disclosures in its place. Rule 11-01 requires an investment company to furnish pro forma financial information when a significant business acquisition has occurred or is probable, with significance being determined using the tests set forth in Rule 1-02(w) and substituting 20% for 10%. In the staff's experience, investment companies often file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements in transactions in which an investment company with limited assets and operating history is created for the purpose of acquiring one or more private funds. After such an acquisition, the portfolio investments of the acquired fund will represent nearly all of the portfolio investments of the registrant, rendering the pro forma financial statements of the registrant to be substantially similar to the historical financial statements of the acquired fund that are already provided in the registration statement. Rule 11-02 permits investment companies to provide a narrative description of the pro forma effects of the transaction in lieu of pro forma financial statements, if there are a limited number of required pro forma adjustments and they are easily understood.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 11-02(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Applying the current pro forma financial information requirements, based on rules that are principally designed for non-investment companies, to fund acquisitions by investment companies may increase costs borne by investors without yielding significant benefit. Pro forma financial information in the investment company context may be less informative than other financial information. For example, non-investment company registrants are required to include historical financial statements and pro forma financial information in the registrant's prospectus. For investment companies, this information is placed in the statement of additional information (SAI) and not the prospectus. The absence of pro forma information from the prospectus is notable because the Commission has previously concluded that the prospectus, standing alone, contains all of “the information that is necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors.” 
                        <SU>241</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The SAI, on the other hand, contains information not required in the prospectus but which “may be of interest to at least some investors.” 
                        <SU>242</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Registration Form Used by Open-End Management Investment Companies; Guidelines,</E>
                             Release No. IC-13436 (Aug. 12, 1983) [(48 FR 37928, 37930) (Aug. 22, 1983)] (“Form N-1A Adopting Release”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             Id. at 37928. Today, all SAIs and the rest of an investment company's registration statements and other filings are available to investors on the Commission's EDGAR system. In addition, for investment companies that use a summary prospectus, the SAI must be posted to the fund's website. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 230.498(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Preparation of pro forma financial information imposes costs on investment company registrants, and a significant percentage of filings on Form N-14 contain pro forma financial information. Our staff reviewed approximately 450 filings on Form N-14 over the past three years, using analytical tools to identify filings with pro forma information and found that approximately 50% of N-14 filings included pro forma financial statements and an additional 25% included narrative pro forma information.</P>
                    <P>
                        When the Commission adopted Form N-14 in 1985, it stated that pro forma and historical financial information “may be useful” to investors, even though some commenters indicated that the information was not material.
                        <SU>243</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, several commenters suggested that historical financial statements and pro forma financial information were not material, particularly if an audited schedule of investments from the acquired fund was provided.
                        <SU>244</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe that it is appropriate to re-consider whether pro forma financial information is necessary in light of the costs to prepare such disclosures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Business Combination Transactions; New Registration Form for Investment Companies,</E>
                             Release No. IC-14796 (Nov. 14, 1985) [50 FR 48379 (Nov. 25, 1985)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             letters from CAQ, Crowe, and RSM.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In place of the current pro forma financial information requirements, we propose new Rule 6-11(d) to require that investment companies provide supplemental information about the newly combined entity that we believe will be more relevant to investors. The supplemental information would include: (1) A pro forma fee table, setting forth the post-transaction fee structure of the combined entity; (2) if the transaction will result in a material change in the acquired fund's investment portfolio due to investment restrictions,
                        <SU>245</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         a schedule of investments of the acquired fund modified to show the effects of such change and accompanied by narrative disclosure describing the change; and (3) narrative disclosure about material differences in accounting policies of the acquired fund when compared to the newly combined entity. We believe that this amendment would provide material information to investors because it would highlight important changes resulting from a fund acquisition (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         changes in fees and expenses, changes to acquired fund's holdings, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24631"/>
                        changes in accounting policies) to provide appropriate context to the acquired fund's financial statements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             One example is if the registrant and the acquired fund both have positions in the same portfolio investment and, when combined, the registrant would exceed an investment restriction on any single holding. In this situation, a certain percentage of the portfolio investment may need to be divested.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>95. Should we eliminate the requirement for investment companies to provide pro forma financial statements for the combined entity after a business acquisition? To what extent does pro forma financial information remain material in the investment company context? Please provide specific examples of how the current pro forma financial information is utilized.</P>
                    <P>96. Should we require the pro forma fee table, schedule of investments, and narrative disclosure as outlined above? Is there other information we should require in lieu of pro forma financial statements of the combined entity? If so, what other information would be material to investors?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Amendments to Form N-14</HD>
                    <P>
                        Item 14 of Form N-14, the form used by investment companies to register securities issued in business acquisition transactions,
                        <SU>246</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provides, subject to certain exceptions, that the corresponding Statement of Additional Information “shall contain the financial statements and schedules of the acquiring company and the company to be acquired required by Regulation S-X.” 
                        <SU>247</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We propose to amend Form N-14 so that its disclosure requirements are consistent with the disclosures required in proposed Rule 6-11 because we believe it is appropriate for investors who acquire securities in a registered offering to have the same disclosure that investors receive through financial statement disclosure in shareholder reports. In the case of a fund acquisition, any financial statements and schedules required by Regulation S-X would only be required for the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period.
                        <SU>248</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, we propose to permit private funds to provide financial statements and schedules that conform to U.S. GAAP and Article 12 of the Regulation S-X. We also propose to require inclusion of the supplemental financial information described in proposed Rule 6-11(d), except for the pro forma fee table. We are excluding the pro forma fee table from Item 14 of Form N-14 because it is already required in the prospectus under Item 3 of that Form. We also propose to remove provisions no longer relevant because of prior amendments.
                        <SU>249</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We further propose to remove the existing exclusion in Form N-14 for pro forma financial statements required by Rule 11-01 of Regulation S-X if the net asset value of the company being acquired does not exceed 10% of the registrant's net asset value because pro forma financial statements would be no longer required for fund acquisitions and, for non-fund acquisitions, the significance measure for pro forma statements in Rule 11-01(b)(1) is and would remain 20%.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 239.23 (setting forth the requirement for an investment company to file Form N-14 to register securities in business combination transactions) and 17 CFR 230.145 (specifying the types of transactions that trigger the Form N-14 filing requirement).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Item 14 of Form N-14. Currently, the disclosures are to be for the periods specified in Article 3 of Regulation S-X. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             Non-fund acquisitions would be required to follow the other financial statement disclosure requirements set forth in Regulation S-X for the periods required by Rule 3-05, including any pro forma financial information required by Article 11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             Specifically, we are removing the ability to place columns C and D of Schedule II under Rule 12-14 to Part C of the registration statement, with the remainder of the schedule being provided in the SAI. When originally adopted, Form N-14 was based on Form N-1A, which had a similar provision. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Form N-1A Adopting Release. This provision was removed from Form N-1A in 1998. 
                            <E T="03">See Registration Form Used by Open-End Management Investment Companies,</E>
                             Release No. 33-7512 [63 FR 13916 (Mar. 23, 1998)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>97. Should we conform the financial statement disclosure requirements in Item 14 of Form N-14 with proposed Rule 6-11? If not, how and why should the disclosures differ?</P>
                    <P>98. Should we require the supplemental financial information to be disclosed in Form N-14?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. General Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>We request and encourage any interested person to submit comments on any aspect of the proposal, other matters that might have an impact on the amendments, and any suggestions for additional changes. With respect to any comments, we note that they are of greatest assistance to our rulemaking initiative if accompanied by supporting data and analysis of the issues addressed in those comments, particularly quantitative information as to the costs and benefits, and by alternatives to the proposals where appropriate. Where alternatives to the proposals are suggested, please include information as to the costs and benefits of those alternatives.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Economic Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
                    <P>We are proposing amendments to our rules and forms to improve the disclosure requirements for financial statements relating to acquisitions and dispositions of businesses, including real estate operations and investment companies. The intended economic effects of the proposed amendments are to reduce the burden on registrants of complying with financial statement disclosure requirements related to their business acquisitions and business dispositions, facilitate timely access to capital, and provide more relevant information to investors. This reduced compliance burden also may encourage registrants to engage in more potentially value-enhancing mergers and acquisitions than they otherwise would engage in without the proposed amendments. However, business acquisitions and dispositions take place for many reasons, which could make it difficult to isolate the effects of the proposal from the effects of a host of potentially confounding factors.</P>
                    <P>
                        Providing timely, accurate, and transparent information, especially financial information, about acquired or disposed businesses is important to mitigate the information asymmetry that exists between corporate insiders (managers and majority shareholders) and outsiders (minority shareholders, creditors, etc.). This is especially true in the context of major corporate transactions such as mergers, acquisitions, and dispositions, as investors rely on the financial information of the acquired and disposed businesses to assess the potential effects of these activities on the registrant. A properly functioning market for corporate control serves as an important external governance mechanism involving transactions that potentially create shareholder value through synergy generation or transferring assets to more efficient management.
                        <SU>250</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, in the absence of appropriate disclosures, investors may not be able to fully assess the effects of this important external governance mechanism on the firms in which they invest.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             M. Mitchell and K. Lehn, 1990, “Do Bad Bidders Become Good Targets?”, Journal of Political Economy, Vol. 98; A. Agrawal and J. Jaffe, 2003, “Do Takeover Targets Underperform? Evidence from Operating and Stock Returns”, Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, Vol 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        At the same time, such disclosure requirements impose costs on registrants that could deter them from engaging in, or diminish the benefits associated with, acquisitions that are value-enhancing, for example, where the acquirer has to negotiate for information that may be costly and burdensome for the acquiree to prepare and provide. Further, a registrant's ability to provide such disclosure for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24632"/>
                        periods prior to its acquisition is often dependent on both the acquired business and the acquired business's independent auditor. A registrant's inability to timely obtain such disclosure from these parties may impact its ability to comply with its reporting requirements and to access capital within the timeframes it desires. Thus, streamlining and clarifying acquired business financial disclosure requirements should reduce the likelihood that such requirements undermine the economic benefits of potentially value-enhancing transactions, or otherwise discourage registrants from engaging in such transactions, while maintaining investors' access to information that is likely to be material to an understanding of the potential effects of an acquired or to be acquired business on the registrant.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We are mindful of the costs imposed by and the benefits obtained from our rules and amendments. Section 2(b) of the Securities Act,
                        <SU>251</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 3(f) of the Exchange Act,
                        <SU>252</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Section 2(c) of the Investment Company Act 
                        <SU>253</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         require the Commission, when engaging in rulemaking where it is required to consider or determine whether an action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, to consider, in addition to the protection of investors, whether the action will promote efficiency, competition, and capital formation. Additionally, Section 23(a)(2) of the Exchange Act 
                        <SU>254</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires us, when adopting rules under the Exchange Act, to consider, among other things, the impact that any new rule would have on competition and not to adopt any rule that would impose a burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the Exchange Act.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 77b(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             17 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 80a-2(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78w(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Below we address the potential economic effects of the proposed amendments, including the likely benefits and costs, as well as the likely effects on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. We attempt to quantify these economic effects when possible; however, due to data limitations, we are not able to quantify all of the economic effects.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Baseline and Affected Parties</HD>
                    <P>
                        The current disclosure requirements in Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, Article 11, and the related smaller reporting company requirements in Article 8 of Regulation S-X, together with the current disclosure practices registrants have adopted to comply with these requirements form the baseline from which we estimate the likely economic effects of the proposed amendments.
                        <SU>255</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section I.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposals are likely to affect investors both directly and indirectly through other users of the disclosure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         security analysts, investment advisers, and portfolio managers), auditors, and registrants subject to Regulation S-X. Additionally, entities other than registrants may be affected, such as significant acquirees for which financial statements are required under Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments may affect both domestic registrants and foreign private issuers.
                        <SU>256</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We estimate that during calendar year 2018, approximately 6,919 registrants filed on domestic forms 
                        <SU>257</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 806 foreign private issuers filed on F-forms, other than registered investment companies. Among the registrants that file on domestic forms, approximately 29% are large accelerated filers, 19% are accelerated filers, 19% are non-accelerated filers, and 33% are smaller reporting companies. In addition, we estimate that approximately 21.3% of these domestic issuers were emerging growth companies.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         About 19.8% of foreign private issuers that filed on Forms 20-F and 40-F were emerging growth companies. With respect to foreign private issuer accounting standards, approximately 38% of foreign private issuers reported under U.S. GAAP, 61% reported under IFRS-IASB, and approximately 1% reported under Another Comprehensive Body of Accounting Principles with a reconciliation to U.S. GAAP. Certain of the proposed amendments may also affect requirements applicable to issuers that rely on Regulation A and investment companies that must comply with the requirements of Regulation S-X.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             The number of domestic registrants and foreign private issuers affected by the proposed amendments is estimated as the number of unique companies, identified by Central Index Key (CIK), that filed Form 10-K, Form 10-Q, Form 20-F, and Form 40-F or an amendment thereto with the Commission during calendar year 2018. The estimates for the percentages of smaller reporting companies are based on information from Form 10-K, Form 20-F, and Form 40-F. The estimates for the percentages of foreign private issuers' basis of accounting used to prepare the financial statements are derived from the information in Forms 20-F and 40-F. These estimates do not include issuers that filed only initial registration statements during calendar year 2018, which will also be affected by the amendments
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             This number includes fewer than 25 foreign private issuers that file on domestic forms and approximately 100 business development companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             Staff determined whether a registrant claimed emerging growth company status by parsing several types of filings (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Forms S-1, S-1/A, 10-K, 10-Q, 8-K, 20-F/40-F, and 6-K) filed by the registrant, with supplemental data drawn from Ives Group Audit Analytics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Registrants are required to file separate audited annual and unaudited interim pre-acquisition financial statements of the acquired business if the acquisition triggers the Rule 1-02(w) significance tests as modified by Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14. Because the United States has one of the most active markets for mergers and acquisitions,
                        <SU>259</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the proposed amendments could affect disclosure for a large number of businesses. Registrants would potentially be affected by the proposed amendments if they engage in an acquisition or disposition transaction (or series of transactions) that is deemed significant under the Rule 1-02(w) significance tests as modified by Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 or the related smaller reporting company requirements in Article 8.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             A. K. Sundaram, 2004, “Mergers and Acquisitions and Corporate Governance,” Mergers and Acquisitions 3: 193-219; and 2018 J.P. Morgan Global M&amp;A Outlook, available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.jpmorgan.com/jpmpdf/1320746694177.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We are not able to observe the universe of acquisitions by all registrants, as acquisitions made by registrants that are not deemed significant or where the acquired businesses are not public firms might not be identified. For purposes of our Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) analysis, we searched various form types filed from January 1, 2017 to October 1, 2018 for indications of acquisition or disposition disclosure.
                        <SU>260</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the reviewed period there were approximately 1,261 filings on various forms that included Rule 3-05 Financial Statements or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements, representing between approximately 1% and 12% of such filings, depending on the specific form.
                        <SU>261</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To get a sense of overall market activity for mergers and acquisitions, we also examined mergers and acquisitions data from Thomson Reuters' Security Data Company (“SDC”). During the period from January 1, 2016 to December 31, 2018, there were 6,310 mergers and acquisitions entered into by publicly-listed U.S. firms. Among these transactions, 1,388 acquisitions involved non-U.S. targets and 442 were conducted by entities in the real estate 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24633"/>
                        industry.
                        <SU>262</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, 294 of the 6,310 transactions were conducted by smaller reporting companies. These estimates constitute an upper bound on the number of transactions that may have triggered disclosure requirements under Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14, and the related requirements for smaller reporting companies,
                        <SU>263</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as many of these transactions may have involved acquisitions that are small relative to the size of the registrant.
                        <SU>264</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>260</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Section V.B.1. below for our review of forms filed by operating companies. We discuss our similar review of investment company forms in Section V.B.2. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>261</SU>
                             Based on a review of Forms 10, S-1, S-3, F-1, F-3, and 8-K. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Table 2 in Section V.B.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>262</SU>
                             Real estate industries are defined based on Standard Industry Classification code (SIC) in 6500s where either the acquiring companies or the acquiree has the primary SIC code in 6500s.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>263</SU>
                             Acquisitions that triggered Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements requirements are observed by searching EDGAR filings. Databases such as SDC have some coverage of mergers and acquisitions conducted by public listed firms in the U.S. However, when the acquired entities are privately owned, we do not have data in terms of their assets, income, and often the purchase prices paid by the acquiring firms. Thus we are not able to provide statistics on the relative size of these transactions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>264</SU>
                             R. Masulis, C. Wang, and F. Xie, 2007 “Corporate Governance and Acquirer Returns” Journal of Finance, 62(4), 1851-1899 (reporting that the mean (median) relative size of the mergers in their sample is around 16% (6%) for the period of 1990-2003). Relative size in this study is measured as the ratio of target market cap to the acquirer market cap, and the sample is limited to public firms. We expect the relative size of the acquisitions for non-public acquirees would be even smaller, but we do not have data on the size of private firms to provide comparable statistics about these transactions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        All investment companies that make fund acquisitions significant enough to trigger Rule 3-05 disclosure requirements would potentially be affected by the proposed amendments. Among registered investment companies, as of the end of calendar year 2018, there were 8,059 open-end funds, 1,988 exchange-traded funds, and 518 closed-end funds. In addition, there were 102 business development companies. We are not able to observe the universe of the fund acquisitions, however, we are able to observe those transactions that triggered the filing of acquired fund financial statements. In our PRA analysis, we searched various form types over a three-year period ended October 1, 2018 for indications of fund acquisition disclosure. Among the 152 filings on Form N-14 for fund transactions, about 70 filings or 46% included acquired fund financial statements. There were only a few filings on Form N-1A and Form N-2 that included acquired fund financial statements (12 filings out of 8,936 filings on Form N-1A and two filings out of 132 filings on Form N-2).
                        <SU>265</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>265</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See infra</E>
                             Section V.B.2, Table 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Potential Benefits and Costs of the Proposed Amendments Potential Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        We anticipate the proposed amendments 
                        <SU>266</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         would improve the financial information about acquired or disposed businesses, facilitate more timely access to capital, and reduce the complexity and costs to prepare the disclosure. Improved disclosure benefits users of financial information and can facilitate more efficient allocations of capital, while a reduced disclosure burden can shorten the time period to prepare disclosures necessary to access capital and typically generates cost savings for registrants, which can result in more capital being available for investment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>266</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Sections II.A. through II.E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed amendments may increase the utility of acquisition and disposition related disclosures to investors by making these disclosures more relevant. The proposed amendments should improve the salience of the information for investors by reducing the volume of information presented about acquired businesses and focusing the disclosures on more decision-relevant information. This, in turn, could lead to more informed investment decisions and improved capital allocation efficiency.</P>
                    <P>The proposed amendments may also permit more timely access to capital. A registrant's ability to provide existing required disclosure for periods prior to an acquisition is often dependent on both the acquired (or to be acquired) business and its independent auditor. The age of the acquired or to be acquired business's required financial statements, as well as changes in the acquired business's personnel or its independent auditor that occurred during the historical periods for which financial statements may be required through the acquisition date, can impair a registrant's ability to comply with its reporting requirements and access capital within the timeframes it needs to operate its business and make investments. By focusing on more recent historical periods, relying on more relevant disclosure triggers and definitions, and increasing the relevance of pro forma financial information, the proposed amendments should help to ameliorate these impediments, as we discuss in more detail below.</P>
                    <P>Further, to the extent that the proposed amendments reduce the compliance burden, they may reduce the cost of merger and acquisition activity. Well-functioning markets for corporate control are, on average, beneficial to investors as they serve as a disciplinary mechanism in which less efficiently managed assets are transferred to more efficient management. Mergers and acquisitions may also generate synergies by combining two entities, and may result in firms with more efficient scale or scope.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Costs</HD>
                    <P>We do not expect the proposed amendments to generate significant costs for registrants. However, in certain situations the proposed amendments could cause some acquisitions to be significant that are not currently deemed significant by acquirers. In these situations, registrants would need to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements, resulting in costs to registrants but potential benefits to investors in the form of enhanced disclosure related to the transaction. We also do not anticipate significant costs to investors associated with the proposed amendments. We acknowledge that in some cases, the proposed amendments would reduce disclosure. However, we anticipate that the potential loss of information would be partially mitigated by a registrant's obligation under Rule 4-01(a) Regulation S-X to include such further material information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading. Below we discuss the anticipated economic benefits and costs of specific aspects of the proposed amendments in further detail.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Significance Tests</HD>
                    <P>The proposed changes to the significance tests used under Rules 3-05 and 3-14 should help facilitate registrants' application of the tests. The proposed amendments could potentially increase the likelihood that the Investment Test is more in line with the economic significance of transactions and reduce anomalous results from the Income Test. This, in turn, should help reduce compliance burdens associated with preparing Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for an acquired business.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, the proposed change to the Investment Test using the registrant's aggregate worldwide market value rather than its historical book value of total assets may better reflect the relative size of the transaction in economic terms. The investment in and advances to the acquired business generally reflect an acquirer's expectation of the fundamental value of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24634"/>
                        the equity of the acquired business.
                        <SU>267</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, using market value of the registrant would be more in line with the market expectation of the registrant's discounted future free cash flow to equity holders, and thus may more accurately reflect the fundamental value of the registrant's equity. By better aligning these two components of the Investment Test, the proposed amendments would potentially avoid classifying transactions as significant when they are actually insignificant in economic substance to the registrant. Further, market values may better reflect the relative size of the transaction, especially for high growth acquiring registrants whose market value is significantly different from their book value.
                        <SU>268</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>267</SU>
                             The fundamental value of an entity's equity refers to the value of equity determined through fundamental analysis. For example, fundamental value of a firm's equity can be estimated by summing the discounted stream of expected future free cash flow to the firm's equity holders.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>268</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             A. Shleifer and R. Vishny, 2003, “Stock Market Driven Acquisitions”, Journal of Financial Economics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, the proposed changes to the Income Test to simplify the calculations and to add a revenue component should improve the application of the Income Test. These proposed changes are likely to mitigate the effect of infrequent expenses, gains, and losses on the calculation and also potentially prevent deeming as significant immaterial acquisitions by registrants with net income or loss near zero. Moreover, the proposed change to require the use of readily available income or loss after tax likely would reduce compliance burden for registrants as in some cases, the calculation of income before taxes requires adjustment of line items that are generally presented on an after-tax basis.</P>
                    <P>Both proposed amendments to the significance tests are expected to better capture the importance of the acquisitions relative to the registrant. To the extent that the proposed changes reduce the risk of deeming an insignificant acquisition to be significant, they may benefit registrants by reducing the number of instances in which registrants are required to file Rule 3-05 Financial Statements or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements, thus reducing compliance burdens. To the extent that the proposed modifications to the significance tests capture more significant acquisitions and fewer insignificant ones, they may directly benefit investors by improving the overall salience of the information disclosed to them. Investors may also indirectly benefit from the proposed changes to the significance tests as the potential cost savings from reduced compliance burdens could be translated to more capital available to the registrants for future profitable investments and possibly the ability to access capital sooner than under existing requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        The use of market capitalization instead of book value could raise questions relating to whether market price reflects a registrant's fundamental value and the appropriate measurement period to be used. If a firm's stock price is informationally efficient, it will reflect the fundamental value of the firm's equity. Any new information, including information about mergers or acquisitions, might lead investors to revise their expectations of the firm's risk and future cash flow, resulting in possible changes in stock price. Information about a transaction sometimes starts seeping into the stock market several months before an announcement, leading investors to speculate around potential mergers or acquisitions.
                        <SU>269</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, the market price of the registrant's shares might fluctuate depending on the information available. These and other factors could potentially affect stock price or the firm's market value. Thus, it is possible that the proposed changes to the Investment Test might introduce errors or bias into the determination of the significance of an acquisition.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>269</SU>
                             P.J. Halpern, 1973 “Empirical Estimates of the Amount and Distribution of Gains to Companies in Mergers” The Journal of Business, 46, (4), 554-575; G. Mandelker, 1974 “Risk and Return: The Case of Merging Firms” Journal of Financial Economics, 1, (4), 303-335.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, inclusion of a revenue component in the Income Test may result in an acquired business that has a significant impact on net income, but not on revenues, not being deemed significant. When the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated and the tested subsidiary have recurring annual revenue, the proposed Income Test would require both the new revenue component and the net income component to be met.
                        <SU>270</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result, when the profitability of the registrant differs significantly from the profitability of the acquired business, the income component could generate a very different result from the revenue component. This could lead to under-identification of significant transactions when, for example, a high revenue, low profit firm acquires a low revenue, high profit firm.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>270</SU>
                             In this case, the registrant would use the lower of the revenue component and the net income component to determine the number of periods for which Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             proposed Rule 3-05(b)(2) of Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In Section II above, we solicit comment on the impact of these measurement issues on investors and registrants. We preliminarily believe, however, that the proposed changes to the significance tests would improve the application of the tests and their ability to capture the economic substance of acquisitions and dispositions, which would benefit investors by helping ensure that they are provided with decision-relevant information about those acquisitions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Audited Financial Statements for Significant Acquisitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendment to eliminate the requirement to file the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements would reduce registrants' disclosure burden. Currently, Rule 3-05 Financial Statements are required for up to three years prior to the acquisition depending on the significance of the transaction and the amount of net revenues reported by the acquired business in its most recent fiscal year. To the extent that information from three years prior might be less relevant to investors' analysis of an acquisition, we preliminarily believe the benefits from the potential reduction in disclosure burden and audit costs could justify investors' loss of the incremental value of the third year of financial information. For purposes of the PRA, we expect the average reduction in registrants' compliance burden as a result of the proposed amendments would be approximately 125 hours per Rule 3-05 Financial Statement filing.
                        <SU>271</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition to these compliance cost savings, there could be other and more substantial benefits from the proposed amendments. For example, if the preparation and audit of pre-acquisition financial statements are outside of the registrant's control, and the target company is unable to prepare and obtain an audit of any required financial statements for the third year, the registrant will be unable to comply with its disclosure requirements under Rule 3-05, which could delay the filing of a registration statement and hence its capital raising efforts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>271</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Table 1 in Section V.B.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The impact of the proposed amendment on investors depends, in part, on the value of information about the third year. In an efficient market, information for the third year before an acquisition may not generally provide significant incremental value to investors to evaluate a transaction. However, in some cases the omission of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24635"/>
                        the third year of Rule 3-05 Financial Statements could result in loss of information to investors, such as in those limited cases where the acquired business has an operating cycle that extends beyond two years and has not previously filed any financial reports. We expect this potential loss of information to be partially mitigated by a registrant's Rule 4-01(a) obligation to include such further material information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Financial Statements for Net Assets That Constitute a Business and Financial Statements of a Business That Includes Oil-and-Gas-Producing Activities</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendment to permit the use of abbreviated financial statements in circumstances where providing full audited financial statements would be impractical should reduce registrants' disclosure burdens, decrease compliance costs, and facilitate the application of Rule 3-05. Registrants frequently acquire a component of an entity that is a business as defined in Rule 11-01(d), but does not constitute a separate entity, subsidiary, or division, such as a product line, a line of business contained in more than one subsidiary of the selling entity, or an interest in oil and gas producing activities that generates substantially all of its revenues from oil and gas producing activities. These businesses may not have separate financial statements or maintain separate and distinct accounts necessary to prepare Rule 3-05 Financial Statements because they often represent only a smaller portion of the selling entity. As a result, a registrant may be unable to provide the financial statements required under the current rule. In these circumstances, the proposed amendments provide specific conditions under which registrants would be permitted to file abbreviated financial statements to comply with Rule 3-05. There would be no need for the registrant to seek relief from the staff, thus reducing the compliance burden. We believe allowing for abbreviated financial statements in these circumstances could help reduce costs for registrants, and because registrants must otherwise disclose material information about the acquisition that is necessary to make the required statements not misleading, we expect that these cost reductions could be realized without negatively affecting investors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Timing and Terminology of Financial Statement Requirements</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments include several revisions that clarify the timing and some terminology related to the disclosure requirements. These clarifications should benefit registrants by avoiding any confusion that may arise from application of the current requirements, thereby enhancing the overall efficiency of their compliance efforts. Because the proposed changes do not modify the information required to be disclosed, we do not believe investors would be negatively affected by these proposed changes. To the extent that these proposed changes make compliance more efficient for registrants, investors may indirectly benefit as cost savings could be passed through to them.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Foreign Businesses</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments would allow Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements to be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP if the acquired business would qualify to use IFRS-IASB if it were a registrant. Preparing financial statements without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP in these circumstances would reduce the compliance costs where an acquired business in a cross-border acquisition does not have U.S. GAAP financial statements. It may also expand the pool of foreign entities that would be considered valuable potential acquisition targets. For example, a registrant might be discouraged under the current rules from completing a cross-border acquisition in situations where it would be costly for the foreign target to prepare its financial statements using U.S. GAAP as required by the current rules.</P>
                    <P>The proposals would also permit foreign private issuers that prepare their financial statements using IFRS-IASB to provide Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements prepared using home country GAAP to be reconciled to IFRS-IASB rather than U.S. GAAP. Permitting use of Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements reconciled to IFRS-IASB in these circumstances potentially benefits investors by providing them with information about the acquired business that is more comparable to the registrant. This may allow investors to analyze the impact of these acquisitions more expeditiously.</P>
                    <P>
                        By providing flexibility to prepare an acquired (or to be acquired) business's financial statements using, or reconciling to, IFRS-IASB in these circumstances, the proposed amendment may facilitate certain cross-border mergers that might otherwise not take place due to compliance costs associated with preparing financial statements using, or reconciling to, U.S. GAAP. Based on data from the SDC merger database for the three year period from January 2015 to January 2018, about 20% of acquisitions by U.S. companies involved non-U.S. targets. To the extent that the proposed amendment leads to increased cross-border mergers and acquisitions, shareholders could potentially benefit from greater growth potential in new markets, more efficient distribution systems, or improved managerial processes, among other benefits.
                        <SU>272</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>272</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             K. Ahern, 2015, “Lost In Translation? The Effect of Culture on Mergers Around the World”, Journal of Financial Economics, 117, P165-189.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A possible consequence from the proposed amendments would be inconsistencies in financial disclosure about acquired (or to be acquired) businesses where IFRS-IASB and U.S. GAAP differ significantly in reporting practices. For example, there are certain differences in the recognition, measurement, and impairment of long-lived assets between IFRS-IASB and U.S. GAAP.
                        <SU>273</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such inconsistencies could lead to confusion and a loss of comparability for investors of domestic registrants familiar with U.S. GAAP financial statements. Despite potential inconsistencies, we preliminarily do not expect the proposed amendment to impose substantial costs on investors. Foreign private issuers have been permitted to file IFRS-IASB financial statements without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP for some time,
                        <SU>274</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and IFRS-IASB is widely used for financial reporting purposes in other jurisdictions. In that respect, we do not believe using or reconciling to IFRS-IASB financial statements for businesses in foreign jurisdictions would necessarily lower the disclosure standard or cause undue confusion. In addition, pro forma financial information for the acquisition is required to reflect the acquired foreign business on the same basis of accounting as that of the registrant. For a U.S. registrant, that basis would be U.S. GAAP, which should mitigate any potential inconsistencies in the pre-acquisition historical financial 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24636"/>
                        statements. However, we encourage commenters to provide us with information about these potential costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>273</SU>
                             As an example, IFRS-IASB permits the recognition of internally-generated intangible assets in limited circumstances; U.S. GAAP does not.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>274</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Acceptance From Foreign Private Issuers of Financial Statements Prepared in Accordance With International Financial Reporting Standards Without Reconciliation to U.S. GAAP,</E>
                             Release No. 33-8879 (Dec. 21, 2007) [73 FR 986 (January 4, 2008)].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Omission of Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements and Related Pro Forma Financial Information for Businesses That Have Been Included in the Registrant's Financial Statements</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments allowing registrants to omit Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements from Securities Act registration statements and proxy statements after inclusion in post-acquisition results for a complete fiscal year could improve such registrants' timely access to capital. For example, registrants currently have to test the significance of acquisitions that occurred during the earliest years for which the registrant is required to provide historical financial statements and, if significant, to provide pre-acquisition financial statements of the acquired business. We expect the proposed amendments to be especially useful for registrants that complete an initial public offering, as those registrants are most likely not to have been required to file Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements before filing their initial registration statements. In these instances, a registrant might need to spend additional time or resources, or both, to prepare Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements for inclusion in a registration statement, which can delay a registrant's offering and hence delay its access to capital. In addition to anticipated benefits resulting from more timely access to capital, registrants may benefit from reduced compliance costs.</P>
                    <P>
                        We believe that information from the historical pre-acquisition period is not as relevant once integration of the acquisition is completed. Additionally, in acquisitions where integration takes longer than a year, investors would still receive disclosure about material effects of the acquisition through the registrant's management's discussion and analysis.
                        <SU>275</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We therefore do not expect the proposed amendments to result in a meaningful loss of material information to investors. Instead, the reduction in compliance burdens and the timely access to capital may indirectly benefit investors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>275</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 229.303.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Use of Pro Forma Financial Information To Measure Significance</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments permit the use of pro forma financial information to measure significance in initial registration statements. This approach provides registrants with certain flexibility to more accurately measure the relative significance of an acquisition or disposition, which in turn may help reduce their disclosure burden and compliance costs and facilitate capital formation. Because pro forma financial statements may capture the likely effects of significant acquisitions and dispositions that are not fully reflected in the registrant's historical financial statements (financial statements that would otherwise be used to measure significance), these amendments could enable registrants to more accurately determine the significance of these transactions.</P>
                    <P>The proposed amendments could potentially reduce the amount of information presented to investors if significance determinations on the basis of pro forma financial statement information fail to identify acquisitions that are economically significant to a registrant. However, as noted above, Rule 4-01(a) requires registrants to include such further material information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading. We expect this requirement to address concerns about any loss of relevant information to investors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Disclosure Requirements for Individually Insignificant Acquisitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Registrants are currently required to provide certain audited, historical pre-acquisition financial statements if the aggregate impact of “individually insignificant businesses” acquired since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet exceeds 50%.
                        <SU>276</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In these circumstances, pro forma financial information is also required pursuant to Article 11 for the “individually insignificant businesses” for which audited, historical pre-acquisition financial statements are required.
                        <SU>277</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To comply with these requirements, registrants may need to provide audited financial statements of acquired businesses that are not material to the registrant, and pro forma financial information that might not reflect the aggregate effect of the “individually insignificant businesses.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>276</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 115.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>277</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 118.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed amendments would affect disclosure requirements for individually insignificant businesses in several ways. First, the proposed amendments would require the registrants to provide audited historical financial statements only for those acquired businesses whose individual significance exceeds 20%. Reducing required disclosure of audited historical financial statements for insignificant acquisitions could improve registrants' access to capital since preparing such disclosure for these acquisitions typically entails negotiating with the seller to timely provide this information, a process that can be costly and time-consuming. By simplifying and streamlining the historical financial statement disclosure requirement for individually insignificant acquisitions, the proposed amendments may make it easier, quicker, and cheaper for registrants to access capital. The proposed amendments would also reduce registrants' disclosure burdens leading to cost savings that may ultimately benefit shareholders.</P>
                    <P>Second, the proposed amendments could improve the completeness of information provided to investors by requiring pro forma financial information that depicts the aggregate effect in all material respects of the acquired businesses, rather than only a mathematical majority of the individually insignificant businesses acquired. Investors might benefit by being able to more effectively assess the aggregate effect of these acquisitions on the registrant as a result of the proposed amendments.</P>
                    <P>The proposed amendment might impose additional compliance burdens on registrants because it could require registrants to present information about acquisitions, albeit in an aggregated form, that they have not disclosed in the past. Because we do not have information available to estimate the number of acquisitions that would be subject to this proposed requirement in aggregate or for any given registrant, we cannot quantify these compliance costs. However, we do not expect registrants to incur substantial costs to prepare disclosure about such acquisitions because these are activities that typically underpin the decision to make an acquisition.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Rule 3-14—Financial Statements of Real Estate Operations Acquired or To Be Acquired</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments would align Rule 3-14 with Rule 3-05 where no unique industry considerations warrant differentiated treatment of real estate operations. For example, the proposed amendments would align the threshold for individual significance for both rules at “exceeds 20%” and the threshold for aggregate significance for both rules at “exceeds 50%”. The proposed amendments would also align Rule 3-14 and Rule 3-05 in terms of the years of required financial statements for acquisitions from related parties, the timing of filings, application of Rule 3-
                        <PRTPAGE P="24637"/>
                        06, which permits the filing of financial statements covering a period of nine to 12 months, and other less significant changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed amendments are expected to benefit registrants as greater consistency in application of the rules may reduce the costs of preparing disclosure, especially for registrants that make both real estate and non-real estate acquisitions. In addition to the alignment between Rule 3-14 and Rule 3-05, the proposed amendments also define real estate operation as a business that generates substantially all of its revenues through the leasing of real property. This may reduce potential uncertainty and ambiguity in applying Rule 3-14 without negatively affecting investors.</P>
                    <P>The proposed amendments would also establish or clarify the application of Rule 3-14 regarding scope of the requirements, determination of significance, need for interim income statements, and special provisions for blind pool offerings. The proposed amendments related to blind pool offerings are consistent with current practice for these offerings. Thus, while they may reduce potential compliance uncertainty and ambiguity for registrants, we do not expect the proposed amendments to have a substantial effect on current disclosure practices.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">10. Pro Forma Financial Information</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments to replace the existing pro forma adjustment criteria in Article 11 of Regulation S-X with Transaction Accounting Adjustments and Management's Adjustments would simplify these requirements and reduce potential inconsistency in preparing pro forma financial information. The proposed amendments to Article 11 could benefit investors in several ways. First, the proposed Transaction Accounting Adjustments may lead to more consistent pro forma presentations than the current adjustment criteria, which may be subject to some interpretation. In addition, the proposed Transaction Accounting Adjustments may permit registrants to better reflect the acquisition, disposition, or other transaction, which could help investors better understand the effects of the acquired business to the registrant's audited historical financial statements. Likewise, the proposed Management's Adjustments, which require disclosure of reasonably estimable synergies and other transaction effects, such as closing facilities, discontinuing product lines, terminating employees, and executing new or modifying existing agreements, that have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur, may give investors better insight into the potential effects of the transaction as contemplated by the company. This would potentially benefit investors in helping them to distinguish the accounting effects of the acquisitions from management's judgment as to the expected operational effects based on management plans. Altogether, the proposed amendments are expected to improve the relevance of the information disclosed to investors and help investors process information more effectively.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed revisions to Article 11 could impose costs on registrants because they would be required to meet new presentation requirements for pro forma adjustments. For purposes of the PRA, we estimate the average incremental compliance burden for these new requirements would be around 25 hours per affected registrant.
                        <SU>278</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, synergy estimation by registrants may introduce certain subjective judgments into the pro forma financial statements, potentially making them more difficult for investors to interpret. However, the proposed amendments also would require registrants to disclose uncertainties, assumptions, and calculation methods underlying the Management's Adjustments. This could mitigate the risk of biased pro forma adjustments by providing investors with more information to evaluate Management's Adjustments when analyzing the impact of an acquisition.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>278</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Table 1 in Section V.B.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">11. Significance and Business Dispositions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendment to conform the significance threshold for a disposed business to that of an acquired business and eliminate disclosure of less significant dispositions would reduce inconsistencies in reporting between acquisitions and dispositions and potentially reduce registrants' compliance burden.
                        <SU>279</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, under the proposed amendments, registrants would not have to file pro forma financial information for insignificant dispositions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dispositions with significance levels exceeding 10% but not 20%), thus reducing compliance costs. In addition, there could be some positive spillover effect for registrants from applying the same thresholds to determine the significance of their transaction. For example, a registrant might engage in both acquisitions and dispositions during the same reporting period. Identical thresholds might help achieve internal consistency in financial reporting in evaluating the impact of both types of transactions as well as the net effects. For investors, the proposed amendment to conform the significance threshold for a disposed business to that of an acquired business could facilitate understanding and analysis of Rule 3-05 and Rule 11-01(b) disclosures by eliminating the inconsistency in reporting between acquisitions and dispositions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>279</SU>
                             Under current requirements, pro forma financial information is required upon the disposition (and for certain registration statements and proxy statements, the probable disposition of a significant portion of a business if the business to be disposed of meets the conditions of a significant subsidiary under Rule 1-02(w)). Rule 1-02(w) uses a 10% significance threshold, not the 20% threshold used for business acquisitions under Rules 3-05 and 11-01(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">12. Smaller Reporting Companies and Regulation A</HD>
                    <P>The proposed amendments would revise Rule 8-04 to direct smaller reporting companies to Rule 3-05 for requirements relating to the financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired, although the form and content requirements for these financial statements would continue to be governed by Article 8. The proposed revisions to Rule 8-04 would also apply to issuers relying on Regulation A. Since the form and content of the required financial statements would continue to be prepared in accordance with Article 8, we do not believe the proposed amendments would impose additional compliance costs on affected entities and do not expect the amendments to reduce information available to investors.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments to require smaller reporting companies to provide pro forma financial information for significant acquisitions and dispositions made during annual periods and to use the enhanced guidelines in Article 11 when preparing pro forma financial information would increase the burden on smaller reporting companies. However, based on a staff analysis of 2017 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies, we believe most already comply with the conditions in Article 11.
                        <SU>280</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result, we do not expect that the proposed amendments would impose significant new costs on these entities. At the same time, the proposed amendments to require smaller reporting companies to provide pro forma financial information for significant acquisitions and dispositions made during annual periods and to use the enhanced guidelines in Article 11 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24638"/>
                        when preparing pro forma financial information may provide more relevant information to investors, although this benefit also would be limited to the extent that smaller reporting companies already comply with these requirements in practice.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>280</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 208.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">13. Amendments to Financial Disclosure About Acquisitions Specific to Investment Companies</HD>
                    <P>We believe the proposed amendments related to investment companies would reduce compliance burdens by streamlining the disclosure requirements in a way that is tailored to the specific attributes of acquisitions made among investment companies. We do not anticipate significant costs to investors related to the proposed amendments, because we do not believe the proposed amendments would result in a reduction in the volume of material information available to investors.</P>
                    <P>
                        Currently, there are no specific rules or requirements in Regulation S-X for investment companies relating to the financial statements of acquired funds. Instead, these entities apply the general requirements of Rule 3-05 and the pro forma financial information requirements in Article 11. However, investment company registrants differ from non-investment company registrants in several respects. For example, investment companies' income mainly stems from capital appreciation and investment income; 
                        <SU>281</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         investment companies are required to report their net asset value on a daily basis using fair value for portfolio investments; and investment companies do not account for their investments using the equity method. As a result, investment companies have faced challenges applying the general requirements of Rule 3-05 and Article 11 in the context of fund acquisitions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>281</SU>
                             Investment income includes dividend, interest on securities, and other income, but does not include net realized and unrealized gains and losses on investments. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Rule 6-07 of Regulation S-X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed amendments include a separate definition of significant subsidiary and separate significance tests specifically tailored for investment companies. The proposed amendments focus the significance determination for investment companies on the impact to the registrant's investment portfolio held by the registrant. Further, the proposed test would capture sources of income such as dividends, interest, and the net realized and unrealized gains and losses on investment that are most relevant to investment companies. We expect that together the proposed amendments would benefit both investment companies and their investors by providing more appropriate standards for determining the significance of fund acquisitions. For example, the proposed income test would better align income from a particular investment or acquisition for purposes of analyzing the effect on the income of the investment company as a whole. We thus expect the proposed income test to better reflect the impact of the tested subsidiary on an investment portfolio rather than a test based solely on investment income as used in current Rule 8b-2. This is because changes in the market value of an investment portfolio due to market volatility may be substantial even when the securities held in the portfolio do not produce investment income.</P>
                    <P>As a result of these changes, the proposed amendments may more accurately identify acquisitions that are economically significant to investment company registrants. This would benefit registrants as they would not be required to prepare separate financial disclosure for economically insignificant acquisitions. The proposed amendments also may benefit investors to the extent that investors' attention now is inappropriately focused on economically insignificant acquisitions that are deemed significant under current rules. Furthermore, we do not anticipate the proposed significance tests would impose substantial costs on registrants to implement because we believe the required measures should be readily available to registrants.</P>
                    <P>The proposed change in the significance thresholds for the income test in Rule 1-02(w) when it applies to investment companies has two prongs—either a threshold of 80% for income alone or a 10% threshold with the investment test result higher than 5%. This proposed threshold change might reduce the compliance burden faced by investment companies as there would be less need to produce additional financial information when a registrant's net income is relatively small. Smaller net income could produce anomalous results under the current income test as it may make it appear as if an acquisition or investment is a significant contribution to a registrant's net income when it represents only a very small portion of the registrant's portfolio of investments. By effectively conditioning the income test for investment companies on the investment test for investment companies, the proposed amendments would potentially better identify fund acquisitions that warrant additional disclosure. This proposed change also could benefit investors to the extent that they place a higher weight on the value of investments, relative to the income produced by investments, when considering the economic impact of an acquisition.</P>
                    <P>The proposed elimination of an asset-based test for investment companies would simplify compliance while likely not resulting in a significant loss in information. An asset-based test is generally not meaningful when applied to investment companies and, when the acquired entity is another investment company, would be largely superfluous in light of the proposed investment test. Additionally, applying the asset test could be less meaningful when the tested subsidiary is not another investment company. Because the asset test in these circumstances would involve comparing assets measured under different methodologies, it may be a less reliable indicator of significance, causing registrants to incur costs to prepare disclosures for acquisitions that are not economically significant—and therefore of little benefit to investors.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed new Rule 6-11 potentially reduces compliance burdens by setting forth financial statement requirements for acquired funds that are specifically tailored for investment companies as compared to Rule 3-05. Proposed Rule 6-11 would consider the acquisition of all or substantially all portfolio investments held by another fund as a fund acquisition. This principles-based facts and circumstances evaluation of whether a fund acquisition has occurred could potentially reduce avoidance of any required acquired fund disclosures by focusing on economic substance rather than legal form. The proposed requirement of one year of audited financial statements for fund acquisitions and elimination of pro forma financial statements would also reduce compliance burdens for registrants. We do not believe these proposed amendments would lead to loss of relevant information to investors, as the price of investment company shares is calculated daily based on the fair value of its investment portfolio and older historical financial statements are in general less relevant to fund investors. The proposed amendments also would be consistent with the accommodations typically provided by our disclosure review staff during consultations. The proposed use of permitting investment companies to provide financial statements for private funds that were prepared in accordance with U.S. GAAP would reduce compliance burdens for investment companies by potentially reducing the costs related to re-issuing audited 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24639"/>
                        financial statements in compliance with Regulation S-X. Any loss of information arising from these amendments would be mitigated by that fact that we are proposing to require investment companies to file the schedules required under Article 12 of Regulation S-X and to provide certain supplemental information regarding the acquired funds. We believe this information would be more relevant and potentially enhance the efficiency in processing the information by fund investors. These supplemental disclosures, however, would entail costs to registrants. For purposes of the PRA, we estimate the average incremental compliance burden for this additional disclosure would be around 25 hours per affected registrant. We further estimate that proposed Rule 6-11 would reduce a registrant's compliance burden by approximately 100 hours.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. The Effects on Efficiency, Competition, and Capital Formation</HD>
                    <P>
                        We anticipate that the proposed amendments would have favorable effects on efficiency, competition, and capital formation for both operating companies and investment companies. Amendments that reduce disclosure burdens for registrants regarding business acquisitions would tend to facilitate registrants' engagement in acquisitions that otherwise might not take place due to barriers to compliance or other compliance costs. An active takeover market creates efficiencies by transferring inefficiently managed assets to more efficient management or by creating synergies through economy of scale or economy of scope. On average mergers and acquisitions benefit investors in the acquired business.
