[Federal Register Volume 79, Number 232 (Wednesday, December 3, 2014)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 71634-71639]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2014-28485]


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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

Federal Aviation Administration

14 CFR Parts 61 and 141

[Docket No.: FAA-2014-0987; Amdt. Nos. 61-133, 141-18]; RIN 2120-AK62


Aviation Training Device Credit for Pilot Certification

AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

ACTION: Direct final rule.

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SUMMARY: This rulemaking relieves burdens on pilots seeking to obtain 
aeronautical experience, training, and certification by increasing the 
allowed use of aviation training devices. These training devices have 
proven to be an effective, safe, and affordable means of obtaining 
pilot experience. These actions are necessary to bring the regulations 
in line with current needs and activities of the general aviation 
training community and pilots.

DATES: Effective January 20, 2015.
    Send comments on or before January 2, 2015. If the FAA receives an 
adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse comment, the FAA 
will advise the public by publishing a document in the Federal Register 
before the effective date of the final rule, which may withdraw this 
direct final rule in whole or in part.

ADDRESSES: Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2014-0987 
using any of the following methods:
     Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to http://www.regulations.gov and follow the online instructions for sending your 
comments electronically.
     Mail: Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. 
Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Room 
W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
     Hand Delivery or Courier: Take comments to Docket 
Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 
New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., 
Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
     Fax: Fax comments to Docket Operations at 202-493-2251.
    Privacy: In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments 
from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts 
these comments, without edit, including any personal information the 
commenter provides, to http://www.regulations.gov, as described in the 
system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
http://www.dot.gov/privacy.
    Docket: Background documents or comments received may be read at 
http://www.regulations.gov at any time. Follow the online instructions 
for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 
of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., 
Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, 
except Federal holidays.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: For technical questions concerning 
this action, contact Marcel Bernard, Airmen Certification and Training 
Branch, Flight Standards Service, AFS-810, Federal Aviation 
Administration, 55 M Street SE., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20003-3522; 
telephone (202) 385-9616; email [email protected].
    For legal questions concerning this action, contact Anne Moore, 
International Law, Legislation, and Regulations Division, Office of the 
Chief Counsel, AGC-200, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 
Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (202) 267-
8018; email [email protected].

SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:

Authority for This Rulemaking

    The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in 
Title 49 of the United States Code (49 U.S.C.). Subtitle I, Section 106 
describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, 
Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's 
authority.
    This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in 49 
U.S.C. 106(f), which establishes the authority of the Administrator to 
promulgate regulations and rules; 49 U.S.C. 44701(a)(5), which requires 
the Administrator to promote safe flight of civil aircraft in air 
commerce by prescribing regulations and setting minimum standards for 
other practices, methods, and procedures necessary for safety in air 
commerce and national security; and 49 U.S.C. 44703(a), which requires 
the Administrator to prescribe regulations for the issuance of airman 
certificates when the Administrator

[[Page 71635]]

finds, after investigation, that an individual is qualified for, and 
physically able to perform the duties related to, the position 
authorized by the certificate.