                        <SU>282</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>282</SU>
                             Empirical studies have shown that around M&amp;A announcements, the target firms earn a significant abnormal return (
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             G. Mandelker, 1974, “Risk and Return: The Case of Merging Firms” Journal of Financial Economics, 1, (4), 303-335; M.C. Jensen &amp; R.S. Ruback, 1983, “The Market for Corporate Control: The Scientific Evidence” Journal of Financial Economics, 11, (1-4), 5-50.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments to revise the disclosure relating to acquired and disposed businesses would benefit registrants by potentially reducing compliance burdens and facilitating more timely access to capital. Considering all registrants, including both operating companies and investment companies, for PRA purposes, the estimated reduction in the total number of incremental burden hours required for compliance with all forms from the proposed amendments is about 82,225 company hours.
                        <SU>283</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The resulting total incremental professional costs for all forms under the proposed amendments would be a reduction of approximately $21,470,000.
                        <SU>284</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We believe the potential cost savings from the proposed amendments are significant.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>283</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Column E of Table 9 in Section V.C. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>284</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Column F of Table 9 in Section V.C. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        At the same time, we do not believe investors would face a significant loss in information as a result of the proposed amendments. Instead, we expect that the proposed amendments would provide investors with more relevant information, which may allow them to process the information more efficiently, enhancing their investment decisions and thus potentially facilitating capital formation. Additionally, reduced regulatory complexity may lead to an increase in mergers and acquisitions. Under the existing disclosure requirements related to acquired businesses, some mergers may not be feasible due to the impracticality of compliance with Rule 3-05 Financial Statement requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a private business may not have more than two years of audited financial statements, but the transaction may trigger additional disclosure because the business crosses the highest significance threshold). Under the proposed amendments, registrants might have access to a larger set of potential acquisitions. The proposed amendments may also facilitate potentially value-enhancing acquisitions that might otherwise not take place due to the impracticability of compliance with current rules. For example, the proposed amendments permitting the use of abbreviated financial statements when acquiring certain business lines may decrease the acquisition costs for registrants. This could promote competition in the market for mergers and acquisitions and potentially benefit shareholders of acquired businesses. Better disclosure quality and an improved information environment could also facilitate the market for mergers and acquisitions, which would help achieve efficient capital allocation and exert effective external control mechanisms on public firms, leading to an overall increase in efficiency.
                        <SU>285</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>285</SU>
                             Studies have found that mergers may create shareholder value when the assets are transferred from inefficient management to more efficient management. M. Mitchell and K. Lehn, 1990, “Do Bad Bidders Become Good Targets?”, Journal of Political Economy, Vol. 98; A. Agrawal and J. Jaffe, 2003, “Do Takeover Targets Underperform? Evidence from Operating and Stock Returns”, Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, Vol 38. K. Lehn and M. Zhao, 2006, “CEO Turnovers after Acquisitions: Are Bad Bidders Fired?”, Journal of Finance, Vol 61.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Approaches to the Significance Tests</HD>
                    <P>One alternative to the proposed significance tests would be to adopt a principles-based framework, such as materiality, rather than the current bright-line tests for determining when financial statements of acquired or to be acquired businesses are required. The benefit of using a principles-based approach based on materiality to determine significance is that it would permit judgment and consideration of unique facts and circumstances. An additional benefit of such an approach is that materiality is a familiar concept to registrants who currently make materiality determinations in preparing their filings with the Commission. However, while a principles-based approach is frequently the appropriate standard for registrants to apply when preparing disclosures, determinations related to business acquisitions and dispositions pose unique challenges. Unlike periodic reporting, acquisitions and dispositions tend to be episodic, and moreover, there is less similarity between such transactions. As a result, it can be difficult for registrants to efficiently make a determination of materiality in an acquisition context, where timing considerations can be paramount.</P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, unlike disclosure that relates solely to the registrant, which is prepared by the registrant on an ongoing basis, and where materiality is therefore evaluated regularly, in an acquisition context registrants must rely on information provided by third parties to make a determination of whether the acquisition is significant and whether the related disclosure is material. A bright-line test provides registrants with a level of certainty that allows them to efficiently make determinations of what level of disclosure is required in an environment where delay is costly. Also, where a registrant determines not to provide disclosure, investors would not receive information about the acquired business's financial impact on the registrant until the operating results of the acquired business have been reflected in the consolidated financial statements of the registrant for an extended period of time. As a result, the impact of the acquisition may be difficult for investors to disentangle from other events at the registrant, even where the acquisition may be economically significant. Thus, in summary, we expect a bright-line threshold in the case of these disclosures could be less costly for registrants and result in more consistent disclosure to investors where 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24640"/>
                        transactions are of economic significance to a registrant.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Investment Test under the existing Rule 3-05 compares the registrant's investment in and advances to the acquired business against the carrying value of the registrant's total assets. The proposed amendment to the “Investment Test” would use the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity calculated on the last day of the most recent fiscal year at or prior to the acquisition. As an alternative to the proposed investment test, we could have proposed requiring registrants to use enterprise value for the acquirer and the acquired business, rather than the value of common equity (for the acquirer) and investment in and advances to the acquired business. Enterprise value may more comprehensively reflect the value of the entity because it includes equity, debt, minority interests, and preferred shares. When a registrant makes an acquisition, depending on the ownership structure and capital structure of the registrant and the acquired business, the purchase price or investment in the acquired business would not necessarily reflect the total effect of the acquisition on the registrant, particularly if the acquired business is highly levered. Enterprise value would take into consideration the leverage of the acquired business and may, in such cases, better capture the economic effects of the transaction. Enterprise value, however, may not be appropriate for an acquirer or acquiree that has substantial liquid assets on its balance sheet. Additionally, enterprise value may not be a consistent indicator of relative size across registrants because capital structure (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         leverage) may be very different among registrants in certain industries.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the proposed modification to the Investment Test, as noted earlier, because investors react to news and information, the anticipation of an acquisition could cause a change in equity value of both the potential acquirer and the potential acquired firm. More generally, the market values of registrants are expected to change with market conditions as well as firm-specific information. As a result, it is possible that our proposed approach to the Investment Test, which would require measurement of investments in an acquisition against the acquirer's aggregate worldwide market value on the last day of the most recent fiscal year at or prior to an acquisition, might not reflect all the information about the value of the acquirer. As an alternative, we could have proposed to require the registrant to use its average market value over a period of time rather than on a specific day when measuring the size of its investments. This approach would avoid situations in which positive or negative market-wide or firm-specific shocks lead to noisy measures of market value that result in inaccurate assessments of significance, which may over- or under-identify significant acquisitions. However, using average market value could increase the costs and complexity of the proposed rule for registrants and would raise questions about the appropriate choice of a required measurement period (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         over a specified number of months or over the entire reporting period).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One alternative to the proposed Income Test would be to replace the existing income test with a revenue test. A potential benefit of this approach is that a revenue test would be less likely to produce anomalous results because it does not include infrequent expenses, gains, or losses that can distort the determination of relative significance. However, a stand-alone revenue test may not be a meaningful indicator of significance for the reasons the Commission described when it eliminated revenue as a standalone significance test.
                        <SU>286</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>286</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Release No. 6359 (November 6, 1981) [46 FR 56171 (November 16, 1981)] (“The proposed amendment reflects the Commission's view that the presentation of additional financial disclosures of an affiliated entity may not be meaningful in instances in which the affiliate has a high sales volume but a relatively low profit margin, and therefore has little financial impact on the operating results of the consolidated group.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A second alternative to the proposed Income Test would involve switching from an income component to a revenue component when the acquirer's net income or loss is marginal or break-even. Such an alternative could rely on another financial ratio, such as return on assets, to identify instances where the acquirer's net income is sufficiently low to yield anomalous results from the income component. For example, under such an alternative, the revenue component would be used instead of the income component if the absolute value of the acquirer's return on assets were less than one percent. Relative to the proposed Income Test, such an alternative may have a lower risk of under-identification of significant transactions if the proposed revenue component causes transactions to not be significant under the Income Test when the acquirer's net income is not marginal or break-even and the Investment Test and Asset Test are not met. However, such an approach would require identifying a financial ratio to serve as the trigger for a switch from the income component to the revenue component and, absent calibration, such a ratio may yield inconsistent results across industries. For example, an appropriate threshold for return on assets may vary across industries depending on the extent of an acquirer's reliance on human capital versus material capital. Moreover, for those that rely heavily on material capital, the information provided by a return on assets threshold may be subsumed by the existing Asset Test.</P>
                    <P>A third alternative to the proposed Income Test would be to use an operating income or profit margin component instead of the income component. Operating income or profit margin could be a better indicator of significance than the income component in that it may eliminate the effects of non-operating items such as interest expense. However, not all registrants report these income measures, and these measures share the same issues as net income, which could lead to similarly anomalous results.</P>
                    <P>A final alternative to the proposed Income Test would be to lower the threshold required to meet the revenue component, for example to 15% or 10%. A potential benefit of this approach is that it may mitigate the risk of under-identification of significant transactions. However, it may be difficult to calibrate the income component and revenue component thresholds in a way that decreases the risk of under-identification without increasing the risk of over-identification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Approaches to Proposed Financial Statement Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        An alternative to the required Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements would be to require U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable, business combination disclosures, which include, among other things, supplemental pro forma information about revenue and earnings for the two years prior to the acquisition. Under this regime, registrants are required to disclose information that enables users of a registrant's financial statements to evaluate the nature and financial effect of a business combination that occurs either: (a) During the current reporting period, or (b) after the reporting date but before the financial statements are issued or are available to be issued.
                        <SU>287</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These disclosures would eventually be required to be included in registrants' historical audited financial statements presented for the period in which the acquisition occurred, although the supplemental information may continue 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24641"/>
                        to be labeled as unaudited. However, compared with our proposed approach, less information would be disclosed to investors under this alternative, and the information would not be audited. Further, guidance about the presentation and preparation of supplemental pro forma information is limited, which potentially may impact the consistency of pro forma presentations between registrants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>287</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FASB ASC 805-10-50-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Approaches to Proposed Pro Forma Adjustments</HD>
                    <P>An alternative to the proposed Management's Adjustments for pro forma financial statements is to limit the Management's Adjustments to those that have been previously filed or furnished in Commission filings. A potential benefit of this approach is that it would permit the registrant to better determine whether and, if so, when forward-looking information should be disclosed. The disadvantage of this alternative is that pro forma disclosures may omit known information such as reasonably estimable synergies and other transaction effects that have occurred or are likely to occur. Also, under this alternative, pro forma disclosures may not depict the potential effect of the transaction on the registrant fully.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Alternatives to the Proposed Income Test for Investment Companies</HD>
                    <P>One alternative to the proposed income test for investment companies would be to use the absolute value of gains and losses within the income test components rather than netting them. Because netting losses against gains mitigates the effect of individual securities on overall results of the portfolio, the use of absolute value of gains and losses for individual securities could result in a more accurate assessment of the effects of the acquired fund securities on the income of the acquiring fund. However, under this alternative, the registrant would need to re-calculate the gain or loss for each individual security using absolute value for both the acquiring fund and the acquired fund, rather than using existing financial measures that have already been determined for the financial statements, thereby increasing the cost and complexity of the proposed test for registrants without necessarily providing significant incremental benefits to investors.</P>
                    <P>Another alternative to the proposed income test for investment companies would be to select a percentage lower than 80% for the significance test. One potential benefit of using a lower percentage is that it could reduce the possibility that an investment company registrant would not need to provide disclosure for a fund acquisition with a material impact on the acquiring fund's income. However, it could also increase the possibility that costly disclosure obligations would be triggered, even though the impact on the registrant's assets is non-material (particularly if the income of the acquiring fund is relatively low). The proposed combination of income/investment test is intended to mitigate this result.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>We request comment on all aspects of our economic analysis, including the potential costs and benefits of the proposed amendments and alternatives thereto, and whether the rules, if adopted, would promote efficiency, competition, and capital formation or have an impact on investor protection. Commenters are requested to provide empirical data, estimation methodologies, and other factual support for their views, in particular, on costs and benefits estimates.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Summary of the Collection of Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        Certain provisions of our rules and forms that would be affected by the proposed amendments contain “collection of information” requirements within the meaning of the PRA.
                        <SU>288</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission is submitting the proposal to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for review in accordance with the PRA.
                        <SU>289</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The hours and costs associated with preparing and filing the forms and reports constitute reporting and cost burdens imposed by each collection of information. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information requirement unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Compliance with the information collections is mandatory. Responses to the information collections are not kept confidential and there is no mandatory retention period for the information disclosed. The titles for the affected collections of information are: 
                        <SU>290</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>288</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             44 U.S.C. 3501 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>289</SU>
                             44 U.S.C. 3507(d) and 5 CFR 1320.11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>290</SU>
                             A number of forms require audited financial statements and therefore could also include information required by Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 such that the proposed amendments could affect the PRA burden associated with those forms. Based on staff experience, however, Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are not generally included in these forms. The potentially affected Forms include “Form S-4” (OMB Control No. 3235-0324), “Form S-11” (OMB Control No. 3235-0067), “Form F-4” (OMB Control No. 3235-0325), “Form 20-F” (OMB Control No. 3235-0288), “Form 10-K” (OMB Control No. 3235-0063), “Regulation 14A” and “Schedule 14A” (OMB Control No. 3235-0059), “Regulation 14C” and “Schedule 14C” (OMB Control No. 3235-0057), “Form 10-Q” (OMB Control No. 3235-0070), “Form 1-K” (OMB Control No. 3235-0720), and “Form 1-SA” (OMB Control No. 3235-0721). While the proposed amendments would also apply to registered investment companies, based on staff experience, Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements are not generally included in “Form N-3” (OMB Control No. 3235-0316), “Form N-4” (OMB Control No. 3235-0318), “Form N-5” (OMB Control No. 3235-0169), and “Form N-6” (OMB Control No. 3235-0503). Because we do not expect these forms to be generally affected by the proposed amendments, we are not adjusting the burden estimates associated with these collections of information.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • “Regulation S-X” (OMB Control No. 3235-0009); 
                        <SU>291</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>291</SU>
                             The paperwork burden for Regulation S-X is imposed through the forms that are subject to the requirements in these regulations and are reflected in the analysis of those forms. To avoid a PRA inventory reflecting duplicative burdens, and for administrative convenience, we assign a one-hour burden to this regulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • “Form S-1” 
                        <SU>292</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0065);
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>292</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.11.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • “Form S-3” 
                        <SU>293</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0073);
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>293</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• “Form F-1” (OMB Control No. 3235-0258);</P>
                    <P>• “Form F-3” (OMB Control No. 3235-0256);</P>
                    <P>
                        • “Form 10” 
                        <SU>294</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0064);
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>294</SU>
                             17 CFR 249.210.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• “Form 8-K” (OMB Control No. 3235-0060);</P>
                    <P>
                        • “Form N-1A” 
                        <SU>295</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0307);
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>295</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.15A; 17 CFR 274.11A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • “Form N-2” 
                        <SU>296</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0307);
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>296</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.14; 17 CFR 275.11a-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• “Form N-14” (OMB Control No. 3235-0336); and</P>
                    <P>
                        • “Form 1-A” 
                        <SU>297</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (OMB Control No. 3235-0286).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>297</SU>
                             17 CFR 239.90.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The regulations, schedules, and forms listed above were adopted under the Securities Act, the Exchange Act, and/or the Investment Company Act and set forth the disclosure requirements for registration statements, periodic and current reports, and distribution reports filed by registrants to help investors make informed investment and voting decisions.</P>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing amendments to the financial statement requirements for acquired and disposed businesses in Rules 3-05 and 3-14 and related rules and forms. We are also proposing new Rule 6-11 and amendments to Form N-14 to specifically govern financial reporting for acquisitions involving 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24642"/>
                        investment companies. A description of the proposed amendments, including the need for the information and its proposed use as well as a description of the likely respondents can be found in Section II above, and a discussion of the economic effects of the proposed amendments can be found in Section III above.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Amendments' Effect on Existing Collections of Information</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Estimated Effects of the Proposed Amendments on Paperwork Burdens for Registrants Other Than Investment Companies</HD>
                    <P>The following table summarizes the estimated effects of the proposed amendments on the paperwork burdens associated with the affected forms filed by registrants with operations or that otherwise are not investment companies.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Estimated Paperwork Burden Effects for Registrants </TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Excluding investment companies]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Amendment</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimated effect and affected forms</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Brief explanation of estimated effect</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, and related rules (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 Rule 1-02(w))
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>A reduction of 125 burden hours for each of the following forms: 10, 1-A, S-1, S-3, F-1, F-3, and 8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • This reduction is the estimated effect on the affected forms by the proposed amendments to Rules 3-05, 3-14, and the related rules (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 Rule 1-02(w)), when considered in the aggregate and compared to the paperwork burden under existing requirements.
                                <LI>
                                    • For PRA purposes, we estimate that existing Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements require an average of 500 burden hours.
                                    <SU>298</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Article 11 (Rules 11-01, 11-02 and 11-03) and Rule 8-05 of Regulation S-X</ENT>
                            <ENT>An increase of 25 burden hours for each of the following forms: 10, 1-A, S-1, S-3, F-1, F-3, and 8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • This increase is the estimated effect on the affected forms by the proposed amendments to the pro forma financial information requirements under Article 11, including the requirement to provide certain forward-looking information, and Rule 8-05 of Regulation S-X when considered in the aggregate and compared to the paperwork burden under existing requirements.
                                <LI>
                                    • For PRA purposes, we estimate that existing pro forma financial information requires an average of 100 burden hours.
                                    <SU>299</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Proposed Amendments to Rules 3-05 and 3-14</HD>
                    <P>
                        Considering the
                        <FTREF/>
                         various revisions
                        <FTREF/>
                         outlined in Sections II.B and C above, we estimate that the proposed amendments to Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 would generally reduce the paperwork burden for filings on an affected form that includes existing Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. However, not all filings on the affected forms include these disclosures because they are provided only in certain instances. Therefore, to estimate the overall paperwork burden reduction from the proposed amendments, we first estimated the number of filings that include Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. To do so, Commission staff searched the various form types filed from January 1, 2017 until October 1, 2018 for indications of acquisition or disposition disclosure.
                        <SU>300</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on the staff's findings, the table below sets forth our estimates of the number of filings on these forms that included Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements in calendar year 2017 and the first nine months of 2018.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>298</SU>
                             In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, no commenter provided information that would assist us in deriving an estimate for the cost of Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. In order to develop an estimate of the number of burden hours required for an issuer to provide the existing financial statements, we have relied on information derived from staff discussions with registrants and consultants and from a review of recent waiver request letters that cited the cost of compliance. Two waiver request letters received in 2017 cited costs of complying with the Rule 3-05 Financial Statement requirements ranging from $43,000 to $200,000. Additionally, a consultant suggested a typical range of audit fees as $100,000 to $250,000 and consulting fees of $40,000 to $100,000. Using this data, we estimate that Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements require on average approximately 500 additional burden hours to prepare. We believe that this estimate falls within the range of costs suggested by the recent waiver requests and consultant's estimate and would appropriately account for company and professional hours required.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>299</SU>
                             In response to the 2015 Request for Comment, no commenter provided information that would assist us in deriving an estimate for the cost of pro forma financial information. In order to develop an estimate of the number of burden hours required for an issuer to provide pro forma financial information under existing rules, the staff relied on its discussions with registrants and consultants. Based on those discussions, we estimate that the required pro forma financial information would be equivalent to approximately 20% of the 500 total burden hours that we estimate would be required to prepare Rule 3-05 or Rule 3-14 Financial Statements. While pro forma financial information is an important aspect of acquired business financial information disclosure, it is only an incremental part of that disclosure, which also requires the production of acquired business historical financial statements and audits of those statements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>300</SU>
                             To develop these estimates, Commission staff searched and analyzed filings for the calendar year 2017 and the first nine months of 2018 on the Intelligize research platform. Commission staff then reviewed Forms S-1, S-3, F-1, F-3, S-11, 10, and 8-K, using text and other searches for appropriate word combinations. The staff then manually reviewed the filings to identify and more accurately determine which filings contained Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 Financial Statements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24643"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Number of Filings on Affected Forms in the Reviewed 2017-2018 Period</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>including</LI>
                                <LI>3-05 or 3-14</LI>
                                <LI>financial</LI>
                                <LI>statements</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Percentage of
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>198</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,369</ENT>
                            <ENT>118</ENT>
                            <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,415</ENT>
                            <ENT>164</ENT>
                            <ENT>11.6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>169</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.4</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>321</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,195</ENT>
                            <ENT>949</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        We used this data to extrapolate the effect of these changes on the paperwork burden. In order to appropriately adjust the current burden estimates, we applied these percentages to the current estimates for the number of responses in the Commission's current OMB PRA filing inventory.
                        <SU>301</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>301</SU>
                             The OMB PRA filing inventories represent a three-year average. Averages may not align with the actual number of filings in any given year.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Calculation of the Number of Filings on Affected Forms for PRA Purposes</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of reponses in
                                <LI>current PRA</LI>
                                <LI>estimates</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated
                                <LI>percentage of</LI>
                                <LI>filings affected</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>including</LI>
                                <LI>3-05 or 3-14</LI>
                                <LI>financial</LI>
                                <LI>statements</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>216</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                1-A 
                                <SU>302</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>179</ENT>
                            <ENT>10.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>901</ENT>
                            <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1657</ENT>
                            <ENT>11.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>63</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>112</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,387</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Proposed Amendments to Pro Forma Financial Information Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        Considering the
                        <FTREF/>
                         various revisions outlined in Section II.D above, we estimate that the proposed amendments to Article 11 and Rule 8-05 would reduce a registrant's paperwork burden by simplifying disclosure requirements generally, but may increase burdens by requiring certain forward-looking information and, in the case of smaller reporting companies, requiring pro forma financial information in some additional circumstances 
                        <SU>303</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and requiring that the information be provided in a clearer and more robust manner. To estimate the overall paperwork burden reduction from the proposed amendments, we first estimated the number of filings that include Article 11 and Rule 8-05 pro forma financial information. Because pro forma financial information is most typically associated with acquisition and dispositions, we relied on the estimates of affected forms that we determined for the Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 burden estimates, as set forth in Table 2 above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>302</SU>
                             Based on data from domestic registration statements, we estimate that approximately 10% of Forms 1-A would be affected.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>303</SU>
                             The additional circumstances that would require a smaller reporting company to present pro forma financial information under the proposed amendments would include: Roll-up transactions as defined in 17 CFR 229.901(c); when such presentation is necessary to reflect the operations and financial position of the smaller reporting company as an autonomous entity; and other events transactions for which disclosure of pro forma financial information would be material to investors.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Estimated Effects of the Proposed Amendments on Paperwork Burdens for Investment Company Registrants</HD>
                    <P>
                        The following table summarizes the estimated effects of the proposed amendments on the paperwork burdens associated with the affected forms filed by investment companies.
                        <PRTPAGE P="24644"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Estimated Paperwork Burden Effects for Investment Companies</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Amendment</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimated effect and affected forms</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Brief explanation of estimated effect</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Proposed Rule 6-11, Rule 1-02(w), Article 11 of Regulation S-X, and Form N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>A reduction of 100 burden hours for each filing that contains acquired fund financial information on the following forms: N-1A, N-2 and N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • This reduction is derived from an estimated reduction of 125 burden hours resulting from the proposed amendments discussed in Section II.E. above 
                                <SU>304</SU>
                                 compared to existing Rule 3-05 and pro forma financial information requirements.
                                <SU>305</SU>
                                <LI>
                                    • This reduction was then offset by an estimated increase of 25 burden hours for the proposed schedules and supplemental information under proposed Rule 6-11.
                                    <SU>306</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Considering the
                        <FTREF/>
                         various revisions outlined
                        <FTREF/>
                         in Section II.E above,
                        <FTREF/>
                         we estimate that proposed Rule 6-11 and the related amendments would generally reduce the paperwork burden for filings on an affected form that currently includes Rule 3-05 Financial Statements. However, not all filings on the affected forms include these disclosures. Therefore, to estimate the overall paperwork burden reduction from the proposed amendments, we first estimated the number of filings that include acquired fund financial statements. To do so, we searched the various form types over a three-year period ended October 1, 2018 for indications of fund acquisition disclosure.
                        <SU>307</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The table below sets forth our estimates of the number of filings on these forms that included acquired fund financial statements in that period.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>304</SU>
                             This estimated reduction of 125 burden hours is due to the proposed changes affecting the required reporting periods and pro forma financial information and permitting the use of U.S. GAAP-compliant financial statements for acquired private funds. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Section II.E.2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>305</SU>
                             To determine the paperwork burden for a registrant to make disclosures in accordance with the proposed Rule 6-11 and proposed amendments to Form N-14, we estimated the number of burden hours required for an issuer to provide the existing financial statements. As previously noted, for PRA purposes, we estimate that existing Rule 3-05 Financial Statements require an average of 500 burden hours. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 298.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>306</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section II.E.2 and II.E.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>307</SU>
                             To conduct this analysis, Commission staff used text-based search terms of filings made through the EDGAR system to identify filings that may contain acquired fund financial statements and pro forma financial information from investment company registrants. However, the use of text-based search terms may understate the actual number of instances. Because the number of filings varied from year to year, we use an average over a three-year period.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—Number of Filings on Affected Investment Company Forms (2016-2018)</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Average annual
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>including</LI>
                                <LI>acquired fund</LI>
                                <LI>financial</LI>
                                <LI>statements</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Percentage of
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-1A</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,936</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0013</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>132</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>152</ENT>
                            <ENT>70</ENT>
                            <ENT>46</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>We used this data to extrapolate the effect of these changes on the paperwork burden. In order to appropriately adjust the current burden estimates, we applied these percentages to the estimates of the number of responses in the Commission's current OMB PRA filing inventory.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Calculation of the Number of Filings on Affected Investment Company Forms for PRA Purposes</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>responses in</LI>
                                <LI>current PRA</LI>
                                <LI>estimates</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated
                                <LI>percentage</LI>
                                <LI>of filings</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>filings</LI>
                                <LI>including</LI>
                                <LI>acquired fund</LI>
                                <LI>financial</LI>
                                <LI>statements</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-1A</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,002</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.0013</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>166</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                            <ENT>46</ENT>
                            <ENT>88</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24645"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Aggregate Burden and Cost Estimates for the Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Below we estimate the aggregate change in paperwork burden as a result of the proposed amendments. These estimates represent the average burden for all registrants, both large and small. In deriving our estimates, we recognize that the burdens will likely vary among individual registrants based on a number of factors, including the nature of their business. The burden estimates were calculated by multiplying the estimated number of responses by the estimated average amount of time it would take a registrant to prepare and review disclosure required under the proposed amendments. The portion of the burden carried by outside professionals is reflected as a cost,
                        <SU>308</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while the portion of the burden carried by the registrant internally is reflected in hours.
                        <SU>309</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>308</SU>
                             We recognize that the costs of retaining outside professionals may vary depending on the nature of the professional services, but for purposes of this PRA analysis, we estimate that such costs would be an average of $400 per hour. This estimate is based on consultations with several registrants, law firms, and other persons who regularly assist registrants in preparing and filing reports with the Commission.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>309</SU>
                             For purposes of the PRA, we estimate that 75% of the burden of preparation of Forms 8-K and 1-A is carried by the registrant internally and that 25% of the burden of preparation is carried by outside professionals retained by the company at an average cost of $400 per hour. Additionally, we estimate that 25% of the burden of preparation for Forms 10, S-1, S-3, F-1, F-3, N-1A, N-2, and N-14 is carried by the registrant internally and that 75% of the burden of preparation is carried by outside professionals retained by the company at an average cost of $400 per hour.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The tables below illustrate the change to the total annual compliance burden of affected forms, in hours and in costs, as a result of the proposed amendments.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14,14,14,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 7—Calculation of the Reduction in Burden Estimates of Current Responses Due to the Proposed Amendments to Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 and Pro Forma Financial Information Requirements</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>estimated</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>reponses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Burden
                                <LI>hour</LI>
                                <LI>reduction</LI>
                                <LI>per</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>response</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reduction in
                                <LI>burden hours</LI>
                                <LI>for current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reduction in
                                <LI>company</LI>
                                <LI>hours for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reduction in
                                <LI>professional</LI>
                                <LI>hours for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Reduction in
                                <LI>professional</LI>
                                <LI>costs for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C) = (A) × (B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(D) = (C) × 0.75 or 0.25</ENT>
                            <ENT>(E) = (C) × 0.25 or 0.75</ENT>
                            <ENT>(F) = (E) × $400</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(500)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,500)</ENT>
                            <ENT>($600,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1-A</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,350)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(450)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(180,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(7,800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,950)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(5,850)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,340,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(19,200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(4,800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(14,400)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(5,760,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(50)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(150)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(60,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(300)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(75)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(225)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(90,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="ns">
                            <ENT I="01">8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>( 94,700)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(71,025)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(23,675)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(9,470,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,260</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>(126,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(79,750)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(46,250)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(18,500,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s25,14,14,14,14,14,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 8—Calculation of the Change in Burden Estimates of Current Responses Due to Proposed Rule 6-11 and Amendments to Form N-14</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>estimated</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>reponses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Burden hour
                                <LI>change per</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>response</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Change in
                                <LI>burden hours</LI>
                                <LI>for current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Change in
                                <LI>company</LI>
                                <LI>hours for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Change in
                                <LI>professional</LI>
                                <LI>hours for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Change in
                                <LI>professional</LI>
                                <LI>costs for</LI>
                                <LI>current</LI>
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C) = (A) × (B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(D) = (C) × 0.75 or 0.25</ENT>
                            <ENT>(E) = (C) × 0.25 or 0.75</ENT>
                            <ENT>(F) = (E) × $400</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-1A</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(600)</ENT>
                            <ENT>($240,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(300)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(75)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(225)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(90,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="ns">
                            <ENT I="01">N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>88</ENT>
                            <ENT>(100)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(8,800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(6,600)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,640,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>99</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>(9,900)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,475)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(7,425)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,970,000)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="10" OPTS="L2(,0,),p6,6/7,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,15,12,12,15,12,12,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 9—Requested Paperwork Burden Under the Proposed Amendments</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Current burden</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Current
                                <LI>annual</LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Current
                                <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Current
                                <LI>cost burden</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Program change</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Number of
                                <LI>affected</LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Reduction in company hours</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Reduction in
                                <LI>professional</LI>
                                <LI>costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Requested change in burden</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Annual
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Burden hours </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Cost burden</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(C) </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (D) 
                                <SU>310</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (E) 
                                <SU>311</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (F) 
                                <SU>312</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT> (G) = (A)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(H) = (B) + (E)</ENT>
                            <ENT> (I) = (C) + (F)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                            <ENT>216</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,774</ENT>
                            <ENT>$14,128,888</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>(500)</ENT>
                            <ENT>($600,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>216</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,274</ENT>
                            <ENT>$13,528,888</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1-A</ENT>
                            <ENT>112</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,084</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,400,000</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,350)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(180,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>112</ENT>
                            <ENT>61,734</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,220,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>901</ENT>
                            <ENT>150,998</ENT>
                            <ENT>181,197,300</ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,950)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,340,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>901</ENT>
                            <ENT>149,048</ENT>
                            <ENT>178,857,300</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">S-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,657</ENT>
                            <ENT>196,930</ENT>
                            <ENT>236,322,036</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                            <ENT>(4,800)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(5,760,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,657</ENT>
                            <ENT>192,130</ENT>
                            <ENT>230,562,036</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-1</ENT>
                            <ENT>63</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,980</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,375,700</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>(50)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(60,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>63</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,930</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,315,700</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">F-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>112</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,760</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,712,000</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>(75)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(90,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>112</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,685</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,622,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">8-K</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,387</ENT>
                            <ENT>685,255</ENT>
                            <ENT>91,367,630</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                            <ENT>(71,025)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(9,470,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>118,387</ENT>
                            <ENT>614,230</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,897,630</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">N-1A</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,596,749</ENT>
                            <ENT>129,338,408</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>(200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(240,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,596,549</ENT>
                            <ENT>129,098,408</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="24646"/>
                            <ENT I="01">N-2</ENT>
                            <ENT>166</ENT>
                            <ENT>73,250</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,668,396</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>(75)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(90,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>166</ENT>
                            <ENT>73,175</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,578,396</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">N-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                            <ENT>97,280</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,498,000</ENT>
                            <ENT>88</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,200)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,640,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>192</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,080</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,858,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>127,808</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,907,060</ENT>
                            <ENT>708,008,358</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>(82,225)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(21,470,000)</ENT>
                            <ENT>127,808</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,824,835</ENT>
                            <ENT>686,538,358</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        Request for Comment
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>310</SU>
                             From Table 3, Column (C) and Table 6, Column (C). The affected responses will not add to the number of annual responses; rather the requested change in burden will be averaged across all annual responses.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>311</SU>
                             From Column (D) in Tables 7 and 8.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>312</SU>
                             From Column (F) in Tables 7 and 8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(B), we request comment in order to:</P>
                    <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                    <P>• evaluate the accuracy of our assumptions and estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information;</P>
                    <P>• determine whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;</P>
                    <P>• evaluate whether there are ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who respond, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and</P>
                    <P>• evaluate whether the proposed amendments would have any effects on any other collection of information not previously identified in this section.</P>
                    <P>Any member of the public may direct to us any comments concerning the accuracy of these burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing these burdens. Persons submitting comments on the collection of information requirements should direct their comments to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503, and send a copy to Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, with reference to File No. S7-05-19. Requests for materials submitted to OMB by the Commission with regard to the collection of information requirements should be in writing, refer to File No. S7-05-19 and be submitted to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington DC 20549. OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information requirements between 30 and 60 days after publication of the proposed amendments. Consequently, a comment to OMB is best assured of having its full effect if the OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        For purposes of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (“SBREFA”),
                        <SU>313</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         we solicit data to determine whether the proposed amendments constitute a “major” rule. Under SBREFA, a rule is considered “major” where, if adopted, it results or is likely to result in:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>313</SU>
                             Public Law 104-121, tit. II, 110 Stat. 857 (1996).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• An annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more (either in the form of an increase or a decrease);</P>
                    <P>• a major increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; or</P>
                    <P>• significant adverse effects on competition, investment, or innovation.</P>
                    <P>Commenters are requested to provide comment and empirical data on (a) the potential annual effect on the U.S. economy; (b) any increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; and (c) any potential effect on competition, investment, or innovation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        This Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis has been prepared in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
                        <SU>314</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It relates to proposed amendments to the financial disclosure requirements in Regulation S-X relating to significant business acquisitions and dispositions to improve those requirements for both investors and registrants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>314</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Reasons for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments would include changes to the requirements for the financial statements of acquisitions and dispositions of businesses, including real estate operations, in Rule 3-05 and Rule 3-14 and other related rules and forms.
                        <SU>315</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We are also proposing new Rule 6-11 and amendments to Form N-14 to specifically govern financial reporting for acquisitions involving investment companies. These changes are intended to provide investors with the information that is important given the specific facts and circumstances, make the disclosures easier to understand, and reduce the costs and burdens to registrants of preparing the disclosure. The reasons for, and objectives of, the proposed amendments are discussed in more detail in Sections II.A through II.E. above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>315</SU>
                             We are also proposing related amendments to the definition of “significant subsidiary” in Rule 1-02(w) of Regulation S-X, Exchange Act Rule 12b-2, Securities Act Rule 405, Investment Company Act Rule 8b-2; Rule 3-06 of Regulation S-X; Article 8 of Regulation S-X; and Article 11 of Regulation S-X. In addition, we are proposing amendments to Form 8-K, Form 10-K, and Form N-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Basis</HD>
                    <P>We are proposing the rule and form amendments contained in this release under the authority set forth in Sections 3, 6, 7, 8, 10, 19(a), and 28 of the Securities Act of 1933, as amended, Sections 3(b), 12, 13, 15(d), 23(a), and 36 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, and Sections 6(c), 8, 24(a), 30, and 38 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Small Entities Subject to the Proposed Rules</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed changes would affect some registrants that are small entities. The Regulatory Flexibility Act defines “small entity” to mean “small business,” “small organization,” or “small governmental jurisdiction.” 
                        <SU>316</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, under our rules, an issuer, other than an investment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24647"/>
                        company, is a “small business” or “small organization” if it had total assets of $5 million or less on the last day of its most recent fiscal year and is engaged or proposing to engage in an offering of securities that does not exceed $5 million.
                        <SU>317</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We estimate that there are 1,173 issuers that file with the Commission, other than investment companies, that may be considered small entities and are potentially subject to the proposed amendments.
                        <SU>318</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An investment company is a small entity if, together with other investment companies in the same group of related investment companies, it has net assets of $50 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year.
                        <SU>319</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commission staff estimates that, as of December 31, 2018, there were approximately 90 open-end and closed-end investment companies that would be considered small entities. Commission staff further estimates that, as of December 31, 2018, approximately 16 BDCs are small entities.
                        <SU>320</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>316</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>317</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 230.157 under the Securities Act and 17 CFR 240.0-10(a) under the Exchange Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>318</SU>
                             This estimate is based on staff analysis of issuers, excluding coregistrants, with EDGAR filings of Form 10-K, 20-F and 40-F, or amendments, filed during the calendar year of January 1, 2018 to December 31, 2018. Analysis is based on data from XBRL filings, Compustat, and Ives Group Audit Analytics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>319</SU>
                             17 CFR 270.0-10(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>320</SU>
                             These estimates are based on staff analysis of Morningstar data and data submitted by investment company registrants in forms filed on EDGAR between April 1, 2018 and June 30, 2018.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, the purpose of the proposed amendments to Rules 3-05 and 3-14 is to improve the quality and relevance of financial information about acquired businesses and reduce the complexity and costs of preparing the disclosure.
                        <SU>321</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We are also proposing specific regulatory requirements for investment companies to address the unique attributes of this group of registrants.
                        <SU>322</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>321</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Sections II.A. through II.D. for a detailed discussion of the proposed amendments applicable to registrants with operations or that otherwise are not investment companies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>322</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section II.E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Many of the proposed changes would simplify and streamline existing disclosure requirements in ways that are expected to reduce compliance burdens for all registrants, including small entities. The proposed changes to the pro forma financial information requirements would incrementally increase compliance costs for registrants, although we do not expect these additional costs to be significant.
                        <SU>323</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, compliance with the proposed amendments would require the use of professional skills, including accounting and legal skills. We discuss the economic impact, including the estimated costs and burdens, of the proposed amendments to all registrants, including small entities, in Sections IV and V above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>323</SU>
                             Specifically, the proposed amendment of Rule 8-05 would require that for smaller reporting companies and issuers relying on Regulation A, the preparation, presentation, and disclosure of pro forma financial information substantially comply with Article 11 rather than directing these entities to consider the requirements of Article 11. However, based on a staff analysis of 2017 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies, we do not expect the increase in incremental compliance costs resulting from the proposed amendment to be significant because it appears that most smaller reporting companies already comply with the conditions in existing Rule 11-01. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section II.D.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</HD>
                    <P>We believe that the proposed amendments would not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with other federal rules.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Significant Alternatives</HD>
                    <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act directs us to consider alternatives that would accomplish our stated objectives, while minimizing any significant adverse impact on small entities. In connection with the proposed amendments, we considered the following alternatives:</P>
                    <P>• Establishing different compliance or reporting requirements that take into account the resources available to small entities;</P>
                    <P>• clarifying, consolidating, or simplifying compliance and reporting requirements under the rules for small entities;</P>
                    <P>• using performance rather than design standards; and</P>
                    <P>• exempting small entities from all or part of the requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendments generally would simplify and streamline disclosure requirements in ways that are expected to reduce compliance burdens for all registrants, including small entities. Revising Rule 8-05 to require that the preparation, presentation, and disclosure of pro forma financial information by smaller reporting companies substantially comply with Article 11 may increase the burden of preparing that disclosure for some registrants. However, based on staff analysis of 2017 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies, we believe that most of these companies already comply with the conditions in existing Rule 11-01.