The Direct Final Rule Procedure

    The FAA is adopting this direct final rule without prior notice and 
prior public comment as a direct final rule because, due to the 
relieving nature of the provisions, we do not anticipate any adverse 
comments. This direct final rule concerns the allowances for using 
aviation training devices (ATD) toward the aeronautical experience 
requirements for an instrument rating. In 2009, the FAA issued a final 
rule that placed limits on the use of ATDs for instrument training. 
These regulatory limits were, in fact, more restrictive than what the 
FAA historically had permitted through letter of authorization (LOA). 
Due to public reliance on previous letters of authorization and the 
long history of allowing higher levels of ATD usage, the FAA believes 
it is unlikely to receive any adverse comments.
    The Regulatory Policies and Procedures of the Department of 
Transportation (DOT) (44 FR 1134; February 26, 1979) provide that to 
the maximum extent possible, operating administrations for the DOT 
should provide an opportunity for public comment on regulations issued 
without prior notice. Accordingly, the FAA invites interested persons 
to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, 
or views. The agency also invites comments relating to the economic, 
environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from 
adopting this final rule.
    A direct final rule will take effect on a specified date unless the 
FAA receives an adverse comment or notice of intent to file an adverse 
comment within the comment period. An adverse comment explains why a 
rule would be inappropriate, or would be ineffective or unacceptable 
without a change. It may challenge the rule's underlying premise or 
approach. Under the direct final rule process, the FAA does not 
consider the following types of comments to be adverse:
    (1) A comment recommending another rule change, in addition to the 
change in the direct final rule at issue. The FAA considers the comment 
adverse, however, if the commenter states why the direct final rule 
would be ineffective without the change.
    (2) A frivolous or insubstantial comment.
    If the FAA receives an adverse comment or notice of intent to file 
an adverse comment, the FAA will advise the public by publishing a 
document in the Federal Register before the effective date of the final 
rule. This document may withdraw the direct final rule in whole or in 
part. If the FAA withdraws a direct final rule because of an adverse 
comment, the FAA may incorporate the commenter's recommendation into 
another direct final rule or may publish a notice of proposed 
rulemaking.
    If the FAA does not receive an adverse comment or notice of intent 
to file an adverse comment, the FAA will publish a confirmation 
document in the Federal Register, generally within 15 days after the 
comment period closes. The confirmation document tells the public the 
effective date of the rule.
    See the ``Additional Information'' section for information on how 
to comment on this direct final rule and how the FAA will handle 
comments received. The ``Additional Information'' section also contains 
related information about the docket, privacy, the handling of 
proprietary or confidential business information. In addition, there is 
information on obtaining copies of related rulemaking documents.

I. Discussion of the Direct Final Rule

    Since the 1970s, the FAA has gradually expanded the use of flight 
simulation for training--first permitting simulation to be used in air 
carrier training programs and eventually permitting pilots to credit 
time in devices toward the aeronautical experience requirements for 
airman certification and recency. Currently, Title 14 of the Code of 
Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 60 governs the qualification of 
flight simulation training devices (FSTD), which include full flight 
simulators (FFSs) and flight training devices (FTDs) levels 4 through 
7. The FAA has, however, approved other devices including ATDs for use 
in pilot certification training, under the authority provided in 14 CFR 
61.4(c).\1\
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    \1\ Section 61.4(c) states that the ``Administrator may approve 
a device other than a flight simulator or flight training device for 
specific purposes.''
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    For over 30 years, the FAA has issued letters of authorization 
(LOAs) to manufacturers of ground trainers, personal computer-based 
aviation training devices (PCATD), FTDs (levels 1 through 3), basic 
aviation training devices (BATD), and advanced aviation training 
devices (AATD). These LOAs were based on guidance provided in advisory 
circulars that set forth the qualifications and capabilities for the 
devices. Prior to 2008, most LOAs were issued under the guidance 
provided in advisory circular AC 61-126, Qualification and Approval of 
Personal Computer-Based Aviation Training Devices, and AC 120-45, 
Airplane Flight Training Device Qualification. Since July 2008, the FAA 
has approved devices in accordance with Advisory Circular 61-136, FAA 
Approval of Basic Aviation Training Devices (BATD) and Advanced 
Aviation Training Devices (AATD).
    In 2009, the FAA issued a final rule that for the first time 
introduced the term ``aviation training device'' into the regulations 
and placed express limits on the amount of instrument time in an ATD 
that could be credited toward the aeronautical experience requirements 
for an instrument rating.\2\
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    \2\ In a 2007 NPRM, the FAA proposed to limit the time in a 
personal computer-based aviation training device that could be 
credited toward the instrument rating. Pilot, Flight Instructor, and 
Pilot School Certification NPRM, 72 FR 5806 (February 7, 2007). 
Three commenters recommended that the FAA use the terms ``basic 
aviation training device'' (BATD) and ``advanced aviation training 
device'' (AATD). Pilot, Flight Instructor, and Pilot School 
Certification Final Rule, 74 FR 42500 (August 21, 2009) (``2009 
Final Rule''). In response to the commenters, the FAA changed the 
regulatory text in the final rule to ``aviation training device,'' 
noting BATDs and AATDs ``as being aviation training devices (ATD) 
are defined'' in an advisory circular.
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    Since the 2009 final rule, Sec.  61.65(i) has provided that no more 
than 10 hours of instrument time received in an ATD may be credited 
toward the instrument time requirements of that section. In addition, 
appendix C to part 141 permits an ATD to be used for no more than 10% 
of the total flight training hour requirements of an approved course 
for an instrument rating.
    Despite the limitations on the use of ATDs that were set forth in 
the 2009 final rule, the FAA had issued hundreds of LOAs to 
manufacturers of devices that permitted ATDs (as well as ground 
trainers, PCATDs, and FTDs (levels 1 through 3)) to be used to a 
greater extent than was ultimately set forth in the regulations. Even 
after publication of the 2009 final rule, the FAA continued to issue 
LOAs in excess of the express limitations in the regulations. On 
January 2, 2014, the FAA published a notice of policy to reissue LOAs 
to reflect current regulatory requirements. 79 FR 20. The FAA concluded 
that it could not use LOAs to exceed express limitations that had been 
placed in the regulations through notice and comment rulemaking.
    As discussed further in the following two sections, the FAA is 
amending the regulations governing the use of ATDs to increase the use 
of these devices for instrument training requirements above

[[Page 71636]]

the levels established in the 2009 final rule. In developing this 
direct final rule, the FAA notes that ATD development has advanced to 
an impressive level of capability. Many ATDs can simulate weather 
conditions with variable winds, variable ceilings and visibility, 
icing, turbulence, high definition (HD) visuals, hundreds of different 
equipment failure scenarios, navigation specific to current charts and 
topography, specific navigation and communication equipment use, 
variable ``aircraft specific'' performance, and more. The visual and 
motion component of some of these devices permit maneuvers that require 
outside visual references in an aircraft to be successfully taught in 
an AATD. Many of these simulation capabilities were not possible in 
PCATDs and BATDs that the FAA approved for 10 hours of instrument time.
    The FAA believes that permitting pilots to log increased time in 
ATDs will encourage pilots to practice maneuvers until they are 
performed to an acceptable level of proficiency. In an ATD, a pilot can 
replay the training scenario, identify any improper action, and 
determine corrective actions without undue hazard or risk to persons or 
property. In this fashion, a pilot can continue to practice tasks and 
maneuvers in a safe, effective, and cost efficient means of maintaining 
proficiency.

A. Credit for Instrument Time for an Instrument Rating

    Because of the proven capability of some ATDs, the FAA is 
increasing the maximum time that may be credited in an ATD toward the 
instrument time requirements for an instrument rating under Sec.  
61.65(i). Upon the effective date of this direct final rule, a person 
will be permitted to credit a maximum of 20 hours of instrument time in 
an approved ATD toward the requirements for an instrument rating.\3\ 
Devices that qualify as AATDs will be authorized for up to 20 hours of 
instrument time. Devices that qualify as BATDs will be authorized for a 
maximum of 10 hours of instrument time. In light of this difference, 
pilots must--as required by current regulations--include in their 
logbooks the type and identification of any ATD that is used to 
accomplish aeronautical experience requirements for a certificate, 
rating, or recent flight experience. 14 CFR 61.51(b)(1)(iv). The FAA is 
retaining the existing limit of 20 hours of combined time in FFS, FTD, 
and ATDs that may be credited towards the aeronautical experience 
requirements for an instrument rating.
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    \3\ As required under Sec.  61.51(g)(4), to log instrument time 
in an ATD for the purpose of a certificate or rating, an authorized 
instructor must be present.
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B. Approved Instrument Rating Courses

    The FAA is also amending appendix C to part 141 to increase the 
limit on the amount of training hours that may be accomplished in an 
ATD in an approved course for an instrument rating. With this direct 
final rule, an ATD may be used for no more than 40 percent of the total 
flight training hour requirements for an instrument rating. The FAA 
notes that this direct final rule does not change the current provision 
in appendix C, which provides that credit for training in FFS, FTDs, 
and ATDs, if used in combination, cannot exceed 50 percent of the total 
flight training hour requirements of an instrument rating course.
    In addition, the FAA is amending Sec.  141.41 to clarify the 
existing qualification and approval requirement for FSTDs and to add 
the qualification and approval of ATDs by the FAA, which is currently 
conducted pursuant to Sec.  61.4(c).