                        <SU>324</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For investment companies, we believe that proposed Rule 6-11and related amendments will make it easier and less costly to provide appropriate disclosures to investors regarding fund acquisitions, which may benefit small entities that have smaller asset levels over which to apportion compliance costs. Accordingly, we do not believe it is necessary to exempt small entities from all or part of the proposed amendments or to establish different compliance or reporting requirements for such entities. However, we are soliciting comment on whether the amendments should permit additional or different flexibility for smaller reporting companies and other types of issuers in light of the burdens associated with the financial reporting requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>324</SU>
                             Commission staff found that out of 191 disclosures of acquisitions and dispositions by smaller reporting companies in 2017, 178 appeared to comply with Article 11 requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, with respect to using performance rather than design standards, Regulation S-X and the proposed amendments generally contain elements similar to performance standards. For example, rather than imposing a specific uniform metric for determining significant business acquisitions and dispositions, the proposed amendments utilize a flexible standard, with alternative tests (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the investment, income, or asset test) that are intended to facilitate a registrant's determination of whether an acquisition or disposition is significant. We believe this flexible standard is appropriate because it would allow registrants to omit financial information that is not necessary for an investment decision based on the facts and circumstances applicable to that registrant and offering. We have not, however, proposed an approach that would allow registrants to determine significance based on materiality. Nevertheless, we have solicited comment throughout this release on whether a materiality standard would be appropriate for these purposes.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>We encourage the submission of comments with respect to any aspect of this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis. In particular, we request comments regarding:</P>
                    <P>• How the proposed rule and form amendments can achieve their objective while lowering the burden on small entities;</P>
                    <P>
                        • The number of small entity companies that may be affected by the proposed rule and form amendments;
                        <PRTPAGE P="24648"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• The existence or nature of the potential effects of the proposed amendments on small entity companies discussed in the analysis; and</P>
                    <P>• How to quantify the effects of the proposed amendments.</P>
                    <P>Commenters are asked to describe the nature of any effect and provide empirical data supporting the extent of that effect. Comments will be considered in the preparation of the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, if the proposed rules are adopted, and will be placed in the same public file as comments on the proposed rules themselves.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Statutory Authority</HD>
                    <P>The amendments contained in this release are being proposed under the authority set forth in Sections 3, 6, 7, 8, 10, 19(a), and 28 of the Securities Act, Sections 3(b), 12, 13, 15(d), 23(a), and 36 of the Exchange Act, and Sections 6(c), 8, 24(a), 30, and 38 of the Investment Company Act.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 210</CFR>
                        <P>Accountants, Accounting, Banks, Banking, Employee benefit plans, Holding companies, Insurance companies, Investment companies, Oil and gas exploration, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities, Utilities.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 230</CFR>
                        <P>Investment companies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 239</CFR>
                        <P>Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 240</CFR>
                        <P>Brokers, Fraud, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Part 249</CFR>
                        <P>Brokers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
                        <CFR>17 CFR Parts 270 and 274</CFR>
                        <P>Investment companies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Text of the Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Commission is proposing to amend title 17, chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 210—FORM AND CONTENT OF AND REQUIREMENTS FOR FINANCIAL STATEMENTS, SECURITIES ACT OF 1933, SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT OF 1934, INVESTMENT COMPANY ACT OF 1940, INVESTMENT ADVISERS ACT OF 1940, AND ENERGY POLICY AND CONSERVATION ACT OF 1975</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 210 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77aa(25), 77aa(26), 77nn(25), 77nn(26), 78c, 78j-1, 78
                            <E T="03">l,</E>
                             78m, 78n, 78
                            <E T="03">o</E>
                            (d), 78q, 78u-5, 78w, 78
                            <E T="03">ll,</E>
                             78mm, 80a-8, 80a-20, 80a-29, 80a-30, 80a-31, 80a-37(a), 80b-3, 80b-11, 7202 and 7262, and sec. 102(c), Pub. L. 112-106, 126 Stat. 310 (2012), unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 210.1-02(w) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.1-02</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Definitions of terms used in Regulation S-X (17 CFR part 210).</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (w) 
                            <E T="03">Significant subsidiary.</E>
                             (1) The term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the conditions in paragraphs (w)(1)(i), (w)(1)(ii), or (w)(1)(iii) of this section; however if the subsidiary is a registered investment company or a business development company, it meets any of the conditions in paragraph (w)(2) of this section instead of any of the conditions in this paragraph (w)(1). A registrant that files its financial statements in accordance with or provides a reconciliation to U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (U.S. GAAP) shall use amounts determined under U.S. GAAP. A foreign private issuer that files its financial statements in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB) shall use amounts determined under IFRS-IASB.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Investment Test.</E>
                             (A) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity, or if the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year. Aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity shall be determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year, which for acquisitions and dispositions shall be at or prior to the date of acquisition or disposition;
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) For a combination between entities or businesses under common control, this test shall be met when either the net book value of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of the registrant's and its subsidiaries' consolidated total assets or the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged by the registrant exceeds 10 percent of its total common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated;</P>
                        <P>(C) For all other acquisitions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall include the fair value of contingent consideration if required to be recognized at fair value by the registrant at the acquisition date under U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable; however if recognition at fair value is not required, include all contingent consideration, except sales-based milestones and royalties, unless the likelihood of payment is remote. The “investment in” the tested subsidiary also excludes the registrant's and its subsidiaries' proportionate interest in the carrying value of assets transferred by the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated to the tested subsidiary that will remain with the combined entity after the acquisition; and</P>
                        <P>(D) For dispositions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall equal the fair value of the consideration, which shall include contingent consideration, for the disposed subsidiary when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant or, when the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, the carrying value of the disposed subsidiary when comparing to total assets of the registrant. For a real estate operation as defined in§ 210.3-14(a)(2), when the investment test is based on the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated, include any debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the buyer in the “investment in” the tested real estate operation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Asset Test.</E>
                             The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the total assets (after intercompany eliminations) of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of such total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Income Test.</E>
                             (A)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) The absolute value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the tested subsidiary's consolidated income or loss from continuing operations (after intercompany eliminations) attributable to the controlling interests exceeds 10 percent of the absolute value of such income or loss of the registrant and its 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24649"/>
                            subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; and
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the tested subsidiary's consolidated total revenue (after intercompany eliminations) exceeds 10 percent of such total revenue of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year. This component does not apply if either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary does not have recurring annual revenue.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) When determining the income component in paragraph (w)(1)(iii)(A)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) of this section:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) If a net loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interest has been incurred by either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary, but not both, exclude the equity in the income or loss from continuing operations of the tested subsidiary attributable to the controlling interest from such income or loss of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for purposes of the computation;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) Compute the test using the average described herein if the revenue component in paragraph (w)(1)(iii)(A)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) does not apply and the absolute value of the registrant's and its consolidated subsidiaries' income or loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10 percent lower than the average of the absolute value of such amounts for each of its last five fiscal years; and
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) Entities reporting losses shall not be aggregated with entities reporting income where the test involves combined entities, as in the case of determining whether summarized financial data should be presented, except when determining whether related businesses meet this test for purposes of §§ 210.3-05 and 210.8-04.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) For a registrant that is a registered investment company or a business development company, the term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the following conditions using amounts determined under U.S. GAAP and, if applicable, section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(41)):
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Investment Test.</E>
                             The value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year; or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Income Test.</E>
                             The absolute value of the combined investment income from dividends, interest, and other income, the net realized gains and losses on investments, and the net change in unrealized gains and losses on investments from the tested subsidiary, for the most recently completed fiscal year exceeds:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) 80 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; or</P>
                        <P>(B) 10 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year and the Investment Test (paragraph (w)(2)(i) of this section) condition exceeds 5 percent. However, if the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated has an insignificant change in net assets resulting from operations for its most recently completed fiscal year, compute the test using the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for each of its last five fiscal years.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 210.3-05 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.3-05</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements required.</E>
                             (1) Financial statements (except the related schedules specified in § 210.12) prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation (including the independence standards in § 210.2-01 or, alternatively if the business is not a registrant, the applicable independence standards) shall be filed for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section if any of the following conditions exist:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) During the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period for which a balance sheet is required by § 210.3-01, a business acquisition has occurred; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) After the date of the most recent balance sheet filed pursuant to § 210.3-01, consummation of a business acquisition has occurred or is probable.</P>
                        <P>(2) For purposes of determining whether the provisions of this rule apply:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The determination of whether a 
                            <E T="03">business</E>
                             has been acquired should be made in accordance with the guidance set forth in § 210.11-01(d); and
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The acquisition of a business encompasses the acquisition of an interest in a business accounted for by the registrant under the equity method or, in lieu of the equity method, the fair value option.</P>
                        <P>(3) Acquisitions of a group of related businesses that are probable or that have occurred subsequent to the latest fiscal year-end for which audited financial statements of the registrant have been filed shall be treated under this section as if they are a single business acquisition. The required financial statements of related businesses may be presented on a combined basis for any periods they are under common control or management. For purposes of this section, businesses shall be deemed to be related if:</P>
                        <P>(i) They are under common control or management;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The acquisition of one business is conditional on the acquisition of each other business; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) Each acquisition is conditioned on a single common event.</P>
                        <P>(4) This rule shall not apply to a real estate operation subject to § 210.3-14 or a business which is totally held by the registrant prior to consummation of the transaction.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Periods to be presented.</E>
                             (1) If securities are being registered to be offered to the security holders of the business to be acquired, the financial statements specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 shall be filed for the business to be acquired, except as provided otherwise for filings on Form N-14, S-4, or F-4 (§ 239.23, § 239.25, or § 239.34 of this chapter). The financial statements covering fiscal years shall be audited except as provided in Item 14 of Schedule 14A (§ 240.14a-101 of this chapter) with respect to certain proxy statements or in registration statements filed on Forms N-14, S-4, or F-4 (§ 239.23, § 239.25, or § 239.34 of this chapter).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) In all cases not specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, financial statements of the business acquired or to be acquired shall be filed for the periods specified in this paragraph (b)(2) or such shorter period as the business has been in existence. The periods for which such financial statements are to be filed shall be determined using the conditions specified in the definition of significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02(w), using the lower of the total revenue component or income or loss from continuing operations component for evaluating the income test condition, as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i) If none of the conditions exceeds 20 percent, financial statements are not required.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) If any of the conditions exceeds 20 percent, but none exceed 40 percent, financial statements shall be filed for at least the most recent fiscal year and the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24650"/>
                            most recent interim period specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iii) If any of the conditions exceeds 40 percent, financial statements shall be filed for at least the two most recent fiscal years and any interim periods specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02.</P>
                        <P>(iv) If the aggregate impact of businesses acquired or to be acquired since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet filed for the registrant, for which financial statements are either not required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section or are not yet required based on paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, exceeds 50 percent, the registrant shall provide:</P>
                        <P>(A) Pro forma financial information pursuant to §§ 210.11-01 through 210.11-02 that depicts the aggregate impact of these acquired or to be acquired businesses in all material respects; and</P>
                        <P>(B) Financial statements covering at least the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 for any acquired or to be acquired business for which financial statements are not yet required based on paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(3) The determination shall be made using § 210.11-01(b)(3).</P>
                        <P>(4) Financial statements required for the periods specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be omitted to the extent specified as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i) Registration statements not subject to the provisions of § 230.419 of this chapter and proxy statements need not include separate financial statements of an acquired or to be acquired business if neither the business nor the aggregate impact specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section exceeds any of the conditions of significance in the definition of significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02 at the 50 percent level computed in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and either:</P>
                        <P>(A) The consummation of the acquisition has not yet occurred; or</P>
                        <P>(B) The date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement relating to an offering as filed with the Commission pursuant to § 230.424(b) of this chapter, or mailing date in the case of a proxy statement, is no more than 74 days after consummation of the business acquisition, and the financial statements have not previously been filed by the registrant.</P>
                        <P>(ii) A registrant, other than a foreign private issuer required to file reports on Form 6-K (§ 249.306 of this chapter), that omits from its initial registration statement financial statements of a recently consummated business acquisition pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section shall file those financial statements and any pro forma information specified by Article 11 under cover of Form 8-K (§ 249.308 of this chapter) no later than 75 days after consummation of the acquisition.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Separate financial statements of the acquired business need not be presented once the operating results of the acquired business have been reflected in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year.</P>
                        <P>(iv) A separate audited balance sheet of the acquired business is not required when the registrant's most recent audited balance sheet required by § 210.3-01 is for a date after the date the acquisition was consummated.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements of a foreign business.</E>
                             If the business acquired or to be acquired is a foreign business, financial statements of the business meeting the requirements of Item 17 of Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter) will satisfy this section. If such financial statements are prepared according to a comprehensive body of accounting principles other than those generally accepted in the United States (U.S. GAAP) or International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB), they may be reconciled to IFRS-IASB, rather than U.S. GAAP, if the registrant is a foreign private issuer that prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS-IASB. The reconciliation to IFRS-IASB shall generally follow the form and content requirements in Item 17(c) of Form 20-F.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements of an acquired or to be acquired business that would be a foreign private issuer if it were a registrant.</E>
                             If the acquired or to be acquired business is not a foreign business (as defined in § 210.1-02(l)), but would qualify as a foreign private issuer (as defined in § 230.405 and § 240.3b-4) if it were a registrant, financial statements of the business may be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements for net assets that constitute a business.</E>
                             For an acquisition of net assets that constitutes a business (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             an acquired product line), the financial statements prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation may be statements of assets acquired and liabilities assumed and statements of revenues and expenses (exclusive of corporate overhead, interest and income tax expenses) if the following conditions are met:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The acquired business constitutes less than substantially all of the assets and liabilities of the seller and was not a separate entity, subsidiary, segment, or division during the periods for which the acquired business financial statements would be required;</P>
                        <P>(2) Separate financial statements for the business have not previously been prepared;</P>
                        <P>(3) The seller has not maintained the distinct and separate accounts necessary to present financial statements that include the omitted expenses and it is impracticable to prepare such financial statements;</P>
                        <P>(4) Interest expense may only be excluded from the statements if the debt to which the interest expense relates will not be assumed by the registrant or its subsidiaries consolidated;</P>
                        <P>(5) The statements of revenues and expenses do not omit selling, distribution, marketing, general and administrative, and research and development expenses incurred by or on behalf of the acquired business during the periods to be presented; and</P>
                        <P>(6) The notes to the financial statements include the following disclosures:</P>
                        <P>(i) The type of omitted expenses and the reason(s) why they are excluded from the financial statements.</P>
                        <P>(ii) An explanation of the impracticability of preparing financial statements that include the omitted expenses.</P>
                        <P>(iii) A description of how the financial statements presented are not indicative of the financial condition or results of operations of the acquired business going forward because of the omitted expenses.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Information about the business's operating, investing and financing cash flows, to the extent available.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements of a business that includes oil and gas producing activities.</E>
                             (1) If the acquisition constitutes a business that includes 
                            <E T="03">significant oil- and gas-producing activities</E>
                             (as defined in the FASB ASC Master Glossary), the disclosures in FASB ASC Topic 932 
                            <E T="03">Extractive Activities—Oil and Gas,</E>
                             932-235-50-3 through 50-11 and 932-235-50-29 through 50-36, which may be presented as unaudited supplemental information, shall be provided for each full year of operations presented for the acquired business. If prior year reserve studies were not made, they may be computed using only production and new discovery quantities and valuation, in which case there will be no “revision of prior estimates” amounts. Registrants may develop these disclosures based on a reserve study for the most recent year, computing the changes backward if the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24651"/>
                            method of computation is disclosed in a footnote.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Financial statements prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation may be limited to audited statements of revenues and expenses that exclude depletion, depreciation, and amortization expense, corporate overhead expense, income taxes, and interest expense that are not comparable to the proposed future operations if:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The acquisition generates substantially all of its revenues from 
                            <E T="03">oil and gas producing activities</E>
                             (as defined in § 210.4-10(a)(16)); and
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The conditions specified in paragraph (e)(1) through (e)(4) and (e)(6) of this section are met.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Revise § 210.3-06 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.3-06</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Financial statements covering a period of nine to twelve months.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Except with respect to registered investment companies, the filing of financial statements covering a period of 9 to 12 months shall be deemed to satisfy a requirement for filing financial statements for a period of 1 year where: </P>
                        <P>(1) The issuer has changed its fiscal year; </P>
                        <P>(2) The issuer has made a significant business acquisition for which financial statements are required under § 210.3-05, § 210.3-14, § 210.8-04, or § 210.8-06 of this chapter and the financial statements covering the interim period pertain to the business being acquired; or </P>
                        <P>(3) The Commission so permits pursuant to § 210.3-13 or Note 5 to § 210.8 of this chapter. </P>
                        <P>(b) Where there is a requirement for filing financial statements for a time period exceeding one year but not exceeding three consecutive years (with not more than 12 months included in any period reported upon), the filing of financial statements covering a period of 9 to 12 months shall satisfy a filing requirement of financial statements for one year of that time period only if the conditions described in paragraphs (a)(1), (2) or (3) of this section exist and financial statements are filed that cover the full fiscal year or years for all other years in the time period.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 210.3-14 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.3-14</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Special instructions for financial statements of real estate operations acquired or to be acquired. </SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements required.</E>
                             (1) Financial statements (except the related schedules specified in § 210.12) prepared and audited in accordance with Regulation S-X (including the independence standards in § 210.2-01 or, alternatively if the business is not a registrant, the applicable independence standards) for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section and the supplemental information specified in paragraph (f) of this section shall be filed if any of the following conditions exist:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) During the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period for which a balance sheet is required by § 210.3-01, an acquisition of a real estate operation has occurred; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) After the date of the most recent balance sheet filed pursuant to § 210.3-01, consummation of an acquisition of a real estate operation has occurred or is probable.</P>
                        <P>(2) For purposes of determining whether the provisions of this rule apply:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The term 
                            <E T="03">real estate operation</E>
                             means a business (as set forth in § 210.11-01(d)) that generates substantially all of its revenues through the leasing of real property.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The acquisition of a real estate operation encompasses the acquisition of an interest in a real estate operation accounted for by the registrant under the equity method or, in lieu of the equity method, the fair value option.</P>
                        <P>(3) Acquisitions of a group of related real estate operations that are probable or that have occurred subsequent to the latest fiscal year-end for which audited financial statements of the registrant have been filed shall be treated under this section as if they are a single acquisition. The required financial statements may be presented on a combined basis for any periods they are under common control or management. For purposes of this section, acquisitions shall be deemed to be related if:</P>
                        <P>(i) They are under common control or management;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The acquisition of one real estate operation is conditional on the acquisition of each other real estate operation; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) Each acquisition is conditioned on a single common event.</P>
                        <P>(4) This rule shall not apply to a real estate operation that is totally held by the registrant prior to consummation of the transaction.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Periods to be presented.</E>
                             (1) If securities are being registered to be offered to the security holders of the real estate operation to be acquired, the financial statements specified in paragraph (c) of this section and the supplemental information specified in paragraph (f) of this section shall be filed for the real estate operation to be acquired for the periods specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02, except as provided otherwise for filings on Form S-4 or F-4 (§ 239.25 or § 239.34 of this chapter). The financial statements covering fiscal years shall be audited except as provided in Item 14 of Schedule 14A (§ 240.14a-101 of this chapter) with respect to certain proxy statements or in registration statements filed on Forms S-4 or F-4 (§ 239.25 or § 239.34 of this chapter).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) In all cases not specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, financial statements of the real estate operation acquired or to be acquired shall be filed for the periods specified in this paragraph (b)(2) or such shorter period as the real estate operation has been in existence. The periods for which such financial statements are to be filed shall be determined using the condition specified in the definition of significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02(w)(1)(i) modified as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i)(A) If the condition does not exceed 20 percent, financial statements are not required.</P>
                        <P>(B) If the condition exceeds 20 percent, financial statements of the real estate operation for at least the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 shall be filed.</P>
                        <P>(C) If the aggregate impact of acquired or to be acquired real estate operations since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet filed for the registrant, for which financial statements are either not required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section or are not yet required based on paragraph (b)(3)(i), exceeds 50 percent, the registrant shall provide:</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">(1</E>
                            ) Pro forma financial information pursuant to §§ 210.11-01 through 210.11-02 that depicts the aggregate impact of these acquired or to be acquired real estate operations in all material respects; and
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) Financial statements covering at least the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 for any acquired or to be acquired real estate operation for which financial statements are not yet required based on paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) When the investment test is based on the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated, include any assumed debt secured by the real properties in the “investment in” the tested real estate operation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) Determine total assets as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year included in the registrant's most recent consolidated financial statements filed at or prior to the date of acquisition; however, the determination may be made using § 210.11-01(b)(3)(i) and § 210.11-
                            <PRTPAGE P="24652"/>
                            01(b)(3)(ii). When a registrant, including a real estate investment trust, conducts a continuous offering over an extended period of time and applies the Item 20.D Undertakings of Industry Guide 5, use the following instead:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) During the distribution period, determine total assets as of the date of acquisition plus the proceeds (net of commissions) in good faith expected to be raised in the registered offering over the next 12 months; and</P>
                        <P>(B) After the distribution period ends and until the next Form 10-K is filed, determine total assets as of the date of acquisition; and</P>
                        <P>(C) After that next Form 10-K is filed, determine total assets as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year included in the Form 10-K. However, the determination may be made using § 210.11-01(b)(3)(i) and § 210.11-01(b)(3)(ii).</P>
                        <P>(3) Financial statements required for the periods specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be omitted to the extent specified as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i) Registration statements not subject to the provisions of § 230.419 of this chapter and proxy statements need not include separate financial statements of the acquired or to be acquired real estate operation if neither the real estate operation nor the aggregate impact specified in (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section exceeds the condition of significance in the definition of significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02(w)(1)(i), as modified by paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, at the 50 percent level computed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and either:</P>
                        <P>(A) The consummation of the acquisition has not yet occurred; or</P>
                        <P>(B) The date of the final prospectus or prospectus supplement relating to an offering as filed with the Commission pursuant to § 230.424(b) of this chapter, or mailing date in the case of a proxy statement, is no more than 74 days after consummation of the acquisition of the real estate operation, and the financial statements have not previously been filed by the registrant.</P>
                        <P>(ii) A registrant, other than a foreign private issuer required to file reports on Form 6-K (§ 249.306 of this chapter), that omits from its initial registration statement financial statements of a recently consummated acquisition of a real estate operation pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section shall file those financial statements and any pro forma information specified by §§ 210.11-01 to 210.11.03 (Article 11) of this chapter under cover of Form 8-K (§ 249.308 of this chapter) no later than 75 days after consummation of the acquisition.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Separate financial statements of the acquired real estate operation need not be presented once the operating results of the acquired real estate operation have been reflected in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Presentation of the financial statements.</E>
                             (1) The financial statements prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation may be only statements of revenues and expenses excluding expenses not comparable to the proposed future operations such as mortgage interest, leasehold rental, depreciation, amortization, corporate overhead and income taxes.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The notes to the financial statements shall include the following disclosures:</P>
                        <P>(i) The type of omitted expenses and the reason(s) why they are excluded from the financial statements;</P>
                        <P>(ii) A description of how the financial statements presented are not indicative of the results of operations of the acquired real estate operation going forward because of the omitted expenses; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information about the real estate operation's operating, investing and financing cash flows, to the extent available.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements of foreign business.</E>
                             If the real estate operation acquired or to be acquired is a foreign business, financial statements of the real estate operation specified in paragraph (c) of this section meeting the requirements of Item 17 of Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter) will satisfy this section. If such financial statements are prepared according to a comprehensive body of accounting principles other than those generally accepted in the United States (U.S. GAAP) or International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB), they may be reconciled to IFRS-IASB, rather than U.S. GAAP, if the registrant is a foreign private issuer that prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS-IASB. The reconciliation to IFRS-IASB shall generally follow the form and content requirements in Item 17(c) of Form 20-F.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements of an acquired or to be acquired real estate operation that would be a foreign private issuer if it were a registrant.</E>
                             If the acquired or to be acquired real estate operation is not a foreign business (as defined in § 210.1-02(l)), but would qualify as a foreign private issuer (as defined in § 230.405 and § 240.3b-4) if it were a registrant, financial statements of the real estate operation specified in paragraph (c) of this section may be prepared in accordance with IFRS-IASB without reconciliation to U.S. GAAP.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Supplemental information.</E>
                             For each real estate operation for which financial statements are required to be filed by paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(B) and (b)(2)(i)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ), material factors considered by the registrant in assessing the real estate operation must be described with specificity in the filing, including sources of revenue (including, but not limited to, competition in the rental market, comparative rents, and occupancy rates) and expense (including, but not limited to, utility rates, property tax rates, maintenance expenses, and capital improvements anticipated). The disclosure must also indicate that the registrant is not aware of any other material factors relating to the specific real estate operation that would cause the reported financial statements not to be indicative of future operating results.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instruction to paragraph</E>
                             (f): When the financial statements are presented in Form S-11 (§ 239.18 of this chapter), the discussion of material factors considered should supplement the disclosures required by Item 15 of Form S-11.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.3-18</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 210.3-18(d) by removing the phrase “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-10” and adding in its place “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-11”.</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.5-01</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 210.5-01(a) by removing the phrase “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-10” and adding in its place “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-11”.</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.6-01</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>8. Amend § 210.6-01 by removing the phrases “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-10” in the title and in the rule text and adding in each place “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-11”.</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.6-02</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 210.6-02(b) and (c) by removing the phrases “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-10” and adding in each place “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-11”.</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.6-03</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 210.6-03 by removing the phrase “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-10” in the introductory text and paragraph (a) and adding in each place “§§ 210.6-01 to 210.6-11”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>11. Add § 210.6-11 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="24653"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.6-11</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Financial statements of funds acquired or to be acquired.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Financial statements required.</E>
                             (1) Financial statements, including the schedules specified in §§ 210.12-01 to 210.12-29 (Article 12), prepared and audited in accordance with this regulation (including the independence standards in § 210.2-01 or, alternatively if the fund is not a registrant, the applicable independence standards) for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section and the supplemental information specified in paragraph (d) of this section shall be filed if any of the following conditions exist:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) During the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period for which a balance sheet is required by §§ 210.3-01 or 210.3-18, a fund acquisition has occurred; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) After the date of the most recent balance sheet filed pursuant to §§ 210.3-01 or 210.3-18 or, if no relevant balance sheet has been filed in connection with a post-effective amendment for a new series submitted pursuant to Rule 485(a)(2) under the Securities Act (§ 230.485(a)(2) of this chapter), the filing of such amendment, consummation of a fund acquisition has occurred or is probable.</P>
                        <P>(2) For purposes of this section:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The term 
                            <E T="03">fund</E>
                             includes any investment company as defined in section 3(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, including a business development company, or any company that would be an investment company but for the exclusions provided by sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act, or any private account managed by an investment adviser.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) The determination of whether a fund has been acquired or will be acquired should be evaluated in light of the facts and circumstances involved. A fund acquisition includes the acquisition by the registrant of all or substantially all of the portfolio investments held by another fund or an acquisition of a fund's portfolio investments that will constitute all or substantially all of the initial assets of the registrant.</P>
                        <P>(3) Acquisitions of a group of related funds that are probable or that have occurred subsequent to the latest fiscal year-end for which audited financial statements of the registrant have been filed shall be treated under this section as if they are a single acquisition. The required financial statements may be presented either on an individual or a combined basis for any periods they are under common control or management. For purposes of this section, funds shall be deemed to be related if:</P>
                        <P>(i) They are under common control or management;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The acquisition of one fund is conditional on the acquisition of each other fund; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) Each acquisition is conditioned on a single common event.</P>
                        <P>(4) This rule shall not apply to a fund which is totally held by the registrant prior to consummation of the transaction.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Periods to be presented.</E>
                             (1) If securities are being registered to be offered to the security holders of the fund to be acquired, the financial statements specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02 or § 210.3-18, for the fund to be acquired and the supplemental information specified in paragraph (d) shall be filed, except as provided otherwise for filings on Form N-14 (§ 239.23 of this chapter). The financial statements covering the fiscal year shall be audited except as provided in Item 14 of Schedule 14A (§ 240.14a-101 of this chapter) with respect to certain proxy statements or in registration statements filed on Forms N-14 (§ 239.23 of this chapter).
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) In all cases not specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, financial statements of the fund acquired or to be acquired for the periods specified in this paragraph (b)(2) or such shorter period as the fund has been in existence and the supplemental information specified in paragraph (d) of this section shall be filed. Whether such financial statements and supplemental information are to be filed shall be determined using the conditions specified in the definition of significant subsidiary in §§ 210.1-02(w)(2)(i) and (ii)(B) as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i) If none of the conditions set forth in § 210.1-02(w)(2)(i) and (ii)(B), substituting 20 percent for 10 percent each place it appears therein, are satisfied, the financial statements and supplemental financial information in paragraph (d) of this section are not required.</P>
                        <P>(ii) If any of the conditions set forth in § 210.1-02(w)(2)(i) and (ii)(B), substituting 20 percent for 10 percent each place it appears therein, are satisfied, the financial statements of the acquired fund for the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period shall be filed. The registrant shall also provide the supplemental financial information in paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(iii) If the aggregate impact of funds acquired or to be acquired since the date of the most recent audited balance sheet filed for the registrant, for which financial statements are not required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, satisfies any of the conditions set forth in § 210.1-02(w)(2)(i) and (ii)(B), substituting 50 percent for 10 percent each place it appears therein, the registrant shall provide financial statements for at least the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period specified in §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02, or § 210.3-18, for any fund acquired or to be acquired for which financial statements are not yet required by paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. The registrant shall also provide the supplemental financial information in paragraph (d) of this section for such funds.</P>
                        <P>(3) The determination shall be made by comparing the most recent annual financial statement of each such fund, or for acquisitions each group of related funds on a combined basis, to the registrant's most recent annual financial statements filed at or prior to the date of acquisition. However, the determination may be made by using pro forma amounts as calculated by the registrant for the periods specified in § 210.1-02(w)(2) that only give effect to an acquisition consummated after the latest fiscal year-end for which the registrant's financial statements are required to be filed when the registrant has filed audited financial statements of such acquired fund and provided the supplemental financial information for the periods required by this section.</P>
                        <P>(4) Separate financial statements of the acquired fund need not be presented after the portfolio investments of the acquired fund have been reflected in the registrant's most recent audited balance sheet required by §§ 210.3-01 or 3-18 for a date after the date the acquisition was consummated.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Presentation of financial statements.</E>
                             If the fund to be acquired would be an investment company under the Investment Company Act but for the exclusion provided from that definition by either sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act, then the required financial statements shall comply with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and only Article 12 of this part. In situations of any private account managed by an investment adviser provide the schedules specified in Article 12 of this part for the assets to be acquired.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Supplemental financial information.</E>
                             (1) Supplemental financial information shall consist of:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) A table showing the current fees for the registrant and the acquired fund and pro forma fees, if different, for the registrant after giving effect to the acquisition using the format prescribed in the appropriate registration statement under the Investment Company Act;
                            <PRTPAGE P="24654"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) if the transaction will result in a material change in the acquired fund's investment portfolio due to investment restrictions, a schedule of investments of the acquired fund modified to reflect such change and accompanied by narrative disclosure describing the change; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) narrative disclosure about material differences in financial and operating policies of the acquired fund when compared to the registrant.</P>
                        <P>(2) With respect to any fund acquisition, registered investment companies and business development companies shall provide the supplemental financial information required in this section in lieu of any pro forma financial information required by §§ 210.11-01 to 210.11-03 of this regulation.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 210.8-01 by revising NOTE 2 to § 210.8 to remove the undesignated paragraph following paragraph (c) to NOTE 2, and adding NOTE 6 to § 210.8 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.8-01</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Preliminary Notes to Article 8.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P/>
                        <NOTE>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 6 to § 210.8:</HD>
                            <P> Section 210.3-06 shall apply to the preparation of financial statements of smaller reporting companies.</P>
                        </NOTE>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.8-03</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>13. Remove and reserve § 210.8-03(b)(4).</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>14. Revise § 210.8-04 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.8-04</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Financial statements of businesses acquired or to be acquired.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Apply § 210.3-05 substituting §§ 210.8-02 and 210.8-03, as applicable, wherever § 210.3-05 references §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>15. Revise § 210.8-05 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.8-05</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Pro forma financial information.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Pro forma financial information shall be disclosed when any of the conditions in § 210.11-01 exist.</P>
                        <P>(b) The preparation, presentation and disclosure of pro forma financial information shall comply with §§ 210.11-01 through 210.11-03 (Article 11), except that the pro forma financial information may be condensed pursuant to § 210.8-03(a).</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>16. Revise § 210.8-06 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.8-06 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Real estate operations acquired or to be acquired.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>Apply § 210.3-14 substituting §§ 210.8-02 and 210.8-03, as applicable, wherever § 210.3-14 references §§ 210.3-01 and 210.3-02.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>17. Amend § 210.11-01 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing and reserving (a)(5);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising the introductory text of paragraph (a), and paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(6), (a)(8), (b), and (c) to read as follows: </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.11-01</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Presentation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Pro forma financial information shall be filed when any of the following conditions exist:</P>
                        <P>(1) During the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period for which a balance sheet is required by § 210.3-01, a significant business acquisition has occurred (for purposes of these rules, this encompasses the acquisition of an interest in a business accounted for by the equity method);</P>
                        <P>(2) After the date of the most recent balance sheet filed pursuant to § 210.3-01, consummation of a significant business acquisition or a combination of entities under common control has occurred or is probable;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(5) [Reserved];</P>
                        <P>(6) Pro forma financial information required by § 229.914 is required to be provided in connection with a roll-up transaction as defined in § 229.901(c);</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(8) Consummation of other transactions has occurred or is probable for which disclosure of pro forma financial information would be material to investors.</P>
                        <P>(b) A business acquisition or disposition shall be considered significant if:</P>
                        <P>(1) The business acquisition meets:</P>
                        <P>(i) The definition of a significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02(w)(1), substituting 20 percent for 10 percent each place it appears therein; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) If the business is a real estate operation as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2), the significant subsidiary condition in § 210.1-02(w)(1)(i), substituting 20 percent for 10 percent, as modified by the guidance in § 210.3-14(b)(2).</P>
                        <P>(2) The business disposition, including a business that is a real estate operation as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2), meets the definition of a significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02(w)(1), substituting 20 percent for 10 percent each place it appears therein.</P>
                        <P>(3) The determination shall be made by comparing the most recent annual financial statements of each such business, or for acquisitions each group of related businesses (as defined in § 210.3-05(a)(3)) on a combined basis or each group of related real estate operations (as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2)) on a combined basis, to the registrant's most recent annual consolidated financial statements filed at or prior to the date of acquisition or disposition, except as noted in § 210.3-14(b)(2)(iii) for real estate operations. Registrants that acquire net assets that constitute a business or a business that includes oil- or gas- producing activities may make the determination using the financial statements described in § 210.3-05(e) or § 210.3-05(f) if the business meets the conditions for presenting those financial statements. However, the determination may be made using:</P>
                        <P>(i) Pro forma amounts specified in § 210.11-02(a)(6)(i) for the registrant for the periods specified in § 210.11-01(b)(3) that only depict significant business acquisitions and dispositions consummated after the latest fiscal year-end for which the registrant's financial statements are required to be filed, provided that the registrant has filed audited financial statements for any such acquired business for the periods required by § 210.3-05 or § 210.3-14 and the pro forma financial information required by § 210.11-01 through § 210.11-02 for any such acquired or disposed business. The tests may not be made by “annualizing” data; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) The registrant's annual consolidated financial statements, for the most recent fiscal year ended prior to the acquisition or disposition, that are included in the registrant's Form 10-K (§ 249.310 of this chapter) filed after the acquisition or disposition, but before the date financial statements and pro forma financial information for the acquisition or disposition would be required to be filed on Form 8-K (§ 249.308 of this chapter).</P>
                        <P>(c) The pro forma effects of a business acquisition need not be presented pursuant to this section if separate financial statements of the acquired business are not included in the filing, except where the aggregate impact of businesses acquired or to be acquired is significant as determined by §§ 210.3-05(b)(2)(iv) or 210.3-14(b)(2)(i)(C).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>18. Revise § 210.11-02 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.11-02</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Preparation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Form and content.</E>
                             (1) Pro forma financial information shall consist of a pro forma condensed balance sheet, pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income, and accompanying explanatory notes. In certain circumstances (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             where a limited number of pro forma adjustments are required and those adjustments are easily understood), a narrative description of the pro forma effects of the transaction may be 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24655"/>
                            disclosed in lieu of the statements described herein.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The pro forma financial information shall be accompanied by an introductory paragraph which briefly sets forth a description of:</P>
                        <P>(i) Each transaction for which pro forma effect is being given;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The entities involved;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The periods for which the pro forma financial information is presented; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) An explanation of what the pro forma presentation shows.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) The pro forma condensed financial information need only include major captions (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             the numbered captions) prescribed by the applicable sections of Regulation S-X. Where any major balance sheet caption is less than 10 percent of total assets, the caption may be combined with others. When any major statement of comprehensive income caption is less than 15 percent of average net income attributable to the registrant for the most recent three fiscal years, the caption may be combined with others. In calculating average net income attributable to the registrant, loss years should be excluded unless losses were incurred in each of the most recent three years, in which case the average loss shall be used for purposes of this test. Notwithstanding these tests, 
                            <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                             amounts need not be shown separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) Pro forma statements shall ordinarily be in columnar form showing condensed historical statements, pro forma adjustments, and the pro forma results.</P>
                        <P>(5) The pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall disclose income (loss) from continuing operations and income or loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interest.</P>
                        <P>(6) The pro forma condensed balance sheet and pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall present in separate columns and shall include, and be limited to, the following pro forma adjustments:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Transaction Accounting Adjustments.</E>
                             (A) Adjustments that depict in the pro forma condensed balance sheet the accounting for the transaction required by U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (U.S. GAAP) or, as applicable, International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB). Calculate pro forma adjustments using the measurement date and method prescribed by the applicable accounting standards. For a probable transaction, calculate pro forma adjustments using, and disclose, the most recent practicable date prior to the effective date (for registration statements) or the mail date (for proxy statements).
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Adjustments that depict in the pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income the effects of the pro forma balance sheet adjustments in paragraph (a)(6)(i)(A) of this section assuming those adjustments were made as of the beginning of the fiscal year presented. If the condition in § 210.11-01(a) that is met does not have a balance sheet effect, then depict the accounting for the transaction required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Management's Adjustments.</E>
                             Management's Adjustments shall be limited to adjustments that:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Give effect to reasonably estimable synergies and other transaction effects, such as closing facilities, discontinuing product lines, terminating employees, and executing new or modifying existing agreements, that have occurred or are reasonably expected to occur.</P>
                        <P>(B) Show the registrant as an autonomous entity if the condition in § 210.11-01(a)(7) is met.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instruction to paragraph (a)(6)(ii):</E>
                             Any forward-looking information supplied is expressly covered by the safe harbor rule. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 230.175 and § 240.3b-6 of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>(7) All pro forma adjustments should be referenced to notes that clearly explain the assumptions involved. When Management's Adjustments are presented, the pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall include a separate subtotal column that combines the historical statements and the Transaction Accounting Adjustments before the column depicting Management's Adjustments.</P>
                        <P>(8)(i) Historical and pro forma basic and diluted per share amounts based on continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests and the number of shares used to calculate such per share amounts shall be presented on the face of the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income for both the pro forma total depicting the combined historical statements and Transaction Accounting Adjustments as well as the pro forma total depicting the combined historical statements, Transaction Accounting Adjustments, and Management's Adjustments, if any.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) The number of shares used in the calculation of the pro forma per share amounts shall be based on the weighted average number of shares outstanding during the period adjusted to give effect to the number of shares issued or to be issued to consummate the transaction, or if applicable whose proceeds will be used to consummate the transaction as if the shares were outstanding as of the beginning of the period presented. Calculate the pro forma effect of potential common stock being issued in the transaction (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a convertible security), or the proceeds of which will be used to consummate the transaction, on pro forma earnings per share in accordance with U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable, as if the potential common stock were outstanding as of the beginning of the period presented. If a Management's Adjustment will change the number of shares or potential common shares, reflect the change within Management's Adjustment in accordance with U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable, as if the common stock or potential common stock were outstanding as of the beginning of the period presented.
                        </P>
                        <P>(9) If the transaction is structured in such a manner that significantly different results may occur, provide additional pro forma presentations which give effect to the range of possible results.</P>
                        <P>(10) The accompanying explanatory notes shall disclose:</P>
                        <P>(i) Revenues, expenses, gains and losses and related tax effects which will not recur in the income of the registrant beyond 12 months after the transaction.</P>
                        <P>(ii) For Transaction Accounting Adjustments:</P>
                        <P>(A) A table showing the total consideration transferred or received including its components and how they were measured. If total consideration includes contingent consideration, describe the arrangement(s), the basis for determining the amount of payment(s) or receipt(s), and an estimate of the range of outcomes (undiscounted) or, if a range cannot be estimated, that fact and the reasons why; and</P>
                        <P>(B) The following information when the accounting is incomplete: A prominent statement to this effect; the items for which the accounting depicted is incomplete; a description of the information that the registrant requires, including, if material, the uncertainties affecting the pro forma financial information and the possible consequences of their resolution; an indication of when the accounting is expected to be finalized; and other available information that will enable a reader to understand the magnitude of any potential adjustments to the measurements depicted.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) For each Management's Adjustment, a description, including the material uncertainties, of the synergy or other transaction effect, the material assumptions, the calculation of the adjustment, the estimated time frame for completion, and qualitative information necessary to give a fair and balanced 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24656"/>
                            presentation of the pro forma financial information. To the extent known, the reportable segments, products, services, and processes involved; the material resources required, if any, and the anticipated timing.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) For synergies and other transaction effects that are not reasonably estimable, qualitative information necessary for a fair and balanced presentation of the pro forma financial information.</P>
                        <P>(11) A registrant shall not:</P>
                        <P>(i) Present pro forma financial information on the face of the registrant's historical financial statements or in the accompanying notes, except where such presentation is required by U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Present summaries of pro forma financial information elsewhere in a filing that excludes material transactions for which pro forma effect is required to be given.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Give pro forma effect to the registrant's adoption of an accounting standard in pro forma financial information required by §§ 210.11-01 through 210.11-03 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Implementation guidance.</E>
                             (1) 
                            <E T="03">Historical statement of comprehensive income.</E>
                             The historical statement of comprehensive income used in the pro forma financial information shall only be presented through income from continuing operations (or the appropriate modification thereof).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Business acquisitions.</E>
                             In some transactions, such as in financial institution acquisitions, measuring the acquired assets at their acquisition date fair value may result in significant discounts relative to the acquired business's historical cost of the acquired assets. When such discounts can result in a significant effect on earnings (losses) in periods immediately subsequent to the acquisition that will be progressively eliminated over a relatively short period, the effect of the discounts on reported results of operations for each of the next five years shall be disclosed in a note.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Business dispositions.</E>
                             Transaction Accounting Adjustments giving effect to the disposition of a business shall not decrease historically incurred compensation expense for employees who were not, or will not be, transferred or terminated as of the disposition date. Adjustments to decrease historically incurred compensation expense for those employees shall be included in Management's Adjustments if they meet the requirements in § 210.11-02(a)(6)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Multiple transactions.</E>
                             (i) When consummation of more than one transaction has occurred, or is probable, the pro forma financial information shall present in separate columns each transaction for which pro forma presentation is required by § 210.11-01.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) If the pro forma financial information is presented in a proxy or information statement for purposes of obtaining shareholder approval of one of the transactions, the effects of that transaction must be clearly set forth.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Tax effects.</E>
                             (i) Tax effects, if any, of pro forma adjustments normally should be calculated at the statutory rate in effect during the periods for which pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income are presented and should be reflected as a separate pro forma adjustment.
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) When the registrant's historical statements of comprehensive income do not reflect the tax provision on the separate return basis, pro forma statements of comprehensive income adjustments shall reflect a tax provision calculated on the separate return basis.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Periods to be presented.</E>
                             (1) A pro forma condensed balance sheet as of the end of the most recent period for which a consolidated balance sheet of the registrant is required by § 210.3-01 shall be filed unless the transaction is already reflected in such balance sheet.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2)(i) Pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall be filed for only the most recent fiscal year, except as noted in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, and for the period from the most recent fiscal year end to the most recent interim date for which a balance sheet is required. A pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income may be filed for the corresponding interim period of the preceding fiscal year. A pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall not be filed when the historical statement of comprehensive income reflects the transaction for the entire period.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) For transactions required to be accounted for under U.S. GAAP or, as applicable, IFRS-IASB by retrospectively revising the historical statements of comprehensive income (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             combination of entities under common control and discontinued operations), pro forma statements of comprehensive income shall be filed for all periods for which historical financial statements of the registrant are required. Retrospective revisions stemming from the registrant's adoption of a new accounting principle should not be reflected in pro forma statements of comprehensive income until they are depicted in the registrant's historical financial statements.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) Pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall be presented using the registrant's fiscal year end. If the most recent fiscal year end of any other entity involved in the transaction differs from the registrant's most recent fiscal year end by more than one fiscal quarter, the other entity's statement of comprehensive income shall be brought up to within one fiscal quarter of the registrant's most recent fiscal year end, if practicable. This updating could be accomplished by adding subsequent interim period results to the most recent fiscal year end information and deducting the comparable preceding year interim period results. Disclosure shall be made of the periods combined and of the sales or revenues and income for any periods which were excluded from or included more than once in the condensed pro forma statement of comprehensive income (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             an interim period that is included both as part of the fiscal year and the subsequent interim period).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instruction to paragraph (c)(3):</E>
                             In circumstances where different fiscal year ends exist, § 210.3-12 may require a registrant to include in the pro forma financial information an acquired or to be acquired foreign business historical period that would be more current than the periods included in the required historical financial statements of the foreign business.
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) Whenever unusual events enter into the determination of the results shown for the most recently completed fiscal year, the effect of such unusual events should be disclosed and consideration should be given to presenting a pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income for the most recent twelve-month period in addition to those required in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section if the most recent twelve-month period is more representative of normal operations.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 210.11-03</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>19. Amend § 210.11-03 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a) introductory text, removing “§ 210.11-02(b)(1)” and adding in its place “§ 210.11-02(a)(1)”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a)(2), removing “§ 210.11-02(b)(3)” and adding in its place “§ 210.11-02(a)(3)”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (d), removing “generally accepted accounting principles” and adding in its place “U.S. GAAP or IFRS-IASB.”</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 230—GENERAL RULES AND REGULATIONS, SECURITIES ACT OF 1933</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>20. The authority citation for part 230 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <PRTPAGE P="24657"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             15 U.S.C. 77b, 77b note, 77c, 77d, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77r, 77s, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78d, 78j, 78
                            <E T="03">l,</E>
                             78m, 78n, 78
                            <E T="03">o,</E>
                             78
                            <E T="03">o</E>
                            -7 note, 78t, 78w, 78
                            <E T="03">ll</E>
                            (d), 78mm, 80a-8, 80a-24, 80a-28, 80a-29, 80a-30, and 80a-37, and Pub. L. 112-106, sec. 201(a), sec. 401, 126 Stat. 313 (2012), unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>21. Amend § 230.405 by revising the definition of “Significant subsidiary” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 230.405</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Definitions of terms.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Significant subsidiary.</E>
                             The term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the conditions in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition; however, if the subsidiary is a registered investment company or a business development company, it meets any of the conditions in paragraph (4) of this definition instead of any of the conditions in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition. A registrant that files its financial statements in accordance with or provides a reconciliation to U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (U.S. GAAP) shall use amounts determined under U.S. GAAP. A foreign private issuer that files its financial statements in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB) shall use amounts determined under IFRS-IASB.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Investment test.</E>
                             (i) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity, or if the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year. Aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity shall be determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year, which for acquisitions and dispositions shall be at or prior to the date of acquisition or disposition;
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) For a combination between entities or businesses under common control, this test shall be met when either the net book value of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of the registrant's and its subsidiaries' consolidated total assets or the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged by the registrant exceeds 10 percent of its total common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated;</P>
                        <P>(iii) For all other acquisitions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall include the fair value of contingent consideration if required to be recognized at fair value at the acquisition date; however if recognition at fair value is not required, include all contingent consideration, except sales-based milestones and royalties, unless the likelihood of payment is remote. The “investment in” the tested subsidiary also excludes the registrant's and its subsidiaries' proportionate interest in the carrying value of assets transferred by the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated to the tested subsidiary that will remain with the combined entity after the acquisition; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) For dispositions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall equal the fair value of the consideration, which shall include contingent consideration, for the disposed subsidiary when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant or, when the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, the carrying value of the disposed subsidiary when comparing to total assets of the registrant. For a real estate operation as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2), when the investment test is based on the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated, include any debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the buyer in the “investment in” the tested real estate operation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Asset test.</E>
                             The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the total assets (after intercompany eliminations) of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of such total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Income test.</E>
                             (i)(A) The absolute value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the tested subsidiary's consolidated income or loss from continuing operations (after intercompany eliminations) attributable to the controlling interests exceeds 10 percent of the absolute value of such income or loss of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; and
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the tested subsidiary's consolidated total revenue (after intercompany eliminations) exceeds 10 percent of such total revenue of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year. This component does not apply if either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary does not have recurring annual revenue.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) When determining the income component in paragraph (3)(i)(A) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) If a net loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interest has been incurred by either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary, but not both, exclude the equity in the income or loss from continuing operations of the tested subsidiary attributable to the controlling interest from such income or loss of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for purposes of the computation; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Compute the test using the average described herein if the revenue component in paragraph (3)(i)(B) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section does not apply and the absolute value of the registrant's and its consolidated subsidiaries' income or loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10 percent lower than the average of the absolute value of such amounts for each of its last five fiscal years.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) For a registrant that is a registered investment company or a business development company, the term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the following conditions using amounts determined under U.S. GAAP and, if applicable, section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(41)):
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Investment test.</E>
                             The value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year; or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Income test.</E>
                             The absolute value of the combined investment income from dividends, interest, and other income, the net realized gains and losses on investments, and the net change in unrealized gains and losses on investments from the tested subsidiary, for the most recently completed fiscal year exceeds:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) 80 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; or</P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 10 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24658"/>
                            subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year and the investment test condition (paragraph (4)(i) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section) exceeds 5 percent. However, if the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated has an insignificant change in net assets resulting from operations for its most recently completed fiscal year, compute the test using the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for each of its last five fiscal years.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 239—FORMS PRESCRIBED UNDER THE SECURITIES ACT OF 1933</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>22. The authority citation for part 239 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                            15 U.S.C. 77c, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78
                            <E T="03">l,</E>
                             78m,78n, 78o(d), 78o-7 note, 78u-5, 78w(a), 78
                            <E T="03">ll,</E>
                             78mm, 80a-2(a), 80a-3, 80a-8, 80a-9, 80a-10, 80a-13, 80a-24, 80a-26, 80a-29, 80a-30, and 80a-37; and sec. 107, Pub. L. 112-106, 126 Stat. 312, unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>23. Form N-14 (referenced in § 239.23) is amended to revise Item 14 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                        <P>The text of Form N-14 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form N-14</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Item 14. Financial Statements</HD>
                    <P>The Statement of Additional Information shall contain the financial statements, including the schedules thereto, and supplemental financial information of the acquiring company and the company to be acquired required by Regulation S-X [17 CFR 210] for the periods specified in Article 3 and Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X, except:</P>
                    <P>1. If the company to be acquired is an investment company or would be an investment company but for the exclusions provided by sections 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the 1940 Act [15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(1) and (c)(7)] (a “private fund”), the financial statements need only be filed for the most recent fiscal year and the most recent interim period;</P>
                    <P>2. if the company to be acquired is a private fund, then such company may provide the financial statements, including the schedules thereto, described in Rule 3-18 of Regulation S-X that comply with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and only Article 12 of Regulation S-X;</P>
                    <P>3. the financial statements required by Regulation S-X for any subsidiary that is not a majority-owned subsidiary may be omitted from Part B and included in Part C; and</P>
                    <P>4. the table showing the current fees and pro forma fees, if different, required by Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (which is required by Item 3 of this Form).</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 240—GENERAL RULES AND REGULATIONS, SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT OF 1934</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>24. The authority citation for part 240 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                            15 U.S.C. 77c, 77d, 77g, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77eee, 77ggg, 77nnn, 77sss, 77ttt, 78c, 78c-3, 78c-5, 78d, 78e, 78f, 78g, 78i, 78j, 78j-1, 78k, 78k-1, 78l, 78m, 78n, 78n-1, 78
                            <E T="03">o,</E>
                             78
                            <E T="03">o</E>
                            -4, 78
                            <E T="03">o</E>
                            -10, 78p, 78q, 78q-1, 78s, 78u-5, 78w, 78x, 78
                            <E T="03">ll,</E>
                             78mm, 80a-20, 80a-23, 80a-29, 80a-37, 80b-3, 80b-4, 80b-11, 7201 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             and 8302; 7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E); 12 U.S.C. 5221(e)(3); 18 U.S.C. 1350; Pub. L. 111-203, 939A, 124 Stat. 1887 (2010); and secs. 503 and 602, Pub. L. 112-106, 126 Stat. 326 (2012), unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>25. Amend § 240.12b-2 by revising the definition of “Significant subsidiary” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 240.12b-2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Significant subsidiary.</E>
                             The term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the conditions in the following paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition; however, if the subsidiary is a registered investment company or a business development company, it meets any of the conditions in paragraph (4) of this definition instead of any of the conditions in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition. A registrant that files its financial statements in accordance with or provides a reconciliation to U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (U.S. GAAP) shall use amounts determined under U.S. GAAP A foreign private issuer that files its financial statements in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (IFRS-IASB) shall use amounts determined under IFRS-IASB.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Investment test.</E>
                             (i) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity, or if the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year. Aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant's voting and non-voting common equity shall be determined as of the last business day of the registrant's most recently completed fiscal year, which for acquisitions and dispositions shall be at or prior to the date of acquisition or disposition;
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) For a combination between entities or businesses under common control, this test shall be met when either the net book value of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of the registrant's and its subsidiaries' consolidated total assets or the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged by the registrant exceeds 10 percent of its total common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated;</P>
                        <P>(iii) For all other acquisitions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall include the fair value of contingent consideration if required to be recognized at fair value at the acquisition date; however if recognition at fair value is not required, include all contingent consideration, except sales-based milestones and royalties, unless the likelihood of payment is remote. The “investment in” the tested subsidiary also excludes the registrant's and its subsidiaries' proportionate interest in the carrying value of assets transferred by the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated to the tested subsidiary that will remain with the combined entity after the acquisition; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) For dispositions, the “investment in” the tested subsidiary shall equal the fair value of the consideration, which shall include contingent consideration, for the disposed subsidiary when comparing to the aggregate worldwide market value of the registrant or, when the registrant has no such aggregate worldwide market value, the carrying value of the disposed subsidiary when comparing to total assets of the registrant. For a real estate operation as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2), when the investment test is based on the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated, include any debt secured by the real properties that is assumed by the buyer in the “investment in” the tested real estate operation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Asset test.</E>
                             The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the total assets (after intercompany eliminations) of the tested subsidiary exceeds 10 percent of such total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year.
                            <PRTPAGE P="24659"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Income test.</E>
                             (i)(A) The absolute value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the tested subsidiary's consolidated income or loss from continuing operations (after intercompany eliminations) attributable to the controlling interests exceeds 10 percent of the absolute value of such income or loss of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; and
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' proportionate share of the tested subsidiary's consolidated total revenue (after intercompany eliminations) exceeds 10 percent of such total revenue of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year. This component does not apply if either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary does not have recurring annual revenue.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) When determining the income component in paragraph (3)(i)(A) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) If a net loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interest has been incurred by either the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated or the tested subsidiary, but not both, exclude the equity in the income or loss from continuing operations of the tested subsidiary attributable to the controlling interest from such income or loss of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for purposes of the computation; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Compute the test using the average described herein if the revenue component in paragraph (3)(i)(B) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section does not apply and the absolute value of the registrant's and its consolidated subsidiaries' income or loss from continuing operations attributable to the controlling interests for the most recent fiscal year is at least 10 percent lower than the average of the absolute value of such amounts for each of its last five fiscal years.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) For a registrant that is a registered investment company or a business development company, the term 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the following conditions using amounts determined under U.S. GAAP and, if applicable, section 2(a)(41) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(41)):
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Investment test.</E>
                             The value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year; or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Income test.</E>
                             The absolute value of the combined investment income from dividends, interest, and other income, the net realized gains and losses on investments, and the net change in unrealized gains and losses on investments from the tested subsidiary, for the most recently completed fiscal year exceeds:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) 80 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; or</P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 10 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year and the Investment Test condition (paragraph (4)(i) of the definition of 
                            <E T="03">significant subsidiary</E>
                             in this section) exceeds 5 percent. However, if the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated has an insignificant change in net assets resulting from operations for its most recently completed fiscal year, compute the test using the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for each of its last five fiscal years.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 240.14a-101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>26. Amend § 240.14a-101, Item 14(d)(5) by removing the phrase “Rule 3-05 and Article 11 of Regulation S-X” and adding in its place “Rules 3-05, 6-11, and Article 11 of Regulation S-X”. </AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 249—FORMS, SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT OF 1934</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>27. The authority citation for part 249 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                            15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             and 7201 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 5461 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             18 U.S.C. 1350; Sec. 953(b), Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1904; Sec. 102(a)(3), Pub. L. 112-106, 126 Stat. 309 (2012); Sec. 107, Pub. L. 112-106, 126 Stat. 313 (2012), and Sec. 72001, Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312 (2015), unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>28. Form 8-K (referenced in § 249.308) is amended by revising the introductory text to Item 2.01, Instruction 4 to Item 2.01, and Item 9.01.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions to read as follows:</P>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                        <P>The text of Form 8-K does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form 8-K</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Item 2.01 Completion of Acquisition or Disposition of Assets</HD>
                    <P>If the registrant or any of its subsidiaries consolidated has completed the acquisition or disposition of a significant amount of assets, otherwise than in the ordinary course of business, or the acquisition or disposition of a significant amount of assets that constitute a real estate operation as defined in § 210.3-14(a)(2) disclose the following information:</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions.</E>
                         * * *
                    </P>
                    <P>4. An acquisition or disposition shall be deemed to involve a significant amount of assets:</P>
                    <P>(i) If the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the net book value of such assets or the amount paid or received for the assets upon such acquisition or disposition exceeded 10% of the total assets of the registrant and its consolidated subsidiaries;</P>
                    <P>(ii) If it involved a business (see 17 CFR 210.11-01(d)) that is significant (see 17 CFR 210.11-01(b)); or</P>
                    <P>(iii) In the case of a business development company, if the amount paid for such assets exceeded 10% of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its consolidated subsidiaries.</P>
                    <P>The aggregate impact of acquired businesses are not required to be reported pursuant to this Item 2.01 unless they are related businesses (see 17 CFR 210.3-05(a)(3)), related real estate operations (see 17 CFR 210.3-14(a)(3)), or related funds (see 17 CFR 210.6-11(a)(3)), and are significant in the aggregate.</P>
                    <P>5. Attention is directed to the requirements in Item 9.01 (Financial Statements and Exhibits) with respect to the filing of:</P>
                    <P>(i) Financial statements of businesses or funds acquired;</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Item 9.01 Financial Statements and Exhibits</HD>
                    <P>List below the financial statements, pro forma financial information and exhibits, if any, filed as a part of this report.</P>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Financial statements of businesses or funds acquired.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) For any business acquisition or fund acquisition required to be described in answer to Item 2.01 of this form, file financial statements and any applicable supplemental information, of the business acquired specified in Rules 3-05 or 3-14 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.3-05(b) and 210.3-14), or Rules 8-04 or 8-06 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.8-04(b) and 210.8-06) for smaller 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24660"/>
                        reporting companies, or of the fund acquired specified in Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.6-11).
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) The financial statements shall be prepared pursuant to Regulation S-X except that supporting schedules need not be filed unless required by Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.6-11). A manually signed accountant's report should be provided pursuant to Rule 2-02 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.2-02).</P>
                    <P>(3) Financial statements required by this item may be filed with the initial report, or by amendment not later than 71 calendar days after the date that the initial report on Form 8-K must be filed. If the financial statements are not included in the initial report, the registrant should so indicate in the Form 8-K report and state when the required financial statements will be filed. The registrant may, at its option, include unaudited financial statements in the initial report on Form 8-K.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Pro forma financial information.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) For any transaction required to be described in answer to Item 2.01 of this form, furnish any pro forma financial information that would be required pursuant to Article 11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210) or Rule 8-05 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.8-05) for smaller reporting companies unless it involves the acquisition of a fund subject to Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.6-11).</P>
                    <P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (a)(3) of this Item 9.01 shall also apply to pro forma financial information relative to the acquired business.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Shell company transactions.</E>
                         The provisions of paragraph (a)(3) and (b)(2) of this Item shall not apply to the financial statements or pro forma financial information required to be filed under this Item with regard to any transaction required to be described in answer to Item 2.01 of this Form by a registrant that was a shell company, other than a business combination related shell company, as those terms are defined in Rule 12b-2 under the Exchange Act (17 CFR 240.12b-2), immediately before that transaction. Accordingly, with regard to any transaction required to be described in answer to Item 2.01 of this Form by a registrant that was a shell company, other than a business combination related shell company, immediately before that transaction, the financial statements and pro forma financial information required by this Item must be filed in the initial report. Notwithstanding General Instruction B.3. to Form 8-K, if any financial statement or any financial information required to be filed in the initial report by this Item 9.01(c) is previously reported, as that term is defined in Rule 12b-2 under the Exchange Act (17 CFR 240.12b-2), the registrant may identify the filing in which that disclosure is included instead of including that disclosure in the initial report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Exhibits.</E>
                         * * *
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Instruction</HD>
                    <P>During the period after a registrant has reported an acquisition pursuant to Item 2.01 of this form, until the date on which the financial statements specified by this Item 9.01 must be filed, the registrant will be deemed current for purposes of its reporting obligations under Section 13(a) or 15(d) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78o(d)). With respect to filings under the Securities Act, however, registration statements will not be declared effective and post-effective amendments to registration statements will not be declared effective unless financial statements meeting the requirements of Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, and Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.3-05, 210.3-14, and 210.6-11), as applicable, are provided. In addition, offerings should not be made pursuant to effective registration statements, or pursuant to Rule 506 of Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506) where any purchasers are not accredited investors under Rule 501(a) of that Regulation, until the audited financial statements required by Rule 3-05, Rule 3-14, and Rule 6-11 of Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.3-05, 210.3-14, and 210.6-11), as applicable, are filed; provided, however, that the following offerings or sales of securities may proceed notwithstanding that financial statements of the acquired business have not been filed:</P>
                    <P>(a) Offerings or sales of securities upon the conversion of outstanding convertible securities or upon the exercise of outstanding warrants or rights;</P>
                    <P>(b) Dividend or interest reinvestment plans;</P>
                    <P>(c) Employee benefit plans;</P>
                    <P>(d) Transactions involving secondary offerings; or</P>
                    <P>(e) Sales of securities pursuant to Rule 144 (17 CFR 230.144).</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>29. Form 10-K (referenced in § 249.310) is amended to revise Item 8.(a) of PART II to read as follows:</P>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                        <P>The text of Form 10-K does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form 10-K</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Annual Report Pursuant to Section 13 or 15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">General Instructions</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Part II. * * *</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Item 8. Financial Statements and Supplementary Data</HD>
                    <P>(a) Furnish financial statements meeting the requirements of Regulation S-X (§ 210 of this chapter), except § 210.3-05, § 210.3-14, § 210.6-11, § 210.8-04, § 210.8-05, § 210.8-06 and Article 11 thereof, and the supplementary financial information required by Item 302 of Regulation S-K (§ 229.302 of this chapter). Financial statements of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated (as required by Rule 14a-3(b)) shall be filed under this item. Other financial statements and schedules required under Regulation S-X may be filed as “Financial Statement Schedules” pursuant to Item 15, Exhibits, Financial Statement Schedules, and Reports on Form 8-K, of this form.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 270—RULES AND REGULATIONS, INVESTMENT COMPANY ACT OF 1940</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>30. The general authority citation for part 270 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                            15 U.S.C. 80a-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             80a-34(d), 80a-37, 80a-39, and Pub. L. 111-203, sec. 939A, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010), unless otherwise noted.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>31. Revise paragraph (k) of § 270.8b-2 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (k) 
                        <E T="03">Significant subsidiary.</E>
                         The term “significant subsidiary” means a subsidiary, including its subsidiaries, which meets any of the following conditions, using amounts determined under U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and, if applicable, section 2(a)(41) of the Act:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Investment test.</E>
                         The value of the registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the tested subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the value of the total investments of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year; or
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Income test.</E>
                         The absolute value of the combined investment income from dividends, interest, and other income, the net realized gains and losses on investments, and the net change in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24661"/>
                        unrealized gains and losses on investments from the tested subsidiary, for the most recently completed fiscal year exceeds:
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) 80 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year; or</P>
                    <P>(B) 10 percent of the absolute value of the change in net assets resulting from operations of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year and the Investment Test (paragraph (k)(i)) condition exceeds 5 percent. However, if the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated has an insignificant change in net assets resulting from operations for its most recently completed fiscal year, compute the test using the average of the absolute value of such amounts for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for each of its last five fiscal years.</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 274—FORMS PRESCRIBED UNDER THE INVESTMENT COMPANY ACT OF 1940</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>32. The general authority citation for part 274 continues to read, in part, as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 78c(b), 78l, 78m, 78n, 78o(d), 80a-8, 80a-24, 80a-26, 80a-29, and Pub. L. 111-203, sec. 939A, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010), unless otherwise noted.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>33. Form N-2 (referenced in §§ 239.14 and 274.11a-1) is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        a. Revise Item 8.6, paragraph (a) to Instruction 1 by removing the phrase “Sections 210.6-01 through 210.6-10 of Regulation S-X [17 CFR 210.6-01 through 210.6-10]” and adding in its place “Article 6 of Regulation S-X [17 CFR 210.6-01 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ]”.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        b. Revise Item 24, paragraph (a) to Instruction 1 by removing the phrase “Sections 210.6-01 through 210.6-10 of Regulation S-X [17 CFR 210.6-01 through 210.6-10]” and adding in its place “Article 6 of Regulation S-X [17 CFR 210.6-01 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ]”.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                        <P>The text of Form N-2 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>By the Commission.</P>
                        <DATED>Dated: May 3, 2019.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Eduardo A. Aleman,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-09472 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>84</VOL>
    <NO>102</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, May 28, 2019</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="24663"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Federal Trade Commission</AGENCY>
            <CFR>16 CFR Part 315</CFR>
            <TITLE>Contact Lens Rule; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24664"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>16 CFR Part 315</CFR>
                    <RIN>RIN 3084-AB36</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Contact Lens Rule</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Federal Trade Commission (“FTC” or “Commission”).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking; request for public comment.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>As part of its regulatory review of the Contact Lens Rule (“Rule”), the Commission is proposing modifications to its prior proposal to amend the Rule to require that prescribers obtain a signed acknowledgment after releasing a contact lens prescription and maintain each such acknowledgment for a period of not less than three years. The Commission is further proposing to amend the Rule to: Permit prescribers to comply with automatic prescription release via electronic delivery in certain circumstances; specify a time-period for prescribers to respond to requests for prescriptions; clarify and institute additional requirements for automated telephone verification messages; more precisely delineate what constitutes unlawful alteration of a prescription; and require that sellers accept patient prescription presentation. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals. The Commission is not adopting any final amendments to the Rule at this time and continues to consider comments and information submitted in response to its Request for Comment of September 2015, its Notice of Proposed Rulemaking of December 2016, and its Notice Announcing Public Workshop and Request for Comment of December 2017.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Written comments must be received on or before July 29, 2019.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the 
                            <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                             section below. Write “Contact Lens Rule Review, 16 CFR part 315, Project No. R511995” on your comment, and file your comment online at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             by following the instructions on the web-based form. If you prefer to file your comment on paper, mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite CC-5610 (Annex B), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW, 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex B), Washington, DC 20024.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Alysa Bernstein, Attorney, (202) 326-2903, Paul Spelman, Attorney, (202) 326-2487, or Andrew Wone, Attorney, (202) 326-2934, Division of Advertising Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20580.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Overview of the Contact Lens Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. History of the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Initial Request for Comments in 2015</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in 2016</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Proposal To Modify Prior Signed-Acknowledgement Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. New Proposals To Modify the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Option for Electronic Delivery of Prescriptions as a Means for Automatic Prescription Release</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Use of Patient Portals by Prescribers and Patients</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Analysis and Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Modification of Prior Signed-Acknowledgement Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. NPRM Automatic Prescription Release Proposal and Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Comments on the Proposed Amendment to § 315.3(a)(1)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Comments Concerning the Need for the Proposed Signed Acknowledgment Due to Non-Compliance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Empirical Evidence of Compliance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Verifications as Evidence of Lack of Prescription Release</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. The Dearth of Consumer Complaints to the FTC as Evidence of Prescriber Compliance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Comments Concerning Whether a Proposed Signed Acknowledgment Is Needed for Better Enforcement and Auditing of the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Comments About the Burden of the Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Comments on the Text of the Proposed Acknowledgment Form</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Alternative Proposals to the Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Additional Discussion and Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. A Confirmation From the Consumer Is Necessary for Enforcement and Monitoring</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. The Burden Is Relatively Small and Outweighed by the Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Analysis and Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Requiring Prescribers To Respond to Requests for an Additional Copy of a Prescription Within Forty Business Hours</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Obtaining an Additional Copy of a Prescription</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Analysis and Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Additional Requirements for Sellers Using Automated Telephone Verification Messages</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Issues With Automated Telephone Verification Messages</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Analysis and Proposal</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Seller Alteration of Contact Lens Prescriptions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Analysis and Proposals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Seller Requirement To Accept Prescription Presentation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Seller Requirement To Verify Only the Contact Lens Brand or Manufacturer That Consumers Indicate Is on Their Prescriptions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Request for Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. General Questions on Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Electronic Delivery of Prescriptions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Confirmation of Prescription Release</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Prescriber Responses to Requests for an Additional Copy of a Prescription</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Automated Telephone Verification Messages</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Illegal Prescription Alteration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Communications by Outside Parties to the Commissioners or Their Advisors</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Estimated Additional Hours Burden</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Estimated Total Labor Cost Burden</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Capital and Other Non-Labor Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XI. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Description of the Reasons the Agency Is Taking Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Statement of the Objectives of, and Legal Basis for, the Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Small Entities to Which the Proposed Amendments Will Apply</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements, Including Classes of Covered Small Entities and Professional Skills Needed to Comply</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Amendments Affecting Prescribers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Amendments Affecting Sellers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Significant Alternatives to the Proposed Amendments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Alternatives for Amendments Affecting Prescribers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Alternatives for Amendments Affecting Sellers</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of the Contact Lens Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        In 2003, Congress enacted the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act,
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and pursuant to the Act, the Commission promulgated the Contact Lens Rule on July 2, 2004.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Rule went into effect on August 2, 2004.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601-7610 (Pub. L. 108-164).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 16 CFR part 315 (2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Contact Lens Rule promotes competition in retail sales of contact lenses by facilitating consumers' ability to comparison shop for contact lenses. When a prescriber completes a contact lens fitting, the Rule requires that the prescriber automatically provide the patient with a portable copy of the patient's prescription, whether or not the patient requests it. The Rule also 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24665"/>
                        requires that the prescriber verify or provide such prescriptions to authorized third parties. At the same time, the Rule requires that sellers only sell contact lenses in accordance with valid prescriptions written by licensed prescribers that were either (a) presented to the seller by the patient or a designated agent of the patient or (b) verified by direct communication with the prescriber.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Rule further sets out the information that must be included in a seller's verification request, and directs that a prescription is only verified under the Rule if: (1) A prescriber confirms the prescription is accurate; (2) a prescriber informs the seller that the prescription is inaccurate and provides an accurate prescription in its stead; or (3) the prescriber fails to communicate with the seller within eight business hours after receiving a compliant verification request.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Rule states that if the prescriber informs the seller within eight business hours of receiving the verification request that the prescription is inaccurate, expired, or invalid, the seller shall not fill the prescription. The Rule requires that the prescriber specify the basis for the inaccuracy or invalidity of the prescription, and if the prescription is inaccurate, the prescriber must correct it.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Sellers may not alter a prescription, but for private label contact lenses, may substitute identical contact lenses that the same company manufactures and sells under a different name.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(b)-(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Contact Lens Rule sets a minimum expiration date of one year after the issue date of a prescription with an exception based on a patient's ocular health.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Rule also incorporates the Act's preemption of state and local laws and regulations that establish a prescription expiration date of less than one year or that restrict prescription release or require active verification.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.11(a). The Rule states further that “[a]ny other state or local laws or regulations that are inconsistent with the Act or this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency.” 16 CFR 315.11(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. History of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FTC has more than three decades of regulatory and research experience regarding the optical goods industry; this history continues to inform the basis and purpose of the Contact Lens Rule and this rule review. In addition to the Rule, the Commission enforces the Ophthalmic Practice Rules (known as the “Eyeglass Rule”), initially promulgated in 1978.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prior to the Eyeglass Rule, many prescribers either refused to release prescriptions to their patients or charged an additional fee to do so.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prescribers also used waivers and liability disclaimers to discourage comparison shopping, mislead consumers, and frighten them into purchasing ophthalmic goods from the prescriber.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission determined that these actions reduced consumers' ability to obtain the lowest prices and hindered competition in the optical marketplace.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To address these problems, the Eyeglass Rule required prescribers—generally, optometrists and ophthalmologists—to provide each of their patients, immediately after completion of an eye examination, a free copy of the patient's eyeglass prescription.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Final Trade Regulation Rule, Advertising of Ophthalmic Goods and Services, 43 FR 23992 (June 2, 1978) [hereinafter Eyeglass I]. The Rule was revised in 1992, with the revisions codified at 16 CFR part 456. Ophthalmic Practice Rules, 57 FR 18822 (May 1, 1992).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             43 FR at 23998. The Commission found, for example, that in nearly every survey of practicing optometrists considered in the rulemaking record, more than 50% of optometrists imposed a restriction on the availability of eyeglass prescriptions to patients. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             FTC, “Staff Report on Advertising of Ophthalmic Goods and Services and Proposed Trade Regulation Rule” 240-48 (1977) [hereinafter 1977 Staff Report] (detailing myriad accounts of prescribers refusing to release eyeglass prescriptions to their patients), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/reports/staff-report-advertising-ophthalmic-goods-services-proposed-trade-regulation-rule-16-cfr-part-456/r611003_-_staff_report_on_advertising_of_ophthalmic_goods_and_services_and_proposed_trade_regulation.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Am. Optometric Ass'n</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FTC,</E>
                             626 F.2d 896, 916 (D.C. Cir. 1980) (noting considerable “evidence of abuse” by prescribers); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             1977 Staff Report, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 10, at 277 (concluding that there could be “little doubt” that the primary intent of waivers was to discourage or dissuade consumers from taking their prescriptions elsewhere to be filled).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             FTC, “The Strength of Competition in the Sale of Rx Contact Lenses: An FTC Study” 45-46 (2005), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/documents/reports/strength-competition-sale-rx-contact-lenses-ftc-study/050214contactlensrpt.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter 2005 Contact Lens Report].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             16 CFR 456.2 (separation of examination and dispensing). The FTC also has studied the effects of state-imposed restrictions in the optical goods industry. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FTC, “The Effects of Restrictions on Advertising and Commercial Practice in the Professions: The Case of Optometry” (1980), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/documents/reports/effects-restrictions-advertising-and-commercial-practice-professions-case-optometry/198009optometry.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Eyeglass Rule, however, did not encompass contact lens prescriptions. While a majority of states enacted their own statutes requiring some form of contact lens prescription release,
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         many prescribers continued to withhold prescriptions for contact lenses.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This, and other prescriber practices (such as requiring liability waivers, refusing to verify prescriptions when consumers tried to buy lenses from third-party sellers, and encouraging manufacturers not to distribute contact lenses to third-party sellers), made it challenging for consumers to obtain lenses from anyone other than their prescribers.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to Congress, these obstacles were rooted in an “inherent conflict of interest” in that “[u]nlike medical doctors who are prohibited from selling the drugs they prescribe, eye doctors and optometrists . . . are able to fill the contact lens prescriptions they write.” 
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="24666"/>
                        Third-party sellers are thus forced to compete for the sale of lenses with the individual who is writing the prescription.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To address this inherent conflict of interest and achieve freedom of choice and the benefits of competition for contact lens consumers, Congress passed the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act in 2003,
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and, in 2004, the Commission issued the Contact Lens Rule,
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         implementing the Act.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             By 2003, more than two-thirds of states had laws requiring some form of contact lens prescription release. H.R. Rep. No. 108-318, at 8 (2003).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at 4 (noting that “[t]he practice of optometrists withholding the prescription [for contact lenses] has limited the consumer's ability to shop for the best price and has impacted competition.”); “Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act: Hearing Before the Subcomm. on Commerce, Trade, and Consumer Protection of the H. Comm. on Energy and Commerce,” 108th Cong. 1 (2003) [hereinafter FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing] (statement of Ami Gadhia, Consumers Union) (noting that multiple surveys of consumers in Texas had found considerable numbers were unable to obtain their contact lens prescription from their prescribers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318 at 4; FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Howard Beales, Jonathan Coon, Ami Gadhia, Robert Hubbard, Maria Martinez, Rep. W. J. Tauzin (La.); Peggy Venable). 
                            <E T="03">See also In re Disposable Contact Lens Antitrust Litig.,</E>
                             No. 94-MDL 1030-J-20A (M.D. Fla.) in which the Attorneys General of 31 states alleged that eye-care professionals engaged in an organized effort to prevent or hinder consumers from obtaining their contact lens prescriptions. The complaints alleged two conspiracies: (1) That the practitioners and their trade associations conspired to prevent the release of contact lens prescriptions to consumers, and (2) that manufacturers, practitioners, and trade associations, including the American Optometric Association, conspired to eliminate sales of contact lenses by pharmacies, mail order, and other alternative sellers. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             According to the Attorneys General, the conspiracy severely restricted the supply of contact lenses available to alternative sellers, which hampered the growth of such sellers, decreased the supply of lenses to consumers, and increased the price of lenses. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The parties reached settlements, the last of which the court approved in November 2001. As part of the settlements, manufacturers agreed to sell contact lenses to alternative distribution channels. During consideration of the FCLCA, one Congressman noted about the case, “The suit was settled, but it shows the extent of distrust for how contact lenses are currently dispensed by eye doctors and optometrists.” FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Rep. W.J. Tauzin (La.)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318, at 5. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Letter from Senators Richard Blumenthal and Orrin G. Hatch of the United States Senate Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Aug. 11, 2017) (recognizing the “inherent conflict of interest” and noting that the FCLCA was made necessary by “the unique nature of the contact lens marketplace”), 
                            <E T="03">
                                https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                public_comment_from_senators_blumenthal_and_hatch_re_contact_lens_rulemaking.pdf
                            </E>
                             [hereinafter Blumenthal Letter].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318, at 5
                            <E T="03">;</E>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing (statements of Rep. W.J. Tauzin (LA)) (noting there is a “classic conflict of interest that robs the consumers of the ability to shop competitively for the best price,” and stating that the FCLCA takes the “necessary steps to remedy this stranglehold on contact lens competition.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601-7610 (Pub. L. 108-164).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR 40482 (July 2, 2004) (codified at 16 CFR part 315). Pursuant to its congressional mandate, the FTC also issued a study of competition in the contact lens industry in 2005. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2005 Contact Lens Report, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As specified in the Act, the Rule imposes requirements on both sellers and prescribers of contact lenses. Because the use of contact lenses involves significant health issues 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Congress recognized that consumers may be harmed by contact lenses purchased with an expired, inaccurate, or otherwise invalid prescription,
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Act requires that contact lenses be sold only to patients with valid prescriptions, which they receive after contact lens fittings by a prescriber. The Act and the Rule only allow sales of contact lenses when a patient presents a seller with a copy of the prescription or the seller has verified the patient's prescription with the prescriber.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Sellers also are prohibited from altering a contact lens prescription.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FTC, “Possible Barriers to E-Commerce: Contact Lenses, A Report from the Staff of the Federal Trade Commission” 8-9 (2004), 
                            <E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/os/2004/03/040329clreportfinal.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR 40482.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Act and the Rule further impose obligations on prescribers. First and foremost, prescribers are required to release a copy of the prescription to the patient promptly upon completion of the contact lens fitting, “[w]hether or not requested by the patient.” 
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prescribers also are prohibited from requiring: (1) The purchase of contact lenses as a condition of either prescription release or verification, (2) a separate payment for prescription release or verification, and (3) that the patient sign a waiver as a condition of prescription release or verification.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601(a)(1); 16 CFR 315.3(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601(b)(1)-(3); 16 CFR 315.3(b)(1)-(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, prescribers are required to provide or verify a contact lens prescription when “directed by any person designated to act on behalf of the patient.” 
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such verification occurs when the seller provides the prescriber with a consumer's prescription information and: (1) The prescriber confirms that the prescription is accurate, by phone, facsimile, or electronic mail; (2) the prescriber informs the seller that the prescription is inaccurate and provides the correct prescription; or (3) the prescriber does not communicate with the seller within eight business hours of the seller's request for verification (“passive verification”).
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The eight-business-hour passive verification lessens the demands on prescribers in the event a seller forwards a query about an accurate and complete prescription from a properly identified patient. It also prevents prescribers from blocking verification—and impeding consumer access to contact lenses that may be lower-priced, or sold by sellers who offer other benefits or convenience—simply by refusing to respond to verification requests.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601(a)(2) (must, as directed by authorized party, “provide or verify” the prescription); 16 CFR 315.3(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7603(d)(1)-(3); 16 CFR 315.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One outcome of passive verification, however, if a prescriber does not respond to a verification request containing inaccurate information or for an invalid prescription within eight business hours is that the prescription is deemed verified; thus, passive verification allows for the possibility that patients can be sold lenses for which they do not have a valid prescription. Congress, when considering the FCLCA, was aware that a passive-verification regime could, in some instances, allow sellers to sell and ship contact lenses based on an invalid or inaccurate prescription, and that this could potentially lead to health risks.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress opted for a passive-verification regime despite this concern in order “to ensure that consumers are not caught in the competitive tug-of-war between doctors and third party sellers for the sale of contact lenses.” 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It was also envisioned that prescribers would remain diligent in ensuring that patients did not receive lenses for which they had not been prescribed, since it is in both prescribers' self-interest and the health and safety interests of their patients to prevent this from occurring.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this manner, the passive-verification system was perceived, to a certain extent, to be self-enforcing, as prescribers would have both a financial interest and an ethical duty to police invalid, incorrect, or expired prescriptions.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Howard Beales, Federal Trade Commission); 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             (statements of J. Pat Cummings, American Optometric Association) (“And the problem with passive verification is that people will get contact lenses without a prescription.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318, at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR at 40498.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Howard Beales, Federal Trade Commission) (stating that passive verification is in many respects self-enforcing). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Jonathan Coon, 1-800 CONTACTS) (explaining to the Committee that from their experience with an existing passive verification-system in California, doctors have a motivation to block invalid-prescription sales. “So they tell us if there is any problem with the prescription, if it's expired, it's invalid, whatever the problem is with the prescription. If they can tell us, you can believe they tell us absolutely every time.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Initial Request for Comments in 2015</HD>
                    <P>
                        As part of its periodic review of its rules and guides, on September 3, 2015, the Commission solicited comments on the Contact Lens Rule, seeking input on: The economic impact of, and continuing need for, the Rule; the benefits of the Rule to consumers purchasing contact lenses; the burdens the Rule places on entities subject to its requirements; the impact the Rule has had on the flow of information to consumers; the degree of industry compliance with the Rule; the need for any modifications to increase its benefits or reduce its burdens or to account for changes in relevant technology; and any overlap or conflict with the Rule and other federal, state, or local laws or regulations.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The comment period closed on October 26, 2015. The Commission received approximately 660 
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         comments from individuals and entities representing a wide range of viewpoints, including prescribing eye-care practitioners (ophthalmologists and optometrists), opticians and other eye-wear industry members, sellers of contact lenses (both online and brick-and-mortar), contact lens manufacturers, and consumers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 80 FR 53272 (Sept. 3, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Comment figures are approximations because identical comments are sometimes submitted more than once.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in 2016</HD>
                    <P>
                        After a review of comments, surveys, other submitted information, and its own enforcement experience, the Commission determined that the overall weight of the evidence demonstrated a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24667"/>
                        need to improve compliance with the Rule's automatic prescription-release requirement, as well as a need to create a mechanism for monitoring and enforcing the Rule.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To achieve this, the Commission issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“NPRM”) on December 7, 2016 that proposed to add a signed-acknowledgment requirement.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The signed-acknowledgment requirement would be triggered once the prescriber presented the prescription to the patient, and the acknowledgment form could be in either paper or electronic format. As proposed, the acknowledgment form would be entitled “Patient Receipt of Contact Lens Prescription,” and state, “My eye care professional provided me with a copy of my contact lens prescription at the completion of my contact lens fitting. I understand that I am free to purchase contact lenses from the seller of my choice.” Prescribers would be required to maintain copies of the acknowledgment forms in paper or electronically for not less than three years.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 81 FR 88526 (Dec. 7, 2016) [hereinafter NPRM].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The NPRM also proposed a technical amendment, to remove the words “private label” from § 315.5(e) to conform the language of the Rule to that of the FCLCA, but that amendment is not at issue in this Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The NPRM sought comment on this proposal, and also about the following issues: The provision of additional copies of prescriptions, the amount of time for a prescriber to respond to such a request, the use of patient portals to release prescriptions, and potential modifications to address concerns about automated telephone verification calls. The sixty-day comment period for the Commission's NPRM closed on January 30, 2017.</P>
                    <P>
                        In response to its NPRM, the Commission received over 4,000 additional comments, many from prescribers concerned about the impact of the proposed signed- acknowledgment requirement. After considering these and other comments, the Commission determined that certain issues deserved additional discussion and examination. To obtain additional input and more fully consider commenter concerns, the Commission solicited additional comments 
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and held a public workshop on the Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace on March 7, 2018. The workshop included six panels, covering issues relating to the overall contact lens marketplace, health and safety, competition, purchasing and verification, the proposed signed acknowledgment and consumer choice, and the future of contact lens prescribing and selling. In response to the Commission's request and workshop, the Commission received approximately 3,400 additional comments from a wide range of commenters, including numerous consumers and prescribers, as well as industry associations, state attorneys general, contact lens manufacturers, and retailers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             Public Workshop Examining Contact Lens Marketplace and Analyzing Proposed Changes to the Contact Lens Rule, 82 FR 57889 (Dec. 8, 2017).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>
                        After reviewing the comments, the Commission now proposes to modify its prior proposal—put forth in the NPRM—that would have required prescribers to request a signed statement from their patients acknowledging receipt of the patient's prescription. The Commission also proposes new amendments to the Rule. This Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“SNPRM”) summarizes the relevant comments received and explains the Commission's proposal to modify its signed-acknowledgment proposal and amend other sections of the Rule.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             This SNPRM will only discuss comments specifically related to the modifications and amendments proposed at this time. The Commission will address other issues raised by commenters when the Commission issues its Final Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposal To Modify Prior Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission proposes to modify its prior proposal for a signed-acknowledgment requirement by instituting a more flexible Confirmation of Prescription Release provision. Rather than requiring that prescribers request that each contact lens patient acknowledge receipt of the prescription by signing a form stating, “My eye care professional provided me with a copy of my contact lens prescription at the completion of my contact lens fitting. I understand I am free to purchase contact lenses from the seller of my choice,” 
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         prescribers would be required to do one of the following:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88559.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>(a) Request that the patient acknowledge receipt of the contact lens prescription by signing a separate statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription;</P>
                    <P>(b) Request that the patient sign a prescriber-retained copy of a contact lens prescription that contains a statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription;</P>
                    <P>(c) Request that the patient sign a prescriber-retained copy of the sales receipt for the examination that contains a statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription; or</P>
                    <P>(d) If a digital copy of the prescription was provided to the patient (via methods including an online portal, electronic mail, or text message), retain evidence that such prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable, and printable.</P>
                    <P>The precise wording of such confirmations would be left to the prescriber's discretion, but for prescribers opting for (a), (b), or (c), a patient's written or electronic signature would always be required. The prescriber would have to maintain evidence of the Confirmation of Prescription Release for at least three years, and make such evidence available upon request by the Commission. Unlike the Commission's prior acknowledgment proposal, which applied to all prescribers, the Confirmation of Prescription Release would only be required of prescribers who have a financial interest in the sale of contact lenses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. New Proposals To Modify the Rule</HD>
                    <P>In addition to the proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release, the Commission further proposes to modify the Rule for prescribers and sellers in several ways. First, by adding to the Rule a definition of the term “provide to the patient a copy,” the Commission proposes to allow the prescriber, with the patient's verifiable affirmative consent, to provide the patient with a digital copy of the patient's prescription in lieu of a paper copy. Second, although the Rule has always required that prescribers, upon request, provide any person designated to act on behalf of the patient with a copy of the patient's valid contact lens prescription, the Rule did not prescribe a time limit in which the copy of the prescription had to be provided; the Commission now proposes forty business hours as a reasonable time period in which the prescription must be provided. The prescriber would also be required to note the name of the requester and the date and time the prescription was provided.</P>
                    <P>
                        Third, the Commission also now proposes new requirements for sellers using automated telephone verification messages. The proposal would require a seller to (1) record the entire call and preserve the complete recording; (2) begin the call by identifying it as a prescription verification request made in accordance with the Contact Lens Rule; (3) deliver the verification 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24668"/>
                        message in a slow and deliberate manner and at a reasonably understandable volume; and (4) make the message repeatable at the prescriber's option. To aid implementation of this proposal, the Commission further proposes to add definitions for the terms “reasonably understandable volume,” and “slow and deliberate manner.” The purpose of this amendment is to enable prescribers to fulfill their role as protectors of patients' eye health, since prescribers cannot correct and police invalid, inaccurate, and expired prescriptions if they cannot comprehend a seller's verification request. By requiring preservation of the recording, the amendment will also enable the Commission to better monitor seller compliance with the Rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>Fourth, the Commission proposes to amend the prohibition on seller alteration of prescriptions by specifying that alteration includes a seller providing the prescriber a verification request with the name of a manufacturer or brand other than that specified by the patient's prescriber, unless such name is provided because the patient entered it on the seller's order form, or because the patient orally gave the seller the other name in response to a request for the manufacturer listed on the patient's prescription.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, in order to limit the burden of verification and ensure patient choice and flexibility, the Commission proposes to amend the Rule by requiring that sellers provide a mechanism that would allow patients to present their prescriptions directly to the seller.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Option for Electronic Delivery of Prescriptions as a Means for Automatic Prescription Release</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission concluded that using online-patient portals to complete the automatic prescription release offered potential benefits for sellers, prescribers, and patients.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prescribers could post, and patients could obtain, prescriptions online. With an electronic copy, patients could provide prescriptions more easily to sellers when purchasing lenses.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In turn, this potentially would reduce the volume of requests by sellers for verification or additional copies of the prescription.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To facilitate portability, the Commission noted that portals should allow patients to download, save, and print the prescription as well as send the prescription directly to a seller. However, the Commission did not have sufficient information to determine whether solely posting a contact lens prescription on a patient portal would be sufficient to satisfy the Rule's obligation for prescribers to provide a copy of a prescription to patients after completing a contact lens fitting. Therefore, the Commission sought comment on the use and adoption of online-patient portals as well as the potential ability for such technology to allow prescribers to comply with the automatic prescription-release requirement.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88535.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             In the NPRM, the Commission also clarified that the “directly or by facsimile” language of § 315.5(a)(1) includes the use of online portals by patients and prescribers to present contact lens prescriptions to sellers. The Commission sought comments on this clarification. While the Commission received some comments, the Commission does not believe that any further modifications to this provision are necessary.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Use of Patient Portals by Prescribers and Patients</HD>
                    <P>
                        In response, several commenters noted the benefits and supported the use of patient portals.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Through a portal, patients would have greater access to their prescriptions and would have electronic copies to send to sellers.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, commenters also expressed concerns that: (1) Online portals are not widely used; (2) patients may not be aware of the portal or may have difficulty accessing or printing medical documents online; and (3) prescribers and patients prefer paper copies.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter was concerned that allowing prescribers to satisfy the automatic prescription release by using an online portal would undercut the signed-acknowledgment requirement proposed in the NPRM.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             Opticians Association of America (Workshop [hereinafter WS] Comment #482); CooperVision, Inc. (WS Comment #3077); Coalition for Contact Lens Consumer Choice (WS Comment #3239); Grove (NPRM Comment #1702); Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785); Comments of the Attorneys General of 20 States (NPRM Comment #3804); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830) (“For those doctors who have functioning patient portals and for patients who would like to use them, it would be beneficial for the Commission to clarify that providing access to a contact lens prescription through the patient portal would meet the prescriber requirements of automatic prescription release”); National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281) (“Patient portals are now commonplace among physician practices and could serve to enhance compliance with the Rule, as well as provide better information to sellers”). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             American Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #3657) (some prescribers currently provide copies of prescriptions electronically, including through patient portals).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969) (“We see significant potential advantages of providing the 
                            <E T="03">prescription</E>
                             to the patient in electronic form, whether by email attachment or online patient portal.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Act and Rule clearly envision and support the use of electronic means to convey prescriptions. This is evident by the language of Section 7601(a)(2) of the Act, which requires prescribers to “provide or verify the contact lens prescription by electronic or other means” to patients' agents.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It would be inconsistent for the Act and Rule to permit prescribers to provide prescriptions electronically to patients' agents, but prohibit prescribers from electronically conveying prescriptions to patients themselves (or require that patients formally designate themselves as their own agent in order to receive an electronic copy of their prescription).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601(a)(2); 16 CFR 315.3(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Although online access to records has increased in the medical field generally,
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the prevalence of portals among eye-care providers is unclear.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, portal usage could increase as patients become more comfortable in interacting with their medical providers online and portal capabilities improve.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several eye-care providers already offer copies of prescriptions through patient portals or other electronic means, including email.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             One survey from 2017 found that 52% of individuals were offered online access to their medical records by a health provider or insurer, an increase from 42% in 2014. Of those patients who were offered online access, more than half actually viewed their online medical records at least once in the past year. U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Human Servs., The Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology, “Individuals' Use of Online Medical Records &amp; Technology for Health Needs” 1-2 (2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             According to a survey conducted by 1-800 CONTACTS, thirty percent of patients were offered the option to use a patient portal at their last eye exam and, of those who had the option, 29% actually used it. 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). Comparatively, at the March 7, 2018 workshop, a panelist commented that only 8% of his office's patients used the portal. FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel V: Prescription Release &amp; Consumer Choice Tr. at 17 (Mar. 7, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_v_prescription_release_and_consumer_choice.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter CLR Panel V Tr.].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 18-19.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Eklund (WS Comment #502); Reed (WS Comment #749); Gitchell (WS Comment #759); Andrews (WS Comment #1014); Carvell (WS Comment #1021); Cecil (WS Comment #1892); Kuryan (WS Comment #3472); Hopkins (NPRM Comment #184); Wilson (NPRM Comment #1310); Grove (NPRM Comment #1702); MacDonald (NPRM Comment #2118); Andrus (NPRM Comment #3345); American Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #3657) (“For practices that utilize electronic medical record systems, patients can 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            request a copy of their prescription and [be] issued one electronically. Many practices also utilize patient portals to fill prescription requests.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24669"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Analysis and Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        Based on its review of the evidence, the Commission believes that the Rule should be amended to allow prescribers to satisfy § 315.3(a)(1)'s automatic-release requirement by providing the patient with a digital copy of the prescription, including by email, text, or patient portal, in lieu of a paper copy.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Importantly, the choice is not whether patients want to receive their prescriptions—since the Rule and statute both require that this be automatic—but rather the method of receiving them. To ensure that patients are not required to accept an unwanted method of delivery, the Commission would limit the use of electronic means to instances where the patient has given affirmative consent to receive a digital copy of the prescription.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The consent must be verifiable (so oral consent alone would not suffice), and the patient must be able to access, download, and print the digital copy for future use. Patients who decline to consent, for any reason, must receive a paper copy of their prescription. Likewise, because technology may be developing still or be costly to implement, prescribers who prefer to provide paper copies to their patients need not offer an electronic option. Therefore, the Commission invites comments on its proposed modification to allow prescribers to satisfy the automatic prescription release requirement by providing a digital copy in lieu of a paper copy when the patient gives verifiable affirmative consent.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             In the NPRM, the Commission stated that allowing patients to send prescriptions to sellers through the portal would promote prescription portability. NPRM, 81 FR at 88535. Although potentially beneficial, the Commission's proposed change does not require that patients be able to send prescriptions to sellers through the portals. The technology that would allow this type of communication is still evolving, and potential complications exist, including software differences, the number of prescribers and sellers involved, and privacy issues. 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 19-20.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             The proposed change to allow for a digital copy in lieu of a paper copy does not alter the timing of when a prescriber must provide the prescription to the patient. In both instances, whether digital or paper, prescribers must provide the prescription immediately after completion of the contact lens fitting, or in the case of a renewal prescription, when the prescriber determines that no change in the existing prescription is required. The Commission's proposal would not expressly require that prescribers maintain records of patients' affirmative consent to electronic delivery, but prescribers may choose to do so in order to have proof that affirmative consent was given. Furthermore, the Commission's proposal would not alter or pre-empt existing state and federal statutes pertaining to the electronic delivery of records, such as the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 (“E-Sign”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             Proposed changes to § 315.5(c) would require prescribers who provide digital copies of prescriptions to patients to retain evidence that the prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable, and printable.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Modification of Prior Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. NPRM Automatic Prescription Release Proposal and Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        In its December 2016 NPRM, the Commission proposed amending § 315.3(a)(1)—Automatic Prescription Release—to add the requirement that upon completion of a contact lens fitting, and after providing a copy of the contact lens prescription to the patient, the prescriber request that the contact lens patient acknowledge receipt of the contact lens prescription by signing an acknowledgment form entitled, “Patient Receipt of Contact Lens Prescription.” This form would state, “My eye care professional provided me with a copy of my contact lens prescription at the completion of my contact lens fitting. I understand I am free to purchase contact lenses from the seller of my choice.” In addition, the form would also include the name of the patient, the patient signature, and the date the form was signed. If the patient declined to sign the acknowledgment form, the prescriber would note the patient's refusal on the form and sign it. No other statements or information, other than the address or letterhead of the prescriber, would be placed on the acknowledgment form.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission based its proposal on multiple findings. First, the Commission noted that commenters cited or submitted five surveys which, taken as a whole, suggested that a significant percentage of consumers were not receiving their prescriptions, and were unaware of their right to receive them.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission acknowledged that none of the surveys, in and of itself, could be considered definitive, and acknowledged that there are inherent limitations to survey evidence.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Even so, the Commission concluded that the evidence was sufficient to indicate a significant problem with prescription-release compliance, particularly when the surveys were viewed in conjunction with supporting evidence from other sources and the lack of contradictory evidence.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88535.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88531-32.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88531.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Supporting evidence cited by the Commission consisted of the following: The high number of seller verifications (many of which would be unnecessary were patients in possession of prescriptions and able to present them at purchase); 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         evidence that consumers are still unaware of their right to their prescriptions; 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the ongoing pattern of consumer complaints and anecdotal reports of failure to release prescriptions; 
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the industry's long and documented history of opposition to prescription release and failure to provide patients with prescriptions prior to the Rule's enactment, even when so obligated under state law.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also noted that current enforcement of the automatic-release provision is challenging, since the absence of any documentation makes it difficult to ascertain whether a prescriber did or did not release a prescription, and to determine how frequently a noncompliant party may have violated the Rule.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission noted that under the current Rule, allegations and denials can become a matter of a patient's word against that of their prescriber.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             Approximately three-quarters of third-party contact lens sales occur via prescriber verification, meaning that the consumer did not present a complete prescription at the time of the attempted purchase. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             According to an October 2015 survey by Survey Sampling International, an independent market research company retained by commenter 1-800 CONTACTS, 46% of contact lens wearers were unaware that they had a right to receive a copy of their prescription, even though the Rule has been in effect since 2004. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88533.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission further concluded that the potential benefits of increasing the number of patients in possession of their prescriptions were substantial: Increased patient flexibility and choice in shopping for lenses; a reduced number of verification requests, which many prescribers find burdensome; a reduced likelihood of errors associated with incomplete or invalid prescriptions, which can jeopardize patient eye health; and a reduction in the number and complications of failed attempts at verification.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Increasing prescription-release compliance also would likely spur competition and innovation among contact lens sellers and manufacturers, and reduce attempts by sellers to verify incorrect, expired, and invalid prescriptions, or to verify with the wrong prescriber.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission determined that the cumulative effect of increased automatic-release compliance would thus be lower costs and improved 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24670"/>
                        convenience and flexibility for patients, sellers, and prescribers, as well as increased accuracy of prescriptions presented to sellers, thereby reducing potential consumer harm.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, a signed acknowledgment would increase the Commission's ability to assess and verify compliance with the Rule.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88533.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission estimated the burden of the proposed requirement at one minute per patient per year to obtain a signed receipt and save it to the patient's file, for a total overall burden on prescribers of 683,333 hours (41 million minutes) per year.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on average wages for prescribers, the Commission estimated this would result in an annual cost of $10,475,495,
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         roughly $176 per prescriber per year.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission did not consider maintaining the form for three years to be a substantial new burden because a majority of state laws already require maintenance of eye exam records, and the Commission felt that maintaining a one-page two-sentence form should not take more than a few seconds of time, and an inconsequential, or 
                        <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                         amount of record space.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission concluded that the overall burden of the new requirement was relatively minimal and outweighed by the substantial benefit of having so many more patients in possession of their prescriptions.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88557 (based on a Center for Disease Control and Prevention estimate of 40.9 million contact lens wearers in the U.S.); 
                            <E T="03">see also,</E>
                             Jennifer R. Cope et al., “Contact Lens Wearer Demographics and Risk Behaviors for Contact Lens-Related Eye Infections—United States, 2014,” Morb. Mortal. Wkly. Rep. 64(32):865-70, 866 (Aug. 21, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88557 (based on 2015 Bureau of Labor Statistics data about the wage of office staff). If updated to 2017 BLS wage data, the annual cost estimate would be $11,138,328.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             Based on government and industry estimates, there are 40,200 active optometrists and 19,216 active ophthalmologists in the United States. Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Dep't of Labor, Occupational Outlook Handbook, Optometrists (2016-17 Ed.), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/ooh/healthcare/optometrists.htm;</E>
                             Am. Acad. of Ophthalmology, “Eye Health Statistics” (2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.aao.org/newsroom/eye-health-statistics#_edn25.</E>
                             Estimates can vary as to the current number of prescribers. At the CLR workshop, Wally Lovejoy, a consultant for the National Association of Optometrists and Opticians, put the figures at 43,000 optometrists and 16,700 ophthalmologists. FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel I: Overview of the Contact Lens Marketplace Tr. at 6 (Mar. 7, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_i_overview_of_the_contact_lens_marketplace.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter CLR Panel I Tr.]. The per-prescriber estimate does not take into account that a small percentage of optometrists and ophthalmologists do not prescribe contact lenses, and thus would not bear the burden of the requirement.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88557.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88534, 88557-58. The Commission further noted that while $10,475,495 was not insubstantial, it amounted to less than one-fourth of one percent of the overall retail market for contact lens sales in the United States.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Comments on the Proposed Amendment to § 315.3(a)(1)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        In response to its signed-acknowledgment proposal, the Commission received thousands of comments and has reviewed and considered each comment. Many commenters expressed support for the FTC's proposal, and said it would help effectuate the goal of the FCLCA by ensuring consumer choice and allowing contact lens retailers to better compete on price, service, and convenience.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Hundreds of contact lens consumers, in particular, expressed support for the Rule and the proposed amendment, with many stating that a signed acknowledgment would help ensure that prescribers release their prescriptions, enabling them to shop around and get the best price for their lenses.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 27 (statement of Linda Sherry calling it a “win-win” for both consumers and prescribers); FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel III: Competition in the Contact Lens Marketplace (Mar. 7, 2018) [hereinafter CLR Panel III Tr.] at 20 (statements of David Sonnenrich that “there's strong support among the states attorneys general for the proposed amendment”), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_iii_competition_in_the_contact_lens_marketplace.pdf;</E>
                             Utah Retail Merchants Association (NPRM Comment #2312); Americans for Tax Reform (NPRM Comment #2847) (proposed changes would protect the successes of the FCLCA while giving consumers increased flexibility); Coalition for Contact Lens Consumer Choice (NPRM Comment #3718); Americans for Prosperity (NPRM Comment #3770); Office of Arizona Attorney General (NPRM Comment #3922). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Blumenthal Letter, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 17 (expressing strong support for the signed-acknowledgment provision and applauding the FTC for “proposing pro-consumer and pro-market reforms to the Rule that will ensure robust competition . . . and help improve eye care providers' compliance”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Izquierdo (WS Comment #12); Clark (WS Comment #14); Clough (WS Comment #18); Forero (WS Comment #21); Ancona (WS Comment #27); Zeemering (WS Comment #34); Hauck (WS Comment #42); Brown (WS Comment #46); De Soto (WS Comment #49); Taylor (WS Comment #66); Cornwell (WS Comment #77); Chambers (WS Comment #91); Torres-Gambini (WS Comment #106); Hollier (WS Comment #113); Miranda (WS Comment #119); Green (WS Comment #134); Watson (WS Comment #138); Fisher (WS Comment #150); Gover (WS Comment #154); Pike (WS Comment #195); Klauscher (WS Comment #201); Kucewicz (WS Comment #215); Dawson (WS Comment #226); Pfeifer (WS Comment #246); Tennison (WS Comment #428); Florey (NPRM Comment #3520).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters said the amendment is necessary because the market for contact lenses remains unique in that—unlike most other medical doctors—eye doctors sell the items they prescribe, and thus are rewarded financially for driving patients to their own retail channels.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to one commenter, “relying on existing market forces and industry professional norms to advance the intent and purposes of the FCLCA and Contact Lens Rule does not work because prescribers have both an incentive and ability to limit consumer choice.” 