C. View-Limiting Device

    Under Sec.  61.51(g), a person may log instrument time only for 
that flight time when the person operates an aircraft solely by 
reference to the instruments under actual or simulated conditions. When 
instrument time is accomplished in an aircraft, a pilot wears a view-
limiting device to simulate instrument conditions and ensure that he or 
she is flying without utilizing outside visual references.
    Currently, Sec.  61.65(i) requires a pilot who is accomplishing 
instrument time in an ATD to wear a view-limiting device. This 
requirement is not necessary because ATDs do not afford outside 
references, other than the simulated visual component that can be 
configured to limit the visibility level as desired. The purpose of a 
view-limiting device is to prevent a pilot (while training in an 
aircraft during flight) from having outside visual references. These 
references are not available in a training device (which is located in 
a dedicated room or indoor location). In fact, the majority of these 
devices have a simulated visual display that can be configured to be 
unavailable or represent ``limited visibility'' conditions that 
preclude any need for a view-limiting device to be worn by the student.
    In an ATD (or FSTD), a pilot has no opportunity to look outside for 
any useful visual references pertaining to the simulation. This lack of 
visual references requires the pilot to give his or her full attention 
to the flight instruments which is the goal of any instrument training 
or experience. The FAA believes that using a training device can be 
useful because it trains the pilot to focus on, appropriately scan and 
interpret the flight instruments. All training devices that incorporate 
a visual system can be configured to the desired visibility level 
required for that particular lesson. Because of this same capability, 
use of a view-limiting device is not required.
    When the FAA introduced Sec.  61.65(i)(4) requiring view-limiting 
devices in the 2009 final rule, the preamble was silent as to why a 
view-limiting device was necessary. 74 FR 42500, 42523. Based on 
comments from industry, the FAA has determined that due to the 
sophistication of the flight visual representation for ATDs and the 
capability of presenting various weather conditions appropriate to the 
training scenario, a view-limiting device is unnecessary. It is 
unnecessary to limit the view when the training device is designed to 
simulate instrument conditions.
    The FAA is revising Sec.  61.65(i)(4) to eliminate the requirement 
that pilots, accomplishing instrument time in an ATD wear a view-
limiting device. The FAA emphasizes, however, that a pilot--whether in 
an aircraft, FFS, FTD, or ATD--may log instrument time only when the 
pilot is operating solely by reference to the instruments under actual 
or simulated conditions. If a pilot is using an ATD and the device is 
providing visual references upon which the pilot is relying, this would 
not constitute instrument time under Sec.  61.51(g).

III. Effective Date for Rule Provisions

    The FAA is making the provisions of this direct final rule 
effective 45 days after the date of publication in the Federal 
Register. The FAA reiterates that a direct final rule takes effect on a 
specified date unless the FAA receives an adverse comment or notice of 
intent to file an adverse comment within the comment period.

IV. Advisory Circulars and Other Guidance Materials

    To further implement this direct final rule, the FAA is revising 
the following Advisory Circulars and FAA Orders.
    AC 61-136, FAA Approval of Basic Aviation Training Devices (BATD) 
and Advanced Aviation Training Devices (AATD), has been revised to 
accommodate all the new ATD provisions.

[[Page 71637]]

    FAA Order 8900.1, Flight Standards Information Management System, 
Vol. 11, Chapter 10, Basic and Advanced Aviation Training Device, Sec. 
1, Approval and Authorized Use under 14 CFR parts 61 and 141 guidance 
concerning ATD's is also being revised.

V. Regulatory Notices and Analyses

A. Regulatory Evaluation

    Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic 
analyses. First, Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct 
that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon 
a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation 
justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. 
L. 96-354) requires agencies to analyze the economic impact of 
regulatory changes on small entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act 
(Pub. L. 96-39) prohibits agencies from setting standards that create 
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. In 
developing U.S. standards, this Trade Act requires agencies to consider 
international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis 
of U.S. standards. Fourth, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 
(Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of 
the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that 
include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, 
local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private 
sector, of $100 million or more annually (adjusted for inflation with 
base year of 1995). This portion of the preamble summarizes the FAA's 
analysis of the economic impacts of this direct final rule.
    In conducting these analyses, FAA has determined that this direct 
final rule: (1) Has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is not an 
economically ``significant regulatory action'' as defined in section 
3(f) of Executive Order 12866, (3) is not ``significant'' as defined in 
DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures; (4) will not have a 
significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities; 
(5) will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of 
the United States; and (6) will not impose an unfunded mandate on 
state, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector by 
exceeding the threshold identified above. These analyses are summarized 
below.
    Department of Transportation DOT Order 2100.5 prescribes policies 
and procedures for simplification, analysis, and review of regulations. 
If the expected cost impact is so minimal that a proposed or final rule 
does not warrant a full evaluation, this order permits that a statement 
to that effect and the basis for it to be included in the preamble if a 
full regulatory evaluation of the costs and benefits is not prepared. 
Such a determination has been made for this direct final rule. The 
reasoning for this determination follows:
    The provisions included in this rule are either relieving or 
voluntary. The elimination of the requirement to use a view-limiting 
device is a relieving provision. The other two provisions are 
voluntary--additional ATD credit for instrument time for an instrument 
rating and additional ATD credit for approved instrument courses.
    Persons who use the new provisions will do so only if the benefit 
they will accrue from their use exceeds the costs they might incur to 
comply. There is no cost incurred if people do not choose to comply 
with these provisions. Benefits will exceed the costs of a voluntary 
rule if just one person voluntarily complies.
    Since this direct final rule will impose no new costs, provides 
regulatory relief for the use of view-limiting devices, and allows 
greater voluntary use of aviation training devices, the expected 
outcome will be a minimal impact with positive net benefits.

B. Regulatory Flexibility Determination

    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) (RFA) 
establishes ``as a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall 
endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable 
statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale 
of the businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions 
subject to regulation. To achieve this principle, agencies are required 
to solicit and consider flexible regulatory proposals and to explain 
the rationale for their actions to assure that such proposals are given 
serious consideration.'' The RFA covers a wide-range of small entities, 
including small businesses, not-for-profit organizations, and small 
governmental jurisdictions.
    Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will 
have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small 
entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must 
prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA.
    However, if an agency determines that a rule is not expected to 
have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small 
entities, section 605(b) of the RFA provides that the head of the 
agency may so certify and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not 
required. The certification must include a statement providing the 
factual basis for this determination, and the reasoning should be 
clear.
    Most of the parties affected by this rule would be small businesses 
such as flight instructors, aviation schools, and fixed base operators. 
The general lack of publicly available financial information from these 
small businesses precludes a financial analysis of these small 
businesses. While there is likely a substantial number of small 
entities affected, the provisions of this direct final rule are either 
relieving (directly provides cost relief) or voluntary (provides 
benefits or costs only if a person voluntarily chooses to use the rule 
provision).
    If an agency determines that a rulemaking will not result in a 
significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, 
the head of the agency may so certify under section 605(b) of the RFA. 
Therefore, as provided in section 605(b), the head of the FAA certifies 
that this rulemaking would not result in a significant economic impact 
on a substantial number of small entities.

C. International Trade Impact Assessment

    The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the 
Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal 
agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities 
that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United 
States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not 
considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the 
United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic 
objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a 
manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also 
requires consideration of international standards and, where 
appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.
    The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this direct final rule 
and determined that it would have only a domestic impact and therefore 
would not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the 
United States.