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848); Warby Parker (NPRM Comment #3867). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Arizona State Representative Heather Carter (NPRM Comment #3193) (noting that in 2016, the 10th Circuit Court of Appeals held that the contact lens industry is uniquely anticompetitive in part because prescribers control the brand consumers use while also selling the lenses); Utah State Senator Curtis Bramble (NPRM Comment #576) (“The portability of a prescription is commonplace in almost every area where a prescription is needed, but often times it is hampered by the conflict that exists when a prescribing eye care provider has the opportunity to profit from the very product they're prescribing”); Rhode Island State Representative Brian Kennedy (NPRM Comment #3724) (citing “natural conflict of interest that exists in the industry”); Blumenthal Letter, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 17 (recognizing the “inherent conflict of interest” and noting that the FCLCA was made necessary by “the unique nature of the contact lens marketplace”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848) (asserting that for those who would argue that more regulation is not the answer, the reason regulation is necessary in this instance is because the industry is already regulated, but in ways that give prescribers considerable power, since consumers cannot buy lenses without a prescription from their doctor).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Prescribers, however, were generally 
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         critical of the Commission's proposal, with many calling it an unnecessary burden that would also interfere with the doctor-patient relationship by implying that prescribers violate the law.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many remarked that prescribers take an oath of professional conduct and abide by an ethical responsibility to place their 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24671"/>
                        patients' interests above their own.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, many felt they were being unfairly maligned, and the proposal was tantamount to an attack on their integrity.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             A few prescriber commenters supported the proposal, but these instances were rare. 
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Richter (NPRM Comment #2706) (ophthalmologist supporting the proposal); Simple Contacts (NPRM Comment #3479) (online prescriber and seller supporting proposal); Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785) (online prescriber supporting the proposal). Other prescriber commenters, such as the National Association of Optometrists and Opticians, supported aspects of the proposed acknowledgment, but not the Commission's actual proposal. (NPRM Comment #3851).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 6 (statement of David Cockrell); Sorkin (WS Comment #602); Greenberg (WS Comment #628); Carlson (WS Comment #739); Johnson (WS Comment #755); Bryan (WS Comment #987); Martin (WS Comment #1168); Hill (WS Comment #1361); Armed Forces Optometric Society (NPRM Comment #2884); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); Contact Lens Association of Ophthalmologists (NPRM Comment #4259).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Sclafani (WS Comment #631); Wright (WS Comment #743); Wardell (WS Comment #792); California Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3845).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Dieckow (WS Comment #595) (“This is a witch hunt. It is quite parallel to the Spanish inquisition asking a village girl to prove she is not a witch”); Hallak (WS Comment #654) (“The proposed change to the contact lens release of information is ludicrous. The FTC should be ashamed for even consider [sic] it”); Owen (WS Comment #826) (“The FTC should recognize that we are not the enemy of consumers, but allies who are equally committed to protecting our patients' health and well-being”); Morabito (WS Comment #1135) (“This is a slap in the face of good people whose very purpose is to help people”); Holt (WS Comment #1375) (“having a patient sign a piece of paper that they are entitled to receive the contact lens prescription that they have already been given is just about the FTC and 1-800 trying to find a way to punish ODs for still being in existence”); Pirozzolo (WS Comment #1431) (“No other profession is required to have the patient sign an acknowledgment of receiving a prescription”). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             Rosenblatt (WS Comment #841); Smoke (WS Comment #1184); Vosseteig (WS Comment #1205); Siegel (WS Comment #1391).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Comments Concerning the Need for the Proposed Signed Acknowledgment Due to Non-Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters asserted that the proposed signed-acknowledgment requirement is necessary because—even 14 years after creation of the Contact Lens Rule—prescribers often fail to release prescriptions automatically after a contact lens fitting.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A comment from the Attorneys General for 20 States,
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for example, said they “are aware, from their enforcement efforts and collective experience, that not all patients receive their prescription in writing as a matter of course.” 
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Likewise, the CEO of a large contact lens seller, 1-800 CONTACTS, stated that the company performs “secret shops” of eye doctors and consistently finds that about 50% do not release prescriptions.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Institute for Liberty (NPRM Comment #2690); Citizen Outreach (NPRM Comment #3247); League of United Latin American Citizens (NPRM Comment #3326); Coalition for Contact Lens Consumer Choice (NPRM Comment #3718); Attorneys General for 20 States (NPRM Comment #3804); R Street Institute (NPRM Comment #3856); Warby Parker (NPRM Comment #3867); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             Alabama, Delaware, Hawaii, Idaho, Illinois, Iowa, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Minnesota, Montana, Nebraska, New Hampshire, New Mexico, New York, Oregon, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, and Virginia. Attorneys General for 20 States (NPRM Comment #3804).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             CLR Panel III Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 75, at 11 (statements of John Graham).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Dozens of consumers also recounted personal stories in which they, or a family member, were either not provided with their prescriptions, experienced difficulty obtaining their prescriptions, or had to ask prescribers for them instead of receiving them automatically as required by law.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, one consumer said, “My experience has been that the majority of the time the contact lens prescription is not given out unless it's specifically requested and even then on some occasions the doctor's office is reluctant to release it,” 
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and another recounted, “I have fought with many a doctor and demanded a prescription and they still state that they will not do my eye exam unless I agree to purchase my contacts from them.” 
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter stated, “Each and every time I have gone to the eye doctor, I have had to ask for a copy of my prescription.” 
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Of those who had to ask for their prescriptions, several consumers complained that they felt uncomfortable making such a request or felt pressured into purchasing lenses from their prescriber and may have paid a higher price in consequence.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Keck (WS Comment #22); Mattox (WS Comment #28); Arthur (WS Comment #47); Barrett (WS Comment #259); Tyree (WS Comment #323); Fielding (WS Comment #376); Tennison (WS Comment #428); Lambrecht (WS Comment #448); Copley (WS Comment #515); Moses (WS Comment #875); Subowicz (WS Comment #926); Brotz (WS Comment #939); Bonner (WS Comment #982); Calk (WS Comment #984); Halston (WS Comment #1101); Gonzales (WS Comment #1437); Boue (NPRM Comment #1806); Collins (NPRM #1811); Herbst (NPRM Comment #1823); Tran (NPRM Comment #1829); Lozano-Adams (NPRM Comment #1831); Krainman (NPRM Comment #1847); Walker (NPRM Comment #1848); Zirbel (NPRM Comment #1849); Zeledon (NPRM Comment #1852); Diedrich (NPRM Comment #1856); Berry (NPRM Comment #1860); Montagnino (NPRM Comment #1866); Hochberg (NPRM Comment #1879); Bogner (NPRM Comment #1881); Rasczyk (NPRM Comment #1904); Fraga (NPRM Comment #1907); Vasquez (NPRM Comment #1917); Megraw (NPRM Comment #1933); Kasal (NPRM Comment #1937); Strobel (NPRM Comment #1940); Quinlog (NPRM #1963); Somerville (NPRM Comment #1966); Stanton (NPRM Comment #2001); Austin (NPRM Comment #2022); Cotten (NPRM Comment #2024); Bulmann (NPRM Comment #2045); Miller (NPRM Comment #2062); Robertson (NPRM Comment #2124); Capuano (NPRM Comment #2722); Martinez (NPRM Comment #2894); Woelfel (NPRM Comment #3131); Thomson (NPRM Comment #3421).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             Rushton (NPRM Comment #2649).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             Hamilton (NPRM Comment #1835).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             Acton (NPRM Comment #2070).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Moses (WS Comment #875); Brotz (WS Comment #939); Calk (WS Comment #984); Fridley (WS Comment #988); Gonzales (WS Comment #1437); Vasquez (NPRM Comment #1917); Austin (NPRM Comment #2022); Ng (NPRM Comment #3289); James (NPRM Comment #4029).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters also said the acknowledgment is necessary because consumers are often unaware of their right to their prescription.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One commenter admitted, “I did not know this was a law. I have been charged $25 extra for receiving my contact lens prescriptions before.” 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another anecdotal, but perhaps telling, indicator of the lack of consumer awareness, was the surprising number of consumer commenters who asked the Commission to pass a Rule requiring prescribers to release their prescriptions.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One consumer, for instance, wrote, “I strongly urge the FTC to adopt the rule that will require eye doctors to provide patients with a copy of their prescription,” 
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and another proclaimed, “Would love to be free to purchase my contacts wherever I choose. I can't stand that my prescription is held hostage by my eyecare provider! Please help!” 
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In other words, these commenters, and many others, filed comments urging the Commission to grant them a right that they already have, and have had since 2004, but apparently are not aware of.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             St. Louis (NPRM Comment #3531); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             League of United Latin American Citizens (NPRM Comment #3326) (“Consumers who do not know their rights are being `trapped in the exam chair,' unaware that they can buy lenses elsewhere for lower prices.”); R Street Institute (NPRM Comment #3856) (“Consumers are insufficiently aware of their right to copies of their prescriptions, creating information asymmetries” between consumers and prescribers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             Monroe (NPRM Comment #4277).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Barrett (WS Comment #259); Pascucci (WS Comment #403); Biel (WS Comment #902); Randall (WS Comment #912); Rasczyk (WS Comment #913); Elliott (WS Comment #930); Slaydon (WS Comment #944); Palmer (WS Comment #956); Miller (WS Comment #1055); McBride (WS Comment #1088); Wilber (WS Comment #1162); Subach (WS Comment #1364); Krainman (NPRM Comment #1847); Boue (NPRM Comment #1806); Sattler (NPRM Comment #1808); Zeledon (NPRM Comment #1852); Vasquez (NPRM Comment #1917); Herron (NPRM Comment #1982); Tardif (NPRM Comment #2011); Burlingame (NPRM Comment #3115).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             Ballou (NPRM Comment #3331).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Boue (NPRM Comment #1806).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Empirical Evidence of Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        In terms of empirical evidence, two commenters submitted new consumer surveys conducted by third-party polling firms, both of which reported that a substantial percentage of consumers do not receive prescriptions after a contact lens fitting as required by law.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One survey, submitted by 1-800 CONTACTS, reported that only 37% of patients automatically received a copy of their prescriptions after a contact lens fitting.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The other survey, submitted by Consumer Action, reported that just 44% of consumers received 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24672"/>
                        prescriptions without having to ask for them.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the surveys, when consumers who did not receive prescriptions asked for them, prescribers typically complied.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         But even counting those who asked for their prescriptions and subsequently received them, 24-31% of consumers—roughly 10-12 million patients a year—never received a copy of their prescriptions and were thus unable to comparison shop for lenses.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This data is generally consistent with previous consumer surveys discussed in the NPRM, such as the October 2015 Survey Sampling International survey, submitted by 1-800 CONTACTS, which found that 35% of consumers automatically received a prescription, 28% received one after asking for it, and 36% did not receive one at all.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             Consumer Action (NPRM Comment #3721); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898, Ex. A). Data is based on an online survey performed by the polling firm Survey Sampling International (“SSI”) on behalf of 1-800 CONTACTS. According to 1-800 CONTACTS, the survey was conducted during December 2016 and sampled 1000 contact lens wearers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             Consumer Action (NPRM Comment #3721). Data is based on a Caravan ORC International telephone survey of 2018 adults performed in January 2017. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 2 (statements of Linda Sherry).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Action (NPRM Comment #3721) (showing that 21% of total patients had to ask the prescriber for their prescription, and 20% of total patients received it upon request); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898, Ex. A) (showing that 36% of total patients had to ask for their prescription, and 31% of total patients received it immediately upon request, while 5% were told to call the office or return at a later time to receive a copy).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Action (NPRM Comment #3721); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898, Ex. A). The 10-12 million calculation is based on the estimate that there are currently 41 million contact lens wearers in the United States and that each patient receives one contact lens fitting a year. The Commission uses this estimate here since it used the same figures to assess the burden of the Rule. In actuality, it is probably less, since some contact lens wearers go longer than twelve months between fittings.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR 88531-32. Data was based on a SSI online survey of 500 contact lens wearers in 2015. As noted in the NPRM, the manner in which the questions were phrased in this particular survey raised some Commission concerns, since some of them were leading, lacked an “I don't know” option, and used a term—“hard copy”—which not all patients may understand. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88531 n.73.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Consumer Action survey also found that 60% of consumers responded “no” when asked, “Are you aware that under federal law, a doctor or exam provider is required to automatically provide their patient with a copy of their prescription after they get their contact lens exam?” 
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1-800 CONTACTS cited a previously submitted survey, which found that 46% of contact lens wearers were unaware that they had a right to receive a “hard copy” of their prescription.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             Consumer Action (NPRM Comment #3721). Data is based on a Caravan ORC International telephone survey of 2018 adults performed in January 2017. Thirty-eight percent said “yes,” and 2% responded “I don't know” or refused to answer. The Commission has some concerns that the question was leading, but also notes that it is possible that the 60%-unaware result actually underestimates the number of consumers unaware of their rights. This is due to social desirability bias, the tendency of survey respondents to answer questions in a manner that will be viewed favorably by others. As noted in the NPRM, respondents may be reluctant to admit that they are unaware of their rights under the law. NPRM, 81 FR at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). Data is based on a SSI online survey of 500 contact lens wearers in 2015. NPRM, 81 FR at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Various prescriber commenters criticized the polling evidence as “unreliable,” 
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and said the aforementioned surveys are tainted by the interests of their sponsors.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to two prescriber associations, evidence submitted by 1-800 CONTACTS should not be deemed reliable because the submitter is a “stakeholder” rather than a disinterested party and has a history of aggressively seeking competitive advantages.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The American Optometric Association (“AOA”) further noted that Consumer Action—a non-profit consumer advocacy organization—has received corporate financial support from, among others, 1-800 CONTACTS.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             CooperVision, Inc. (NPRM Comment #3841). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Coalition for Patient Vision Care Safety (NPRM Comment #3883) (“the quality of evidence is not sufficient to support the need for this requirement”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             American Academy of Ophthalmology (WS Comment #2971) (“It is our opinion that evidence should not include industry-sponsored surveys, seeking a specific result, to propel a specific narrative for their benefit.”); American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303) (“We question the legitimacy of the information on alleged non-compliance that 1-800 CONTACTS has provided to the Commission.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             American Academy of Ophthalmology (WS Comment #2971); American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303). In particular, the AOA argues that surveys conducted on behalf of 1-800 CONTACTS are not credible because: (1) The FTC has previously sued 1-800 CONTACTS for anti-competitive practices against other contact lens retailers (
                            <E T="03">see https://www.ftc.gov/enforcement/cases-proceedings/141-0200/1-800-contacts-inc-matter</E>
                            ); (2) 1-800 CONTACTS supports online vision examinations and thus might have a financial interest in discrediting brick-and-mortar optometrists; and (3) the Arizona Board of Optometry concluded that many complaints about prescriber non-compliance that 1-800 CONTACTS filed with the board were unfounded. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Bhadra (WS Comment #801) (“I find it disingenuous that these online retailers have flooded the public with fake news that ODs are not giving patients their contact lens prescriptions.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The AOA also asserted that consumer surveys may be unreliable because they are based on patient-reported data and—as the Commission has previously recognized—patients might not always understand that they are entitled to a copy of their prescription only after their contact lens fitting has been fully completed.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To rebut these surveys and demonstrate that prescribers are complying, the AOA submitted a survey of fifty-seven “high-volume optometrists,” in which 93% said “yes” when asked, “Do you follow Federal law and provide patients with a copy of their contact lens prescription upon completion of a contact lens fitting?” 
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id. See also</E>
                             CooperVision, Inc. (NPRM Comment #3841) (stating Commission overstates evidence of noncompliance by not distinguishing between initial visits to prescribers and subsequent contact lens fittings in which the prescription is finalized); NPRM, 81 FR at 88530-31 (noting that consumers are not always aware of when they are entitled to their prescriptions).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303, App. B). This survey appears to have been conducted by the AOA itself rather than an outside polling firm. It is not clear from the AOA's submission how the fifty-seven optometrists were selected for the survey, what it means to be a “high volume” optometrist, or why high volume optometrists were chosen.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As the Commission acknowledged in its NPRM, all surveys have limitations with respect to methodology and evidence, and, in this instance, the Commission does not treat any one survey as definitive. Patients may sometimes misremember details of a particular encounter with a prescriber, and prescribers may be mistaken about the particulars of a given clinical encounter or about the frequency with which they do or do not release prescriptions. For the most part, the submitted surveys do not include independent objective tests of patient or prescriber recollections. In addition, survey responses may be sensitive to the ways in which questions are framed.</P>
                    <P>
                        Despite what some commenters recommend, however, the Commission does not dismiss survey evidence based solely on the source of its submission. While the Commission is cognizant of the interests of submitting parties, the Commission examines the underlying survey data and methodology to gauge a survey's usefulness. In the case of the consumer surveys, which were conducted by established third-party polling firms, the submitters provided the Commission with the underlying questions, responses, and statistical data, as well as details about survey methodology. Based on its review of the submitted material, the Commission finds that the two new consumer surveys represent an improvement over previously submitted consumer surveys. In particular, the new surveys include an option for respondents to acknowledge that they do not recall whether they received their prescriptions and use the term “paper copy” rather than “hard copy,” a term the Commission has previously noted some patients may not understand. The number of consumers polled is also larger than some previous surveys. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24673"/>
                        Commission further recognizes that the new surveys are generally consistent with the findings of previously-submitted surveys, and that multiple surveys conducted by different sources at different times with similar results bolster the credibility of each individual survey. The Commission also has not received any consumer-survey data rebutting these findings or indicating that consumers consistently receive their prescriptions in satisfactory numbers. The Commission therefore accords the overall submitted consumer-survey data significant weight.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In contrast, the Commission finds the AOA-submitted survey of prescribers less useful as a tool to assess compliance with the prescription-release requirement. The Commission has several concerns. Besides concerns about the small sample size (fifty-seven) and lack of detail as to how prescriber respondents were recruited, the Commission notes that the way the question is phrased 
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         allows prescribers to truthfully answer that they provide patients with a copy of their prescription even if they do not do so for 
                        <E T="03">every</E>
                         patient, and even if they only do so when the patient requests one. Moreover, the wording of the survey question makes it highly unlikely a prescriber would admit to not releasing prescriptions. As noted (in a different context) in the NPRM, asking a respondent if he or she is aware of their rights or obligations under the law can skew responses, since respondents may be unwilling to admit they are ignorant of the law or violate it.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this instance, prescribers also have a clear incentive to say they follow Federal law even if they do not (whereas consumers do not have a clear incentive to say that prescribers are not providing them with their prescriptions). Based on the wording and framing of the question in the AOA survey, the Commission is surprised that even 7% of prescribers answered that they do not provide patients with their prescriptions, a result that, if extrapolated to the population of prescribers, would still mean that every year more than 2.7 million consumers are denied their prescriptions—and their ability to comparison-shop for more affordable contact lenses—in violation of the law.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             “Do you follow Federal law and provide patients with a copy of their contact lens prescription upon completion of a contact lens fitting?”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             This calculation is based on estimates that there are currently 41 million contact lens wearers in the United States and that each patient gets one contact lens fitting a year. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 101.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Apart from the three surveys, no other commenter submitted empirical evidence of automatic-release compliance or consumer awareness.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several commenters, nonetheless, strongly opined that the Commission lacks “compelling evidence” that the signed acknowledgment is needed 
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and said they are “unaware” of significant compliance problems among eye-care professionals.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Numerous prescribers also declared that, personally, they consistently release prescriptions to patients after each contact lens fitting, and believe their colleagues do the same.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several prescribers were also firm in their belief that patients are fully aware they have a right to their prescription,
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         with some noting that advertising and marketing from third-party sellers help remind patients of their rights.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many prescribers thus proclaimed that the signed- acknowledgment proposal was a waste of resources, both for prescribers and the Commission,
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and called it a “solution in search of a problem.” 
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other commenters said that even if it is true that a small number of prescribers do not comply with the automatic-release requirement, the proposed acknowledgment requirement would be, in effect, “punishing the masses for the sins of the few.” 
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             At the CLR Workshop, some audience members commented that in their state, the prescription release rate was 100%. Commission staff asked that this data be provided, but it never was. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 23. Another commenter, Lens.com, commented that more than half of its customers “report that optometrists still do not provide prescriptions as required by law.” (NPRM Comment #2358). However, Lens.com could not provide the Commission with information about how it surveyed its customers and exactly what consumers reported, so the Commission has not relied on this evidence.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             McGrew (WS Comment #713). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (WS Comment #3142); Davies (WS Comment #3307); Utah Ophthalmology Society (NPRM Comment #2586); American Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #3657); CooperVision, Inc. (NPRM Comment #3841).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Cooperman (NPRM Comment #2382); American Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #3657); American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (NPRM Comment #3820); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); Wisconsin Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4152); Kentucky Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM Comment #4276).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Palys (WS Comment #560); Widmann (WS Comment #618); Nixon (WS Comment #687); Bausback (WS Comment #708); Lo (WS Comment #856); Hanian (WS Comment #1196); Carkner (WS Comment #1287); Myers (WS Comment #1322); Leung (WS Comment #1600); Randle (WS Comment #2171); Stamm (WS Comment #2512); Swan (WS Comment #2843); Olson (WS Comment #2970); Wisniewski (NPRM Comment #1769). Over sixty prescribers also submitted identical, or nearly identical, comments which included the following statement, “First, I would like to make clear that I comply with the requirements of the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act (FCLCA) and the corresponding Contact Lens Rule by providing copies of contact lens prescriptions to contact lens wearing patients at the end of the contact lens fitting process.” 
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Shepherd (WS Comment #483); Alexander (WS Comment #468); Morton (WS Comment #488); Skrdla (WS Comment 492); Smith (WS Comment #493); Hertneky (WS Comment #494); Eklund (WS Comment #502); Buchanan (WS Comment #520); Borden (WS Comment #865); Bryan (WS Comment #987); (Redmond (WS Comment #989).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Lonsk (WS Comment #596); Friederich (WS Comment #614); Highsmith (WS Comment #690); Bedsole (WS Comment #1024); Phillips (WS Comment #1151); Sumner (WS Comment #1332); Hill (NPRM Comment #3561).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             California Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM #4269) (online retailers are “not shy” about letting consumers know they have a right to their prescriptions). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Dinh (WS Comment #1653); Ulc (WS Comment #2347).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             To (WS Comment #597); DeKinder (WS Comment #625); Bausback (WS Comment #708).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Kaminski (WS Comment #607); Bank (WS Comment #653); Melman (WS Comment #667); Nixon (WS Comment #687); Hamilton (WS Comment #781); Martin (WS Comment #1168); McMahon (WS Comment #1868); Randle (WS Comment #2171); Jones (WS Comment #3079); Cervantes (WS Comment #3125); Khong (WS Comment #3435). 
                            <E T="03">See also e.g.,</E>
                             Larson (WS Comment #716); Ambler (WS Comment #2329); Fritsch (WS Comment #2543); Hornstein (WS Comment #2666).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             McKinnis (WS Comment #786). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             Wesley (WS Comment #835); Kline (WS Comment #852); Holcomb (WS Comment #872); Edwards (WS Comment #884); Boyce (WS Comment #1466); Woodward (NPRM Comment #273); McLaughlin (NPRM #1365); Blankenship (NPRM Comment #2117); Armed Forces Optometric Society (NPRM Comment #2884); Sonsino (NPRM Comment #3783); Sterna (NPRM Comment #3892).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Prescriber assertions about overwhelming compliance with the automatic-release requirement are undermined somewhat by the large number of prescriber commenters who misstated the Rule and said that they “offer” prescriptions to their patients or provide them “when requested,” rather than provide them automatically after each fitting.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Ten state ophthalmology associations commented that the signed acknowledgment is unnecessary because eye doctors in their states are providing patients with their prescriptions “
                        <E T="03">when requested</E>
                         in full compliance with the Contact Lens Rule” 
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (emphasis added). Both the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24674"/>
                        Act and the Rule specifically require that a prescription be provided to each patient “whether or not requested by the patient,” and the Commission does not have authority to amend the statute or disregard this obligation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Moore (WS Comment #544); Heiby (WS Comment #694); Larson (WS Comment #716); Krisciunas (WS Comment #1085); Pebley (WS Comment #1261); Horibe (WS Comment #3242); Mitsoglou (NPRM Comment #480); Frieman (NPRM Comment #2589); Cooper (NPRM Comment #2673).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Utah Ophthalmology Society (NPRM Comment #2586); South Dakota Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #2588); Michigan Society of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM Comment #4165); Florida Society of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4197); Iowa Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM #4199); Oklahoma Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4204); Pennsylvania Academy of Ophthalmology 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            (NPRM Comment #4214); Indiana Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4233); Massachusetts Society of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM Comment #4270); Kentucky Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM Comment #4276).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Verifications as Evidence of Lack of Prescription Release</HD>
                    <P>
                        Many prescribers also contend that the Commission erred in its NPRM finding that the large number of contact lens sales conducted via verifications is evidence of lack of prescription release. According to these commenters, the number of verifications does not reflect lack of prescription release since some consumers may lose their copies and some online sellers promote the ease (for the consumer) of the verification method.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In contrast, some sellers stated that from a business standpoint, they prefer and encourage patients to present prescriptions rather than rely on verification, since it is faster for the consumer and less costly for the seller.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1-800 CONTACTS, for instance, promotes presentation at checkout as a way for consumers to get their lenses more quickly, and has run promotional campaigns offering consumers a discount on lens orders if they would send in a copy of their prescription.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, several commenters, including some prescribers, agreed that a signed acknowledgment would likely reduce the percentage of sales via verification, indicating that some percentage of consumers are not receiving their prescriptions at their contact lens fitting.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nevertheless, the Commission recognizes that it can be more cumbersome for a consumer to locate and upload a prescription than to simply type in the name of their prescriber and their prescription information—which they can obtain from their contact lens boxes—and thus some consumers may opt for verification even though they did receive a copy of their prescription. The Commission is also aware that some online contact lens sellers do not currently have a mechanism for patients to present their actual prescriptions, and rely solely on verification. Thus, while the Commission will still consider the large percentage of third-party contact lens sales conducted via verification 
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as suggestive of prescriber failure to release prescriptions, the Commission will accord it less weight than it did in the NPRM.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830) (sellers promote verification as an easy way to get refills).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel IV: Examining the Verification Process Tr. at 6-7 (Mar. 7, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_iv_examining_the_verification_process.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter CLR Panel IV Tr.] (statement of Jennifer Sommer); 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             at 6-7, 22 (statement of Cindy Williams).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 6-7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 9 (statement of David Cockrell that it would absolutely reduce the number of verifications, but would not eliminate them, since patients often lose their prescription copies); National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88531 (estimated at roughly three-quarters of third-party sales).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. The Dearth of Consumer Complaints to the FTC as Evidence of Prescriber Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters made the point that, in proportion to the total number of contact lens users in the United States, there have been relatively few consumers—only a few hundred—who actually filed complaints with the Commission about prescribers' failing to release prescriptions, and since 2007, only fifty-five prescribers have received FTC warning letters about possible non-compliance.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to these commenters—the American Optometric Association, in particular—the small percentage of complaining consumers and Commission warning letters indicates that prescribers, for the most part, are complying with the automatic prescription-release requirement.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303); (American Optometric Association, NPRM Comment #3830). According to AOA's analysis of consumer complaints filed with the Commission, from 2012-2016, there have been only 309 complaints relating to prescriber failure to release prescriptions, and only .0003% of the 41 million contact lens wearers, approximately 123 patients, filed what the AOA regarded as potentially valid complaints about a prescriber's failure to release a prescription. 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             Stubinski (WS Comment #1701); Fritsch (WS Comment #2543); Higley (WS Comment #2857); Tran (WS Comment #3106).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303). 
                            <E T="03">See also e.g.,</E>
                             Stubinski (WS Comment #1701); Fritsch (WS Comment #2543); Higley (WS Comment #2857); Tran (WS Comment #3106); CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 23 (statement of David Cockrell that “if it was a real problem for patients, you would have an enormous number of complaints”). The AOA complaint figures were also cited by a number of other commenters, as well as by several legislators who sent letters to the Commission. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Cook (WS Comment #7); To (WS Comment #597); Smith (WS Comment #732); Gordon (WS Comment #1694); Toon (WS Comment #1741); Mattson (WS Comment #1784); Letter from Twenty-Four Members of the United States House of Representatives Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Sept. 17, 2018). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/congress_letter_to_chairman_simons_re_ftc_contact_lens_rule_9-17-2018.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Letter from Twenty-Four Representatives]; Letter from Seven Members of the United States House of Representatives Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (July 27, 2018). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/denham_ftc_fclca_code_of_regulations_regarding_contact_lens_prescription.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Letter from Seven Representatives]; Letter from Fifty-Four Members of the United States House of Representatives Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (May 10, 2018). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/contact_lens_letter_may_10_2018.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Letter from Fifty-Four Representatives]; Letter from Senator David Perdue of the United States Senate Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Nov. 17, 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/public_comment_filed_by_senator_david_perdue_in_the_contact_lens_rulemaking.pdf;</E>
                             Letter from Senator John Boozman of the United States Senate Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (Aug. 3, 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/boozman_letter_contact_lens_rule_8-3-17.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Boozman Letter]; Letter from Fifty-Eight Members of the United States House of Representatives Regarding the Contact Lens Rule Rulemaking Proceeding and the Proposed Rule Set Forth in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (July 24, 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/filings/initiatives/677/r511995_contact_lens_rule_letter_from_58_representatives_7-24-17.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Letter from Fifty-Eight Representatives].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters, such as 1-800 CONTACTS,
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         challenged that assertion and contended that there are many reasons consumers do not file formal complaints each time a prescriber fails to provide a prescription. To support this, 1-800 CONTACTS submitted a report by Stanford University Professor Laurence Baker, which opined that consumers are unlikely to register formal complaints because they (1) may not know they are entitled to a copy of the prescription, (2) may not know who to complain to in the event they do not receive their prescription, (3) may be reluctant to create ill-will between them and their doctor, and (4) may calculate that the time and effort of registering a complaint outweigh any benefit they are likely to obtain.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             Laurence C. Baker, “Analysis of Costs and Benefits of the FTC Proposed Patient Acknowledgment and Recordkeeping Amendment to the Contact Lens Rule,” 11 (2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/summaries/initiatives/677/meeting_summary_for_the_contact_lens_rulemaking_proceeding.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter Baker Analysis].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission understands and recognizes the prescriber-commenters' position that there are relatively few consumer complaints, but believes that consumer complaints, on their own, are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24675"/>
                        a poor reflection of prescriber compliance or non-compliance with the Rule. The Commission has gleaned, through its extensive experience with consumer complaints and deceptive practices, that the vast majority of injured or impacted consumers do not file complaints with the government. According to a 2004 FTC report, only 8.4% of U.S. fraud victims complained to an official source, with only 1.4% complaining to the FTC.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Likewise, the FTC's 2011 Fraud Survey reported that 25.6 million Americans were victimized by fraud that year,
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         yet the FTC received only 1.3 million fraud complaints.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, with the notable exception of the Telemarketing Sales Rule (often referred to as “Do Not Call”), consumer complaints about FTC rule violations are even more uncommon, perhaps because they require that consumers know what an FTC rule specifies and how it has been violated.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Indeed, of the many consumer commenters to the NPRM—some fifty-one of whom are cited above 
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —who recounted personal stories in which they, or a family member, faced obstacles obtaining their prescription, not one of them appears to have registered a complaint with the FTC.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While the Commission regards consumer complaints as extremely valuable and informative, it is aware that they often represent just the tip of the iceberg.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             Keith B. Anderson, FTC, “Consumer Fraud in the United States: An FTC Survey” 80 (2004), 
                            <E T="03">http://www.ftc.gov/reports/consumer-fraud-united-states-ftc-survey.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             Keith B. Anderson, FTC, “Consumer Fraud in the United States, 2011: The Third FTC Survey” 18 (2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/documents/reports/consumer-fraud-united-states-2011-third-ftc-survey/130419fraudsurvey_0.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             This includes all the complaints about identity theft, which are sometimes catalogued differently than fraud. FTC, “Consumer Sentinel Data Book for January—December 2011” 5 (2012), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/documents/reports/consumer-sentinel-network-data-book-january-december-2011/sentinel-cy2011.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally, id.;</E>
                             FTC, “Consumer Sentinel Network Data Book for January-December 2016” (2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/reports/consumer-sentinel-network-data-book-january-december-2016/csn_cy-2016_data_book.pdf.</E>
                             Consumer reticence to complain, particularly to a government entity, is well documented. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Marc A. Grainer et al., “Consumer Problems and Complaints: a National View,” 6 Advances in Consumer Res. 494 (1979) (noting that “only a small, vocal minority of consumers complain about the problems they experience,” and even fewer (less than 10% of complaints) complain to the government), 
                            <E T="03">http://acrwebsite.org/volumes/9603/volumes/v06/NA-06. See also</E>
                             John Goodman &amp; Steve Newman, “Understand Customer Behavior and Complaints,” Quality Progress, Jan. 2003), at 51 (finding that for problems that resulted in a relatively minor inconvenience or a small loss of money, only 3% of consumers complained), 
                            <E T="03">http://web.ist.utl.pt/~ist11038/CD_Casquilho/PRINT/qp0103goodman.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             notes 87-90.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             The Commission has been unable to locate any prior complaints about prescription release filed by any of the consumer commenters to the NPRM, but complaint records typically only go back five years, and thus the Commission cannot ascertain with absolute certainty whether any of them ever registered a complaint in the past.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Furthermore, as evidenced by the aforementioned consumer surveys, many contact lens wearers (46-60%) do not realize they are entitled to receive their prescription, and thus would not even be aware that an incident about which they should complain had occurred, and many others might be unaware of where to direct a complaint when they do not receive a prescription. While many prescriber commenters assert that consumers know their rights, the Commission has not received empirical evidence contradicting the consumer surveys.</P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, even consumers who are aware that they have a right to their prescription are unlikely to file complaints with the Commission if they ultimately receive their prescription 
                        <E T="03">after they have asked for them.</E>
                         From their perspective, they have resolved their problem and may perceive little benefit to themselves from filing a government complaint. Consumers may also not want to risk antagonizing their doctors or subjecting their eye-care providers to legal penalties. Thus, for evaluating Contact Lens Rule compliance—more so than for some other Commission circumstances—the low rate of consumer complaints is less probative of the scope of the problem than consumer survey evidence.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             Consumer surveys may also be more reliable since consumers questioned at random are less likely to have a personal interest in stating that they did not receive their prescription.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Relying on consumers to remedy their own injury by asking for their prescriptions, however, is problematic. Many consumers are uncomfortable asking for prescriptions, since it signals to the prescriber that they plan to purchase lenses elsewhere.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many consumers have a good relationship with their prescribers and do not want to do something that might be viewed as disloyal. Others may not want to openly acknowledge that they are concerned about the cost of purchasing contact lenses. Moreover, relying on patients to ask for their prescriptions effectively re-writes the FCLCA requirement that prescribers release prescriptions automatically, and amends it to release-upon-request. This would directly contravene Congressional intent and the text of the Act, which specifically states that prescriptions are to be given “whether or not requested by the patient.” 
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When the Commission considered such a change with respect to prescription release under the Eyeglass Rule (which the Commission does have the authority to amend), the Commission repeatedly rejected such an approach as inappropriate since it shifts the burden of prescription-release enforcement to the consumer.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 91.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Eyeglass I, 43 FR at 23998 (stating that relying upon release-upon-request is problematic because many consumers are unaware of their right to a prescription, and because the right should be “immunized from an evidentiary squabble over whether the consumer actually did or did not request the prescription”); Final Trade Regulation Rule, Ophthalmic Practice Rules 54 FR 10285, 10286-87 (Mar. 13, 1989) [hereinafter Eyeglass II] (rejecting a proposal to change the Rule to release-upon-request and finding a “continuing need” for automatic release). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR at 40492 (discussing a commenter proposal to allow prescribers to not release the prescription or release it “for informational purposes only” if the patient has purchased a full year's supply of contact lenses at the time of the examination, and rejecting it because “such an exception would be contrary to the Act's express requirement that consumers receive a copy of their prescription at the completion of a contact lens fitting”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Comments Concerning Whether a Proposed Signed Acknowledgment Is Needed for Better Enforcement and Auditing of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        In its December 2016 NPRM, the Commission noted that a signed acknowledgment would increase the Commission's ability to assess and verify compliance with the Rule.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several commenters agreed, suggesting that the signed-acknowledgment proposal is necessary because the prescription-release requirement is currently difficult or impossible to enforce.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to one commenter, prescribers have little incentive to comply with automatic release because compliance could result in lost sales, and absent some evidentiary record, an FTC enforcement action is extremely unlikely.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter noted that while the Commission has sent warning letters in response to complaints about lack of prescription release, the Commission has yet to bring an enforcement action or seek fines against a prescriber for failure to release contact lens prescriptions.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to some 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24676"/>
                        commenters, the Commission needs an auditable process in order to enforce the Rule and the FCLCA.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To demonstrate how the current Rule lacks teeth, one commenter, 1-800 CONTACTS, commented that it conducted a follow-up “secret shop” of twenty-one of the forty-five prescribers who received FTC warning letters in 2016, and found that even after receiving these warnings, eighteen still failed to automatically release a prescription after completion of a contact lens fitting.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some commenters also suggested that a signed record would actually help prescribers by giving them a way to prove that they provided the prescription, and thus prevent consumers from incorrectly alleging that a prescriber violated the law.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88532.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Information Technology and Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848); Arizona State Rep. Heather Carter (NPRM Comment #3193); Semelsberger (NPRM Comment #3856); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             Warby Parker (NPRM Comment #3867).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). The Commission has brought one case against a prescriber for failure to release eyeglass prescriptions in violation of the Eyeglass Rule, and 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            resolved the suit with a consent decree and $10,000 penalty. 
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Doctors Eyecare Ctr. Inc.,</E>
                             No. 96-cv-012224-D (N.D. Tex. June 25, 1996). It is also worth noting that warning letters are typically sent in response to consumer complaints, and, as noted 
                            <E T="03">supra,</E>
                             for a number of reasons, consumers are unlikely to complain to the Commission when they do not receive their prescriptions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Information Technology and Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel III Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 75, at 12 (“there needs to be a mechanism for enforcement”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             Baker Analysis, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 27 (statements of Linda Sherry); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters, however, suggested that the Commission could do a better job of enforcing the current release requirement instead of adding a signed-acknowledgment requirement.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One commenter suggested that instead of the signed acknowledgment, the Commission should conduct its own “secret shops” of prescriber offices and fine those who fail to release prescriptions.
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Bernard (WS Comment #588); Click (WS Comment #876).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             Pearl (WS Comment #824).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several prescribers also suggested that the signed-acknowledgment requirement itself would be difficult to enforce 
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or that it was unlikely that prescribers who do not currently comply with prescription release would comply with the signed-acknowledgment requirement.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, some prescribers doubted whether consumers would read the signed-acknowledgment document and thus questioned its use for education purposes.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             Missouri Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #1208).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Pearl (WS Comment #824); Koch (WS Comment #855); Holcomb (WS Comment #872); Edwards (WS Comment #884); Alwes (WS Comment #998); Jones (WS Comment #2778); Contact Lens Association of Ophthalmologists (NPRM Comment #4259); California Academy of Eye Physicians and Surgeons (NPRM Comment #4269).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 9 (statements of Zachary McCarty); Gasparini (WS Comment #825); Schweiger (WS Comment #993).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Comments About the Burden of the Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        A significant number of commenters felt that the Commission underestimated the burden that the signed-acknowledgment requirement would impose on prescribers, and said the actual burden would be much more “substantial.” 
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to commenters, the Commission's estimate 
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         did not fully recognize the time it would take to train office staff, answer consumers' questions, and create, produce and store the acknowledgment form for three years.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (“NAOO”) predicted the acknowledgment requirement would add five minutes to each transaction “because of the need to explain the reason for the signature to the patient,” 
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and stressed that “storage of the myriad pieces of paper is not a small burden.” 
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             American Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #3657). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (NPRM Comment #3820) (“will have significant cost implications”); CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 6 (statement of David Cockrell) (“I think it creates a very significant burden.”); Rohler (NPRM Comment #377); Stott (NPRM Comment #687).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             The Commission's estimate was forty-one million minutes per year, based on an estimate of 41 million contact lens wearers and one minute to present each patient with the form, obtain a signature, and scan or store the record. NPRM, 81 FR at 88557. The Commission stated that in all likelihood, the burden would actually be far less, since the Commission did not credit the reduction in verification burden that would likely occur once additional consumers were in possession of their prescriptions. Additionally, not all contact lens wearers obtain eye exams every year. In 2017, for instance, there were approximately 34 million contact lens eye exams in the U.S. CLR Panel I Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 72, at 5 (statements of Steve Kodey). If the number of actual exams had been used to calculate the burden, this would have reduced the estimated burden to 34 million minutes. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898) (estimating that the average exam frequency for contact lens patients is 15 months, citing 
                            <E T="03">https://www.clspectrum.com/issues/2016/november-2016/four-strategies-for-practice-growth</E>
                            ); CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 3 (statements of Cindy Williams) (stating that evidence indicates the majority of contact lens wearers get an exam once every 12-16 months).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208); Toepfer (NPRM Comment #652); Slusser (NPRM Comment #149); Armed Forces Optometric Society (NPRM Comment #2884); American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (NPRM #3820); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); California Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3845).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several prescribers predicted they would incur thousands of dollars in staff time, printing, and electronic records costs, although most did not provide a detailed basis for their estimates.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some commenters also questioned why the Commission was imposing a paper-storage requirement when so many physicians—at the urging of health authorities—are moving toward electronic records, and spending significant amounts of money to make that transition.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Others said they already make the prescription available electronically via patient portals, so this would just generate unnecessary paper waste.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Wright (WS Comment #743); Wesley (WS Comment #835); Norman (WS Comment #1285); Paulsen (WS Comment #1335); Dice (WS Comment #1585); Loomis (WS Comment #3300); California Optometric Association (NPRM #3845).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Akers (WS Comment #577); Rule (WS Comment #775); Schindler (WS Comment #1160); Ball (WS Comment #2861).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Nau (WS Comment #683); Carvell (WS Comment #1021). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Chuang (WS Comment #864).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A number of commenters predicted that the burden would force prescribers to raise patient fees to cover increased administrative costs.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some also felt it was unfair that prescribers, who currently shoulder a larger financial share than sellers of the costs imposed by the Rule, would now be responsible for even more.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some commenters said that by imposing this new burden, it would be harder for prescribers to compete with third-party sellers, and thus the proposal could hinder competition rather than foster it, and some prescribers might have to stop selling lenses.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many prescribers also criticized the proposed signed acknowledgment because they said it would not improve patient health or address what they believe are questionable practices by third-party retailers that put patients' eye health at risk.
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many of these commenters 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24677"/>
                        suggested that the Commission re-approach the Rule review with patient safety as the number one priority.
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Mitchell (WS Comment #238); Anders (WS Comment #479); Bjork (WS Comment #591); Giusto (WS Comment #740); Reed (WS Comment #749); Smith (WS Comment #1245); Paulsen (WS Comment #1335); Hamilton (WS Comment #2017); Joe (WS Comment #2340); Webster (WS Comment #2515); Ritter (WS Comment #2888); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Utah Ophthalmology Society (NPRM Comment #2586); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Koch (WS Comment #855); Willingham (WS Comment #858); Heltsley (WS Comment #1028); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); Teed (NPRM Comment #4232).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Wright (WS Comment #743) (“Instead of going after doctors that take an oath, are held to high standards and depend on excellent patient care reputation to retain patients, the FTC should be going after the unscrupulous contact lens sellers that put profits far ahead of patient eye 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            health concerns”); Satjawatcharaphong (WS Comment #1030) (“There is no justification for targeting eye doctors . . . while the Commission allows retailers who blatantly violate the law to operate unchecked.”); Vosseteig (WS Comment #1205) (“These proposed changes are NOT in the best interests in the patient, and are attacking optometry, instead of the retailers who consistently and constantly abuse the unenforced rules already in place. Do not target eye doctors! New paperwork and document storage requirements are NOT going to protect the patient, but will only add cost and time to an already broken health system.”). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             McLoughlin (WS Comment #1311); Utah Ophthalmology Society (NPRM Comment #2586); American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (NPRM Comment #3820); California Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3845); Simsarian (NPRM Comment #3902); Foster (NPRM Comment #3981); Nakano (NPRM Comment #4353).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             Utah Ophthalmology Society (NPRM Comment #2586).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A few commenters also said the new requirement would add a burden to consumers, since they would not want to sign another form 
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or might have to return to their prescribers' offices to sign the acknowledgment receipt, whereas currently some contact lens fittings are finalized remotely (via phone, text, or email) after the patient takes home trial lenses for a few days.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other commenters contested this assessment, stating that the percentage of consumers who complete their contact lens fitting remotely is small (by one estimate just 9%), and that prescribers who complete a fitting remotely could satisfy the signed-acknowledgment requirement by retaining proof that they transmitted the actual prescription to the patient.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             Kampa (NPRM Comment #3042); Mecham (NPRM Comment #3419); Dang (NPRM Comment #3508); Warner (NPRM Comment #3533).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             Fortier (NPRM Comment #363); Dingley (NPRM Comment #342); Wisconsin Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4152).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898, Ex. B). Results are based on an online panel study of 753 optometrists between December 12, 2016 and January 4, 2017. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 11 (statements of David Cockrell that he would be “really surprised” if less than 80%-90% of contact lens fittings are completed in person); Simple Contacts (NPRM Comment #3479) (requirement could be satisfied remotely with “little additional effort”); Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785) (“they can be sent and completed either electronically or via hardcopy in the office at the end of a fitting and added to a patient's existing medical record, which most states require to be kept for at least three years”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On the issue of burden, the AOA submitted a third-party survey and analysis conducted by Avalon Health Economics (the “Avalon Report”), which reported that optometrists expect it will take 3.12 minutes to explain to each patient the purpose of the signed acknowledgment, 3.41 minutes to answer questions from patients who seek more information, and 13.31 minutes of training to teach staff how to correctly address patient concerns about the acknowledgment (although only 44% of optometrists said additional training would be necessary).
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the AOA, the analysis shows that the cost of implementing the signed-acknowledgment proposal could be as high as $18,795 for a practice with one optometrist, and as high as $49,913 for a practice with three optometrists.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Approximately 85% of this estimated burden, however, came not from training, explaining, or answering questions about the signed acknowledgment, but rather from the general cost of “total administrative time associated with adhering to the rules, regulations and policies regarding the operation of your practice.” 
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In other words, the bulk of the burden derived not from the new signed-acknowledgment requirement, but from adhering to rules and regulations in general, including existing rules and regulations.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830). According to the AOA, the survey was disseminated to approximately 1000 optometrists, of whom 130 responded. The survey asked them to describe how much time it takes them to introduce a new patient engagement process and conduct periodic assessments of such a process, and how much time they anticipate they and their staff would spend answering questions and explaining the purpose of the signed acknowledgment to patients. It also asked them for the “total administrative time associated with adhering to the rules, regulations and policies.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             The AOA burden estimate was also cited by numerous other commenters as evidence that the acknowledgment proposal would be extremely burdensome for prescribers, and disproportionate to the harm caused by prescriber failure to release prescriptions. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Letter from Seven Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Letter from Fifty-Four Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Boozman Letter, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Letter from Fifty-Eight Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        After its own review of the Avalon Report, the Commission doubts its reliability and usefulness. Of greatest concern is that the bulk of the estimated burden is derived not from the signed-acknowledgment proposal, but rather from responses to the survey's open-ended question regarding total indirect costs of adhering to government regulations. As noted, these encompass regulations that are already in place and already taking prescriber adherence time, but may be unrelated in any way to the Commission's proposal. Furthermore, the survey also asked prescribers to predict whether patients would have questions, rather than surveying patients themselves as to whether they would have questions. Moreover, the relatively small sample of optometrists who responded to the survey (130) knew the sponsor and purpose of the survey beforehand. In fact, the AOA had urged its members to comment on the NPRM and provided them with a sample letter declaring that the Commission's NPRM burden estimate did not sufficiently account for “ongoing staff training” and the “additional step in the patient engagement process.” 
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, Avalon survey respondents may have been unduly influenced to inflate the burden of complying with existing regulations and the proposed new one. Based on these and other concerns,
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission cannot accord significant weight to many of the survey's findings or cost estimates, although it will still consider whether to include training time in its determination of the overall burden and need for the proposal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g,</E>
                             Mass Mail Campaign (NPRM Comment #283) (1,415 submissions). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             Shaw (NPRM Comment #314); Schwartz (NPRM Comment #321); Yin (NPRM Comment #326); Singh (NPRM Comment #340); Stahl (NPRM Comment #355); Moore (NPRM Comment #365); Brozzo (NPRM Comment #366); Rohler (NPRM Comment #377); Woo (NPRM Comment #400); Heeg (NPRM Comment #407); Le (NPRM Comment #416); Lemke (NPRM Comment #441); Durham (NPRM Comment #473); Mueller (NPRM Comment #513); Williams (NPRM Comment #411); Kirsch (NPRM Comment #495); Bond (NPRM Comment #497); Palys (NPRM Comment #538); Kanevsky (NPRM Comment #555); Nordwall (NPRM Comment #576); Johnson (NPRM Comment #613); Bate (NPRM Comment #647); Toepfer (NPRM Comment #652); Korley (NPRM Comment #653); Wegener (NPRM Comment #665); Melman (NPRM Comment #676); Williams (NPRM Comment #703); Ballard (NPRM Comment #756); Cass (NPRM Comment #757).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             The analysis did not account for the fact that 16% of optometrists do not believe consumers will have additional questions about the signed acknowledgment. The survey also does not supply information on the mean and variance of the open-ended question regarding time. If any respondents significantly overestimated the time spent adhering to rules, those figures would distort the overall average, particularly since only 130 optometrists participated.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In marked contrast to the views of prescribers, other commenters called the Commission's signed-acknowledgment proposal a measured approach that would be easy to administer and impose a relatively minor burden.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the consumer advocacy organization Consumers Union, “The burden of having copies of the one-page form available in the eye doctor's office, having each patient sign a copy of the form when receiving the prescription, and keeping that copy in a file for three years, is minimal and entirely 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24678"/>
                        manageable, and will enable more effective enforcement of the rule while also making it easier for eye doctors to show compliance.” 
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Likewise, other commenters stated that such a requirement should be easy to administer, particularly if prescribers use an electronic device to present the acknowledgment and record the signature electronically.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other commenters felt that the signed acknowledgment would be similar to the HIPAA acknowledgment that prescribers are already obtaining from each patient, and thus would not cause an excessive burden.” 
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848). Citizen Outreach (NPRM Comment #3247); Thompson (NPRM Comment #3302); Searrles (NPRM Comment #3304); Simple Contacts (NPRM Comment #3479); Coalition for Contact Lens Consumer Choice (NPRM Comment #3718); Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785); Attorneys General of 20 States (NPRM Comment #3804); Consumers Union (NPRM #3969); National Taxpayers Union (NPRM #4262).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Mouzon (NPRM Comment #2121) (“This requirement would add only a minimal paperwork burden on optometrists, but it could have a major impact on protecting the rights of consumers. It will also help keep prices low, which is important to my family”); Truman (NPRM Comment #3285) (“This isn't too much work to ask of optometrists and it will make sure everyone will be able to make that choice [of where to buy contacts].”)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848); Thompson (NPRM Comment #3302); Simple Contacts (NPRM Comment #3479).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281); Richter (NPRM Comment #2706).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters questioned prescribers' estimates for how long it would take to explain the signed acknowledgment to each consumer.
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1-800 CONTACTS submitted a third-party survey that reported that on average, it took consumers twelve seconds to read the proposed two-sentence acknowledgment statement, 90% of those surveyed understood the purpose of the signed acknowledgment, and only 4% had any questions or comments they would ask about it.
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207); CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 7 (statement of Linda Sherry that she does not believe that consumers would have a lot of questions about signed-acknowledgment statement). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851) (estimating it might add 5 minutes or more per transaction, but also stating, “Doctor's offices typically do a quick explanation of the form(s) to be signed and our experience is that patients routinely accept that explanation and sign the form without too much thought or discussion”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207); Baker Analysis, Ex. B, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/summaries/initiatives/677/meeting_summary_for_the_contact_lens_rulemaking_proceeding.pdf</E>
                             (SSI online survey of 500 respondents).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters also suggested that the increased burden from the signed acknowledgment would be lessened or even outweighed by a reduced verification burden because with more patients in possession of their prescriptions and able to present them to sellers, fewer verifications would be necessary.
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1-800 CONTACTS submitted a cost-benefit analysis that concluded that since prescribers and sellers spend considerably more time to comply with the Rule using verification 
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         than they do when consumers present prescriptions for purchase, a relatively modest reduction in the number of verifications could have a significant impact on overall compliance costs.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to this analysis, a reduction in verifications of 9% could be sufficient to offset the entire burden of the acknowledgment proposal.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The analysis further predicted, based on current consumer behavior, that the proposed amendment was likely to reduce the number of verifications by 15.9% and thus likely to offset much of the cost.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208) (“increased access to prescriptions and ease in securing additional copies of one's prescription will reduce the number of verification requests and make the fulfillment process easier and more accurate”); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969) (increase in patients with their prescriptions “should significantly reduce the number of prescriptions that require verification”); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 9 (statements of David Cockrell that it would reduce the number of verifications but would not eliminate them).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             The Commission has estimated that prescribers' offices spend five minutes per verification request, based on information provided by the American Optometric Association. Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review, 81 FR 62501 (Sept. 9 2016) [hereinafter PRA Assessment]. The Commission has also estimated that sellers spend five minutes per verification request, and one minute on recordkeeping in non-verification circumstances (to preserve the prescription when presented by a patient). 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             Baker Analysis, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 12-17.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The estimate is based on the NPRM PRA Assessment estimate of the signed-acknowledgment compliance cost of $10.8 million, and an assumption that 30% of consumers who currently do not receive their prescription would receive them due to the proposed requirement. This calculation is further based on the premise that prescribers are the ones who take the time to respond to verification calls, which is how the FTC has traditionally calculated the verification burden. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             PRA Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 184, at 62501. If the burden were calculated with the assumption that prescribers' office staff handle verification calls rather than prescribers, the verification burden cost would be much less (since staff typically have a much lower hourly wage than prescribers), and consequently, the reduction in verifications would have to be 21% to offset that burden, according to Dr. Baker. Baker Analysis, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 16.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             This calculation uses (1) an assumption that consumers make two contact lens purchases per year which would otherwise (in the absence of prescription presentation) require verification, and (2) the assumption, based on current consumer behavior, that approximately 38.6% of consumers in possession of their prescription would present them to sellers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission has some concerns about the analysis performed for 1-800 CONTACTS, since Dr. Baker used certain assumptions that differ from what the Commission has traditionally used in its calculation of the verification burden.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission undertook a similar analysis using Dr. Baker's assumption regarding the percentage of consumers who would present prescriptions to sellers, but using assumptions more closely mirroring those used in the Commission's prior Public Record Collection analysis, and calculated that the full cost of the signed acknowledgment might be offset by a 22.9% reduction in verifications.
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission considers this a relatively rough estimate and does not accord it substantial weight, however, since the calculation relies on a significant number of assumptions, not all of which may be accurate. The calculation also does not take into account any of the benefit to consumers of having their prescriptions and being able to choose from among competing providers; the savings consumers might achieve by purchasing lower-priced lenses; the improvements to health and safety due to a reduction in errors associated with invalid prescriptions currently verified through passive verification; and the Commission's ability to assess and verify compliance with the Rule.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             For example, Dr. Baker assumed two verifications per customer per year, whereas the Commission has typically assumed just one. In addition, the Commission's burden calculation typically limits its estimate of the minutes prescribers spend responding to verification calls to only those calls that they respond to, where Dr. Baker bases his burden estimate on five minutes for each verification call, regardless of whether it requires prescriber action. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             PRA Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 185, at 62501; Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request, 81 FR 31938, 31939-40 (May 20, 2016); Baker Analysis, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 12-17.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             As noted, this uses the assumption from the Commission's PRA Assessment that prescribers handle verification calls. If that assumption is changed to an assumption that prescribers' staff handle all of the verification calls, the overall cost of the verification burden falls, and consequently the percentage of verification reductions needed to offset the $10.4 million cost of the signed acknowledgment rises to between 43-50%, depending upon whether staff time spent verifying prescriptions but not responding to sellers is included in the calculation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88533.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Comments on the Text of the Proposed Acknowledgment Form</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenter opposition to the Commission's proposal focused on the text of the acknowledgment form. In particular, some prescribers took issue with the proposed requirement that the acknowledgment form include the statement, “I understand I am free to purchase contact lenses from the seller of my choice.” 
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to prescribers, this language makes it appear that doctors who sell contact lenses have been misleading their 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24679"/>
                        patients and overcharging them, and actively encourages consumers to buy their lenses elsewhere.
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Highsmith (WS Comment #651); Parikh (WS Comment #764).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 25 (statement of David Cockrell that it implies that doctors have done something wrong); Phillips (WS Comment #701) (“What other industry is required in their place of business to hand a customer a sheet of paper informing the customer you can buy these items elsewhere? Obviously people know there are different choices to get contacts—but why are we being forced to point people away?”); Johnson (WS Comment #755) (“Now I'm supposed to have them sign a document implying that I'm some kind of shady character. When patients lose trust in their doctor, medical care is damaged.”); Hanian (WS Comment #1196) (disclosure “has the impression in the public of making Eye Care Professionals look guilty of non-release”); Frazier (NPRM Comment #2653); Kentucky Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3174).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While many commenters criticized the proposed language, few suggested alternative wording. One commenter, however, suggested adding the language “valid anywhere” to the prescription itself rather than on an acknowledgment form.
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter, Consumers Union, suggested keeping the proposed wording but adding a third sentence to the acknowledgment, stating, “I also understand that my having the copy of my prescription means I can give a copy to the seller I choose.” 
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1-800 CONTACTS said it supported the Commission's proposed language because it would make it more likely patients would be given the prescription earlier in the process and before they purchased lenses from their prescriber.
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             Wisconsin Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4152).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Alternative Proposals to the Signed-Acknowledgment Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters suggested that instead of a signed acknowledgment, the Commission should provide better guidance and increased education.
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many commenters suggested, as an alternative, requiring that prescribers post a sign advising patients of their right to their prescription, and said this would help educate consumers without adding as much of a burden for prescribers.
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the AOA, signage is a common tool used to educate patients and consumers in a variety of settings.
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, commenters noted that the state of California already requires that prescribers post just such a sign, and some said the signage was working to remind the public of its rights.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The AOA submitted a third-party online survey showing that California contact lens wearers strongly support the requirement and believe the law helps enable patients to find the best prices on contact lenses.
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             CooperVision, Inc. (NPRM Comment #3841). 
                            <E T="03">See also, e.g.,</E>
                             Kochik (WS Comment #729) (“it might be better to mandate that a placard be clearly displayed that states that you are entitled to a copy of your contact lens prescription upon completion of the exam, or run an advertising campaign”); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 12 (statements of David Cockrell); To (WS Comment #597); Smith (WS Comment #732); Schott (WS Comment #1739); Toon (WS Comment #1741); Gibson (WS Comment #1889); Gilthvedt (WS Comment #2205); Health Care Alliance for Patient Safety (WS Comment #3206); American Optometric Association (NPRM Comment #3830); Gridley (NPRM Comment #4150); Letter from Twenty-Four Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Letter from Seven Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Letter from Fifty-Four Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131; Letter from Fifty-Eight Representatives, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 131.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.;</E>
                             Lo (WS Comment #856).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303). The survey presented 1000 consumers with a copy of the signage requirement and asked, among other things, “As a contact lens wearer, do you support this law?” to which 96% opted for the answers “definitely support” or “support.” Ninety-three percent said the signage requirement either “helps” or “definitely helps” patients find the best prices on lenses. The survey also asked to what extent respondents agree or disagree with the following statement, “This law is the best way to ensure that contact lens wearers are as informed as possible about their contact lens purchasing options,” and gave the respondents four options, “completely agree,” “agree,” “disagree” and “completely disagree.” Eighty-eight percent selected either “completely agree” or “agree.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In contrast, other commenters said a sign would be less effective than a signed acknowledgment since consumers might not notice a sign amid other signs and notifications at a prescriber's office, and since a signage requirement might have no effect on the likelihood that doctors release prescriptions without patients having to ask for them.
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In a survey submitted by 1-800 CONTACTS, 74% of consumer respondents said they are more likely to pay attention to a document presented to them than to a posted sign, while only 5% said they were more likely to pay attention to a posted sign.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Others noted that unless a prescriber maintained a record of release, determining whether a prescription had, in fact, been released, would remain a challenge for the Commission.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At the Commission's CLR Workshop, there was also discussion as to whether enforcement of the signage requirement could itself be difficult, since in the absence of a sign, consumers would not know to complain, or who to complain to, and the only way to verify compliance with the signage requirement would be for the Commission to perform numerous spot checks across the country.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, a panelist and moderator both mentioned that informal spot checks in California have found that such signs are not universally posted in accordance with state law,
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         although another panelist noted that when his organization looked at eye-care office compliance, the offices “passed the test.” 
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As none of these “spot checks” can be considered scientific or thorough investigations, the Commission will not accord any of them any weight.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 12-13 (statements of Linda Sherry); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             NPRM, 81 at 88534.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             Baker Analysis, Ex. B, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 9 (SSI online survey of 500 respondents).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 14-15; 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             at 13 (statements of Linda Sherry).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 13 (statements of Joseph Neville).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission does not have empirical data about prescriber compliance with the signage requirement in California. However, an analysis of consumer survey evidence provided by Survey Sampling International (submitted by 1-800 CONTACTS) indicates that regardless of signage, Californians do not automatically receive their prescriptions in substantially greater numbers than residents of states without a signage requirement.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the 2015 and 2017 survey evidence from SSI, the percentage of residents in California who receive their prescription in accordance with the CLR is only 2% higher than the nationwide rate, and 20-25% of California residents never received their prescription at all,
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         even though the signage requirement has been in effect in California since 1994.
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207, Ex. A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             One of the SSI surveys (October 2015) found that the percentage of consumers who did not receive their prescription but subsequently asked for it and immediately received it is higher in California by 13%, a statistically significant amount, which could indicate that some consumers are seeing the sign and thus remembering that they have a right to their prescriptions. However, the more recent SSI survey (January 2017), which surveyed twice as many consumers, only reported a 3% difference between California and nationwide in this regard, which does not indicate that the signage is prompting large numbers of people to ask for their prescriptions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             California actually has two statutes that require signage regarding consumers' rights to their prescriptions. The first, 16 CCR 1566, applies to prescribers and has been in effect since 1994. A second statute, Cal. Bus. &amp; Prof. Code 2554, went into effect in 2016, and extended the signage requirement to opticians who enter into business with prescribers. In 1-800 CONTACTS' comment, the company identified the incorrect statute for purposes of making a before-and-after comparison. 1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207). The Commission does not have survey evidence of California prescription-release practices from before 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            the 1994 signage requirement, and such data would be unhelpful in any event since the Contact Lens Rule did not exist at that point.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24680"/>
                    <P>
                        One commenter suggested that instead of requiring a signed acknowledgment, the prescription itself could have a notice instructing consumers that they are free to purchase lenses at the retailer of their choice.
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This proposal might help to educate consumers, but, if imposed by itself, would likely have no effect on the percentage of prescriptions that are released to consumers. In fact, it might reduce that percentage if prescribers are hesitant to give consumers a document reminding them they can buy their lenses elsewhere.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             Jolly (WS Comment #790). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Wisconsin Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4152).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One commenter, the NAOO, suggested that rather than specifying the precise terms of a signed acknowledgment, the Commission should require proof of compliance with the prescription-release requirement but allow the prescriber to select the method of proof from several accepted methods.
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the NAOO, allowing any of several forms of proof would provide a degree of flexibility—thus reducing prescriber burden—while still providing the Commission with more effective enforcement and verification ability than it has today.
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The NAOO suggested that a prescriber who could not produce credible evidence of prescription release would face a rebuttable presumption of noncompliance.
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., supra note 50, at 22 (statements of Joseph Neville).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id. See also</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851) (“While many may elect to use a paper or electronic form, others may opt for some form of portal acknowledgment, email or text acknowledgment or other method not yet determined. In this way there is some flexibility for the prescriber, depending on tools used in the practice.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The NAOO proposed that accepted forms of proof of prescription release would include: A separate signed acknowledgment (as proposed in the NPRM); a patient-signed acknowledgment of prescription receipt on a prescriber-retained copy of the prescription; a patient-signed acknowledgment of prescription receipt on a customer's purchase receipt; a copy of and transmission receipt of a fax of the prescription to the patient; email and text retention of the sent prescription, including a digital image of the prescription, evidencing the correct address or number for the patient, along with a delivery receipt of sending; portal acknowledgment and evidence of the prescription download; and other forms of retention, whether paper or electronic not yet contemplated, that the Commission can approve in the future based on an adequate showing.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the NAOO, these choices would allow prescribers to tailor the acknowledgment to their practices, reduce unnecessary paper and storage issues, and yet still provide the Commission with an enforcement mechanism to ensure that prescribers are complying.
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 13-14, 22, 25 (statements of Joseph Neville).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The NAOO also suggested an exemption for prescribers who do not sell contact lenses, since they lack a financial incentive to withhold a prescription.
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some other commenters, however, opposed this, stating that it implied that doctors who chose to sell lenses were unethical, and further that it might be difficult to determine whether doctors—particularly those co-located with an optical retailer—have any kind of direct or indirect financial interest in the sale of lenses.
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 25-26 (statements of Joseph Neville). Such an exemption was also supported by a few other commenters, such as 1-800 CONTACTS, which noted that this would reduce the overall burden on prescribers without reducing benefits for consumers. 1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 26 (statements of David Cockrell) (“How in the world could you look at every commercial contract and know whether that doc who isn't physically selling them is incentivized in any other way, whether it's a decrease in the rent space, whether it's advantage in something else.”); 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             at 26 (statements of Linda Sherry that it would be simpler to have one law for everyone).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Additional Discussion and Proposal</HD>
                    <P>The Commission has reviewed and considered the thoughts and concerns expressed in the more than 7,000 comments submitted in response to its NPRM proposal. Many of the comments were helpful and provided insight into the effectiveness of the current Rule's automatic prescription release provision, the need for amending that provision, the potential burden on providers of doing so, and possible alternatives to the Commission's NPRM proposal.</P>
                    <P>The Commission also emphasizes that it has great respect for the nation's eye-care professionals, and recognizes the unique contribution they provide in helping America's consumers see clearly and enjoy quality eye health. Congress determined that the benefits patients enjoy from these services are enhanced when they can buy from third-party sellers, and that requiring the automatic release of prescriptions at the completion of the contact lens fitting is the best way to ensure consumer choice. Congress directed the Commission to implement and enforce that requirement, and if the Act and Rule are not functioning as intended, the Commission is obligated to address the deficiency.</P>
                    <P>
                        After consideration of the comments and evidence at its disposal, the Commission believes that the overall weight of the evidence in the rulemaking record is compelling, and firmly establishes that the Act and Rule are not working as Congress intended. It is evident that a majority of consumers—between 56-65% 
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —are not receiving their contact lens prescriptions automatically as required by law, and millions of consumers are not receiving them at all.
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is evident from the surveys previously discussed in the NPRM, as well as the two new consumer surveys and additional corroborating evidence.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section IV B(2)(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While the Commission reiterates that any one survey might not be treated as definitive, the fact that several different surveys over the course of several years have found similar levels of non-compliance is significant. Additional evidence of noncompliance includes the persistently high verification numbers and consumer accounts of failure to release. Moreover, the existing regulatory structure in the U.S., which bars a consumer from obtaining contact lenses without a prescription while permitting prescribers to sell what they prescribe, creates regulatory-based economic incentives for some prescribers to not release prescriptions, or to not release them unless requested by the consumer.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Information Technology &amp; Innovation Foundation (NPRM Comment #2848) (noting the long history of the optometry industry to use its gatekeeper power to limit patients' ability to purchase lenses from outside sources, and the existing imbalance in that U.S. consumers still need prescribers to give them a prescription in order for them to purchase lenses).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, the Commission has not seen credible empirical evidence that contradicts the evidence that prescribers are not automatically releasing prescriptions. For reasons explained in its earlier discussion, the Commission does not regard the relatively small number of consumer complaints as indicative of prescriber compliance. While many prescribers attest—via the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24681"/>
                        AOA prescriber survey and their own comments—that they personally always provide patients with prescriptions, and the Commission takes these personal declarations into account, they do not rebut the empirical evidence that a substantial number of consumers are not receiving their prescriptions automatically as required by law. Similarly, the evidence in the record supports the conclusion that many consumers are still unaware of their right to their prescription.
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission therefore continues to believe that compliance with the automatic prescription release provision could, and should, be substantially improved. The Commission also continues to believe, as it has found in the past,
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that consumers are subject to substantial economic loss attributable to the inability to comparison shop when they do not possess their prescriptions, and that significant harm to competition exists when prescribers do not comply with the prescription-release requirement. When consumers' ability to comparison shop is diminished, the normal competitive pressures on the eye-care industry to offer competitive prices—or the combination of prices, features, and services most in demand—are themselves diminished.
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section IV B(2)(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR 5440 (Feb. 4, 2004); Eyeglass I, 43 FR at 24002.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             Fed. Tr. Comm'n, “The Strength of Competition in the Sale of Rx Contact Lenses: An FTC Study,” 45-46, 50 (2005), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/documents/reports/strength-competition-sale-rx-contact-lenses-ftc-study/050214contactlensrpt.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, as noted in its NPRM, the Commission believes that the potential benefit of increasing the number of patients in possession of their prescriptions remains substantial: Increased flexibility and choice for consumers; a reduced verification burden for prescribers and sellers; a reduced likelihood of errors associated with incorrect, invalid, or expired prescriptions and, consequently, improved patient safety; and a reduction in the number of failed attempts at verification or attempts to verify with the wrong prescriber.
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88532-34.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. A Confirmation From the Consumer Is Necessary for Enforcement and Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the Commission is convinced that some form of retained documentation is necessary to improve the Commission's enforcement and monitoring ability. As commenters noted, the Commission currently faces notable challenges in enforcing the Rule since typically the only evidence is the word of a complaining consumer against that of the prescriber.
                        <SU>226</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This fact has played a role in the lack of enforcement over the last ten years. Under the current Rule, to investigate a complaint and bring an enforcement action, the Commission might be required to issue a Civil Investigative Demand for the names and contact information of a prescriber's recent patients (perhaps within the past two months), and then survey or interview them to ascertain whether they received their prescriptions. The Commission might also have to conduct investigational hearings with prescribers' office staff to determine if there was any proof that prescriptions had been provided. Such an investigation would be resource-intensive for the Commission and costly, time-consuming, and disruptive for a prescriber, even if the Commission never ultimately brought an enforcement action.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section IV B(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The current lack of enforcement, in conjunction with the fact that so few consumers file complaints when they have not received their prescription, is likely a significant contributing factor in why less than half of all patients receive their prescription automatically as required by law. Prescribers, whether intentionally or not, can fail to release prescriptions yet risk very little, since if a patient asks for the prescription and subsequently receives it, the consumer is unlikely to file a complaint.</P>
                    <P>While some commenters questioned whether prescribers who do not comply with prescription release would comply with the acknowledgment requirement, the Commission notes that the difference between the two requirements is that there would be a verifiable method to check the latter. If the Commission has concerns about a prescriber's compliance, the Commission can simply request to see the patient acknowledgment, and that should resolve most questions as to whether the prescriber did or did not provide a prescription.</P>
                    <P>
                        As for commenters who complained that the proposed acknowledgment does not directly improve patients' health and safety, or address so-called questionable practices by third-party sellers,
                        <SU>227</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that assertion even if accurate, is irrelevant, because the acknowledgment proposal is not intended to do so. Other parts of the Rule are designed to focus on verification and prescription alteration, both of which may affect patient health and safety. The prescription-release component of the Rule is designed to enhance consumer choice, and the Commission's proposed acknowledgment is targeted to achieve that goal. And while it may be true, as some commenters have asserted, that not every single consumer would read the acknowledgment form, the Commission believes that enough patients would read a document handed to them and asked to sign to make such a requirement beneficial (particularly if it increases the number who receive their prescriptions). As noted 
                        <E T="03">supra,</E>
                         a survey of consumers found that a significant majority were more likely to pay attention to a document given to them than to a posted sign.
                        <SU>228</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, the contention that consumers will not read the acknowledgment form runs contrary to the comments of many prescribers who predict that consumers will ask a lot of questions after reading the form.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 167 and accompanying text.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             Baker Analysis, Ex. B, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 133, at 9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. The Burden Is Relatively Small and Outweighed by the Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission also finds that the evidentiary record does not establish that the burden to obtain a signature and retain a single sheet of paper or electronic record is as extreme as that forecast by many prescribers. As the Commission noted in the NPRM, the majority of states already require that optometrists maintain records of eye examinations for three years, and maintaining an additional piece of paper should not take more than a few seconds of time, as well as inconsequential, or 
                        <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                         amount of record space.
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This recordkeeping burden can be further reduced to the extent that prescribers adopt, or have adopted, electronic-health record systems where patient signatures can be recorded electronically and inputted automatically into the electronic record.
                        <SU>230</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission also believes that while the precise offset resulting from reduced verifications may be difficult to predict with precision, there would undoubtedly be some offsetting benefits for both sellers and prescribers.
                        <SU>231</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88557.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88534.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section IV B(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The argument put forth in some comments that the cost of the Rule's burden falls disproportionately on prescribers, and that this proposal aggravates that imbalance, is not persuasive. In the first place, the signed-acknowledgment proposal is intended to remedy lack of compliance with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24682"/>
                        automatic-release provision 
                        <E T="03">by prescribers.</E>
                         Furthermore, while Congress recognized the health issues associated with selling contact lenses without a prescription, the FCLCA was enacted primarily because of prescribers' widespread failure to release and verify prescriptions,
                        <SU>232</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Congress set out nearly all of the requirements and corresponding burdens imposed on prescribers and sellers. The primary inquiry for the Commission is to determine whether the Rule is functioning to ensure compliance with the Act. The Commission's focus is to find the most effective and least burdensome way to achieve compliance with the Rule and the Act, and thereby benefit consumers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318 at 4-5. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             69 FR at 40492 (quoting FCLCA co-sponsor Rep. F. James Sensenbrenner, Jr., stating that the intent of the Act is “to allow consumers to receive their contact lens prescriptions so they can easily shop around to buy their lenses from any number of suppliers.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While prescribers predicted that consumers would have many questions about having to sign a receipt for their prescription, the only submitted empirical survey of consumer understanding of the proposal found that just 4% of consumers surveyed had questions about the acknowledgment form, and it took consumers, on average, a mere twelve seconds to read it. And as one commenter noted, consumers are accustomed to tasks such as this.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Indeed, many pharmacists require patients to acknowledge that they do not have any questions upon receiving a prescription; package services require signature upon delivery; schools require signed permission slips; businesses and physicians' offices require visitors to sign in; and, as some commenters noted, patients are accustomed to signing acknowledgment forms signifying they are in receipt of a provider's HIPAA notice of privacy practices.
                        <SU>234</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 7 (statements of Linda Sherry that she did not think it would raise a lot of questions from consumers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Searrles, NPRM Comment #3304) (stating that from his experience as a pharmaceutical doctor, he finds it difficult to understand how some eye doctors would find it difficult to maintain a file of signatures).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The HIPAA acknowledgment requirement 
                        <SU>235</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         faced some similar objections prior to implementation, including complaints that it would be burdensome, present difficulties when patients and doctors are not face-to-face, and be more difficult and costly to implement than signage.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, however, determined that a signed acknowledgment would require just ten seconds to hand out and ten seconds to obtain a patient's signature.
                        <SU>237</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHS did not determine that additional time was needed for explaining the need for the patient's signature, answering questions from the patient, or scanning or storing the signed acknowledgment.
                        <SU>238</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             45 CFR 164.520 (c)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information, 67 FR 53182, 53240-43 (Aug. 14, 2002) (implementing 45 CFR 164.520(c)(2)(ii)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 53240-43, 53260-61. HHS also calculated three cents per signed acknowledgment for the cost some doctors might incur for the paper. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 53256.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 53256.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The HIPAA signed acknowledgment differs from the Commission's proposal in a few ways, however. In particular, HHS did not specify a particular form for its patient acknowledgment, but rather left it up to providers to determine what type of acknowledgment—so long as it was signed by the patient 
                        <SU>239</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —would work best for them and their practice.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this manner, the HIPAA acknowledgment requirement more closely resembles the proposal by the National Association of Optometrists and Opticians in that it provides the prescriber with greater flexibility to adapt the acknowledgment to best suit his or her practice.
                        <SU>241</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         HHS also rejected the idea of relying on signage or providing the notice only upon request, since it determined that the burden of enforcing an important right afforded to individuals by the rule should not be placed on the individual.
                        <SU>242</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             “[T]he Department would not consider a receptionist's notation in a computer system to be an individual's written acknowledgment.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 53242.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             Section IV B(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             67 FR at 53242-43. Perhaps due in part to its written acknowledgment, non-compliance with the HIPAA requirement to provide patients with privacy notices has not been a significant issue, and HHS is now in the preliminary stages of evaluating whether a written acknowledgment is still needed. Regulatory Agenda, 83 FR 27126 (June 11, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2018-06-11/pdf/2018-11239.pdf.</E>
                             The fact that covered health care providers do not have a powerful incentive to withhold privacy notices may also play a role in compliance with the HIPAA privacy-notice release requirement, in contrast to the CLR requirement to release prescriptions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Analysis and Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission likewise does not view signage as an appropriate or effective alternative to ensure that patients receive their prescriptions as required by law. As discussed in the NPRM, signage offers some of the benefits of a signed acknowledgment in that it would notify some consumers of their rights.
                        <SU>243</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On the other hand, it is likely that in the particular environment of a doctor's office, fewer consumers would learn of their rights from a sign than from being handed a document, particularly a document consumers are asked to sign. It is worth noting that when California first considered requiring prescription-release signage, the California Optometric Association opposed it because it felt that “[t]urning optometrists' offices into bulletin boards is not the answer. . . . What if the patient doesn't read the notice?” 
                        <SU>244</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, since a sign would not require a prescriber, or prescriber's staff, to interact with each patient about the prescription, it would serve as less of a reminder to them to provide patients with their prescriptions. And, as noted previously, although it might be relatively straightforward (although very time consuming) for the Commission to verify and enforce the signage requirement through spot checks, such a requirement would do little to assist the Commission in verifying or enforcing compliance with the automatic prescription release provision itself. Confirming that a prescriber has posted a sign does little or nothing to establish whether the prescriber is releasing prescriptions to patients.
                        <SU>245</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88534. Unlike a “secret shop” to determine prescriber compliance with prescription release, spot checks of signage could be accomplished with significantly less time and expense.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             California Optometry Association, Comment on the Proposed Changes to Chapter 15 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations, 
                            <E T="03">in</E>
                             State of California Board of Optometry, Rulemaking File, section VIII (1994) (calling the idea of a signage requirement “truly an example of over regulation”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             In its comment, the American Optometric Association agreed that this concern was accurate but noted that it was “equally accurate that under the current Rule, the completion of a robocall to verify a prescription does not ensure that a seller addressed a prescriber's correction to a verification request, or that the seller has not sold lenses to the patient that should not have been provided.” American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303). It is not clear to the Commission why potential compliance issues in one aspect of a law should justify overlooking noncompliance in another.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, the Commission finds the aforementioned survey of California residents relatively unhelpful. The issue is whether signage increases prescription-release, not whether residents support the law or believe a sign helps them find the best prices for contact lenses. Notably, California consumers were not asked if they saw or remembered seeing a sign at their prescribers' office, whether they typically receive their prescriptions after a contact lens fitting, or whether they thought a signed- acknowledgment requirement would be a more effective way to ensure that they receive a prescription.
                        <PRTPAGE P="24683"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Using signage to ensure that patients obtain their prescriptions also requires that patients see the signs and invoke their prescription rights. Yet as noted in the discussion of consumer complaints, relying on patients to ask for their prescriptions is problematic. Many consumers might not see the sign, while others may be uncomfortable asking their prescribers for their prescriptions. And relying on patients to ask for their prescriptions again puts the onus on consumers to enforce the Rule and essentially amends the automatic-release requirement to release-upon-request, in contravention of the text of the FCLCA.
                        <SU>246</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Eyeglass I, 43 FR at 23998; Eyeglass II, 54 FR at 10286-87.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Nonetheless, the Commission is receptive to prescriber concerns about the burden of the signed-acknowledgment requirement. The Commission is willing to consider alternatives that might reduce the burden and lessen any interference with the doctor-patient relationship, while at the same time maintaining much of the effectiveness and enforceability of the proposed signed acknowledgment. To this end, the Commission believes that allowing prescribers to choose from several different ways of confirming prescription release—including via portals, email delivery, and signed prescription or purchase receipts—and draft their own prescription-confirmation language will provide greater flexibility without markedly undermining the Commission's enforceability objective.
                        <SU>247</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such a change should also reduce the cost of the requirement, since prescribers will, if they choose, be able to incorporate the confirmation into an existing document that they would store in any event, or, so long as agreed to by patients, release the prescription to a portal without having to provide a paper copy.
                        <SU>248</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, by allowing flexibility with the text of the patient confirmation, prescribers can draft one in such a way that they believe consumers will be less likely to draw an inference that prescribers have done something wrong.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             This proposal is similar to that recommended by the National Association of Optometrists and Opticians. National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             Some commenters expressed concern that allowing release to a portal to satisfy the confirmation requirement would undercut the educational aspect of the signed- acknowledgment proposal and provide prescribers with an “easy way to evade their obligations and frustrate the intent of the Rule.” 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969) (stating that an electronic copy of a prescription should supplement but not substitute for providing a patient with a paper copy). However, the Commission believes that portal release achieves most of the benefits of a paper confirmation with a reduction in burden, and thus is an acceptable alternative. In order to utilize a portal for delivery of the prescription, the prescriber must obtain verifiable affirmative consent from the patient.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>At the same time, the Commission does not wish to burden prescribers with the task of formulating adequate confirmation language if they prefer to use the language the Commission previously proposed: “My eye care professional provided me with a copy of my contact lens prescription at the completion of my contact lens fitting:” Such language would satisfy the proposed requirement. In any case, while prescribers are free to provide their own language, the receipt must confirm that the patient received a prescription and cannot include additional information proscribed by the Rule, such as liability waivers or agreements to purchase lenses from the prescriber.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission therefore proposes to modify its prior proposal for a signed- acknowledgment requirement by instead proposing a more flexible Confirmation of Prescription Release provision, which would require that prescribers either obtain a patient acknowledgment—whether on a separate form or on a copy of the patient's prescription or sales receipt 
                        <SU>249</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —or retain evidence that the prescription was provided to the patient via electronic means. The prescriber would be required to maintain evidence of the Confirmation of Prescription Release for at least three years, and make such evidence available upon request by the Commission.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             A prescriber who elects to comply with the Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement by providing a patient acknowledgment on a sales receipt must comply with any other requirements that might apply to such sales receipts.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, the Commission accepts the suggestion that the requirement should apply only to prescribers who have a financial interest in the sale of contact lenses, which could create an incentive to withhold a prescription.
                        <SU>250</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission does not believe that such an exemption is unworkable from the standpoint of determining whether a financial interest exists,
                        <SU>251</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         nor that the exemption will somehow impart to consumers the message that prescribers who sell contacts are unethical, as some commenters have feared. Overall, the Commission believes that the new proposal will retain most of the benefits of the prior signed-acknowledgment proposal, but will cause less disruption and fewer burdens for prescribers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             A patient who wants contact lenses, but visits a prescriber who does not sell contact lenses (or does not have a financial interest in the sale of contact lenses), does so for the purpose of obtaining a prescription. The failure of the prescriber to provide the prescription under such circumstances would provide no benefit to the prescriber while likely alienating the patient.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             The proposal defines “financial interest” to include an association, affiliation, or co-location with a contact lens seller. The Commission is soliciting comments on what other types of arrangements might constitute a disqualifying indirect financial interest in the sale of contact lenses.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission therefore requests comments on its modified proposal to amend § 315.3 to add a Confirmation of Prescription Release, require evidence of Confirmation of Prescription Release be maintained for at least three years, and make such evidence available to the Commission upon request.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Requiring Prescribers to Respond To Requests for an Additional Copy of a Prescription Within Forty Business Hours</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission clarified that the Act and the Rule require that prescribers provide patients or their agents with additional copies of prescriptions upon request.