D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment

    Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-
4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement 
assessing the effects

[[Page 71638]]

of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may 
result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (in 1995 dollars) in 
any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, 
or by the private sector; such a mandate is deemed to be a 
``significant regulatory action.'' The FAA currently uses an inflation-
adjusted value of $151.0 million in lieu of $100 million.
    This direct final rule does not contain such a mandate. Therefore, 
the requirements of Title II of the Act do not apply.

E. Paperwork Reduction Act

    The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires 
that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information 
collection burdens imposed on the public. The FAA has determined that 
there is no new requirement for information collection associated with 
this direct final rule.

F. International Compatibility and Cooperation

    In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to ICAO 
Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. 
The FAA has reviewed the corresponding ICAO Standards and Recommended 
Practices and has identified no differences with these regulations.

G. Environmental Analysis

    FAA Order 1050.1E identifies FAA actions that are categorically 
excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or 
environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy 
Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has 
determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical 
exclusion identified in paragraph 312f and involves no extraordinary 
circumstances.

H. Administrative Procedure Act

    An agency may find good cause to exempt a rule from certain 
provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553), 
including notice of proposed rulemaking and the opportunity for public 
comment, if it is determined to be unnecessary, impracticable, or 
contrary to the public interest. This rule relieves regulatory 
restrictions by permitting persons to credit a maximum of 20 hours of 
instrument time in an approved ATD toward the requirements for an 
instrument rating under Sec.  61.65(i). This rule also permits an ATD 
to be used for no more than 40 percent of the total flight training 
hour requirements for an instrument rating under 14 CFR part 141. 
Finally, this rule eliminates the requirement that pilots, 
accomplishing instrument time in an ATD, wear a view-limiting device.
    Therefore, the FAA finds good cause to publish this action as a 
direct final rule. Please see the ``Direct Final Rule Procedure'' 
section for more information.

VII. Executive Order Determinations

A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism

    The FAA has analyzed this rule under the principles and criteria of 
Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The agency has determined that this 
action would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the 
relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the 
distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of 
government, and, therefore, would not have Federalism implications.

B. Executive Order 13211, Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy 
Supply, Distribution, or Use

    The FAA analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions 
Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, 
Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). The agency has determined that it 
would not be a ``significant energy action'' under the executive order 
and would not be likely to have a significant adverse effect on the 
supply, distribution, or use of energy.

C. Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory 
Cooperation

    Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory 
Cooperation, (77 FR 26413, May 4, 2012) promotes international 
regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, 
safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and to reduce, 
eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory 
requirements. The FAA has analyzed this action under the policies and 
agency responsibilities of Executive Order 13609, and has determined 
that this action would have no effect on international regulatory 
cooperation.

VIII. Additional Information

A. Comments Invited

    The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this 
rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. The agency 
also invites comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, 
or federalism impacts that might result from adopting this document. 
The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the rule, 
explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting 
data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, 
commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if 
comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one 
time.
    The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well 
as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA 
personnel concerning this rulemaking. Before acting on this rule, the 
FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing 
date for comments. The agency may change this rule in light of the 
comments it receives.
    Proprietary or Confidential Business Information: Commenters should 
not file proprietary or confidential business information in the 
docket. Such information must be sent or delivered directly to the 
person identified in the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT section of 
this document, and marked as proprietary or confidential. If submitting 
information on a disk or CD ROM, mark the outside of the disk or CD 
ROM, and identify electronically within the disk or CD ROM the specific 
information that is proprietary or confidential.
    Under 14 CFR 11.35(b), if the FAA is aware of proprietary 
information filed with a comment, the agency does not place it in the 
docket. It is held in a separate file to which the public does not have 
access, and the FAA places a note in the docket that it has received 
it. If the FAA receives a request to examine or copy this information, 
it treats it as any other request under the Freedom of Information Act 
(5 U.S.C. 552). The FAA processes such a request under Department of 
Transportation procedures found in 49 CFR part 7.