                        <SU>252</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This interpretation is consistent with the language and intent of the Act—improving prescription portability while protecting consumer health.
                        <SU>253</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By receiving a copy after making the requests themselves or authorizing sellers to make the requests, consumers can purchase contacts without the verification process. Additionally, if a patient were not to receive his or her prescription under § 315.3(a)(1), the patient would be able to request a copy later. Although the Commission did not propose amending the Rule in the NPRM, it sought comment on this clarification.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88536. This interpretation is consistent with prior Commission guidance. FTC Staff Opinion Letter to the American Optometric Association Providing Guidance Regarding How Contact Lens Prescribers Should Respond to Requests for Patients' Contact Lens Prescriptions, Pursuant to the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act and the Contact Lens Rule (Oct. 4, 2006), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/public-statements/2006/10/requests-contact-lens-prescribers-provide-patients-contact-lens.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88536.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Obtaining an Additional Copy of a Prescription</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters supported the Commission's interpretation that the Rule and Act allow patients to request additional copies of their prescriptions.
                        <SU>254</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An increase in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24684"/>
                        number of consumers in possession of their prescriptions could improve the accuracy of the prescription information given to sellers, reduce the number of verification requests, and make sales quicker.
                        <SU>255</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commenters also suggested limitations on how long a prescriber would have to respond to the request, including eight business hours (similar to the period for responding to a verification request),
                        <SU>256</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         two business days,
                        <SU>257</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and five business days.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             Institute for Liberty (NPRM Comment #2690); The Coalition for Contact Lens Consumer Choice (NPRM Comment #3718); Comments of the Attorneys General of 20 States (NPRM Comment #3804); National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851); Warby Parker (NPRM Comment # 3867); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969); Contact Lens Association 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            of Ophthalmologists (NPRM Comment #4259) (“We have no objection to requiring prescribers to provide additional copies of prescriptions to a patient upon request, and suspect that this will reduce the burden of verification requests.”); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (NPRM Comment #3851); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898) (“With a prescription on file, 1-800 is able to ship orders faster— orders can be processed within 14 minutes of the time the order is placed” and can sell lenses throughout the duration of the prescription without any verification requests.).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             Opternative (NPRM Comment #3785); Contact Lens Association of Ophthalmologists (NPRM Comment #4259).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             American Academy of Ophthalmology (WS Comment #2971); 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Analysis and Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        Based on the comments received, the Commission believes that the Rule should be amended to ensure that patients' agents can obtain additional copies of prescriptions in a timely manner.
                        <SU>259</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A time limitation for prescribers to respond to such requests would promote quicker responses and, in turn, allow patients to purchase contacts sooner.
                        <SU>260</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, because patients should have already received an initial copy of their prescriptions under § 315.3(a)(1), the Commission believes that a longer response period, such as the forty business hours recommended by the American Academy of Ophthalmology, is more appropriate.
                        <SU>261</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To complete the transaction sooner, a seller could instead verify the prescription with the prescriber in accordance with § 315.5. When evaluating a prescriber's compliance, the Commission would consider any extenuating circumstances that may have prevented a prescriber from providing the requested copy within forty business hours, including vacation or illness. To assist in monitoring compliance, the Commission believes that prescribers should be required to note the prescription requests and responses in patient records. Therefore, the Commission seeks comments on its proposed modification, including how much time prescribers should have to respond to a request and what records, if any, a prescriber must keep to document the request and response.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             As noted in the NPRM, patients can act as their own agent and request a duplicate copy of their prescription. NPRM, 81 FR at 88536.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>260</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS states that in 2016 it requested approximately 558,000 prescriptions from prescribers and received the prescription around 46% of the time. 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). Ninety percent of prescribers who responded provided the copy of the prescription within two calendar days. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             By contrast, a panelist stated that Walmart had been successful in obtaining a copy of the prescription within the same business day after calling the prescriber and did not believe that any requirement to respond was necessary. CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 20 (statements of Jennifer Sommer).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>261</SU>
                             (WS Comment #2971). If a patient who did not receive a prescription after completion of a contact lens fitting requests a copy at a later time, the prescriber must respond to this request immediately as required by § 315.3(a)(1). This would not be considered a request under § 315.3(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Additional Requirements for Sellers Using Automated Telephone Verification Messages</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the Commission discussed comments concerning sellers' use of calls with pre-recorded messages, including computer-generated messages (“automated telephone messages”), to communicate verification requests.
                        <SU>262</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Among other concerns with the verification process,
                        <SU>263</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         commenters stated that such automated messages were difficult to understand, were confusing, or did not provide all of the information required to be a valid request.
                        <SU>264</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In response, the Commission noted that the Act expressly permits telephone communication for verification and believed it would be contrary to Congressional intent to prohibit use of automated technology for the purpose of prescription verification.
                        <SU>265</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission emphasized, however, that all calls and messages must fully comply with applicable Rule requirements in order for the verification request to be valid.
                        <SU>266</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, requests delivered at a volume or cadence not capable of being understood by a reasonable person or missing required information would be invalid.
                        <SU>267</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission sought additional information on possible modifications to the Rule that, short of prohibition, could address prescribers' concerns related to automated telephone messages.
                        <SU>268</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>262</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88538-39.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>263</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88537-45.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>264</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88538-39.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>265</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 88540; Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR 40489.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>266</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             An invalid verification request does not commence the eight-business-hour period. Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR at 40497. Sellers must also comply with all state and federal statutes and regulations relating to automated telephone calls and messages, since neither the Act nor the Rule preempts other such requirements in this context.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>267</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR at 40490 (stating that to qualify as a “completed” verification message under the Rule, a communication by telephone would require either directly reaching and speaking with the intended recipient or “clearly leaving a voice message on the telephone answering machine of the intended recipient setting forth all of the required information.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>268</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88541.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Issues With Automated Telephone Verification Messages</HD>
                    <P>
                        In response, the Commission received many comments concerning automated telephone messages. Some commenters viewed such messages as an efficient method of transmitting verification requests,
                        <SU>269</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while others stated that incomplete or incomprehensible messages were common, which burdened prescribers' businesses and posed health risks to patients who might receive incorrect lenses.
                        <SU>270</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commenters also expressed concerns that: (1) The Rule does not specify how an automated telephone verification request must be communicated or structured; 
                        <SU>271</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (2) a prescriber who receives an automated message may not have an opportunity to seek clarification; 
                        <SU>272</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (3) automated telephone messages do not provide sufficient records for monitoring compliance.
                        <SU>273</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One commenter, the National Association of Optometrists and Opticians, proposed adding requirements to the Rule that would specify how telephone verification messages would occur and what records would be maintained, including requiring that the seller's name be provided, the communication be delivered in a cadence, pronunciation, and volume that a reasonable English-speaking person could understand, and the recording be preserved if the telephone call contained a pre-recorded message.
                        <SU>274</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>269</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207); National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment # 3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>270</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fuller (WS Comment #531); Wheadon (WS #648); Wright (WS #743); Jolly (WS #790); Swanson (WS Comment #868); McKee (WS Comment #1290); Fandry (WS Comment #1458); Hill (WS Comment #1755); Gibson (WS Comment #1889); Hemler (WS Comment #2312); Doyle (WS Comment #2657); Tan (WS Comment #3108); Hosaka (WS Comment #3137); McCaslin (WS Comment #3228); Yu-Davis (WS Comment #3410); Burke (WS Comment #3439); CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8, 15.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>271</SU>
                             American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (WS #3142); Consumers Union (NPRM #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>272</SU>
                             Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>273</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.;</E>
                             Health Care Alliance for Patient Safety (WS Comment #3206); CooperVision, Inc. (NPRM Comment #3841).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>274</SU>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="24685"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Analysis and Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        Congress included the verification process in an effort to balance the interests of consumer health and prescription portability.
                        <SU>275</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although telephone is a common method of verification,
                        <SU>276</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission does not have empirical data showing the frequency of incomplete or incomprehensible automated telephone messages 
                        <SU>277</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or that a phone call with an automated message is necessarily less reliable than one with a live person.
                        <SU>278</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the Commission recognizes the burden on prescribers 
                        <SU>279</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and potential health risk to patients 
                        <SU>280</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         from incomplete or incomprehensible automated telephone messages.
                        <SU>281</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prescribers have an important role in safeguarding the health of their patients, and improper use of contact lenses could be harmful.
                        <SU>282</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An effective verification process relies on prescribers being able to understand the automated messages and, if necessary, respond to sellers to prevent improper sales.
                        <SU>283</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>275</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88543.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>276</SU>
                             One seller makes approximately 100,000 automated-verification calls per week. 1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8 (statements of Tim Steinemann that most of the requests to his office are received by fax, but that automated calls are also used).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>277</SU>
                             The Commission has received many anecdotal comments from eye-care prescribers mentioning difficulties with understanding automated telephone calls. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 270; CooperVision, Inc. (WS Comment #3077). One eye-care provider estimated that the verification request error rate ranged from 25% to 60%. CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8-9 (statements of Tim Steinemann). However, this rate included errors unrelated to incomplete or incomprehensible automated telephone calls, such as use of expired prescriptions or calls to the incorrect doctor. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Other commenters do not believe that automated phone calls pose a significant burden. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208) (“From our members' general perspective, there are only a few issues with the use of automated calls, which tend to be infrequent to any particular prescriber's office”). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (NPRM Comment #3898) (based on its internal data, the average prescriber receives one telephone verification request per week, which lasts 101 to 149 seconds); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969) (“[I]t does not appear that the incidence of these automated-verification calls is high enough to constitute a significant burden.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>278</SU>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207) (“Requiring live agents to read the entire verification request would only increase costs and lower compliance without any offsetting benefits to consumers.”); Consumers Union (NPRM Comment # 3969) (“Eye doctor offices should now be familiar with the Rule, and able to recognize these automated calls and deal effectively with them. It should generally take the eye doctor's office no more time and effort to respond to an automated call or recording than to a live call from an employee of the retailer, or a recording of such a live call.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>279</SU>
                             CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 9 (statements of Tim Steinemann saying that he could spend twenty or thirty minutes reviewing a verification request when there are discrepancies).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>280</SU>
                             Coalition for Patient Vision Care Safety (NPRM Comment #3883).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>281</SU>
                             Some commenters have encouraged the Commission to prohibit automated telephone messages from being used for verification requests or allow prescribers to select a preferred method. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Health Care Alliance for Patient Safety (WS Comment #3206); Coalition for Patient Vision Care Safety (NPRM Comment #3883); Johnson &amp; Johnson Vision Care, Inc. (NPRM Comment #4327). However, for the reasons stated in the NPRM, the Commission declines to restrict sellers from using automated telephone messages. NPRM, 81 FR at 88540-41.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>282</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296); Tan (WS Comment #3108); Hopkins (WS Comment #3235); Coalition for Patient Vision Care Safety (NPRM Comment #3883); The Optometric Physicians of Washington (NPRM Comment #4145); Indiana Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4233). 
                            <E T="03">See infra</E>
                             note 327 (discussing the potential health risks related to improper contact lens use).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>283</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296) (stating that “the reliability of this system depends entirely on the accuracy and completeness of the transmission of the verification request and the ready availability to the prescriber of effective means for responding to the request if the request is either incomplete or the purported prescription is invalid”); CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8 (statements of Tim Steinemann) (“Many of those robocalls are unintelligible or cut off. We have no way of responding or even verifying the information.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on comments received and staff's experience reviewing a number of automated-verification messages, the Commission believes that to improve the verification process, § 315.5 of the Rule should be amended to require that if a seller verifies a prescription through calls that use, in whole or in part, an automated message, it must: (1) Record the entire call; 
                        <SU>284</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (2) commence the call by identifying it as a request for a prescription verification; (3) provide the information required by § 315.5(b) in a slow and deliberate manner and at a reasonably understandable volume; 
                        <SU>285</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (4) give the prescriber the option to repeat this information. These changes will help prescribers better recognize and understand verification requests made with automatic telephone messages and reduce their burden, allow consumers to receive the correct lenses more quickly, and provide the Commission with a way to monitor sellers' compliance with the Rule.
                        <SU>286</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Importantly, a verification request made using a call with an automated telephone message that does not meet the proposed requirements would be considered an invalid request.
                        <SU>287</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the Commission seeks comments on its proposed modification, including the feasibility of recording the entire call and making the message repeatable at the prescriber's option.
                        <SU>288</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>284</SU>
                             Sellers must record the actual calls that occurred and not simply the electronic copies of the automated messages that should have been played. If, for instance, a prescriber's office hangs up in the middle of an automated message, the recording should capture this.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>285</SU>
                             Section 315.2 would be modified to add definitions of “reasonably understandable volume” and “slow and deliberate manner.” These requirements are consistent with prior FTC guidance, which noted that automated telephone messages must be delivered at a volume and cadence that a reasonable person can understand. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FTC, FTC Facts for Business, Complying with the Contact Lens Rule at 6 (Aug. 2005), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/plain-language/bus63-complying-contact-lens-rule.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>286</SU>
                             The Commission also proposes modifying § 315.5 to require that sellers maintain these recordings, similar to other records, for at least three years.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>287</SU>
                             In some situations, a seller may not realize that its request is invalid. To prevent dispensing potentially incorrect lenses, the Commission encourages prescribers to contact sellers, when possible, to inform them of invalid verification requests. NPRM, 81 FR at 88540-41. For incomplete requests, the Commission encourages prescribers, to the extent possible, to provide the missing information to sellers. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>288</SU>
                             The Commission notes that some states require two-party consent to record telephone calls and that determining compliance with state law taping requirements is the responsibility of the seller. Since the Rule permits verification requests to be made via live telephone call, email, and fax, sellers who face obstacles related to these requirements have other options.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Seller Alteration of Contact Lens Prescriptions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FCLCA's clear purpose is to provide contact lens consumers with their prescriptions so they can shop at the seller of their choice. However, the FCLCA requires sellers to sell lenses “only in accordance with a contact lens prescription” and prohibits sellers from altering contact lens prescriptions.
                        <SU>289</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the Act, a consumer's ability to shop and a seller's ability to sell only extends to the lens prescribed by an eye- care prescriber, or an identical contact lens.
                        <SU>290</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Rule follows the Act on its prohibition of contact lens alteration.
                        <SU>291</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>289</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7603.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>290</SU>
                             Contact Lens Rule, 69 FR at 40503.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>291</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(e); 
                            <E T="03">see also id.</E>
                             315.5(a) (indicating that a “seller may sell contact lenses only in accordance with a contact lens prescription[]”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In previously assessing the issue of alteration in the NPRM,
                        <SU>292</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission reviewed comments received in response to the FTC's 2015 Request for Comment about illegal alteration and a 2015 online survey submitted by Johnson &amp; Johnson Vision Care, Inc. that purportedly showed a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24686"/>
                        high incidence of illegal alterations.
                        <SU>293</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For reasons detailed in the NPRM, the Commission could not rely on that survey.
                        <SU>294</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the Rule already prohibited alteration and the Commission did not receive reliable empirical evidence on the frequency of illegal alterations, the Commission concluded that no changes were necessary, but indicated that it would review evidence of illegal substitutions and investigate as appropriate.
                        <SU>295</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>292</SU>
                             Alteration can occur in a number of ways. One way would be for a seller who is presented with a copy of a prescription to substitute another brand for that specified on the prescription. Another way would be for a seller to submit a verification request for a brand listed on a prescription, but fill the prescription with another brand of lenses following verification. A third way would be for a seller to submit a brand for verification other than what is listed on a patient's prescription.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>293</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88551-52.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>294</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>295</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Comments</HD>
                    <P>In response to the NPRM and the workshop notice, the Commission received numerous detailed comments describing instances of, and adverse outcomes arising from, illegal substitutions. Commission staff also re-examined its complaint database and engaged in its own review of websites offering contact lenses for sale. As a result, the Commission is reconsidering its earlier determination.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many manufacturers, prescribers, and optometry groups—through written comments and at the FTC's workshop examining the Rule and the marketplace—expressed strong support for the continued prohibition of prescription alteration. These entities noted that contact lenses are classified as restricted medical devices regulated by the FDA,
                        <SU>296</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are not interchangeable, and should not be treated as commodities.
                        <SU>297</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenters were emphatic about the need for a contact lens fitting performed by an eye-care prescriber,
                        <SU>298</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         resulting in a prescription listing the manufacturer or brand of the selected lens.
                        <SU>299</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Contact Lens Institute, an association of contact lens manufacturers, explained that a contact lens fitting must be the basis for the initial and ongoing prescription and wear of contact lenses and “because a contact lens is placed directly on the eye, the physiological response [] must be monitored to ensure safe wear.” 
                        <SU>300</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Dr. Malvina Eydelman of the FDA explained that different brands of lenses, even those with the same technical measurements, such as base curve and diameter, do not fit the same and therefore need to be evaluated on the patient's eyes to determine whether they are appropriate for that patient.
                        <SU>301</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Dr. Eydelman's statement that “the current clinical care paradigm does not support substitution of contact lens brands without a clinical evaluation” bolsters the Commission's continued adherence to the Rule's prohibition on illegal alteration.
                        <SU>302</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>296</SU>
                             Health Care Alliance for Patient Safety (WS Comment #3206); Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296); Alcon (WS Comment #3339); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel II: Contact Lens Health and Safety Issues Tr. at 6 (Mar. 7, 2018) (statements of Malvina Eydelman explaining FDA regulation of contact lenses); 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_ii_contact_lens_health_and_safety_issues.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter CLR Panel II Tr.].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>297</SU>
                             Leung (WS Comment #1600); Ng (WS Comment #1753); Jones (WS Comment #3012); Johnson &amp; Johnson Vision Care, Inc. (WS Comment #2231); Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296); Ellenbecker (WS Comment #3357); Anderson (NPRM Comment #127); Boyer (NPRM Comment #2681); Henahan (NPRM Comment #3365).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>298</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CLR Panel II Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 296, at 11 (statements of Edward Chaum) (“[A]ll patients who wear contact lenses should have an appropriate contact lens fitting by an eye care professional.”); 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             at 13-14 (statements of Carol Lakkis discussing the importance of an evaluation after a lens has been worn for some time); FTC, The Contact Lens Rule and the Evolving Contact Lens Marketplace, Panel VI: Looking Ahead Tr. at 5 (statements of Peter Menziuso explaining a prescriber determines a brand based on the physiology, anatomy, and lifestyle of the patient, and the material, edge design, modality, optical zones, and wetting agent of the lens) 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/system/files/documents/public_events/1285493/panel_vi_looking_ahead.pdf</E>
                             [hereinafter CLR Panel VI Tr.]; Shepherd (WS Comment #483); McLemore (WS Comment #1270); McKee (WS Comment #1290); Ng (WS Comment #1753); Ballard (WS Comment #3027).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>299</SU>
                             The Rule defines a contact lens prescription to include the power, and the material or manufacturer or both, of the prescribed contact lens. 16 CFR 315.2. In practice, it appears many prescriptions list the manufacturer's brand, which refers to the entire device, and from which a seller can determine the manufacturer.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>300</SU>
                             Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>301</SU>
                             CLR Panel II Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 296, at 13.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>302</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel II Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 296, at 8. Dr. Eydelman also noted that additional research is needed to support clinical equivalency between lens brands. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Other panelists presented their views that greater substitution should be permitted or at least explored. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel VI Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 298, at 5-6. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             1-800 CONTACTS (WS Comment #3207) (brand selection is more about economics than physiology and consumers would benefit from greater brand choice).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        With some noting that this occurred frequently,
                        <SU>303</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         prescribers expressed concern that some patients were wearing different lenses than those they had prescribed, which they had not evaluated on their patients' eyes.
                        <SU>304</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many prescribers detailed harm that resulted from wearing unprescribed lenses, including headaches, corneal neovascularization, corneal ulcers, and other irreversible and vision threatening diagnoses.
                        <SU>305</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Others commented on the general risks that may result from wearing lenses that have not been fit by prescribers.
                        <SU>306</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Dr. Carol Lakkis of Johnson and Johnson Vision Care, Inc. stated that “finding the appropriate lenses for [patients'] eyes doesn't just provide them with overall comfort [ ], but more importantly, it can minimize the negative impact on their eye health.” 
                        <SU>307</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A number of state ophthalmology associations commented that “poorly fit lenses can cause corneal ulcers and infections resulting in permanent vision loss.” 
                        <SU>308</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24687"/>
                        comment, a version of which was submitted by approximately 1,000 commenters, many of whom were prescribers, implored the FTC to consider enforcement mechanisms or revisions to the Rule that address illegal substitutions.
                        <SU>309</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>303</SU>
                             McBride (WS Comment #659) (online retailers constantly switch lenses); A. McKee (WS Comment #730) (not uncommon); E. McKee (WS Comment #1290) (on a regular basis); Costabile (WS Comment #2320) (many violations); Kerns (WS Comment #2573) (three patients this week in non-prescribed brands); Heinke (WS Comment #2744) (hundreds over the last fifteen years); McGahen (WS Comment #2935) (“so many patients”); Ballard (WS Comment #3027) (constant); Plasner (WS Comment #3085) (frequent); Milner (WS Comment #3255) (common); Jankowski (WS Comment #3407) (dozens each year); Glazier (NPRM Comment #265) (weekly); Henahan (NPRM Comment #3365) (consistent and pervasive violation by filling prescriptions that have expired, by substituting contact lenses for another brand); McAleese (NPRM Comment #3383) (numerous patients over the past ten years with the wrong brand, parameters, or filled by using an expired prescription).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>304</SU>
                             Shepherd (WS Comment #483); Foutz (WS Comment #512); McVicker (WS Comment #517); Polizzi (WS Comment #519); Morse (WS Comment #536); Bernard (WS Comment #588); Sun (WS Comment #692); Larson (WS Comment #716); McKee (WS Comment #730); Gitchell (WS Comment #759); Dillehay (WS Comment #822); Nowakowski (WS Comment #827); Yoder (WS Comment #830); Molamphy (WS Comment #853); McKee (WS Comment #1290); Bandy Jr. (WS Comment #1593); Leung (WS Comment #1600); Mintchell (WS Comment #1705); Kendrick (WS Comment #1725); Ng (WS Comment #1753); Seyller (WS Comment #1797); McMahon (WS Comment #1868); Bowers (WS Comment #2291); Costabile (WS Comment #2320); Bearden (WS Comment #2685); McGahen (WS Comment #2935); Olson (WS Comment #2970); Ballard (WS Comment #3027); Raymondi (WS Comment #3090); Richmond (WS Comment #3255); Glazier (NPRM Comment #265); Luy (NPRM Comment #2051); Boyer (NPRM Comment #2681); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303, App. F) (including prescriber reports of sellers engaging in illegal alteration).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>305</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Gitchell (WS Comment #759) (discomfort and red eyes to patients needing corneal transplants); Molamphy (WS Comment #853) (blood vessels growing in cornea); Leung (WS Comment #1600) (harm); Mintchell (WS Comment #1705) (ocular problems); Kerns (WS Comment #2573) (three patients with significant corneal neovascularization); Bearden (WS Comment #2685) (irreversible and vision threatening); Heinke (WS Comment #2744) (headaches); McGahen (WS Comment #2935) (many patients with sight threatening corneal ulcers); Raymondi (WS Comment #3090) (red, dry eyes and blurry vision); White (WS Comment #3210) (sight threatening corneal ulcers); Theroux (WS Comment #3350) (corneal keratitis infection); Glazier (NPRM Comment #265) (infections); Boyer (NPRM Comment #2681). S
                            <E T="03">ee also</E>
                             American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303, App. F) (including prescriber reports of harm from, 
                            <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                             illegal alteration).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>306</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Johnson &amp; Johnson Vision Care, Inc. (WS Comment #555); McLemore (WS Comment #1270); Easton (WS Comment #1333); Dice (WS Comment #1585); Staab (Comment #1597); Roth (WS Comment #1806); Rodriguez (WS Comment #1807); Olson (WS Comment #2970); Ballard (WS Comment #3027); Plasner (WS Comment #3085).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>307</SU>
                             CLR Panel II Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 296, at 9.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>308</SU>
                             Indiana Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4233). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Pennsylvania Academy 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4214); Idaho Society of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4167); Florida Society of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4197); Oklahoma Academy of Ophthalmology (NPRM Comment #4204).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>309</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Wolfe (WS Comment #780); Whitaker (WS Comment #997); Carvell (WS Comment #1021); Pam Satjawatcharaphong (WS Comment #1030); Marler (WS Comment #1181); Brandenburg (WS Comment #1376); Fruchtman (WS Comment #1392); Bui (WS Comment #1562); Tashner (WS Comment #1594); Mintchell (WS Comment #1705); Engle (WS Comment #1721); Spivack (WS Comment #1778); Thau (WS Comment #1909); Yamamoto (WS Comment # 2053); Bloodgood (WS Comment #2200); Persson (WS Comment #2418); Hanna (WS Comment #2537); Sugianto (WS Comment #2546); Zellers (WS Comment #2559); Hom (WS Comment #2655).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Prescribers blamed third-party sellers,
                        <SU>310</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         those who sell their own brand of lenses direct-to-consumer,
                        <SU>311</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and online sellers more generally,
                        <SU>312</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as the primary sources of prescription alteration. Some asserted that certain sellers are only interested in their financial bottom line and not in their customers' eye health.
                        <SU>313</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, many prescribers complained that a number of sellers are not complying with—or are even abusing—the prescription verification process to unlawfully alter prescriptions and sell lenses that are not prescribed or not identical to those prescribed.
                        <SU>314</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A number of prescribers alleged that sellers of their own brand of lenses routinely rely on prescribers not responding to verification requests (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         passive verification) as part of their business model to “fill non-existent prescriptions with their own brand of generic lenses.” 
                        <SU>315</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition to these comments, other prescribers stated that they have never fit, and thus never would have prescribed, certain brands of lenses,
                        <SU>316</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and therefore consumers could only obtain them through seller alteration, either without any attempt at verification, or via passive verification.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>310</SU>
                             Some commenters refer to third-party sellers as the source of the problem, without specific reference to online sellers. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             McKee (WS Comment #1290); Bowers (WS Comment #2291); Costabile (WS Comment #2320); Plasner (WS Comment #3085).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>311</SU>
                             Brenden (WS Comment #600); Jones (WS Comment #644); Martorana (WS Comment #677); Sandberg (WS Comment #693); Cox (WS Comment #797); Marrotte (WS Comment #806); Young (Comment #812); Dillehay (WS Comment #822); Nowakowski (Comment #827); Derryberry (WS Comment #833); Alwes (Comment #998); Dugger (Comment #1238); Staab (Comment #1597); Leung (WS Comment #1600); Begeny-Mahan (WS Comment #1702); Ng (WS Comment #1753); Roth (WS Comment #1806); Rodriguez (WS Comment #1807); McMahon (WS Comment #1868); Steinhauser (Comment #1937); Olswing (WS Comment #2686); Weaver (Comment #2726); Ballard (WS Comment #3027); Nason (WS Comment #3086); Raymondi (WS Comment #3090); Tan (WS Comment #3108); Horibe (WS Comment #3242); Theroux (WS Comment #3350).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>312</SU>
                             Palys (WS Comment #560); McBride (WS Comment #659); Sun (WS Comment #692); McGrew (Comment #713); Larson (Comment #716); Marrotte (WS Comment #806); Branstetter (WS Comment #2235); Mintchell (WS Comment #1705); Kendrick (WS Comment #1725); Seyller (WS Comment #1797); Jones (WS Comment #3012); Bearden (WS Comment #2685); McGahen (WS Comment #2935); Olson (WS Comment #2970); Smith (WS Comment #3024); Nason (WS Comment #3086); White (WS Comment #3210); Szabo (WS Comment #3348); Bottjer (WS Comment #3378).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>313</SU>
                             McBride (WS Comment #659); Larson (WS Comment #716); McKee (WS Comment #1290); Plasner (WS Comment #3085); Nason (WS Comment #3086).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>314</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Sandberg (WS Comment #693); Swanson (WS Comment #868); Alwes (WS Comment #998); Dugger (WS Comment #1238); Hill (WS Comment #1755); Gibson (WS Comment #1889); Henry (WS Comment #2194); Wacker (WS Comment #2814); Nason (WS Comment #3086); Hosaka (WS Comment #3137); Contact Lens Institute (WS Comment #3296); Yu-Davis (WS Comment #3410); Scullawl (WS Comment #3492); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Rose (WS Comment #2841) (optician); Tan (WS Comment #3108) (staff in optometrist office).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>315</SU>
                             Silverman (WS Comment #805); Marrotte (WS Comment #806); Young (WS Comment #812); Koch (WS Comment #855); Alwes (WS Comment #998); Dugger (WS Comment #1238); Olswing (WS Comment #2686); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Dillehay (WS Comment #822) (stating one online supplier explained how they set up their business to use passive verification to switch lenses to their own brand).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>316</SU>
                             Vo (WS Comment #301); Yu-Davis (WS Comment #3410); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Cox (WS Comment #797) (“Almost no doctors fit these archaic lenses”); Derryberry (WS Comment #833) (“I do not know any physicians who prescribe these lenses.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Concerns about passive verification resulting in patients receiving contact lenses for which they have no prescription are not new, and were considered when Congress passed the FCLCA 
                        <SU>317</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and in the NPRM in 2016.
                        <SU>318</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         What is new, however, is the emergence of business models that rely exclusively, or almost exclusively, on passive verification as a means to substitute their own brand of daily contact lenses. Under these business models, sellers advertise directly to consumers, often through Facebook or other social media platforms,
                        <SU>319</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and often sell their lenses through subscription services. Several of these companies sell one type of lens only, made from a single material, with one modality, base curve, and diameter.
                        <SU>320</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some consumers who have been prescribed toric lenses for astigmatism or multifocal lenses have ordered and received lenses from these sellers, unaware at the time they order that the sellers do not offer appropriate lenses for them.
                        <SU>321</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The only information some sellers request from consumers about their contact lens prescription is the desired power(s) of the lenses, and the websites for some do not include a mechanism for consumers to upload their actual prescription. Rather, these sellers ask consumers to provide prescriber information and represent that they will check with, or verify, the prescription with the prescriber.
                        <SU>322</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Sellers may then contact the prescriber with a verification request that includes the power of the consumer's lenses, but substitutes the seller-manufacturer's name as the brand of lens.
                        <SU>323</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Should a prescriber fail to invalidate such a verification request within eight business hours (as dictated by the Rule), the seller may believe it is authorized to ship that month's lenses, and subsequent subscription orders for a year or two, depending on state prescription expiration limits.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>317</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Howard Beales, Federal Trade Commission); 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             (statements of J. Pat Cummings, American Optometric Association) (“And the problem with passive verification is that people will get contact lenses without a prescription.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>318</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR at 88543.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>319</SU>
                             McVicker (WS Comment #517) (explaining that she ordered contact lenses for the first time after seeing an ad on Facebook); McMahon (WS Comment #1868) (stating that patient heard about seller on Facebook).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>320</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             McMahon (WS Comment #1868) (stating one seller sells only one lens with one material, one base curve, one diameter, and one replacement schedule).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>321</SU>
                             Approximately 16% of contact lens wearers wear toric lenses, with another 12% wearing multifocal lenses. Vision Council, U.S. Optical Market Eyewear Overview 11 (2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/sites/default/files/filefield_paths/steve_kodey_ppt_presentation.pdf. See also</E>
                             Easton (WS Comment #1333) (changing from a toric lens to a spherical lens can give eyestrain, headaches, and poor vision).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>322</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             McVicker (WS Comment #517) (consumer stating checkout form indicated seller would check with optometrist to verify prescription).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>323</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Silverman (WS Comment #805) (substitution to “generic” lenses occurring via passive verification); Marrotte (WS Comment #806) (same); Koch (Comment #855) (same); Alwes (WS Comment #998) (same); Dugger (WS Comment #1238) (same); Olswing (WS Comment #2686) (same); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Dillehay (WS Comment #822) (stating one online supplier explained how it set up its business to use passive verification to switch lenses to its own brand).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is concerned about the misuse of passive verification to substitute a different brand and manufacturer of lenses. If a seller knows or should know that a verification request includes a different brand and manufacturer than that prescribed by the prescriber, the verification request is not valid and does not commence the eight-business-hour verification period.
                        <SU>324</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In such circumstances, the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24688"/>
                        seller is not selling contact lenses “in accordance with a contact lens prescription.” 
                        <SU>325</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The purpose of passive verification under the Act was “to ensure that consumers are not caught in the competitive tug-of-war between doctors and third party sellers for the sale of contact lenses.” 
                        <SU>326</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The tug-of-war referred to was over the sale of the prescribed lens, not over which party would determine the brand of lens consumers should wear. Any attempt to substitute another lens, including a seller's own brand, for the prescribed lens thwarts the purpose of the Act, which is to allow sellers to sell contact lenses as prescribed by the consumer's eye-care provider. Although the Commission has anecdotal reports of eye injury to patients from wearing lenses that were not prescribed for them, the Commission does not have definitive evidence of the incidence of such injury.
                        <SU>327</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>324</SU>
                             If the seller is relying on information provided by the consumer in response to a request that the consumer provide the manufacturer or brand listed on the consumer's prescription, and the consumer provides inaccurate information, the verification 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            request would be inaccurate, and the prescriber would be obligated to correct the inaccuracy. 16 CFR 315.5(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>325</SU>
                             16 CFR 315.5(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>326</SU>
                             H.R. Rep. No. 108-318, at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>327</SU>
                             Some reports in the literature suggest that purchasing contact lenses from unregulated sources, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             sources that would not include a contact lens fitting, may be a risk factor for microbial keratitis and other serious adverse events, but these reports fail to control for various confounding factors. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Graeme Young et al., “Review of Complications Associated With Contact Lenses From Unregulated Sources of Supply,” 40(1) Eye &amp; Contact Lens 58, 62 (2014) (most risk factors noted in case reports were absence of lens fitting and education concerning usage and hygiene); William H. Schweizer et al., “The European Contact Lens Forum (ECLF)—The Results of the CLEER-Project,” 34 Contact Lens Anterior Eye, 293, 295 (unregulated sourcing of plano contact lenses resulted in more cases of corneal staining, corneal neovascularization, and vision threatening signs). At the contact lens workshop, experts disputed whether countries with less stringent contact lens regulations experienced more serious adverse events related to contact lens wear as compared to countries with more stringent regulations, such as the United States. 
                            <E T="03">Compare</E>
                             CLR Panel II Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 296, at 10 (statements of Carrol Lakkis that unregulated Asian markets have higher rates of infection), 
                            <E T="03">with id.</E>
                             at 16 (statements of Edward Chaum that “in countries in which FDA regulations do not exist, and they are less regulated, the incidence is the same”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Analysis and Proposals</HD>
                    <P>
                        Although the Commission does not possess systematic empirical evidence of the full extent of this type of illegal substitution,
                        <SU>328</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         it believes such activity is growing quickly and is large enough to merit action. Moreover, the Commission is aware that more sellers have been entering the market to sell their own brands of lenses directly to consumers, and this, along with the large number of complaints and anecdotal reports of instances of alteration by online sellers—some of which describe vision-threatening injuries—necessitate modifications to the Rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>328</SU>
                             At the workshop, Dr. Steinemann presented an informal survey, finding error rates in prescription verification requests ranging from 25% to 60% depending on the office. CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8-9. The greatest inaccuracy, according to Dr. Steinemann, was for expired prescriptions, though this survey also captured inaccurate prescriptions. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Although informative anecdotally, the Commission cannot rely on such a small informal sample as empirical evidence of the prevalence of illegal alteration. The Commission also cannot rely on the survey results submitted by the American Optometric Association in which some of its members responded to the following question: “How many of your patients do you believe are obtaining lenses from internet retailers after the prescription has expired or are obtaining lenses that are different from what has been prescribed?,” as empirical evidence. American Optometric Association (WS Comment #3303, App. B). First, prescriber entries of “zero,” “1-10,” “11-20,” “21-30,” “31+,” and “no value” give no indication of what percentage of the prescriber's patients are believed to have experienced issues; also, these results are not time limited so it is not clear if the numbers provided are within the last year or some other period. In addition, the question combines the issues of obtaining lenses with expired prescriptions and obtaining lenses that were different from the prescribed lenses; accordingly, the Commission cannot isolate the prevalence of the practice of substitutions to different lenses. Further, even if the prescriber was referring to alteration, the question refers to lenses “different from” the prescribed lens, and it is unclear whether a lens purchased that is identical to the prescribed lens would be included in the results, and thus whether the results may include permissible alterations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters recommended fundamentally restructuring the Rule's prescription verification framework to close passive verification loopholes that allow lenses to be dispensed without a valid prescription.
                        <SU>329</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This recommendation fails to recognize that the verification framework is prescribed in the FCLCA. Moreover, the Commission believes that it can address some of the concerns about selling lenses without a prescription without making changes to the verification framework itself. Aside from the modifications related to calls that use automated messages discussed in Section VI in this SNPRM, for the reasons discussed in the NPRM,
                        <SU>330</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the Commission is not proposing changes to the verification framework.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>329</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Northsight Vision Care Center (WS Comment #1196) (proposing an end to passive verification, and instead requiring that patients provide sellers with a copy of their prescription); Golden (WS Comment #1353) (“need to move from a passive verification process to an active one where contact lenses can not [
                            <E T="03">sic</E>
                            ] be sold unless approved by a doctor”); American Society of Cataract and Refractive Surgery (WS Comment #3142) (extending the eight-business-hour time-period for passive verification to five business days).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>330</SU>
                             NPRM, 81 FR 88537-45.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission is concerned with what appears to be the use of prescription verification to change consumers from their prescribed lens to another brand of lens entirely. Therefore, the Commission proposes two amendments to the Rule, which should increase prescription presentation to sellers and decrease the number of invalid verification requests made to prescribers.
                        <SU>331</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Both further the purpose and intent of the Act.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>331</SU>
                             The Commission evaluated the recommendation from Johnson and Johnson Vision Care, Inc. that it stated would ensure patients continue to receive the exact lenses prescribed by their eye doctors. Johnson and Johnson Vision Care, Inc. (WS Comment #2231). It requested that the Commission clarify the current definition of contact lens prescription to make it clear that a prescription must include both the brand and the manufacturer. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The manufacturer did not explain how the current requirement that a prescription include the material or manufacturer or both is inadequate, and the Commission does not see how such a modification would alleviate the occurrence of illegal alteration for an order where a seller does not present a copy of the prescription and instead, makes a passive verification request.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Seller Requirement To Accept Prescription Presentation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The first proposed modification, adding a paragraph (g) to § 315.5, requires sellers to provide a clear and prominent method for the patient to present the seller with a copy of the patient's prescription.
                        <SU>332</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such method may include, without limitation, electronic mail, text message, file upload, or facsimile. This proposal would address prescriber and manufacturer concerns by increasing the number of patients who present online sellers with their prescriptions rather than relying on verification. Indeed, one commenter noted that the verification process is intended to be a “back-up, failsafe means for a retailer to ascertain the accuracy of a prescription . . . in the absence of having an actual copy of the prescription.” 
                        <SU>333</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other commenters noted that if more consumers possess their prescriptions, verifications will decrease.
                        <SU>334</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         But this can only occur if patients can present their prescriptions. While the majority of online sellers currently facilitate patient presentation of a prescription (and may even encourage it), some sellers do not request or even allow it. Their reliance solely on verification defeats the intent of the Act and Rule by limiting patient choice, by making it more likely that patients will receive lenses for which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24689"/>
                        they do not have a prescription, and by disproportionately increasing the Act's burden on prescribers. Although the Commission cannot require that sellers obtain a copy of a prescription in lieu of verification, should a patient (or prescriber) provide a seller with a prescription for a lens other than, and not identical to, the lens ordered, the seller would thereby be on notice that the patient does not have a prescription for the lens ordered and thus should not, in connection with that order, attempt to verify any lens other than what is, or is identical to, that listed on the prescription. This amendment should thereby reduce the incidences of verification attempts for a non-prescribed lens and the burden on prescribers of responding to such verification requests. As an added benefit, the requirement to allow prescription presentation will also ensure patient choice and flexibility, and enable patients to receive their lenses more rapidly than they would via the verification method.
                        <SU>335</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>332</SU>
                             The amendment would also allow a prescriber to upload a prescription.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>333</SU>
                             Consumers Union (NPRM Comment #3969).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>334</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             National Association of Optometrists and Opticians (WS Comment #3208); Costco Wholesale Corporation (NPRM Comment #4281); CLR Panel V Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 50, at 9 (statements of David Cockrell that it would absolutely reduce the number of verifications, but would not eliminate them, since patients often lose their prescription copies).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>335</SU>
                             Such prescription presentation can also benefit sellers who can avoid costs associated with prescription verification.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Seller Requirement To Verify Only the Contact Lens Brand or Manufacturer That Consumers Indicate Is on Their Prescriptions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The second proposed modification targets concerns about prescription verification more directly. The proposed modification of § 315.5(f) would define alteration to include a seller's providing, as part of a verification request, a prescriber with a manufacturer other than that specified on a patient's prescription. The proposal includes an exception, however, for when a seller provides a manufacturer that a patient provided to the seller, either on the order form or orally in response to a request for the manufacturer or brand listed on the prescription. In other words, to avail themselves of the exception, sellers must ask their customers to provide the manufacturer or brand listed on their prescription.
                        <SU>336</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A seller would not be able to avail itself of the exception by relying on a prepopulated or preselected box, or customers' online searches for a particular manufacturer or brand, as a representation that they have a prescription for that manufacturer or brand. A seller not covered under the exception discussed above who makes a verification request containing a manufacturer other than, and not identical to, one the consumer has indicated is on his or her prescription, violates the Rule, even if a prescriber subsequently invalidates the request and the lenses are never sold.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>336</SU>
                             The Rule proposal permits sellers to ask for a brand or a manufacturer, as a consumer may know only the brand, and not the manufacturer, of the prescribed lens. In its verification request, the seller should provide the prescriber with the manufacturer of the lens as required by 16 CFR 315.5(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Although the proposed amendment is not a fail-safe in avoiding all instances of alteration, it should reduce the instances of sellers altering a consumer's contact lens brand through prescription verification. If the consumer responds to the seller's inquiry by providing a manufacturer or brand other than that on his or her prescription,
                        <SU>337</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         whether intentionally or not, the seller would not violate the Rule by indicating that manufacturer on a verification request.
                        <SU>338</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, the passive verification framework could allow a consumer to obtain lenses other than those prescribed.
                        <SU>339</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress, however, was aware of this risk when opting for a passive verification framework for the Act.
                        <SU>340</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>337</SU>
                             If consumers wish to try a different brand of contact lenses than that listed on their prescriptions, sellers can encourage those consumers to contact a prescriber.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>338</SU>
                             It is not clear to what extent consumers realize they may be ordering a different contact lens than the one prescribed. Indeed, one optometrist commented that patients who come in wearing non-prescribed lenses do not understand they purchased something different from what they tried in the office and “probably don't even realize the specificity of a contact lens prescription.” Gitchell (WS Comment #759). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             Begeny-Mahan (WS Comment #1702) (stating one seller is especially noted for not informing patients that the lenses they are ordering are a substitute for the lens on their written prescriptions). Seller statements that it will check the prescription information with, or verify the prescription information with, consumers' doctors may lead consumers to believe that their prescribers will actively approve the lens ordered, which is not necessarily the case. The Commission will work to provide consumers with greater education on the Rule's passive verification framework.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>339</SU>
                             If a consumer wishes to obtain a contact lens that was not prescribed, there is little the Commission can do other than rely on the prescriber to invalidate the request. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 21 (statements of Jennifer Sommer that she is not sure there is a control that can be put in place for these types of consumers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>340</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FCLCA Subcomm. Hearing, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 15 (statements of Howard Beales, Federal Trade Commission); 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             (statements of J. Pat Cummings, American Optometric Association) (“And the problem with passive verification is that people will get contact lenses without a prescription.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission does not propose a recordkeeping requirement for sellers in conjunction with its proposal to amend the alteration provision of the Rule. However, should a seller wish to avail itself of the defense that the consumer provided the name of a different, non-identical, manufacturer than that prescribed, the seller will have the burden of producing evidence to support its claim.
                        <SU>341</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission seeks comment on its proposals to enable patients to present prescriptions to sellers and to require sellers to limit verification requests to manufacturers or brands that consumers have indicated are on their prescriptions as ways to reduce the incidence of illegal alterations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>341</SU>
                             The Commission declines to prescribe the manner in which sellers collect or maintain this information. However, examples of evidence the Commission would find convincing include: (1) If the consumer provides the name of the manufacturer or brand on the order form, a screenshot of the order page or an email or other electronic exchange of information; and (2) if the consumer states the manufacturer or brand orally, an audio recording of the statement, or a notation of the manufacturer or brand provided, the name of the seller's representative who obtained the statement, and the date and time of the statement.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Request for Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before July 29, 2019. Write “Contact Lens Rule, 16 CFR part 315, Project No. R511995” on the comment. Your comment, including your name and your state, will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comment online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by following the instructions on the web-based form.
                    </P>
                    <P>If you file your comment on paper, write “Contact Lens Rule, 16 CFR part 315, Project No. R511995,” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite CC-5610 (Annex B), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW, 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex B), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, please submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.</P>
                    <P>
                        Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24690"/>
                        information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential,” as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2), including in particular competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comments to be withheld from the public record. Your comment will be kept confidential only if the FTC General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Once your comment has been posted publicly at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         we cannot redact or remove your comment from the FTC website, unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Visit the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov</E>
                         to read this document and the news release describing it. The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before July 29, 2019. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission invites members of the public to comment on any issues or concerns they believe are relevant or appropriate to the Commission's consideration of proposed amendments to the Rule. The Commission requests you provide factual data, and in particular, empirical data, upon which your comments are based. In addition to the issues raised above, the Commission solicits public comment on the costs and benefits to industry members and consumers of each of the proposals as well as the specific questions identified below. These questions are designed to assist the public and should not be construed as a limitation on the issues on which public comment may be submitted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Questions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Questions on Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>To maximize the benefits and minimize the costs for prescribers and sellers (including small businesses), the Commission seeks views and data on the following general questions for each of the proposed changes described in this SNPRM:</P>
                    <P>1. What benefits would a proposed change confer and on whom? </P>
                    <P>The Commission in particular seeks information on any benefits a change would confer on consumers of contact lenses.</P>
                    <P>2. What costs or burdens would a proposed change impose and on whom?</P>
                    <P>The Commission in particular seeks information on any burdens a change would impose on small businesses.</P>
                    <P>3. What regulatory alternatives to the proposed changes are available that would reduce the burdens of the proposed changes while providing the same benefits?</P>
                    <P>4. What additional information, tools, or guidance might the Commission provide to assist industry in meeting extant or proposed requirements efficiently?</P>
                    <P>5. What evidence supports your answers?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Electronic Delivery of Prescriptions</HD>
                    <P>1. The Commission believes that providing patients with a digital copy of their prescription, in lieu of a paper copy, would satisfy the automatic prescription-release requirement (§ 315.3(a)(1)) if the patient gives verifiable affirmative consent and is able to access, download, and print the prescription. The Commission seeks comment on the benefits or the burdens that the option to provide electronic delivery of prescriptions would confer.</P>
                    <P>2. Would prescribers choose to satisfy the automatic prescription-release requirement through electronic delivery if permitted by the Rule?</P>
                    <P>3. Would a patient portal, email, or text message be feasible methods for prescribers to provide digital copies of prescriptions to patients? Are prescribers using any other electronic methods to provide patients with prescriptions?</P>
                    <P>4. Should prescribers be required to keep any records documenting a patient's verifiable affirmative consent to receive the prescription electronically? If yes, what records should be kept and for how long? Should the documentation specify the electronic method(s) by which the patient has agreed to receive the prescription?</P>
                    <P>5. What evidence supports your responses?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Confirmation of Prescription Release</HD>
                    <P>1. Would the proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release provision increase, decrease, or have no effect on compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? Why?</P>
                    <P>2. Compared to the Commission's prior proposal for a signed acknowledgment, would the proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release provision have more, less, or about the same effect on compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? Why?</P>
                    <P>3. Would the proposed requirement that prescribers would have to maintain evidence of the Confirmation of Prescription Release for at least three years increase, decrease, or have no effect on the Commission's ability to enforce, and monitor compliance with, the Rule's automatic prescription release provision? Why?</P>
                    <P>4. Compared to the Commission's prior proposal for a signed acknowledgment, would the proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release provision have more, less, or about the same effect on the Commission's ability to enforce, and monitor compliance with, the Rule's automatic prescription release provision? Why?</P>
                    <P>5. Would the proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement increase, decrease, or have no effect on the extent to which patients understand their rights under the Rule? Why?</P>
                    <P>
                        6. Compared to the Commission's prior proposal for a signed acknowledgment, would the requirement of Confirmation of Prescription Release have more, less, or about the same effect on the extent to which patients understand their rights under the Rule? Why?
                        <PRTPAGE P="24691"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>7. Does the new proposal to allow prescribers to choose from different delivery methods for the Confirmation of Prescription Release increase, decrease, or have no effect on compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? Why?</P>
                    <P>8. Does the new proposal to allow prescribers to devise their own language for the Confirmation of Prescription Release increase, decrease, or have no effect on compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? Why?</P>
                    <P>9. Does the new proposal to allow prescribers to satisfy the Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement by (when expressly consented to by the patient) releasing a digital copy of the prescription to the patient, such as via online portal, electronic mail, or text message increase, decrease, or have no effect on compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? Why?</P>
                    <P>10. Does the new proposal to allow prescribers to satisfy the Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement by (when expressly consented to by the patient) releasing a digital copy of the prescription to the patient, such as via online portal, electronic mail, or text message increase, decrease, or have no effect on the extent to which patients understand their rights under the Rule? Why?</P>
                    <P>11. Does the new proposal to allow prescribers to choose from different delivery methods and devise their own language for the Confirmation of Prescription Release increase, decrease, or have no effect on the burden placed on prescribers? Why?</P>
                    <P>12. If prescribers choose to comply with the Confirmation of Prescription Release provision by providing a digital copy of the prescription (if the patient gives verifiable affirmative consent), what costs or burdens are associated with retaining evidence that the prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable, and printable?</P>
                    <P>13. Compared to the Commission's prior proposal for a signed acknowledgment, does the new proposed Confirmation of Prescription Release increase, decrease, or place about the same burden on prescribers? Why?</P>
                    <P>14. Do the potential benefits of the Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement—having more patients in possession of their prescription—outweigh the burden on prescribers of having to provide patients with a Confirmation of Prescription Release and preserve a record for three years? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>15. What other factors should the Commission consider to lower the cost and improve the reliability of executing, storing, and retrieving Confirmations of Prescription Release?</P>
                    <P>16. Are there alternate ways that the Commission has not yet considered in this Rule review to design a signed acknowledgment or Confirmation of Prescription Release requirement that would reduce the burden on prescribers while providing the same, or greater, benefits for consumers? What are they and how do they compare to the current proposal?</P>
                    <P>17. Are there alternate ways that the Commission has not yet considered in this Rule review to increase compliance with the Rule's requirement that patients receive a copy of their contact lens prescription after the completion of the contact lens fitting? What are they and how do they compare to the current proposal?</P>
                    <P>18. Are there alternate ways that the Commission has not yet considered in its Rule review to increase the Commission's ability to enforce, and monitor compliance with, the Rule's automatic prescription release provision? What are they and how do they compare to the current proposal?</P>
                    <P>19. Are there alternate ways that the Commission has not yet considered in its Rule review to increase the extent to which patients understand their rights under the Rule? What are they and how do they compare to the current proposal?</P>
                    <P>20. Under the Commission's proposal, the confirmation of prescription release and the accompanying recordkeeping provision shall not apply to prescribers who do not have a direct or indirect financial interest in the sale of contact lenses, including, but not limited to, through an association, affiliation, or co-location with a contact lens seller. Aside from associations, affiliations, and co-locations with contact lens sellers, what other indirect financial interests exist in the sale of contact lenses that should disqualify a prescriber from the proposed exemption?</P>
                    <P>21. How do contact lens manufacturers compete for consumer business? Do they compete directly for consumers or compete to have eye-care prescribers prescribe their lenses? To what extent do eye-care prescribers choose to prescribe primarily one manufacturer's contact lenses based on financial considerations?</P>
                    <P>22. What evidence supports your answers?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Prescriber Responses to Requests for an Additional Copy of a Prescription</HD>
                    <P>1. The Commission believes that the Act requires that prescribers provide additional copies of contact lens prescriptions to authorized agents of patients. Should the Commission require that prescribers respond to such requests within a certain period of time?</P>
                    <P>2. Would forty business hours, which the Commission proposes, be an appropriate amount of time to respond to a request for an additional copy of a prescription?</P>
                    <P>3. Should a prescriber be required to keep any records to document the request and response? If yes, what records should be kept and for how long?</P>
                    <P>4. What evidence supports your responses?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Automated Telephone Verification Messages</HD>
                    <P>1. The Commission believes that allowing calls that use automated messages for verification requests is consistent with the Act. To address concerns with incomplete and incomprehensible automated messages, the Commission proposes additional requirements for sellers. What benefits or burdens would each proposal involving automated telephone verification messages confer?</P>
                    <P>2. Would each of the proposed modifications address the concerns raised by prescribers about incomprehensible or incomplete automated messages? If so, how?</P>
                    <P>3. When using an automated message for a verification request, what are the costs and burdens to sellers of meeting each of the proposed requirements, especially recording the entire call and making the message repeatable at the prescriber's option?</P>
                    <P>4. What evidence supports your responses?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Illegal Prescription Alteration</HD>
                    <P>1. What percent of contact lens sales consist of illegal alterations?</P>
                    <P>2. Has the introduction of sellers who sell their own brand of contact lenses directly to consumers affected the incidence of illegal alteration? If so, how?</P>
                    <P>
                        3. What percent of the overall contact lens market consists of sellers who sell their own brand of contact lenses directly to consumers and is that percentage increasing, decreasing, or staying the same? What percentage of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24692"/>
                        eye-care prescribers prescribe these lenses, and what portion of the prescriptions written are for these lenses?
                    </P>
                    <P>4. Would the proposed amendment requiring sellers to accept prescription presentation increase, decrease, or have no effect on the incidence of illegal alterations? Why?</P>
                    <P>5. Would the proposed amendment requiring sellers to accept prescription presentation increase, decrease, or have no effect on the number of verification requests that prescribers must respond to?</P>
                    <P>6. Under the proposed amendment, a verification request that includes a manufacturer or brand provided by, or identical to that provided by, the consumer would not be deemed an alteration of a prescription. Would this provision increase, decrease, or have no effect on the incidence of alterations of prescriptions? Why? What risks to patients, if any, would result?</P>
                    <P>7. What risks, if any, are associated with the substitution of contact lenses different and not identical to the manufacturer or brand of lenses fitted and prescribed by the prescriber? Would the proposed amendment increase, decrease, or have no effect on these risks?</P>
                    <P>8. In what circumstances does a contact lens prescription indicate a particular material, brand, or manufacturer because of the prescriber's medical judgment about the ocular health of the patient (for example, because the patient's astigmatism requires toric lenses)? Are these circumstances common?</P>
                    <P>9. When a prescription indicates a material, brand, or manufacturer for reasons other than medical judgment about ocular health, what reasons inform the selection? Is it common for a patient to test the fit of more than one material, brand, or manufacturer before receiving a prescription? When more than one material, brand, or manufacturer can achieve a successful fit, is the consumer able to make an informed choice among competing products?</P>
                    <P>10. What are the drawbacks, if any, of each proposal regarding illegal alteration of contact lenses?</P>
                    <P>11. What are the benefits, if any, of each proposal regarding illegal alteration of contact lenses?</P>
                    <P>12. What is the administrative burden, if any, to sellers, including small sellers, from each of the proposals?</P>
                    <P>13. Are these proposals necessary to address illegal alteration of contact lenses?</P>
                    <P>14. Are there alternative proposals that the Commission should consider?</P>
                    <P>15. What evidence supports your answers?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Communications by Outside Parties to the Commissioners or Their Advisors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written communications and summaries or transcripts of oral communications respecting the merits of this proceeding, from any outside party to any Commissioner or Commissioner's advisor, will be placed on the public record. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         16 CFR 1.26(b)(5).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The existing Rule contains recordkeeping and disclosure requirements that constitute “information collection requirements” as defined by 5 CFR 1320.3(c) under OMB regulations that implement the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”), 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         OMB has approved the Rule's existing information collection requirements. (OMB Control No. 3084-0127).
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed modifications to the Rule would require that prescribers either (1) obtain from patients, and maintain for a period of not less than three years, a signed confirmation of prescription release on a separate stand-alone document; (2) obtain from patients, and maintain for a period of not less than three years, a patient's signature on a confirmation of prescription release included on a copy of a patient's prescription; (3) obtain from patients, and maintain for a period of not less than three years, a patient's signature on a confirmation of prescription release included on a copy of a patient's contact lens fitting sales receipt; or (4) provide each patient with a copy of the prescription via online portal, electronic mail, or text message, and for three years retain evidence that such was sent, received, or, if provided via an online-patient portal, made accessible, downloadable, and printable by the patient.</P>
                    <P>The proposed requirement to collect patient signatures and the associated recordkeeping requirement would each constitute an information collection as defined by 5 CFR 1320.3(c). Accordingly, the Commission is providing PRA burden estimates for them, as set forth below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Estimated Additional Hours Burden</HD>
                    <P>Commission staff estimates the PRA burden of the proposed modifications based on its knowledge of the eye-care industry. The staff believes there will be an additional burden on individual prescribers' offices to generate and present to patients the confirmations of prescription release, and to collect and maintain the confirmations of prescription release for a period of not less than three years.</P>
                    <P>
                        The number of contact lens wearers in the United States is currently estimated to be approximately 41 million.
                        <SU>342</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, assuming an annual contact lens exam for each contact lens wearer, approximately 41 million people would read and sign a confirmation of prescription release every year.
                        <SU>343</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>342</SU>
                             Cope, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 70, at 866.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>343</SU>
                             In the past, some commenters have suggested that typical contact lens wearers obtain annual exams every 18 months or so, rather than one every year. However, because most prescriptions are valid for a minimum of one year under the Rule, Commission staff will continue to assume conservatively for purposes of PRA burden estimation that patients seek exams every 12 months.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Commission believes that generating and presenting the confirmation of prescription release to patients will not require significant time. Creating the confirmation of prescription release should be relatively straightforward for prescribers since the Commission's proposal is flexible in that it allows any one of several different modalities and delivery methods to satisfy the requirement, including adding the confirmation to existing documents that prescribers routinely provide (sales receipts) or are already required to provide (prescriptions) to patients. The Commission's proposal is also flexible in that it does not prescribe other details such as the precise content or language of the patient confirmation, but merely requires that, if provided to the patient in-person, the confirmation from the consumer must be in writing. At the same time, the Commission's proposal does not require that prescribers spend time generating their own content for the confirmation, since the Commission has provided draft language that prescribers are free to use to satisfy the requirement, if they so desire. Furthermore, the confirmation proposal is flexible enough to cover situations where a contact lens fitting is completed remotely, since a prescriber can readily satisfy the requirement by various methods, including email, text, or uploading the prescription to a patient portal.</P>
                    <P>
                        The four proposed options for a prescriber to confirm a prescription release to a patient are set out in § 315.3(c). The first three options (§ 315.3(c)(1)(i)(A), (B), and (C)), which direct a prescriber to provide information to a patient in the form of a confirmation of prescription release, are not disclosures constituting an information collection under the PRA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24693"/>
                        because the FTC has supplied the prescriber with draft language the prescriber can use to satisfy this requirement.
                        <SU>344</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, as noted above, the collection of a patient's signature and the associated recordkeeping required constitutes an information collection as defined by OMB regulations that implement the PRA. Nonetheless, the Commission believes it will require minimal time for a patient to read the confirmation of prescription release and provide a signature. Based on the aforementioned consumer survey about the Commission's prior signed-acknowledgment proposal, it would take consumers, on average, twelve seconds to read the two-sentence acknowledgment.
                        <SU>345</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the new proposed confirmation of prescription release would be significantly shorter than the prior proposed acknowledgment, Commission staff expects that the time required to read and sign such confirmation would be less, perhaps half (six seconds). As noted above, a somewhat similar written acknowledgment requirement under HIPAA was estimated to require ten seconds for the consumer to complete.
                        <SU>346</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on the consumer survey and prior estimate, the Commission allots ten seconds for the consumer to read and provide a signature.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>344</SU>
                             “The public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public is not included within” the definition of “collection of information.” 5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>345</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 183 and accompanying text. The median was ten seconds.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>346</SU>
                             67 FR at 53261.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The fourth option, § 315.3(c)(1)(i)(D), does not constitute an information collection under the PRA, since no new information is provided or requested of the patient. Excluding that from consideration and assuming the remaining three options are exercised with equal frequency, three-fourths or 75% of approximately 41 million annual prescription releases otherwise entail reading and signing a confirmation statement. Thus, 85,417 hours, cumulatively (75% × 41 million prescriptions yearly × ten seconds each) would be devoted to those tasks.
                        <SU>347</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>347</SU>
                             The FTC has previously accounted for and retains active OMB clearance regarding its separate PRA burden estimates for prescriber release of prescriptions to patients. Those estimates were one minute per prescriber and 683,333 hours, cumulative of the estimated 41 million prescriptions released annually. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             81 FR 31398, at 31939 (May 20, 2016); 81 FR 62501, 62501 (Sept. 9, 2016).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Maintaining those signed confirmations for a period of not less than three years should not impose substantial new burden on individual prescribers and their office staff. The majority of states already require that optometrists keep records of eye examinations for at least three years,
                        <SU>348</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and thus many prescribers who opt to include the confirmation of prescription release on the prescription itself would be preserving that document, regardless. Similarly, most prescribers already retain customer sales receipts for financial recordkeeping purposes, and thus prescribers who opt to include the confirmation of prescription release on the sales receipt also could be retaining that document, regardless. Moreover, storing a one-page document per patient per year should not require more than a few seconds, and an inconsequential, or 
                        <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                         amount of record space. As noted above, some prescribers might present the confirmation of prescription release electronically, and such format would allow the confirmation to be preserved without any additional burden. For other prescribers, the new recordkeeping requirement would likely require that office staff either preserve the confirmation in paper format or electronically scan the signed confirmation and save it as an electronic document. For prescribers who preserve the confirmation electronically, Commission staff estimates that scanning and saving the document would consume approximately one minute. Commission staff do not possess detailed information on the percentage of prescribers' offices that use paper forms, electronic forms, or that scan paper files and maintain them electronically. Thus, for purposes of this PRA analysis, Commission staff will conservatively assume that 
                        <E T="03">all</E>
                         prescriber offices require a full minute per confirmation for recordkeeping arising from the proposed modifications.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>348</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             246 Mass. Code Regs. sec. 3.02 (requiring optometrists to maintain patient records for at least seven years); Wash. Admin. Code sec. 246-851-290 (requiring optometrists to maintain records of eye exams and prescriptions for at least five years); Iowa Admin. Code r. 645-182.2(2) (requiring optometrists to maintain patient records for at least five years); Fla. Admin. Code r. 64B13-3.003(6) (requiring optometrists to maintain patient records for at least five years).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Excluding from PRA consideration the fourth option, § 315.3(c)(1)(i)(D), as there is no signature to obtain or retain, and assuming that prescribers elect the remaining options three-fourths or 75% of the time, the recordkeeping burden for all prescribers to scan and save such confirmations would amount to 512,500 hours (75% × 41 million prescriptions yearly × one minute) per year. Thus, estimated incremental PRA recordkeeping burden for prescribers resulting from the proposed Rule modifications is 597,917 hours (85,417 hours regarding signatures + 512,500 hours regarding their retention).</P>
                    <P>
                        Arguably, the overall burden of the Rule—including verification costs previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget 
                        <SU>349</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —could lessen (or not increase by as much as the incremental burden from the proposed Rule modifications), given potentially offsetting effects presented by the proposed modifications. As noted above, some commenters suggested that the increased burden from the proposed signed-acknowledgment requirement would be lessened or even outweighed by a reduced verification burden, because with more patients in possession of their prescriptions and able to present them to third-party sellers, fewer time-consuming verifications would be necessary.
                        <SU>350</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on some commenter and Commission projections, a decrease of between 9%-23% in verifications could be sufficient to offset the entire cost of the signed-acknowledgment proposal.
                        <SU>351</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the estimated burden for the confirmation of prescription release proposal is similar to that of the signed acknowledgment,
                        <SU>352</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and would be expected to have the same offsetting effects, it is possible that the burden of the proposed modification would be offset to a great extent by a reduction in verifications. The Commission requests additional comment on whether and by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24694"/>
                        how much a reduction in verifications would result from the confirmation of prescription proposal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>349</SU>
                             PRA Assessment, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 185, at 62501-02; OMB Control No. 3084-0127.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>350</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             notes 184-191 and accompanying text.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>351</SU>
                             Based on the estimated burden for the Commission's prior signed- acknowledgment requirement proposal. 
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 187 and accompanying text.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>352</SU>
                             The estimated burden of the proposed confirmation requirement is lower than the signed-acknowledgment burden in terms of time required (597,917 hours for all prescribers and their staff compared to 683,333 hours for the signed-acknowledgment proposal, a decrease of approximately 13 percent). However, the estimated total financial burden is somewhat higher due to increases in average hourly wages for prescribers and staff since 2016, and due to the addition of time—now assigned to prescribers—to obtain a signature, in response to comments and information received subsequent to publication of the NPRM. Because of the higher overall cost, it might require a greater respective decrease in verifications to offset the financial burden. As noted, however, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 190 and accompanying text, none of the monetary burden-offset calculations takes into account the expected benefit to consumers of having their prescriptions and being able to choose from among competing providers; the savings consumers might achieve by purchasing lower-priced lenses; the improvements to health and safety due to a reduction in errors associated with invalid prescriptions currently verified through passive verification; and the Commission's improved ability to assess and verify compliance with the Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Since the Confirmation of Prescription Release proposal—in contrast to the Signed-Acknowledgment proposal—exempts prescribers who do not have a direct or indirect financial interest in the sale of contact lenses, this will also reduce the burden created by the new requirement. The Commission, however, does not currently possess information as to how many prescribers would qualify for the exemption due to a lack of financial interest in the sale of lenses. The Commission therefore has not reduced its PRA burden estimate accordingly and instead requests comment on the percentage of prescribers who would qualify for the proposed § 315.3(c)(3) exemption.</P>
                    <P>This PRA analysis also does not attempt to assess and estimate hours or cost burden for sellers regarding the proposed Rule modifications that would require those who use automated telephone messages, wholly or in part, to verify a prescription, to record the full call, among other steps associated with that proposed modification. As noted above in the Section VIII. E. (Request for Comments/Automated Telephone Verification Messages), the Commission seeks comments to help inform such estimated burden, to the extent applicable.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Estimated Total Labor Cost Burden</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commission staff derives labor costs by applying appropriate hourly cost figures to the burden hours described above. The prescriber task to obtain patient signed acknowledgments theoretically could be performed by medical professionals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         optometrists, ophthalmologists) or support staff (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dispensing opticians, ophthalmic medical technicians). To estimate associated labor costs, staff will conservatively assume that optometrists would perform the task.
                        <SU>353</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applying a mean hourly wage of $57.26 
                        <SU>354</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for optometrists to the above-noted estimate of 85,417 hours, resultant aggregate labor costs to obtain patient signatures would be $4,890,977.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>353</SU>
                             It is not certain that this assumption is well-founded. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CLR Panel IV Tr., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 126, at 8 (statements of David Cockrell that, in his office, the staff handle all the verification calls). Many prescribers may use office staff to handle verification calls, which would result in a significantly lower burden calculation for prescribers' offices than what the Commission previously calculated. Without more empirical data as to who handles most verification requests, however, the Commission will continue to use the estimate for prescribers, even if it might overstate the actual burden.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>354</SU>
                             Economic News Release, U.S. Dep't of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Table 1. National employment and wage data from the Occupational Employment Statistics survey by occupation, May 2017: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/ocwage.t01.htm</E>
                             (“BLS Table 1”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Commission staff assumes that office clerks will typically perform the labor pertaining to the printing, scanning and storing of prescription release confirmations. Applying a mean hourly wage for office clerks of $16.30 per hour,
                        <SU>355</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to the above-noted estimate of 512,500 hours, cumulative labor costs for those tasks would total $8,353,750.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>355</SU>
                             BLS Table 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Therefore, combining the aggregate labor costs for both prescribers and office staff to obtain patient signed acknowledgments and preserve the associated records, the Commission estimates the total labor burden of the confirmation of prescription release proposal to be $13,244,727.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Capital and Other Non-Labor Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed recordkeeping requirements detailed above regarding prescribers impose negligible capital or other non-labor costs, as prescribers likely have already the necessary equipment and supplies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         prescription pads, patients' medical charts, scanning devices, recordkeeping storage) to act upon those requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the FTC's burden estimates, including whether the methodology and assumptions used are valid (such as whether prescribers or office staff are more likely to collect patient signatures and retain associated recordkeeping); (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collecting information.</P>
                    <P>
                        Comments on the proposed information collection requirements subject to review under the PRA should additionally be submitted to OMB. Comments can be received from 30 days of publication up to the close of the comment period, but comments to OMB will be most useful if OMB receives them within 30 days of publication. If sent by U.S. mail, comments should be addressed to Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503. Comments sent to OMB by U.S. postal mail, however, are subject to delays due to heightened security precautions. Thus, comments instead can also be sent by email to 
                        <E T="03">wliberante@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”) 
                        <SU>356</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires the Commission to conduct an analysis of the anticipated economic impact of the proposed amendments on small entities.
                        <SU>357</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The purpose of a regulatory flexibility analysis is to ensure the agency considers the impacts on small entities and examines regulatory alternatives that could achieve the regulatory purpose while minimizing burdens on small entities. Section 605 of the RFA 
                        <SU>358</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provides that such an analysis is not required if the agency head certifies that the regulatory action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>356</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601-612.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>357</SU>
                             The Commission also conducted an RFA analysis of the Rule implementing the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act. 69 FR 40482, 40507 (July 2, 2004).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>358</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 605.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission does not anticipate that the proposed amendments will have a significant economic impact on small entities, although in the case of prescribers, they may affect a substantial number of small businesses. The proposed amendments affecting prescribers: (1) Allow for electronic delivery of prescriptions as a means for automatic prescription release when agreed to by the patient (and in such cases prescribers must retain evidence for not less than three years that the prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable, and printable); (2) require prescribers to request that the patient confirm prescription release and to retain such confirmations for a period of not less than three years; and (3) establish a time-frame of forty business hours for prescribers to respond to authorized seller requests for copies of a prescription, and require the prescriber to make a notation in the patient's record when responding to such requests. The proposed amendments affecting sellers require them: (1) When using automated telephone messages to verify prescriptions, to record the entire call (and maintain such recordings for a period of not less than three years), commence the call by identifying it as a request for prescription verification made in accordance with the Contact Lens Rule, deliver the required information in a slow and deliberate manner and at a reasonably 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24695"/>
                        understandable volume, and make the required information repeatable at the prescriber's option; (2) to accept prescription presentation; and (3) to verify only the contact lens brand or manufacturer that consumers indicate is on their prescriptions.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission believes the burden of complying with these requirements likely will be relatively small. As discussed in the Paperwork Reduction Act section, with respect to the recordkeeping proposal requiring prescribers to maintain signed confirmations, the majority of states already require that optometrists maintain records of eye examinations for at least three years. The proposed amendment would require, at most, one additional page to be maintained as a record, which is likely a minimal burden. The Commission similarly believes that the other proposals impacting prescribers likely present a minimal burden. For example, the proposed requirement for the prescriber to make a notation in a patient's record when responding to an authorized seller or other agent's request for a patient's prescription would require only that the prescriber note the requestor's name and the date and time the prescription was provided. With respect to the burdens on non-prescriber sellers from the amendments affecting them, the Commission has no information that, and does not believe that, they are more than minimal. Further, the number of such sellers that are small entities is not believed to be substantial. Therefore, based on available information, the Commission certifies that amending the Rule as proposed will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small businesses.</P>
                    <P>Although the Commission certifies under the RFA that the proposed amendment will not, if promulgated, have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities, the Commission has nonetheless determined it is appropriate to publish an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis to inquire into the impact of the proposed amendment on small entities. Therefore, the Commission has prepared the following analysis:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Description of the Reasons the Agency Is Taking Action</HD>
                    <P>In response to public comments, the Commission is proposing amendments to allow for electronic delivery of prescriptions as a means for automatic prescription release and to require a confirmation of prescription release, as ways to ensure that patients are receiving a copy of their contact lens prescriptions at the completion of their contact lens fittings. In further response to the public comments, the Commission is proposing a time-frame of forty business hours for prescribers to respond to seller or other authorized agent requests for copies of a prescription to ensure that patients' agents can obtain additional copies of prescriptions in a timely manner. The Commission is proposing additional seller requirements for the use of automated telephone verification messages to help prescribers better understand, and reduce the burden of, verification requests; to allow consumers to receive the correct lenses more quickly; and to provide the Commission with a way to monitor sellers' compliance with the Rule. Lastly, in response to public comments and after a review of websites selling contact lenses online, the Commission is proposing that sellers be required to accept prescription presentation and to verify only the contact lens brand or manufacturer that consumers indicate is on their prescriptions as a means to limit the frequency of illegal alterations. The corresponding recordkeeping requirements for these proposals, retaining these records for no less than three years, are necessary for the FTC to enforce the Rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Statement of the Objectives of, and Legal Basis for, the Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <P>
                        The objective of the proposed amendments is to clarify and update the Rule in accordance with marketplace practices. The legal basis for the Rule is the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act.
                        <SU>359</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Act authorizes the Commission to implement its requirements through the issuance of rules.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>359</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 7601-7610.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Small Entities to Which the Proposed Amendments Will Apply</HD>
                    <P>
                        Prescribers of contact lenses are affected by the proposed amendments concerning the option for electronic delivery of prescriptions as a means for automatic prescription release, confirmation of prescription release, and the imposition of a forty-business hour time frame for responding to authorized requests for additional copies of prescriptions. The Commission believes that many prescribers will fall into the category of small entities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         offices of optometrists with less than $7.5 million in average annual receipts).
                        <SU>360</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Determining a precise estimate of the number of small entities covered by the Rule's prescription-release requirements is not readily feasible because most prescribers' offices do not release the underlying revenue information necessary to make this determination.
                        <SU>361</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on its knowledge of the eye-care industry, staff believes that a substantial number of these entities likely qualify as small businesses. The Commission seeks comment with regard to the estimated number or nature of such small business entities, if any, for which the proposed amendments would have a significant impact.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>360</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Small Business Admin., “Table of Small Business Size Standards Matched to North American Industry Classification System Codes,” (eff. Feb. 26, 2016), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/sites/default/files/files/Size_Standards_Table.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>361</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Non-prescriber sellers of contact lenses are affected by the proposed amendments concerning the additional requirements for using an automated telephone verification message, requirements to accept prescription presentation, and requirements to verify only the contact lens brand or manufacturer that consumers indicate is on their prescriptions.
                        <SU>362</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on its knowledge of the industry, staff believes that the number of these entities that likely qualify as small businesses (less than $20.5 million in average annual receipts) is not likely to be substantial.
                        <SU>363</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Commission seeks comment with regard to the estimated number or nature of such small business entities, if any, for which the proposed amendments would have a significant impact.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>362</SU>
                             Most prescribers who sell lenses do so after fitting the patient with the prescribed lens, and thus, do not rely on prescription verification. The amendments affecting sellers pertain to verification or prescription presentation and do not pertain to these sales. As a result, the Commission does not consider prescribers in its estimated burden for the proposals affecting sellers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>363</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Small Business Admin., “Table of Small Business Size Standards Matched to North American Industry Classification System Codes” (Feb. 26, 2016), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/sites/default/files/files/Size_Standards_Table.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements, Including Classes of Covered Small Entities and Professional Skills Needed To Comply</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments Affecting Prescribers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendment relating to confirmation of prescription release requires that prescribers obtain from patients, and maintain for a period of not less than three years, a confirmation that patients received their contact lens prescriptions at the completion of their contact lens fittings. If the prescriptions were provided to the patients digitally, the prescriber must maintain, for a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24696"/>
                        period of not less than three years, evidence that the prescriptions were sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable and printable.
                    </P>
                    <P>The small entities potentially covered by these proposed amendments will include all such entities subject to the Rule. The professional skills necessary for compliance with the Rule as modified by the proposed amendments will include office and administrative support supervisors to create the language and format of the confirmation and clerical personnel to collect signatures from patients and maintain records, or in the case of digital prescriptions, retain evidence that the prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable and printable. Compliance may include some minimal training time as well. The Commission has provided language that prescribers can use which, should a prescriber elect to use such language, negates the burden of deriving appropriate language. The Commission believes the burden imposed on small businesses by these requirements is relatively small, for the reasons described previously in Section X of this document. The Commission invites further comment and information on these issues, including estimates or data on specific compliance costs that small entities might be expected to incur.</P>
                    <P>The proposed amendment relating to providing a designated agent with an additional copy of a prescription requires the prescriber respond within forty business hours of receipt of the request, and note in the patient's record the name of the requester and the date and time that the prescription was provided to the requester. The professional skills necessary for compliance with the Rule as modified by the proposed amendment will include office and administrative support supervisors to respond to the request within forty business hours, whereas before there was no time limit for responding to the request. The office and administrative support supervisors will also need to make the required notations in the patient's records. As noted, the required notation would be limited to the name of the requester and the date and time the prescription was provided to the requester. Although the Rule does not require that prescribers retain the notations, the Commission expects prescribers would make and retain such notations in the ordinary course of their business and thus believes the proposal would not create much, if any, additional burden. The Commission invites further comment and information on these issues, including estimates or data on specific compliance costs that small entities might be expected to incur.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Amendments Affecting Sellers</HD>
                    <P>To the extent, if any, that non-prescriber sellers are small entities, the proposed amendments relating to changes in verifications made through automated telephone messages require sellers to record the entire call, commence the call by identifying it as a request for prescription verification made in accordance with the Rule, deliver the information in a slow and deliberate manner and at a reasonably understandable volume, and make the information repeatable at the prescriber's option. For calls that use an automated message verification system, sellers must retain the complete call recording for at least three years.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission believes that most small sellers who are covered by the Rule, if any, are unlikely to have undergone or to undergo the expense associated with creating and maintaining an automated telephone system for verification requests. Instead, such sellers comply with the Rule by receiving copies of prescriptions from patients, or making verification requests to prescribers via fax, email, or live telephone calls. Should a small seller already have an automated system for verification, the additional burden presented by the new proposal to commence the call by identifying it as a call made in accordance with the Contact Lens Rule should be minimal because they are already in compliance, or if not, need only to modify the verification recording once. Further, automated messages, if already made in accordance with the FTC's prior guidance that they be delivered at a volume and cadence that a reasonable person can understand 
                        <SU>364</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         would comply with the new proposal that all such messages be at a “reasonably understandable volume” and delivered in a “slow and deliberate manner.” The Commission therefore does not believe this proposal adds any additional burden to sellers. Should a small seller already use automated messages for verification, it may need to modify its system to comply with the proposal that it make the required information repeatable at the prescriber's option. The Commission does not believe the associated costs from this change would be more than minimal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>364</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 285.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposal also requires sellers to record calls that use automated messages in their entirety and to retain them for no less than three years. Should a small seller already verify prescriptions through calls that use automated messages and not currently record the calls, it would need to commence recording them. In addition, such sellers would need to retain these calls for not less than three years. The Commission is unaware of the cost of recording and storing these calls. The Commission invites comment on the frequency with which small sellers use automated telephone messages for verification and the costs associated with the proposals pertaining to these messages, including whether existing verification systems include the capability to record and the capacity for storage, and the costs associated with recording the calls and maintaining the recordings for no less than three years.</P>
                    <P>To comply with the proposed amendment relating to the requirement that sellers provide a clear and prominent method for the consumer and prescriber to present the seller with a copy of the patient's prescription, a small seller would need to update its website to inform consumers about the ability to provide the seller with a prescription, or alternatively, if an order occurs via telephone or in person, to verbally inform the consumer about the ability to provide the seller with a prescription. The professional skill or time necessary for this task would include personnel with the skills required to update the website and the time it takes to update the website, or if the information is relayed over the phone or in person, the additional time for an employee of the seller to inform a consumer that he or she is able to provide a prescription, and the method by which a consumer can do so. These proposals may also require training time for staff. The seller would also need to provide a mechanism for a consumer to provide the prescription to the seller. Although the seller could create a mechanism for the consumer to upload the prescription to a website, it could instead rely on a consumer sending an email, fax, or text message with a digital copy of the prescription. Because a seller almost certainly has an existing account that accepts texts, faxes, or emails, the Commission believes there is little additional burden of complying with this part of the proposal.</P>
                    <P>
                        Both the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act and the Rule prohibit illegal alteration of a prescription. The proposed modification would clarify that illegal alteration occurs when a seller submits a verification request to a prescriber that includes a manufacturer or brand other than the manufacturer or brand prescribed by the prescriber unless the seller obtained the inaccurate manufacturer or brand information from 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24697"/>
                        the customer in response to a request for such information. Manufacturer or brand information will largely be obtained via website, telephone, or in person. The professional skill or time necessary for this task would include personnel with the skills required to update the website and the time it takes to update the website, or if the information is relayed over the phone or in person, the additional time for an employee of the seller to obtain and record the information. Such employees would also need to be trained on this requirement. Although there is no associated compliance requirement set forth in the Rule, the Commission is aware that without the evidence that the manufacturer or brand provided on the verification request was the one provided by the customer, the seller would not be able to avail itself of the exception to illegal alteration. As a result, the Commission should consider the associated compliance burden. As many contact lens sales by non-prescriber sellers occur online, the burden of retention of the record may be minimized by the ability to keep electronic sales records. For sales that occur via telephone or in person, the seller would be required to create and maintain a log or similar document containing the relevant information. The Commission believes that sellers retain order records in the ordinary course of business and any additional compliance steps resulting from this proposal may be minimal. Nevertheless, the Commission invites comment on the compliance costs from these proposals that small sellers might be expected to incur.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</HD>
                    <P>The Commission has not identified any other federal statutes, rules, or policies duplicating, overlapping, or conflicting with the proposed amendments, but as noted previously, the majority of states already require that optometrists—of which many are most likely small businesses—maintain records of eye examinations for at least three years. The Commission invites additional comment on this issue.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Significant Alternatives to the Proposed Amendments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Alternatives for Amendments Affecting Prescribers</HD>
                    <P>For the proposed amendment regarding confirmation of prescription release, the Commission has not proposed any specific small entity exemption or other significant alternatives. The Commission does not believe a special exemption for small entities or significant compliance alternatives are necessary or appropriate to minimize the compliance burden, if any, on small entities while achieving the intended purposes of the proposed amendments. Nonetheless, the Commission believes the proposed requirements provide prescribers and sellers with maximum flexibility in complying with the Rule, while still achieving the Rule's objectives. For example, the Commission modified its prior proposal regarding confirmation of prescription release to provide options in the form of delivery; a prescriber may request a patient sign a statement confirming prescription release on a prescriber-retained copy of a contact lens prescription or examination receipt, or on a separate piece of paper. Further, whereas the prior proposal dictated the language prescribers must use, this proposal provides language a prescriber may use, but ultimately leaves that decision to the prescriber. As discussed above, the proposed recordkeeping requirement likely involves minimal burden and prescribers would be permitted to maintain records in either paper or electronic format. The recordkeeping burden could also be reduced to the extent that prescribers have adopted electronic medical record systems, especially those where patient signatures can be recorded electronically and inputted automatically into the electronic record. To lower the costs of this recordkeeping requirement, prescribers also could scan signed paper copies of the acknowledgment form and store those forms electronically. Moreover, this proposal, should prescribers wish, and patients agree, permits prescribers to release prescriptions electronically, including via text, email, or online portal, which should simplify the recordkeeping of prescription release. In addition to the aforementioned alternatives that are included in the proposal itself, the Commission seeks comment on the need, if any, for alternative compliance methods to reduce the economic impact of the Rule on small entities.</P>
                    <P>The Commission has not proposed any specific small entity exemption or other significant alternatives for its proposal requiring prescribers to respond to authorized agent requests for additional copies of prescriptions within forty hours and noting in the record the requestor and when the prescriber responds to the request. The Commission does not believe a special exemption for small entities or significant compliance alternatives are necessary or appropriate to minimize the compliance burden, if any, on small entities while achieving the intended purposes of the proposed amendment.</P>
                    <P>If the comments filed in response to this SNPRM identify small entities affected by the proposed amendments, as well as alternative methods of compliance that would reduce the economic impact of the proposed amendments on such entities, the Commission will consider the feasibility of such alternatives and determine whether they should be incorporated into the final Rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Alternatives for Amendments Affecting Sellers</HD>
                    <P>With respect to the proposals relating to automated telephone messages, the Commission has not proposed any specific small entity exemption or other significant alternatives. The Commission notes that small sellers are not required to place verification requests through calls that use automated messages. The Rule permits sellers to make verification requests via live calls, fax, or email, and thus sellers, including small sellers who wish to avoid any burden imposed by the new requirements, may consider alternative methods.</P>
                    <P>In terms of its requirement that sellers accept prescriptions presented by customers, the Commission notes that a seller may meet this requirement by accepting such prescriptions via email or text, both mechanisms that small sellers likely already have set up as part of their existing businesses.</P>
                    <P>The Commission has not proposed any specific small entity exemption or other significant alternatives for its proposal requiring sellers to verify only the brand or manufacturer listed on a customer's prescription. As previously indicated, the Commission recognizes that all sellers, including small sellers, must request, whether orally or via website, the brand or manufacturer that is listed on the customer's prescription, and that sellers must retain records of the information provided by the customer. The Commission does not believe a special exemption for small entities or significant compliance alternatives are necessary or appropriate to minimize the compliance burden, if any, on small entities while achieving the intended purposes of the proposed amendment.</P>
                    <P>
                        If the comments filed in response to this SNPRM identify small entities affected by the proposed amendments, as well as alternative methods of compliance that would reduce the economic impact of the proposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="24698"/>
                        amendments on such entities, the Commission will consider the feasibility of such alternatives and determine whether they should be incorporated into the final Rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Rule Language</HD>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED"> List of Subjects in 16 CFR Part 315</HD>
                        <P>Advertising, Medical devices, Ophthalmic goods and services, Trade practices.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>Under 15 U.S.C 7601-7610 and for the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Trade Commission proposes to amend title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations part 315 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 315—CONTACT LENS RULE</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 315 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 15 U.S.C. 7601-7610.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 315.2 by adding in alphabetical order the definitions for “Provide to the patient a copy”, “Reasonably understandable volume”, and “Slow and deliberate manner” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 315.2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Provide to the patient a copy</E>
                             means giving a patient a copy of his or her contact lens prescription on paper or, if offered by the prescriber and preferred by the patient as evidenced by the patient's verifiable affirmative consent, making a digital copy of the prescription available by electronic means that can be accessed, downloaded, and printed by the patient, including via text message, electronic mail, or a posting on an online patient portal.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Reasonably understandable volume</E>
                             means at an audible level that renders the message intelligible to the receiving audience.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Slow and deliberate manner</E>
                             means at a rate that renders the message intelligible to the receiving audience.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 315.3 by revising paragraphs (a)(1) and (2), adding paragraph (a)(3), revising paragraphs (b)(1) through (3), and adding paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 315.3 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Availability of contact lens prescriptions to patients.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) Whether or not requested by the patient, shall provide to the patient a copy of the contact lens prescription;</P>
                        <P>(2) Shall, as directed by any person designated to act on behalf of the patient, verify the contact lens prescription by electronic or other means; and</P>
                        <P>(3) Shall, upon request, provide any person designated to act on behalf of the patient with a copy of the patient's contact lens prescription by electronic or other means within forty (40) business hours of receipt of the request. A prescriber shall note in the patient's record the name of the requester and the date and time that the prescription was provided to the requester.</P>
                        <P>(b)  * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) Require the purchase of contact lenses from the prescriber or from another person as a condition of providing a copy of a prescription under paragraph (a)(1) or (3) of this section or as a condition of verification of a prescription under paragraph (a)(2) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(2) Require payment in addition to, or as part of, the fee for an eye examination, fitting, and evaluation as a condition of providing a copy of a prescription under paragraph (a)(1) or (3) of this section or as a condition of verification of a prescription under paragraph (a)(2) of this section; or</P>
                        <P>(3) Require the patient to sign a waiver or release as a condition of releasing or verifying a prescription under paragraph (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Confirmation of prescription release.</E>
                             (1)(i) Upon completion of a contact lens fitting, the prescriber shall do one of the following:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Request that the patient acknowledge receipt of the contact lens prescription by signing a statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription;</P>
                        <P>(B) Request that the patient sign a prescriber-retained copy of a contact lens prescription that contains a statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription;</P>
                        <P>(C) Request that the patient sign a prescriber-retained copy of the receipt for the examination that contains a statement confirming receipt of the contact lens prescription; or</P>
                        <P>(D) If a digital copy of the prescription was provided to the patient (via methods including an online portal, electronic mail, or text message) in compliance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, retain evidence that the prescription was sent, received, or made accessible, downloadable, and printable.</P>
                        <P>(ii) If the prescriber elects to confirm prescription release via paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, the prescriber may, but is not required to, use the statement, “My eye care professional provided me with a copy of my contact lens prescription at the completion of my contact lens fitting” to satisfy the requirement.</P>
                        <P>(2) A prescriber shall maintain the records or evidence required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for a period of not less than three years. Such records or evidence shall be available for inspection by the Federal Trade Commission, its employees, and its representatives.</P>
                        <P>(3) Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section shall not apply to prescribers who do not have a direct or indirect financial interest in the sale of contact lenses, including, but not limited to, through an association, affiliation, or co-location with a contact lens seller.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 315.5 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Redesignating paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) as paragraphs (e), (f), (h), and (i), respectively;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraph (d);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (f);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. Adding new paragraph (g);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. Adding paragraph (h)(2)(iii); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>f. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (i).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions and revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 315.5 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Prescriber verification.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Automated telephone verification messages.</E>
                             If a seller verifies prescriptions through calls that use, in whole or in part, an automated message, the seller must:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Record the entire call;</P>
                        <P>(2) Commence the call by identifying it as a request for prescription verification made in accordance with the this part;</P>
                        <P>(3) Deliver the information required by paragraph (b) of this section in a slow and deliberate manner and at a reasonably understandable volume; and</P>
                        <P>(4) Make the information required by paragraph (b) of this section repeatable at the prescriber's option.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">No alteration of prescription.</E>
                             A seller may not alter a contact lens prescription. In the context of prescription verification, alteration includes, but is not limited to, providing the prescriber with the name of a manufacturer or brand other than that specified by the patient's prescription, unless such name is provided because the patient entered it on the seller's order form when asked for the manufacturer or brand listed on the patient's prescription, or the patient orally gave the seller the name in response to a request for the manufacturer or brand listed on the patient's prescription. Notwithstanding the preceding sentences, a seller may substitute for contact lenses specified on a prescription identical contact lenses that the same company manufactures and sells under different labels.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Seller requirement to accept prescription presentation.</E>
                             A seller shall 
                            <PRTPAGE P="24699"/>
                            provide a clear and prominent method for the patient and prescriber to present the seller with a copy of the patient's prescription. Such method may include, without limitation, electronic mail, text message, file upload, or facsimile.
                        </P>
                        <P>(h)  * * *</P>
                        <P>(2)  * * *</P>
                        <P>(iii) If the communication occurs via telephone and uses an automated message, the complete recording required pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Recordkeeping requirement—Saturday business hours.</E>
                             A seller that exercises its option to include a prescriber's regular Saturday business hours in the time period for a request for a copy of the prescription specified in § 315.3(a)(3) or for verification specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall maintain a record of the prescriber's regular Saturday business hours and the basis for the seller's actual knowledge thereof. Such records shall be maintained for a period of not less than three years, and these records must be available for inspection by the Federal Trade Commission, its employees, and its representatives.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>By direction of the Commission.</P>
                        <NAME>April J. Tabor,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2019-09627 Filed 5-24-19; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6750-01-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