B. Availability of Rulemaking Documents

    An electronic copy of rulemaking documents may be obtained from the 
Internet by--
     Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (http://www.regulations.gov);
     Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at 
http://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies or
     Accessing the Government Printing Office's Web page at 
http://www.fdsys.gov.
    Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal 
Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence 
Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or

[[Page 71639]]

by calling (202) 267-9680. Commenters must identify the docket or 
notice number of this rulemaking.
    All documents the FAA considered in developing this rule, including 
economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed from the 
Internet through the Federal eRulemaking Portal referenced above.

C. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act

    The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 
(SBREFA) requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for 
information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations 
within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this 
document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under 
the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT heading at the beginning of the 
preamble. To find out more about SBREFA on the Internet, visit http://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.

List of Subjects

14 CFR Part 61

    Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Teachers.

14 CFR Part 141

    Airmen, Educational facilities, reporting and recordkeeping 
requirements, Schools.

The Amendment

    In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation 
Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal 
Regulations, as follows:

PART 61--CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND 
INSTRUCTORS

0
1. The authority citation for part 61 continues to read as follows:

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 
44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.


0
2. Amend Sec.  61.65 by revising paragraph (i) and adding paragraph (j) 
to read as follows:


Sec.  61.65  Instrument rating requirements.

* * * * *
    (i) Use of an aviation training device. A maximum of 20 hours of 
instrument time received in an aviation training device may be credited 
for the instrument time requirements of this section if--
    (1) The device is approved and authorized by the FAA;
    (2) An authorized instructor provides the instrument time in the 
device; and
    (3) The FAA approved the instrument training and instrument tasks 
performed in the device.
    (j) A person may not credit more than 20 total hours of instrument 
time in a flight simulator, flight training device, aviation training 
device, or combination toward the instrument time requirements of this 
section.

PART 141--PILOT SCHOOLS

0
3. The authority citation for part 141 continues to read as follows:

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 
44709, 44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.


0
4. Revise Sec.  141.41 to read as follows:


Sec.  141.41  Flight simulators, flight training devices, aviation 
training devices, and training aids.

    An applicant for a pilot school certificate or a provisional pilot 
school certificate must show that its flight simulators, flight 
training devices, aviation training devices, training aids, and 
equipment meet the following requirements:
    (a) Flight simulators and flight training devices. Each flight 
simulator and flight training device used to obtain flight training 
credit in an approved pilot training course curriculum must be:
    (1) Qualified under part 60 of the chapter; and
    (2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneuvers.
    (b) Aviation training devices. Each aviation training device used 
to obtain flight training credit in an approved pilot training course 
curriculum must be evaluated, qualified, and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (c) Training aids and equipment. Each training aid, including any 
audiovisual aid, projector, tape recorder, mockup, chart, or aircraft 
component listed in the approved training course outline, must be 
accurate and appropriate to the course for which it is used.

0
5. Amend Appendix C to part 141 by revising paragraph (b) in section 4 
to read as follows:

Appendix C to Part 141--Instrument Rating Course

* * * * *
    4. Flight training. * * *
    (b) For the use of flight simulators, flight training devices, or 
aviation training devices--
    (1) The course may include training in a flight simulator, flight 
training device, or aviation training device provided it is 
representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets 
the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an 
authorized instructor.
    (2) Credit for training in a flight simulator that meets the 
requirements of Sec.  141.41(a) cannot exceed 50 percent of the total 
flight training hour requirements of the course or of this section, 
whichever is less.
    (3) Credit for training in a flight training device that meets the 
requirements of Sec.  141.41(a), an aviation training device that meets 
the requirements of Sec.  141.41(b), or a combination of these devices 
cannot exceed 40 percent of the total flight training hour requirements 
of the course or of this section, whichever is less.
    (4) Credit for training in flight simulators, flight training 
devices, and aviation training devices if used in combination, cannot 
exceed 50 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the 
course or of this section, whichever is less. However, credit for 
training in a flight training device or aviation training device cannot 
exceed the limitation provided for in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
* * * * *

    Issued in Washington, DC, under the authority of 49 U.S.C. 
106(f), 44701(a)(5), and 44703(a), on November 28, 2014.
Michael P. Huerta,
Administrator.
[FR Doc. 2014-28485 Filed 12-2-14; 8:45 am]
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